Public Health (Milk, Meat, Foodborne Diseases)
What is the term for yogurt that is packaged with fruit on the bottom of the cup and yogurt at the top?
Set type
(T/F) At this time, there is no humane handling statute requiring humane handling in poultry
T (regulatory requirement that poultry are slaughtered using "good commercial practices")
What are the four acceptable methods for producing a state of surgical anesthesia before slaughter? -animal feels no painful sensations
carbon dioxide, captive bolt, gunshot, electrical current
O in the name of E. coli serotypes refers to which antigen?
cell wall (somatic)
Since S. Typhi and S. Paratyphi A are found only in human hosts, the usual sources of these organisms in the environment are Traditionally thought of as being associated with animal products in the past, fresh produce also has been the source of major outbreaks, particularly recently
drinking and/or irrigation water contaminated by untreated sewage. The organism also survives well on low-moisture foods, such as spices, which have been the vehicles for large outbreaks.
Which foods are most responsible for foodborne illness due to Salmonella?
eggs, poultry, meat, produce
A disease is said to be an .... disease that is a completely new infection or has recently increased in incidence or impact and severity, affected newer geographical locations, or is an existing disease that has recently developed new clinical pattern, or developed resistance to existing therapy.
emerging
H in the name of E. coli serotypes refers to which antigen?
flagella
In a carcass, which lymph nodes should be examined in the head?
mandibular, retropharyngeal, submandibular, mandibular
Which food is most responsible for foodborne illness due to Toxoplasma?
meat
What are the four types of shellfish poisoning?
paralytic, diarrheic, neurotoxic, amnesic
Primary sources of EHEC outbreaks are It may lead to a life-threatening disease including Most strains of E. coli are harmless. Some strains however, such as enterohaemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC),
raw or undercooked ground meat products, raw milk and faecal contamination of vegetables. including haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), especially in young children and the elderly. 5-10%
Which food is most responsible for foodborne illness due to Vibrio?
raw oysters
It is essential for employers to conduct and document two steps in employee management: 2
(1) new employee indoctrination (2) counseling during high-risk situations
Notifiable avian influenza includes two particular subtypes, Best way to inactivate avian influenza
, H5 and H7 that must be reported to the OIE. Pasteurization and cooking are effective means of inactivation but AIV can survive indefinitely when frozen Inactivated by organic solvents and detergents
The head inspection procedures for swine are as follows:
1. Observe head and cut surfaces - the eyes, fat, cheek muscles, and other tissues for abnormalities. 2. Incise and observe the right and left mandibular lymph nodes - examine the closest tissues first. 3. When abnormal conditions are observed, retain the head for veterinary disposition.
Fluid milk is often fortified with which vitamins? (2)
A, D
Seven types of botulinum are recognized (A, B, C, D, E, F and G), based on the antigenic specificity of the toxin produced by each strain. Types ....cause human botulism. ....cause botulism in animals. ... .... also cause botulism in birds. No outbreaks of .....have been reported.
. Types A, B, E and F cause human botulism (Types C and D Types C and E type G
HACCP Process:11
1. Assemble HACCP team 2. Describe product 3. Identify intended use 4. Construct flow diagram 5. On-site confirmation of flow diagram 6. List all potential hazards associated with each step, conduct a hazard analysis, and consider any measures to control identified hazards 7. Determine Critical Control Points 8. Establish critical limits for each CCP 9. Establish a monitoring system for each CCP 11. Establish verification procedures 12. Establish Documentation and Record Keeping
Areas of responsibility for meat inspection
1. Facilities construction and operational sanitation 2. Antemortem inspection 3. postmortem inspection Final U.S. Inspected and Passed U.S. Inspected and Condemned Passed for Cooking Passed for Refrigeration 4) Product inspection (5) Laboratory determinations and assays (6) Control and restriction of condemned products 7) Marking, labeling and application of inspection insignia
Ice cream must contain at least __% milk fat, and at least __% total milk solids
10, 20
A coliform count above ___cfu/mL suggests poor milking practices, dirty equipment, contaminated water, dirty facilities, cows with clinical/subclinical mastitis
100
Federal regulations definied in the Pasturized Milk Ordinance mandate that the milk SPC should not exceed ___K cfu/mL
100
Milk may be fortified with vitamin D to a level of ___IU per 8 oz serving, which is 25% of RDA
100
Poultry Steps in processing:
1Stunning is done to make the bird unconscious Does not kill the bird Some religious groups require the animal not be stunned prior to slaughter 2.Bleeding Cutting jugular vein without cutting the esophagus *This may differ in smaller operations 3Scalding loosens feathers 4Picking removes feathers Mechanical 5Removing feet, neck, skin and preen gland 6Evisceration performed Removing entrails 7Carcass is chilled Ice water Less than 40 degrees F
A milk somatic cell count of more than ___K suggests that an inflammatory response has been elicited, a mammary quarter is infected/recovering, and that milk has reduced manufacturing properties
200,000
Message Mapping Developing a limited number of key messages: ideally ... key messages or one key message with three parts for each underlying concern or specific question (conciseness); Keeping individual key messages brief: ideally less than 3 seconds or less than 9 words for each key message and less than 9 seconds and 27 words for the entire set of three key messages (brevity). Developing messages that are clearly understandable by the target audience: typically at the 6th to 8th grade readability level for communications to the general public (clarity). Placing messages within a message set so that the most important messages occupy the first and last positions. Developing key messages that cite credible third parties. Using graphics and other visual aids to enhance key messages. Balancing negative key messages with positive, constructive, or solution oriented key messages. Avoiding unnecessary uses of the words no, not, never, nothing, none. Examples of Smallpox Questions How contagious is smallpox? Can everyone be vaccinated? What are the signs and symptoms of smallpox? Who's in charge? Why is smallpox a good weapon? What makes you think the strategies of the 60s and 70s will work today? What's being done to prepare? What kind of medical care will be available? Is there enough? What resources will be used to identify and respond to an outbreak? Could terrorists make a strain that you couldn't protect against
3
To achieve the nutritional equivalence of whole milk, lower fat milks should be fortified to at least ___IU vitamin A per 8 oz serving
300 (FDA encourages up to 500, which is 10% of RDA)
Bacteria grow rapidly between the temperatures of... F and... F. After food is safely cooked, leftovers must be refrigerated within two hours. Throw away any hot or cold leftovers that have been left out for more than two hours at room temperature (one hour when the temperature is above 90 °F, such as at an outdoor event). To prevent bacterial growth, it's important to .... hot food rapidly to the safe refrigerator-storage temperature of 40° F. To do this, divide large amounts of food into shallow containers. A big pot of soup, for example, will take a long time to cool, inviting bacteria to multiply and increasing the danger of foodborne illness.
