Seminar Comprehensive Exam Study Guide, Part 1 (of 2)

When quantifying the amount of DNA in a spectrophotometry specimen, an OD 260 of 2 (undiluted) corresponds to a ___________ concentration of DNA. 2 ug/ml 10 ug/ml 50 ug/ml 100 ug/ml

100 ug/ml

A 300-µg dose of Rh immune globulin contains sufficient anti-D to protect against how much whole blood? A) 25 mL B) 30 mL C) 50 mL D) 100 mL

A 300-µg dose of Rh immune globulin contains sufficient anti-D to protect against how much whole blood? B) 30 mL

A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) sample collected from a child yields the following results: turbid and cloudy, very high total protein levels, and very low glucose levels. What would the probable diagnosis be? a. Bacterial meningitis b. Aseptic meningitis c. Encephalitis d. Brain abscess

A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) sample collected from a child yields the following results: turbid and cloudy, very high total protein levels, and very low glucose levels. What would the probable diagnosis be? a. Bacterial meningitis

A college student is examined at the emergency department; he is disoriented with a fever, intense headache, stiff neck, vomiting, and sensitivity to light. His friends say that he has been sick for about 2 days and that his condition worsened over the last 3 hours. The physician does a complete blood count (CBC) and electrolytes. The electrolytes are normal, but the patient's white blood count (WBC) is 12,000 cells/L. What two microbiology tests should the doctor order next? (List 2)

A college student is examined at the emergency department; he is disoriented with a fever, intense headache, stiff neck, vomiting, and sensitivity to light. His friends say that he has been sick for about 2 days and that his condition worsened over the last 3 hours. The physician does a complete blood count (CBC) and electrolytes. The electrolytes are normal, but the patient's white blood count (WBC) is 12,000 cells/L. What two microbiology tests should the doctor order next? (List 2) CSF Cultures Blood Cultures

A correlation exists between a specific gravity of 1.050 and a:_______________________________

A correlation exists between a specific gravity of 1.050 and a: Radiographic dye

A cytocentrifuge is an excellent method for preparing nonviscous fluids because: a. It deposits cellular elements and microorganisms from the specimen onto the surface of a glass slide as a monolayer. b. It concentrates the protein evenly throughout the slide surface. c. The sediment is mixed with 70% albumin before spreading it on the surface of a slide. d. The cytocentrifuge not only spreads the specimen over the surface of a slide but also stains the specimen.

A cytocentrifuge is an excellent method for preparing nonviscous fluids because: a. It deposits cellular elements and microorganisms from the specimen onto the surface of a glass slide as a monolayer.

A dark green amniotic fluid is associated with: a) Meconium b) Infection c) Fetal death d) Oxidized bilirubin

A dark green amniotic fluid is associated with: a) Meconium

A dimorphic fungus was isolated from the bone marrow of a patient who had travelled to southeast Asia. The mold culture produced a red pigment that diffused into the media. What is the most likely identification of this fungus? A) Histoplasma capsulatum B) Penicillum marneffei C) Sporothrix schenckii D) Blactomyces dermatitidis

A dimorphic fungus was isolated from the bone marrow of a patient who had travelled to southeast Asia. The mold culture produced a red pigment that diffused into the media. What is the most likely identification of this fungus? B) Penicillum marneffei

A direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) test involves: a. Antigen-specific labeled antibody b. Antibody-specific labeled antigen c. Bioluminescent label d. None of the above

A direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) test involves: a. Antigen-specific labeled antibody

A laboratory error that can result in an infant developing severe mental retardation could be attributed to failure to perform a/an: ___________________________

A laboratory error that can result in an infant developing severe mental retardation could be attributed to failure to perform a/an: ___________________________ Clinitest

A microbiologist is reading a gram stain and observes gram-negative, curved rods with a seagull-wing appearance. What organism could this be? Genus

A microbiologist is reading a gram stain and observes gram-negative, curved rods with a seagull-wing appearance. What organism could this be? Genus Campylobacter

A patient is diagnosed with pseudomembranous colitis. What organism is the most likely cause?

A patient is diagnosed with pseudomembranous colitis. What organism is the most likely cause? Clostridium difficile

A person exhibiting oliguria would have a urine volume of:

A person exhibiting oliguria would have a urine volume of: <400 mls

A technician is performing a chemistry test on a control sample. The technician gets the following values for the control: 4.3, 4.3, 4.3, 4.2, 4.4, 4.3, 4.2, and 4.4. The actual value is 4.3. These results are said to be:

A technician is performing a chemistry test on a control sample. The technician gets the following values for the control: 4.3, 4.3, 4.3, 4.2, 4.4, 4.3, 4.2, and 4.4. The actual value is 4.3. These results are said to be: accurate

All of the following are associated with severe urinary stasis except: A. Granular casts B. Waxy casts C. WBC casts D. Broad casts

All of the following are associated with severe urinary stasis except: C. WBC casts

All of the following organisms commonly cause meningitis EXCEPT: Streptococcus pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Haemophilus influenzae Neisseria meningitides

All of the following organisms commonly cause meningitis EXCEPT: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

All of the following reagent strip tests use a diazonium salt except: A. Bilirubin B. Nitrite C. Specific gravity D. Leukocyte esterase

All of the following reagent strip tests use a diazonium salt except: C. Specific gravity

Although environmental cultures are not usually performed because the environment is rarely implicated in disease transmission, they occasionally are useful. Samples will be taken from all of the following EXCEPT: a. Air b. Water c. Hands d. Surfaces

Although environmental cultures are not usually performed because the environment is rarely implicated in disease transmission, they occasionally are useful. Samples will be taken from all of the following EXCEPT: c. Hands

An analyte assay gives a reading that is above the limits of linearity. A dilution of the sample is made using the appropriate diluent. The quantities are 1 ml of sample to 5 mls of diluents. The instrument now gives a reading of 55 IU/ML for the analyte. What value should be reported? 55 IU/ML (the instrument calculates the dilution) 275 IU/ML 330 IU/ML Greater than the linearity of the instrument

An analyte assay gives a reading that is above the limits of linearity. A dilution of the sample is made using the appropriate diluent. The quantities are 1 ml of sample to 5 mls of diluents. The instrument now gives a reading of 55 IU/ML for the analyte. What value should be reported? 330 IU/ML

An anti-E was identified in a patient who recently received a transfusion. What other Rh system antibody should be investigated? A) Anti-G B) Anti-f C) Anti-D D) Anti-c

An anti-E was identified in a patient who recently received a transfusion. What other Rh system antibody should be investigated? D) Anti-c

An antigen that originates from the individual is termed:

An antigen that originates from the individual is termed: autologous

Anti-D in the serum of a third-trimester pregnant woman with a titer of 16 is indicative of: A) the presence of Rh immune globulin administered at 28 weeks. B) active immunization. C) passive immunization. D) None of the above

Anti-D in the serum of a third-trimester pregnant woman with a titer of 16 is indicative of: B) active immunization.

Antibiotics that demonstrate a narrow spectrum of activity: a. Kill a wide variety of bacteria. b. Kill only a few specific types of bacteria. c. Kill bacteria by using only one specific mechanism. d. Kill bacteria by using a narrow spectrum of mechanisms.

Antibiotics that demonstrate a narrow spectrum of activity: b. Kill only a few specific types of bacteria.

Antibiotics work by targeting all of the following EXCEPT: a. DNA replication b. Bacterial plasmid DNA c. Bacterial cell wall d. RNA transcription

Antibiotics work by targeting all of the following EXCEPT: b. Bacterial plasmid DNA

Antibodies for many antigens can be passively acquired in: Note, this answer can be found in the CLSR book. a. Vaccinations b. Flu shots c. Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy d. All of the above

Antibodies for many antigens can be passively acquired in: Note, this answer can be found in the CLSR book. c. Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy

Antibodies to Kidd, Kell, and Duffy blood group antigens share all the following characteristics except: A) can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn. B) usually detected only by the indirect antiglobulin test. C) enhanced with enzyme treatment. D)can cause transfusion reactions.

Antibodies to Kidd, Kell, and Duffy blood group antigens share all the following characteristics except: C) enhanced with enzyme treatment.

Antibodies to Lu b antigen are not commonly detected because: Lu b antigen is of high incidence the antibodies do not cause transfusion reactions. Lu b antigen is not present on screening cells. the antibodies react best at 4 degrees C

Ascitic fluid from a patient with symptoms of severe abdominal pain has an elevated amylase and alkaline phosphatase, a WBC count of 30,000/µL, an absolute neutrophil count of 80%, and albumin of 3.5 mg/dL (serum albumin: 4.0 mg/dL). Based on the information provided, what disorder is suggested by these results? A. Cirrhosis B. Ovarian malignancy C. Peritonitis D. Malnutrition What is the probable cause of the patient's disorder? A. Alcoholism B. Esophageal rupture C. Intestinal perforation D. Bile duct obstruction

Ascitic fluid from a patient with symptoms of severe abdominal pain has an elevated amylase and alkaline phosphatase, a WBC count of 30,000/µL, an absolute neutrophil count of 80%, and albumin of 3.5 mg/dL (serum albumin: 4.0 mg/dL). Based on the information provided, what disorder is suggested by these results? C. Peritonitis What is the probable cause of the patient's disorder? C. Intestinal perforation

Culture results: a. Confirm the correctness of the therapeutic choices already made and implemented b. Help the physician select an antibiotic for treatment c. Must be confirmed before initiating antibiotic treatment for a patient d. Help confirm the patient's high white blood count

Culture results: a. Confirm the correctness of the therapeutic choices already made and implemented

Cultures for Mycoplasma pneumoniae should be incubated for _____ (how long)?

Cultures for Mycoplasma pneumoniae should be incubated for _____ (how long)? 21 days or more

Southern Blot techniques identify what substances? RNA DNA Amino Acids Proteins

DNA

Development of a vaccine has decreased which major cause of bacteremia in children? a. Haemophilus influenza b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Escherichia coli d. Hepatitis A

Development of a vaccine has decreased which major cause of bacteremia in children? a. Haemophilus influenza

Diagnostic microbiologists apply placement and naming of bacterial organisms into all the following categories except: A) Order B) Family C) Genus D) Species

Diagnostic microbiologists apply placement and naming of bacterial organisms into all the following categories except: A) Order

Engineering controls and work practice controls to ensure Standard Precautions are followed include all the following EXCEPT: A) Eyewash stations B) The use of safety needles C) Plastic shield barriers D) Fire blankets

Engineering controls and work practice controls to ensure Standard Precautions are followed include all the following EXCEPT: D) Fire blankets

Enriched media: a. Support the grouping of microbes based on different characteristics demonstrated in the media b. Allow the growth of fastidious microbes through the addition of certain growth enhancers. c. Support the growth of most non-fastidious microbes. d. Support the growth of one type or group of microbes, but not another

Enriched media: b. Allow the growth of fastidious microbes through the addition of certain growth enhancers.

Extravascular destruction of blood cells occurs in the: 1. blood vessels. 2. lymph nodes. 3. spleen. 4. thymus.

Extravascular destruction of blood cells occurs in the: 3. spleen.

Exudate fluids usually result from: A. Cardiac insufficiency B. Inflammation of the serous membrane C. Abnormal electrolyte balance D. Lack of protein in the diet

Exudate fluids usually result from: B. Inflammation of the serous membrane

Factors that determine the pathogenicity and increase the virulence of organisms include all the following except an organism's ability to: a. avoid phagocytosis. b. produce exotoxins and extracellular enzymes. c. produce infection when host conditions change. d. survive intracellularly when phagocytized.

Factors that determine the pathogenicity and increase the virulence of organisms include all the following except an organism's ability to: c. produce infection when host conditions change.

Failure to blot the edge of the reagent strip may result in errors in color interpretation caused by:

Failure to blot the edge of the reagent strip may result in errors in color interpretation caused by: Runover

Five members of a family develop a sudden onset of watery diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, headache, and cramps. They go to the family physician who orders fecal cultures and complete ova and parasites (O&P) analysis. Each sample reveals the presence of organisms seen below. The most likely cause of the infection is: A) Cryptosporidium parvum B) Isospora belli. C) Cyclospora cayetanensis. D) Encephalitozoon intestinalis.

Five members of a family develop a sudden onset of watery diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, headache, and cramps. They go to the family physician who orders fecal cultures and complete ova and parasites (O&P) analysis. Each sample reveals the presence of organisms seen below. The most likely cause of the infection is: A) Cryptosporidium parvum

Given the following ABO phenotyping data: FORWARD REVERSE Anti-A: 2+mf A1 cells: 0 Anti-B: 0 B cells: 3+ What could be a plausible explanation for this discrepancy? A) T-activation of red cells B) Group O blood products given to group A C) Rouleaux formation D) Positive direct antiglobulin test

Given the following ABO phenotyping data: FORWARD REVERSE Anti-A: 2+mf A1 cells: 0 Anti-B: 0 B cells: 3+ What could be a plausible explanation for this discrepancy? B) Group O blood products given to group A

Given the following data, the absolute CD4 count would be: Show your work WBC= 3500 /mm^3 Lymphs= 27% CD4= 17% Show your math for full credit.

