Section 2 - Just Answers
11. You have received authorization to operate an sUAS at an airport. When flying the sUAS, the ATC tower instructs you to stay clear of all runways. Which situation would indicate that you are complying with this request. A. You are on the double solid yellow line side of markings near the runway B. You are on the double dashed yellow line side of markings near the runway C. You are over the dashed white lines in the center of the pavement
A
13. (Refer to Figure 69) What does the line of longitude at area 7 measure? A. The degrees of longitude east and west of the line that passed through Greenwich, England B. The degrees of longitude east and west of the Prime Meridian C. The degrees of longitude north and south from the equator
A
14. Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts? A. Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D and E airspace are shown in blue B. Aircrafts with control towers underlying Class A, B and C airspace are shown in blue, Class D and E airspace are magenta C. Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D and E airspace are shown in magenta
A
16. Under what condition, if any, may remote pilots fly through a restricted area? A. With the controlling agency's authorization B. When flying on airways with an ATC clearance C. Regulations do not allow this
A
18. Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMS are issued by the National Flight Data Center and contain regulatory information, such as A. temporary flight restrictions B. markings and signs used at airports C. standard communication procedures at uncontrolled airports
A
2. Which publication contains an explanation of airport signs and markings? A. Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) B. Advisory Circulars (AC) C. Chart Supplements US
A
21. (Refer to Figure 74, area 6) What airspace is Hayward Executive in? A. Class D B. Class B C. Class C
A
23. (Refer to figure 23, area 3) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International? A. 1548 feet MSL B. 1500 feet MSL C. 1531 feet AGL
A
24. (Refer to Figure 23, area 3) The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 009-degree radial is A. 454 feet MSL B. 400 feet AGL C. 432 feet MSL
A
26. (Refer to Figure 21) What airport is located approximately 47 (degrees) 40 (minutes) N latitude and 101 (degrees) 26 (minutes) W longitude? A. Garrison Airport B. Mercer County Regional Airport C. Semshenko Airport
A
29. (Refer to Figure 76) What ATC permissions are required to operate near Anderson Airport? A. no ATC permission is required B. ATC clearance required C. Waiver must be requested
A
3. (Refer to Figure 78) In what airspace is Onawa, IA (K36) located? A. Class G B. Class E C. Class D
A
32. The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately A. 090 degrees and 270 degrees magnetic B. 009 degrees and 027 degrees true C. 090 degrees and 270 degrees true
A
33. (Refer to Figure 71, point 6) Sky Way Airport is A. a nonpublic use airport B. an airport restricted to use by private and recreational pilots C. a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace
A
35. What is the purpose of the runway/ runway hold position sign? A. Denotes intersecting runways B. denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway C. denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway
A
37. (Refer to Figure 26, area 5) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is A. Class G airspace from the surface up to but not including 700 feet AGL B. Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace C. Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet MSL
A
39. Guy wires, which support antenna towers, can extend horizontally; therefore, the towers should be avoided horizontally by at least A. 2,000 feet horizontally B. 300 feet horizontally C. 1,000 feet horizontally
A
41. Which statement about longitude and latitude is true? A. Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles B. Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator C. The 0 degree line of latitude passes through Greenwich, England
A
42. When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign? A. Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection B. Indicates direction to take off runway C. Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway
A
45. (Refer to Figure 20, Area 3). What is the latitude and longitude location of the Elizabeth City CGAS RGL (ECG)? A. N 36 degrees 16' W 76 degrees 10' B. W 36 degrees 16' N 76 degrees 10' C. N 37 degrees 0' W 77 degrees 10'
A
49. What is the purpose for the runway hold position markings on the taxiway? A. Holds aircraft short of the runway B. Allows an aircraft permission onto the runway C. Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited
A
50. What should remote pilots rely on for wire strike avoidance? A. Visual scanning B. Sectional chart markings C. Chart supplement US airport and airspace details
A
52. (Refer to Figure 26, area 4) You have been hired to inspect the tower under construction at 46.9N and 98.6W, near Jamestown Regional (JMS). What must you receive, prior to flying your unmanned aircraft in this area? A. Authorization from ATC B. Authorization from the military C. Authorization from the National Park Service
A
55. You are conducting sUAS operations northeast of a nearby airport. While monitoring the CTAF, an aircraft announces that it is departing runway 36 utilizing a right traffic pattern. Will the aircraft potentially conflict with your operation? A. Yes, the aircraft may overfly northeast of the airport B. No, the aircraft will be flying on the west side of the airport C. No, the aircraft will be flying to the south of the airport
