Pt 8, Pt 7, pt 6, Pt 5, Pt 4, Pt 3, Pt 2, Pt 1, Test 1

Which of the following tissues is (are) considered to be particularly radiosensitive? 1. Intestinal mucous membrane 2. Epidermis of extremities 3. Optic nerves

1. Intestinal mucous membrane

Which of the following involve(s) intentional misconduct? 1. Invasion of privacy 2. False imprisonment 3. Patient sustaining injury from a fall while left unattended

1. Invasion of privacy 2. False imprisonment

Which of the following units is (are) used to express resolution? 1. Line-spread function 2. Line pairs per millimeter 3. Line-focus principle

1. Line-spread function 2. Line pairs per millimeter

The radiographer must perform which of the following procedures prior to entering a contact isolation room with a mobile x-ray unit? 1. Put on gown and gloves only. 2. Put on gown, gloves, mask, and cap. 3. Clean the mobile x-ray unit

1. Put on gown and gloves only

Which of the following is (are) used to account for the differences in tissue characteristics when determining effective dose to biologic material? 1. Tissue weighting factors (W t ) 2. Radiation weighting factors (W r ) 3. Absorbed dose

1. Tissue weighting factors

During IV urography, the prone position generally is recommended to demonstrate: 1. the filling of the ureters 2. the renal pelvis 3. the superior calyces

1. the filling of the ureters 2. the renal pelvis

If the entrance dose for a particular exam is 1200 mGy, the radiation exposure at 1 m from the patient will be approximately:

1.20 mGy

If the entrance dose for a particular exam is 1200 mGy, the radiation exposure at 1 m from the patient will be approximately A. 120 mGy B. 12.0 mGy C. 1.20 mGy D. 0.12 mGy

1.20 mGy **Therefore, if the entrance dose for this image is 1200 mGy, the intensity of radiation at 1 m from the patient is 0.1% of that, or 1.20 mGy (0.001 × 1200 = 1.20)

Primary radiation barriers usually require which thickness of shielding?

1/16 inch lead

Secondary radiation barriers usually require the following thickness of shielding: A. 1/4-inch lead B. 1/8-inch lead C. 1/16-inch lead D. 1/32-inch lead

1/32 inch lead

The maximum R/min that can be reached on a fluoroscopic system is:

10 R/min

The recommendation of "elective booking" states that elective abdominal radiographic examinations on women of reproductive age should be limited to the A. 10 days following the menses. B. 10 days following the onset of menses. C. 10 days before the onset of menses. D. last 10 days of the menstrual cycle.

10 days following the onset of menses

If a patient received 0.3 Gy during a 3 minute fluoroscopic examination, what was the dose rate? A. 1 mGy/min B. 10 mGy/min C. 100 mGy/min D. 1000 mGy/min

100 mGy/min

Which of the following voltage ripples is (are) produced by single phase equipment? 1. 100% voltage ripple 2. 13% voltage ripple 3. 3.5% voltage ripple

100%

Using a multifield image intensifier tube, which of the following input phosphor diameters will provide the greatest magnification? A. 35 cm B. 25 cm C. 17 cm D.12 cm

12 cm

The average rate of respiration for an adult is:

12-20 per min

In a posteroanterior (PA) projection of the chest being used for cardiac evaluation, the heart measures 14.7 cm between its widest points. If the magnification factor is known to be 1.2, what is the actual diameter of the heart? A. 10.4 cm B. 12.25 cm C. 13.5 cm D.17.64 cm

12.25

Which of the following voltage ripples is (are) produced by three-phase, 6-pulse equipment 1. 100% voltage ripple 2. 13% voltage ripple 3. 3.5% voltage ripple

13%

If the x-ray intensity at 70 kVp is 100 mR, what will the intensity be if the kVp is increased to 81 and the mAs reamains fixed?

134 mR

If a patient's zygomatic arch has been traumatically depressed or the patient has flat cheekbones, the arch may be demonstrated by modifying the SMV projection and rotating the patient's head A. 15 degrees toward the side being examined B. 15 degrees away from the side being examined C. 30 degrees toward the side being examined D. 30 degrees away from the side being examined

15 degrees toward the side being examined

What is the annual dose limit (DL) for the lens of the eye?

150 mSv/year

If the exposure rate to a body standing 8 feet from a radiation source is 70 mGy/min, what will be the dose to that body at a distance of 5 feet from the source? a. 27 mGy/min b.43 mGy/min c.112 mGy/min d. 179 mGy/min

179 mGy/min

An exposure was made using 600 mA, 0.04 sec exposure, and 85 kVp. Each of the following changes will serve to reduce the receptor exposure by one-half except change to A. 1/50 sec exposure B. 72 kVp C. 18 mAs D. 300 mA

18 mAs

An incorrect relationship between the primary beam and the center of a focused grid results in: 1. an increase in scattered radiation production 2. grid cutoff 3. insufficient receptor exposure

2 & 3

During chest radiography, the act of inspiration: 1. elevates the diaphragm 2. raises the ribs 3. depresses the abdominal viscera

2 & 3

Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate: 1. internal disk lesions. 2. posttraumatic swelling of the spinal cord. 3. posterior disk herniation.

2 & 3

Spatial resolution can be improved by decreasing: 1. the SID 2. the OID 3. patient/part motion

2 & 3

The Bucky slot cover is in place to protect the: 1. patient 2. fluoroscopist 3. technologist

2 & 3

The four major arteries supplying the brain include the: 1. brachiocephalic artery 2. common carotid arteries 3. vertebral arteries

2 & 3

The hard palate is formed by the: 1. ethmoid bone. 2. maxillary bone. 3. palatine bone.

2 & 3

When radiographing the elderly, it is helpful to: 1. move quickly. 2. address them by their full name. 3. give straightforward instructions.

2 & 3

Which of the following projections will demonstrate a fluid level in the sphenoid sinus with the use of a horizontal beam? 1. parietoacanthial (waters) 2. parietoacanthial (open mouth waters) 3. submentovertical (SMV)

2 & 3

Facsimile transmission of health information is: 1. not permitted 2. permitted for urgently needed patient care. 3. permitted for third-party payer hospitalization certification.

2 & 3 -permitted for urgently needed patient care. -permitted for third-party payer hospitalization certification.

Free air in the abdominal cavity is demonstrated in which of the following? 1. Lateral recumbent abdomen 2. Erect AP abdomen 3. Left lateral decubitus abdomen

2 & 3 only

Skeletal conditions characterized by faulty bone calcification include 1. osteoarthritis. 2. osteomalacia. 3. rickets.

2 & 3 only

Sources of natural background radiation contributing to whole-body radiation dose include: 1. dental x-rays 2. terrestrial radionuclides 3. internal radionuclides

2 & 3 only

The primary parts of the cathode include the: 1. focal track. 2. filament. 3. focusing cup.

2 & 3 only

Use of a portion of the input phosphor during fluoroscopy, rather than the entire input phosphor, will result in: 1. a larger field of view (FOV). 2. a magnified image. 3. improved spatial resolution.

2 & 3 only

Which of the following is (are) possible long-term somatic effects of radiation exposure? 1. Blood changes 2. Cataractogenesis 3. Embryologic effects

2 & 3 only

Which of the following positions will demonstrate the right axillary ribs? 1. RAO 2. LAO 3. RPO

2 & 3 only

Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)? 1. Spleen 2. Gallbladder 3. Hepatic flexure

2 & 3 only

Which of the following would be appropriate IP front material(s)? 1. Tungsten 2. Magnesium 3. Bakelite A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

2 & 3 only

Intervertebral foramina will be demonstrated in which of the following projections? 1. Lateral cervical spine 2. Lateral thoracic spine 3. Lateral lumbar spine

2 and 3

The ARRT Rules of Ethics are: 1. aspirational. 2. mandatory. 3. minimally acceptable standards. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

2 and 3 (The Code of Ethics is aspirational. The Rules of Ethics are minimally acceptable mandatory and enforceable standards required of all imaging professionals to ensure quality patient care. Violation of the Code of Ethics renders the individual subject to sanction. The Rules of Ethics cover issues such as fraud/deceit regarding individual ARRT certification)

Stochastic effects of radiation are those that: 1. have a threshold 2. may be described as "all-or-nothing" effects 3. are late effects

2 and 3 only

In what order should the following contrast examinations be performed on the same patient? 1. Upper GI series 2. IVU 3. BE

2-3-1

In what order should the following examinations be scheduled? 1. Upper GI 2. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP) 3. Barium enema (BE)

2-3-1 --The IVP should be scheduled first because the contrast medium used is excreted rapidly. The BE should be scheduled next. Finally, the upper GI series is scheduled. Any barium remaining from the previous BE should not be enough to interfere with the stomach or duodenum (a preliminary scout image should be taken in each case)

In what order should the following examinations be performed on the same patient? 1. Upper GI series 2. IVU 3. BE

2-3-1 IVU-BE-Upper GI

An enema tip should be inserted into the rectum _______ inched for a barium enema exam.

2-4 inches

A radiographer should recognize that gerontologic patients often have undergone physical changes that include loss ofL

-muscle mass. -bone calcium

What pixel size has a 2,048 × 2,048 matrix with a 60-cm FOV? A. 0.3 mm B. 0.5 mm C. 0.15 mm D. 0.03 mm

0.3 mm

Which of the following amount of shielding will attenuate the greatest number of high energy (100 keV) x-ray photons?

