pt 2

The nurse is initiating thyroid hormone therapy for a client. What symptom related to therapy should the nurse teach the client to report immediately? A) Nausea B) Fever C) Angina D) Dizziness

C) Angina

Persons who are taking anticholinergic drugs are at high risk for: 1. cardiac arrhythmias. 2. dry mouth. 3. orthostatic hypotension. 4. slurred speech.

3. orthostatic hypotension.

To prevent injury, a gerontological nurse advises an older adult who is taking tricyclic antidepressants to: 1. eat a diet high in roughage. 2. get an additional night light. 3. provide lubrication for the oral mucosa. 4. stand up slowly from sitting or lying positions.

4. stand up slowly from sitting or lying positions.

A nurse is caring for a client with paraplegia. Which of the following important measures should the nurse follow when providing care for this client? A) Encourage the use of high-top sneakers to prevent foot drop. B) Use a trapeze bar to help in maintaining proper body alignment. C) Use trochanter rolls to assist the client when changing positions. D) Ask the client to avoid breathing deeply because it may lead to exertion.

A) Encourage the use of high-top sneakers to prevent foot drop.

The physician has ordered an endoscopic procedure for a client to directly visualize the stomach and duodenum for tumors. The nurse knows that which test would most likely be scheduled? A) Gastroscopy B) Esophagoscopy C) Colonoscopy D) Sigmoidoscopy

A) Gastroscopy

The nurse administers an intermediate-acting insulin for a client with juvenile diabetes. Which of the following might be ordered? A) Humulin N B) Humulin R C) Ultralente D) Glargine (Lantus)

A) Humulin N

The nurse is administering amitriptyline (Elavil) to a client with diabetes. Which of the following side effects of this disease is this medication used to treat? A) Peripheral neuropathy B) Autonomic neuropathy C) Retinopathy D) Kidney disease

A) Peripheral neuropathy

25. A mill worker with injuries to the spinal cord is under care at a healthcare facility and is now anxious about the paralysis that he has experienced. What would be the consequence of a transection of the spinal cord? A) Permanent paralysis B) Chronic headaches C) Confusion D) Loss of renal function

A) Permanent paralysis

A nurse is attending a client in labor and is monitoring the duration and frequency of her uterine contractions. The client asks the nurse how the body knows how to give birth. Which hormone intensifies the contractions of the uterus and enables the uterus to push out the fetus? A) Prolactin B) Melanocyte C) Oxytocin D) Insulin

A) Prolactin

The nurse is reviewing with the new nurses assigned to the emergency department the signs and symptoms of life-threatening anaphylaxis. Based on this information what is the first step in management of anaphylaxis? A) Stabilize B) Identify the toxin C) Reverse the effect of the toxin D) Eliminate the toxin

A) Stabilize

The nurse is preparing a diet for a client with diabetes using the glycemic index (GI). According to this index, which of the following would most likely raise the client's blood glucose levels? A) White bread B) Oatmeal C) Bacon D) Cheese

A) White bread

A nurse is caring for a client with goiter. Which element deficiency should the nurse identify in the client's condition? Select one: A. Iodine B. Potassium C. Sodium D. Iron

A. Iodine

A nurse is caring for a client with a 5-month-old baby. Which is a benefit of breastfeeding that the nurse should highlight when educating the client? Select one: A. It decreases the risk of Crohn's disease. B. It decreases the chances of the baby being anemic. C. It decreases the incidence of renal problems. D. It decreases the risk of hepatic disorders.

A. It decreases the risk of Crohn's disease.

A nurse is administering a subcutaneous injection to a client. What is the maximum volume that the nurse may administer by this route? Select one: A. 1 ml B. 2.5 ml C. 0.05 ml D. 3 ml

A. 1 ml

Which client is most likely to develop kyphosis? Select one: A. A client with osteoporosis B. A client with emphysema C. A client with hypertension D. A client with leukemia

A. A client with osteoporosis

The nurse is teaching a student nurse the use of mechanical ventilators for clients in ventilatory failure. Which of the following is an accurate teaching point regarding this procedure? Select one: A. A mechanical ventilator is a machine that can be connected to the client via an ET. B. A mechanical ventilator is a machine that forces carbon dioxide into the lungs. C. Mechanical ventilation is used if a client can achieve adequate tissue oxygenation. D. In all settings, the nurse is responsible for adjusting the settings on the ventilator.

A. A mechanical ventilator is a machine that can be connected to the client via an ET.

The nurse caring for children with leukemia knows that which of the following is the most common kind of cancer in children under 15 years of age? Select one: A. Acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) B. Chronic lymphoid leukemia (CLL) C. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) D. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)

A. Acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL)

A 28-year-old female client presents at the emergency department with a rapid onset of fever and chills, with flank pain, pyuria, nausea, vomiting, and headache. Laboratory results indicate bacteriuria, WBCs, and casts. What condition should the nurse suspect? Select one: A. Acute pyelonephritis B. Glomerulonephritis C. Interstitial cystitis D. Chronic cystitis

A. Acute pyelonephritis

The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old girl with burns covering two-thirds of her body caused by a home fire. Which of the following are chief nursing concerns in treating this client? Select all answers that apply. Select one or more: A. Alleviating pain B. Restoration of fluid and electrolyte balance C. Prevention of contractures D. Repair of damage E. Applying pressure garments

A. Alleviating pain B. Restoration of fluid and electrolyte balance

The nurse is educating older adults in a senior citizens center about the signs and symptoms of emphysema. Which of the following is the first symptom of this respiratory alteration? Select one: A. Difficulty breathing following exertion B. Leaning forward instead of lying down C. Barrel chest D. Contracting the neck muscles when breathing

A. Difficulty breathing following exertion

A 25-year-old client has been diagnosed with a tubal pregnancy (ectopic pregnancy). Which of the following are factors that predispose a woman to this type of pregnancy? Select all answers that apply. Select one or more: A. Endocrine imbalances B. Maternal tobacco use C. Diabetes mellitus D. History of abortions E. Pelvic infections

A. Endocrine imbalances E. Pelvic infections

An elderly client with a diagnosis of chronic bronchitis is being treated with scheduled and PRN administration of albuterol, an inhaled bronchodilator. After administering this drug, which of the client's vital signs should the nurse monitor closely because of potential adverse effects of this drug? Select all that apply. Select one or more: A. Heart rate B. Temperature C. Respiratory rate D. Oxygen saturation E. Blood pressure

