Resp.

Which of the following represents the cylinder factor for a cylinder that has a filling pressure of 2000 psig and contains 50 cubic feet of gas? A. 0.28 L/psig B. 0.70 L/psig C. 1.41 L/psig D. 3.14 L/psig

B

Which of the following represents the normal value for potassium? A. 1.5 - 3.0 mEq/L B. 3.5 - 5.0 mEq/L C. 5.5 - 7.0 mEq/L D. 7.0 - 8.5 mEq/L

B

13. Absolute humidity is defined as A. the amount of moisture in a given volume of gas. B. the percent of water in the air at body temperature. C. the ratio of the amount of water in the air to the total amount that can beheld at a given temperature. D. the amount of water the body's humidification process produces in the airway.

A

A 28-year-old male presents with pneumonia and is placed on a 60% aerosol mask. His PaO2 is 51 torr and his PaCO2 is normal indicating he is ventilating adequately. The RT should recommend what? A. Place the patient on CPAP. B. Increase the aerosol mask to 70%. C. Place the patient on a nasal cannula at 2 L/min. D. Place the patient on a nonrebreathing mask.

A

A 32-year-old female patient with pneumonia has a PaO2 of 57 torr and a PaCO2 of 30 torr on a 50% air entrainment mask. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding this situation? A. The patient has a decreased P(A-a)O2. B. The patient is hypocapnic. C. The patient's arterial pH is most likely alkalotic. D. The patient is hyperventilating in response to hypoxemia.

A

A Bourdon gauge regulator indirectly measures gas flow by directly measuring A. pressure B. liters per minute C. liters per second D. flow velocity

A

A patient is on a 70% T-piece with the O2 flow to the neb set at 15L/min. The pt is dyspneic and no mist is visible exiting the T-piece reservoir. The RT should do which of the following at this time? A. Add a second nebulizer. B. Increase the nebulizer setting to 100%. C. Shorten the aerosol tubing. D. Decrease the flow to the nebulizer.

A

A patient on a volume ventilator is intubated with a 7.5 mm ETT. The RT has pre-oxygenated the patient and begins suctioning with a 12 Fr catheter and notes the patient is becoming bradycardic along with a drop in the SpO2. Which of the following should the therapist recommend at this time? A. Change to a closed-suction system. B. Instill Lidocaine down the ET tube. C. Change to a 14 Fr catheter. D. Increase the suction pressure to -140 mm Hg.

A

A patient receiving MV has a HME attached at the circuit wye(Y). While making vent checks the RT notes an increased dynamic CL with no change in the static CL. The RT should recommend which of the following? A. Change to a heated wick humidifier. B. Suction the patient every hour. C. Initiate chest physiotherapy. D. Increase the patient's tidal volume.

A

A patient receiving oxygen via concentrator at 2 L/min at home complains he can't feel oxygen coming out the prongs of the cannula. Which of the following should the respiratory therapist do first? A. Place the cannula under water and see if bubbling occurs. B. Attach the cannula to a cylinder/flowmeter set-up. C. Increase the flow to 5 L/min. D. Replace the concentrator with a new one.

A

A pt is on a vent with HME being used to humidify the inspired air. You notice that sxt the patient has become more difficult due to the increase in the thickness of the secretions. Which of the following should the respiratory care practitioner recommend at this time? A. Replace the heat moisture exchanger with a heated humidifier. B. Increase the suction level. C. Use a larger suction catheter. D. Suction the patient more frequently.

A

A pt is on a vent with a heat moisture exchanger (HME) being used to humidify the inspired air. You notice that sxt the pt has become more difficult due to the increase in the thickness of the secretions. Which of the following should the respiratory care practitioner recommend at this time? A. Replace the heat moisture exchanger with a heated humidifier. B. Increase the suction level. C. Use a larger suction catheter. D. Suction the patient more frequently.

A

A pt who seems unconscious but will awaken when stimulated is said to be: A. lethargic. B. comatose. C. obtunded. D. disoriented.

A

A severe COPD patient arrives in the ED on a 2 L/min NC. ABG results are below: pH 7.34, PaCO2 57 torr, PaO2 46 torr, and HCO3 35 mEq/L. Based on this data, the most appropriate recommendation is which of the following? A. Increase the liter flow to 3 L/min. B. Place the patient on CPAP mask of 4 cm H2O and an FiO2 of 0.60. C. Intubate and institute mechanical ventilation. D. Place on a nonrebreathing mask at 12 L/min.

A

An unconscious, apneic patient has just been intubated and the RT begins ventilating with a manual resuscitator. Air can be heard leaking around the patient's mouth and there is minimal chest during inspiration. The RT should do which of the following? A. Check the ET tube cuff pressure. B. Make sure the reservoir is attached to the bag. C. Increase the flow to the bag. D. Suction the patient.

A

Anemic hypoxia may be the result of A. carbon monoxide poisoning. B. right to left intrapulmonary shunting. C. pulmonary embolism. D. congestive heart failure.

A

Arterial blood gas values for a patient on a 40% venturi mask are: pH 7.28, PaCO2 41 torr, PaO2 88 torr, HCO3 16 mEq/L. These blood gases would be interpreted as which of the following? A. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis B. Compensated respiratory acidosis C. Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis D. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

A

Following suctioning of a ventilator patient's ET tube, the following EKG tracing is observed on the cardiac monitor. NEED STRIP OF SINUS BRADYCARDIA. The respiratory therapist should: A. discontinue suction and increase the patient's FIO2. B. recommend stat ABGs. C. continue suctioning but monitor the patient closely. D. recommend a stat chest x-ray.

A

Immediately following extubation, the patient begins experiencing inspiratory stridor and difficulty breathing. The respiratory care practitioner should suspect which of the following? A. glottic edema B. tracheal stenosis C. vocal cord ulceration D. laryngeotracheal web

A

In order to minimize an increased airway resistance produced by high-density aerosol inhalation, the RT should recommend which of the following? A. Administer a bronchodilator along with the aerosol. B. Instruct the patient to breathe through their nose. C. Use a heated nebulizer to deliver the aerosol.. D. Perform chest physiotherapy following the aerosol treatment.

A

The Dr has ordered O2 to be set up on a pt with a spontaneous Vt of 500 ml and an Ti of 1 sec. Which of the following O2 devices will provide sufficient flow to meet this patient's inspiratory flow demands? A. 35% air entrainment mask at 6 L/min B. 40% aerosol mask at 8 L/min C. nasal cannula at 5 L/min D. simple oxygen mask at 10 L/min

A

The RT assigned to NICU is called back to the delivery room to attend the delivery of a full term infant. The infant presents with the following vital signs after delivery: HR 72, RR 22, and Color is peripheral cyanosis. The most appropriate treatment at this time should include which of the following? A. chest compressions and manual ventilation with 100% O2 B. endotracheal intubation C. oxyhood with 100% O2 D. administer Narcan

A

The RT has been asked to deliver a low percentage of oxygen to a patient that is breathing 30 times per minute with an irregular breathing pattern. Which device would be the best to set up on this patient? A. air entrainment mask at 28% B. nasal cannula at 2 L/min. C. nasal catheter at 2 L/min. D. simple oxygen mask at 6 L/min.

A

The RT has just intubated a patient in respiratory failure. To initially assess the position of the ETT, the RT should recommend which of the following? A. measurement of PETCO2 B. arterial blood gas analysis C. measurement of spontaneous tidal volume D. measurement of SpO2

A

The RT is administering PEP therapy to a patient with atelectasis. Which of the following would indicate the atelectasis is improving? A. decreased late inspiratory crackles B. decreased inspiratory wheezes C. reduced inspiratory stridor D. coarse crackles that clear with coughing

A

The RT is administering sustained maximal inspiratory maneuvers to a patient with postoperative atelectasis. The practitioner should expect all of the following results EXCEPT A. decreased functional residual capacity. B. increased lung compliance. C. reduced right-to-left shunting. D. improved distribution of ventilation.

A

The RT is asked to set up 35% oxygen on an active 4-year-old patient. The most appropriate oxygen delivery device to use in this situation is which of the following? A. oxygen tent B. oxygen hood C. nasal cannula D. simple oxygen mask

A

The RT is assessing a pt in the ICU with acute pulmonary edema. Which of the following would best determine if this is cardiogenic pulmonary edema? A. pulmonary capillary wedge pressure B. central venous pressure C. pulmonary artery pressure D. right atrial pressure

A

The RT percusses an area of hyperresonance on a pt on M. This percussion note is most likely the result of which of the following? A. pneumothorax B. atelectasis C. consolidation D. pulmonary edema

A

The following ABG have been obtained from a patient on a 40% air-entrainment mask: pH 7.47, PaCO2 32, PaO2 58. Based on this data, the RT should recommend to A. place the patient on CPAP. B. place the patient on a 60% aerosol mask. C. place the patient on a nonrebreathing mask. D. continue the current oxygen therapy and get a blood gas in one hour.

A

The respiratory therapist notices very little mist exiting the reservoir tubing of a T-piece flow-by set-up as the patient inspires. The therapist should A. Increase the flow to the nebulizer. B. Instruct the patient to breathe deeper. C. Instruct the patient to breathe slower. D. Analyze the oxygen percentage.

A

The secretions of a tracheotomized patient are thick and difficult to mobilize. Which of the following should the RT recommend? A. Add a heater to the nebulizer. B. Suction the patient every hour. C. Restrict fluid intake. D. Suction with a pressure of -140 mm Hg.

A

To most effectively monitor the hemodynamic status of a pt with ARDS who is being MV, the RT should recommend which of the following? A. Swan-Ganz catheter B. EKG monitor C. peripheral arterial line D. pulse oximeter

A

Which of the following is characteristically observed with cor pulmonale? A. right ventricular hypertrophy B. left ventricular hypertrophy C. atelectasis D. decreased hemoglobin levels

A

Which of the following is most likely responsible for a staphylococcal outbreak in ICU patients requiring respiratory care? A. health care workers B. ventilators C. disposable humidifiers D. MDIs

A

Which of the following is not an immediate complication of a tracheostomy tube? A. airway obstruction B. pneumothorax C. bleeding D. air embolism

A

Which of the following is the most appropriate method to open a pts aw who is suspected of having a neck fracture? A. jaw thrust maneuver B. head-tilt chin lift C. hyperextension of the neck D. place the patient in trendelenburg

A

Which of the following methods is most commonly used to sterilize bacteria filters? A. autoclave B. ethylene oxide gas exposure C. pasteurization D. glutaraldehyde immersion

A

Which statement about liquid oxygen storage is FALSE? A. It is stored at a higher pressure than gaseous oxygen. B. It is more economical and convenient than gaseous oxygen. C. The container in which it is stored is similar to a large thermos bottle keeping the temperature fairly constant. D. More oxygen may be stored in liquid form.