Given the following data, the absolute CD4 count would be: Show your work Total WBC x % of lymphs = 3500 x 0.27 = 945 945 x % of CD4 = 945 x 0.17 = 160.7 total CD4/mm³

Given the following information, calculate the creatinine clearance: Show your work Urine volume 1250 ml in 24 hours Urine creatinine of 115 mg/dL Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL. Is the above value clinically significant? ______ Why or why not?_____________________________________________________

Given the following information, calculate the creatinine clearance: Show your work Urine volume 1250 ml in 24 hours Urine creatinine of 115 mg/dL Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL. ANSWER: 1250 mls in 24 hours is 1250/1440 min= 0.87 ml/min. 115 x 0.87/3.0 =33.35 ml/min Clinically significant Very low

Given the following red cell antigen frequencies: K 10% E 30% K 90% P1 80% Which of the following red cell alloantibodies would be responsible for incompatible crossmatches with one 1 of 10 random donor units? A) Anti-K B) Anti-E C) Anti-k D) Anti-P1

Given the following red cell antigen frequencies: K 10% E 30% K 90% P1 80% Which of the following red cell alloantibodies would be responsible for incompatible crossmatches with one 1 of 10 random donor units? A) Anti-K

Glitter cell is a term used to describe a specific type of:

Glitter cell is a term used to describe a specific type of: Neutrophil

Glomerular basement membrane thickening occurs in membranous glomerulonephritis as a result of deposition of: A. IgA immune complexes B. IgG immune complexes C. Protein components D. Amyloid material

Glomerular basement membrane thickening occurs in membranous glomerulonephritis as a result of deposition of: B. IgG immune complexes

Glucose will appear in the urine when the: 1)Blood level of glucose is 200 mg/dl 2)Tm for glucose is reached 3)renal threshold for glucose is exceeded 4)All of the above

Gonococcal infections occur primarily in what 3 sites: 1. 2. 3.

Gonococcal infections occur primarily in what 3 sites: a. Urethra b. Endocervix d. Anal canal

Goodpasture syndrome and Wegener's granulomatosis are associated with the presence of which of the following in the urine sediment? A. Hyaline casts B. Red blood cell casts C. Waxy casts D. White blood cell casts

Goodpasture syndrome and Wegener's granulomatosis are associated with the presence of which of the following in the urine sediment? B. Red blood cell casts

Gram stains of specimens for anaerobic cultures should be examined for all of the following reasons EXCEPT The Gram stain reveals various types and relative number of bacteria present. Certain morphotypes may provide a presumptive identification and will guide media selection The Gram stain often reveals the presence of leukocytes The Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) guidelines recommend Gram stains on all anaerobic specimens.

Gram stains of specimens for anaerobic cultures should be examined for all of the following reasons EXCEPT The Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) guidelines recommend Gram stains on all anaerobic specimens.

Which base pairs with Cytosine? Adenine Thymine Guanine Uracil

Guanine

Guidance for the development of a selective-reporting or cascade-reporting protocol for antibiotics is available from the: (Spell out the acronym) ___________

Guidance for the development of a selective-reporting or cascade-reporting protocol for antibiotics is available from the: (Spell out the acronym) ___________ Clinical Laboratory and Standards Institute (CLSI)

Healthy people are colonized by many different bacteria in many different sites. These bacteria are referred to as _____ flora.

Healthy people are colonized by many different bacteria in many different sites. These bacteria are referred to as _____ flora. indigenous

Healthy skin secretes what substances to help prevent colonization by transient and possibly pathogenic organisms? a. Long-chain fatty acids b. Sebaceous glands c. Carbohydrates d. Antibodies

Healthy skin secretes what substances to help prevent colonization by transient and possibly pathogenic organisms? a. Long-chain fatty acids

What term best describes males' X-linked genes? Heterozygous Homozygous Hemizygous Haplozygous

Hemizygous

Hemolysis was observed at room temperature when testing a patient's serum with reagent red cells used for screening. When this test was repeated using the patient's plasma, no hemolysis was observed. What was the most likely explanation for the different reactions? 1. The plasma sample was collected incorrectly. 2. The serum sample was contaminated. 3. Complement activation was inhibited by calcium in the plasma sample. 4. The serum sample was fresher.

Hemolysis was observed at room temperature when testing a patient's serum with reagent red cells used for screening. When this test was repeated using the patient's plasma, no hemolysis was observed. What was the most likely explanation for the different reactions? 3. Complement activation was inhibited by calcium in the plasma sample.

Hemolytic disease of the newborn endangers the fetus by: a) Delaying production of red blood cells (RBCs) b) Affecting liver function c) Destroying fetal bone marrow d) Destroying fetal RBCs

Hemolytic disease of the newborn endangers the fetus by: d) Destroying fetal RBCs

Hemolytic disease of the newborn is caused by: a) Abnormal maternal hemoglobins b) Abnormal fetal hemoglobins c) Maternal antibodies d) Fetal antibodies

Hemolytic disease of the newborn is caused by: c) Maternal antibodies

Heterophile antibodies are:

Heterophile antibodies are: Antibodies produced in response to one molecule that also react against an antigen from another species

If someone carries two different alleles of the same gene, they are referred to as: Mutant Wild Homozygous Heterozygous

Heterozygous

High-titer, low-avidity antibodies typically: a. react with antigens of high frequency in the population. b. react with antigens of low frequency in the population. c. are clinically significant. d. react best at colder temperatures.

High-titer, low-avidity antibodies typically: a. react with antigens of high frequency in the population.

How are Borrelia organisms transmitted to the host?

How are Borrelia organisms transmitted to the host? Bite by an arthropod, a tick or a louse

How are Neisseria gonorrhoeae infections transmitted?

How are Neisseria gonorrhoeae infections transmitted? Sexual contact

How do bacteria cause keratitis associated with contact lenses? a. Biofilm formation b. Growth in the contact lens c. Attachment to the lens d. Contamination of the fluid coating the lens

How do bacteria cause keratitis associated with contact lenses? a. Biofilm formation

How do higher probe concentrations affect a given hybridization reaction? a. Increase the temperature b. Lower the reaction time c. Lower the ionic strength d. Increase the pH.

How do higher probe concentrations affect a given hybridization reaction? b. Lower the reaction time

How do staphylococci spread so easily when infecting the skin? a. They produce hyaluronidase, which hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid present in the intracellular ground substance that makes up connective tissue. b. They produce lipase, which melts the fat under the skin, making it easier to spread. c. The hemolysins kill the white and red blood cells; then the protease liquefies the skin protein, allowing easy penetration for the bacteria. d. All of the above.

How do staphylococci spread so easily when infecting the skin? a. They produce hyaluronidase, which hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid present in the intracellular ground substance that makes up connective tissue.

How do the Beta-lactamase inhibitors work? a. By structurally rearranging the Beta -lactamase molecule so that it loses specificity for the Beta-lactam antibiotic b. By competing with the antibiotic for porin sites on the outer membrane c. By acting as substrates for the Beta-lactamase and reducing their effect on the antibiotic d. By acting as transport molecules to transport the antibiotic into the bacterial cell

How do the Beta-lactamase inhibitors work? c. By acting as substrates for the Beta-lactamase and reducing their effect on the antibiotic

How does Clostridium difficile produce pseudomembranous colitis and antibiotic-associated diarrhea?

How does Clostridium difficile produce pseudomembranous colitis and antibiotic-associated diarrhea? Toxin A and Toxin B

How is Staphylococcus saprophyticus presumptively identified? a. Latex agglutination test for clumping factor b. Rabbit plasma test for coagulase c. Novobiocin susceptibility d. All of the above

How is Staphylococcus saprophyticus presumptively identified? c. Novobiocin susceptibility

How is cholera treated?

How is cholera treated? Copious amounts of IV fluids

How is diarrhea usually contracted?

How is diarrhea usually contracted? Contaminated food and water

How should quality control testing occur? a. One specified technician should use extreme care when doing quality control testing, using special pipettes, special agar plates, and special incubators. b. The procedure should be followed to a T, and if any mistake is made, the test should be discarded and started again. c. The microbiology supervisor should perform all quality control testing. d. Quality control testing should be included in all the patients tested and treated like a patient specimen.

How should quality control testing occur? d. Quality control testing should be included in all the patients tested and treated like a patient specimen.

How soon should liquid stool be examined for parasites? A) within 10 minutes B) within 30 minutes C) within 24 hours D) within 48 hours

How soon should liquid stool be examined for parasites? B) within 30 minutes

Identification of oval fat bodies can be verified using: A. Bright-field microscopy B. Phase contrast C. Polarized light D. Interference-contrast microscopy

Identification of oval fat bodies can be verified using: C. Polarized light

Identification of urinary crystals is based on shape and:_______________

Identification of urinary crystals is based on shape and:_______________ pH of the urine

Identify the common complications of chemotherapy. A) Bleeding B) Infection C) Anemia D) All of the above

Identify the following A) Entamoeba histolytica/E. dispar B) E. hartmanni C) Giardia lamblia D) E. coli

Identify the following A) Entamoeba histolytica/E. dispar

Identify the following parasite by genus and species. All picture are of the same species.

Identify the following parasite by genus and species. All picture are of the same species. Plasmodium vivax

Identify the following parasite by genus and species. Both pictures are of the same species.

Identify the following parasite by genus and species. Both pictures are of the same species. Plasmodium falciparum

Identify the following parasite. A) Plasmodium ovale B) Babesia microti C) Plasmodium malariae D) Trypanosoma cruzi

Identify the following parasite. B) Babesia microti

Identify the following: A) Schistosoma mansoni B) S. japonicum C) S. haematobium D) S. madurella

Identify the following: A) Schistosoma mansoni

Identify the following: A) Trichuris trichiura B) Enterobius vermicularis C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Hookworm

Identify the following: B) Enterobius vermicularis

If a bacterium utilizes lactose or sucrose and produces H2S, what will the triple sugar iron (TSI) reaction look like?________________/__________________

If a bacterium utilizes lactose or sucrose and produces H2S, what will the triple sugar iron (TSI) reaction look like? Acid/Acid Black butt

If a bacterium utilizes lactose or sucrose, what will the triple sugar iron (TSI) reaction look like? ____________________/______________________

If a bacterium utilizes lactose or sucrose, what will the triple sugar iron (TSI) reaction look like? Acid/Acid

If a donor is found to be positive for hepatitis C virus by nucleic acid testing, the process of "look-back" is initiated to: quarantine units in the blood center that may exist from prior donations from the inventory. notify recipients who may have previously received blood from this donor. locate and quarantine units that have been sent to transfusion facilities from this donor in the past. all of the above.

If a donor is positive for hepatitis C virus by nucleic acid testing, why is the process of "look-back" initiated? A) To quarantine units in the blood center that may exist from prior donations from the inventory B) To notify recipients who may have previously received blood from this donor C) To locate and quarantine units sent to transfusion facilities from this donor in the past D) All of the above

If a downward trend is noted on a Levy-Jennings QC chart, what is the best course of action? The system should be checked for a deteriorating reagent of component Nothing, is normal during the course of a specific lot of controls The system should be checked for a change in lot number The control should be repeated until the trend is corrected.

If a downward trend is noted on a Levy-Jennings QC chart, what is the best course of action? The system should be checked for a deteriorating reagent of component

If a female is symptomatic, what are the symptoms of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in women?

If a female is symptomatic, what are the symptoms of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in women? Vaginal discharge and dysuria

If a large statewide or worldwide epidemic occurs, one of the major difficulties is: a. Collecting and transporting specimens from people who live out of state or around the world b. Determining what organism is causing the outbreak c. Arranging to get all the people with the infections to come back to the main area of the outbreak for an extended period. d. Making sure enough media and technologists are available to process the large amount of cultures associated with the outbreak investigation

If a large statewide or worldwide epidemic occurs, one of the major difficulties is: a. Collecting and transporting specimens from people who live out of state or around the world

If a male is infected with Neisseria gonorrhoeae, what would be the results of a Gram stain of purulent discharge from his urethra?

If a male is infected with Neisseria gonorrhoeae, what would be the results of a Gram stain of purulent discharge from his urethra? Many polymorphonuclear white blood cells, some with gram negative intracellular diplococci and gram negative diplococci

If a patient with a bacteremia is receiving antibiotics but not responding to treatment, how does the physician find out if another organism is present in the blood, causing the problem? a. Redraw the blood cultures. b. Redraw the blood cultures using an antibiotic removal device (ARD). c. Switch the patient to another antibiotic that will resolve the clinical symptoms. d. Perform hemodialysis to remove the organisms from the patient's blood.

If a patient with a bacteremia is receiving antibiotics but not responding to treatment, how does the physician find out if another organism is present in the blood, causing the problem? b. Redraw the blood cultures using an antibiotic removal device (ARD).