0.5 mm of lead

When reviewing patient blood chemistry levels, what is considered the normal creatinine range? A. 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL B. 4.5 to 6 mg/100 mL C. 8 to 25 mg/100 mL D. Up to 50 mg/100 mL

0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL

A diabetic patient who has prepared for a fasting radiographic examination is susceptible to a hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by 1. shaking and nervousness. 2. cold, clammy skin. 3. cyanosis.

1 & 2

An analog x-ray exposure of a particular part is made and restricted to a 14 × 17 in. field size. The same exposure is repeated, but the x-ray beam is restricted to a 4 × 4 in. field. Compared with the first image, the second image will demonstrate: 1. less receptor exposure 2. more contrast 3. more receptor exposure

1 & 2

Disadvantages of moving grids over stationary grids include which of the following? 1. They can prohibit the use of very short exposure times. 2. They increase patient radiation dose. 3. They can cause phantom images when anatomic parts parallel their motion.

1 & 2

Disadvantages of using lower kilovoltage technical factors, with mAs compensated to maintain receptor exposure, include: 1. insufficient penetration 2. increased patient dose 3. diminished resolution

1 & 2

Examples of means by which infectious microorganisms can be transmitted via indirect contact include: 1. a fomite. 2. a vector. 3. nasal or oral secretions.

1 & 2

Exposure rate increases with an increase in 1. mA. 2. kVp. 3. SID.

1 & 2

Sources of natural background radiation exposure include 1. the food we eat. 2. air travel. 3. medical and dental x-rays.

1 & 2

The main forms of COPD include: 1. chronic bronchitis. 2. pulmonary emphysema. 3. asthma.

1 & 2

The right posterior oblique position (Judet method) of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the 1. anterior rim of the right acetabulum 2. right iliac wing 3. right anterior iliopubic column

1 & 2

The risk of inoculation with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is considered high for the following: 1. Broken skin 2. Shared needles 3. Conjunctiva

1 & 2

Types of moving grid mechanisms include: 1. oscillating. 2. reciprocating. 3. synchronous.

1 & 2

Which of the following can be transmitted via infected blood? 1. HBV 2. AIDS 3. TB

1 & 2

Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the lateral projection of the cervical spine? 1. Intervertebral joints 2. Zygapophyseal joints 3. Intervertebral foramina

1 & 2

Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in an AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull for occipital bone? 1. Posterior clinoid processes 2. Dorsum sella 3. Posterior arch of C1

1 & 2

An esophagram would most likely be requested for patients with which of the following esophageal disorders/symptoms? 1. Varices 2. Achalasia 3. Dysphasia

1 & 2 ONLY (Dysphasia is a speech impairment resulting from a brain lesion; it is unrelated to the esophagus. Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing and is the most common esophageal complaint.)

A patient is usually required to drink barium sulfate suspension to demonstrate which of the following structures? 1. Esophagus 2. Pylorus 3. Ilium

1 & 2 only

Advantages of battery-powered mobile x-ray units include their 1. ability to store a large quantity of energy 2. ability to store energy for extended periods of time 3. lightness and ease of maneuverability

1 & 2 only

Bone densitometry is often performed to: 1. measure degree of bone (de)mineralization 2. evaluate results of osteoporosis treatment/therapy 3. evaluate condition of soft tissue adjacent to bone

1 & 2 only

Characteristics of a patient with pulmonary emphysema include: 1. shoulder girdle elevation 2. increased AP diameter of the chest 3. hyperventilation

1 & 2 only

Components of digital imaging include: 1. computer manipulation of the image 2. formation of an electronic image on the radiation detector 3. formation of an x-ray image directly on the emulsion

1 & 2 only

Forms of intentional misconduct include: 1. slander. 2. invasion of privacy. 3. negligence.

1 & 2 only

In which of the following conditions is a double-contrast BE essential for demonstration of the condition? 1. Polyps 2. Colitis 3. Diverticulosis

1 & 2 only

It is essential to question female patients of childbearing age regarding the 1. date of their last menstrual period 2. possibility of their being pregnant 3. number of x-ray examinations they have had in the past 12 months

1 & 2 only

Low-kilovoltage exposure factors usually are indicated for radiographic examinations using 1. water-soluble, iodinated media 2. a negative contrast agent 3. barium sulfate

1 & 2 only

Patients' rights include which of the following? 1. The right to refuse treatment 2. The right to confidentiality 3. The right to possess his or her radiographs

1 & 2 only

Structures comprising the neural, or vertebral, arch include: 1. pedicles 2. laminae 3. body

1 & 2 only

The advantages of capacitor-discharge mobile x-ray equipment include: 1. compact size 2. light weight 3. high kilovoltage capability

1 & 2 only

When caring for the elderly, it is important to remember that, as one ages, there is often a decrease in: 1. reaction time 2. strength 3. long-term memory

1 & 2 only

Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body type? 1. Short, wide, transverse heart 2. High and peripheral large bowel 3. Diaphragm positioned low

1 & 2 only

Which of the following conditions would require an increase in exposure factors? 1. Congestive heart failure 2. Pleural effusion 3. Emphysema

1 & 2 only

Which of the following examinations require(s) restriction of a patient's diet? 1. Barium enema 2. Pyelogram 3. Metastatic survey

1 & 2 only

Which of the following factors will affect both the quality and the quantity of the primary beam? 1. HVL 2. kV 3. mA

1 & 2 only

Which of the following is (are) evaluation criteria for a PA chest radiograph of the heart and lungs? 1. Ten posterior ribs should be seen above the diaphragm. 2. The medial ends of the clavicles should be equidistant from the vertebral column. 3. The scapulae should be seen through the upper lung fields.

1 & 2 only

Which of the following medication routes refers to the term parenteral? 1. Subcutaneous 2. Intramuscular 3. Oral

1 & 2 only

Which of the following positions is/are most frequently used to demonstrate the sphenoid sinuses? 1. Modified Waters (mouth open) 2. Lateral 3. PA axial

1 & 2 only

Which of the following types of adult tissues is (are) relatively insensitive to radiation exposure? 1. Muscle tissue 2. Nerve tissue 3. Epithelial tissue

1 & 2 only

Which of the following units is (are) used to express resolution? 1. Line-spread function 2. Line pairs per millimeter 3. Line-focus principle

1 & 2 only

Which of the following will improve the spatial resolution of image-intensified images? 1. A very thin coating of cesium iodide on the input phosphor 2. A smaller-diameter input screen/phosphor 3. Increased total brightness gain

1 & 2 only

A diabetic patient who has taken insulin while preparing for a fasting radiologic examination is susceptible to a hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by 1. fatigue 2. cyanosis 3. restlessness

1 & 3

The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles? 1. Interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR 2. MSP perpendicular to the IR 3. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR

1 & 3

Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of a 16:1 grid? 1. It absorbs more useful radiation than an 8:1 grid. 2. It has more centering latitude than an 8:1 grid. 3. It is used with higher-kilovoltage exposures than an 8:1 grid.

1 & 3

Which of the following statements regarding dual x-ray absorptiometry is (are) true? 1. Radiation dose is low. 2. Only low-energy photons are used. 3. Photon attenuation by bone is calculated.

1 & 3

If a radiograph exhibits insufficient receptor exposure, this might be attributed to: 1. insufficient kVp. 2. insufficient SID. 3. grid cutoff.

1 & 3 only

Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of a 16:1 grid? 1. It absorbs more useful radiation than an 8:1 grid. 2. It has more centering latitude than an 8:1 grid. 3. It is used with higher-kilovoltage exposures than an 8:1 grid.

1 & 3 only

Which of the following statements is (are) correct regarding the parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method) of the skull? 1. The head is rested on the extended chin. 2. The orbitomeatal line (OML) is perpendicular to the (IR). 3. The maxillary antra should be projected above the petrosa

1 & 3 only

With a patient suffering abdominal pain, it is frequently helpful to: 1. elevate the head slightly with a pillow. 2. perform the examination in the Trendelenburg position. 3. place a support under the knees. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

1 & 3 only (Strain on the abdominal muscles may be minimized by placing a pillow under the patient's head and a support under the patient's knees. The pillow also relieves neck strain, reduces the chance of aspiration in the nauseated patient, and allows the patient to observe his or her surroundings. The Trendelenburg position causes the diaphragm to assume a higher position and can cause a patient to become short of breath. )

The law of Bergonié and Tribondeau states that cells are more radiosensitive if they are: 1. highly proliferative 2. highly differentiated 3. immature

1 & 3 only (highly undifferentiated means immature which would mean more radiosensitive)

The output phosphor can be coupled with the Vidicon TV camera or charge-coupled device (CCD) via 1. fiber optics. 2. an image distributor or lens. 3. closed-circuit TV.

1 &2 ONLY

Which of the following is (are) likely to improve image quality and decrease patient dose? 1. Beam restriction 2. Low kilovolt and high milliampere- second factors 3. Grid

1 ONLY

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the lateral projection of the lumbar spine? 1.The MSP is parallel to the tabletop. 2.The vertebral foramina are well visualized. 3.The pedicles are well visualized.