A

While administering IPPB to a patient on air mix with the Bird Mark-7, the RT adjusts the control so that 100% oxygen is now being delivered. Which of the following statements is true after this change is made? A. The inspiratory flow will decrease. B. The inspiratory pressure will increase. C. The inspiratory time will decrease. D. The sensitivity will increase.

A

While administering IPPB, the patient suddenly complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. Upon further assessment of the patient, the respiratory care practitioner observes asymmetrical chest movement and tachycardia. The patient has most likely developed which of the following? A. pneumothorax B. pulmonary edema C. massive atelectasis D. pleural effusion

A

While administering an ultrasonic nebulizer treatment, the RT notices that the couplant chamber light comes on. If this is not corrected, this may result in which of the following? A. The mist output will decrease. B. The temperature of the mist will increase. C. The electrical power will shut off. D. The vibration frequency will increase.

A

While analyzing the oxygen on a patient that is set up on a heated 40% aerosol mask, you observe the analyzer reading 75%. Which of the following may be causing this high reading? A. There is water in the aerosol tubing. B. The liter flow to the nebulizer is too high. C. The air-entrainment port is opened more than it should be. D. The heater has malfunctioned.

A

While assessing a patient's lab report you note the patient has a potassium level of 2.0 mEq/L. This patient is said to be A. hypokalemic. B. hypernatremic. C. hypoxemic. D. acidemic.

A

While assessing the lab work on a patient in the ICU you notice a WBC count of 6000. This indicates the patient has: A. a normal WBC count B. an infection. C. a pleural effusion D. pneumonia.

A

While assessing the patient's chart you observe a hemoglobin level of 7.5 gm/dL. This indicates the patient A. has a decreased oxygen carrying capacity. B. has a normal hemoglobin level. C. has chronic lung disease. D. has a normal red blood cell count.

A

While auscultating the chest of a patient in ICU you hear crackles in both lung bases. This is most likely the result of which of the following? A. pulmonary edema B. tracheal stenosis C. bronchoconstriction D. glottic edema

A

While delivering IPPB to a tracheostomized patient air can be heard leaking around the patient's mouth and the machine will not cycle off. The therapist should: A. add air to the tube cuff. B. increase the flow. C. increase the sensitivity. D. decrease the inspiratory pressure.

A

While evaluating a postoperative patient for which IS has been ordered, the RT obtains a VC of 6 ml/kg of body weight. The practitioner should do which of the following? A. Recommend IPPB in place of incentive spirometry. B. Start the treatment as ordered. C. Measure the patient's tidal volume. D. Recommend a bronchodilator using a hand-held nebulizer.

A

While making oxygen rounds the respiratory therapist discovers the reservoir tubing on a T-piece set-up has fallen off. Which of the following is true regarding this situation? A. The FIO2 may decrease. B. The total flow to the device will decrease. C. The FIO2 may increase. D. Less room air will be entrained.

A

While preparing to intubate a patient, the respiratory care practitioner attaches the laryngoscope blade to the handle and the light bulb fails to light. Which of the following should the practitioner do first? A. Tighten the light bulb. B. Replace the laryngoscope blade. C. Replace the batteries in the handle. D. Proceed to intubate without a light source.

A

You notice after setting up a partial rebreathing mask on a patient that the reservoir bag totally collapses during inspiration. The respiratory therapist should recommend which of the following? A. Increase the flowrate. B. Place a one-way valve on the exhalation port. C. Tighten the mask around the patient's face. D. Increase the flowrate.

A

The following data has been collected on a pt in ICU on a 60% aerosol mask: pH 7.44, PaCO2 42, PaO2 160, PB 747. Based on this information, which of the following represents this patient's P(A-a)O2? A. 208 torr B. 276 torr C. 368 torr D. 404 torr

A (1) PAO2 = (Pb-47)FiO2 - (PaCO2 x 1.25) (2) PAO2 - PaO2 = answer

Given the following data, calculate total oxygen content. pH 7.41, PaCO2 43 torr, PaO2 94 torr, Hb 14 gm/dL, SaO2 96% A. 13.4 vol.% B. 15.6 vol.% C. 17.8 vol.% D. 18.3 vol.%

D

A 34-year-old patient on a 40% aerosol mask has right lower lobe pneumonia. He becomes short of breath and his SpO2 drops from 96% to 89% when lying on his right side. What should the RT recommend? A. Increase the O2 to 80%. B. Place the patient on his left side. C. Place the patient on CPAP. D. Suction the patient.

B

A demand-valve resuscitator is being used to ventilate an apneic patient in the emergency department. Inadequate tidal volumes are being delivered. The therapist should do which of the following first? A. Place the patient on a mechanical ventilator. B. Change to a manual resuscitator. C. Determine the resuscitator's problem. D. Begin chest compressions.

B

A drug overdose pt who is unresponsive and intubated begins developing frequent PVCs. Attempts at placing peripheral or central catheters are unsuccessful. The RT should recommend which of the following? A. endotracheal atropine B. endotracheal lidocaine (Xylocaine) C. defibrillation D. endotracheal epinephrine

B

A hyperresonant lung sound is heard while the RT is percussing over the pts lower L lung field. This is indicative of which of the following pulmonary conditions? A. left lower lobe atelectasis B. left-sided pneumothorax C. pleural effusion D. lobar pneumonia

B

A patient arrives in the ED after being pulled from a burning house. The RT should recommend which of the following to best determine the severity of the patient's smoke inhalation? A. Hb B. COHb C. PaO2 D. SpO2

B

A patient has a RR of 12/min. This indicates the patient is A. tachypneic. B. eupneic. C. bradypneic. D. dyspneic.

B

A patient is coughing up green, odorous secretions. This most likely indicates which type of organism present in the secretions? A. aerobic B. anaerobic C. viral D. acid-fast

B

A patient is receiving IPPB therapy at a peak inspiratory pressure of 20 cm H2O. The patient begins having bronchospasms during the treatment. Which of the following is true regarding this situation? I. The peak inspiratory pressure will increase. II. The delivered tidal volume will decrease. III. The inspiratory time will increase.

B

A patient is receiving IPPB therapy with a PIP of 22 cm H2O following abdominal surgery. He has a VC of 2.2 L. The RT should recommend which of the following? A. Decrease the peak pressure to 18 cm H2O. B. Discontinue IPPB and begin deep breathing and coughing exercises. C. Continue IPPB as ordered. D. Obtain an arterial blood gas.

B

A patient is receiving cool mist entrained through a 30% venturi mask. The FIO2 measured at the mask is 35%. The RT should do which of the following? A. Calibrate the analyzer and re-analyze the FIO2. B. Check the entrainment port setting. C. Check for condensation in the aerosol tubing. D. Check the flow to the venturi.

B

A patient on 50% O2 has a PaO2 of 252 torr. Which of the following should the RT recommend? A. Decrease the oxygen to 40%. B. Decrease the oxygen to 30%. C. Discontinue oxygen therapy. D. Repeat the blood gases as the PaO2 is not possible on this FIO2.

B

A patient states that she has been coughing up thick, green, foul-smelling secretions. The RT would conclude this patient has: A. pulmonary edema. B. a Pseudomonas infection. C. hemoptysis. D. bronchial asthma.

B

A patient the RT has just extubated complains his throat feels swollen and is sore when he swallows. Which of the following should the RT recommend at this time? A. Deliver warm humidity to the patient's airway. B. Deliver cool aerosol to the patient's airway. C. Deliver warm aerosol to the patient's airway. D. No therapy is recommended, but the patient should be told the symptoms should subside in a couple of days.

B

A patient with a broken nose and cheekbone who has thick pulmonary secretions is ordered to be placed on 40% oxygen. Based on this information which oxygen delivery device would be most indicated for this patient? A. nasal cannula at 5 L/min B. face tent C. simple mask at 8 L/min D. aerosol mask

B

A polarographic oxygen analyzer is being used to monitor the oxygen on a ventilator patient. The patient is on 100% oxygen and the analyzer is reading 102%. Which of the following should be done to correct this problem? A. Replace the membrane on the electrode. B. Calibrate the analyzer. C. Reduce the inspiratory flow on the ventilator. D. Change the batteries in the analyzer.

B

A pt enters the ED complaining of SOB with a RR of 30 and a Vt that fluctuates between 300 ml and 450 ml. The Dr orders the pt to be placed on a moderate level O2. Which device should the RT recommend? A. nasal cannula at 4 L/min B. 40% air entrainment mask C. simple oxygen mask at 8L/min D. nonrebreathing mask at 15L/min

B

A pt in the ICU is hemodynamically unstable with fluctuating arterial BPs. Which of the following should the RT recommend to best monitor this patient's hemodynamic status? A. pulse ox B. radial artery catheter C. radial artery puncture for ABGs D. echocardiogram daily

B

A pt is brought into the ER having been pulled from a burning house. He is receiving O2 through a NC at 4 l/min. Which of the following would you recommend at this time? A. Get a stat arterial blood gas. B. Remove the cannula and replace with a nonrebreathing mask. C. Increase the liter flow on the cannula to 6 l/min. D. Obtain an arterial blood gas on room air.

B

A pt presents in the ER after being rescued from a house fire. Which of the following devices would you recommend to most accurately determine the severity of the patient's carbon monoxide blood level? A. pulse oximeter B. co-oximeter C. oxygen analyzer D. capnometer

B

A severe COPD patient is admitted to the hospital with dyspnea. The patient is unresponsive with a BP of 170/110 mm Hg and a RR of 38/min. The RT should assess which of the following next? A. Hb and Hct B. PaCO2 C. SpO2 D. chest x-ray

B

A severe COPD patient is on a 28% air entrainment mask. While taking IPPB on O2 with air-mix in use, the patient's RR decreases from 16/min at the start of the tx, to 6/min five minutes into the tx. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation at this time? A. Turn on the oxygen control to 100%. B. Place the patient on a nasal cannula at 2 L/min and administer the treatment on room air. C. Increase the inspiratory pressure. D. Increase the sensitivity level.