40° and 140° cool
Which broad type of cheese is made by adding acid to milk to cause the proteins to coagulate -fresh cheeses (cream cheese, queso fresco)
Acid
Set your refrigerator at or below .... and the freezer at ...... Check both periodically with an appliance thermometer Refrigerate or freeze meat, poultry, eggs, seafood and other perishables within....hours of cooking or purchasing. Refrigerate within ... hour if the temperature outside is above 90ºF. Never thaw food at ....temperature, such as on the counter top. Food must be kept at a safe temperature during thawing. There are three safe ways to defrost food: in Food thawed in cold water or in the microwave should be cooked immediately. Always marinate food in the refrigerator. Divide large amounts of leftovers into shallow containers for quicker cooling in the refrigerator.
40ºF 0ºF 2hours 1 hour room the refrigerator, in cold water, and in the microwave.
The SPC: Standard Plate Count is used to monitor progress since consistent application of proper milking system cleaning practices, proper milking practices, udder hygiene and good mastitis prevention and control practices should allow dairy producers to produce milk with a low SPC, which is less than .... colony forming units (cfu)of bacteria per milliliter. A SPC of less than ___ cfu/mL is considered "low"
5000
Cheese made from raw milk must be aged at least __ days -to reduce possibility of exposure to disease-causing microorganisms that may be present in milk
60
What is the limit on the somatic cell count for milk to be considered Grade "A"?
750,000 (cells/mL)
EHEC can grow in temperatures ranging from The incubation period can range from Most patients recover within 10 days, but in a small proportion of patients (particularly young children and the elderly), the infection may lead to a life-threatening disease, such as haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS).
7°C to 50°C three to eight days, with a median of three to four days.
All yogurt must contain at least ___% solids not fat
8.25
Milk is the lacteal secretion, practically free from colostrum, obtained from the complete milking of one or more healthy cows. According the the US CFR, milk must not contain less than ___% solids and not less than ___% milk fat
8.25, 3.25
US butter must contain at least __% milk fatand the USDA grades its quality on flavor, body, texture, color and salt (AA, A, B, and C). Sweet butter is simply made with sweet, as opposed to sour cream -- almost all. All butter is salted unless it specifically says unsalted, in which case it has absolutely no salt
80
Whole milk is considered a good source of vitamin __ -fat soluble
A
Transboundary diseases
African Swine Fever (ASF) Avian Influenza Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia(CBPP) Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD) Haemorrhagic Septicaemia Rift Valley Fever (RVF) Rinderpest
Enzyme naturally present in all raw milks -used as an indicator of proper milk pasteurization -complete pasteurization will inactivate enzyme to below detectable levels -detected by *Scharer Rapid Phosphatase test*
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Soluble inorganic.... is acutely toxic. Effects, include skin lesions, peripheral neuropathy, gastrointestinal symptoms, diabetes, renal system effects, cardiovascular diseases, and cancer which are abundant in seafood, are less harmful to health, and are rapidly eliminated by the body.
Arsenic
is a serious, sometimes fatal, disease caused by a potent neurotoxin formed during growth of C. botulinum
Botulism
National Notifiable Diseases Surveillance System (NNDSS): Foodborne diseases that are reportable include
Botulism, Cholera, Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS), Listeriosis (Listeria), Salmonellosis (Salmonella), Shiga Toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC) infections, shigellosis (Shigella), and vibriosis
Specified Risk Materials (SRM) for Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) For cattle 30 months and older: For all cattle:
Brain, skull, eyes, trigeminal ganglia, spinal cord, vertebral column (excluding vertebrae of the tail, the transverse processes of the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, and the wings of the sacrum), and the dorsal root ganglia (DRG). Tonsils and distal ileum of the small intestine.
FoodNet conducts surveillance for which pathogens?
Campylobacter, Cryptosporidium, Cyclospora, Listeria, Salmonella, E. coli, Shigella, Vibrio, Yersinia
drugs will remain defined as drugs that do not require a withdrawal period at the lowest use level in each species for which they are approved
Category I
drugs will be defined as drugs that require a withdrawal period at the lowest use level for at least one species for which they are approved, or are regulated on a "no-residue" basis or with a zero tolerance because of a carcinogenic concern, regardless of whether a withdrawal period is required. drugs will be designated as either Category I or II based on the definitions in the final rule
Category II drugs vfd drugs: Veterinary Feed Directive
Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is usually caused by exotoxin-producing strains of which bacterium?
Staphylococcus aureus
Current food safety challenges
Changes in our food production and supply Changes in the environment leading to food contamination Rising number of multistate outbreaks New and emerging germs, toxins, and antibiotic resistance New and different contaminated foods, such as prepackaged raw cookie dough, bagged spinach, and peanut butter, causing illness
Which bacteria grows well in places with low oxygen, such as cans of food?
Clostridium botulinum
Which bacteria can cause food poisoning or fatal enteritis necroticans ("pig-bel disease") -associated with meats, stews, Mexican food, vegetables, spices
Clostridium perfringens
Which test estimates the number of bacteria in milk that originate from manure or a contaminated environment? -samples plated on Violet Red Bile agar or MacConkey's, incubated for 48 hrs at 32C
Coliform count (CC)
The conditions of pasteurization were determined to be the minimum processing conditions needed to kill which bacteria?