If anti-M was reacted with red cells that are M+N+, how would they compare with red cells that are M+N-? A) Stronger B) Weaker C) The same D) Varies with the method

If anti-M was reacted with red cells that are M+N+, how would they compare with red cells that are M+N-? B) Weaker

If not stored in a monitored refrigerator, how long can RBC units remain outside the transfusion service to allow reissue? A) 15 minutes B) 30 minutes C) 45 minutes D) 60 minutes

If not stored in a monitored refrigerator, how long can RBC units remain outside the transfusion service to allow reissue? B) 30 minutes

If the recipient was transfused within the last 3 months, how long from the time of collection can a sample be used for the crossmatch? A) 3 days B) 5 days C) 7 days D) 10 days

If the recipient was transfused within the last 3 months, how long from the time of collection can a sample be used for the crossmatch? A) 3 days

In acute care hospitals, transmission of pathogens as a result of treatment occur as all the following "classifications" of infections EXCEPT: a. Hand-hygiene-acquired infections b. Surgical site infections c. Catheter-related bloodstream infections d. Ventilator-associated pneumonias

In acute care hospitals, transmission of pathogens as a result of treatment occur as all the following "classifications" of infections EXCEPT: a. Hand-hygiene-acquired infections

In an antibody identification panel, only one red cell was negative at the antihuman globulin phase. On ruling out and matching the pattern, an anti-k was identified. What further testing is necessary to confirm the antibody? a. Two more k-negative cells should be tested. b. Two more K-negative cells should be tested. c. Treat the panel cells with enzymes and perform the panel again. d. Perform an adsorption using "k"-positive cells.

In an antibody identification panel, only one red cell was negative at the antihuman globulin phase. On ruling out and matching the pattern, an anti-k was identified. What further testing is necessary to confirm the antibody? a. Two more k-negative cells should be tested.

In an outbreak investigation and in the collection of routine surveillance data, what sorts of activities are critical? a. Microbiologists' awareness of the processes that occur in a routine investigation b. Alerting the public health department about potential outbreaks c. Analyzing data on antimicrobial susceptibility from pathogens in the hospital so the health care providers understand the type of antimicrobials that must be used d. Collecting, processing, reporting, and reviewing pertinent cultures

In an outbreak investigation and in the collection of routine surveillance data, what sorts of activities are critical? d. Collecting, processing, reporting, and reviewing pertinent cultures

In an unpreserved and old urine specimen, there could be difficulty differentiating between bacteria and

In an unpreserved and old urine specimen, there could be difficulty differentiating between bacteria and... Amorphous phosphates

In any susceptibility system, variables that can affect the results include the following: 1. Antibiotic potency 2. Inoculum concentration 3. Bactericidal level 4. pH 5. Anion content a. 1, 2, and 3 are correct b. 1, 3, 4, and 5 are correct c. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 are correct d. 1, 2, and 4 are correct

In any susceptibility system, variables that can affect the results include the following: 1. Antibiotic potency 2. Inoculum concentration 4. pH d. 1, 2, and 4 are correct

In ascending order, the location of epithelial cells in the urinary tract is:

In ascending order, the location of epithelial cells in the urinary tract is: Squamous transitional renal tubular

In certain instances, it is desirable for specimens to be inoculated directly onto culture media. Specimens for this pathogen can be placed onto a commercial transport system called a JEMBEC system. What pathogen is this?____________________________________________________

In certain instances, it is desirable for specimens to be inoculated directly onto culture media. Specimens for this pathogen can be placed onto a commercial transport system called a JEMBEC system. What pathogen is this? Neisseria gonorrhoeae

In clinical virology, ______________________ is still the gold standard against which all other methods are compared.

In clinical virology, ______________________ is still the gold standard against which all other methods are compared. Isolating the virus

In situ hybridization, first described in 1969, is where: a. Both RNA and DNA molecules can be detected simultaneously b. Protein molecules can be detected in tissue specimens c. A piece of tissue is soaked in a DNA solution, eliciting antinuclear antibodies in the tissue. d. DNA or RNA can be detected directly in tissue with labeled probes.

In situ hybridization, first described in 1969, is where: d. DNA or RNA can be detected directly in tissue with labeled probes.

In the United States, 15 to 20 outbreaks annually owing to waterborne pathogens cause this illness and affect several thousand people. a. Diarrhea b. Hepatitis C c. Naegleria d. Legionnaire's disease

In the United States, 15 to 20 outbreaks annually owing to waterborne pathogens cause this illness and affect several thousand people. a. Diarrhea

In the carrier state, where are pathogenic salmonellae carried?________________

In the carrier state, where are pathogenic salmonellae carried? Gallbladder

In what single setting does Stenotrophomonas maltophilia produce all its disease?

In what single setting does Stenotrophomonas maltophilia produce all its disease? nosocomial

In what staining procedure does carbolfuchsin penetrate the bacterial cell wall through heat or detergent treatment? a. Gram stain b. Acridine orange stain c. Endospore stain d. Acid-fast stain

In what staining procedure does carbolfuchsin penetrate the bacterial cell wall through heat or detergent treatment? d. Acid-fast stain

Indirect agglutination is also referred to as: a. Passive agglutination b. Incomplete agglutination c. Active agglutination d. Flocculation

Indirect agglutination is also referred to as: a. Passive agglutination

Infants can contract all of the following chlamydial infections when passing through the birth canal EXCEPT: Conjunctivitis Nasopharyngeal infections Pneumonia Endocarditis

Infants can contract all of the following chlamydial infections when passing through the birth canal EXCEPT: Endocarditis

Infants do not require crossmatching if they are less than: A) 6 months old. B) 5 months old. C) 4 months old. D) 12 months old.

Infants do not require crossmatching if they are less than: C) 4 months old.

Infection of the bladder is termed:___________

Infection of the bladder is termed:___________ Cystitis

Infections by this organism are predominantly hospital acquired, and some predisposing factors include catheterization, medical implantation, and immunosuppressive therapy. a. Staphylococcus aureus b. S. intermedius c. S. epidermidis d. S. saprophyticus

Infections by this organism are predominantly hospital acquired, and some predisposing factors include catheterization, medical implantation, and immunosuppressive therapy. c. S. epidermidis

Intrinsic mechanisms of resistance are: a. Those that inhibit protein synthesis and RNA transcription b. Those that a bacterium acquires through plasmids c. Also called inducible enzymes d. Innate characteristics of the bacterium and transmitted to progeny vertically

Intrinsic mechanisms of resistance are: d. Innate characteristics of the bacterium and transmitted to progeny vertically

John goes to his physician complaining of a high fever (38.2° C [102° F]), muscle aches, cough, and a headache. These symptoms came on suddenly, and his physician thinks John may have the flu. What kind (class) of antibody is his body producing against the virus?

John goes to his physician complaining of a high fever (38.2° C [102° F]), muscle aches, cough, and a headache. These symptoms came on suddenly, and his physician thinks John may have the flu. What kind (class) of antibody is his body producing against the virus? IgM

Latex agglutination kits are available for all the following bacterial antigens EXCEPT(This is a trick question. Can you figure it out?) a. Cryptococcus neoformans b. Neisseria meningitides c. Haemophilus influenza d. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Latex agglutination kits are available for all the following bacterial antigens EXCEPT(This is a trick question. Can you figure it out?) A) Cryptococcus neoformans

Leaving a reagent strip in the specimen for too long will:

Leaving a reagent strip in the specimen for too long will: Cause reagents to leach from the pads.

List 3 molecular methods used in the laboratory to identify Staphylococcus species.

List 3 molecular methods used in the laboratory to identify Staphylococcus species. Real time polymerase chain reaction Qualitative nucleic acid hybridization Mass spectrometry matrix-assisted laser desorption ionization time of flight (MALDI-TOF) plasmid typing fatty acid analysis

List 4 reasons for performing an amniocentesis later in the pregnancy (20-42 weeks).

List 4 reasons for performing an amniocentesis later in the pregnancy (20-42 weeks). Fetal Lung Maturity Fetal distress HDN caused by Rh blood type incompatibility Infection

List 5 Key Characteristics of the Family Enterobacteriaceae.

List 5 Key Characteristics of the Family Enterobacteriaceae. Gram negative Bacilli Oxidase negative Glucose fermenter Most reduce nitrates to nitrites Most are motile at body temperature except Klebsiella, Shigella, and Yersinia.

List the 5 stages of biofilm development in order of occurrence: 1. _____________________________ 2. _____________________________ 3. _____________________________ 4. _____________________________ 5. _____________________________

List AND DESCRIBE the 5 stages of biofilm development in order of occurrence. I Attachment phase II Irreversible binding phase III Layering phase, thickness >10 um also referred to as maturation phase I IV Thickening phase, Biofilms reach ultimate thickness, generallly great than 100um, also referred to as maturation 2 V cell dispersion

List four primary causes of serous effusions.

List four primary causes of serous effusions. Increased hydrostatic pressure decrease oncotic pressure increased capillary permeability lymphatic obstruction

List the 12 most common IgG antibodies (including those of the Rh system) found in blood bank testing. Hint, 9 groups, but 12 antibodies.

List the 12 most common IgG antibodies (including those of the Rh system) found in blood bank testing. Hint, 9 groups, but 12 antibodies. ANSWER: D C c E e K k Fya Fyb Jka Jkb Some M

List the 4 groups (not individual antibodies) that show dosage during testing.

List the 4 groups (not individual antibodies) that show dosage during testing. ANSWER: Kidd Duffy Rh MNS

List the 4 primary stool pathogens in the Enterobacteriacea family.

List the 4 primary stool pathogens in the Enterobacteriacea family. E. coli O157 Salmonella sp. Shigella sp. Yersinia enterocolitica

List the 7 most common IgM antibodies found in blood bank testing.

List the 7 most common IgM antibodies found in blood bank testing. ANSWER: I M P1 Lea Leb H N

List the four renal functions of the nephron that allow the kidneys to clear waste products selectively from the blood and simultaneously to maintain the body's essential water and electrolyte balances.

List the four renal functions of the nephron that allow the kidneys to clear waste products selectively from the blood and simultaneously to maintain the body's essential water and electrolyte balances. Renal blood flow Glomerular filtration Tubular reabsorption Tubular secretion

List the four tests to determine Glomerular Filtration _______________________ _______________________ _______________________ _______________________

List the four tests to determine Glomerular Filtration Beta2-microglobulin Creatinine Clearance Estimated Glomerular filtration rates Cystatin C

List the test for Tubular Reabsorption.___________________________________

List the test for Tubular Reabsorption. Osmolarity or Osmolality

List the three physical methods of sterilization and disinfection. 1. 2. 3.

List the three physical methods of sterilization and disinfection. 1. Heat 2. Filtration 3. Radiation

List the three reasons knowledge of microbial structure and physiology is extremely important to clinical microbiologists. a. _________________________________ b. _________________________________ c. _________________________________

List the three reasons knowledge of microbial structure and physiology is extremely important to clinical microbiologists. Answer: a. Culturing of organisms from patient specimens b. Classification and identification of organisms after they have been isolated c. Prediction and interpretation of antimicrobial susceptibility patterns

List the three stains used for the detection of fecal neutrophils:

List the three stains used for the detection of fecal neutrophils: Methylene Blue Wrights stain Gram stain

List three conditions which can cause a false negative FOBT.

List three conditions which can cause a false negative FOBT. >250 mg/d of Vitamin C Iron supplements containing Vitamin C Failure to wait specified time after sample is applied to add the developer reagent

Lithotripsy is a procedure that is performed to: A. Prevent the formation of renal calculi B. Determine the composition of renal calculi C. Aid in the removal of renal calculi D. Identify the presence of renal calculi

Lithotripsy is a procedure that is performed to: C. Aid in the removal of renal calculi

MacConkey agar is used to: (two things)____________________________________

MacConkey agar is used to: (two things) Select for gram negative rods differentiate between lactose fermenters and nonlactose fermentors.

X linked recessive traits show up more commonly in: Children Males Females Equally in both sexes.

Males

Many hybridization assay conditions are based on the expectation that a probe: a. Will quickly react with the complementary target sequence. b. Is not sterically hindered in the reaction c. Has exact complementarity to the target nucleic acid d. Will not require any oligonucleotides to attach to the target

Many hybridization assay conditions are based on the expectation that a probe: c. Has exact complementarity to the target nucleic acid

Many materials in hospitals that must be sterilized cannot withstand steam sterilization. Gas sterilization is used instead, using this gas. ___________________________________________

Many materials in hospitals that must be sterilized cannot withstand steam sterilization. Gas sterilization is used instead, using this gas. Ethylene oxide

Many times, antimicrobial susceptibility testing includes drugs that are inappropriate for reporting. What does the technician do? a. A drug should not be indiscriminately reported because results may be misleading. b. If the drug is tested, the results are reported because the technician does not know what antibiotic was prescribed to the patient. c. The technician reports this immediately to the microbiology supervisor because this is a wasteful practice. d. The technician only reports on the drugs to which the bacteria are sensitive.