1 and 3

The dose equivalent limit for a radiography student under the age of 18 years is:

1 mSv

All of the following statements regarding dual x-ray absorptiometry are true, except 1. radiation dose is considerable. 2. two x-ray photon energies are used. 3. photon attenuation by bone is calculated.

1 only

Image resolution depends on all the following except: 1. quantity of filtration. 2. anode angle. 3. OIDs.

1 only

Terms that refer to size distortion include: 1. magnification 2. attenuation 3. elongation

1 only

The correct way(s) to check for cracks in lead aprons is (are) 1. to fluoroscope them once a year 2. to radiograph them at low kilovoltage twice a year 3. by visual inspection

1 only

Which of the following are demonstrated in the oblique position of the cervical spine? 1. Intervertebral foramina 2. Zygapophyseal joints 3. Intervertebral joints

1 only

Which of the following would be useful for an examination of a patient suffering from Parkinson disease? 1. Short exposure time 2. High ratio grid 3. Compensating filtration

1 only

Spatial resolution is directly related to 1. SID. 2. tube current. 3. focal-spot size.

1 only ----As SID increases, so does spatial resolution because magnification is decreased - a direct relationship. Therefore, SID is directly related to spatial resolution. As focal spot size increases, spatial resolution decreases because more penumbral blur is produced. Focal spot size is thus inversely related to spatial resolution - as FSS increases,resolution decreases. Tube current affects receptor exposure and is unrelated to spatial resolution.

Which of the following is (are) well demonstrated in the oblique position of the cervical vertebrae? 1. Intervertebral foramina 2. Disk spaces 3. Zygapophyseal joints

1 only (The cervical intervertebral foramina form a 45-degree angle with the MSP and, therefore, are well visualized in a 45-degree oblique position. Zygapophyseal joints are formed by articulating surfaces of the inferior articular facet of one vertebra with the superior articular facet of the vertebra below; they are well demonstrated in the lateral position of the cervical spine. The intervertebral disk spaces are best demonstrated in the lateral position.)

When radiographing young children, it is helpful to 1. let them bring a toy. 2. tell them it will not hurt. 3. be cheerful and unhurried.

1&3 only

A controlled area is defined as one: 1. that is occupied by people trained in radiation safety 2. that is occupied by people who wear radiation monitors 3. whose occupancy factor is 1

1, 2 & 3

In 1906, Bergonié and Tribondeau theorized that undifferentiated cells are highly radiosensitive. Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of undifferentiated cells? 1. Young cells 2. Highly mitotic cells 3. Precursor cells

1, 2 & 3

Moderate hypertension can produce damage to which of the following organs? 1. Lungs 2. Kidneys 3. Brain

1, 2 & 3

The decision as to whether to deliver ionic or nonionic contrast medium should include a preliminary patient history including, but not limited to: 1. patient age. 2. history of respiratory disease. 3. history of cardiac disease.

1, 2 & 3

Types of gonadal shielding include which of the following? Flat contact Shaped contact (contour) Shadow A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

1, 2 & 3

When using the smaller field in a dual-field image intensifier, 1. a smaller patient area is viewed. 2. the image is magnified. 3. the image is less bright.

1, 2 & 3

Which of the following features of fluoroscopic equipment is (are) designed to minimize radiation exposure to the patient or personnel? 1. Bucky slot cover 2. Exposure switch/foot pedal 3. Cumulative exposure timer

1, 2 & 3

Which of the following has (have) an effect on the amount and type of radiation-induced tissue damage? 1. Quality of radiation 2. Type of tissue being irradiated 3. Fractionation

1, 2 & 3

Which of the following is (are) considered especially radiosensitive tissues? 1. Bone marrow 2. Intestinal crypt cells 3. Erythroblasts

1, 2 & 3

What instructions might a patient be given following an upper GI examination? 1. Drink plenty of fluids. 2. Take a mild laxative. 3. Increase dietary fiber.

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following must be included in a patient's medical record or chart? 1. Diagnostic and therapeutic orders 2. Medical history 3. Informed consent

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following statements regarding the pregnant radiographer is (are) true? 1. She should declare her pregnancy to her supervisor. 2. She should be assigned a second personnel monitor. 3. Her radiation history should be reviewed.

1, 2 and 3

A PACS consists of the following: 1. Storage device 2. Display workstations 3. Imaging (acquisition) modality

1,2,3

Which of the following may be used as landmark(s) for an AP projection of the hip? 1. 2 inches medial to the ASIS 2. Prominence of the greater trochanter 3. Midway between the iliac crest and the pubic symphysis

1. 2 inches medial to the ASIS 2. Prominence of the greater trochanter

What is the approximate ESE for the average AP lumbar spine radiograph? A. 1.0 mGy B. 1.75 mGy C. 2.75 mGy D. 4.0 mGy

2.75 mGy The average PA chest delivers an ESE of about 0.1 mGy. The average AP supine lumbar spine delivers an ESE of about 2.5 - 3 mGy; the average AP thoracic spine about 1.8 mGy; the average AP cervical spine about 1.0 mGy. The average AP pelvis delivers about 1.5 mGy. The average lateral skull about 0.7 mGy, the shoulder about 0.90 mGy, and the extremity about 0.5 mGy.

When modifying the PA axial projection of the skull to demonstrate superior orbital fissures, the central ray is directed A. 20° to 25° caudad. B. 20° to 25° cephalad. C. 30° to 35° caudad. D. 30° to 35° cephalad.

20° to 25° caudad.

Which of the following symptoms is likely to result soon after a large radiation exposure to the blood and blood-forming organs? 1. Anemia 2. longer coagulation time 3. suppressed immune system

3 only

The average milliamperage used on a fluoroscopic x-ray tube during fluoroscopy is:

3 to 5 mA

Compared with the 30 to 60 second processing time found with computed radiography, image processing with DR has now been reduced to ___________.

3 to 8 seconds

The revolutions per minute (RPM) of a normal rotating anode in a radiographic tube is:

3,000 to 3,500 RPM

Classify the following tissues in order of increasing radiosensitivity: 1. Liver cells 2. Intestinal crypt cells 3. Muscle cells

3-1-2

Which of the following voltage ripples is (are) produced by a three-phase, 12-pulse equipment? 1. 100% voltage ripple 2. 13% voltage ripple 3. 3.5% voltage ripple

3.5%

Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral zygapophyseal articulation? A. AP B. Lateral C. 30-degree RPO D. 45-degree LPO

30 deg RPO

Which of the following is usually a fatal dose for humans if received as an acute exposure?

300 R

What is the LD 50/30 dose for humans in rads?

350

Which of the following will produce the greatest distortion? A. AP projection of the skull B. PA projection of the skull C. 37° AP axial of the skull D. 20° PA axial of the skull

37 degree AP axial of the skull

At least how many HVLs are required to reduce the intensity of a beam of monoenergetic photons to less than 10% of its original value? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

4 An HVL may be defined as the amount and thickness of absorber necessary to reduce the radiation intensity to half its original value. Thus, the first HVL would reduce the intensity to 50% of its original value, the second to 25%, the third to 12.5%, and the fourth to 6.25% of its original value.

If a patient received 0.2 Gy during a 5 minute fluoroscopic examination, what was the dose rate? A. 0.04 mGy/min B. 1.0 mGy/min C. 10.0 mGy/min D. 40.0 mGy/min

40.0 mGy/min -0.2 Gy is equal to 200 mGy. If 200 mGy were delivered in 5 minutes, then the dose rate would be 40 mGy/min: 200 mGy / 5 min = x / 1 5 x = 200 x = 40 mGy/min

Which of the following would best demonstrate the proximal tibio-fibular joint space?

45 degree medial oblique (AP)

Occupational radiation monitoring is required when it is possible that the individual's annual dose might exceed:

5 mSv

According to the NCRP, the annual occupational whole-body dose-equivalent limit is A. 1 mSv B. 50 mSv C. 150 mSv D. 500 mSv

50 mSv

According to the NCRP, the annual occupational dose-equivalent limit to the thyroid, skin, and extremities is:

500 mSv

If a satisfactory radiograph is produced with 18 mAs at 72", what mAs change would be required if the exposure had to be made at 40"?

6 mAs

Primary radiation barriers must be at least how high? A. 5 ft B. 6 ft C. 7 ft D. 8 ft

7 ft

A patient's IV must be changed every _____ hours. If a complication is suspected, the site should be discontinued immediately.

72 hours

What percentage of x-ray attenuation does a 0.5-mm lead equivalent apron at 100 kVp provide? A. 51% B. 66% C. 75% D. 94%

75%

How much protection is provided from a 75-kVp x-ray beam when using a 0.50-mm lead equivalent apron? A. 51% B. 66% C. 88% D. 99%

88%

At a minimum oxygen saturation should be equal to or greater than

90%

Medical and dental radiation accounts for what percentage of the general public's exposure to human-made radiation?