A. Heart rate E. Blood pressure

The nurse is reviewing a variety of therapeutic diets with a group of nursing students. The nurse asks the student nurses to identify the related health condition for which a high-protein diet would be prescribed by the primary care provider. Which would be the best response by the student nurse for the health condition that a high-protein diet would be prescribed? Select one: A. Hepatitis B. Seizure disorder in a child C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hyperlipidemia

A. Hepatitis

The nurse caring for high-risk newborns knows that infections that are present in the woman during pregnancy or delivery can adversely affect her fetus. The nurse uses the acronym TORCH as a reminder of the most serious infections. Which of the following infections are represented by this acronym? Select all that apply. Select one or more: A. Hepatitis B. Tuberculosis C. Cytomegalovirus D. Measles E. Syphilis F. Herpes simplex virus

A. Hepatitis C. Cytomegalovirus E. Syphilis F. Herpes simplex virus

A client who is a heavy smoker is living in a high-altitude area. A red blood cell count confirms a diagnosis of secondary polycythemia. What condition causes this blood disorder? Select one: A. Hypoxia B. Lung cancer C. Hypertension D. Leukemia

A. Hypoxia

A nurse is caring for a client with leukemia. Which of the following measures should the nurse consider when caring for this client? Select one: A. Instruct the client to use only a soft toothbrush. B. Take preventive measures against diarrhea in the client. C. Encourage an increase in dietary iron intake. D. Instruct the client about taking cyanocobalamin injections.

A. Instruct the client to use only a soft toothbrush.

A newly diagnosed diabetic is discussing the disease with the nurse. The client asks about the hormones that might affect diabetes. Which is considered client teaching information about somatostatin? Select one: A. It inhibits the release of insulin. B. It stimulates the breakdown of fats and proteins. C. It releases cortisol to help with stress. D. It stimulates the release of a hormone.

A. It inhibits the release of insulin.

The nurse is preparing a client for breast biopsy of a lump. The nurse explains that a needle with a cutting edge will be inserted into a lump and rotated to remove a core sample. What type of breast biopsy is this client undergoing? Select one: A. Needle biopsy B. Incisional biopsy C. Aspiration D. Excisional biopsy

A. Needle biopsy

A nurse is caring for a client with aplastic anemia with a blood test report indicating a decrease in the RBCs, WBCs, and platelet count. Which of the following terms is used to describe the condition? Select one: A. Pancytopenia B. Thrombocytopenia C. Granulocytopenia D. Leukopenia

A. Pancytopenia

A nurse is assessing a newborn baby boy. Which of the following findings indicates a strong possibility of congenital defects in the newborn? Select one: A. Presence of two blood vessels on the umbilical cord B. Enlargement and darker pigmentation of the scrotum C. Absence of indentation over the xiphoid process during breathing D. Presence of cyanotic discoloration of the newborn's arms and legs

A. Presence of two blood vessels on the umbilical cord

The husband of a pregnant woman in labor is coaching her to perform breathing exercises to distract her from the pain. Which of the four P's of labor would the parents be? Select one: A. Psyche B. Powers C. Passage D. Passenger

A. Psyche

A client in the first stage of labor has an episode of bright-red bleeding. What is the best action for the nurse to take? Select one: A. Report any bleeding at once. B. Inject vitamin K, as ordered, to stop bleeding. C. Perform a vaginal examination per protocol. D. Perform an ultrasound examination, as ordered.

A. Report any bleeding at once.

A client has been admitted to the healthcare agency with aspiration pneumonia. Based on this information, what portion of the lower respiratory system is more susceptible to aspiration of fluids or foreign objects? Select one: A. Right bronchus B. Left bronchioles C. Right bronchioles D. Left bronchus

A. Right bronchus

The nurse performing a physical assessment of a client with COPD documents the alteration: "bradypnea." Which of the following describes this condition? Select one: A. Slower than normal respirations B. Difficulty breathing while lying down C. Labored or difficult breathing D. Increase in depth of breaths

A. Slower than normal respirations

The neonatal nurse knows the challenges that face newborns when adapting to their new world. What is one of the first interventions performed during the delivery to ensure a safe transition? Select one: A. Suctioning the neonate's airways B. Assessing for congenital defects C. Testing the neonate's reflexes D. Facilitating maternal bonding

A. Suctioning the neonate's airways

A client visits the healthcare facility for information on tubal ligation. Which of the following should the nurse inform the client? Select one: A. The client needs only a minor dressing. B. It is a temporary sterilization technique. C. The client can drive home after surgery. D. Only one nonabsorbable stitch is needed.

A. The client needs only a minor dressing.

A 20-year-old client gave birth to a baby boy during the 43rd week of gestation. Which of the following might the nurse observe in the newborn during routine assessment? Select one: A. The newborn may look wrinkled and old at birth. B. The newborn may have short nails and hair. C. The testes in the child may be undescended. D. The infant may have excess of lanugo and vernix caseosa.

A. The newborn may look wrinkled and old at birth.

The nurse performing a postpartum assessment on a client elicits the Homan's sign. For what condition is the nurse assessing? Select one: A. Thrombophlebitis B. Soft, boggy uterus C. Urinary distention D. Hematoma

A. Thrombophlebitis

The nurse is reading the laboratory results of a client with a blood disorder and notes there is a positive direct Coombs' test. Which of the following conditions might this test result signify? Select one: A. Transfusion reaction B. Thrombocytosis C. Polycythemia vera D. Leukocytosis

A. Transfusion reaction

There are different methods of transportation of fluids and other molecules through the body. Based on this information, what would be the most accurate description for the nurse to share about filtration? Select one: A. Transport of water and dissolved materials through a membrane from an area of higher pressure to lower pressure B. Movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration C. Most important mechanism by which nutrients and waste pass across the cell membrane D. Water moves from a hypotonic solution to a hypertonic solution

A. Transport of water and dissolved materials through a membrane from an area of higher pressure to lower pressure

The nurse is caring for a client who is taking haloperidol (Haldol) for dementia. For which of the following conditions related to this drug should the nurse monitor? Select one: A. Urinary retention B. Constipation C. Joint stiffness D. Respiratory distress

A. Urinary retention

The nurse is caring for a client with head trauma who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following is normal ICP? A) 2 to 10 mm Hg B) 4 to 13 mm Hg C) 5 to 15 mm Hg D) 6 to 18 mm Hg

B) 4 to 13 mm Hg

The nurse is aware that clients with tactile difficulties may be in danger because they cannot react appropriately to external injuries or internal disorders. Which of the following clients should the nurse monitor for tactile sense disorders? A) A client after a myocardial infarction B) A client who has uncontrolled diabetes C) A client with renal failure D) A client with rheumatoid arthritis

B) A client who has uncontrolled diabetes

The nurse is caring for a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), also known as Lou Gehrig's disease. Which of the following is a characteristic of this disease? A) There are periods of remission with ALS when no symptoms occur. B) ALS always progresses to respiratory dysfunction and death. C) There are new therapies that will lessen or halt the progress of ALS. D) Clients with ALS experience intellectual and sensory deficits near term.