Coxiella burnetii
Unconventional agents such as the agent causing bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE, or "mad cow disease"), is associated with variant... in humans. Consumption of bovine products containing brain tissue is the most likely route for transmission of the agent to humans.
Creutzfeldt-Jakob (vCJD) Disease
are published in Title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Part 110 (21 CFR 110). ...... describe the methods, equipment, facilities, and controls for producing processed food. As the minimum sanitary and processing requirements for producing safe and wholesome food, they are an important part of regulatory control over the safety of the nation's food supply. ....also serve as one basis for FDA inspections.
Current food good manufacturing practices (GMPs)
Measuring health status: DALY- DALE- YLD- YLL- YHLL- QALY- DFLE- HeaLY- Life Expectancy Mortality Rates
DALY-Disability Adjusted Life Years DALE-Disability Adjusted Life Expectancy YLD- Years Living with Disability YLL-Years of Life Lost YHLL-Healthy Days of Life Lost QALY-Quality Adjusted Life Year DFLE-Disability Free Life Expectancy HeaLY-Healthy Life Years Life Expectancy Mortality Rates
Toxins associated with Shellfish
Dinophysis Toxin Brevetoxin Saxitoxin Okadaic Acid Domoic Acid Yessotoxin Pectenotoxin
Family of structurally and chemically related polychlorinated dibenzo paradioxins (PCDDs) and polychlorinated dibenzofurans (PCDFs) -exposure in food supply largely from natural and man-man environmental sources -break down slowly in environment -accumulate higher in food chain -human exposure through *meat, dairy, fish, shellfish* -cause reproductive and developmental problems
Diotoxins
How to avoid mercury poisoning? done eat? Eat up to ...... ...a week of a variety of fish and shellfish that are lower in mercury. Five of the most commonly eaten fish that are low in mercury are.... Another commonly eaten fish, ...... has more mercury than canned light tuna. So, when choosing your two meals of fish and shellfish, you may eat up to 6 ounces (one average meal) of .... per week.
Do not eat Shark, Swordfish, King Mackerel, or Tilefish because they contain high levels of mercury. Eat up to 12 ounces (2 average meals) a week of a variety of fish and shellfish that are lower in mercury. Five of the most commonly eaten fish that are low in mercury are shrimp, canned light tuna, salmon, pollock, and catfish. albacore ("white") tuna
Judicious Use Abx Drugs not affected
Drugs not affected Antimicrobials that are already VFD - avilamycin, florfenicol, tilmicosin; or Rx - Tylosin. that are not medically important, for example: Ionophores (e.g. monensin, lasalocid ) Bacitracin Bambermycins Carbadox Other drugs (that are not antimicrobials), for example: Antiparasitics: Coumaphos, Fenbendazole, Ivermectin Beta agonists: Ractopamine, Zilpaterol Coccidiostats: Clopidol, Decoquinate, Diclazuril
Which group of E. coli can cause bloody diarrhea or hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?
EHEC (enterohemorrhagic) E. coli O104:H4, Europe 2011
Which group of E. coli invades colonic epithelial cells like *Shigella*? -cause mild dysentery, abdominal cramps, diarrhea, vomiting, fever, bloody stool
EIEC (enteroinvasive)
Which group of E. coli causes travellers' diarrhea in humans? . It is also an important cause of diarrhea in infants, in less-developed countries People in the U.S. usually don't get ... infections, unless they travel to areas of the world with poor sanitation In most people, the illness goes away by itself, after a few days of bowel movements that look like rice-water, and cramps, perhaps a low fever, and nausea
ETEC (enterotoxogenic)
What are the 6 recognized pathogenic groups of E. coli?
ETEC, EPEC, EHEC, EIEC, EAEC, DAEC (enterotoxogenic, enteropathogenic, enterohemorrhagic, enteroinvasive, enteroaggregative, diffusely adherent)
The VMAT program serves three primary functions when its help is requested by state authorities:
Early Assessment Volunteer Teams Basic Treatment Volunteer Teams Training
Invade colonic epithelial cells like Shigella Mild dysentery; abdominal cramps, diarrhea, vomiting, fever, chills, and generalized malaise. Stools often contain blood and mucus Usually resolves in 5 to 7 days No specific foods are frequently associated with ....infections. A tofu product contaminated with ...affected 670 people in Japan, in 1988
Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC)
-related hazards that include heavy or awkward lifting and awkward postures.
Ergonomics
Hormones may be used to promote efficient growth. ..... (three natural hormones), and ..... (two synthetic hormones) may be used as an implant on the animal's ear
Estradiol, progesterone, and testosterone zeranol and trenbolone acetate
5 Key Elements To Build Trust
Expressed empathy Competence Honesty Commitment Accountability
(T/F) According to USDA regulations, products labeled "ground beef" may have beef fat added, but products labelled "hamburger" may not -both can have no more than 30% fat by weight
F ("hamburger" may have added beef fat, "ground beef" may not)
(T/F) Salmonellosis is more common in the winter than the summer
F (more common in summer than winter)
(T/F) Meat grading is a mandatory service performed after inspection for wholesomeness -accounts for marbling, age
F (voluntary service; paid for by meat producers)
Veterinary drugs and therapeutics are regulated by 3 agencies
FDA: Animal drugs, foods and medical devices; Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) USDA-APHIS: Veterinary biologics; Virus-Serum-Toxin (Act VSTA) EPA (Some Animal pesticides); Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act(FIFRA) and Federal Environmental Pesticide Act (FEPA)
____ enforces a "zero tolerance" standard for visible fecal, ingesta, or milk material on carcasses
FSIS
, a model that assists food control jurisdictions at all levels of government by providing them with a scientifically sound technical and legal basis for regulating the retail and food service segment of the industry (restaurants and grocery stores and institutions such as nursing homes). Local, state, tribal, and federal regulators use the .......as a model to develop or update their own food safety rules and to be consistent with national food regulatory policy.
