Reinsurance Exam 1
A facultative reinsurance agreement is written for a specified time period... A. and cannot be cancelled by either party unless contractual obligation such as premium are not met B. but can be cancelled at any time by the primary insurer C. and cannot be cancelled without the express written permission of the insured whose coverage is the subject of the agreement D. but can be cancelled at any point during that period by the reinsurer for any reason provided adequate notice is provided to the primary
A
A guarantee endorsement differs from a cut through endorsement in that a guarantee endorsement A. allows the insured to recover the entire covered costs B. requires co participation C. allows the insured to recover only the reinsured portion of the loss D. includes coverage for extra contractual obligations
A
A primary insurer, which needs facultative reinsurance to support a policy plans to issue, obtains a binder, which is A. a temporary reinsurance agreement subject to a satisfactory primary policy review B. an offer made by reinsurer to reinsure loss exposure C. authorization to issue the policy D. final reinsurance agreement specifying all terms, conditions and exclusions
A
A property line guide for a risk being placed into a surplus share treaty A. suggests a net retention B. establishes a reinsurance cost C. estimates profitability D. sets reinsurance commission
A
ABC Insurer has a $200,000 xs $100,00 treaty with Reinsurer. ABC is insolvent and the liquidator settled a $100,000 case for $50,000. IF the reinsurance treaty contains an insolvency clause, what is the amunt recoverable from the reinsurer A. $0 B. $50,000 C. $100,000 D. $200,000
A
Beta Insurance Company (BIC) is a small, regional personal lines insurer. Four years ago they hired a new VP of Marketing to grow the business. A combination of factors led to BIC growing by 30% in each of the past 2 years. The senior management team anticipates continued growth at this rate for another 5 years. Which one of the following types of reinsurance will be most effective in providing the surplus relief BIC will need to support its growth plans. A. pro rata B. per policy excess of loss C. per occurrence excess of loss D. aggregate excess of loss
A
Language obligating a quota share reinsurer to pay losses until the first anniversary or cancellation of each policy, up to a maximum of 12 months after the treaty's termination, would be found in which of the following common clauses A. commencement and termination B. reports and remittance C. reinsuring D. definitions
A
Primary insurers need stable profits if they are to grow. property excess of loss reinsurance treaties stabilize underwriting results because A. they substitute for catastrophe reinsurance protection B. they provide protection for an accumulation of losses within the primary insurers retention C. the primary insurers loss is limited to the retention under the per risk treaty D. the reinsurer assumes all the risk of loss
A
Reinsurance pools, syndicates and associations can be formed by A. reinsurance intermediaries to meet their clients needs B. financial institutions for use as a bank funding mechanism C. groups of reinsurers whose retrocession needs have not been adequately met by existing reinsurers D. regulators when they determine that the reinsurance market is inadequately competitive
A
Surplus share reinsurance will generally provide stabilization for an insurers loss experience. For which one of the following exposures would additional reinsurance most likely be necessary A. fire exposure to a large office building B. liability exposure for a homeowner policy C. catastrophe loss exposure D. workers compensation exposure
A
The most frequently negotiated treaty term in a reinsurance proposal is A. exclusion list B. price of coverage C. cancellation provision D. commencement and termination
A
Which of the following statements about the type of underwriting information that should be contained in a treaty reinsurance proposal is most accurate A. the loss history should be limited to only those claims that would trigger payment under the reinsurance treaty under consideration B. the number of years of loss history that should be provided in the proposal depends on the type of policies being reinsured and the ability of the loss ratio C. business income losses settle more quickly than other types of property coverage and thus require only the most recent 2 years of premium and loss data D. although the geographic distribution of exposure information for property coverage, it is irrelevant when evaluating casualty treaties
A
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the use of treaty and facultative reinsurance A.most treaties require that all loss exposures within the treaty's terms be reinsured B. primary insurer's underwriting policy and underwriting guidelines are usually developed by its treaty reinsurer C. primary insurers generally use facultative reinsurance as the foundation of their reinsurance program D. usually primary insurers have only one reinsurance treaty with a single reinsurer
A