90%

A normal pulse oximeter reading is:

98%

Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogeneous glandular breast tissue? A. A postpubertal adolescent B. A 20-year-old with one previous pregnancy C. A menopausal woman D. A postmenopausal 65-year-old

A postpubertal adolescent

The submentovertical (SMV) oblique axial projection of the zygomatic arches requires that the skull be rotated A. 15 degrees toward the affected side. B. 15 degrees away from the affected side. C. 45 degrees toward the affected side. D. 45 degrees away from the affected side.

A. 15 degrees toward the affected side

If the center photocell were selected for a lateral projection of the lumbar spine that was positioned with the spinous processes instead of the vertebral bodies centered to the grid, how would the resulting radiograph look? A. The image would be underexposed. B. The image would be overexposed. C. The image would be correctly exposed. D. An exposure could not be made.

A. The image would be underexposed. --If the photocell were centered more posteriorly to a thinner and less dense structure, then the exposure received would be correct for that less-dense structure. The spinous processes would be well visualized, but the denser vertebral bodies and surrounding structures (pedicles and lamina) would be underexposed. Accurate selection of photocells and precise positioning are critical with the use of automatic exposure devices.

If a radiograph, made using AEC, is overexposed because an exposure shorter than the minimum response time was required, the radiographer generally should A. decrease the milliamperage B. increase the milliamperage C. increase the kilovoltage D. decrease the kilovoltage

A. decrease the milliamperage --Decreasing or increasing the kilovoltage will produce a change in radiographic contrast. The image was overexposed (from excessive exposure time) because the AEC wasn't capable of producing the required extremely short exposure time. To bring the required exposure to an exposure time the AEC is capable of, the mA should be decreased (thus requiring a longer exposure time, within the capability of the AEC).

The image intensifier's input phosphor differs from the output phosphor in that the input phosphor A. is much larger than the output phosphor B. emits electrons, whereas the output phosphor emits light photons C. absorbs electrons, whereas the output phosphor absorbs light photons D. is a fixed size, and the size of the output phosphor can vary

A. is much larger than the output phosphor

The line-focus principle expresses the relationship between A. the actual and the effective focal spot B. exposure given the IR and resulting spatial resolution C. SID used and resulting receptor exposure D. grid ratio and lines per inch

A. the actual and the effective focal spot

The luminescent light emitted by the PSP is converted to a digital image by the A. DAC B. scanner-reader C. ADC D. helium-neon laser

ADC

Which of the following positions is most likely to offer the best visualization of the pulmonary apices? A. Lateral decubitus B. Dorsal decubitus C. Erect lateral D. AP axial lordotic

AP axial lordotic

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate acromioclavicular separation? A. AP recumbent, affected shoulder B. AP recumbent, both shoulders C. AP erect, affected shoulder D. AP erect, both shoulders

AP erect, both shoulders

Free air in the abdominal cavity is best demonstrated in which of the following positions? A. AP projection, left lateral decubitus position B. AP projection, right lateral decubitus position C. PA recumbent position D. AP recumbent position

AP projection, left lateral decubitus position (because liver tissue is so homogeneous, a small amount of air will be perceived more easily superimposed on it rather than on left-sided structures. Thus, an AP projection obtained in the left lateral decubitus position will best demonstrate a small amount of free air because that air will be superimposed on the liver.)

The lesser tubercle of the humerus will be visualized in profile in the:

AP shoulder internal rotation radiograph.

Anaphylactic shock manifests early symptoms that include: 1. dysphagia. 2. itching of palms and soles. 3. constriction of the throat

All 3

Gonadal shielding should be provided for male patients in which of the following examinations? 1. Femur 2. Abdomen 3. Pelvis

All 3

Indirect modes of disease transmission include: 1. airborne 2. fomite 3. vector

All 3

The legal document or individual authorized to make an individual's health care decisions, should the individual be unable to make them for himself or herself, is the: 1. advance health care directive. 2. living will. 3. health care proxy.

All 3

The radiographer's radiation monitor report must include which of the following information? 1. Lifetime dose equivalent 2. Quarterly dose equivalent 3. Inception date

All 3

Which of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP? 1. A fluoroscopic unit with imaging device and tilt-table capabilities 2. A fiber-optic endoscope 3. Polyethylene catheters

All 3

Which of the following is (are) tested as part of a QC program? 1. Beam alignment 2. Reproducibility 3. Linearity

All 3

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the proper care of a patient with a tracheostomy? 1. Employ sterile technique if you must touch a tracheostomy for any reason. 2. Before you suction a tracheostomy, the patient should be well aerated. 3. Never suction for longer than 15 seconds, permitting the patient to rest in between.

All 3

The sternoclavicular joints will be best demonstrated in which of the following positions? A. Apical lordotic B. Anterior oblique C. Lateral D. Weight-bearing

Anterior Oblique

A patient developed hives several minutes after injection of an iodinated contrast agent. What type of drug should be readily available? A. Analgesic B. Antihistamine C. Anti-inflammatory D. Antibiotic

Antihistamine

What is the first treatment for extravasation of contrast media during an IV injection? A. Apply a hot compress. B. Apply a cold compress. C. Apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops. D. Remove the needle and locate a sturdier vein immediately.

Apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops

What is the effect on RBE as LET increases? A. As LET increases, RBE increases. B. As LET increases, RBE decreases. C. As LET increases, RBE stabilizes. D. LET has no effect on RBE.

As LET increases, RBE increases

When measuring a patient's blood pressure, their arm should be:

At the level of the heart

Sources of secondary radiation include: A. background radiation B. leakage radiation C. scattered radiation

B&C -leakage radiation -scattered radiation

A focal-spot size of 0.3 mm or smaller is essential for which of the following procedures? A. Bone radiography B. Magnification radiography C. Tomography D. Fluoroscopy

B. Magnification radiography

One reason why only one image is preferred per image plate is: A. To ensure that the anatomical part is properly centered to avoid undercutting of the image B. To allow the radiologist to split the PACS monitor and display the current image and a prior image side-by-side for comparison C. To ensure optimal radiation safety, since only one image is exposed on one image plate D. To reduce the chances of grid cutoff artifacts

B. To allow the radiologist to split the PACS monitor and display the current image and a prior image side-by-side for comparison

Focal-spot blur is greatest A. toward the anode end of the x-ray beam B. toward the cathode end of the x-ray beam C. directly along the course of the CR D. as the SID is increased

B. toward the cathode end of the x-ray beam --Focal-spot blur, or geometric blur, is caused by photons emerging from a large focal spot. Because the projected focal spot is greatest at the cathode end of the x-ray tube, geometric blur is also greatest at the corresponding part (cathode end) of the radiograph. The projected focal-spot size becomes progressively smaller toward the anode end of the x-ray tube.

Which of the following radiologic examinations requires preparation consisting of a low-residue diet, cathartics, and enemas? A. Upper GI series B. Small bowel series C. Barium enema (BE) D. Intravenous (IV) cystogram

BE

If a radiographer performed a lumbar spine examination on a patient who was supposed to have an elbow examination, which of the following charges may be brought against the radiographer? A.Assault B. Battery C. False imprisonment D. Defamation

Battery

A decrease from 80 mAs to 40 mAs will result in a decrease in which of the following? 1. Wavelength 2. Exposure rate 3. Beam intensity

Beam intensity & exposure rate

What is the device that directs the light emitted from the image intensifier to various viewing and imaging apparatus? A. Output phosphor B. Beam splitter C. Spot-film changer D. Automatic brightness control

Beam splitter

You have encountered a person who is apparently unconscious. Although you open his airway, there is no rise and fall of the chest, and you can hear no breath sounds. You should: A. begin mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing, giving two full breaths. B. proceed with the Heimlich maneuver. C. begin external chest compressions at a rate of 70-80 compressions/min. D. begin external chest compressions at a rate of at least 100 compressions/min.

Begin external chest compressions at a rate of at least 100 compressions/min.

"Saturation" of an image in CR means that:

Beyond a certain exposure level, a large number of pixels will be at maximum digital value (black), resulting in loss of visibility of anatomical structures in that region.

The largest amount of diagnostic x-ray absorption is most likely to occur in which of the following tissues? A. Lung B. Adipose C. Muscle D. Bone

Bone

The condition in which pulmonary alveoli lose their elasticity and become permanently inflated, causing the patient to consciously exhale, is A. bronchial asthma B. bronchitis C. emphysema D. tuberculosis

C. Emphysema is a progressive disorder caused by long-term irritation of the bronchial passages, such as by air pollution or cigarette smoking. Emphysema patients are unable to exhale normally because of the loss of elasticity of the alveolar walls. If emphysema patients receive oxygen, it is usually administered at a very slow rate because their respirations are controlled by the level of carbon dioxide in the blood.

n reviewing a patient's blood chemistry, which of the following blood urea nitrogen (BUN) ranges is considered normal? A. 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL B. 4.5 to 6 mg/100 mL C. 8 to 25 mg/100 mL D. Up to 50 mg/100 mL

C. 8 to 25 mg/100 mL

Which of the following technical changes would best serve to remedy the effect of very dissimilar tissue densities? A. Use of short exposure time B. Use of a high-ratio grid C. High-kilovoltage exposure factors D. High milliampere-seconds exposure factors

C. High-kilovoltage exposure factors

If your patient is unable to stay erect for a paranasal sinus examination, which of the following alternatives should be chosen? A. Recumbent AP B. Lateral recumbent C. Lateral cross-table recumbent D. Recumbent Waters'

C. Lateral cross-table recumbent (Radiography of the paranasal sinuses should be performed in the erect position whenever possible to demonstrate the presence of an air-fluid level. The only way air-fluid levels can be demonstrated is to have the central ray parallel the floor, as in erect, decubitus, and cross-table projections. Therefore, of the choices provided, the cross-table lateral is the only one that will demonstrate air-fluid levels.)