Food Code
-Diseases Active Surveillance Network -Collaborative program among CDC, USDA-FSIS, and FDA -collects data from sites in 10 states -seek out confirmed cases in an attempt to detect every person diagnosed
FoodNet (Foodborne Diseases Active Surveillance Network)
) is a highly contagious viral vesicular disease of cloven-hoofed animals. Although seldom lethal in adult animals, it causes serious production losses and is a major constraint to international trade in livestock products. Severe mortality may occur in young stock, particularly lambs and piglets. Quickly inactivated by pH <6.0 or >9.0 Residual virus survives in milk and milk products during regular pasteurization Can persist in contaminated fodder and the environment for up to 1 month Incubating and clinically affected animals Aerosol, saliva, faeces, and urine; milk and semen, land and sea (before clinical signs?),human respiratory tract Meat and by-products in which pH has remained above 6.0 Carriers: recovered or vaccinated and exposed animals in which FMDV persists in the oropharynx for more than 28 days
Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD)
FDA mandates ...... but not ..... USDA mandated ..........for Meat and Poultry Operations effective January 27, 1997. The rule calls on plant management to develop .....that address daily routine sanitary procedures, before and during operations to prevent direct product contamination or adulteration. Procedures should be specific for each plant and can be as detailed as the plant wants to make them.
GMPs but not SOPs Sanitation Standard Operating Procedures (SSOPs) SSOPs
Development of new drugs and a balance with cheaper alternatives after an accepted period of time. Patent restored up to 5 years after initial 20 years but may take a long time before drug is actually marketed
Generic Animal Drug and Patent Term Restoration Act (GADPTRA)
is a management system in which food safety is addressed through the analysis and control of biological, chemical, and physical hazards from raw material production, procurement and handling, to manufacturing, distribution and consumption of the finished product
HACCP (Hazard analysis and critical control points)
Risk= +
Hazard+outrage Hazard = "How much harm it's likely to do" Outrage = "How upset it's likely to make people"
What is the term for the process that reduces the size of milk fat globules? -allows even distribution in milk -high pressure process that forces milk at high velocity through a small orifice to break up globules Online: is the process of breaking down the fat molecules in milk so that they stay integrated rather than separating as cream.
Homogenization
What is the *humane slaughter law* that is currently enforced by the *USDA*?
Humane Methods of Livestock Slaughter Act (1978)
the world's largest developer of voluntary International Standards Quality management Deals with the requirements that organizations wishing to meet the standard have to fulfill Certified by 3rd party
International Organization for Standardization: ISO
.......Innate resistance, Streptococci resistant to aminoglycosides, cell wall does not allow penetration. .......mutation or acquiring genetic material from external source
Intrinsic: Extrinsic/ acquired resistance:
December 2016 - Target for drug manufacturers to implement restrictions to use of medically important antimicrobials in food and water to: Voluntarily withdraw currently approved production uses such as "increased rate of weight gain" or "improved feed efficiency" Drugs status will change from OTC to Rx or VFD Water soluble products to Rx - "medicated drinking water" Products used in or on feed to VFD - "medicated feed" "Medically Important" antimicrobials Includes antimicrobial drugs that are considered important for therapeutic use in humans FDA Guidance #213 defines "medically important" to include: All antimicrobial drugs/drug classes that are listed in Appendix A of FDA's Guidance #152
Judicious Use Abx
What is the term for an estimate of the number of bacteria in milk that can survive laboratory pasteurization (62.8C for 30 min)? -"thermoduric count" -high level seen with persistent cleaning problems -*not a regulatory test required by state/federal agencies* This process destroys most of the mastitis causing pathogens, selecting for those bacteria that can survive pasteurization temperatures (thermoduric bacteria).
Laboratory Pasteurization Count (LPC)
A high...... is most often seen with persistent cleaning problems; faulty milking machine or worn out parts such as leaky pumps, old pipe line gaskets, inflations and other rubber parts; and milkstone deposits.
Laboratory Pasteurization Count (LPC)
What is the name of the probiotic lactic acid bacterium that is added to reduce amount of lactose present in milk?
Lactobacillus acidophilus
Yogurt is a fermented milk product that contains which characteristic bacterial cultures?
Lactobacillus bulgaricus, Streptococcus thermophilus
Which bacteria is *salt-tolerant* and can survive/grow in temperatures below 1C? -can cause gastroenteritis or meningitis The severe, invasive form of the illness can have a very long incubation period, estimated to vary from 3 days to 3 months.
Listeria monocytogenes
Two methods of slaughter were determined to be humane :
Livestock are rendered insensible to pain on the first application of the stunning device before being shackled, hoisted, cast, or cut. In accordance with the ritual requirements of any religious faith that prescribes a method of slaughter where the animal suffers loss of consciousness by anemia of the brain caused by the simultaneous and instantaneous severance of the carotid arteries with a sharp instrument.
....., cause neurological damage in infants and children. Exposure to ,..... can also cause kidney damage, usually seen in the elderly. These (and POPs) may contaminate food through pollution of air, water and soil
Metals: such as lead and mercury cadmium
The eight foods identified by the law are: to cause food allergries
Milk Eggs Fish (e.g., bass, flounder, cod) Crustacean shellfish (e.g. crab, lobster, shrimp) Tree nuts (e.g., almonds, walnuts, pecans) Peanuts Wheat Soybeans
Milk solids-not-fat (MSNF) vs milk solids with fat
Milk solids are the non-water components of milk - protein , lactose, and minerals. Sometimes the combination of protein, lactose and minerals is called the solids not fat content, and when the fat is included it is called total solids content.