Which of the following statements is correct regarding treaty reinsurance A. if treaty reinsurance agreements permitted primary insurers to choose which loss exposures they ceded, the reinsurer would be exposed to adverse selection B. the integrity and experience of the primary insurer's management are generally not factors that treaty reinsurers consider C. Primary insurers usually make treaty reinsurance agreements so their underwriters have direction in using reisurance D. if reinsurers are comfortable with a primary insurer's published underwriting guidelines, they are generally not concerned with the degree to which those guidelines represent the insurer's actual practices
A
Which of the following statements is correct with regard to reinsurance agreements and their function A. the reinsurance agreement identifies the policy, group of policies, or other categories of insurance that are included in the agreement B. the retention under a reinsurance agreement is always expressed as a percentage of the original amount of insurance C. Reinsurers are prohibited from transferring part of the liability they have accepted under reinsurance agreements to other reinsurers D. the reinsurance agreement alters the term of the underlying insurane
A
Which one of the following attachment bases covers policies issued or renewed by the primary insurer on or after the reinsurance treaty's effective date A. risk attaching B. loss occuring C. policies issued D. in force policies
A
Which one of the following best describes a main function of property per risk excess of loss reinsurance A. to increase large line capacity B. to provide surplus relief C. to provide cut through coverage D. to facilitate withdrawal from a market
A
Which one of the following is one of the 2 approaches to excess of loss reinsurance pricing A. primary rating B. aggregate rating C. experience rating D. surplus rating
A
Which one of the following is true about the ceding commission payable under quota share treaties A. the ceding commission is normally set as an amount that equals the primary insurers acquisition costs so that the reinsurer is paying it proportionate share of the cost of selling the primary policies B. generally, the more premium subject tot he reinsurance treaty, the lower the ceding commission percentage C. the ceding commission is generally higher when the reinsurer finds the primary insurers rates to be inadequate compare to other primary insurers selling the same type of insurance D. acquisition costs of the insurer do not play any real part in the ceding commission since the reinsurer has no control of these costs
A
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding finite risk reinsurance A. finite risk reinsurance agreements typically have a 3 to 5 year term B. finite risk reinsurance agreements generally allow the reinsurer to assess additional premium if losses exceed premium C. finite risk reinsurance is designed to cover high frequency and low severity loss exposures D. finite risk reinsurance is less expensive than most traditional types o reinsurance
A
A potential advantage of a broker marketing system for reinsurance over the direct writing system is A. reinsurance transactions are completed more quickly B. the brokers bargaining leverage captures better terms and conditions C. less chance of reinsurer solvency D. Efficiency in the negotiation of terms and the handling of reinsurance premium
B
A pro rata facultative certificate stated as "$500,000 part of $2,000,000" is the same as A. $500,000 xs of $2,000,000 B. 25% of $2,000,000 C. $2,000,000 less $500,000 D. $1,500,000 xs of $500,00
B
A reinsurance arrangement that is specified as "95% of $10 million xs of $5 million" is A. quota share treaty with a reinsurance aggregate limit of $10 million B. an excess of loss reinsurance agreement with an attachment point of $5 million and a 5% co participation provision of the $10 million layer C. a two line share treaty with a line of $5 million and a 5% co participation provision D. a facultative reinsurance agreement with a line of $5 million, a 5% co participation and $10 million aggregate limit
B
A sliding scale ceding commission is calculated by adjusting the ceding commission percentage based on A. the projected reinsurer expenses under the treaty B. the projected loss ratio under the treaty C. the actual reinsurer expenses under the treaty D. the actual loss ratio under the treaty
B
All of the following are reasons for immediate termination often included in sudden death provisions, EXCEPT A. change in the primary insurers ownership B. reduction of the primary insurers net retention C. reduction in the primary insurers policyholders surplus D. nonpayment balances
B
All of the following are sources of reinsurance EXCEPT A. reinsurance pools, syndicates, and associates B. brokers & reinsurance market association (BRMA) C. professional reinsurers D. reinsurance departments of primary insurers
B
All of the following are true regarding the original conditions clause, EXCEPT A. the original conditions clause states the reinsurers share of the underlying premium, net ceding commission, will not be reduced by dividends (if any) paid by the primary insurer to the underlying insured B. the original conditions clause establishes that the liability assumed by the reinsurer under the reinsurance treaty is on the same basis as the underlying coverage provided by the primary insurer C. the original conditions clause addresses dividends specifically because many primary insurers have dividend plans that enable the policy holder to share in profits which potentially diminishes the amount of subject premium D. the original conditions clause specifies that additional reinsurance, facultative or treaty, applies before the application of this reinsurance agreement