B) ALS always progresses to respiratory dysfunction and death.

A client is diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism associated with osteomalacia. When caring for this client, the nurse should monitor the level of which mineral? A) Potassium B) Calcium C) Sodium D) Magnesium

B) Calcium

A client is diagnosed with type I diabetes. Which of the following accurately describes a consideration related to the occurrence of this disorder? A) It usually occurs in clients older than 30 years. B) Classic symptoms are nearly always present. C) Hereditary factors are usually present. D) The client is usually overweight.

B) Classic symptoms are nearly always present.

A client is to undergo endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography. Before the procedure, what client education should the nurse provide? A) Procedure will be done under general anesthesia. B) Fullness and pressure may be felt in the stomach. C) Endoscopic tube may hinder normal breathing. D) Procedure will take 2 to 3 hours.

B) Fullness and pressure may be felt in the stomach.

The nurse is explaining to the nursing students the relationship between "releasing" hormones and "inhibiting" hormones. What is the best answer by the nursing students of which part of the body is responsible for releasing hormones that either inhibit release or promote release of other hormones from the anterior lobe of the pituitary? A) Endocrine glands B) Hypothalamus C) Parathyroid gland D) Adrenal medulla

B) Hypothalamus

A client is diagnosed with hypocalcemia. Which of the following conditions most commonly causes this condition? A) Cancer B) Parathyroid hormone deficit C) Primary hyperparathyroidism D) Immobilization

B) Parathyroid hormone deficit

A 25-year-old client with symptoms of excessive thirst and an increase in urine is diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. For which of the following client's hormone levels should the nurse monitor? A) Thyroxine B) Vasopressin C) Insulin D) Glucagon

B) Vasopressin

A 4-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of leukemia. The mother is very upset and tells the nurse that the child has not wet the bed in 18 months. She asks the nurse why all of a sudden the child is wetting the bed. What is the best explanation for this behavior by the nurse to the mother? Select one: A. "The medications your child is receiving can cause incontinence and once the medication is discontinued it will no longer be an issue." B. "A child's behavior may go backward to an earlier stage of development during an acute illness." C. "Don't worry about it; I will get the nursing assistant to change the bed right now." D. "Sometimes children get a little nervous when they are admitted to the hospital and might have one accident."

B. "A child's behavior may go backward to an earlier stage of development during an acute illness."

The nurse is reviewing with a group of high school students that the hypothalamus, pituitary gland and gonads all contribute to hormonal regulation of the female reproductive system. What would be the best information for the nurse to include in the education session about the main effects of the gonadotropic hormones? 1. Stimulation of the formation of ova 2. Stimulation of the secretion of hormones from sex organs 3. Simulation of the development of secondary female sexual characteristics 4. Stimulation and functions primarily during pregnancy Select one: A. 2, 3, 4 B. 1, 2, 3 C. 1, 2, 4 D. 1, 3, 4

B. 1, 2, 3

A nurse at a health care facility is caring for a client who requires an artificial airway. The use of an oral airway would be indicated for which of the following clients? Select one: A. A client who has rhinosinusitis. B. A client who is under general anesthesia. C. A client who has an upper airway obstruction that cannot be cleared. D. A client who has upper airway secretions.

B. A client who is under general anesthesia.

The nurse educator is reviewing the different enteral tube feeding devices for nutritional support with their placement sites with a group of nursing students. Which student nurse response demonstrates an understanding of the proper placement of a button feeding device? Select one: A. Placed through the skin into the stomach B. A small silicone device used in place of a gastrostomy tube C. Inserted through the nose into the stomach D. Devise placed with an endoscopic instrument

B. A small silicone device used in place of a gastrostomy tube

The nurse is reviewing the process of oocyte maturation and ovulation with a client. What occurs during ovulation of the ovarian cycle that the nurse should include in the teaching session with the client? Select one: A. Preparation of the uterus for implantation of an ovum. B. About day 14, a surge of hormones cause the ovum to burst through the ovary. C. Under the influence of follicle-stimulating hormone, several follicles begin to ripen, and the ovum with each begins to mature. D. The empty ruptured graafian follicle becomes the corpus luteum and begins to secrete progesterone and estrogen.

B. About day 14, a surge of hormones cause the ovum to burst through the ovary.

A nurse is caring for a client with tuberculosis (TB). What measure should be employed when caring for the client? Select one: A. Dispose the infectious waste of the client in biohazardous waste receptacles. B. Ask the client to eat a diet rich in protein and vitamins A and C. C. Instruct the client to keep the doors of the room closed at night. D. Take precautions to prevent transmission through the feco-oral route.

B. Ask the client to eat a diet rich in protein and vitamins A and C.

The nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with abruptio placentae based on the client's history, physical examination, and laboratory studies. What nursing interventions should be initiated immediately? Select one: A. Continuously monitor the fetus even if a fetal heart rate is not present. B. Observe the fundus for changes in shape or movement upward. C. Identify the lower limit of the fundus and mark it on the woman's abdomen. D. Monitor and report decrease in, or movement downward, of abdominal girth.

B. Observe the fundus for changes in shape or movement upward.

The nurse is monitoring a client who has leukemia. When performing a physical assessment, what condition would the nurse document as a sign of abnormal bleeding? Select one: A. Cyanosis B. Petechiae C. Headaches D. Jaundice

B. Petechiae

A client who has been admitted to the healthcare center has been diagnosed with emphysema. The arterial blood gas results reveal respiratory acidosis. Based on this information, what should the nurse explain to the client that is the cause of the respiratory acidosis? Select one: A. Too little carbon dioxide in the blood B. Excess carbon dioxide in the blood C. Inflammation of the pleura D. Presence of food in the respiratory passage

B. Excess carbon dioxide in the blood

A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old child with laryngotracheobronchitis. Which of the following is important to include in the client's nursing care plan? Select one: A. Precautions should be taken when handling the child. B. Expectorants should be administered to loosen secretions, as ordered. C. Signs of acid-base imbalance should be monitored. D. Low-sodium, high-calorie diet should be given, as ordered.