Many times, antimicrobial susceptibility testing includes drugs that are inappropriate for reporting. What does the technician do? a. A drug should not be indiscriminately reported because results may be misleading.

Mary went out to eat shellfish last week and is beginning to feel lethargic, her urine is tea-colored, and she generally feels bad all over. She recognizes these symptoms and thinks she may have hepatitis A because she got hepatitis last year when she vacationed at the beach. If a physician were to perform a test for hepatitis A antibodies, what class of antibodies would the physician find?

Mary went out to eat shellfish last week and is beginning to feel lethargic, her urine is tea-colored, and she generally feels bad all over. She recognizes these symptoms and thinks she may have hepatitis A because she got hepatitis last year when she vacationed at the beach. If a physician were to perform a test for hepatitis A antibodies, what class of antibodies would the physician find? IgG

Massive transfusion replaces 1 blood volume. In a 70-kg adult, how many units of whole blood would be needed? A) 6 B) 8 C) 10 D) 14

Massive transfusion replaces 1 blood volume. In a 70-kg adult, how many units of whole blood would be needed? C) 10

Match each characteristic with the appropriate blood group system. (A selection may be used more than once.) ____ System associated with resistance to malaria ____ Antibodies in this system often fall below detectable levels and are associated with delayed transfusion reactions. _____Usually a cold IgM antibody that rarely causes HDN, shows dosage, and will Not react with enzyme treated cells (Destroyed by enzymes) ____Antigens that are manufactured by tissue cells and secreted into body fluids. They are then absorbed onto the red blood cells. ____ Antigen that coverts as an infant matures, is absent or weak on cord cells, Is IgM and clinically insignificant but may mask significant antibodies. _____System that has grown into a complex polymorphism of 35 red cell antigens Ii MN Kidd Lewis Kell Duffy

Match each characteristic with the appropriate blood group system. (A selection may be used more than once.) Duffy____ System associated with resistance to malaria Kidd ____ Antibodies in this system often fall below detectable levels and are associated with delayed transfusion reactions. MN____Usually a cold IgM antibody that rarely causes HDN, shows dosage, and will Not react with enzyme treated cells (Destroyed by enzymes) Lewis ____Antigens that are manufactured by tissue cells and secreted into body fluids. They are then absorbed onto the red blood cells. Ii____ Antigen that coverts as an infant matures, is absent or weak on cord cells, Is IgM and clinically insignificant but may mask significant antibodies. Kell_____System that has grown into a complex polymorphism of 35 red cell antigens

Match each characteristic with the appropriate blood group system. A selection may be used more than once. System associated with resistance to malaria System associated with McLeod phenotype Antibodies in this system often fall below detectable levels and are associated with delayed transfusion reactions System associated with glycophorin A and B System associated with chronic granulomatous disease 1. Kell 2. MNSs 3. Kidd 4. Duffy

Match each characteristic with the appropriate blood group system. A selection may be used more than once. System associated with resistance to malaria = 4. Duffy System associated with McLeod phenotype = 1. Kell Antibodies in this system often fall below detectable levels and are associated with delayed transfusion reactions = 3. Kidd System associated with glycophorin A and B = 2. MNSs System associated with chronic granulomatous disease = 1. Kell

Match the blood component with the correct storage and expiration limit. Each choice may be used more than once or not at all. 1. ___ Cryoprecipitated AHF (frozen) 2. ___ Plasma, cryoprecipitate reduced, thawed 3. ___ Fresh frozen plasma (thawed) FDA approved 4. ___ Liquid plasma from whole blood 5. ___ Cryoprecipitated AHF (thawed, pooled) 6. ___ Cryoprecipitated AHF (thawed) 1. 20° to 24° C, 6 hours 2. < -18° C, 1 year from collection 3. 1° to 6° C, 24 hours 4. 1° to 6° C, up to 5 days 5. 1° to 6° C, up to 5 days 6. 20° to 24° C, 4 hours 7. < -65° C, 7 years 8. 20° to 24° C, 48 hours

Match the blood component with the correct storage and expiration limit. Each choice may be used more than once or not at all. 1. ___ Cryoprecipitated AHF (frozen) = < -18° C, 1 year from collection 2. ___ Plasma, cryoprecipitate reduced, thawed = . 1° to 6° C, up to 5 days 3. ___ Fresh frozen plasma (thawed) FDA approved = 1° to 6° C, 24 hours 4. ___ Liquid plasma from whole blood = 1° to 6° C, up to 5 days 5. ___ Cryoprecipitated AHF (thawed, pooled) = 20° to 24° C, 4 hours 6. ___ Cryoprecipitated AHF (thawed) = 20° to 24° C, 6 hours

Match the correct expiration limit with each red blood cell product. Each choice may be used more than once or not at all. 1. ___ Leukoreduced (AS-3) 2. ___ AS-3 or AS-2 3. ___ Frozen 4. ___ CPDA-1 5. ___ CPD 6. ___ Irradiated 7. ___ Apheresis (ACD) 8. ___ Deglycerolized 1. 28 days 2. 10 years 3. 35 days 4. 42 days 5. 21 days 6. 24 hours 7. 21 days 8. 42 days 9. 48 hours 10. 72 hours

Match the correct expiration limit with each red blood cell product. Each choice may be used more than once or not at all. 1. ___ Leukoreduced (AS-3) = 42 days 2. ___ AS-3 or AS-2 = 42 days 3. ___ Frozen = 10 years 4. ___ CPDA-1 = 35 days 5. ___ CPD = 21 days 6. ___ Irradiated = 28 days 7. ___ Apheresis (ACD) = 21 days 8. ___ Deglycerolized = 24 hours

Match the following abnormal crystals with their description/identifying characteristics: 1. _____Cystine 2. _____Tyrosine 3. _____Cholesterol 4. _____Leucine 5. _____Ampicillin 6. _____Radiographic dye 7. _____Bilirubin A. Bundles following refrigeration B. Highly alkaline pH C. Bright yellow clumps D. Hexagonal plates E. Flat plates, high specific gravity F. Concentric circles, radial striation G. Notched corners H. Fine needles seen in liver disease

Match the following abnormal crystals with their description/identifying characteristics: 1. _____Cystine = D. Hexagonal plates 2. _____Tyrosine = H. Fine needles seen in liver disease 3. _____Cholesterol = G. Notched corners 4. _____Leucine = F. Concentric circles, radial striation 5. _____Ampicillin = A. Bundles following refrigeration 6. _____Radiographic dye = E. Flat plates, high specific gravity 7. _____Bilirubin = C. Bright yellow clumps

Match the following antigens to destroyed or enhanced by enzymes: E= Enhanced D= Destroyed ___Kidd ___MNS ___Duffy ___Rh ___Lewis ___I ___P

Match the following antigens to destroyed or enhanced by enzymes: E= Enhanced D= Destroyed E___Kidd D___MNS D___Duffy E___Rh E___Lewis E___I E___P

Match the following crystals seen in acidic urine with their description/identifying characteristics: 1. _____Amorphous urates 2. _____ Uric acid 3. _____Calcium oxalate monohydrate 4. ____Calcium oxalate dihydrate A. Envelopes B. thin needles C. yellow brown rosettes or wedges D. pink sediment E. ovoid

Match the following crystals seen in acidic urine with their description/identifying characteristics: 1. _____Amorphous urates = D. pink sediment 2. _____ Uric acid = C. yellow brown rosettes or wedges 3. _____Calcium oxalate monohydrate = E. ovoid 4. ____Calcium oxalate dihydrate = A. Envelopes

Match the following descriptions with the appropriate terms. 1. ______The CAP survey is an example 2. ______ Systematic evaluations to determine whether procedures are being followed 3. ______ Testing to determine the accuracy and precision of reagents and equipment 4. ______ Process of standardizing an instrument against a known value 5. ______Removal of products from the market that might compromise the safety of the recipient 6. ______ Degree to which a measurement represents the true value 7. ______Establishing that a specific process produces an expected result 8. ______Evaluation of an employee's ability to perform a specific skill 9. ______Investigation and identification of the factors that contributed to an error 10. ______Maximizes the duration of equipment and increases the reliability of the equipment 11. ______System to plan and implement changes to prevent problems A. Root cause analysis B. Recall C. Accuracy D. Validation E. Calibration F. Quality control G. Proficiency test H. Competency assessment I. Change control J. Audit K. Preventive maintenance

Match the following descriptions with the appropriate terms. The CAP survey is an example of a proficiency test Audits are systematic evaluations to determine whether procedures are being followed QC (Quality Control) is testing to determine the accuracy and precision of reagents and equipment Calibration is the process of standardizing an instrument against a known value A recall is the removal of products from the market that might compromise the safety of the recipient Accuracy is the degree to which a measurement represents the true value Validation is establishing that a specific process produces an expected result Competency assessment is the evaluation of an employee's ability to perform a specific skill A root cause analysis is an investigation and identification of the factors that contributed to an error Preventative maintenance maximizes the duration of equipment and increases the reliability of the equipment Change control is a system to plan and implement changes to prevent problems

Match the following medical history questions to determine if they are intended to protect the donor or the recipient. D= protect donor R= protect recipient 1. ___Do you have a history of heart disease? 2. ___Have you ever used needles to take drugs, steroids, or anything not prescribed by your doctor? 3. ___ Females: are you pregnant? 4. ___Have you traveled outside the US or Canada in the last 3 years?

Match the following medical history questions to determine if they are intended to protect the donor or the recipient. D= protect donor R= protect recipient D (protect donor) = Do you have a history of heart disease? R (protect recipient ) = Have you ever used needles to take drugs, steroids, or anything not prescribed by your doctor? R (protect recipient) = Females: are you pregnant? R (protect recipient) =Have you traveled outside the US or Canada in the last 3 years?

Match the following organisms with the stain that would allow the microbiologist to visualize the types of organism best. Fungus ___ Bacteria ___ Acid Fast Bacillus ___ Low numbers of organisms in a blood culture___ Malaria ___ A Gram Stain B Ziehl-Neelsen C Wright Giemsa D Methylene Blue E Calcofluor white

Match the following organisms with the stain that would allow the microbiologist to visualize the types of organism best. Fungus = E Calcofluor white Bacteria = A Gram Stain Acid Fast Bacillus = B Ziehl-Neelsen Low numbers of organisms in a blood culture = D Methylene Blue Malaria = C. Wright Giemsa

Match the following phenotypes with the most probable genotype in the Weiner nomenclature. ___ ce ___ DcE ___ DCce ___ DCe 1. R1r 2. rr 3. R1R1 4. R2R2

Match the following phenotypes with the most probable genotype in the Weiner nomenclature. 2. rr = ce 4. R2R2 = DcE 1. R1r =DCce 3. R1R1 = DCe

Match the following term with the definition ___Variable region of an immunoglobulin ___Imparts flexibility to the immunoglobulin molecule ___Part of the antigen that the immunoglobulin binds to ___The type of immunoglobulins determined by the heavy chain ___One of the two types of light chains Kappa Isotype Idiotype Epitope Hinge region

Match the following term with the definition Idiotype = Variable region of an immunoglobulin Hinge region = Imparts flexibility to the immunoglobulin molecule Epitope = Part of the antigen that the immunoglobulin binds to Isotype = The type of immunoglobulins determined by the heavy chain Kappa = One of the two types of light chains

Match the following terms to their definitions. ___Clarity ___Hypersthenuric ___Refractometry ___Hyposthenuric ___Specific gravity ___Isosthenuric ___Urinometry ___Harmonic oscillation A. Pertaining to urine specific gravity the same as the 1.010 of the glomerular filtrate B. The density of a solution compared with that of a similar volume of distilled water, influenced by both the number and size of the particles present. C. Transparency of urine, ranging from clear to turbid D. Pertaining to urine specific gravity greater than the 1.010 of the glomerular filtrate E. A method of measuring specific gravity by measuring the change in the frequency of a sound wave after it enters a solution F. Measurement of light bending capability of solutions G. Pertaining to urine specific gravity lower than the 1.010 of the glomerular filtrate. H. An imprecise method for measuring urine specific gravity using a weighted densitometry float.