B
An endorsement attached to an insurance policy covering mortgaged property that gives the insured a direct cause of action against the reinsurer for the full amount of the loss regardless of how much was reinsured, if the primary insurer defaults is known as a A.territory endorsement B. guarantee endorsement C. special acceptance endorsement D. cut through endorsement
B
An excess of loss facultative certificate providing $1,000,000 reinsurance coverage over a $500,000 retention is stated as A. $500,000 xs of $1,000,000 B. $1,000,000 xs of $500,000 C. $500,000 xs of $500,000 D. $1,000,000 xs of $1,000,000
B
IIA Insurance Company has written a large property risk with a limit on the building and contents of $10 million. It has a $3 million excess of loss reinsurance treaty with an attachment point of $2 million. The building suffered a $7 million fire loss. How much of the $7 million would IIA retain net A. $2 million B. $4 million C. $5 million D. $7 million
B
In a reinsurance contract, the exchange rate to be used for converting reinsurance payments from British pounds to American dollars would be described in the A. reinsuring clause B. currency clause C. definitions clause D. governing law clause
B
Mutual insurer has 75% quota share treaty with Reinsurer. For a policy with $100,000 coverage limit, what is the reinsurers share of a $50,000 loss A. $0 B. $37,500 C. $100,000 D. $400,000
B
Property per risk excess of loss treaty pricing that considers the amount of liability inherent in the type of business covered by the treaty being priced is which one of the following approaches to pricing A. experience rating B. exposure rating C. loss trending D. loss cost rating
B
Reinsurance intermediariesdo not need the same financial resources as direct writing reinsurers because of which one of the following A. there are more reinsurance intermediaries than direct writing reinsurers B. they assume no insurance risk C. their transactions are heavily collateralized D. they have fewer claims and losses
B
The purpose of the outside reinsurance clause added to a quota share treaty is to A. recognize underlying quota share treaties B. allow the primary insurer to secure other reinsurance under certain circumstances C. extend the covered territory outside the US D. reimburse losses on a gross account basis when additional reinsurance is purchased from another insurer
B
Three definitions are key to a surplus share treaty. They are the definitions of surplus liability, risk, and A. loss occurrences B. net retention C. cession D. limits
B
When choosing between a direct wiritng and broker marketing system for the purchase of reinsurance, a primary insurer should be aware of the differenced between the 2 systems. A potential drawback of the broker marketing system versus direct writing is A. less coverage secured B. chance of communication misunderstanding C. the fast pace communication D. less favorable terms secured
B
When establishing a price for reinsurance by ether of the 2 main approaches, a loss cost rate is developed. The rate includes which of the following A. expected loss B. loss adjustment expenses C. a catastrophe charge D. profit and contingencies
B
Which of the following are shared by the primary insurer and the reinsurer in pro rata reinsurance transactions A. commissions to producers B. amounts of insurance C. premium taxes D. investment income from reserves
B
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the impact to loss adjustment expenses in the selection of reinsurance program retention and limits A. primary insurers with a concentration in one geographic area must carefully consider loss adjustment expenses when selecting retention and limits B. loss adjustment expenses are generally added to the loss amount and should be carefully considered when selecting retentions and limits C. loss adjustment expenses are generally prorated between the primary insurer and reinsurer and applied on top of retentions and limits D. Primary insurers are responsible for all loss adjustment expenses and they generally have little impact on the retentions and limits selected
B
Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the use of facultative reinsurance A. facultative reinsurance is generally not an option for insuring loss exposures that are inconsistent with the primary insurers typical portfolio B. treaty reinsurer is usually willing to allow the primary insurer to remove high hazard loss exposures from the treaty by using facultative reinsurance C. facultative reinsurance is generally not an option for insuring classes of loss exposures that are excludedunder treaty reinsurance D. the administrative costs associated with placing facultative reinsurance are relatively low
B
Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of the type of insurance sold on the reinsurance needs of a primary insurer A. because of the sheer volume of business, personal line insurers need more reinsurance than do commercial line insurers B. the insurance products offered vary in loss stability which affects the primary insurers ability to project loss experience C. a primary insurer that sells only a few types of insurance is more likely to have a stable loss ratio and less need for reinsurance D. underwriting risk is generally not a factor in the need for reinsurance because it is fairly stable among the various lines of insurance