B. Expectorants should be administered to loosen secretions, as ordered.

A nursing supervisor is reviewing a clinical incident in which a client received a double dose of an ordered anticoagulant. The incident occurred because a nurse was unaware that the trade name and the generic name refer to the same drug. Which of the following statement is true of generic drug names? Select one: A. A generic drug name is more reliable than the trade name. B. Generic names often refer to the chemical makeup of the drug. C. Generic names vary widely between jurisdictions and markets. D. The names of generic drugs are usually capitalized

B. Generic names often refer to the chemical makeup of the drug.

The nurse is describing the three phases of the uterine cycle with a client. What occurs during the secretory phase of the uterine cycle that the nurse should include in a teaching session with the client? Select one: A. Maturation of an ovum B. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates and hormonal levels fall. C. While the ovarian follicles are producing increased amounts of estrogen, the endometrium prepares for possible fertilization with pronounced growth. D. Withdrawal of hormones causes the endometrial cells to change, and menstruation begins.

B. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates and hormonal levels fall.

A nurse is caring for a client who has been having seizures secondary to alcohol withdrawal. The nurse uses an oral airway in order to maintain the client's airway. What should the nurse do in order to open the airway and facilitate the insertion of the oral airway in the client? Select one: A. Open the client's mouth using a gloved finger and thumb. B. Position the client supine with neck hyperextended. C. Hold the airway so that the curved tip points upward. D. Perform oral suctioning if necessary.

B. Position the client supine with neck hyperextended.

A nurse is reviewing the actions of hydrochloric acid (HCl), gastrin, intrinsic factor, cholecystokinin, and pancreatic juice in the process of digestion to a high school group of girls. What information about the process of digestion is important to share about cholecystokinin with this group? Select one: A. Activates the gallbladder to release bile and breaks fat droplets into smaller particles B. Produced by the parietal cells in the gastric mucosa, it is required for absorption of vitamin B12 C. Stimulates the pancreas to secrete enzymes D. Stimulates the secretion of hydrochloric acid and pepsinogen

B. Produced by the parietal cells in the gastric mucosa, it is required for absorption of vitamin B12

The nurse is reviewing with a group of high school students that the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and gonads all contribute to hormonal regulation of the female reproductive system. Based on this information, what is the specific hormone that functions primarily during pregnancy? Select one: A. Estrone B. Progesterone C. Estriol D. Estradiol

B. Progesterone

The nurse is reviewing the role of the mammary glands in the reproductive process with a childbirth class. Which hormones should the nurse include in the discussion that are responsible for the stimulation to produce and release milk after childbirth? Select All that Apply Select one or more: A. Leutenizing hormone B. Prolactin C. Calcitonin D. Oxytocin

B. Prolactin D. Oxytocin

A nurse is caring for a client with severe edema who has been prescribed moderate sodium restriction. Which quantity of sodium intake should be recommended to the client? Select one: A. Recommend more than 4,000 mg per day B. Recommend 1,000 to 2,000 mg per day C. Recommend 3,000 to 4,000 mg per day D. Recommend 250 to 500 mg per day

B. Recommend 1,000 to 2,000 mg per day

A 26-year old mother of three children tells the nurse at her annual check-up that she does not want to have any more children; however, her religion forbids the use of contraceptive devices. Which of the following methods would be the best option for this client? Select one: A. Hormonal method B. Rhythm method C. Intrauterine device D. Diaphragm

B. Rhythm method

The nurse is reviewing a variety of therapeutic diets with a group of nursing students. The nurse asks the student nurses to identify the related health condition for which a high-fat diet would be prescribed by the primary care provider. Which would be the best response by the student nurse for the health condition that a ketogenic diet would be prescribed? Select one: A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease B. Seizure disorder in a child C. Hyperlipidemia D. Diabetes mellitus

B. Seizure disorder in a child

A nurse is explaining the difference between an acquired disorder and a genetic disorder to a couple during genetic counseling. Which of the following would the nurse use as examples of genetic diseases? Select all that apply. Select one or more: A. Fetal alcohol syndrome B. Sickle cell disease C. Neurofibromatosis D. Down syndrome E. Tay-Sachs disease F. Neonatal abstinence syndrome

B. Sickle cell disease C. Neurofibromatosis D. Down syndrome E. Tay-Sachs disease

A 28-year-old client is concerned that her day-old infant has some blood-stained discharge from the vagina. Which of the following should the nurse tell the client is the cause for the discharge? Select one: A. Injury during delivery procedure B. Sudden absence of the mother's hormones C. Lack of vitamin K in the newborn baby D. Medication used by the nursing mother

B. Sudden absence of the mother's hormones

A 25-year-old client with complaints of breast tenderness, mood swings, and backache before the onset of menses is diagnosed with premenstrual syndrome (PMS). What instruction should the nurse provide to the client to help relieve the symptoms of PMS? Select one: A. Drink a cup of coffee early every morning. B. Take a prescribed dose of diuretic medications. C. Maintain a low-salt diet during menstrual periods. D. Increase the dietary protein and sugar intake.

B. Take a prescribed dose of diuretic medications.

The nurse is caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) following cardiac bypass surgery. Which of the following is a characteristic of this disorder? Select one: A. It is a state of over oxygenation following a serious illness. B. The mortality rate for this disorder is greater than 50% C. The disorder is not curable and is treated with palliative measures. D. Mechanical ventilation exacerbates the condition.