B

A severe COPD pt is on a 28% air entrainment mask and has a PaO2 of 61. Which of the following should the RT recommend at this time? A. Place on CPAP. B. No changes are required at this time. C. Increase to O2 to 40%. D. Place on a nonrebreathing mask

B

After administering a bland aerosol treatment to a pt, the RT auscultates bilateral rhonchi. The RT should recommend which of the following? A. Discontinue the treatment and initiate IPPB therapy. B. Encourage the patient to deep breath and cough. C. Initiate bronchodilator therapy. D. Discontinue the therapy.

B

After setting up a nonrebreathing mask the respiratory therapist removes one of the one-way valves covering the exhalation port. This is done to: A. increase the FIO2. B. make sure the patient will get air should the oxygen flow be disrupted. C. increase the humidity output. D. increase the flow to the reservoir bag.

B

An infant in respiratory failure has just been delivered by a woman who states she has ingested a narcotic three hours ago. Which of the following medications should the RT recommend for the infant at this time? A. epinephrine B. Narcan C. sodium bicarbonate D. Lidocaine

B

An intubated patient begins exhibiting severe respiratory distress and the respiratory therapist auscultates no breath sounds and determines there is no gas flow passing through the end of the ETT. The high pressure alarm is sounding on the ventilator. Which of the following should the therapist do at this time? A. Instill 5 ml of saline down the ET tube and suction. B. Extubate and manually ventilate the patient. C. Obtain an arterial blood gas. D. Recommend a stat chest x-ray.

B

An oral ETT is inserted into an adult patient. A leak is heard after 35 cm H2O is placed in the cuff. This would suggest which of the following? A. The E-T tube is too long. B. The E-T tube's outside diameter is too small. C. The E-T tube's inside diameter is too large. D. The E-T tube is too short.

B

CPAP is appropriate in the treatment of patients with which of the following? A. spontaneous breathing without hypoxemia B. spontaneous breathing with intrapulmonary shunting C. apnea D. a PaO2 of 90 torr on 25% oxygen

B

Choose the false statement regarding pulse-dose oxygen systems. A. This device can deliver oxygen to the patient on inspiration only. B. This device conserves oxygen by delivering a "pulse" of oxygen at higher flow rates than conventional flowmeters do. C. The device is attached to a 50 psi oxygen wall outlet or gas cylinder. D. This system may be used in conjunction with a reservoir cannula.

B

Cyanosis will be detected when A. the patient's PaO2 drops below 80 torr. B. there is 7 gm/dL of unsaturated hemoglobin. C. the patient's HR increases 20 beats/minute. D. the patient's SaO2 drops to 93%.

B

Five minutes into an IPPB treatment the patient begins coughing up a moderate amount of fresh blood. The respiratory care practitioner should do which of the following at this time? A. Decrease the inspiratory pressure. B. Stop the treatment and notify the physician. C. Stop the treatment for five minutes and continue if there are no other complications. D. Continue the treatment and have the nurse notify the physician.

B

Following a bronchoscopy, the RT should clean the bronchoscope using which of the following cleaning methods? A. Wipe down with alcohol. B. Soak for thirty minutes in a glutaraldehyde solution. C. Place in an autoclave for fifteen minutes. D. Soak in acetic acid for one hour.

B

Following extubation, the patient develops inspiratory stridor and shortness of breath. The respiratory therapist should recommend which of the following? A. Reintubate the patient. B. Administer aerosolized racemic epinephrine. C. Begin IPPB with albuterol. D. Get a stat chest x-ray.

B

It's important to "crack" a cylinder prior to the attachment of a regulator because: A. the regulator won't function properly. B. it clears the valve outlet of dust and debris. C. it ensures the cylinder is full. D. it makes for an easier attachment

B

Reinserting a flowmeter into an oxygen wall outlet has failed to correct a massive gas leak in a patient's room. Which of the following should be done NEXT? A. Evacuate the patients from the floor. B. Provide necessary supplemental oxygen to patients in the area and close the zone valve. C. Have engineering shut off the hospital's master oxygen valve. D. Check the pressure relief valve on the patient's bubble humidifier.

B

The RT enters a patient's room to administer IPPB and is unable to arouse the patient. The therapist should do which of the following first? A. open the patient's airway B. call for help C. administer oxygen D. check for a pulse

B

The RT enters a patient's room to initiate IS and finds the patient slumped over in bed and unresponsive to verbal and tactile stimuli. After calling for help, which of the following should the therapist do next? A. check for a pulse B. determine if the patient is breathing C. administer a precordial thump D. administer oxygen

B

The RT has received an order for postural drainage and percussion for a 34yr pt whose CXR shows atelectasis of the posterior basal segment of the R lower lobe. The pt should be placed in which of the following positions to help drain this segment? A. lying on left side with bed flat B. prone, with head of bed down C. lying on left side with head of bed down D. supine, with head of bed down

B

The RT is called to check the operation of a patient's 35% aerosol mask. As you enter the room you notice the mist is being delivered intermittently, in short puffs of mist. The RT should A. replace the nebulizer with a new one. B. drain the water from the aerosol tubing. C. increase the temperature to the nebulizer heater. D. increase the oxygen to 40%.

B

The RT is conducting an interview on a pt that just entered the ED. The pt. states of their difficulty breathing when he lying down and sleeps with 3 pillows at night. This is indicative of what breathing condition? A. tachypnea B. orthopnea C. euthopnea D. dyspnea

B

The RT is evaluating a patient and observes a six second capillary refill time. This indicates the patient: A. has pulmonary edema. B. has inadequate perfusion to the extremities. C. has adequate pulmonary perfusion. D. has an increased cardiac output.

B

The RT is having difficulty calibrating a transcutaneous O2 electrode. What is the most likely cause: A. The sensor is not attached to the patient properly. B. The membrane is damaged. C. The sensor is warm. D. Perfusion to the sensor site is poor.

B

The RT is instructing a pt who is about to be discharged from the hospital the proper method for cleaning equipment in the home. Which of the following should be included in the procedure? A. The equipment should be towel dried immediately after it is removed from the liquid disinfectant. B. After rinsing the equipment in a vinegar solution for 30min, it should be rinsed and allowed to air dry. C. The equipment should be disinfected after each use. D. An autoclave should be purchased to ensure adequate cleaning of the equipment

B

The RT is using a 12 French suction catheter to suction a F patient who is intubated with a 7.0 ETT and is having difficulty removing the thick secretions. What should be recommended to fix this problem? A. Increase the suction pressure to -140 mm Hg. B. Instill 5 ml of normal saline down the E-T tube. C. Change to a 14 French suction catheter. D. Change to a coude-tipped suction catheter.

B

The RT palpates a "thready" and irregular pulse on a pt with a history of a-fib. To further assess the patient's condition, the RT should recommend which of the following? A. chest radiograph B. ECG C. arterial blood gases D. pulse oximetry

B

The RT palpates no pulse on a patient but observes QRS complexes on the cardiac monitor. Which of the following should the practitioner do at this time? A. Obtain a 12-lead EKG . B. Begin cardiac compressions. C. Get a stat arterial blood gas. D. Recommend insertion of a Swan-Ganz catheter.

B

The maximum liter flow to be used to deliver oxygen to a patient on a NC is A. 4 L/min. B. 6 L/min. C. 8 L/min. D. 10 L/min.

B

The physician wants to begin weaning a patient from a tracheostomy tube. Which of the following should the respiratory therapist recommend? A. Change to a tracheostomy tube with a foam cuff. B. Change to a fenestrated tracheostomy tube. C. Change to a smaller tracheostomy tube. D. Change to a metal tracheostomy tube.

B

The reason that a patient with thick retained secretions should have a heated nebulizer attached to the oxygen delivery device is to A. ensure that the patient doesn't become overhydrated. B. deliver more moisture to the airway thereby decreasing the thickness of the secretions. C. decrease the total water output in the inspired air. D. decrease the relative humidity in the inspired air.

B

The respiratory therapist auscultates diminished breath sounds with little air movement on a patient presenting in the emergency department with acute asthma. After administering aerosolized albuterol, the therapist observes audible wheezing. Which of the following statements is true regarding this situation? A. The patient should be intubated immediately. B. The patient's ventilatory status is improving. C. The patient most likely has developed glottic edema. D. The bronchodilator therapy is ineffective.

B

When delivering oxygen using a simple oxygen mask, what is the minimum flow required? A. 3 L/min B. 5 L/min C. 7 L/min D. 10 L/min

B

When using an air entrainment mask with various jet sizes, the smaller the diameter of the jet A. the less room air entrainment. B. the more room air entrainment. C. the higher the delivered FIO2. D. the less total flow delivered.

B

Which of the following devices is capable of delivering gas to the patient that is fully saturated at body temperature? A. bubble humidifier B. heated Cascade humidifier C. passover humidifier D. heat moisture exchanger

B

Which of the following is not a complication of IPPB? A. barotrauma B. increased cardiac output C. excessive ventilation D. gastric insufflation

B

Which of the following is not a hazard of aerosol therapy? A. overhydration B. bradycardia C. bronchospasm D. contaminated aerosol delivery

B

Which of the following is the most appropriate method to prevent the cross contamination of a Wright respirometer that is being used on several patients? A. Place the respirometer is Cidex between patient use. B. Use a one-way valve so that only exhaled air flows through the respirometer. C. Have the respirometer autoclaved after each patient use. D. Wipe the respirometer with alcohol after each patient use.

B

Which of the following is the most appropriate range to maintain a COPD patient's PaO2 who is chronically hypercapnic? A. 45-55 torr B. 55-65 torr C. 65-75 torr D. 75-85 torr

B

Which of the following is the most appropriate sx catheter size and sx pressure to use on an adult with an 8.0 mm ETT. A. 10 Fr, -120 torr B. 14 Fr, -100 torr C. 12 Fr, -60 torr D. 14 Fr, -140 torr

B

Which of the following is the most cost-effective method for preventing cross contamination of a tracheostomy patient? A. Suction no more frequently than every four hours. B. Wash hands after each patient. C. Use sterile technique when suctioning. D. Change tracheosotomy dressing every eight hours.