-Conducts surveillance for antimicrobial resistance among foodborne bacteria -monitored by CDC, CVM, FDA, USDA -*CDC* in charge of samples isolated from humans Connects cases to potential outbreaks, especially across states. Analysis is done through subtyping and categorization of foodborne bacterial pathogens though a standardized process of pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE
NARMS (National Antimicrobial Resistance Monitoring System)
-Tracks contagious diseases that are reported to state public health agency -CDC oversees -Notifiable disease surveillance is "passive"
NNDSS (National Notifiable Diseases Surveillance System)
In order to establish standards for workplace health and safety, the Act also created the .......as the research institution for the .... ..... is a division of the U.S. Department of Labor that oversees the administration of the Act and enforces standards in all 50 states
National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). OSHA
It mandated OSHA to revise its bloodborne pathogens standard to include specific additional definitions and requirements.
Needlestick Safety & Prevention Act (NSPA).
HEALTH PATTERNS IN RESOURCE RICH COUNTRIES: Non-communicable diseases prevalent: Causes of death (all ages): 40% 25% 16% 5% 0.6% Premature mortality (<65): 25% 33% 16% 1%
Non-communicable diseases prevalent: Causes of death (all ages): 40% Circulatory diseases, e.g. heart disease, strokes, etc. 25% Cancers 16% Respiratory diseases 5% Injuries and Poisonings 0.6% Infectious diseases Premature mortality (<65): 25% Circulatory diseases 33% Cancers 16% Injuries (RTAs/Suicides) and Poisonings 1% Infectious diseases
In the US, _____ is the leading cause of illness from contaminated food or water Examples of foods that have caused .... illness are fruits, vegetables, meats, and salads prepared or handled by an infected person. Vomiting that's explosive and projectile - that shoots out - often is the first symptom, along with watery diarrhea that isn't bloody, and cramps. Headache, mild fever, and muscle aches also may occur. Most people get better in a day or two, although it takes others a little longer
Norovirus
What are the top five foodborne diseases based on *estimated number of illnesses*?
Norovirus, Salmonella nontyphoidal, Clostridium perfringens, Capylobacter spp., Staphylococcus aureus
Which type of packaging is used for raw red meat? -combination of oxygen and carbon dioxide enhance meat color and inhibit spoilage
O2 MAP
All work establishments must notify employees of work hazards in writing All work establishments must inform employees of their rights > 10 employees - log of injuries/illnesses General duty cause - workplace should be free of known serious or fatal harms
Occupational Safety and Health Act
Each state regulates milk processing within their own state, but dairy products must meet the regulations stated in the ____ for products that will enter *interstate commerce*
PMO (Pasteurized Milk Ordinance)
The HACCP:(Hazard analysis and critical control points)system consists of the following seven principles:
PRINCIPLE 1 Conduct a hazard analysis. PRINCIPLE 2 Determine the Critical Control Points (CCPs). PRINCIPLE 3 Establish critical limit(s). PRINCIPLE 4 Establish a system to monitor control of the CCP. PRINCIPLE 5 Establish the corrective action to be taken when monitoring indicates that a particular CCP is not under control. PRINCIPLE 6 Establish procedures for verification to confirm that the HACCP system is working effectively. PRINCIPLE 7 Establish documentation concerning all procedures and records appropriate to these principles and their application.
What is the term for the process of heating a liquid to below the boiling point to destroy microorganisms?
Pasteurization
compounds that accumulate in the environment and the human body. Known examples are Dioxins and PCBs (polychlorinated biphenyls). Dioxins are unwanted byproducts of some industrial processes and waste incineration. Exposure to POPs may result in a wide variety of adverse effects in humans.
Persistant Organic Pollutants (POPs)
Risks to Veterinarians
Physical hazards, chemical hazards, ergonomics,
What is the term for an estimate of the number of psychrotropic (cold-loving) bacteria in milk -*not a regulatory test* -conducted by holding milk at 55C for 18 hours and results of this test are interpreted as a general reflection of milk production practices on the farm and used as a tool to identify inadequate on-farm sanitation practices and holding temperature of milk in the bulk tank.
Preliminary Incubation Count (PI count)
the deliberate, planned and sustained effort to establish and maintain mutual understanding between an organisation (or individual) and its (or their) publics. It's the key to effective communication in all sectors of business, government, academic and not-for-profit.
Public relations
-Network of local, state, territorial, agricultural, federal laboratories -in all 50 states and 82 countries -Coordinated by CDC and APHL -Connects cases to potential outbreaks, especially across states -Analysis done using pulse-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE)
PulseNet (National Molecular Subtyping Network for Foodborne
Most types of cheese such as cheddar or Swiss use ___ (an enzyme) in addition to the starter cultures to coagulate milk
Rennet
patented solution begins dissolving medications and permanently bonding medications to solution's activated charcoal immediately. Once medications attach to activated charcoal they are effectively irretrievable requiring 1,700°F for molecular release. At this temperature, metals such as brass and silver melt and drug adsorbents mineralized to carbon dioxide water
Rx Destroyer™
represent a different set of jobs to be performed that may or may not be related to the safety of a food product, while GMPs refer to a set of procedures and measures taken by a plant to ensure that the food is not adulterated: i.e." manufactured under such conditions that it is unfit for food"
SOP
EHEC is a subset of which E. coli serotype?
STEC (Shigella toxin-producing E. coli)
Most persons infected with ..... develop diarrhea, fever, and abdominal cramps 12 to 72 hours after infection The illness usually lasts 4 to 7 days, and most persons recover without treatment The diarrhea may be so severe that the patient needs to be hospitalized. In these patients, the...... infection may spread from the intestines to the blood stream, and then to other body sites and can cause death unless the person is treated promptly with antibiotics. The elderly, infants, and those with impaired immune systems are more likely to have a severe illness.
Salmonella
What are the top five foodborne diseases causing hospitalization?
Salmonella , Norovirus, Campylobacter, Toxoplasma, E. coli
What are the top five foodborne diseases resulting in death?