B. The mortality rate for this disorder is greater than 50%

A nurse needs to administer a prescribed heparin injection to a client subcutaneously. Which of the following syringes ensures accuracy when administering heparin subcutaneously? Select one: A. Conventional syringe B. Tuberculin syringe C. Insulin syringe D. Syringe calibrated in 0.2 ml increments

B. Tuberculin syringe

Which of the following clients would be most susceptible to experiencing ketoacidosis? A) A client with type II diabetes B) A client with adrenal insufficiency C) A client with type I diabetes D) A client with hypothyroidism

C) A client with type I diabetes

The nurse helping to deliver newborns institutes measures to protect the mother and infant as well as the staff from infection or disease. Which of the following accurately describes a form of infection/disease control utilized in the delivery or birthing room? Select one: A. The first vaccination against hepatitis C is given. B. Vitamin K is given to prevent bleeding problems. C. Eye prophylaxis is used for infants born to mothers with diabetes mellitus. D. Universal Precautions are used when handling the baby or caring for the mother.

B. Vitamin K is given to prevent bleeding problems.

The nurse is explaining to the client that glands associated with the endocrine system have many actions. Which information best describes the role of the parathyroid gland to the client by the nurse? 1. Regulates the amount of calcium and phosphorus in the blood 2. Activates vitamin D 3. Controls the body's rate of metabolism 4. Affects calcium storage A) 1, 2 B) 1, 3 C) 2, 4 D) 3, 4

C) 2, 4

A nurse is assisting a neurosurgeon who is monitoring a client's intracranial pressure (ICP) in the intensive care unit. Which measure is most critical in monitoring the client's intracranial pressure? A) Monitor and document the client's vital and neurologic signs. B) Stop immediately if there is a break in the ICP monitoring system. C) Avoid moving the client's head up or down without physician orders. D) Observe the client's general appearance as well as mobility level.

C) Avoid moving the client's head up or down without physician orders.

The nurse caring for clients with endocrine disorders knows that the endocrine system is intricately involved in regulating nearly all body processes. What hormone aids the transport of glucose into cells and decreases blood glucose levels? A) Testosterone B) Cortisol C) Insulin D) Thyroid hormone

C) Insulin

The nurse is counseling a 30-year-old woman diagnosed with paraplegia following a recent rock climbing accident. Which of the following would the nurse include in a teaching plan? A) The use of birth control pills is recommended. B) Menses usually resume within 1 year following the injury. C) Tampons are not recommended for use and can be dangerous. D) Labor and childbirth are easier and safer because of the paralysis.

C) Tampons are not recommended for use and can be dangerous.

The nurse is preparing a client who is undergoing ERCP to facilitate the passage of stones in the common bile duct. Which of the following is a teaching point for this client? A) Tell the client that the procedure will be performed under general anesthesia. B) Tell the client that oxygen will be given because the endoscope will hinder breathing. C) Tell the client to avoid aspirin, ibuprofen, or anticoagulants 5 to 7 days before the test. D) Tell the client that the procedure will take 1 to 2 hours to perform.

C) Tell the client to avoid aspirin, ibuprofen, or anticoagulants 5 to 7 days before the test.

A male client visits a fertility clinic after one year of attempting unsuccessfully to impregnate his wife. Which of the following is a risk factor associated with male infertility? Select one: A. Sperm density about 20 million/mL B. Morphology of sperm within normal limits C. Azospermia or oligospermia D. 2 to 5 mL of semen ejaculated

C. Azospermia or oligospermia

A pregnant woman undergoing amniocentesis asks her nurse why the baby needs this fluid. What would be an accurate response from the nurse? Select one: A. "Amniotic fluid supplies the food your baby needs to grow." B. "Amniotic fluid provides fetal blood circulation." C. "Amniotic fluid cushions your baby to prevent injury." D. "Amniotic fluid keeps the fetus from moving freely inside it to prevent injury."

C. "Amniotic fluid cushions your baby to prevent injury."

A client is diagnosed with pernicious anemia. The client wants to know the reason for his condition. What would be the best response by the nurse to the client? Select one: A. "Lack of amino acids causes pernicious anemia." B. "Lack of starch molecules causes pernicious anemia." C. "Lack of vitamin B12 causes pernicious anemia." D. "Lack of vitamin K causes pernicious anemia."

C. "Lack of vitamin B12 causes pernicious anemia."

The nurse is performing toenail care for clients in a long-term care facility. For which of the following clients would this most likely be contraindicated? Select one: A. A client with arthritis B. A client with stomach ulcers C. A client with diabetes D. A client with hypertension

C. A client with diabetes

During a routine medical examination of a 12-year-old client, the nurse notices that the client's fasting sugar level is above 160 mg/dL. After further evaluation, the client is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 1. Which of the following teachings should the nurse provide the family when caring for this client? Select one: A. Diabetics are at a higher risk for gaining weight. B. Self-administration of insulin should be discouraged. C. Adolescent clients often rebel against treatment. D. Diabetics should avoid frequent physical exertion.

C. Adolescent clients often rebel against treatment.

A nurse is caring for a female client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following nursing care measures should be included in the rehabilitation care plan of the client? Select one: A. Encourage the client to perform vigorous physical exercise. B. Provide the client with compression appliances. C. Assist the client in doing spirometry exercises. D. Provide the client with body wraps.

C. Assist the client in doing spirometry exercises.

An intrauterine device has been inserted into a client as a requested birth control method. Which of the following is an advantage of intrauterine devices (IUDs)? Select one: A. Decreased incidence of tubal pregnancies B. Decreased incidence of pelvic inflammatory disease C. Continuous protection without client's active participation D. Protection against sexually transmitted infections

C. Continuous protection without client's active participation

An elderly client is admitted to a healthcare facility with shortness of breath. An x-ray study indicates left lower lobe pneumonia. The client asks the nurse why the elderly are more susceptible to pneumonia. What would be the best explanation by the nurse to the client about the reason that the elderly are more susceptible to pneumonia? Select one: A. Chest wall becomes stiffer and the lungs cannot expand B. Tar build-up in the lungs C. Decreased secretion of mucus in the respiratory lining D. Change in ration of the pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide

C. Decreased secretion of mucus in the respiratory lining

A woman is undergoing testing for infertility. Her healthcare provider orders Rubin's test. The nurse explains to the client that this test is ordered to: Select one: A. Determine whether the uterine lining is normal B. Test vaginal and cervical secretions C. Determine patency of the oviducts D. Look for problems within the uterus

C. Determine patency of the oviducts

The urinary system influences homeostasis. Based on this information, what would be the best explanation by the nurse of what condition would not produce adequate erythropoietin? Select one: A. Hypoxia B. Anemia C. End-stage renal disease D. Cardiac disorders