B

Which of the following represents the appropriate size sx catheter to use with a 6.0 mm endotracheal tube? A. 8 Fr B. 10 Fr C. 12 Fr D. 14 Fr

B

Which of the following statements is true regarding a patient who has a Hb level of 8 gm/dL and a SpO2 of 98%? A. The patient will not be cyanotic. B. Hypoxia is most likely not present. C. Oxygen is not indicated at this time. D. The patient is polycythemic.

B

Which of the following statements regarding oxygen concentrators is FALSE? A. The concentrator is connected to an electrical wall outlet. B. When the flow is increased, the delivered oxygen percent increases. C. When using an oxygen enricher, it is recommended to triple the ordered O2 flow. D. Concentrators are primarily devices used to administer oxygen in the home setting.

B

Which of the following would be the most appropriate recommendation to help prevent postoperative atelectasis after a hypotensive patient's abdominal surgery? A. IPPB B. incentive spirometry C. blow bottles D. CPAP

B

Which one of the following oxygen delivery devices is not a low flow device? A. nasal cannula B. air entrainment mask C. partial rebreathing mask D. simple oxygen mask

B

Which statement about circulatory hypoxia is true? A. Tissue cells are unable to utilize oxygen due to an impairment of cellular oxidative enzymes. B. The O2 content and O2 carrying capacity are normal but blood flow through the capillaries is diminished. C. The hemoglobin levels in the blood are decreased. D. Tissue perfusion is adequate but the PaO2 is reduced.

B

While administering IPPB to a patient the machine cycles without any effort on the patient's part. Which of the following controls should the respiratory therapist check at this time? A. flow B. rate C. pressure D. oxygen

B

While assessing a ventilator patient with a pneumothorax, the respiratory therapist observes a blood clot occluding the patient's chest tube. The first action the therapist should take would be to: A. clamp off the drainage tube. B. "milk" the drainage from the chest tube. C. insert a new chest tube. D. get a stat chest x-ray.

B

While assessing the lab work on a patient in the ICU you notice a WBC count of 22,000. This indicates the patient has A. a decreased WBC count B. an infection. C. a pleural effusion D. atelectasis.

B

While bagging a patient who has a tracheostomy tube, the RT hears air leaking around the patient's mouth and observes minimal chest excursion. Which of the following should the practitioner do at this time? A. Increase flow to the bag. B. Add more air to the tracheostomy tube cuff. C. Replace the resuscitator bag. D. Begin mouth-to-tube ventilation.

B

While conducting a pulmonary evaluation on a patient, the RT auscultates diminished BS on the right side and palpates the trachea being shifted toward the right side. The RT should suspect which of the following? A. right-sided tension pneumothorax B. massive atelectasis of the right lung C. left-sided pneumothorax D. pleural effusion of the left lung

B

While participating in the resuscitation of a patient, the EKG monitor shows v-fib after ten minutes of CPR. The arrhythmia does not reverse after the patient is defibrillated with 200 joules. The RT should recommend which of the following at this time? A. Administer dopamine. B. Repeat defibrillation with 350 joules. C. Administer sodium nitroprusside. D. Implement cardioversion at 300 joules.

B

While preparing to analyze the oxygen percentage coming from a patient's aerosol mask, you notice water in the large bore aerosol tubing. What effect would this have on the operation of this aerosol set-up? A. decreased FIO2 B. increased FIO2 C. increased air entrainment into the nebulizer D. increased gas flow to the patient

B

While transporting a patient on oxygen the cannula tubing becomes kinked between the mattress and bedrail. What affect will this have on the reading on the Bourdon gauge flowmeter attached to the e cylinder? A. The gauge will read lower. B. The gauge will read slightly higher. C. The gauge reading will remain the same. D. The gauge reading will increase at least 4 L/min.

B

You observe digital clubbing while performing a pulmonary assessment on a patient. This is a sign the patient most likely has which of the following? A. asthma B. emphysema C. pneumonia D. atelectasis

B

You are preparing to transport a pt on a 5 L/min NC from ICU to the Radiology for a CT. In order to ensure the E cylinder has enough gas to run for at least 1hr, what is the minimum pressure the cylinder must contain? A. 900 psig B. 1200 psig C. 1400 psig D. 1700 psig

B Equation: (PSI x Factor) / flow L/min = time PSI x 0.28 / 5 = 60 min -multiply both sides by 5 => PSI x 0.28 = 300 -divide both sides by 0.28 which = 1071 PSI -so the minimum amount as a possible answer is B, 1200

A 24yr comatose woman enters the ED with the following ABG results: pH 7.21, PaCO2 23, PaO2 65, and HCO3 8 mEq/L. Which of the following breathing patterns is this patient most likely exhibiting? A. Cheyne-Stokes B. Biot's C. Kussmaul's D. hypopnea

C

A 2yr old pt presents in the ED coughing with acute SOB. A CXR reveals a radiopaque density at the 5th thoracic vertebrae in the R lung field. The R lung is also hyperinflated. Based on this information, the RT should suspect this CXR is most likely the result of which of the following? A. atelectasis of the right lower lobe B. a foreign body lodged in the right mainstem bronchus C. pneumothorax of the right lung D. right lower lobe pneumonia

C

A Dr orders a NRB mask on a severe chronic lung pt with a PaO2 of 59. The patient seems to be in no acute distress. The RT should do which of the following? A. Set up the mask as ordered. B. Ask the nurse for clarification. C. Notify the physician before setting up the mask and ask for clarification. D. Set up the mask and notify your supervisor at shift change.

C

A molecular sieve oxygen concentrator is capable to delivering a maximum oxygen percentage of which of the following? A. 40% B. 65% C. 95% D. 100%

C

A patient complains during an IPPB treatment that he is having difficulty cycling the machine on. Which of the following should the respiratory care practitioner do to correct this problem? A. Decrease the machine sensitivity. B. Decrease the inspiratory pressure. C. Increase the machine sensitivity. D. Increase the inspiratory flow.

C

A patient exhibiting Kussmaul's breathing would have which of the following arterial blood gas results? A. pH 7.21, PaCO2 56 torr, PaO2 66 torr, HCO3 25 mEq/L B. pH 7.53, PaCO2 27 torr, PaO2 107 torr, HCO3 24 mEq/L C. pH 7.22, PaCO2 21 torr, PaO2 70 torr, HCO3 10 mEq/L D. pH 7.55, PaCO2 42 torr, PaO2 81 torr, HCO3 31 mEq/L

C

A patient has just been resuscitated following carbon monoxide poisoning. Which of the following values would best determine this patient's oxygen carrying capacity? A. SaO2 B. Hb level C. arterial oxygen content D. PaO2

C

A patient is coughing up purulent secretions. This is an indication of which of the following? A. pleural effusion B. pneumothorax C. bacterial pneumonia D. hemoptysis

C

A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis. Which of the following isolation precautions should the respiratory care practitioner recommend? A. strict isolation B. reverse isolation C. respiratory isolation D. enteric isolation

C

A patient is on a 60% aerosol mask with the flow running at 8 L/min. The patient is dyspneic with an SpO2 of 88%. Which of the following would be most appropriate at this time? A. Recommend administering a bronchodilator. B. Increase the O2 to 70%. C. Increase the flow to 15 L/min. D. Place the patient on CPAP of 4 cm H2O and 60% O2.

C

A patient is set up on a 40% aerosol mask which when analyzed reads 65%. What is the appropriate action to take? A. Increase the nebulizer flow. B. Decrease the nebulizer flow. C. Drain the water from the aerosol tubing. D. Shorten the length of the aerosol tubing.

C

A patient on a volume ventilator has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.27, PaCO2 28 torr, PaO2 88 torr, HCO3 27 mEq/L. Based on this data, the RT should recommend which of the following? A. Increase the tidal volume. B. Decrease the ventilator rate. C. Get repeat blood gases since these results indicate a lab error. D. Decrease the FiO2.

C

A patient receiving IPPB therapy has difficulty cycling the machine into exhalation. Which of the following should the respiratory therapist do first to correct this problem? A. Instruct the patient to breath deeper. B. Increase the inspiratory pressure. C. Instruct the patient to keep lips sealed tight around the mouthpiece. D. Give the treatment with a mask.

C

A patient receiving positive expiratory pressure (PEP) therapy through a mouthpiece at 10 cm H2O has minimal secretion production. The respiratory therapist should recommend which of the following? A. Decrease the PEP to 5 cm H2O. B. Discontinue the treatment and begin percussion and postural drainage. C. Increase the PEP to 15 cm H2O. D. Administer the treatment with a mask in place of the mouthpiece.

C

A patient with a history a-fib which is normally controlled by medication enters the ED complaining of palpitations and SOB. An EKG reveals a-fib. Which of the following is indicated? A. cardioversion with 200 joules B. defibrillation with 350 joules C. cardiovesion with 100 joules D. external pacemaker

C

A patient with a suspected drug overdose is on a volume ventilator on the following settings. Vt 650 ml, Rate 12/min, Mode Assist/control, Inspiratory flow 25 L/min, and Pressure limit 45 cm H2O. The I:E ratio alarm is triggered. Which ventilator adjustment should the respiratory therapist make at this time? A. Increase the pressure limit. B. Increase the tidal volume. C. Increase the inspiratory flow. D. Increase the rate.

C

A severe COPD pt enters the ED in respiratory distress. ABG are drawn on room air. 30 min later ABGs are drawn on 5 L/min NC. The data is recorded below: ABGs on RA: pH 7.34, PaCO2 59 torr, PaO2 42 torr, HCO3 36 mEq/L. ABGs on 5 L/min NC: pH 7.27, PaCO2 70 torr, PaO2 53 torr, HCO3 36 mEq/L. Which of the following should be recommended at this time? A. Decrease the oxygen to 2 L/min. B. Place on a nonrebreathing mask. C. Institute mechanical ventilation. D. Place on CPAP.

C

After setting up a NC on 4 L/min, the RT kinks the cannula tubing and a high-pitched whistling noise is heard coming from the humidifier. Which of the following is true regarding this situation? A. The liter flow is too high. B. The cannula tubing may have a crack in it. C. The oxygen setup is functioning properly. D. The humidifier should be replaced.