A
56. The FAA publication that provides the aviation community with basic flight information and Air Traffic control procedures for use in the National airspace system of the United States is the A. Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) B. Chart Supplements US (formerly A/FD) C. Advisory Circulars Checklist (AC 00-2)
A
58. (Refer to Figure 23, area 3) What is the floor of Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)? A. 1,300 feet MSL B. 1,300 feet AGL C. 1,700 feet MSL
A
60. (Refer to Figure 21) You have been hired by a farmer to use your small unmanned aircraft to inspect his crops. The area that you are to survey is in the Devil's Lake west MOA, east of area 2. How would you find out if the MOA is active? A. Refer to the legend for special use airspace phone number B. This information is available in the small UAS database C. Refer to the Military Operations Directory
A
62. Holding position signs have A. white inscriptions on red background B. red inscriptions on white background C. yellow inscriptions on red background
A
65. (Refer to Figure 71, point 1) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (E36) is at A. 3,823 feet B. the surface C. 700 feet AGL
A
8. When approaching holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot A. should not cross the lines without ATC clearance B. may continue taxiing C. should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines
A
9. The lateral dimensions of class D airspace are based on A. the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established B. the number of airports that lie within Class D airspace C. 5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport
A
1. (Refer to Figure 26, Area 1) You have been asked to inspect the tower just north of Binford. What restrictions should the Remote PIC be concerned to operating the sUAS? A. none, the tower is in Class G airspace up to 1200 AGL B. Restricted airspace exists around the tower thus permissions is required from the controlling agency C. Class E airspace begins at the ground as indicated by the blue hashed lines surrounding the area
B
12. When a manned aircraft is approaching to land at an airport in Class G airspace without an operating control tower, the pilot will A. enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL B. make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated C. fly a left hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL
B
17. Which technique should a remote pilot use to scan for traffic? A. Continuously scan the sky from right to left B. Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals C. Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area
B
20. (Refer to Figure 20, area 3) You need to operate your sUAS in close proximity of the Elizabeth City CGAS RGL (ECG) airport. What frequency should be used to contact ATC? A. 122.95 B. 120.5 C. 124.375
B
22. Public figures are protected by A. special use airspace B. temporary flight restrictions C. prohibited areas
B
25. What is required to enter an airport SIDA? A. You must pass the TSA screening B. You must have an airport issued or approved ID C. You must have an FAA-issued pilot certificate
B
30. The most comprehensive information on a given airport is provided by A. Notice to Airmen (NOTAMs) B. the Chart Supplements US (formerly Airport Facility Directory) C. Terminal Area Chart (TAC)
B
34. (Refer Figure 20, Area 5) How would a remote PIC "Check NOTAMs" as noted in the CAUTION box regarding the unmarked balloon? A. By utilizing the B4UFLY mobile application B. by obtaining a briefing via an online source such as 1800WXbrief.com C. By contacting the FAA district office
B
38. What information is contained in the Notices to Airman Publication (NTAP)? A. All current NOTAMs B. Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs C. Current FDC NOTAMs
B
4. Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with A. the controlling agency B. all pilots C. Air Traffic Control
B
44. According to 14 CFR Part 107, the remote PIC of a small unmanned aircraft planning to operate within in Class C airspace A. is required to file a flight plan B. is required to receive ATC authorization C. must use a visual observer
B
47. (Refer to Figure 22, area 2) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a common traffic advisory frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic? A. 122.05 MHz B. 122.8 MHz C. 135.075 MHz
B
48. While operating a sUAS just south of a controlled airport with authorization, ATC notifies you to stay clear of the runway 6 final approach course. What action should you take to comply with this request? A. Stay clear of areas to the east and north of your area of operation B. Stay clear of areas to the west and north of your area of operations C. stay clear of areas to the west and south of your area of operation
B
53. The "taxiway ending" marker A. identifies area where aircraft are prohibited B. indicates taxiway does not continue C. provides general taxiing direction to named taxiway
B
54. (Refer to Figure 24, area 5) You are operating an sUAS in the vicinity of Sulphur Springs Airport (SUR) where there is active air traffic. Who has priority and right-of-way within the traffic pattern area? A. The sUAS B. The existing manned aircraft C. Priority and right-of-way goes to the aircraft closest to the landing runway