B
Which of the following would be true regarding the function of a surplus share treaty A. it is generally chosen by a primary insurer selling a new insurance product B. it is often used for large complex property loss exposures C. it will topically provide the primary insurer with needed catastrophe protection D. it is replaced by quota share reinsurance once credible loss experience is obtained
B
Which of the following would most likely be a factor affecting the selection of a retention by a primary insurer in its reinsurance program A. co participation provisions B. catastrophe exposure C. Clash cover D. extra - contractual obligation
B
Which one of the following statements is true regarding the underwriting information normally included in a treaty reinsurance proposal A. For liability insurance, only paid losses should be included in the loss history provided because the ultimate value of these claims is uncertain B. loss information included in the reinsurance proposal should indicate whether the amount shown are ground up losses or net of reinsurance recoveries C. for property insurance, 5 or more years of loss history is usually required because property claims take long to settle and are generally not reported immediately D. softer pieces of information such as risk tolerance and pricing philosophies of the primary insurer are generally not included in the reinsurance proposal
B
A reinsurance treaty provided as a continuous contract A. requires one years notice to cancel B. requires both parties to agree to the contract termination C. typically is silent regarding termination D. can have varying lengths of notice period because this provision is often negotiated
C
Best Reinsurance assumes, under a treaty, all homeowners and personal auto business underwritten by Aurora Insurance. On occasion, Aurora will underwrite some homeowners policies with very high value homes. Aurora underwriters have been directed through their underwriting guidelines not to cede high value homes to the treaty. Although, the treaty does not expressly exclude this business, the directive was developed to protect the treaty from unusually high losses. If an application is submitted for a home that falls within the directive and Aurora does not wish to retain the entire risk, what is the best method of handling this submission A. Purchase another treaty and write the policy B. decline the business for the reinsurance reasons C. purchase facultative reinsurance ad write the policy D. cede the policy to the existing treaty if the risk is acceptable
C
In addition to exposure rating, reinsurers use experience rating to price property per risk excess of loss treaties. Which one of the following steps is explicitly part of the experience rating process A. setting reinsurance limits B. creating a first loss scale C. trending losses D. establishing the expense load
C
Insurance companies face the uncertainty that the premium they have collected will not pay the losses. This uncertainty is called A. market risk B. financial risk C. insurance risk D. pure risk
C
Primary Insurer has 65% quota share treaty with Reinsurer, and the primary insurer has a 60% loss ratio on the policies covered under the treaty. What is Reinsurer's loss ratio for the policies ceded under the treaty? A. unknown B. 40% C. 60% D. 65%
C
Reinsurance pools, syndicates, and associations are A. advisory organizations that provide information about primary insurers to reinsurers B. membership organizations in which reinsurers share statistical data C. groups of insurers that share the loss exposures of the group, usually through reinsurance D. professional development organizations for reinsurance intermediaries
C
The ABC Reinsurance Company is one of a group of 5 rinsurers providing reinsurance for a large mortgaged property. ABC is the named guarantor under a guarantee endorsement that applies to the primary insurance policy. To ensure that all reinsurers contribute to their proportion of the liabilities assumed under the endorsement. Which one of the following agreements should be executed by the co-reinsurers A. self-insured obligations B. special acceptance C. indemnity D. commencement and termination
C
The ceding commission is A. paid by the primary insurer to the insured B. paid by the reinsurer to the insured C. paid by the reinsurer to the primary insurer D. paid by the primary insurer to the reinsurer
C
The co-participation provision of the retention and limits clause in the excess of loss treaty is best explained by which one of the following A. it requires the the primary insurer adjust the entire claim regardless of the attachment point B. it indicates that the reinsurer has no further liability once the reinsured limit is reached C. it provides additional shared limits above the limits in the reinsurance agreement D. it requires the primary insurer to retain part of the loss above its retention
C
The error and omission clause A. establishes penalties for errors and omissions B. extends treaty coverage to error and omission exposure C. enforces the parties obligations in the event of inadvertent errors and omissions D. allows for mandatory arbitration in the event of errors or omissions