C. End-stage renal disease

The nurse plans to collect a sputum specimen from a client for laboratory diagnosis after the client awakens. Which of the following reasons explains the nurse's choice of an early morning collection? Select one: A. Mobilizes secretions from the lower airway B. Prevents contamination of specimen C. Ensures more mucus is available D. Removes food residue and microorganisms

C. Ensures more mucus is available

The nurse is reviewing the electronic medical record and notes that the assigned client is diagnosed with malabsorption syndrome. Which diet should the nurse anticipate is ordered for the client? Select one: A. High fat B. Protein restricted C. Fat controlled D. Sodium controlled

C. Fat controlled

A nurse is classifying the pregnancy history of a woman who has had five pregnancies: three full-term, one preterm, and one abortion. How would the nurse document this information on the patient chart? Select one: A. G5 P1135 B. G5 P3115 C. G5 P3114 D. G4 P3115

C. G5 P3114

The nurse is performing a physical assessment of a pregnant woman at 18 weeks' gestation and documents the following: vaginal bleeding, a uterus that is larger than expected for the weeks of pregnancy, anemia, excessive nausea and vomiting, and signs of pregnancy-induced hypertension. What complication might the nurse suspect based on these symptoms? Select one: A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Hyperemesis gravidarum C. Hydatidiform mole D. Preeclampsia

C. Hydatidiform mole

A client is diagnosed with leukemia. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client teaching? Select one: A. Instruct the client about the importance of eating iron-rich foods. B. Ask the client to eat a low-fiber diet. C. Instruct the client to avoid contact with persons who are ill. D. Tell the client about possible side effects of anticoagulant therapy.

C. Instruct the client to avoid contact with persons who are ill.

The nurse is caring for a client who has leukemia. Which of the following blood test results for white blood cells (WBCs) is useful in diagnosing and monitoring the response to treatment for this condition? Select one: A. Low platelet count B. Monocytosis C. Lymphocytosis D. Absolute polycythemia

C. Lymphocytosis

The nurse is caring for a client who is recovering from severe burns over two-thirds of his body. The client is stable, but needs specialized wound care. In which of the following facilities would this client most likely be placed? Select one: A. Subacute-care facility B. Long-term care facility C. Medically complex care unit D. Short-term rehabilitation unit

C. Medically complex care unit

A client presents at the ER with spinal cord pain. Which of the following tests would most likely be ordered to check for spinal cord abnormalities caused by tumors, herniated intervertebral disks, or other lesions? Select one: A. Arthrogram B. Ultrasound C. Myelogram D. Bone scan

C. Myelogram

A client presents at a local clinic with a butterfly rash on her face. Which of the following diseases would the nurse suspect? Select one: A. Scleroderma B. Gout C. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) D. Rickets

C. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

A client is in the second stage of labor. The nurse should record the following information in the second stage: Select one: A. The side of placental presentation B. The exact time of placental delivery C. The type of episiotomy on the client's chart D. The nature of placental delivery

C. The type of episiotomy on the client's chart

A child presents in the ER with symptoms of Reye's syndrome. Which of the following is a suspect etiology of this disease? Select one: A. Improper closing of the bones in the skull B. Malformation of the vertebral or spinal cord C. Use of aspirin during viral illness D. Disruption of spinal fluid causing swelling

C. Use of aspirin during viral illness

The nurse is describing the three phases of the uterine cycle with a client. What occurs during the proliferative phase of the uterine cycle that the nurse should include in a teaching session with the client? Select one: A. Maturation of an ovum B. Withdrawal of hormones causes the endometrial cells to change, and menstruation begins. C. While the ovarian follicles are producing increased amounts of estrogen, the endometrium prepares for possible fertilization with pronounced growth. D. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates and hormonal levels fall.

C. While the ovarian follicles are producing increased amounts of estrogen, the endometrium prepares for possible fertilization with pronounced growth.

The nurse is reading a client's fasting plasma glucose (FPG) test results. Which of the following results indicates diabetes? A) 75 mg/dL B) 100 mg/dL C) 115 mg/dL D) 130 mg/dL

D) 130 mg/dL

Which of the following clients would be the most likely candidate to develop respiratory acidosis? A) A client who has renal disease B) A client who is hyperventilating C) A client who has excessive gastric suctioning D) A client who has emphysema

D) A client who has emphysema

The nurse is reviewing an anaphylaxis simulation with a group of nursing students. The situation presented to the students is that a client has experienced a bee sting and a nurse suspects anaphylaxis. Which information by the student nurses demonstrates correct understanding of anaphylaxis? A) Anaphylaxis is a type II allergic reaction to a substance. B) In anaphylaxis, the antigen antibody reaction works to the client's benefit. C) The release of a chemical in the body, such as histamine, causes reactions that affect the respiratory system. D) Anaphylaxis is life threatening.

D) Anaphylaxis is life threatening.

A 30-year-old client arrives at the healthcare facility with complaints of losing weight despite eating voraciously. She feels unusually hot. Her menstruation has also ceased. The physician has advised a radioactive iodine uptake test. Which of the following information should be provided to the client before performing a radioactive iodine uptake test? A) Inform the client about the side effects of radiation. B) Encourage reduction of the amount of iodized salt in food. C) Instruct the client to take the test after a regular breakfast. D) Ask the client to avoid eating ocean shellfish 1 week before the test.

D) Ask the client to avoid eating ocean shellfish 1 week before the test.

The nurse is providing teaching for a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following is a recommended guideline to help relieve the symptoms of this disorder? A) Elevate the foot of the bed. B) Lie down for at least 2 hours after meals. C) Eat fewer, but larger meals. D) Do not wear tight belts or waistbands.

D) Do not wear tight belts or waistbands.