Match the following terms to their definitions. Clarity = C. Transparency of urine, ranging from clear to turbid Hypersthenuric = D. Pertaining to urine specific gravity greater than the 1.010 of the glomerular filtrate Refractometry = F. Measurement of light bending capability of solutions Hyposthenuric = G. Pertaining to urine specific gravity lower than the 1.010 of the glomerular filtrate. Specific gravity = B. The density of a solution compared with that of a similar volume of distilled water, influenced by both the number and size of the particles present. Isosthenuric = A. Pertaining to urine specific gravity the same as the 1.010 of the glomerular filtrate Urinometry = H. An imprecise method for measuring urine specific gravity using a weighted densitometry float. Harmonic oscillation = E. A method of measuring specific gravity by measuring the change in the frequency of a sound wave after it enters a solution

Matching: Select the area of the male reproductive system that performs the following functions: 1. Prostate 2. Bulbourethral glands 3. Seminal vessels 4. Epididymis A. Maturation of sperm B. Provides energy for sperm motility C. Neutralized vaginal acidity D. Propels sperm through the urethra

Matching: Select the area of the male reproductive system that performs the following functions: 1. Prostate = D. Propels sperm through the urethra 2. Bulbourethral glands = C. Neutralized vaginal acidity 3. Seminal vessels = B. Provides energy for sperm motility 4. Epididymis = A. Maturation of sperm

Measurement of CSF lactate is useful for monitoring cases of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Bacterial meningitis C. Reye's syndrome D. Tertiary syphilis

Measurement of CSF lactate is useful for monitoring cases of: B. Bacterial meningitis

Measurement of amniotic fluid creatinine levels can be used to: a) Determine approximate fetal weight b) Diagnose hydramnios c) Differentiate between amniotic fluid and maternal urine Differentiate between maternal and fetal urine

Measurement of amniotic fluid creatinine levels can be used to: c) Differentiate between amniotic fluid and maternal urine

Microscopic examination of a clear urine that produces a pink precipitate after refrigeration will show:________________________________

Microscopic examination of a clear urine that produces a pink precipitate after refrigeration will show: Amorphous urates

Microscopic urinalysis findings of a patient with acute interstitial nephritis include all of the following except: A. Bacteria B. White blood cells C. Red blood cells D. White blood cell casts

Microscopic urinalysis findings of a patient with acute interstitial nephritis include all of the following except: A. Bacteria

Most laboratories detect the presence of phosphatidylglycerol using thin-layer chromatography. T/F

Most laboratories detect the presence of phosphatidylglycerol using thin-layer chromatography. False

Most renal calculi are composed of: A. Ammonium phosphate B. Magnesium C. Uric acid D. Calcium

Most renal calculi are composed of: D. Calcium

Most viral transport media contains:

Most viral transport media contains: Buffered isotonic solution with a protein, such as albumin, gelatin, or serum to protect less stable viruses.

Oval fat bodies are:

Oval fat bodies are: Renal tubular epithelia cells that contain lipids.

Parents, who both phenotype as group A, cannot have a group O child. A) False B) True

Parents, who both phenotype as group A, cannot have a group O child. A) False

Pericardial fluid is collected in a procedure called:

Pericardial fluid is collected in a procedure called: Pericardiocentesis

Physicians performing urinalysis can determine whether a specimen is urine from the presence of formed elements. T/F

Physicians performing urinalysis can determine whether a specimen is urine from the presence of formed elements. False

Sodium nitroprusside and an alkaline buffer are used to test for: _____________________

Sodium nitroprusside and an alkaline buffer are used to test for: _____________________ Ketones

Solid-phase red cell adherence used for antibody detection has an advantage over tube testing because: A) there is no washing involved. B) incubation time is not necessary. C) the endpoint is more clearly defined. D) indicator cells (IgG-coated cells) are not necessary

Solid-phase red cell adherence used for antibody detection has an advantage over tube testing because: C) the endpoint is more clearly defined.

Swarming is: a. Many bacterial colonies crowded together at one place on the agar plate b. When colonies on a blood agar plate have a "halo" around the bacterial colony c. When a bacterial colony on a blood agar plate grows over the top of the erythrocytes it hemolyzed d. A hazy blanket of growth on the surface of the agar that extends way beyond the streak lines

Swarming is: d. A hazy blanket of growth on the surface of the agar that extends way beyond the streak lines

Using the base sequence below, which is the SNP? ACGTTCGCTATTC initial ACGATCGCTATTC after SNP T/C T/A A/C C/G

T/A

The A450 of an amniotic fluid is plotted in zone 3 of a Liley graph. The physician should: a) Repeat the testing in 3 weeks. b) Immediately induce labor c) Request testing for fetal lung maturity d) Tell the mother that the pregnancy is normal

The A450 of an amniotic fluid is plotted in zone 3 of a Liley graph. The physician should: c) Request testing for fetal lung maturity

The ____________ is a cold precipitation test that reacts equally with all forms of protein. (Spell this out. Do not use the acronym)

The ____________ is a cold precipitation test that reacts equally with all forms of protein. (Spell this out. Do not use the acronym) Sulfosalicylic Acid Precipitation Test

The formation of clots does not occur in CSF that does not contain blood. False/True

The formation of clots does not occur in CSF that does not contain blood. False

The inheritance of the Rh antigens are: A) X-linked recessive. B) X-linked dominant. C) autosomal recessive. D) Codominant

The inheritance of the Rh antigens are: D) Codominant

The primary cause of the changes that take place in unpreserved urine is:

The primary cause of the changes that take place in unpreserved urine is: Bacteria Growth

The process of testing and documenting changes made to a LIS system is known as: Customization Quality control Validation Trial and Error

The process of testing and documenting changes made to a LIS system is known as: Validation

The reagent strip test for nitrite is based on the_______________________

The reagent strip test for nitrite is based on the: Reduction of nitrate to nitrite by bacteria

The use of only male donors as a source of plasma for transfusion is a method to reduce the risk of: A) allergic reactions B) circulatory overload. C) TRALI. D) febrile reactions.

The use of only male donors as a source of plasma for transfusion is a method to reduce the risk of: C) TRALI.

The use of security systems in laboratory information systems such as firewalls and data encryption to a remote location are required for: CLIA JCAHO HIPPA LOINC

The use of security systems in laboratory information systems such as firewalls and data encryption to a remote location are required for: HIPPA

The use of the electronic (computer) crossmatch is restricted to recipients who: A) are group O. B) do not have a clinically significant antibody. C) have had successful transfusions in the past. D) have transfusion history that has been documented in the computer.

The use of the electronic (computer) crossmatch is restricted to recipients who: B) do not have a clinically significant antibody.

This is a rare but potentially fatal multisystem disease characterized by high fever, hypotension, and shock, and it is associated with highly absorbent tampons. a. Toxic epidermal necrolysis b. Scalded skin syndrome c. Bullous impetigo d. Toxic shock syndrome

This is a rare but potentially fatal multisystem disease characterized by high fever, hypotension, and shock, and it is associated with highly absorbent tampons. d. Toxic shock syndrome

This technique is a popular method of DNA fingerprinting. a. RFLP b. Random amplified polymorphic DNA c. Multilocus enzyme electrophoresis d. Multilocus sequence typing

This technique is a popular method of DNA fingerprinting. b. Random amplified polymorphic DNA

To detect the presence of casts, the sediment is examined using:

To detect the presence of casts, the sediment is examined using: Reduced light under low power

Using a 1:20 dilution of a specimen with a volume of 4 mL, 30 sperm are counted in two large squares (WBC) of the Neubauer hemocytometer. What is the number of sperm per ejaculate? Show your work.

Using a 1:20 dilution of a specimen with a volume of 4 mL, 30 sperm are counted in two large squares (WBC) of the Neubauer hemocytometer. What is the number of sperm per ejaculate? Show your work. 30*20/2*0.1= 3000 sperm/ul x 1000= 3,000,000 sperm /ml x volume of 4 mls= 12 million per ejaculate.

Using a 1:20 dilution of semen, a student counts 70 sperm in the five RBC squares on one side of the Neubauer hemocytometer and 82 sperm on the other side. The student should______________________ Why? _________________________________

Using a 1:20 dilution of semen, a student counts 70 sperm in the five RBC squares on one side of the Neubauer hemocytometer and 82 sperm on the other side. The student should______________________ Why? _________________________________ Make a new dilution and repeat the count The values are not within 10% of each other

Using a bright-field microscope, the final magnification of a high-power field is:

Using a bright-field microscope, the final magnification of a high-power field is: 400X

Using an undiluted specimen, 100 cells are counted in the nine large squares on one side of the hemocytometer. What is the cell count? Show your math for full credit.

Using an undiluted specimen, 100 cells are counted in the nine large squares on one side of the hemocytometer. What is the cell count? Show your math for full credit. count x depth factor x dilution factor/# of large squares 100 x 10 x 1 / 9 111 ANSWER: 100*1/9*0.1= 111 cells/uL

Using polarized microscopy, which of the following is/are birefringent? A. Cholesterol B. Triglycerides C. Fatty acids D. Neutral fats

Using polarized microscopy, which of the following is/are birefringent? A. Cholesterol

Vaginal secretion collection kits are specific for which of the following? A. Temperature in which they must be used B. Pricing for the medical practice C. For the organism sought D. For left- or right-handed medical personnel

Vaginal secretion collection kits are specific for which of the following? C. For the organism sought

Values for creatinine clearance tests on children are corrected for _______________________

Values for creatinine clearance tests on children are corrected for Body size

What are the benefits of using membranes to perform enzyme immunoassay (EIA) reactions? a. They improve specificity and signal strength. b. They enhance speed and signal strength. c. They enhance speed and sensitivity. d. They improve specificity and sensitivity.

What are the benefits of using membranes to perform enzyme immunoassay (EIA) reactions? c. They enhance speed and sensitivity.

What are the metabolically inert microorganisms present in a biofilm called?

What are the metabolically inert microorganisms present in a biofilm called? Persister cells

What are the names of the two diseases caused by Legionella species?

What are the names of the two diseases caused by Legionella species? Legionnaire's disease and Pontiac fever

What are the staphylococcal products that cause diarrhea and vomiting in humans? a. Enterotoxins b. Endotoxins c. Cytolytic toxins d. Cellular components, such as protein A

What are the staphylococcal products that cause diarrhea and vomiting in humans? a. Enterotoxins

What are the sugars present in triple sugar iron (TSI)?__________________, __________________, and __________________________

What are the sugars present in triple sugar iron (TSI)? sucrose glucose lactose

What are the three components of normal urine, (excluding water)?

What are the three components of normal urine, (excluding water)? Urea Chloride Creatine

What are the three functions of the microbial flora as a host protective mechanism?

What are the three functions of the microbial flora as a host protective mechanism? Prime the host immune system Produce substances toxic to more pathogenic species, Decrease the numbers of pathogenic organisms by competing for nutrients.

What are the time, temperature, and pressure requirements needed to obtain sterilization in an autoclave?

What are the time, temperature, and pressure requirements needed to obtain sterilization in an autoclave? 15 minutes 121C 15 psi

What are the two components of the major crossmatch? A) Recipient red cells and donor serum B) Donor red cells and recipient serum C) Reverse ABO cells and recipient serum Screening cells and donor serum

What are the two components of the major crossmatch? B) Donor red cells and recipient serum

What are the two methods of measuring osmolality?

What are the two methods of measuring osmolality? Freezing point Vapor pressure

What are three reasons for performing a semen analysis?

What are three reasons for performing a semen analysis ? Infertility Post vasectomy Forensic medicine

What color BAL fluid would a heavy smoker have? A. White B. Gray C. Brown D. Black

What color BAL fluid would a heavy smoker have? B. Gray

What component is indicated for patients who receive directed donations from immediate family members to prevent graft-versus-host transfusion reactions? A) Irradiated red blood cells B) Packed red blood cells C) Washed red blood cells D) Cytomegalovirus-negative red blood cells

What component is indicated for patients who receive directed donations from immediate family members to prevent graft-versus-host transfusion reactions? A) Irradiated red blood cells

What component is indicated for patients who receive directed donations from immediate family members to prevent graft-versus-host transfusion reactions? Irradiated red blood cells Packed red blood cells Washed red blood cells Cytomegalovirus-negative red blood cells

What component is indicated for patients who receive directed donations from immediate family members to prevent graft-versus-host transfusion reactions? Irradiated red blood cells

What condition causes the nail margin to become painful, red, warm, and swollen with pus?

What condition causes the nail margin to become painful, red, warm, and swollen with pus? Paronychia

What condition is an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria and a decrease in lactobacillus in the vagina? a) Endometritis b) Syphilis c) Gonorrhea d) Bacterial vaginosis

What condition is an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria and a decrease in lactobacillus in the vagina? d) Bacterial vaginosis

What condition is characterized by lymphocytic pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) but a lack of identifiable organism after routine culture and Gram stain?

What condition is characterized by lymphocytic pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) but a lack of identifiable organism after routine culture and Gram stain? Aseptic meningitis

What condition is considered a true ocular emergency?

What condition is considered a true ocular emergency? Microbial keratitis

What contains enzymes and other factors that protect the conjunctiva from microbial invasion?

What contains enzymes and other factors that protect the conjunctiva from microbial invasion? tears

What disease does Clostridium botulinum cause?

What disease does Clostridium botulinum cause? Botulism

What is the major virulence factor associated with Corynebacterium diphtheriae? a. Trypsin b. Diphtheria toxin c. Diphtheria bacteriophage d. Hyaluronidase

What is the major virulence factor associated with Corynebacterium diphtheriae? b. Diphtheria toxin

What is the maximum length of time a urine specimen can remain unpreserved a room temperature before testing?