Salmonella, Toxoplasma, Listeria monocytogenes, Norovirus, Campylobacter spp.
What is the test used to detect alkaline phosphatase in milk?
Scharer Rapid Phosphatase test
Substances Substances in this schedule have no currently accepted medical use in the United States, a lack of accepted safety for use under medical supervision, and a high potential for abuse. Some examples of substances listed in Schedule I are: heroin, lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), marijuana (cannabis), peyote, methaqualone, and 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine ("Ecstasy").
Schedule I Controlled
Substances in this schedule have a high potential for abuse which may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence. Examples of Schedule II narcotics include: hydromorphone (Dilaudid®), methadone (Dolophine®), meperidine (Demerol®), oxycodone (OxyContin®, Percocet®), and fentanyl (Sublimaze®, Duragesic®). Other Schedule II narcotics include: morphine, opium, codeine, and hydrocodone. Examples of Schedule IIN stimulants include: amphetamine (Dexedrine®, Adderall®), methamphetamine (Desoxyn®), and methylphenidate (Ritalin®). Other Schedule II substances include: amobarbital, glutethimide, and pentobarbital
Schedule II/IIN Controlled Substances (2/2N)
Substances in this schedule have a potential for abuse less than substances in Schedules I or II and abuse may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence. Examples of Schedule III narcotics include: products containing not more than 90 milligrams of codeine per dosage unit (Tylenol with Codeine®), and buprenorphine (Suboxone®). Examples of Schedule IIIN non-narcotics include: benzphetamine (Didrex®), phendimetrazine, ketamine, and anabolic steroids such as Depo®-Testosterone.
Schedule III/IIIN Controlled Substances (3/3N)
Substances in this schedule have a low potential for abuse relative to substances in Schedule III. Examples of Schedule IV substances include: alprazolam (Xanax®), carisoprodol (Soma®), clonazepam (Klonopin®), clorazepate (Tranxene®), diazepam (Valium®), lorazepam (Ativan®), midazolam (Versed®), temazepam (Restoril®), and triazolam (Halcion®).
Schedule IV Controlled Substances
Shellfish toxins are Paralytic Diarrheic Shellfish Poisoning (DSP) Amnesic Shellfish Poisoning (ASP) Neurotoxic Shellfish Poisoning (NSP) Shellfish Poisoning (PSP) pick one for each the effects are predominantly neurological and include tingling, burning, numbness, drowsiness, incoherent speech, and respiratory paralysis. is primarily observed as a generally mild gastrointestinal disorder, i.e., nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain accompanied by chills, headache, and fever. Both gastrointestinal and neurological symptoms characterize...., including tingling and numbness of lips, tongue, and throat, muscular aches, dizziness, reversal of the sensations of hot and cold, diarrhea, and vomiting is characterized by gastrointestinal disorders (vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain) and neurological problems (confusion, memory loss, disorientation, seizure, coma).
Shellfish Poisoning (PSP) Diarrheic Shellfish Poisoning (DSP) Neurotoxic Shellfish Poisoning (NSP) Amnesic Shellfish Poisoning (ASP)
is a highly infectious agent. Some strains produce enterotoxins and Shiga toxin. Humans are the only host of Shigella, but it has also been isolated from higher primates. Diarrhea may range from watery stool to severe, life-threatening dysentery. Can cause acute bloody diarrhea In otherwise healthy people, the disease usually is self-limiting, although some strains are associated with fatality rates as high as 10-15%. Uncomplicated cases usually resolve in 5 to 7 days
Shigella
What is the name for the slaughterer in kosher slaughter? -sharp knife called Chalef is honed after each cut
Shochet
Here are the terms used in the industry to describe canned foods with signs of spoilage : A can that is bulged on both ends, but not so tightly that the ends can't be pushed in somewhat with a thumb press. : A can that is so tightly bulged on both ends that the ends can't be pressed in. A can with a hard swell will generally "buckle" before it bursts. : A can whose end normally looks flat, but "flips out" when struck sharply on one end. : A can with one end bulged out. With sufficient pressure, this end will flip in, but the other end will flip out. : A can with a crack or hole in the container that has caused leakage.
Soft swell: Hard Swell Flipper Springer Leaker
are descriptions of particular tasks undertaken in a food processing operation. A specific...should address the following: The purpose and frequency of doing a task, Who will do the task, a description of the procedure to be performed that includes all the steps involved, And the corrective actions to be taken if the task is performed incorrectly
Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs
What is the term for the estimate of the total number of viable aerobic bacteria present in raw milk? -milk is plated on agar for 48 hours at 32C and counted
Standard Plate Count (SPC)
Minimum amounts of milk fat, milk solids, and air in ice cream are defined by the ______ in the US CFR
Standards of Identity
legal process: Statutes: Congress enacts statutes; declares, prohibits or demands Regulations: Set by relevant agency, binding effect of the law Guidance: Interpretation of policy by agency, stakeholders or public, non-binding
Statutes --> Regulations --> Guidance
What is the term for yogurt that has fruit blended into the yogurt prior to packaging?
Swiss style
(T/F) Cheese can be made using pasteurized or raw milk
T
T/f Federal law requires that each veterinary practice design and implement a written plan that describes how each workplace complies with the OSHA Hazard Communication Standard. Veterinary employers should also become familiar with the occupational hazard laws of their own state, understand the Pregnancy Discrimination Act, Title VII, and state statutes which specifically regulate maternity leave policies.
T
T?F Persons who experience bloody diarrhoea or severe abdominal cramps should seek medical care. Antibiotics are not part of the treatment of patients with EHEC disease and may possibly increase the risk of subsequent HUS.