C

An alert, spontaneously breathing patient has a PaCO2 of 33 torr and a PaO2 of 55 torr while receiving an FIO2 of 0.70. Which of the following is the most appropriate way to increase the patient's PaO2? A. Increase the FIO2 only. B. Intubate and increase the FIO2. C. Apply CPAP at 60% oxygen. D. Apply CPAP at 100% oxygen.

C

An order is written by the physician to put a patient on a 40% aerosol mask and he wants to meet the patient's inspiratory flow demand of 36 L/min. What would be the minimum flow rate to use to achieve this? A. 6 L/min B. 8 L/min C. 10 L/min D. 12 L/min

C

Choose the FALSE statement regarding flow restrictors. A. They generally are used in delivery of oxygen in the home. B. They operate off a 50 psig gas source. C. The flow generally varies from 5-10 L/min. D. They are a fixed-orifice, constant-pressure flow metering device

C

Inadequate alveolar ventilation caused by atelectasis resulting in hypoxia is an example of which type of hypoxia? A. anemic hypoxia B. stagnant hypoxia C. hypoxemic hypoxia D. histotoxic hypoxia

C

Incentive spirometry is most effective in which of the following conditions? A. treating preexisting atelectasis B. treating pneumonia C. preventing postoperative atelectasis D. emphysema

C

Provided the patient has a normal RR and Vt, the O2 percentage available with a simple oxygen mask is A. 22-35%. B. 30-40%. C. 35-55%. D. 55-70%.

C

The RT begins manually ventilating an apneic patient and the resuscitator bag malfunctions. Which of the following should the practitioner do first? A. Go find another resuscitator bag. B. Try to repair the bag. C. Perform mouth-to-mask ventilation. D. Call for a stat IPPB treatment.

C

The RT is asked to recommend a humidifier that will be able to provide the highest water vapor content to the patient's airway. Which of the following humidifiers should the RT select? A. passover B. heat moisture exchanger C. heated wick D. bubble

C

The RT is assessing a patient prior to initiation of bronchodilator therapy followed by CPT. The patient states " I don't feel SOB, but I seem to breathe fast and I raise my shoulders with each breath. I sleep well at night using only one pillow." The RT can conclude from this interview that the patient most likely has A. orthopnea. B. dyspnea. C. increased work of breathing. D. bradypnea.

C

The RT is called to the ED to evaluate a patient suspected of a drug overdose. A Miller laryngoscope blade is selected to orally intubate the patient. When properly positioned, the blade will rest: A. in the valeculla. B. 1 cm past the vocal cords. C. directly under the epiglottis. D. directly above the epiglottis.

C

The RT is conducting a bedside assessment on a pt with Guillain-Barre. Which of the following bedside PFT results indicates the need for ventilatory assistance? A. maximum inspiratory pressure (MIP) of -28 cm H2O B. decreased peak expiratory flow C. vital capacity of 8 ml/kg of body weight D. decreased FEV1

C

The RT is instructing a patient on the proper use of a MDI. To deliver the optimal amount of medication, the patient should be instructed to activate the MDI: A. after a deep inspiration. B. just before the patient begins to inhale. C. just after the patient has started to inhale. D. after a normal inspiration.

C

The RT is preparing to extubate a patient. The patient should be told the tube will be removed: A. immediately following exhalation. B. after a strong cough effort. C. when the patient reaches the point of maximal inspiration. D. just as the patient begins to inhale.

C

The RT is reviewing the chart of a patient in ICU who has a Swan-Ganz catheter in place. Which hemodynamic value would best determine the extent of the patient's left heart failure? A. central venous pressure (CVP) B. pulmonary artery pressure (PAP) C. pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) D. mean arterial pressure

C

The RT palpates subcutaneous emphysema over the lower R lung segment. This is indicative of what? A. right lower lobe pneumonia B. right pleural effusion C. right pneumothorax D. right lower lobe atelectasis

C

The following ABG results are for a COPD pt who is breathing spontaneously. It is not noted what FiO2 the pt is on: pH 7.23, PaCO2 82 PaO2 76, HCO3, 36 mEq/L, and BE +12. The RT should conclude from this information which of the following? A. The patient has acute respiratory acidemia and is breathing room air. B. The patient is not a chronic CO2 retainer. C. The patient is breathing supplemental oxygen. D. The blood gas sample is most likely venous blood.

C

The following data is collected from a 75 kg (165 lb) patient on a volume ventilator. A/C, Vt 650 ml, Vent Rate 12, and FiO2 0.40; ABG results: pH 7.28, PaCO2 53, PaO2 86, and HCO3 25. Based on these data, the most appropriate recommendation is which of the following? A. Increase the FiO2 to 0.60. B. Add PEEP at 4 cm H2O. C. Increase VT to 750 ml. D. Add 50 ml of deadspace.

C

The high pressure alarm suddenly sounds on a patient receiving volume cycled ventilation. The most appropriate action to take is to: A. decrease the inspiratory flow. B. increase the high pressure limit. C. suction the patient. D. Increase the inspiratory flow.

C

The inverse I:E ratio alarm is sounding on a patient's volume ventilator. Which of the following should the RT recommend to correct this problem? A. Decrease the tidal volume. B. Increase the rate. C. Increase the flow. D. Set a 1 second inspiratory pause.

C

The maximum amount of time a suction catheter should remain in the airway is A. 5 seconds. B. 10 seconds. C. 15 seconds. D. 20 seconds.

C

The oxygen percent on a nebulizer is decreased from 60% to 40%. After this oxygen change, which one of the following statements is true? A. Less room air will be entrained into the nebulizer. B. The aerosol density will increase. C. A higher total flow will be delivered to the patient. D. The liter flow must be decreased.

C

The physician orders a 40% aerosol mask for a patient that has a total inspiratory flow of 42 L/min. In order to meet this patient's inspiratory flow demands, what is the minimum flow the oxygen flowmeter must be set on? A. 8 L/min B. 10 L/min C. 12 L/min D. 14 L/min

C

The respiratory care practitioner needs to transport a patient on oxygen from ICU to the Radiology Department to have a CAT scan performed. In order to place an E cylinder in the bed in a horizontal position, which type of device should be used on the cylinder to measure the flow? A. uncompensated Thorpe tube flowmeter B. compensated Thorpe tube flowmeter C. Bourdon gauge flowmeter D. kinetic flowmeter

C

The respiratory therapist is analyzing the oxygen concentration from a heated 40% nebulizer running at 15 L/min. The analyzer reads 75%. The therapist should: A. decrease the flow to 10 L/min. B. recalibrate the O2 analyzer. C. drain the condensation from the aerosol tubing. D. shorten the aerosol tubing.

C

To best determine how well a patient is ventilating, the respiratory care practitioner should assess which of the following? A. pH B. SpO2 C. PaCO2 D. PaO2

C

Which of the following is true regarding a patient is experiencing Kussmaul's respirations? A. The patient's PaCO2 would be increased. B. The patient's HCO3 would be increased. C. The patient's pH would be decreased. D. The patient's HCO3 would be normal.

C

While administering IPPB the patient begins experiencing bronchospasms. Which of the following will decrease as a result of this? A. inspiratory pressure B. FIO2 C. inspiratory time D. sensitivity

C

While making oxygen rounds the RT notices bubbling in a humidifier that is attached to an oxygen flowmeter that is turned completely off. The cause of this problem is most likely which of the following? A. There is a leak in the humidifier jar. B. The flowmeter is uncompensated for pressure. C. The flowmeter has a faulty valve seat. D. Water has entered the flowmeter.

C

A patient's heated nebulizer is delivering 38 mg of water/liter of gas. What percent body humidity is being delivered with this device? A. 35% B. 54% C. 86% D. 93%

C -Body Humidity = mg/L (given) / 44mg/L x 100

While making oxygen rounds the RT notices that the bed sheet is pulled up over the entrainment port of a patient's venturi mask. What effect will this have on the device? A. The delivered oxygen percentage will remain the same, but the total flow will decrease. B. Less air entrainment will occur resulting in a decrease in the delivered oxygen percentage. C. The delivered oxygen percentage will increase as the total flow decreases. D. The total flow from the device will increase with an increase in oxygen percentage

C

While performing oxygen rounds you have difficulty obtaining an accurate reading with a polarographic oxygen analyzer. Which of the following would not help correct this problem? A. Changing the membrane. B. Drying the water off the membrane. C. Replacing the fuel cell. D. Adding electrolyte gel.

C

While providing ventilation with a manual resuscitator the reservoir attachment falls off the bag. This will result in which of the following? A. Decreased flow to the patient. B. Decreased ventilatory pressure. C. Decreased FIO2 delivery. D. A massive leak in the ventilating system.

C

You are asked to set up a moderate percent of O2 on a pt who is breathing a consistent Vt of 450 milliliters at a RR that fluctuates between 20 and 30. Based on this info, the RT should recommend setting up: A. partial rebreathing mask B. nonrebreathing mask C. venturi mask D. nasal cannula

C

A heated humidifier is delivering 100% body humidity to a pts aw. What volume of water is being delivered? A. 24 mg/L B. 37 mg/L C. 44 mg/L D. 47 mg/L

C -Just remember if it says 100% body humidity

Assuming a patient has an ideal breathing pattern, what is the approximate oxygen percentage delivered with a nasal cannula at 4 liters/min? A. 28% B. 32% C. 36% D. 40%

C -Rule of 4s

The air/O2 entrainment ratio for 30% is which of the following? A. 25:1 B. 10:1 C. 8:1 D. 5:1

C -just use the magic box

A patient on a 35% venturi mask running at 6 L/min is receiving how much total flow from the device? A. 24 L/min B. 30 L/min C. 36 L/min D. 42 L/min

C (1) 100-35 = 65 (2) 35-21 = 14 (3) 65/14 = 4.6 = 5 (4) 1:5 (5) 1+5 = 6 (6) 6 x flow = 6x6 = 36L/min

Approximately how many hours will an H cylinder run at 5 L/min until empty if it contains a pressure of 1500 psi? A. 5 hours B. 10 hours C. 15 hours D. 20 hours

C (1) 1500 x 3.14 (2) then divided answers by 5L/min (3) then divide that answer by 60 to get hrs

The following data is recorded on a patient who is on a 50% air entrainment mask: pH 7.38, PaCO2 43 torr, PaO2 90 torr, SaO2 95%, Hb 14 vol%, HR - 76/min, RR- 14/min. Based on this data, which of the following represents the patient's total oxygen content? A. 12.3 vol% B. 15.6 vol% C. 18.1 vol% D. 20.3 vol%

C CaO2 = (hb x 1.34 x SaO2) + (PaO2 x 0.003)

Five minutes after extubating a patient, the RT observes marked inspiratory stridor, intercostal retractions, labored breathing and a decreasing SpO2 value. Aerosolized racemic epinephrine has been administered with no affect. Which of the following should the therapist recommend at this time? A. an aerosol treatment with beclomethasone (Vanceril) B. a cool aerosol treatment C. manual ventilation with bag and mask D. reintubation

D

A 25-year-old patient with CF wants to continue his pulmonary hygiene program while working at his full-time job. Which of the following devices would be the most appropriate to recommend for this patient? A. MDI with bronchodilator B. ultrasonic nebulizer with bronchodilator C. intermittent percussive ventilation (IPV) D. Flutter mucous clearance device

D

A 36yr pt in ICU with pneumonia on a 50% venturi. ABG: pH 7.46, PaCO2 33 torr, PaO2 54 torr, HCO3 25, RR 26, pulse/HR 110/min. Based on this data, the RT should recommend which of the following? A. Place on a 70% aerosol mask. B. Institute mechanical ventilation. C. Place on a 100% nonrebreathing mask. D. Place on CPAP.