A nurse is preparing a client with severe gastrointestinal reflux disease (GERD) for a test to determine the extent of damage caused by the disorder. Which of the following tests would be ordered for this client? A) Cholecystogram B) Lower GI series C) Colonoscopy D) Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)

D) Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)

The nurse caring for clients with diabetes knows that diabetes causes unique microvascular changes in the capillary walls resulting in diminished blood flow and poor oxygenation of tissues that are highly vascular. Which of the following organs would the nurse monitor for damage? A) Heart B) Liver C) Brain D) Kidneys

D) Kidneys

The nurse is using a simple mask on a client exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. What is the minimum oxygen flow rate with a simple mask to prevent carbon dioxide buildup? Select one: A. 12 LPM B. 8 LPM C. 10 LPM D. 6 LPM

D. 6 LPM

The nurse explains to a client receiving packed RBCs that the blood product is produced by centrifuging (spinning) whole blood, which forces the RBCs to the bottom of the container. For which of the following clients would packed RBCs be the best choice? Select one: A. A client who has massive acute hemorrhaging B. A client with hypovolemic shock C. A client with thrombocytopenia D. A client who has anemia

D. A client who has anemia

Which of the following clients would be a candidate for hematopoietic stem cell transplantation? Select one: A. A client with severe hemorrhaging B. A client with anemia C. A client with a bleeding disorder D. A client with leukemia

D. A client with leukemia

A child is visiting a friend who has several dogs and cats and begins wheezing, has difficulty breathing, and has chest tightness. The parents bring the child to the ER and explain the symptoms to the nurse. After assessing the situation, what condition would the nurse suspect? Select one: A. Cystic fibrosis B. Pyloric stenosis C. Pneumonia D. Acute asthma

D. Acute asthma

An 81-year-old client is being rehabilitated in an inpatient setting following her recovery from the acute stages of a stroke. The stroke resulted in dysphagia, which creates a risk of what respiratory problem? Select one: A. Increased viscosity (thickness) of secretions B. Laryngeal atrophy C. Increased quantity of secretions D. Aspiration of food or fluid

D. Aspiration of food or fluid

The nurse is caring for a client postoperatively following excision of a lung carcinoid tumor. The nurse instructs the client how to use an incentive spirometer to prevent postoperative respiratory complications. Preventing which of the following alterations is a major reason for the use of incentive spirometry? Select one: A. Nasal polyps B. Streptococcus C. Bronchitis D. Atelectasis

D. Atelectasis

A 3-month-old infant is diagnosed with spina bifida. Which of the following information should be included in parent teaching? Select one: A. Avoid plastic diapers. B. Use only cotton diapers. C. Give protein-rich food. D. Avoid rubber toys.

D. Avoid rubber toys.

The nurse is administering the cardiotonic drug, digoxin, to a client who has congestive heart failure. Which of the following is a recommended nursing care guideline for this therapy? Select one: A. Be alert for tachycardia, which occurs when digoxin slows the heart too much. B. Before administering digoxin, take the client's apical pulse for 30 seconds. C. Remember that the first administration of digoxin will be smaller than later doses. D. Be alert for side effects including gastrointestinal symptoms, headache, and blurred vision.

D. Be alert for side effects including gastrointestinal symptoms, headache, and blurred vision.

The nursing instructor is explaining to students about sitting for the NCLEX examination. Which step in the NCLEX examination process is the responsibility of the nursing student? Select one: A. Certifying the expected date of graduation B. Sending a transcript of academic records to the state Board of Nursing. C. Resubmitting necessary information when required to re-take the examination. D. Be reasonably expected to graduate from an approved nursing program.

D. Be reasonably expected to graduate from an approved nursing program.

As part of a postsurgical client's regimen for deep vein thrombosis prevention, she is to receive 5000 units of heparin subcutaneously b.i.d. How can the nurse reduce this client's risk of bruising at the injection sites? Select one: A. By aspirating slightly once, the needle is inserted B. By using the Z-track injection technique consistently C. By gently massaging the injection site for a few seconds after injection D. By changing the needle after withdrawing the drug from the vial

D. By changing the needle after withdrawing the drug from the vial

A fetus is experiencing variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate during contractions. What is the appropriate nursing intervention for this situation? Select one: A. Notify the healthcare practitioner immediately. B. Have the pregnant woman walk around the room. C. Administer prescribed pain medications. D. Change the woman's position and give oxygen.

D. Change the woman's position and give oxygen.

A nurse is monitoring the fetal heart rate of a client. What signs of fetal distress on the fetal monitor should the nurse report immediately? Select one: A. Fetal heart rate above 100 bpm B. Accelerations of 15 bpm C. Early decelerations D. Decreased variability

D. Decreased variability

A nurse is explaining the importance of chemotaxis and phagocytosis in fighting invading organisms and other foreign materials. What would be the best explanation by the nurse to clients about the role of phagocytosis in fighting invading organisms and other foreign materials? Select one: A. Increasing in number and engulfing and devouring invaders B. Engulfing of extracellular fluid materials C. Moving directly to sites of infection or damaged tissues as a result of their attraction to specific chemicals D. Engulfing of particulate matter

D. Engulfing of particulate matter

The nurse is delivering a lecture on proper nutrition to pregnant women attending a prenatal class. What nutrient would the nurse strongly recommend to reduce the risk of neural tube defects in their babies? Select one: A. Calcium B. Magnesium C. Vitamin D D. Folic acid

D. Folic acid

A client is started on peripheral parenteral nutrition. The nurse asks the nursing student to explain the difference in a preclinical conference between peripheral parenteral nutrition and total parenteral nutrition. What information did the student nurse correctly state about peripheral parenteral nutrition? Select one: A. Surgically placed into the central vein near the heart to allow the concentrated solution to be diffused quickly into circulation B. Used when the gastrointestinal tract is functioning improperly C. Infused directly into the blood circulation D. Infusions must be hypotonic or isotonic to prevent dehydration and electrolyte imbalance

D. Infusions must be hypotonic or isotonic to prevent dehydration and electrolyte imbalance

A nurse is using the Z-track technique to administer an injection to a client. Which of the following injection routes utilizes the Z-track technique? Select one: A. Subcutaneous B. Intradermal C. Intravenous D. Intramuscular

D. Intramuscular

During a lecture on the different types of white blood cells, the nurse explains to the student nurses that these white blood cells have different functions. Based on this information, what is the function of basophils? Select one: A. Release chemicals to assist the body in detoxifying foreign proteins B. First line of defense against bacteria C. Play a role in acute and chronic inflammatory processes D. Involved in allergic and inflammatory reactions

D. Involved in allergic and inflammatory reactions

A nurse is assigned to care for a client who has a diet high in sodium. What information should the nurse provide to the client regarding the consequences of a high-sodium diet? Select one: A. It causes enlargement of the thyroid gland. B. It increases the risk of developing type 2 diabetes. C. It increases cholesterol levels in the body. D. It increases the risk of developing osteoporosis.