C
The interests and liabilities agreement A. allows the primary insurer to seek a legal remedy from a court in a convenient jurisdiction B. gives the reinsurer a contractual interest in the primary insurers records C. establishes several liability for the reinsurers participating in a treaty D. specifies the law governing a reinsurance treaty
C
The liability amount ceded to a reinsurer under surplus share treaty is known as which one of the following A. excess liability B. surplus share C. surplus liability D. surplus share
C
The primary insurers property reinsurance program typically is based on line guide information. Property line guides reflect the building construction, occupancy, and public protection classifications of buildings. With regard to building construction classifications, there are 3 essential classifications. They are load bearing exterior wall material, material in the roof and floors, and the A. type of occupancy of the building B. area where the building is located C. fire-resistive rating of the building materials used D. private protection within the building
C
Treaty reinsurance A. obligates the reinsurer to cede loss exposures covered by the agreement B. requires that a certificate be completed for each transaction C. obligates the reinsurer to assume those loss exposures that fall within the treaty D. requires that each loss exposure be seperately submitted to the reinsurer
C
When each reinsurer is responsible for the part of the total obligation representing its participation, this is known as which oneof the following A. apportioned liability B. several liability C. joint liability D. strict liability
C
Which of the following is a written authorization from a primary insurer to an intermediary authorizing them to negotiate a reinsurance agreement A. letter of credit B. premium and loss account C. broker of record letter D. Reinsurance license
C
Which of the following is true of a reinsurance agreement because it is a contract of utmost good faith A. insurer can refuse to preform if the insured does not satisfy certain policy conditions B. an insured's proceeds should not exceed its financial losses from an insured event C. both parties o the contract are bound to disclose all relevant facts D. any ambiguities are interpreted in favor of one party in the contract
C
Which of the following statements is true regarding aggregate excess of loss reinsurance A. aggregate excess of loss treaties are usually written to ensure that the primary insurer earns a modest profit on a business covered by the treaty B. aggregate excess of loss reinsurance is used only for property exposures C. losses covered by an aggregate excess of loss treaty occur over a stated period, usually one year D. the attachment point in an aggregate excess of loss treaty is stated as a percentage on a sliding scale adjusted for the primary insurer's profitability
C
Which one of the following quota share treaty clauses states whether the quota share cession is obligatory A. reinsurance premium clause B. reports and remittances clause C. reinsuring clause D. definitions clause
C
XYZ insurer has a $500,000 xs $100,000 treaty with Reinsurer. XYZ is insolvent, and the liquidator settled a $250,000 case for $200,000. If the reinsurance treaty contains an insolvency clause, what is the amount recoverable from Reinsurer A. $0 B. $50,000 C. $100,000 D. $150,000
C
A direct writing reinsurer is most likely to provide which of the following A. audit the intermediary B. premium negotiation C. program design D. collection of losses
D
A primary insurer may not want to delay recovery of the reinsurers share of a loss until the next payment period, particularly when that share of the loss is large. Therefore, the reports and remittances clause may have a provision allowing the primary insurer to expedite the payment. This provision is known as a A. bordereau B. supplementary payment C. creditor provision D. cash call
D
All of the following are true regarding a reinsurance treaty provided as a continuous contract, EXCEPT A. remains in effect until cancelled B. can be cancelled by either party or the contract C. allows length of notice period to be negotiated D. usually requires at least one year notice to cancel
D
An ancillary agreement in a reinsurance treaty that provides a means to extend reinsurance coverage to include policies that would otherwise be excluded is known as a(n) A. guarantee endorsement B. cut-through endorsement C. indemnity agreement D. Special acceptance agreement
D
An established regional commercial property insurer decides to increase its market share by 20% per year over the next 3 years. Currently the insurer is experiencing a premium to surplus ratio of 4 to 1. Which one of the following types of reinsurance treaties will be most effective in providing the insurer with needed surplus relief. A. surplus share B. per policy excess of loss C. per occurence excess of loss D. quota share
D
Brokerage is the A. Fee underlying policy holder pays the reinsurance protection B. Amount from which the ceding commission is paid C. compensation the primary insurer receives for policy acquisition expenses D. compensation the reinsurance intermediary receives
D