D

A frail, 76-year-old woman on a 2 L/min nasal cannula with retained secretions complains of pain and discomfort as the respiratory care practitioner performs percussion and postural drainage. The practitioner should recommend which of the following? A. Decrease the frequency of the treatment from QID to BID. B. Place the patient on BiPAP ventilation during the treatment. C. Increase the patient's oxygen to 4 L/min during the treatment. D. Discontinue the therapy and begin intrapulmonary percussive ventilation.

D

A patient is experiencing cardiac arrhythmias, muscle weakness and an ABG determines the patient is in metabolic alkalosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate laboratory value to assess at this time? A. WBC B. Hb and Hct C. plasma protein D. potassium

D

A patient is receiving 6 cm H2O of CPAP by mask at home but the CPAP level can't be maintained. Which of the following should the respiratory therapist do? A. Reposition the patient's head and neck. B. Make sure the tubing isn't kinked. C. Suction the patient. D. Check for leaks in the set-up.

D

A patient is receiving IPPB therapy with a bronchodilator. At the start of the treatment the patient's HR is 76/min and increases to 92/min after five minutes of the treatment. The RT should do which of the following? A. Stop the treatment and notify the physician. B. Recommend decreasing the dose of the bronchodilator. C. Recommend changing the treatment to a hand-held nebulizer. D. Continue the treatment as ordered.

D

A patient on a 100% NRB at 15 L/min has a PaO2 of 600 torr. Which of the following should the RT recommend at this time? A. Place on a 40% air entrainment mask. B. Decrease the flow to 10 L/min. C. Place on a 4 L/min nasal cannula. D. Discontinue oxygen therapy.

D

A patient's EKG monitor indicates ventricular fibrillation. Which of the following is most appropriate initial treatment? A. Cardioversion with 100 joules. B. Defibrillation with 350 joules. C. Defibrllation with 150 joules. D. Defibrillation with 200 joules.

D

A patient's pulse drops from 86/min to 56/min when a suction catheter is inserted into the oral pharynx. The most likely cause is A. coughing. B. hypoxemia. C. hypocarbia. D. vagal stimulation.

D

A pt enters the ED following a car accident. The RT conducts a chest assessment and notes the trachea is shifted to the L of midline and BS are absent on the R side. The patient's RR is 38/min and has a SpO2 of 85%. The RT should recommend which of the following at this time? A. Obtain a chest radiograph. B. Obtain stat ABGs. C. Intubate and initiate mechanical ventilation. D. Insert a chest tube on the right side.

D

A pt experiencing deep, rapid breathing followed by apnea is exhibiting which type of breathing pattern? A. Kussmaul's B. Biot's C. bradypnea D. Cheyne-Stokes

D

A pt in ICU with bronchiectasis has very thick, hard to mobilize pulmonary secretions. A bronchodilator has been ordered by the Dr. Which of the following devices should the RT recommend to deliver the medication? A. hand-held nebulizer B. metered-dose inhaler C. impeller nebulizer D. ultrasonic nebulizer

D

A vent pt suddenly becomes restless and agitated and the high p. alarm begins sounding. The RT auscultates diminished BS in the left lung and palpates the trachea right of midline. Which has most likely occurred? A. right-sided pneumothorax B. massive atelectasis of the left lung C. ET tube slipped into right mainstem bronchus D. left-sided tension pneumothorax

D

After setting up a NRB on a patient, you remove a one way valve from one of the exhalation ports on the mask. This is done for what purpose? A. To increase the FIO2. B. To increase the humidity. C. To increase the flow to the reservoir bag. D. To allow air to enter the mask should oxygen flow become interrupted

D

An example of histotoxic hypoxia would be A. carbon monoxide poisoning. B. upper airway obstruction. C. pulmonary embolism. D. alcohol poisoning.

D

An immunocompromised patient is to be placed on oxygen with a humidity/aerosol device. Which of the following devices is most likely to deliver contaminated water to the patient? A. heated Cascade humidifier B. bubble humidifier C. heated wick humidifier D. heated jet nebulizer

D

Immediately following intubation, which of the following should the respiratory therapist recommend first to determine proper tube placement? A. Order a stat chest x-ray. B. Palpate for symmetrical chest movement. C. Listen over the proximal end of the E-T tube for air movement. D. Auscultate the chest for equal breath sounds.

D

In order to prevent neonatal retinopathy, the PaO2 should not exceed what level? A. 50 torr B. 60 torr C. 70 torr D. 80 torr

D

Room air WILL NOT be entrained through the exhalation ports of an aerosol mask during inspiration if: A. inspiratory flow from the delivery device is inadequate. B. the patient's inspiratory flow exceeds the total flow from the device. C. the patient's inspiratory flow is 45 L/min and the total flow from the device is 40 L/min. D. the total flow from the device exceeds the patient's inspiratory flow.

D

Sinus bradycardia is observed during the resuscitation of a 63-year-old F who was admitted to the ED following an episode of severe chest pain. The patient has no peripheral pulse and BP can't be measured. Which of the following should the RT recommend? A. Defibrillate the patient with 200 joules. B. Cardiovert the patient. C. Administer atropine. D. Initiate chest compressions.

D

The RT enters a patient's room to administer an IPPB treatment and finds the patient unresponsive and not breathing. After two breaths are delivered, what should the practitioner do next? A. Begin chest compressions. B. Administer five abdominal thrusts. C. Administer IPPB for five minutes and assess for spontaneous breathing. D. Check for a pulse.

D

The RT has received a verbal order from the Dr to set up a high O2% on a patient. Which device has the capability of delivering the highest oxygen percentage? A. simple oxygen mask B. air entrainment mask C. partial rebreathing mask D. nonrebreathing mask

D

The RT is assessing a pt with emphysema and observes pedal edema and JVD. The RT should note in the patient's chart these signs are most likely the result of A. systemic hypertension. B. hypercapnia C. pulmonary infection D. right ventricular hypertrophy

D

The RT is called to the ICU to change the tracheostomy tube of a vent pt. due to a leak in the cuff. After replacing the tube and connecting it to the vent, the pt. becomes cyanotic, tachycardia and the high pressure alarm begins sounding on the vent. The RT notes subcutaneous emphysema around the upper chest and neck. Which of the following should the therapist do at this time? A. Increase the high pressure limit and increase the FiO2 to 1.0. B. Instill 5 ml of saline and suction the patient. C. Ensure there is adequate air in the cuff. D. Deflate the cuff, reposition the tube and attempt manual ventilation.

D

The RT is evaluating the O2 set-up on a pt in the ICU. The pt is on a NRB mask with an O2 flow of 10 L/min. The RT notices that the reservoir bag on a pts mask almost totally collapses during the pts inspiration. Which of the following should be done to correct this problem? A. Change to a partial rebreathing mask. B. Recommend placing the patient on a CPAP mask. C. Instruct the patient to breathe more shallow. D. Increase the flow to the mask.

D

The RT is performing BVM ventilation on a severe COPD patient during CPR. Which of the following describes the best method for ventilating this patient? A. The bag should be connected to an air wall outlet. B. The flow to the bag should be 10 L/min with no reservoir attachment. C. The bag should be connected to an O2 blender set at 30%. D. The bag should have a reservoir attachment and a flow of 15 L/min.

D

The RT is performing a chest exam on a MV patient and observes a dull percussion note over the right lower lobe with decreased expansion of the right lung. The RTs assessment may indicate the presence of A. a right mainstem intubation. B. a right-sided pneumothorax. C. a left-sided tension pneumothorax. D. atelectasis of the right lower lobe.

D

The RT is using a 12 French suction catheter to suction a female patient who is intubated with a 6.5 mm ETT and is having difficulty removing the thick secretions. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to take? A. Change to a coude-tip suction catheter. B. Increase the suction pressure to -150 mm Hg. C. Change to a 14 French suction catheter. D. Instill 4 ml of normal saline down the ET tube.

D

The RT notices that when a patient on a 40% aerosol masks inhales, there is no mist exiting the exhalation ports of the mask. Which of the following should be done to correct this problem? A. No action is necessary. This is a normal occurrence. B. Add a heater to the nebulizer. C. Increase the oxygen percentage to 50%. D. Increase the flowrate to the nebulizer.

D

The compression to ventilation ratio for single rescuer CPR on an infant is which of the following? A. 15:1 B. 5:2 C. 5:1 D. 15:2

D

The exhaled tidal volume display on a patient's volume ventilator consistently reads lower than the set volume. Which of the following is the most likely cause? A. water in the tubing B. inadequate flow rate C. sensitivity control set too high D. leak around the HME

D

The following EKG rhythm is observed during the suctioning of a patient's endotracheal tube. Strip shows sinus bradycardia. Which of the following should the respiratory therapist do at this time? A. Decrease the suction pressure. B. Limit suction time to 20 seconds. C. Continue suctioning and monitor closely. D. Discontinue suctioning and hyperoxgenate the patient.