An illness of unknown or obscure cause is said to be A. systemic. B. epidemic. C. idiopathic. D. pathogenic.

C. idiopathic

According to the CDC, all the following precaution guidelines are true except A. airborne precautions require that the patient wear a mask. B. masks are indicated when caring for patients on MRSA precautions. C. patients under MRSA precautions require a negative-pressure room. D. gloves are indicated when caring for a patient on droplet precautions.

C. patients under MRSA precautions require a negative-pressure room.

Following the ingestion of a fatty meal, what hormone is secreted by the duodenal mucosa to stimulate contraction of the gallbladder? A. Insulin B. Cholecystokinin C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone D. Gastrin

Cholecytokinin

Which of the following effects does an antibiotic have on the body? A. Decreases pain B. Helps delay clotting C. Increases urine output D. Combats bacterial growth

Combats bacterial growth

Which of the following devices is used to overcome severe variation in patient anatomy or tissue density, providing more uniform radiographic density? A. Compensating filter B. Grid C. Collimator D. Protective filter

Compensating filter

Which interaction is most likely to occur in bone tissue at photon energies above 50 keV?

Compton

Lead aprons are worn during fluoroscopy to protect the radiographer from exposure to radiation from A. the photoelectric effect B. Compton scatter C. classic scatter D. pair production

Compton scatter

Which of the following interactions between x-ray photons and matter involves a high-energy photon and the ejection of an outer shell electron?

Compton scatter

Which interaction between x-ray photons and matter involves partial transfer of the incident photon energy to the involved atom?

Compton scattering

What type of x-ray imaging uses an area beam and a photostimulable phosphor as the IR?

Computed Radiography

Which of the following legal phrases defines a circumstance in which both the health care provider's and the patient's actions contributed to an injurious outcome? A. Intentional misconduct B. Contributory negligence C. Gross negligence D. Corporate negligence

Contributory negligence

Which of the following blood chemistry levels must the radiographer check prior to excretory urography? 1. Creatinine 2. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 3. Red blood cells (RBCs)

Creatinine and BUN

If 85 kV and 20 mAs were used for a particular abdominal exposure with single-phase equipment, what mAs would be required to produce a similar radiograph with 3-phase, 12-pulse equipment. A. 40 B. 25 C. 20 D. 10

D. 10

Which of the following groups of technical factors will produce the least receptor exposure? A. 400 mA, 0.010 second, 94 kV B. 500 mA, 0.008 second, 94 kV C. 200 mA, 0.040 second, 94 kV D. 100 mA, 0.020 second, 80 kV

D. 100 mA, 0.020 second, 80 kV

Which of the following groups of exposure factors would be most effective in eliminating prominent pulmonary vascular markings in the RAO position of the sternum? A. 500 mA, 1/30 s, 70 kV B. 200 mA, 0.04 second, 80 kV C. 300 mA, 1/10 s, 80 kV D. 25 mA, 7/10 s, 70 kV

D. 25 mA, 7/10 s, 70 kV

The effect described as differential absorption is responsible for: 1. radiographic contrast 2. a result of attenuating characteristics of tissue 3. minimized by the use of a high peak kilovoltage A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. All 3

Geometric unsharpness is most likely to be greater A. at long SIDs. B. at the anode end of the image. C. with small focal spots. D. at the cathode end of the image.

D. at the cathode end of the image.

When medications are administered parenterally, they are given A. orally B. orally or intravenously C. intravenously or intramuscularly D. by a route other than orally

D. by a route other than orally

Each time an x-ray photon scatters, A. its intensity increases 4 times. B. its intensity increases 1000 times. C. its intensity decreases 4 times. D. its intensity decreases 1000 times.

D. its intensity decreases 1000 times.

Filtration is added to the x-ray beam to A. decrease photoelectric interaction. B. remove the "hard" x-rays. C. produce a more heterogeneous x-ray beam. D. produce an x-ray beam with higher average energy.

D. produce an x-ray beam with higher average energy. -Because this radiation is "soft" (low energy) and would not reach the image receptor anyway, the x-ray tube total filtration has no effect on receptor exposure. Filtration serves to increase the overall average energy of the beam; it "hardens" the x-ray beam.

An autoclave is used for A.dry heat sterilization. B. chemical sterilization. C. gas sterilization. D. steam sterilization.

D. steam sterilization

In myelography, the contrast medium generally is injected into the A. cisterna magna. B. individual intervertebral disks. C. subarachnoid space between the first and second vertebrae. D. subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae.

D. subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae.

Quality control testing of digital display monitors should be conducted A. Daily B. Weekly C. Monthly D. Annually

Daily

Which of the following will produce the most significant increase in patient dose? A. Decreased mAs B. Decreased SID C. Increased filtration D. Increased kVp

Decreased SID

Quality Control (QC) testing is used to evaluate digital display monitors in all of the following ways, EXCEPT: A. Display luminance response B. Display resolution C. Display matrix size D. Display noise

Display matrix size

What structure can be located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis? A. Dome of the acetabulum B. Femoral neck C.Greater trochanter D. Iliac crest

Dome of the acetabulum

A patient experiencing an episode of syncope should be placed in which of the following positions? A. Dorsal recumbent with head elevated B. Dorsal recumbent with feet elevated C. Lateral recumbent D. Seated with feet supported

Dorsal recumbent with feet elevated

Amplification of the frequencies of the areas of interest is known as

Edge enhancement

All of the following are potential digital pre-processing problems, except: A. Edge enhancement B. Defective pixel C. Image lag D. Line noise

Edge enhancement (this is a type of post processing image manipulation) which can be effective for enhancing fractures and small, high contrast tissues)

In the production of characteristic radiation at the tungsten target, the incident electron A. ejects an inner-shell tungsten electron B. ejects an outer-shell tungsten electron C. is deflected, with resulting energy loss D. is deflected, with resulting energy gain

Ejects an INNER-shell tungsten electron

Which of the following pathologic conditions would require a decrease in exposure factors? A. Congestive heart failure B. Pneumonia C. Emphysema D. Pleural effusion

Emphysema

A patient suffering from orthopnea would experience the least discomfort in which body position? A. Fowler B. Trendelenburg C. Recumbent D. Erect

Erect Orthopnea is a respiratory condition in which the patient has difficulty breathing (dyspnea) in any position other than erect. The patient is usually comfortable in the erect, standing, or seated position. The Trendelenburg position places the patient's head lower than the rest of the body, the Fowler position is a semierect position, and the recumbent position is lying down.

Which of the following may occur if the X-ray exposure field is not properly collimated, positioned, and sized? A. Modulation transfer function failure B. Moiré artifact C. Exposure field recognition errors may occur D. Ghost artifact

Exposure field recognition errors may occur

TRUE OR FALSE: Grid lines projected onto the imaging plate will not interfere with the image.

False

The use of which of the following is (are) essential in magnification radiography? 1. High-ratio grid 2. Fractional focal spot 3. Direct exposure technique

Fractional focal spot

Which of the following structures will usually contain air, in the PA recumbent position on a sthenic patient, during a double-contrast upper GI (UGI) examination? A. Duodenal bulb B. Descending duodenum C. Pyloric vestibule D. Gastric fundus

Gastric fundus

Which of the following structures will be filled with barium in the AP recumbent position of a sthenic patient during an upper GI examination? A. Duodenal bulb B. Descending duodenum C. Pyloric vestibule D. Gastric fundus

Gastric fundus [The stomach is normally angled with the fundus lying posteriorly and the body, pylorus, and duodenum inferior to the fundus and angling anteriorly. Therefore, when the patient ingests barium and lies AP recumbent, the heavy barium gravitates easily to the fundus and fills it. With the patient PA recumbent, barium gravitates inferiorly to the body, pylorus, and duodenum, displacing air into the fundus.]

Focusing distance is associated with which of the following? A. Computed tomography B. Chest radiography C. Magnification radiography D. Grids

Grids

Drugs that may be used to prolong blood clotting time include: 1. heparin 2. diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 3. lidocaine

Heparin

Which of the following is another name for an intermittent injection port? A. Hypodermic needle B. Butterfly needle C. Heparin lock D. Intravenous (IV) infusion

Heparin lock

What is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient? A. High and vertical B. High and horizontal C. Low and vertical D. Low and horizontal

High and horizontal

Which of the following examinations most likely would be performed to diagnose Wilm's tumor? A. BE B. Upper GI C. IVU D. Bone survey

IVU

The purpose of the barcode label is to identify/tie the _____________ to an exam and patient demographic information.