Insurance company is purchasing a 40% quota share treaty to cover its retained losses under an excess of loss treaty. Insurance Company's estimated subject premium for the treaty is $6 million what is the estimated quota share reinsurance premium A. $240,000 B. $360,000 C. $2,400,000 D. $3,600,000
D
New Insurance Company noticed many insurers we withdrawing from the contractor's liability insurance market. The company believed this was a great opportunity to enter this market and earn substantial profits. New Insurance lacked the experience and expertise to successfully market this type of insurance, and their participation in the market was a failure. New Insurance decided to formally withdraw from the market and shift all future responsibility for contractors liability claims to a reinsurer. What type of reinsurance is specifically designed to cover a whole class of business like New Insurance's liability insurance? A. surplus share reinsurance B. facultative reinsurance C. excess of loss reinsurance D. portfolio reinsurance
D
Pro rate reinsurance is the appropriate choice when which of the following if the main concern related to a primary insurers rapid growth A. large line capacity B. catastrophic events C. loss ratio instability D. drain on policyholder's surplus
D
Reinsurance treaties with a termination provision on a cut off basis A. allow all policies in force to expire while remaining reinsured B. all for reinsurance protection for losses that occur after the termination date until the reinsurance is replaced C. all the reinsurer to keep the unearned premium D. all the reinsurers responsibility for losses to end at the treaty's termination date
D
SonicRe receives a proposal to reinsure the proprty loss exposures of a large retirement home. While gathering information about the retirement home, SonicRe's underwriter discovers that the loss exposure was recently marketed to an underwriter in another SonicRe office. The process used by the underwriter to discover the conflict is called A. authorization B. binding C. confirmation D. clearence
D
Surplus share insurance is useful when the primary insurer A. needs surplus relief B. has a significant liability catastrophe exposure C. wants to withdraw from the market segment D. needs to increase its large line capacity
D
Surplus share reinsurance treaties commonly contain exclusions. Which one of the following is true regarding the exclusions normally found in surplus share reinsurance treaties A. they apply absolutely to incidental exposures to loss B. they are non-negotiable C. there is no standard list of exclusions D. they follow the exclusions of the primary insurer
D
The amount of ceding commission that a reinsurer is willing to pay is based on which one of the following A. the limit profiles B. the line guides C. the large line capacity D. the treaty limits
D
The ceding commission is paid by A. the reinsurer to the reinsurance broker B. the reinsurance broker to the reinsurer C. the ceding company to the reinsurance broker D. the reinsurer to the ceding company
D
The interests and liabilities agreement is not needed in which one of the following situations A. when the reinsurers waive the requirement B. when multiple reinsurers are involved C. when multiple primary insurers are involved D. when only one reinsurer is involved
D
The nature of cession in the reinsuring clause in a surplus share treaty states that A. the reinsurer is able to accept or reject individual risks ceded under the treaty B. net retention is the portion of the risk retained by the reinsurer C. indemnification is subject to the limits set forth in the retention and limits clause D. "surplus liability" is a fixed portion of the company's gross liability
D
Under a property per risk excess of loss treaty the retention and limits clause specifies A. that the primary insurer will only suffer the retention once for any occurrence B. the number of reinstatements allowed C. the ultimate net loss that will be paid by the primary insurer when a loss occurs D. that the retention and limit will apply to any one risk for each loss occurrence
D
Under which one of the following clauses does the reinsurer assume credit risk for the funds transferred from the primary insurer to the reinsurer through a reinsurance intermediary A. insolvency B. service of suit clause C. unauthorized reinsurance D. intermediary
D
Which of the following bases of attachment covers the unearned portion of policies in force as well as policies issued or renewed by the primary insurer on or after the reinsurance treaty's effective date A. risk attaching B. losses occurring C. policies issued D. in force policies
D
Which of the following best define the term "direct writing reinsurer" A. a reinsurer that writes narrowly defined classes of business as directed by state insurance regulators B. reinsurer that sell reinsurance coverage directly to insureds C. resinsurer that writes business under the direction of reinsurance intermediaries D. reinsurer whose employees deal directly with primary insurers
D
Which one of the following pricing methods is used per risk excess of loss treaties when the underlying premium developed from policies that exceed the attachment point is so small that other methods do not work well A. loss cost trending B. first loss scale C. experience rating D. price per million
D