What is the maximum length of time a urine specimen can remain unpreserved a room temperature before testing? 2 hours

What is the meaning of the term autosomal? A) A trait that is not carried on the sex chromosomes B) A trait that is carried on the sex chromosome C) A trait that is expressed only in the parents D) A gene that does not express a characteristic

What is the meaning of the term autosomal? A) A trait that is not carried on the sex chromosomes

What is the primary method used to diagnosis syphilis infections?

What is the primary method used to diagnosis syphilis infections? Serological

What is the principle of direct antigen testing? a. A clinical specimen is mixed with an antigen, then a labeled antibody is added. If the antigen is present, a complex will form. b. It is a process by which microbial antigens are identified in patient specimens by combining specifically with antibody molecules to form stable complexes. c. A fluorescent antigen is added to a specimen, then an antibody to form sandwich complexes. d. Labeled antigen is added to a specimen, and the specimen is read for fluorescence.

What is the principle of direct antigen testing? b. It is a process by which microbial antigens are identified in patient specimens by combining specifically with antibody molecules to form stable complexes.

What is the principle of the Etest? a. Turbidimetry b. Establishing an antimicrobial density gradient in agar c. Carbon dioxide concentration d. Redox indicator system

What is the principle of the Etest? b. Establishing an antimicrobial density gradient in agar

What organism causes endemic typhus? Genus and species.

What organism causes endemic typhus? Genus and species. Rickettsia typhi

What organisms are considered obligate intracellular parasites? Genus

What organisms are considered obligate intracellular parasites? Genus Chlamydia sp.

What process is described by opsonization? 1. Lysis of cells 2. Binding to cells or antigens 3. Ingestion of cells 4. Phagocytosis

What process is described by opsonization? 2. Binding to cells or antigens

What virus causes the measles?

What virus causes the measles? Rubeola virus or Morbillivirus

What virus is the major cause of the common cold?

What virus is the major cause of the common cold? Rhinovirus

When does a patient develop tertiary syphilis? ________________________________

When does a patient develop tertiary syphilis? Decades after the infection

When transporting specimens for Mycoplasma culture to the laboratory, extreme care must be taken so that the specimen does not: a. Become contaminated b. Leak from the specimen container c. Become overgrown with bacterial normal florae d. Dry out

When transporting specimens for Mycoplasma culture to the laboratory, extreme care must be taken so that the specimen does not: d. Dry out

When type O blood is not available for transfusion for a type O recipient, what is the next alternative? A) Group A red blood cells B) Group AB red blood cells C) Washed group B red blood cells D) None

When type O blood is not available for transfusion for a type O recipient, what is the next alternative? D) None

When using the isolation streaking technique, the greatest concentration of organisms (if present) will be in which quadrant?_________________________________

When using the isolation streaking technique, the greatest concentration of organisms (if present) will be in which quadrant? First

When using the isolation streaking technique, the most isolated forms of the organisms should be in which quadrant?________________________________________

When using the isolation streaking technique, the most isolated forms of the organisms should be in which quadrant? Fourth

Where is the unusual rash seen in secondary syphilis? ____________________________

Where is the unusual rash seen in secondary syphilis? Palms and soles of feet

Where should labels on urine specimen containers be placed? 1) Container 2) Lid 3) Bottom 4) Placement does not matter

Where should labels on urine specimen containers be placed? 1) Container

Which ABO phenotype selection contains the most H antigen and the least H antigen, respectively, on the red cell's surface? A) O, A1B B) A2, A1B C) B, A D) A1B, O

Which ABO phenotype selection contains the most H antigen and the least H antigen, respectively, on the red cell's surface? A) O, A1B

Which blood product is recommended for transfusions to individuals with a history of febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions? A) Leukocyte-reduced red blood cells B) Packed red blood cells C) Frozen red blood cells D) Whole blood

Which blood product is recommended for transfusions to individuals with a history of febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions? A) Leukocyte-reduced red blood cells

Which cancer is associated with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)?

Which cancer is associated with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)? Burkitt's lymphoma

Which cancer, which is a malignant disease of the lymphoid tissues seen most commonly in African children is associated with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)?

Which cancer, which is a malignant disease of the lymphoid tissues seen most commonly in African children is associated with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)? Burkitt's lymphoma

Which condition is often associated with the presence of anti-I? A) Infectious mononucleosis B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection C) Pregnancy D) Colon cancer

Which condition is often associated with the presence of anti-I? B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection

Which crystal is associated with ethylene glycol ingestion?______________

Which crystal is associated with ethylene glycol ingestion? Calcium oxalate monohydrate

Which diagnostic test uses a 10% solution of potassium hydroxide to detect the volatilization of amines to produce a distinctive odor? A. Whiff test B. KOH test C. DNA test D. Western Blot test

Which diagnostic test uses a 10% solution of potassium hydroxide to detect the volatilization of amines to produce a distinctive odor? A. Whiff test

Which immunoglobulin class is produced first in the primary immune response?

Which immunoglobulin class is produced first in the primary immune response? IgM

Which inherited renal disorder manifests itself in the development of gout in teenage years? A. Fanconi syndrome B. Diabetes mellitus C. Uromodulin-associated kidney disease D. Chronic glomerulonephritis

Which inherited renal disorder manifests itself in the development of gout in teenage years? C. Uromodulin-associated kidney disease

Which of the following antigens is not commonly used on screening cells? a. D b. k c. Kpa d. C

Which of the following antigens is not commonly used on screening cells? c. Kpa

Which of the following bacterial characteristics best describes the "normal flora" found in a vaginal specimen? A. Gram-positive cocci B. Gram-variable curved rods C. Gram-positive large rods D. Gram-negative rods

Which of the following bacterial characteristics best describes the "normal flora" found in a vaginal specimen? C. Gram-positive large rods

Which of the following best describes the principle of the Kleihauer-Betke test? A) Fetal hemoglobin is resistant to acid elution and remains in the cell to stain pink, whereas adult cells appear as ghost cells. B) Adult hemoglobin is resistant to acid elution and remains in the cell to stain pink, whereas fetal cells appear as ghost cells. C) D-positive cells from the fetus form rosettes around the IgG-coated mother's cells. D) Indicator cells form rosettes around the fetal D-positive cells.

Which of the following best describes the principle of the Kleihauer-Betke test? A) Fetal hemoglobin is resistant to acid elution and remains in the cell to stain pink, whereas adult cells appear as ghost cells.

Which of the following blood group systems has been implicated in transfusion reactions on the FIRST exposure to incompatible red blood cells? Rh Kell Kidd ABO

Which of the following blood group systems has been implicated in transfusion reactions on the FIRST exposure to incompatible red blood cells? ABO

Which of the following blood group systems has been implicated in transfusion reactions on the first exposure to incompatible red blood cells? A) Rh B) Kell C) Kidd D) ABO

Which of the following blood group systems has been implicated in transfusion reactions on the first exposure to incompatible red blood cells? D) ABO

Which of the following blood products is tested for bacterial contamination following storage? A) Cryoprecipitated AHF B) Red blood cells, frozen C) Platelets D) Fresh frozen plasma

Which of the following blood products is tested for bacterial contamination following storage? C) Platelets

Which of the following blood products requires a crossmatch before issuing? A) Group AB fresh frozen plasma that is transfused to a group O B) Human leukocyte antigen-matched platelets C) Cryoprecipitated AHF D) Granulocyte concentrates that have more than 2 mL of red blood cells

Which of the following blood products requires a crossmatch before issuing? D) Granulocyte concentrates that have more than 2 mL of red blood cells

Which of the following can produce a negative nitrite test in the presence of significant bacteriuria? A. The presence of many non-nitrate reducing bacteria B. Performing the test on a first morning specimen C. Increased dietary nitrate D. Decreased ascorbic acid

Which of the following can produce a negative nitrite test in the presence of significant bacteriuria? A. The presence of many non-nitrate reducing bacteria

Which of the following cells can both be found in both a vaginal wet prep and in urine sediment? A) Yeast cell and clue cell B) Transitional and renal epithelial cell C) Clue cell and squamous cell D) Renal and squamous cells

Which of the following cells can both be found in both a vaginal wet prep and in urine sediment? A) Yeast cell and clue cell

Which of the following conditions is not likely if a vaginal pH value is greater than 4.5? A. Vulvovaginal candidiasis B. Trichomoniasis C. Desquamative inflammatory vaginitis D. Bacterial vaginosis

Which of the following conditions is not likely if a vaginal pH value is greater than 4.5? A. Vulvovaginal candidiasis

Which of the following contributes to the high blood usage in a liver transplant surgery? A) The liver is a very large organ. B) It is difficult to find close human leukocyte antigen matches for liver transplants. C) Platelets are stored in the liver. D) The liver produces the vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors.

Which of the following contributes to the high blood usage in a liver transplant surgery? D) The liver produces the vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors.

Which of the following crystals occurs in two very distinct forms? A. Ammonium biurate B. Calcium oxalate C. Leucine D. Cholesterol

Which of the following crystals occurs in two very distinct forms? B. Calcium oxalate

Which of the following descriptions of synovial fluid does not correlate? A. Normal: clear, pale yellow B. Crystals: milky C. Traumatic tap: blood streaks D. Sepsis: uniform blood

Which of the following descriptions of synovial fluid does not correlate? D. Sepsis: uniform blood

Which of the following descriptions will directly facilitate identification of bacteria? a. Environmental growth temperature b. Physical characteristics of colony morphology c. Environmental growth atmosphere d. Colony color

Which of the following descriptions will directly facilitate identification of bacteria? b. Physical characteristics of colony morphology

Which of the following differentiates a waxy cast from a fiber most effectively? A. Waxy casts do not polarize light, and fibers do. B. Waxy casts are more refractile than fibers. C. Waxy casts have rounded ends, and fibers do not. D. Waxy casts are thicker on the edge, and fibers are thicker in the center.

Which of the following differentiates a waxy cast from a fiber most effectively? A. Waxy casts do not polarize light, and fibers do.

Which of the following diseases relies on obtaining a thorough donor history to reduce potential transmission in blood donors? A) Syphilis B) Human T-cell lymphotropic virus-I C) Cytomegalovirus D) Malaria

Which of the following diseases relies on obtaining a thorough donor history to reduce potential transmission in blood donors? D) Malaria

Which of the following elements would most likely be found in an acidic concentrated urine that contains protein? A. Ghost RBCs B. Casts C. Bacteria D. Triple phosphate crystals

Which of the following elements would most likely be found in an acidic concentrated urine that contains protein? B. Casts

Which of the following is true regarding the rosette test? A) The test is a staining procedure differentiating fetal and adult cells B) The test is valid only if the mother is D-negative and the infant is D-positive. C) Indicator cells bind to the D-positive maternal cells forming a rosette. D) The test is a quantitative test to determine how many vials of Rh immune globulin to administer.

Which of the following is true regarding the rosette test? B) The test is valid only if the mother is D-negative and the infant is D-positive.

Which of the following is used in the treatment of hemophilia A? A) Factor VIII concentrate B) Factor XIII concentrate C) Platelets D) Fresh frozen plasma

Which of the following is used in the treatment of hemophilia A? A) Factor VIII concentrate

Which of the following items is required before implementing new automation technology into the transfusion service setting? A) Validation B) Training C) Written procedures D) All of the above

Which of the following phenotypes is heterozygous? A) Fy(a-b+) B) Jk(a+b-) C) Fy(a+b+) D) Le(a+b-)

Which of the following phenotypes is heterozygous? C) Fy(a+b+)

Which of the following phenotypes will react with anti-f? A) rr B) R1R1 C) R2R2 D) R1R2

Which of the following phenotypes will react with anti-f? A) rr

Which of the following results should have testing repeated? A. Positive blood and protein B. pH 7.0 with uric acid crystals C. Positive bilirubin and urobilinogen D. pH 8.0, WBCs, and triple phosphate crystals

Which of the following results should have testing repeated? B. pH 7.0 with uric acid crystals

Which of the following situations contributes to red blood cell loss in chronic renal disease? A) Below normal erythropoietin levels B) Shearing of red cells from kidney dialysis C) Elevated uremia D) All of the above

Who was considered the father of protozoology and bacteriology? A) Anton van Leeuwenhoek B) Louis Pasteur C) Carl Landsteiner D) Michael Douglas

Who was considered the father of protozoology and bacteriology? A) Anton van Leeuwenhoek

Whole blood collected from a donor should remain at what temperature before the separation and preparation of platelet concentrates? A) 20° to 24° C B) 1° to 6° C C) 1° to 10° C D) Varies with the facility

Whole blood collected from a donor should remain at what temperature before the separation and preparation of platelet concentrates? A) 20° to 24° C

Why is a clean-catch midstream urine used for a urine culture as opposed to a clean-catch urine? a. The first portion of the urine flow washes contaminants from the urethra and the next portion of urine is more representative of the bladder. b. The name was changed, but the procedure remains the same and the entire amount of urine from the bladder is cultured. c. No urine is free from contamination, so just wipe the external genitalia and void into the cup. d. Catheterized specimens are also called clean-catch midstream urine specimen.