Imaging plate

What should be done to correct for magnification when using air-gap technique? A. Decrease OID B. Increase OID C. Decrease SID D. Increase SID

Increase SID

Before a flat-panel detector can be used for a radiographic exposure, it must be prepared. This preparation is referred to as: A. Propagation B. Initialization C. Augmentation D. Instrumentation

Initialization

For exposure to 1 mGy of each of the following ionizing radiations, which would result in the greatest dose to the individual? A. External source of 1-MeV x-rays B. External source of diagnostic x-rays C. Internal source of alpha particles D. External source of beta particles

Internal source of alpha particles

Administration of contrast agents for radiographic demonstration of the spinal canal is performed by which of the following parenteral routes? A. Subcutaneous B. Intravenous C. Intramuscular D. Intrathecal

Intrathecal

Sterile technique is required when contrast agents are administered:

Intrathecally

Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children? A. Appendicitis B. Intussusception C. Regional enteritis D. Ulcerative colitis

Intussusception

How will x-ray photon intensity be affected if the SID is doubled?

Its intensity decreases FOUR times

Which of the following structures is located at the level of the interspace between the second and third thoracic vertebrae? A. Manubrium B. Jugular notch C. Sternal angle D. Xiphoid process

Jugular Notch

On an average size patient, lying prone, the duodenal bulb lies approximately at the level of:

L-2

Which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in an asthenic patient? A. LAO B. RAO C. LPO D. Erect

LAO

Which of the following does not determine CR resolution? a. Phosphor layer thickness b. Pixel size c. The number of pixels d. Laser scan speed

Laser scan speed

Which of the following positions demonstrates all the paranasal sinuses? A. Parietoacanthial B. PA axial C. Lateral D. True PA

Lateral

With the patient supine, the left side of the pelvis elevated 25 degrees, and the CR entering 1 in. medial to the left anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS), which of the following is demonstrated?

Left SI joint

The legal doctrine respondeat superior relates to which of the following? A. Let the master answer. B. The thing speaks for itself. C. A thing or matter settled by justice. D. A matter settled by precedent.

Let the master answer

In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated? A. AP B. Lateral oblique C. Medial oblique D. Lateral

Medial Oblique

An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examinations? A. Intravenous urogram B. Retrograde pyelogram C. Myelogram D. Cystogram

Myelogram

Which of the following cells is the least radiosensitive? A. Myelocytes B. Myocytes C. Megakaryocytes D. Erythroblasts

Myocytes

Hirschsprung disease, or congenital megacolon, is related age group?

Neonate

Urine is formed in the:

Nephron

Which of the following cell types has the lowest radiosensitivity? A. Nerve cells B. Muscle cells C. Spermatids D. Lymphocytes

Nerve cells

Which of the following medications commonly found on emergency carts functions to raise blood pressure? A. Heparin B. Norepinephrine C. Nitroglycerin D. Lidocaine

Norepinephrine

The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine? A. Eye B. Nose C. Body D. Ear

Nose

Which of the x-ray circuit devices shown in Figure 6-5 operates on the principle of self-induction?

Number 1 (the autotransformer)

Europium-activated barium fluorohalide is associated with A. fluoroscopy B. image intensifiers C. PSP storage plates D. filament material

PSP storage plates

To avoid the moire grid artifact, the grid must be oriented ______ to the plate reader's laser scan direction.

Perpendicular

Backscatter on a digital image can cause an artifact called a A. Phantom image artifact B. Moiré artifact C. Static artifact D. Grid cutoff artifact

Phantom image artifact

A device contained within many CR readers that functions to convert light energy released by the PSP into electrical energy, is called a:

Photomultiplier tube

Sampling frequency in computed radiography (CR) is expressed as: A. The TFT array size B. An inverse relationship between focal spot size and matrix size C. The light spread between the image plate and the light guide of the scanner D. Pixels/mm or pixel density

Pixels/mm or pixel density

Which of the following personnel radiation monitors will provide an immediate reading? A. TLD B. Film badge C. Lithium fluoride chips D. Pocket dosimeter

Pocket dosimeter

What should you do if you discover while taking patient history that the patient scheduled for an intravenous urogram (IVU) takes metformin hydrochloride daily but has no evidence of AKI and with eGFR ≥30 mL/l.732 ? 1. Proceed with the examination if kidney function is normal. 2. Instruct the patient to withhold the metformin for 48 hours after the examination. 3. Reschedule the examination until the patient has been off metformin for 48 hours.

Proceed with the examination if kidney function is normal.

The pyloric canal and duodenal bulb are best demonstrated during an upper GI series in which of the following positions?

RAO

With the patient's head in a PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized? A. Symphysis B. Rami C. Body D. Angle

Rami

The electron beam in a television cathode ray tube (CRT) is projected onto the output phosphor in a: A. Vertical pattern B. Fixed direct beam C. Broad field D. Raster pattern

Raster pattern

What lies immediately under the phosphor layer of a PSP storage plate? A. Reflective layer B. Base C. Antistatic layer D. Lead foil

Reflective layer

Which of the following radiologic procedures requires that a contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter? A. Nephrotomography B. Retrograde urography C. Cystourethrography D. IVU

Retrograde urography

Which of the following devices is used to control voltage by varying resistance? A. Autotransformer B. High-voltage transformer C. Rheostat D. Fuse

Rheostat

Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process? A. AP axial B. Lateral C. Parietoacanthial D. Submentovertical (SMV)

SMV submentovertical

Maslow's hierarchy of basic human needs includes which of the following? 1. Self-esteem 2. Love and belongingness 3. Death with dignity

Self-esteem & Love and belongingness

Recently, dual-sided reading technology has become available in more modern CR readers, in which two sets of photodetectors are used to capture light released from the front and back sides of the phosphor storage plate, or PSP (photostimulable phosphor). This technology enables improved: A. Slow-scan direction speed B. Modulation transfer function C. Signal-to-noise ratio D. Fast-scan direction speed

Signal-to-noise ratio

Which of the following requires two exposures to evaluate focal-spot accuracy? A. Pinhole camera B. Slit camera C. Star pattern D. Bar pattern

Slit camera

OID is related to spatial resolution in which of the following ways? A. Spatial resolution is directly related to OID. B. Spatial resolution is inversely related to OID. C. As OID increases, so does spatial resolution. D. OID is unrelated to spatial resolution.

Spatial resolution is inversely related to OID. --As the distance from the object to the IR (OID) increases, so does magnification distortion, thereby decreasing spatial resolution.

Which of the following sinus groups is demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthal projection (Waters method) with the CR directed through the patient's open mouth? A. Frontal B. Ethmoidal C. Maxillary D. Sphenoidal

Sphenoidal

The device used to test the accuracy of the x-ray timer is the:

Spinning top

What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it? A. Spondylitis B. Spondylolysis C. Spondylolisthesis D. Spondylosis

Spondylolisthesis

Which part of an induction motor is located outside the x-ray tube glass envelope? A. Filament B. Focusing cup C. Stator D. Rotor

Stator

In radiation protection, the product of absorbed dose and the correct weighting factors is used to determine A. air kerma B. Gy C. Sv D. Bq

Sv

Which of the following blood pressure measurements might indicate shock? A. Systolic pressure lower than 60 mmHg B. Systolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg C. Diastolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg D. Diastolic pressure lower than 90 mmHg

Systolic pressure lower than 60 mmHg

Which of the following mobile radiography applications enables the radiographer to view the radiographic image before leaving the patient? a. Fixed digital units of any type b.Tethered or wireless flat-panel digital mobile units c. Portable units using conventional radiographic film d. Battery operated conventional radiography mobile units

Tethered or wireless flat-panel digital mobile units

components of an x-ray tube

The figure illustrates the component parts of a rotating-anode x-ray tube enclosed within a glass envelope (number 3) to preserve the vacuum necessary for x-ray production. Number 4 is the rotating anode with its beveled focal track at the periphery (number 8) and its stem (at number 5). Numbers 6 and 7 are the stator and rotor, respectively—the two components of an induction motor—whose function it is to rotate the anode. Number 1 is the filament of the cathode assembly, which is made of thoriated tungsten and functions to liberate electrons (thermionic emission) when heated to white hot (incandescence). Number 2 is the molybdenum focusing cup, which functions to direct the liberated filament electrons to the focal spot.

A cross-sectional image of the abdomen is shown.

The large structure on the right, labeled number 1, is the liver. The gallbladder is seen somewhat darker on the medial border of the liver. The left kidney is labeled number 4; the right kidney is seen clearly on the other side. The vertebra is labeled number 5, and the psoas muscles are seen just posterior to the vertebra. Just anterior to the body of the vertebra is the circular aorta, labeled number 3 (some calcification can be seen brighter). The somewhat flattened inferior vena cava (number 2) is seen to the left of and slightly anterior to the aorta.

13 is the portal vein

The large, homogeneous structure on the right, labeled 14, is the liver. The gallbladder is often seen darker on the medial border of the liver but is not visualized here. The left kidney is labeled 5; the right kidney is seen clearly on the opposite side labeled 11. The vertebra is seen in the center, and the psoas muscles are seen just posterior to the vertebra. Just anterior to the body of the vertebra is the circular aorta, labeled 7. The inferior vena cava (number 12) is seen to the right of the aorta. The circular structure just anterior to the inferior vena cava is the portal vein (number 13). Number 1 is the stomach, number 2 is the splenic/left colic flexure, number 3 is the pancreas, and number 4 is the spleen. Numbers 6 and 10 are portions of the left and right adrenal glands—not normally seen at this level. Number 8 is the celiac trunk; the common hepatic artery is seen branching to the right, and the splenic artery is seen branching to the left. Number 9 is a part of the diaphragmatic crura connecting the vertebrae and diaphragm.