D

The physician has ordered 35% O2 via an O2 hood and blender for a 5-day-old neo. The flowmeter on the blender is reading 10 L/min and is attached to a neb set on 40%. The blender is set at 35%. When analyzing the O2 concentration, the RT observes the analyzer reading 25%. The RT should do what to correct it: A. Increase the flow to 12 L/min. B. Set the blender to 100% oxygen. C. Set the nebulizer's entrainment port to 35%. D. Set the nebulizer's entrainment port to 100%.

D

The physician is having difficulty placing an IV line in a patient with a pulse of 32/min. Which of the following medications should the RT recommend instilling through the endotracheal tube? A. lidocaine (Xylocaine) B. sodium bicarbonate C. epinephrine D. atropine

D

When an aerosol particle is termed hygroscopic, it means the particle A. is less than .1 microns in size. B. is influenced by gravity. C. is dry. D. retains moisture.

D

Which of the following ABG results, drawn on RA, would you expect to observe on a 23-year-old asthmatic who has been in moderate respiratory distress for the past thirty minutes? A. pH 7.26, PaCO2 51 torr, PaO2 58 torr, HCO3 25 mEq/L B. pH 7.43, PaCO2 42 torr, PaO2 92 torr, HCO3 24 mEq/L C. pH 7.52, PaCO2 28 torr, PaO2 104 torr, HCO3 23 mEq/L D. pH 7.51, PaCO2 30 torr, PaO2 58 torr, HCO3 25 mEq/L

D

Which of the following organisms is most frequently responsible for contamination of respiratory care equipment? A. Klebsiella B. Serratia C. E. coli D. Pseudomonas

D

Which of the following would be able to provide the highest relative humidity to a patient on mechanical ventilation? A. HME B. bubble humidifier C. heated passover humidifier D. heated cascade humidifierth

D

Which one of the following is not an acute symptom of hypoxia? A. cyanosis B. dyspnea C. headache D. bradycardia

D

Which piece of equipment is most commonly used for the set up of a tracheostomy collar? A. bubble humidifier B. impeller nebulizer C. ultrasonic nebulizer D. jet nebulizer

D

Which type of breathing pattern will improve aerosol delivery to a patient's lungs? A. fast rate and large volume B. slow rate, large volume and exhale through pursed lips C. fast paced inspiration with moderately deep volume and 3 second breath hold at end inspiration D. slow inspiration with moderately deep volume and a 2-3 second breath hold at end inspiration

D

While assessing a patient's CXR you notice reduced vascular markings and a flattened diaphragm. This indicates the patient most likely has which of the following? A. pneumothorax B. pleural effusion C. pulmonary edema D. emphysema

D

While checking an oxygen tent, the respiratory care practitioner is unable to detect any aerosol particles in the tent. The practitioner should do which of the following? A. Add a heater to the nebulizer. B. Decrease the flow from the nebulizer. C. Decrease the FIO2 setting on the nebulizer. D. Check the patency of the jet and capillary tube on the nebulizer.

D

While manually ventilating an intubated apneic patient with a manual resuscitator there is very little resistance when the bag is compressed and the patient's chest rises only minimally. Which of the following may be the cause of this problem? A. Excessive E-T tube cuff pressure. B. Exhalation valve jammed in the closed position. C. The patient's lungs are non-compliant. D. Inadequate E-T tube cuff pressure.

D

While performing a physical assessment on a pt in the ICU the RT notes paradoxical respirations. This is indicative of which of the following conditions? A. emphysema B. pneumonia C. atelectasis D. flail chest

D

While ventilating a patient with a manual resuscitator, the RT notices when the bag is squeezed, it collapses with little resistance and there is no chest movement. Which of the following could be causing this problem? A. excessive gas flow B. jammed exhalation valve C. reservoir attachment is loose D. leak around oxygen inlet valve

D

You enter a patient's room to administer an IPPB treatment and find the patient unconscious and apneic. After calling for help, which of the following should be done next? A. Administer two breaths. B. Check for a pulse and call for help. C. Place the patient in the fowler's position. D. Open the patient's airway.

D

You turn a flowmeter completely off in a patient's room following a treatment but hear gas leaking out of it. What is the most likely cause of this? A. The flowmeter is uncompensated. B. This is normal when using a compensated flowmeter. C. The flowmeter housing is cracked. D. The flowmeter has a faulty valve seat.

D

The RT is called to a pts room to check the O2 setup. The flow to the pts mask is supplied by an air flowmeter running at 15 L/min and an O2 flowmeter running at 15 L/min. The delivered oxygen percentage from this device is A. 24% B. 35% C. 40% D. 60%

D -Air to O2 ratio is 1:1 -So use the magic box for the possible answers to find which one gives you a ratio of 1:1

A patient is placed on an aerosol mask with a non-heated nebulizer that is delivering 18 mg of water/liter of gas. This patient has a humidity deficit of which of the following? A. 10 mg/L B. 16 mg/L C. 23 mg/L D. 26 mg/L

D -Humidity deficit is 44mg/L- what is being delivered

The RT is called to pediatric ICU to suction an 8yr old vent patient with pneumonia who is intubated with a 6.0 ETT. Which of the following represents the most appropriate catheter size and sx p. to use on this patient? A. 8 French catheter, -100 mm Hg B. 10 French catheter, -120 mm Hg C. 12 French catheter, - 80 mm Hg D.10 French catheter, -100 mm Hg

D French = 2 x ETT -2 = french size

A 38yr woman presents in ER complaining of SOB. A CBC reveals a Hb level of 6 gm%. The RT determines her SpO2 is 99%. Which of the following statements are true regarding this patient's condition? I. The patient is hypoxic. II. The patient is most likely cyanotic. III. Oxygen is not indicated at this time.

I

An oropharyngeal airway is indicated in which of the following situations? I. To prevent an unconscious patient from biting the E-T tube. II. To prevent upper airway obstruction in a conscious patient with neuromuscular disease. III. To prevent upper airway obstruction in a semicomatose patient with closedhead trauma.

I

Which of the following could result in the high-pressure alarm being triggered on a volume ventilator? I. patient experiencing bronchospasm II. patient disconnected from the ventilator III. increased lung compliance IV. decreased static pressure

I

A respiratory care practitioner is called to a patient's room because oxygen is leaking from an E cylinder. The practitioner should do which of the following? I. Tighten all connections II. Replace the washer between the cylinder and regulator connections III. Knock the pins off the regulator to assure a tight fit IV. Lubricate around the connection where the leak is occurring.

I and II

An oxygen analyzer is reading inaccurately. To calibrate the analyzer which of the following gases should be used? I. oxygen II. room air III. nitrogen

I and II

Hypoxemic hypoxia may result from which of the following: I. hypoventilation II. ventilation/perfusion mismatch III. carbon monoxide poisoning

I and II

The RT is assessing a pt in the cardiac ICU. Over the past 36 hours, the pt has been complaining of increasing dyspnea. A CXR reveals diffuse infiltrates. The RT notes inspiratory crackles while auscultating the chest and observes JVD. Based on this assessment, which values would most likely be increased? I. central venous pressure II. pulmonary capillary wedge pressure III. cardiac output

I and II

The high-pressure alarm is activated on a patient's volume ventilator. Which of the following could be causing this problem? I. secretions in the airway II. bronchospasm III. leak around the chest tube IV. static compliance is increasing

I and II

The respiratory care practitioner opens the valve on an E cylinder that has a regulator attached and hears a loud hissing noise. The flowmeter is turned off. Which of the following actions might correct this problem? I. Tighten the regulator connection. II. Replace the regulator washer. III. Turn the flowmeter on.

I and II

Which of the following are not clinical uses of humidity? I. to humidify dry gases II. to provide 100% body humidity to intubated patients III. to deliver particulate water particles to the airway

I and II

Which of the following are not hazards of oxygen therapy? I. atelectasis II. respiratory depression III. pneumothorax IV. increased surfactant production

I and II

Which of the following increases the potential for damage to the tracheal mucosa by the endotracheal tube? I. Maintaining cuff pressure at 26 mm Hg. II. Use of a low volume, high pressure cuff. III. Maintaining cuff pressure at 27 cm H2O.

I and II

Which of the following plays a role in the development of cor pulmonale in a severe COPD patient? I. pulmonary vasoconstriction II. increased red blood cell count III. anemic hypoxia

I and II

Which of the following would be observed on a patient with cor pulmonale? I. pedal edema II. jugular venous distension III. decreased CVP level

I and II

While administering IPPB, the RT increases the inspiratory flow. Which of the following would be true after this change is made? I. The inspiratory time will decrease. II. The tidal volume will decrease. III. The inspiratory pressure will increase.

I and II

While checking a volume ventilator that is to be set up on a postoperative cardiac bypass patient, the exhaled tidal volume display reads 300 ml less than the machine's set tidal volume. The respiratory therapist should do which of the following to determine what is causing this problem? I. Measure the volume at the exhalation valve. II. Measure the volume leaving the ventilator outlet. III. Calculate the tubing compliance.

I and II

You have just completed setting up an oxygen cannula at 6 L/min. As you kink the cannula tubing you notice no sound coming from the humidifier. This could indicate which of the following? I. a leak around the humidifier top II. a cracked humidifier jar III. no leaks are present

I and II

A 28-week-old neonate is suspected of having a pneumothorax. Which of the following should the RT recommend to help diagnose if this condition is present? I. transillumination of the chest II. transcutaneous PO2 monitoring III. chest x-ray IV. arterial blood gases

I and III

A patient has a PaO2 of 54 torr on a 40% aerosol mask. After the oxygen is increased to 60%, the PaO2 is 56 torr. This poor response to O2 therapy is most likely the result of which of the following? I. pulmonary edema II. hypoventilation III. atelectasis IV. diffusion defect

I and III

The RT has instilled air into a vent patient's ET tube cuff so that a slight leak is heard with a stethoscope at peak inspiration. The pressure manometer on the vent is reading 38 cm H2O at the time. Three hours later, the peak inspiratory pressure reading is 24 cm H2O. Which of the following is now true regarding this situation? I. Minimal leak technique should be done at 24 cm H2O. II. The leak around the cuff has increased. III. The cuff pressure on the trachea wall has increased.