B
61. (Refer to Figure 26, area 2) While monitoring the Cooperstown CTAF you hear an aircraft announce that they are midfield left downwind to RWY 13. Where would the aircraft be relative to the runway? A. The Aircraft is South B. The aircraft is East C. The aircraft is south
B
66. Most midair collision accidents occur during A. hazy days B. clear days C. cloudy nights
B
67. (Refer to Figure 20, area 2) Why would the small flag at lake Drummond be important to a remote pilot? A. This is a GPS check point that can be used for both manned and remote pilots for orientation B. This is a VFR check point for manned aircraft, and a higher volume of air traffic should be expected here C. This indicates that there will be a large obstruction depicted on the next printing of the chart
B
7. (Refer to Figure 52) What special conditions do remote pilots need to be on the lookout while operating near Lincoln Airport? A. Deer near the runway B. Birds in the vicinity C. Parachute operations
B
10. (Refer to Figure 31) Within what airspace is Coeur D' Alene Pappy Boyington Fld located? A. Class B B. Class D C. Class E
C
15. (Refer to Figure 75) The airspace surrounding the Gila Bend AF AUX Airport (GXF) (area 6) is classified as Class A. B B. C C. D
C
19. An aircraft announces that they are on short final for runway 9. Where will the aircraft be in relation to the airport? A. North B. East C. West
C
27. Time - critical information on airports and changes that affect the national airspace system are provided by A. the Chart supplements US (formerly Airport/ Facilities Directory or A/FD) B. Advisory Circulars (ACs) C. Notice to Airmen (NOTAMS)
C
28. (Refer to Figure 22, area 1) You have been contracted to photograph Lake Pend Oreille from a vantage pint just east of Cocolalla. You notice there is a hill which should provide a good panoramic photographs. What is the maximum altitude (MSL) you are authorized to fly over the hill? A. You cannot operate your sUAS above 400 MSL and thus cannot operate anywhere in this part of the country B. You can not operate your sUAS without ATC permission because you will be in class E airspace above 1200 MSL C. You may operate up to 5,360 feet MSL in Class G airspace
C
31. What should a remote pilot do if the sUAS they are operating collide with a bird or wildlife? A. File an accident report with the NTSB B. File an accident report to the FAA C. Report the collision to ATC
C
36. Entries into traffic patterns by manned aircraft while descending create specific collision hazards and A. should be used whenever possible B. are illegal C. should be avoided
C
40. (Refer to Figure 26) What does the line of latitude at area 4 measure? A. the degrees of latitude east and west of the Prime Meridian B. The degrees of latitude east and west of the line that passes through Greenwich, England. C. The degrees of latitude north and south from the equator
C
43. (Refer to Figure 24, area 1) How close can the Remote PIC fly their sUAS to the Majors airport (GVT) without having to contact ATC? A. 4 Statute Miles (SM) B. Remote PICs must contact ATC whenever operating within the magenta shading on Sectional Charts. C. 4 Nautical Miles (NM)
C
46. (Refer to Figure 20, area 3) With ATC authorization, you are operating your small unmanned aircraft approximately 4 SM southeast of Elizabeth City Regional Airport (ECG). What hazard is indicated to be in that area? A. High density military operations in the vicinity B. Unmarked balloon on a cable up to 3,008 feet AGL C. Unmarked balloon on a cable up to 3,008 feet MSL
C
5. According to 14 CFR Part 107, how may a Remote Pilot in Command (Remote PIC) operate an unmanned aircraft in Class C airspace? A. The remote PIC must contact the ATC facility after launching the unmanned aircraft B. The remote PIC must monitor the ATC frequency from launch to recovery C. The Remote PIC must have prior authorization from the Air Traffic Control (ATC) facility having jurisdiction over that airspace.
C
51. One of the purposes for issuing a Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) is to A. announce Parachute Jump areas B. identify Airport Advisory areas C. protect public figures
C
57. (Refer to Figure 25, area 4) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is A. at the surface B. 3,200 feet MSL C. 4,000 feet MSL
C
59. The recommended entry position for manned aircraft to enter an airport traffic pattern is A. 45 degrees to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude B. to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg C. to enter 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind left at traffic pattern altitude
C
6. (Refer to Figure 59, area 2) The chart shows a gray line with "VR 1667, VR1617, VR1638 and VR 1668". Could this area present a hazard to the operations of a small unmanned aircraft? A. No, all operations will be above 400 feet B. Yes, the defined route provides traffic separation to manned aircraft C. Yes, this is a Military Training Route from 1500 feet AGL and below
C
63. What is the purpose of the No Entry Sign? A. Identifies area that doesn't not continue beyond intersection. B. Identifies the exit boundary for the runway protected area C. Identifies a paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering
C
64. (Refer to Figure 24, Area 2) Operating an sUAS, can you vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro airport A. No. B. UAS operations are prohibited in this area C. Yes.
C