The following are disadvantages of a capacitor-discharge mobile unit, except: A. The mAs increases during the exposure, called "mAs creep" B. The capacitor may continue to discharge after the exposure C. The actual kilovoltage achieved during an exposure is significantly lower than the set kVp D. At lower kVp settings, the capacitors discharge more slowly and, therefore, a considerable residual kV may exist after the desired exposure time

The mAs increases during the exposure, called "mAs creep"

The floor of the cranium includes all the following bones except: A. the temporal bones B. the occipital bone C. the ethmoid bone D. the sphenoid bone

The occipital bone

The legal doctrine res ipsa locquitur means which of the following? A. Let the master answer. B. The thing speaks for itself. C. A thing or matter settled by justice. D. A matter settled by precedent.

The thing speaks for itself.

With milliamperage adjusted to produce equal exposures, all the following statements are true except A. a single-phase examination done at 10 mAs can be duplicated with three-phase, 12-pulse at 5 mAs. B. There is greater patient dose with three-phase equipment than with single-phase equipment. C. Three-phase equipment can produce comparable radiographs with less heat unit (HU) buildup. D. Three-phase equipment produces lower-contrast radiographs than single-phase equipment.

There is greater patient dose with three-phase equipment than with single-phase equipment.

What type of equipment comes closest to constant potential, as the voltage never falls below 96.5% of maximum value.

Three-phase, 12-pulse equipment

Which of the following equipment is mandatory for performance of a myelogram? A. Cine camera B. 105-mm spot film C. Tilting x-ray table D. Tomography

Tilting x-ray table

Which ethical principle is related to sincerity and truthfulness? A. Beneficence B. Autonomy C. Veracity D. Fidelity

Veracity

Which of the following is a type of television camera tube that converts a visible image on the output phosphor of the image intensifier into an electronic signal? A. Ionization chamber B. Vidicon C. Charge-coupled device D. Cathode ray tube

Vidicon

Which of the following radiologic examinations can demonstrate ureteral reflux? A. IV urogram B. Retrograde pyelogram C. Voiding cystourethrogram D. Nephrotomogram

Voiding cystourethrogram

Flat-panel detectors that use indirect conversion technology convert:

X-rays to visible light

All the following are central venous lines except A. a Port-a-Cath. B. a PICC. C. a Swan-Ganz catheter. D. a Salem-sump.

a Salem-sump

A decrease in kilovoltage will result in A. a decrease in receptor exposure B. a decrease in image contrast C. a decrease in spatial resolution D. an increase in spatial resolution

a decrease in receptor exposure

All of the following statements regarding the RAO position of the sternum are true, except: A. the sternum is generally projected to the left of the vertebral column. B. shallow breathing during the exposure can obliterate prominent pulmonary markings. C. it is helpful to project the sternum over the heart. D. a thin thorax requires a lesser degree of obliquity than a thicker thorax.

a thin thorax requires a lesser degree of obliquity than a thicker thorax. A thin chest would require a greater degree of obliquity to separate the vertebrae and sternum from superimposition than would a thick chest. With the patient in the RAO position, the sternum is projected to the left of the vertebral column and superimposed on the heart. This superimposition promotes more uniform tissue density and therefore more uniform receptor exposure. Prominent pulmonary vascular markings may be obliterated by allowing the patient to breathe (shallow breaths only) during a long exposure (with a very low mA)

Which diagnostic radiographic procedures is most often associated with the highest mean marrow dose to the patient?

a three-projection lumber spine series

A small container holding several doses of medication is termed A. an ampule. B. a vial. C. a bolus. D. a carafe.

a vial

The gray is a unit of

absorbed dose

The NCRP recommends that the guidance level for cumulative exposure should be calculated using which of the following formulas?

age x 1 rem

The most commonly used negative contrast agents are:

air and carbon dioxide

Unit of exposure in air

air kerma

A minor reaction to the IV administration of a contrast agent can include: 1. a few hives 2. nausea 3. a flushed face

all 3

Acceptable method(s) of minimizing motion unsharpness is (are): 1.suspended respiration 2.short exposure time 3.patient instruction

all 3

Body substances and fluids that are considered infectious or potentially infectious include: 1. sputum 2. synovial fluid 3. cerebrospinal fluid

all 3

Characteristics of DR imaging include: 1. solid-state detector receptor plates 2. a direct-capture imaging system 3. immediate image display

all 3

Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest are performed to demonstrate 1. partial or complete collapse of pulmonary lobe(s) 2. air in the pleural cavity 3. foreign body

all 3

The cycle of infection includes which of the following components? 1. Reservoir of infection 2. Susceptible host 3. Means of transmission

all 3

The structures forming the brain stem include: 1. the pons 2. the medulla oblongata 3. the midbrain

all 3

When comparing the male and female bony pelves, it is noted that the: 1. male pelvis is deeper. 2. female pubic arch is greater than 90°. 3. female ilium is more horizontal.

all 3

Which of the following bones participate in the formation of the acetabulum? 1. Ilium 2. Ischium 3. Pubis

all 3

Which of the following factors influence(s) the production of scattered radiation? 1. Kilovoltage level 2. Tissue density 3. Size of field

all 3

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the PA axial projection of the paranasal sinuses? 1. OML forms a 15 degree angle with the horizontal beam. 2. The petrous pyramids are projected into the lower third of the orbits. 3. The frontal sinuses are visualized.

all 3

Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to radiation safety in fluoroscopy? 1. Tabletop radiation intensity must not exceed 100 mGya/min. 2. Tabletop radiation intensity must not exceed 21 mGya/min/mA. 3. In high-level fluoroscopy, tabletop intensity up to 200 mGya/min is permitted.

all 3

An aneurysm is:

an abnormal dilation of a blood vessel

A quantity of medication introduced intravenously over a period of time is termed A. an IV push. B. an infusion. C. a bolus. D. a hypodermic

an infusion

How often should lead aprons be checked to ensure they will adequately protect the wearer?

annually

The fact that x-ray intensity across the primary beam can vary as much as 45% describes the A. line-focus principle. B. transformer law. C. anode heel effect. D. inverse-square law.

anode heel effect

The practice that is used to retard the growth of pathogenic bacteria is termed A. antisepsis. B. disinfection. C. sterilization. D. medical asepsis.

antisepsis

The gallbladder lies closest to the midline of the body in which of the following body habitus?

asthenic

Unlawful touching of a person without his or her consent is termed:

battery

The source-to-table distance in fixed/stationary fluoroscopy must:

be at least 38 cm

A patient is positioned for a lateral radiograph of the thoracic spine. In this position, an imaginary plane passing through the intervertebral foraminae would:

be parallel with the CR

Chest drainage systems should always be kept: 1. below the level of the patient's chest. 2. above the patient's chest. 3. at the level of the patient's diaphragm.

below the level of the patient's chest

The normal human tissue that will have the greatest attenuation of low energy x-ray is:

bone

An RT (ARRT) is the supervising manager of a short-staffed imaging facility in a State having legislation that requires professional certification. A job applicant arrives whose ARRT certification has lapsed. The manager hires him to fill a 20-hour position doing chest and extremity radiography. The supervisor is guilty of:

breaking the ARRT Rules of Ethics

The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the A. diploe B. lambda C. bregma D. pterion

bregma

The primary function of radiographic contrast is to:

bring out the visibility of detail

Radiation intensity is greatest on the (cathode/anode) side of the tube?

cathode

To demonstrate the pulmonary apices with the patient in the AP position, the A. central ray is directed 15° to 20° cephalad. B. central ray is directed 15° to 20° caudad. C. exposure is made on full exhalation. D. patient's shoulders are rolled forward.

central ray is directed 15° to 20° cephalad. (When the shoulders are relaxed, the clavicles are usually carried below the pulmonary apices. To examine the portions of the lungs lying behind the clavicles, the central ray is directed cephalad 15° to 20° to project the clavicles above the apices when the patient is examined in the AP position.)