D. It increases the risk of developing osteoporosis.

A nurse is preparing a client for bronchoscopy. Which of the following instructions is most important for the nurse to teach the client? Select one: A. Avoid taking food 3 hours before the procedure. B. Cough out the mucus secretions after the procedure. C. Start a soft, semisolid diet when the gag reflex returns. D. Maintain a side-lying position after the bronchoscopy.

D. Maintain a side-lying position after the bronchoscopy.

During the assessment of a preterm newborn, the attending nurse notices a soft bulging on the infant's back. On further examination, it is found that the child has a herniation of spinal cord nerve fibers and meninges. Which of the following explains this condition? Select one: A. Hydrocephalus B. Anencephaly C. Down syndrome D. Myelomeningocele

D. Myelomeningocele

.During a routine medical examination of a 15-year-old boy, the attending nurse notices that the client is overweight for his age group. On further examination, the client is found to be overweight by more than 40% of his optimum weight. Which of the following client teachings must the nurse provide when caring for the client and his family members? Select one: A. Calorie intake needs to be reduced by at least 5%. B. Obesity is often caused by slow thyroid function. C. Obesity is often related to an underlying disease. D. Obesity usually increases the risk of developing lordosis.

D. Obesity usually increases the risk of developing lordosis.

The nurse is ordered to obtain a specimen from a client using bronchoalveolar lavage. Which of the following diseases is this test most often used to diagnose? Select one: A. Bronchitis B. Pneumonia C. COPD D. Pulmonary tuberculosis

D. Pulmonary tuberculosis

The student nurse is very anxious about the upcoming nursing examination and is hyperventilating. Based on this information, what acid-base imbalance is most likely to occur for the nursing student? Select one: A. Metabolic acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Respiratory acidosis

D. Respiratory acidosis

A nurse is teaching new parents about the causes of sudden unexpected infant death (SUID) and sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) and interventions to help prevent these deaths. Which of the following information about SUID and SIDS is accurate? Select all that apply. Select one or more: A. Large for gestational age infants are at a greater risk for SIDS. B. Parents should use a pillow under the head of the infant to prevent SIDS. C. SIDS occurs when the infant is lying awake in a crib. D. SUID can be caused by metabolic disorders. E. One theory links SIDS to malfunctioning brainstem causing faulty respirations.

D. SUID can be caused by metabolic disorders. E. One theory links SIDS to malfunctioning brainstem causing faulty respirations.

The nurse is caring for a newborn of Jewish descent who has an inborn error of metabolism in which the child becomes hypotonic and loses vision. What genetic disorder is this newborn manifesting? Select one: A. Fragile X syndrome B. Hemophilia C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Tay-Sachs disease

D. Tay-Sachs disease

A client has been readmitted for right lower lobe pneumonia. The client asks why he keeps getting pneumonia on the right side and not the left. Based on this information, which point will help a nurse emphasize with the client why the right bronchus is more susceptible to fluids or foreign objects than the left? Select one: A. The left lung has two lobes. B. The right lung has three lobes. C. The right bronchus is narrow. D. The right bronchus is short.

D. The right bronchus is short.

A client has been admitted to the emergency department with a head injury that has required the insertion of an artificial oral airway. What is the primary purpose of this intervention? Select one: A. To prevent aspiration of saliva or secretions B. To bypass the nasal portion of the client's airway C. To prevent injury to the client's oral mucosa D. To prevent the client's tongue from obstructing the airway

D. To prevent the client's tongue from obstructing the airway

The nurse is reviewing the process of oocyte maturation and ovulation with a client. What occurs during the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle that the nurse should include in the teaching session on ovulation with the client? Select one: A. Preparation of the uterus for implantation of an ovum. B. About day 14, a surge of hormones cause the ovum to burst through the ovary. C. The empty ruptured graafian follicle becomes the corpus luteum and it begins to secrete progesterone and estrogen. D. Under the influence of follicle-stimulating hormone, several follicles begin to ripen, and the ovum with each begins to mature.

D. Under the influence of follicle-stimulating hormone, several follicles begin to ripen, and the ovum with each begins to mature.

The nurse is examining a 7-year-old girl who presents at the clinic with classic symptoms of diabetes mellitus type 1. Which of the following describes one of these symptoms? Select one: A. Decrease in urinary output B. Loss of appetite C. Decrease in desire for fluids D. Weight loss

D. Weight loss

A young couple having trouble getting pregnant ask their nurse practitioner for recommendations for assisted reproductive technology (ART). Their only concern is that they do not want a multiple pregnancy. Which of the following forms of ART would be the best procedure for this couple? Select one: A. GIFT B. AI C. ZIFT D. eSET

D. eSET

An older adult on digoxin and furosemide is showing signs of toxicity. The gerontology nurse understands that: a) Digoxin and furosemide are excreted by the kidneys, and the doses may need to be decreased due to impaired kidney function b) Digoxin and furosemide are excreted through the intestinal tract, and dose changes would be ineffective c) An increase in fluid intake will fix the symptoms, and no change in dose is needed d) How a drug is excreted is not a consideration when dosing an older adult

a) Digoxin and furosemide are excreted by the kidneys, and the doses may need to be decreased due to impaired kidney function

A nurse is providing health education regarding the role of the accessory organs of the digestive system. What is the best explanation by the nurse of the action of bile released by the gallbladder? a) Emulsification of fat b) Synthesis of immunoglobulin c) Breakdown of protein d) Formation of urea

a) Emulsification of fat

The nurse is caring for a client at risk for aspiration. What action should the nurse take when assisting the client with the meal to prevent aspiration? a. Have the client bend the chin toward the chest when swallowing. b. Suction the client frequently during the meal. c. Have the client's food pureed. d. Place the client on the side while eating.

a. Have the client bend the chin toward the chest when swallowing.

The anatomy and physiology instructor is discussing the digestion of nutrients. According to the instructor, what substance is required for digestion and absorption of fats and fat-soluble vitamins? a) Saliva b) Bile c) Mucus d) Amylase

b) Bile

A new LPN is preparing to administer medication. What action by the LPN requires the charge nurse to intervene? Select all that apply. a. The LPN asks if the client would like to take the medication with water or juice. b. The LPN is crushing an enteric-coated aspirin. c. The LPN is hiding a pill in applesauce when the patient refuses the pill. d. The LPN informs the client what medication is being administered.

b. The LPN is crushing an enteric-coated aspirin. c. The LPN is hiding a pill in applesauce when the patient refuses the pill.