Why is a clean-catch midstream urine used for a urine culture as opposed to a clean-catch urine? a. The first portion of the urine flow washes contaminants from the urethra and the next portion of urine is more representative of the bladder.

Why is a recipient's antibody screening performed as a component of compatibility testing? A) Detects red cell alloantibodies B) Detects irregular antigens on the recipient's red cells C) Detects human leukocyte antigen antibodies D) Detects incompatibilities with the donor's red cells

Why is a recipient's antibody screening performed as a component of compatibility testing? A) Detects red cell alloantibodies

Why is incubation omitted in the direct antihuman globulin test? A) The direct antiglobulin test can be used in an emergency to replace the indirect test. B) Incubation will cause hemolysis. C) The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo. D) IgM antibodies are detected in the direct antiglobulin test

Why is incubation omitted in the direct antihuman globulin test? C) The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo.

Why is it necessary to mix the unit frequently during the donation process? A) Avoid blood clots by mixing the anticoagulant with the blood B) Suspend the platelets throughout the unit C) Determine whether the volume is acceptable D) Allow the donation process to go more quickly

Why is it necessary to mix the unit frequently during the donation process? A) Avoid blood clots by mixing the anticoagulant with the blood

Why is pharyngitis produced by group A streptococcus treated with antibiotics?

Why is pharyngitis produced by group A streptococcus treated with antibiotics? To prevent rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis.

Why should antimicrobial susceptibility testing of normal flora isolates or isolates likely to represent contamination or colonization not be performed? a. This may encourage a physician to treat a normal condition. b. This will expose normal florae to various antibiotics and cause resistance to develop. c. The amount of antibiotic needed to kill all of the normal florae in a site can cause toxic effects to the patient. d. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing should be performed on all bacteria isolated from the patient.

Why should antimicrobial susceptibility testing of normal flora isolates or isolates likely to represent contamination or colonization not be performed? a. This may encourage a physician to treat a normal condition.

Why should stools not be black and tarry when performing an Apt test?

Why should stools not be black and tarry when performing an Apt test? The hemoglobin is already denatured invalidating the test.

Your blood bank mistakenly released a D-positive red blood cell unit that subsequently transfused to a patient who typed as D-negative. The patient had no history of a previous transfusion or pregnancy. Antibody detection testing was negative in pretransfusion testing. Predict the crossmatch result in this case. A) Compatible at immediate-spin B) Incompatible at immediate-spin only C) Not necessary to perform D) Incompatible at antihuman globulin only

Your blood bank mistakenly released a D-positive red blood cell unit that subsequently transfused to a patient who typed as D-negative. The patient had no history of a previous transfusion or pregnancy. Antibody detection testing was negative in pretransfusion testing. Predict the crossmatch result in this case. A) Compatible at immediate-spin

_________________are the most common cause of infectious gastroenteritis in the United States.

_________________are the most common cause of infectious gastroenteritis in the United States. Noroviruses or (NoVs)

_________is the primary disorder associated with damage to the renal tubes and damage may be produced by decreased blood flow that causes a lack of oxygen otherwise known as ____________

_________is the primary disorder associated with damage to the renal tubes and damage may be produced by decreased blood flow that causes a lack of oxygen otherwise known as ____________ Acute tubular necrosis Ischemia

(See above) Based on the information provided, what type of meningitis would most probably be suspected in this patient?________

(See above) Based on the information provided, what type of meningitis would most probably be suspected in this patient?________ Fungal or Cryptococcal

The following results are obtained on a catheterized specimen from a patient with symptoms of a urinary tract infection: Color: Yellow Clarity : Cloudy Specific gravity: 1.015 pH: 7.0 Protein; 1+ Glucose: Negative Ketones: Negative Bilirubin: Negative Blood: Trace Urobilinogen: 1.0 EU Nitrite: Postive Leukocyte esterase: 2+ 80-100 WBCs/hpf 5-10 RBCs/hpf 10-15 RTE cells/hpf Many bacteria 1. Based on information provided, is this report consistent with a urinary tract infection?_____ 2. Based on the information provided, which of these results would concern a urinalysis a physician? _____________________________________

1. Based on information provided, is this report consistent with a urinary tract infection?_____ Yes 2. Based on the information provided, which of these results would concern a urinalysis a physician? _____________________________________ Renal Tubular epithelial cells

The following results are obtained on a urinalysis from a student athlete: Color: Dark yellow Clarity: Cloudy Specific gravity: 1.032 pH 6.0 Protein: 2+ Glucose: negative Ketones: Negative Bilirubin: Negative Blood: Trace Urobilinogen: 1 EU Nitrite: Negative Leukocyte esterase: Negative 15-20 crenated RBCs/hpf Rare squamous epithelial cell 2-3 hyaline casts/lpf 1-2 granular casts/lpf 1. Based on the information given, what is causing the crenated RBCs? _______________________ 2. Based on the information provided, what is the most probable cause of the abnormal results?_____________________________________________________ 3. Based on the information provided, what type of specimen should the student be asked to collect for retesting?___________________________

1. Based on the information given, what is causing the crenated RBCs? _______________________ High specific gravity 2. Based on the information provided, what is the most probable cause of the abnormal results?_____________________________________________________ Strenuous exercise 3. Based on the information provided, what type of specimen should the student be asked to collect for retesting?___________________________ First morning

Urinalysis results on a patient being monitored following an adverse reaction occurring during surgery are: Color: Red/brown Clarity: Cloudy Specific gravity: 1.012 pH: 7.0 Protein: 1+ Glucose: Negative Ketones: Negative Bilirubin: Negative Blood: Large Urobilinogen: 8.0 EU Nitrite: Negative Leukocyte esterase: Negative 6-10 RTE cels/hpf 3-4 RBC casts/lpf 1-2 RTE cell casts/lpf 1-5 RBCs 1. Based on the information provided, what substance is causing the positive reagent trip reaction for blood? A. Hemoglobin B. Myoglobin C. RBCs D. Peroxide contamination 2. Based on the information provided, what is the significance of the elevated urobilinogen reading? A. Constipation B. Liver damage C. Intravascular hemolysis D. Urine color

1. Based on the information provided, what substance is causing the positive reagent trip reaction for blood? A. Hemoglobin 2. Based on the information provided, what is the significance of the elevated urobilinogen reading? C. Intravascular hemolysis

Match the following. Nonchromogens Photochromogens Scotochromogens 1. Species that produce carotene pigment upon exposure to light. 2. Species that produce pigment in the light or the dark 3. Species whose colonies are buff color and exposure to light does not induce pigment formation.

1. Species that produce carotene pigment upon exposure to light. = Photochromogens 2. Species that produce pigment in the light or the dark = Scotochromogens 3. Species whose colonies are buff color and exposure to light does not induce pigment formation. = Nonchromogens

10 mL of urine is centrifuged, and 9.5 mL of urine is decanted. The sediment concentration factor is:

10 mL of urine is centrifuged, and 9.5 mL of urine is decanted. The sediment concentration factor is: 20

The two alleles for a sex linked recessive disease are Xx. The mutant allele is the x. What is the percentage of male children that would be affected by the disease from the following parents? Mother= Xx Father = xY 25% 50% 75% 100%

50%

A 0.001 mL quantitative loop is used to inoculate plate media for a urine culture, each colony of growth represents how many organisms per milliliter in the original sample?

A 0.001 mL quantitative loop is used to inoculate plate media for a urine culture, each colony of growth represents how many organisms per milliliter in the original sample? 1000 organisms

A 0.3% fetomaternal bleed was determined by a Kleihauer-Betke stain of postpartum blood. What is the estimated volume of the fetomaternal bleed expressed as whole blood? A) 10 mL B) 15 mL C) 20 mL D) 25 mL

A 0.3% fetomaternal bleed was determined by a Kleihauer-Betke stain of postpartum blood. What is the estimated volume of the fetomaternal bleed expressed as whole blood? B) 15 mL

A 1+ reagent strip reaction and a 4+ Clinitest reaction could indicate the presence of: A. Glucose and other reducing substances B. Glucose only C. Non-glucose-reducing substances only D. Contamination by a strong oxidizing agent

A 1+ reagent strip reaction and a 4+ Clinitest reaction could indicate the presence of: A. Glucose and other reducing substances

A 12-year-old girl goes to the doctor complaining of a sore throat, fever, headache, and general malaise. The doctor does a quick strep test that is positive for group A Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus. No antibiotic testing is needed because Streptococcus is: a. Universally susceptible to penicillin b. Universally susceptible to erythromycin c. Not treated in throat cultures d. Not considered a pathogen in the throat

A 12-year-old girl goes to the doctor complaining of a sore throat, fever, headache, and general malaise. The doctor does a quick strep test that is positive for group A Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus. No antibiotic testing is needed because Streptococcus is: a. Universally susceptible to penicillin

A 15-year-old boy spent most of the summer at the northern Minnesota family cabin on a lake in a densely wooded area. After returning to school in the fall, he was frequently tired and listless with periods of fever and chills. A blood sample taken at the physician's office revealed the following organism. The most likely identification is: A) Plasmodium ovale. B) Babesia microti. C) Plasmodium malariae. D) Trypanosoma cruzi.

A 15-year-old boy spent most of the summer at the northern Minnesota family cabin on a lake in a densely wooded area. After returning to school in the fall, he was frequently tired and listless with periods of fever and chills. A blood sample taken at the physician's office revealed the following organism. The most likely identification is: B) Babesia microti.

A 21-year-old college student wishes to participate in the "double red" program at the local blood center by donating red blood cells collected by apheresis. What is the minimum height and weight requirement that she must meet? A) Height: 5'1", 130 lbs B) Height: 5'3", 125 lbs C) Height: 5'5", 150 lbs D) No height requirement, 110 lbs

A 21-year-old college student wishes to participate in the "double red" program at the local blood center by donating red blood cells collected by apheresis. What is the minimum height and weight requirement that she must meet? C) Height: 5'5", 150 lbs

A 29-year old female was admitted to the emergency room with severe bleeding. the blood type was tested and determined to be AB, D negative. Six units of RBCs are ordered STAT. Of the following types available in the blood bank, which would be the most preferable for crossmatch? AB, D positive A, D negative A, D positive O, D negative

A 29-year old female was admitted to the emergency room with severe bleeding. the blood type was tested and determined to be AB, D negative. Six units of RBCs are ordered STAT. Of the following types available in the blood bank, which would be the most preferable for crossmatch? A, D negative

A 29-year-old female was admitted to the emergency room with severe bleeding. The blood type was group AB, D-negative. Six units of RBCs are ordered STAT. Of the following types available in the blood bank, which would be the most preferable for crossmatch? A) AB, D positive B) A, D negative C) A, D positive D) O, D negative

A 29-year-old female was admitted to the emergency room with severe bleeding. The blood type was group AB, D-negative. Six units of RBCs are ordered STAT. Of the following types available in the blood bank, which would be the most preferable for crossmatch? B) A, D negative

A 40-year-old female tennis player with tendonitis is taking large doses of an over-the-counter nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agent. After taking the medication for several weeks, she develops a skin rash and observes a decrease in urine volume. Results of her urinalysis are: · Color: Dark yellow · Clarity: Cloudy · Specific gravity: 1.011 · pH: 6.0 · Protein: 3+ · Glucose: Negative · Ketones: Negative · Bilirubn: Negative · Blood: Large · Urobilinogen: EU · Nitrtire: Negative · Leukocyte esterase: 2+ · Microscopic · >100 WBCs/hpf · 60-70 RBCs/hpf · 1-2 RTE/lpf · 1-2 hyaline casts/lpf · 5-6 WBC casts/lfp What additional test might be requested on this specimen? A. Creatinine clearance B. Prussian blue stain C. Urine eosinophil stain D. Fungal culture What is the probable diagnosis? A. Acute interstitial nephritis B. Fanconi syndrome C. Acute tubular necrosis D. Acute glomerulonephritis

A 40-year-old female tennis player with tendonitis is taking large doses of an over-the-counter nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agent. After taking the medication for several weeks, she develops a skin rash and observes a decrease in urine volume. Results of her urinalysis are: · Color: Dark yellow · Clarity: Cloudy · Specific gravity: 1.011 · pH: 6.0 · Protein: 3+ · Glucose: Negative · Ketones: Negative · Bilirubn: Negative · Blood: Large · Urobilinogen: EU · Nitrtire: Negative · Leukocyte esterase: 2+ · Microscopic · >100 WBCs/hpf · 60-70 RBCs/hpf · 1-2 RTE/lpf · 1-2 hyaline casts/lpf · 5-6 WBC casts/lfp What additional test might be requested on this specimen? C. Urine eosinophil stain What is the probable diagnosis? A. Acute interstitial nephritis

A 44-year-old woman has a hemoglobin level of 6.1 g/dL. White blood cell and platelet counts are within normal levels. The patient is group O D-negative with a negative antibody screen. Crossmatches are compatible. However, 15 minutes after the start of the first transfusion, she experiences erythema and hives. What type of transfusion reaction is occurring? A) Urticarial B) Febrile nonhemolytic C) Delayed hemolytic D) Acute hemolytic

A 44-year-old woman has a hemoglobin level of 6.1 g/dL. White blood cell and platelet counts are within normal levels. The patient is group O D-negative with a negative antibody screen. Crossmatches are compatible. However, 15 minutes after the start of the first transfusion, she experiences erythema and hives. What type of transfusion reaction is occurring? A) Urticarial

A 58 year old woman revealed that she had experimented with intravenous drugs as a teenager. What would be the acceptable deferral period, if any, for this potential donor? She is an acceptable donor because testing will pick up evidence of hepatitis. She will need to be deferred for 12 months. She is an acceptable donor if she has had the hepatitis B vaccine. She is deferred.