I and III

The mist exiting the aerosol mask attached to an ultrasonic nebulizer is minimal. Which of the following should be done to correct this problem? I. Drain the aerosol tubing. II. Decrease the amplitude. III. Add water to the couplant chamber.

I and III

Which of the following are believed to be an advantage of the NC as compared with an air entrainment mask? I. The cannula needn't be removed while patient is eating. II. It may be safely used on patients with irregular breathing patterns. III. It is generally more comfortable for the patient. IV. It eliminates fluctuations in inspired oxygen concentrations.

I and III

Which of the following statements are correct about venturi oxygen dilution systems? I. The FIO2 will decrease when the internal diameter of the jet is decreased. II. The FIO2 will increase when the size of the entrainment port is increased. III. The total flow will increase when the size of the entrainment port is increased.

I and III

Which of the following will increase the possibility of the E-T tube cuff causing tracheal mucosa damage? I. maintaining intracuff pressure of 28 mm Hg II. using minimal leak technique III. using a low volume, high pressure cuff IV. using minimal occluding volume technique

I and III

While making oxygen rounds you discover that the 6-inch reservoir tubing on a T-piece (Briggs adaptor) set up has fallen off. What may result from this situation? I. The FIO2 could decrease. II. The total flow to the patient could increase. III. More room air entrainment could occur.

I and III

While making oxygen rounds you discover that the 6-inch reservoir tubing on a T-piece (Briggs adaptor) set up has fallen off. What may result from this situation? I. The FIO2 could ↓. II. The total flow to the patient could increase III. More room air entrainment could occur.

I and III

During the administration of IPPB, the respiratory care practitioner notices the machine repeatedly cycles on shortly after the patient has begun expiration. In order to correct this problem, the practitioner should check which of the following controls? I. sensitivity control II. flow control III. inspiratory pressure control IV. rate control

I and IV

The RT is assessing a pt who suffered smoke inhalation from a house fire. The pt is on a NRB mask at 15 L/min and his ABG results are: pH 7.23, PaCO2 21, PaO2 174, HCO3 12, BE -13, SaO2 68%. From this data, which of the following is true regarding this patient's condition? I. The patient is hypoxic. II. The FIO2 should be decreased. III. The patient is hypoventilating. IV. The blood gases reveal a partially compensated metabolic acidemia.

I and IV

Tracheal secretions tend to dry in an intubated patient when the inspired air has which of the following characteristics? I. an absolute humidity of 22 milligrams of water/L of air II. a water vapor pressure of 47 mm Hg (torr) III. 52 milligrams of particulate water per liter of gas IV. a relative humidity of 100% at 25C

I and IV

Which of the following would help reduce the potential of cardiac side effects caused by IPPB? I. Increase the flow. II. Increase the pressure. III. Increase the inspiratory time.. IV. Decrease the pressure.

I and IV

A polarographic oxygen analyzer is being used to analyze the oxygen on a nebulizer set on 40%. The analyzer reads 28%. Which of the following could be causing this inaccurate reading? I. weak batteries II. water on the membrane III. inappropriate nebulizer setting

I, II, III

Which of the following are complications of chest compressions? I. fractured ribs II. lacerated liver III. fat embolism A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II and III

I, II, III

Which of the following may result in inadequate mist output by a nebulizer? I. obstructed capillary tube II. inadequate flow III. water in the aerosol tubing

I, II, III

The low volume alarm is triggered on a volume ventilator. Which of the following may be causing this problem? I. patient disconnection II. leak around chest tube III. excessive air in E-T tube cuff IV. inappropriate alarm setting

I, II, IV

A patient is receiving volume-controlled ventilation. The respiratory therapist receives an order to increase the patient's tidal volume from 600 to 800 ml. After changing the tidal volume, the therapist should adjust which of the following alarm settings? I. high minute volume alarm II. low exhaled tidal volume alarm III. high pressure alarm

I, II, and III

Hydrostatic testing of a gas cylinder will determine which of the following? I. cylinder expansion II. leaks in the cylinder III. cylinder wall stress

I, II, and III

Pulse oximeters are inaccurate in which of the following situations? I. carbon monoxide poisoning II. hypotension III. inadequate perfusion

I, II, and III

While making O2 rounds, the RT notices very little mist being produced by a nebulizer attached to an aerosol mask. Which of the following may be the cause of this? I. The liter flow is too low. II. The jet is obstructed. III. The capillary tube filter is clogged.

I, II, and III

Prior to nasally intubating an adult patient, which of the following should the respiratory therapist have available? I. suction catheter II. Magill forceps III. stylet IV. lubricating gel

I, II, and IV

Which of the following are considered indications for aerosol therapy? I. mobilization of retained secretions II. overhydration III. deliver a bronchodilator IV. following extubation to reduce swelling of the airway

I, III, IV

A Dr ordered hand-held neb therapy q2h with 0.5 ml of albuterol (Ventolin). The pt has a hx of CHF and currently has 3+ pitting edema. The pt has no hx of asthma, smoking or pneumonia. There is moderate respiratory distress with expiratory wheezes. The RT should recommend which of the following? I. furosemide (Lasix) II. intubation III. monitoring input/output IV. discontinuing the hand-held nebulizer treatment V. q4h nasal suctioning

I, III, and IV

A patient with ARDS is receiving MV with PEEP. The RT has just increased the PEEP level from 8 cm H2O to 12 cm H2O. Which of the following should the RT assess to determine the pts response to this change? I. blood pressure II. Dynamic lung compliance III. Heart rate IV. Fluid intake and output

I, III, and IV

The RT is called to the ED to assess a 3-year-old male brought in after being pulled from the bottom of a swimming pool. He is unresponsive and pale with peripheral cyanosis. Vital signs are below: HR 52/min, BP 56/24, RR 10/min with intercostal retractions and Temp 33C (91.4F) Which of the following treatments are appropriate? I. endotracheal intubation II. heated aerosol mask at 100% O2 III. manual ventilation with 100% O2 IV. chest compressions

I, III, and IV

While assessing a patient's CXR you observe an area of hyperlucency. This may be the result of which of the following? I. hyperinflation II. atelectasis III. emphysema IV. pneumothorax

I, III, and IV

A 20-month-old infant is to receive 35% oxygen by mist tent. While performing a routine equipment check, the respiratory therapist notices that the oxygen analyzer inside the tent reads 30%. After calibrating the analyzer, it still indicates 30%. The therapist should I. add sterile water to the nebulizer reservoir. II. check for leaks. III. check for water condensation in the aerosol tubing.

II

Choose the FALSE statement(s) concerning the proper storage of medical gas cylinders. I. Cylinders shouldn't be stored in areas where the temperature exceeds 125oF. II. Flammable and non-flammable gases may be stored together. III. Cylinders must be stored with protective caps in place. IV. Full and empty cylinders should be segregated in the storage area.

II

Which of the following cleaning methods or solutions does not have the capability of sterilizing equipment? I. autoclave II. pasteurization III. glutaraldehyde

II

While on rounds you notice that a bubble humidifier connected to a simple oxygen mask is not bubbling. Which of the following may be causing this problem? I. crack in the humidifier jar II. plugged capillary tube III. loose diffuser

II

A patient is receiving oxygen at home from a liquid oxygen reservoir at 1L/min. He complains he does not feel gas coming out of the nasal cannula. Possible reasons for this complaint include which of the following? I. The electrical system has failed. II. The tubing is not connected properly. III. The system is delivering a relatively low flow.

II and III

During IPPB, the patient complains the machine is having difficulty cycling into the expiratory phase. Which of the following may be causing this problem? I. The sensitivity is set too low. II. There is a leak around the patient's mouthpiece. III. The exhalation valve is malfunctioning.

II and III

The RT has instilled air into a ventilator patient's ETT cuff so that a slight leak is heard with a stethoscope at peak inspiration. The peak p manometer on the vent reads 42 cm H2O at the time. Two hours later, the pt is suctioned and the PIP drops to 25 cm H2O. Which of the following is now true regarding this situation? I. The leak around the cuff has increased. II. Minimal leak technique should be done at 25 cm H2O. III. The cuff pressure on the trachea wall has increased.

II and III

The respiratory care practitioner is making equipment rounds and hears the relief valve on a humidifier. Which of the following could be causing this problem? I. a loose tubing connection II. an excessive oxygen flow setting III. an obstruction in the attached tubing

II and III

Which of the following O2 delivery devices will meet the inspiratory flow demands of a patient with an inspiratory flow rate of 40 L/min? I. 40% aerosol mask at 8 L/min II. 30% air entrainment mask at 5 L/min III. 40% air entrainment mask at 12 L/min IV. 35% aerosol mask at 6 L/min

II and III

Which of the following are considered oxygen-conserving (reservoir) devices? I. partial rebreathing mask II. reservoir cannula III. pendant cannula IV. nasal cannula

II and III

While manually ventilating a patient with a manual resuscitator, ABG results show a PaO2 of 46 torr. Which of the following would increase the oxygen being delivered by the bag? I. Increase the ventilation rate. II. Add a reservoir to the bag. III. Increase the oxygen flow to the bag.

II and III

Which of the following muscles are utilized during normal breathing? I. scalenes II. diaphragm III. sternomastoid IV. external intercostals

II and IV

The RT is asked to assist a physician performing cardioversion on a spontaneously breathing patient with a-fib. The patient is awake and alert. To prepare for this procedure, the RT should do which of the following? I. Intubate the patient. II. Set up oxygen therapy equipment. III. Set up a manual resuscitator. IV. Assemble suction and airway care equipment.

II, III, and IV

A flowmeter has a completely closed needle valve and the float jumps when the flowmeter is plugged into a wall gas outlet. Which of the following statements are true? I. This is a normal function in an uncompensated flowmeter. II. The flowmeter must have a restriction on it's outlet. III. This is a normal function in a compensated flowmeter.

III

A pt is brought into the ED after being pulled from a burning house. The ABG results on a NRB are: pH 7.21, PaCO2 19, PaO2 187, HCO3 10, SaO2 65%. From this info, which are true about this patient? I. The patient should be placed on a simple O2 mask at 10 L/min. II. The SpO2 should be measured due to the discrepency in the PaO2 and SaO2. III. The patient is hyperventilating due to severe hypoxia. IV. The blood gases reveal a partially compensated respiratory acidemia.

III only