Inflammation of the vagina and urinary bladder is termed:

colpocystitis

With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids A. below the orbits B. in the lower third of the orbits C. completely within the orbits D. above the orbits

completely within the orbits

Any characteristic that makes a drug undesirable or improper is its:

contraindication

Which of the dose-response curves shown in the figure is representative of radiation-induced skin erythema? 1. Dose-response curve A 2. Dose-response curve B 3. Dose-response curve C

curve C

The primary advantage that a 100-mm photofluoro spot camera image has over a 9-inch cassette loaded spot film is:

decreased patient dose and ease of use

A radiograph of the abdomen was made using AEC. If the radiograph is too light, what would you adjust on the generator to increase the film density?

density compensation circuit

The part of a CT imaging system made of thousands of solid-state photodiodes is the A. gantry. B. detector array. C. collimator assembly. D. x-ray tube.

detector array

What is it called when the heart is seen on the right side?

dextrocardia

A patient suffering form syncope should be placed in which of the following positions?

dorsal recumbent with feet elevated

To maintain image clarity in an image-intensifier system, the path of electron flow from the photocathode to the output phosphor is controlled by A. the accelerating anode B. electrostatic lenses C. the vacuum glass envelope D. the input phosphor

electrostatic lenses

Ipecac is a medication used to induce vomiting and is classified as a(n) A. diuretic. B. antipyretic. C. antihistamine. D. emetic.

emetic

The medical term for nosebleed is A. vertigo. B. epistaxis. C. urticaria. D. aura.

epistaxis

Dorsal decubitus projections of the chest are used to evaluate small amounts of

fluid in the posterior chest

All of the following have an effect on patient dose except A. inherent filtration. B. added filtration. C. SID. D. focal spot size.

focal spot size

Grid radius is associated with which of the following: a. grid ratio b. lines per inch c. focused grids d. parallel grids

focused grids

A drug's chemical name is called its A. generic name. B. trade name. C. brand name. D. proprietary name.

generic name

The structure indicated by the number 5 in image shows the__________. (What position is this patient in?)

ileum (Since the left colic/splenic flexure (number 1) is "open," this is either a RPO or LAO position.)

To obtain an exact axial projection of the clavicle, the patient should be positioned how?

in a lordotic position and direct the central ray at right angles to the coronal plane of the clavicle.

When involuntary motion must be considered, the exposure time may be cut in half if the kilovoltage is A. doubled B. increased by 15% C. increased by 25% D. increased by 35%

increased by 15%

An emetic is used to A. induce vomiting B. stimulate defecation C. promote elimination of urine D. inhibit coughing

induce vomiting

The automatic exposure device that is located immediately under the x-ray table is the A. ionization chamber B. scintillation camera C. photomultiplier D. photocathode

ionization chamber

An S number of 400 in a Fuji System ______ an S number of 200.

is half the exposure of

In fluoroscopy, the automatic brightness control is used to adjust the:

kVp and mA

When the erect position is requested as part of an IVU, it is used to demonstrate A. the adrenal glands. B. the renal surfaces. C. kidney mobility. D. the bladder neck.

kidney mobility

The long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are the A. transverse processes B. vertebral arches C. laminae D. pedicles

laminae

Which position best demonstrates the rectum during a colon exam?

lateral

To "excuse" suboptimal images, a radiographer makes a note on the exam requisition claiming that the patient "was uncooperative." That radiographer can legally be found guilty of A. battery. B. slander. C. libel. D. tort.

libel

term for the long narrow ridge located on the posterior femur.

linea aspera

The stomach of an asthenic patient is most likely to be located A. high, transverse, and lateral. B. low, transverse, and lateral. C. high, vertical, and toward the midline. D. low, vertical, and toward the midline.

low, vertical, and toward the midline

Which of the following radiation-induced conditions is most likely to have the longest latency period? a. malignancy b. hematologic effects c. local tissue effects d. acute radiation lethality

malignancy

Each tube has its own tube rating chart to show _________.

maximum exposure times

Which structure is not well demonstrated on a radiograph of an AP sacrum?

median sacral crest

When the head is positioned for the parenthetical (Water's) projection, the __________ line is perpendicular to the IR and the ________ line is at a 37 degree angle to the cassette.

mentomeatal, orbitomeatal

The auditory, or eustachian, tube extends from the nasopharynx to the A. external ear. B. middle ear. C. inner ear. D. oropharynx.

middle ear

For the average patient, the CR for a lateral projection of a barium-filled stomach should enter A. midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface B. midway between the vertebral column and the lateral border of the abdomen C. at the midcoronal line at the level of the iliac crest D. perpendicular to the level of L2

midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface

The focal spot-to-table distance in mobile fluoroscopy must:

not be less than 30 cm

A transformer will operate:

on A/C but not D/C

The center chamber is activated for a lateral projection of the chest. If the chamber located over the thoracic spine is activated by mistake, the resultant image of the lungs will be?

overexposure

A patient can only stand 75 degrees upright, rather than 90 degrees upright. How should the CR be angled for an upright abdomen if the indication for the exam is "fluid"?

parallel to the floor

The thoracic cavity is lined by: A. parietal pleura. B. visceral pleura. C. parietal peritoneum. D. visceral peritoneum.

parietal pleura

The principal function of filtration in the x-ray tube is to reduce:

patient skin dose

The femoral neck can be located A. parallel to the femoral shaft. B. perpendicular to the femoral shaft. C. perpendicular to a line drawn from the ASIS to the pubic symphysis. D. perpendicular to a line from the iliac crest to the pubic symphysis.

perpendicular to a line drawn from the ASIS to the pubic symphysis.

The component of a CR image plate (IP) that records the radiologic image is the A. emulsion B. helium-neon laser C. photostimulable phosphor D. scanner-reader

photostimulable phosphor

What can be done for a patient who will receive water soluble iodine contrast media to reduce allergic-like effects?

pre-medicate with steroids and antihistamines

Any wall that the useful x-ray beam can be directed toward is called a A. secondary barrier B. primary barrier C. leakage barrier D. scattered barrier

primary barrier

A patient who is diaphoretic is experiencing:

profuse sweating

Medical Abbreviation meaning every hour

qh

The electrical devices that convert the flow of current in the x-ray circuit from alternating to direct are called:

rectifiers

The major difference between excretory and retrograde urography is that A. they each require a different type of contrast agent. B. intravenous studies require more images. C. retrograde studies do not demonstrate function. D. more contrast medium-induced adverse reactions occur in retrograde studies.

retrograde studies do not demonstrate function.

All the following are part of the Patient's Bill of Rights except the right to

review any institutional records

All the following positions are likely to be employed for both single- and double-contrast examinations of the large bowel except A. lateral rectum. B. AP axial rectosigmoid. C. right and left lateral decubitus abdomen. D. RAO and LAO abdomen.

right and left lateral decubitus abdomen (The left and right decubitus positions usually are employed only in double-contrast barium enemas to better demonstrate double contrast of the medial and lateral walls of the ascending and descending colon.)

Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the A. right main stem bronchus B. left main stem bronchus C. esophagus D. proximal stomach

right main stem bronchus

An aspirated foreign body is more likely to enter the lower respiratory tract via the A. left main stem bronchus. B. right main stem bronchus. C. bronchioles. D. alveoli.

right main stem bronchus (it is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left—making it the most likely route for aspirated foreign bodies to enter the right lung.)

Misalignment of the x-ray tube, the body part, or the IR will cause:

shape distortion

Verbal disclosure of confidential information that is detrimental to the patient is referred to as

slander

What quality control test would be used to measure the size of the x-ray focal spot?

star resolution pattern

The complete killing of all microorganisms is termed A. surgical asepsis. B. medical asepsis. C. sterilization. D. disinfection.

sterilization

A cathartic is used to A. inhibit coughing. B. promote elimination of urine. C. stimulate defecation. D. induce vomiting.

stimulate defacation

Deoxygenated blood from the head and thorax is returned to the heart by the: A. pulmonary artery B. pulmonary veins C. superior vena cava D. thoracic aorta

superior vena cava

The primary function of a phototimer is to:

terminate the x-ray exposure for a predetermined film density

The variation in photon distribution between the anode and cathode ends of the x-ray tube is known as A. the line focus principle. B. the anode heel effect. C. the inverse square law. D. Bohr's theory.

the anode heel effect

Radiographs are whose property?

the health-care institutions

When charting drugs given to a patient:

the injection site must be recorded

The floor of the cranium includes all the following bones except A. the temporal bones B. the occipital bone C. the ethmoid bone D. the sphenoid bone

the occipital bone

When more than one photocell is activated, what will have the most influence on image density?

the one receiving the most radiation

Below-diaphragm ribs are better demonstrated when A. respiration is suspended at the end of full inhalation. B. exposed using shallow breathing technique. C. the patient is in the recumbent position. D. the patient is in the AP erect position.

the patient is in the recumbent position

For medicolegal reasons, radiographic images are required to include all the following information except A. the patient's name and/or identification number. B. the patient's birth date. C. a right- or left-side marker. D. the date of the examination.

the patient's birth date

One unique characteristic of ALL cervical vertebrae is that they each have:

three foramina

Graves disease is associated with A. thyroid underactivity B. thyroid overactivity C. adrenal underactivity D. adrenal overactivity

thyroid overactivity

Hemovac or Penrose drains are used for A. bile duct drainage. B. tissue drainage of wounds or postoperative drainage. C. decompression of the gastrointestinal tract. D. feeding patients who are unable to swallow food.

tissue drainage of wounds or post-op drainage

Glossitis refers to inflammation of the A. epiglottis B. salivary glands C. tongue D. ossicles

tongue

Primary radiation reaching an automatic exposure control detector during the exposure will cause the resultant radiographic image to be: (under or over exposed)?

underexposed

The most frequent site of hospital-acquired infection is the A. urinary tract. B. blood. C. respiratory tract. D. digestive tract.

urinary tract

The medical term for hives is

urticaria

The amount of time that x-rays are being produced and directed toward a particular wall is referred to as the:

use factor

The term effective dose refers to A. whole-body dose B. localized organ dose C. genetic effects D. somatic and genetic effects

whole-body dose