T
(T/F) Milk secreted into an uninfected cow's udder is sterile
T (becomes contaminated during milking, cooling, storage)
serve as first responders to ensure high-quality care of animals during disasters and emergencies
The AVMA's Veterinary Medical Assistance Teams (VMAT
is a standardized, on-scene, all-hazards incident management approach that: Allows for the integration of facilities, equipment, personnel, procedures and communications operating within a common organizational structure. Enables a coordinated response among various jurisdictions and functional agencies, both public and private. Establishes common processes for planning and managing resources used by all levels of government—federal, state, tribal and local—as well as by many nongovernmental organizations and the private sector. ICS is also applicable across disciplines. It is typically structured to facilitate activities in five major functional areas: Command, Operations, Planning, Logistics and Finance/Administration. All of the functional areas may or may not be used based on the incident needs. Intelligence/Investigations is an optional sixth functional area that is activated on a case-by-case basis.
The Incident Command System (ICS
are an international legal instrument that is binding on 194 countries across the globe, including all the Member States of WHO. Their aim is to help the international community prevent and respond to acute public health risks that have the potential to cross borders and threaten people worldwide The IHR apply to public health emergencies such as infectious disease outbreaks, chemical spills, leaks and dumping, or nuclear melt-downs. The IHR aim to limit interference with international traffic and trade while ensuring public health through the prevention of disease spread. require countries to report certain disease outbreaks and public health events to WHO. The IHR define the rights and obligations of countries to report public health events, and establish a number of procedures that WHO must follow in its work to uphold global public health security
The International Health Regulations (IHR)
) identifies concepts and principles that answer how to manage emergencies from preparedness to recovery regardless of their cause, size, location or complexity. NIMS provides a consistent, nationwide approach and vocabulary for multiple agencies or jurisdictions to work together to build, sustain and deliver the core capabilities needed to achieve a secure and resilient nation.
The National Incident Management System (NIMS)
is a voluntary program conducted by the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) Veterinary Services (VS) that certifies private practice veterinarians to work cooperatively with state and federal veterinarians and animal health officials to protect and ensure animal health by preventing, controlling and eradicating certain diseases in animals. Private practice veterinarians must be authorized by USDA APHIS VS to perform accredited duties in each state that they wish to perform regulatory duties. Private practice veterinarians certified as accredited veterinarians are instrumental in performing competent health certifications and maintaining extensive disease surveillance and monitoring.
The National Veterinary Accreditation Program (NVAP
) provides assistance in identifying the need for veterinary services following major disasters, emergencies, public health or other events requiring Federal support and in assessing the extent of disruption to animal and public health infrastructures.
The National Veterinary Response Team (NVRT)
simply requires that the State and local emergency preparedness authorities include how they will accommodate households with pets or service animals when presenting these plans to the FEMA
The PETS Act
rule is an important strategy to ensure the judicious use of medically important antimicrobials in food-producing animals. ) final rule continues to require veterinarians to issue all ....within the context of a veterinarian-client-patient-relationship (VCPR),
The Veterinary Feed Directive (VFD)
milenium goal did it succeed?
The proportion of people living on less than $1.25 a day fell from 47 per cent in 1990 to 24 per cent in 2008—a reduction from over 2 billion to less than 1.4 billion. The proportion of people using an improved water source rising from 76 per cent in 1990 to 89 per cent in 2010. The 2010 target of universal access to treatment for HIV/AIDS improved, however, was not reached.
In a carcass, which lymph nodes should be examined in the lungs?
bronchial, mediastinal
is characterized by sudden onset of fever, chills, vomiting, diarrhea, muscle aches and rash. It can rapidly progress to severe and intractable hypotension and multisystem dysfunction. Desquamation, particularly on the palms and soles can occur 1-2 weeks after onset of the illness. +has been associated with use of tampons and intravaginal contraceptive devices in women and occurs as a complication of skin abscesses or surgery
Toxic shock syndrome (TSS)
may be defined as those epidemic diseases which are highly contagious or transmissible and have the potential for very rapid spread, irrespective of national borders.
Transboundary Animal Diseases (TADs)
(Once a vehicle has entered the official establishment premises, it is considered part of the premises and is subject to the FSIS regulations that ensure humane handling.)
Truck unloading
-"Equal to" law -required states to have inspection programs equal to that of federal government -administered by *USDA, FSIS*
Wholesome meat act
There are 200 to 400 STEC serotypes, many of which have not been implicated in human illness; however, a subset of STEC called
called enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC),
in Avian influenza Vaccination should include
a "DIVA" (differentiating infected from vaccinated animals)strategy, and the use of sentinel birds.
haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is characterized by It is estimated that up to 10% of patients with .... infection may develop HUS, with a case-fatality rate ranging from 3 to 5%. Overall, HUS is the most common cause of acute renal failure in young children It can cause neurological complications (such as seizure, stroke and coma) in 25% of HUS patients and chronic renal sequelae, usually mild, in around 50% of survivors
acute renal failure, haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia. EHEC
Substances in this schedule have a low potential for abuse relative to substances listed in Schedule IV and consist primarily of preparations containing limited quantities of certain narcotics. Examples of Schedule V substances include: cough preparations containing not more than 200 milligrams of codeine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams (Robitussin AC®, Phenergan with Codeine®), and ezogabine.
chedule V Controlled Substances
What is the fate of meat from animals showing pneumonia with generalized changes?
condemn
What is the fate of meat from animals showing septicemia, toxemia, or pyemia?
condemn
What is the fate of meat from animals showing CNS signs? -could be from rabies, ketosis, milk paresis, grass tetany, etc.
condemn, notification
What is the fate of meat from animals showing ocular squamous cell carcinoma?
condemn, pass
What is the fate of meat from animals showing cysticercosis?
condemn, pass with restriction
A ______ product is a product that has been determined through inspection to be diseased or condition that renders it unfit for human consumption
condemned
What is the more common process used for pasteurization of fluid milk?
continuous
Which foods are most responsible for foodborne illness due to Listeria?
deli meats, unpasteurized soft cheeses, produce
What is the term for when food is passed for human consumption? -may retain carcass and pass later -condemn parts -hold carcass/parts pending lab tests -pass with restrictions (heating, refrigeration, comminuted cooked product, cooked)
disposition
What are the two kinds of illnesses caused by Salmonella?
gastrointestinal, typhoidal (1) Gastrointestinal illness, which causes nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, cramps, and fever, with symptoms generally lasting a couple of days and tapering off within a week. In otherwise healthy people, the symptoms usually go away by themselves, but long-term arthritis may develop. (2) Typhoidal illness causes high fever, diarrhea or constipation, aches, headache, and lethargy (drowsiness or sluggishness), and, sometimes, a rash. It's a very serious condition; up to 10% of people who don't get treatment may die.
Which foods are most responsible for foodborne illness due to E. coli O157?
ground beef, leafy greens, raw milk
Human exposure to elevated levels of inorganic arsenic occurs mainly through the consumption of
groundwater containing naturally high levels of inorganic arsenic, food prepared with this water, and food crops irrigated with high arsenic water sources.
What are the four signs used by processing plant officials to ensure that an animal is unconscious?
head hanging straight down, tongue hanging straight down, dilated pupils, no vocalization
An ______ product is any product that is adultered, uninspected, or not intended for use as human food -e.g. bones, intestines, lungs, reproductive organs, feet
inedible
In a carcass, which lymph nodes should be examined in the fore quarter?
intercostal, suprasternal, presternal, prepectoral
Nearly all fish and shellfish contain traces of.... Some fish and shellfish contain higher levels of .....that may harm an unborn baby or young child's developing nervous system The risks from ....in fish and shellfish depend on the amount of fish and shellfish eaten and the levels of mercury in the fish and shellfish.
mercury
In a carcass, which lymph nodes should be examined in the abdominal viscera?
mesenteric lymph nodes
What is the industry term used to refer to cheese that is made directly from milk
natural
EHEC produces toxins, known as
verotoxins or Shiga-like toxins because of their similarity to the toxins produced by Shigella dysenteriae.
In a carcass, which lymph nodes should be examined in the liver? View and palpate entire surface(both sides). View the gall bladder. For cattle over 6 weeks of age, incise as deemed appropriate to detect liver flukes. Open large bile ducts. For sheep, pigs and game, incise as deemed appropriate for parasite.
portal lymph nodes
Which food is most responsible for foodborne illness due to Campylobacter?
poultry
In the case of generalized or systemic disease which lymph nodes should be incised?
prescapular
What is the industry term used to refer to cheese that is made with other ingredients cooked together to change the textural and/or melting properties and increase shelf life?
processed
What are the six areas of meat inspection?
product name, ingredient statement, inspection legend with est. number, Quantity of contents ,address/contact information, net weight statement, handling statement
Compile all of the safety-related information in the practice into one resource, it gives the impression of a comprehensive program instead of a "hit-or-miss" one. Use a three ring binder conspicuously labeled "Hospital Safety Manual." Use tabbed dividers to create sections like General Rules, Fire Prevention & Response, Anesthesia, Radiation, Accident Prevention, Infection Control, Chemicals and Violence Prevention
read
How are inedible *fats, greases, and oils* from condemned carcasses disposed of?
rendering
A ______ product is defined as any meat product that has been inspected and passed, but cannot be released for human consumption until it has been subjected to a required treatment because it has a disease or condition that might be transmitted to humans
restricted
In Halal slaughter, what is the term for the ritual slaughter cut and the handling/restraint that immediately precede the cut?
ritual bubble
What are the two styles of yogurt commonly found in the grocery store?
set type, swiss style
is used throughout the world as an indicator of milk quality.
somatic cell count
To achieve _____, milk is processed through centrifugal separators to create a skim portion and a cream portion
standardization
In a carcass, which lymph nodes should be examined in the hind quarter?
superficial inguinal, internal iliac, external iliac, lumbar
t/f A small number of persons with Salmonella develop pain in their joints, irritation of the eyes, and painful urination. This is called reactive arthritis. It can last for months or years, and can lead to chronic arthritis which is difficult to treat. Antibiotic treatment does not make a difference in whether or not the person develops arthritis.
t
What is the term for when a condemned carcass is made into animal feed or fertilizer?
tanked
Millennium Goals 189 Heads of State and government signed onto the Millennium Declaration at the 2000 UN Millennium Summit Main goal was to.....
to "free our fellow men, women and children from the abject and dehumanizing conditions of extreme poverty, to which more than a billion of them are currently subjected." One third of deaths - some 18 million people a year or 50,000 per day - are due to poverty-related causes. That's 270 million people since 1990, the majority women and children, roughly equal to the population of the US. (Reality of Aid 2004) Every year more than 10 million children die of hunger and preventable diseases - that's over 30,000 per day and one every 3 seconds. (80 Million Lives, 2003 / Bread for the World / UNICEF / World Health Organization)
Among the many isotypes of C. perfringens, ......almost always contains the Clostridium perfringens enterotoxin gene (cpe gene) which causes food poisoning), and types B, C, D, and E sometimes contain this gene. The gastroenteritis form is very common and often is mild and self-limiting The other form, enteritis necroticans or "pig-bel disease" more severe than the other form of the illness, and often fatal. Associated with meats, stews, Mexican food, vegetables and spices. Spores can survive boiling.
type A
Which serotypes of Salmonella cause Typhoid fever in humans? -high fever -lethargy -GI symptoms -headache -flat rash of rose-colored spots
typhi, paratyhpi
What are the two most common serotypes of Salmonella in the US?
typhimurium, enteritidis
is a written (nonverbal) statement issued by a licensed veterinarian practice that orders the use of a VFD drug or combination VFD drug in or on an animal feed. It authorizes the client (the owner of the animal or animals or other caretaker) to obtain and use animal feed bearing or containing a VFD drug or combination VFD drug to treat the client's animals only in accordance with the conditions approved for use.
veterinary feed directive
______ infections are rare, but often serious, and are caused by eating contaminated seafood or exposing an open wound to seawater
vibrio