A 58 year old woman revealed that she had experimented with intravenous drugs as a teenager. What would be the acceptable deferral period, if any, for this potential donor? She is deferred.

A 58-year-old woman revealed that she had experimented with intravenous drugs as a teenager. Is she an acceptable donor? A) She is an acceptable donor because testing will pick up evidence of hepatitis. B) She will need to be deferred for 12 months. C) She is an acceptable donor, if she has had the hepatitis B vaccine. D) She is deferred.

A 58-year-old woman revealed that she had experimented with intravenous drugs as a teenager. Is she an acceptable donor? D) She is deferred.

A Biosafety Level 1 (BSL-1) level of containment is used for organisms that: _____________________________________________________________________________

A Biosafety Level 1 (BSL-1) level of containment is used for organisms that: Are well classified and not known to cause disease in health people.

A Biosafety Level 2 (BSL-2) level of containment is used for organisms that: ______________________________________________________________________________

A Biosafety Level 2 (BSL-2) level of containment is used for organisms that: Create moderate potential hazard for employees and the environment.

A CSF protein report of 32 g/dL: A. Is normal B. Indicates possible multiple sclerosis C. Is an erroneous report D. Should be followed by electrophoresis

A CSF protein report of 32 g/dL: C. Is an erroneous report

A CSF specimen, in which there is uneven distribution of blood among the three tubes and clots are detected, is an indication of: A. Meningitis B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Multiple sclerosis D. Traumatic tap

A CSF specimen, in which there is uneven distribution of blood among the three tubes and clots are detected, is an indication of: D. Traumatic tap

A Scorpion primer: a. Extends the DNA polymerase's range b. Is directed at a specific DNA target sequence c. Uses a single oligonucleotide to prime a specific sequence and to detect accumulated polymerase chain reaction (PCR) product d. Uses several oligonucleotides to prime sequences and acts as the beacon probe to detect hybrids

A Scorpion primer: c. Uses a single oligonucleotide to prime a specific sequence and to detect accumulated polymerase chain reaction (PCR) product

A Seattle woman with HIV complains of headaches and also displays some memory loss. Because of her history, the physician collects cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and sends it to the laboratory for analysis. The following image is seen using India ink stain. What is the most likely identification of this organism? A) Candida albicans B) Cryptococcus neoformans C) Pneumocystis carinii D) Malassezia furfur

A Seattle woman with HIV complains of headaches and also displays some memory loss. Because of her history, the physician collects cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and sends it to the laboratory for analysis. The following image is seen using India ink stain. What is the most likely identification of this organism? B) Cryptococcus neoformans

A black, tarry looking stool is indicative of: A. Upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding B. Lower GI bleeding C. Excess fat D. Excess carbohydrates

A black, tarry looking stool is indicative of: A. Upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding

A blood sample from a 90-year-old man was submitted to the blood bank for a type and screen before surgery. The forward type demonstrates as a group A, whereas the reverse type appears to be group AB. What is the most likely cause of the discrepancy? A) Contaminated reagent antisera B) Rouleaux formation C) That the patient has autoantibodies D) That patient has low-titer isoagglutinins

A blood sample from a 90-year-old man was submitted to the blood bank for a type and screen before surgery. The forward type demonstrates as a group A, whereas the reverse type appears to be group AB. What is the most likely cause of the discrepancy? D) That patient has low-titer isoagglutinins

A blood-streaked pericardial exudate with an increased amount of neutrophils is indicative of: A. Bacterial endocarditis B. Cardiac puncture C. Tuberculosis D. Misuse of anticoagulant medication

A blood-streaked pericardial exudate with an increased amount of neutrophils is indicative of: A. Bacterial endocarditis

A blood-streaked pleural fluid has a fluid-to-serum cholesterol ratio of 0.45, a WBC count of 20,000/µL, increased neutrophils, glucose: 40 mg/dL (serum 100 mg/dL), and a pH of 6.8. Based on the information given, what is the most probable cause of the effusion? A. Pneumonia B. Hemothorax C. Malignancy D. Congestive heart failure

A blood-streaked pleural fluid has a fluid-to-serum cholesterol ratio of 0.45, a WBC count of 20,000/µL, increased neutrophils, glucose: 40 mg/dL (serum 100 mg/dL), and a pH of 6.8. Based on the information given, what is the most probable cause of the effusion? A. Pneumonia

A bloody stool produced by a newborn should have what test performed? _________________

A bloody stool produced by a newborn should have what test performed? _________________ Apt

A broad spectrum of reactive and nonreactive lymphocytes in the CSF is associated with: A. Bacterial meningitis B. Allergic reactions C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Viral meningitis

A broad spectrum of reactive and nonreactive lymphocytes in the CSF is associated with: D. Viral meningitis

A child visits his doctor because he has had a fever and a nonproductive cough. The child is also short of breath. The doctor orders a routine sputum culture and an acid-fast bacillus (AFB) culture and smear. The smears shows red organisms arranged in ropes. What is the most probable cause of this child's fever and cough?

A child visits his doctor because he has had a fever and a nonproductive cough. The child is also short of breath. The doctor orders a routine sputum culture and an acid-fast bacillus (AFB) culture and smear. The smears shows red organisms arranged in ropes. What is the most probable cause of this child's fever and cough? Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A clinical laboratory scientist is working in a microbiology laboratory where she receives a viral culture. Should she make a smear on a glass slide so that she can look at the virus under the light microscope? a. No, viruses cannot be seen under an ordinary light microscope. b. Yes, viruses can be seen under an ordinary light microscope. c. Yes, viruses can be seen under a light microscope with Gram stain. d. No, viruses cannot be seen under a light microscope with Gram stain.

A clinical laboratory scientist is working in a microbiology laboratory where she receives a viral culture. Should she make a smear on a glass slide so that she can look at the virus under the light microscope? a. No, viruses cannot be seen under an ordinary light microscope.

A clinical laboratory scientist is working on the bench, reading plates, and notices that a culture has both a unicellular form and a filamentous form. What type of organism exhibits these forms? a. Virus b. Fungi c. Bacteria d. Parasite

A clinical laboratory scientist is working on the bench, reading plates, and notices that a culture has both a unicellular form and a filamentous form. What type of organism exhibits these forms? b. Fungi

A donor unit with a positive DAT would cause reactions at what phase of the crossmatch? A) Immediate-spin B) Antiglobulin C) None; it would be compatible D) All phases

A donor unit with a positive DAT would cause reactions at what phase of the crossmatch? B) Antiglobulin

A facility does not validate a refrigerator before use. What is a potential outcome? A. The facility is in violation of current good manufacturing practices and could be cited by the Food and Drug Administration. B. The facility is in compliance if the equipment functions properly. C. The facility is in compliance if the blood products stored in it are not transfused. D. The facility is in violation of AABB and may no longer be members.

A facility does not validate a refrigerator before use. What is a potential outcome? A. The facility is in violation of current good manufacturing practices and could be cited by the Food and Drug Administration.

A false-negative LE reaction may be caused by: A. The presence of eosinophils and basophils B. Increased bacteria C. Lysed leukocytes D. Failure to wait 2 minutes to read the reaction

A false-negative LE reaction may be caused by: D. Failure to wait 2 minutes to read the reaction

A false-negative serologic test is defined as a:

A false-negative serologic test is defined as a: negative result for a patient who really is infected

A false-negative test may be caused by all the following immune system-mediated reasons EXCEPT: a. Allergic reaction b. No immune response c. Immunodeficiency disease d. Immunosuppressive

A false-negative test may be caused by all the following immune system-mediated reasons EXCEPT: a. Allergic reaction

A farmer is bitten by a raccoon. He takes the usual precautions and washes the wound with soap and water, and then puts a bandage on it. A couple of days later, he begins to feel tired, has an upset stomach, and the wound is painful. About 2 days after noticing the symptoms, the farmer begins to feel agitated. He has a seizure and hallucinations. What condition matches the farmer's symptoms and history?

A farmer is bitten by a raccoon. He takes the usual precautions and washes the wound with soap and water, and then puts a bandage on it. A couple of days later, he begins to feel tired, has an upset stomach, and the wound is painful. About 2 days after noticing the symptoms, the farmer begins to feel agitated. He has a seizure and hallucinations. What condition matches the farmer's symptoms and history? Rabies

A father carries the Xga blood group trait and passes it on to all of his daughters but to none of his sons. What type of inheritance pattern does this demonstrate?

A father carries the Xga blood group trait and passes it on to all of his daughters but to none of his sons. What type of inheritance pattern does this demonstrate? X linked dominate

A female patient presents to her OB/GYN with the following complaints: genital itching, dysuria, and an abnormal looking white "chunky" substance on her undergarments. The immediate next step the physician should take is: A. Order DNA and PCR testing B. Perform a saline wet prep C. Perform a whiff test and KOH test D. Send the patient home

A female patient presents to her OB/GYN with the following complaints: genital itching, dysuria, and an abnormal looking white "chunky" substance on her undergarments. The immediate next step the physician should take is: B. Perform a saline wet prep

A fern test is performed to differentiate between: _____________________ and _______________

A fern test is performed to differentiate between: _____________________ and _______________ Urine amniotic fluid

A first morning specimen is frequently requested to confirm: 1) Orthostatic proteinuria 2) Fanconi's syndrome 3) Urinary tract infection 4) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) deficiency

A first morning specimen is frequently requested to confirm: 1) Orthostatic proteinuria

A group A man marries a group AB woman. The father of the group A man was group O. What possible ABO phenotypes could be expected in the offspring? A) Groups A, B, AB, and O B) Groups A and B C) Groups A, B, and AB D) Groups A and AB

A group A man marries a group AB woman. The father of the group A man was group O. What possible ABO phenotypes could be expected in the offspring? C) Groups A, B, and AB

A group O patient was crossmatched with group B red blood cells. What phase of the crossmatch will first detect this incompatibility? A) Immediate-spin B) 37° C low-ionic strength solution C) Indirect antiglobulin D) None of them; unit is compatible

A group O patient was crossmatched with group B red blood cells. What phase of the crossmatch will first detect this incompatibility? A) Immediate-spin

A group O, D-positive mother gave birth to a group A, D-negative infant. After 24 hours, the newborn's bilirubin level rose to 19 mg/dL. A direct antiglobulin test performed on the cord blood specimen was positive with anti-IgG. What antibody is most likely implicated? A) Anti-D B) Anti-A C) Anti-B D) Anti-A,B

A group O, D-positive mother gave birth to a group A, D-negative infant. After 24 hours, the newborn's bilirubin level rose to 19 mg/dL. A direct antiglobulin test performed on the cord blood specimen was positive with anti-IgG. What antibody is most likely implicated? D) Anti-A,B

A lab aid spills 5 gallons of xylene on the floor. This is determined to pose a significant health hazard. What is the first course of action? Call 911 Control the spill with absorbent material Don PPE Evacuate the area

A lab aid spills 5 gallons of xylene on the floor. This is determined to pose a significant health hazard. What is the first course of action? Evacuate the area

A laboratory professional is testing a new antimicrobial soap. The tech washes her forearm then does a culture of the skin. Which organisms should she most likely expect to find growing in the culture? Read the chart and the paragraph. a. Diphtheroids and Bacillus spp. b. Staphylococcus epidermidis and Propionibacterium c. S. aureus and Propionibacterium d. Diphtheroids and Propionibacterium e. None of these organisms should be found.

A laboratory professional is testing a new antimicrobial soap. The tech washes her forearm then does a culture of the skin. Which organisms should she most likely expect to find growing in the culture? Read the chart and the paragraph. b. Staphylococcus epidermidis and Propionibacterium

A laboratory technologist decided she would like to bring her lab coat home for laundering because it had too many wrinkles when it was returned by the laboratory's laundry service. Is this acceptable? A. Yes, if she uses 10% bleach B. Yes, if she clears it with her supervisor C. Yes, as long as she removes the coat and does not wear it home D. No, because the laboratory is a biosafety level 2, and lab coats may not be removed

A laboratory technologist decided she would like to bring her lab coat home for laundering because it had too many wrinkles when it was returned by the laboratory's laundry service. Is this acceptable? D. No, because the laboratory is a biosafety level 2, and lab coats may not be removed

A large fetomaternal bleed in a D-negative woman who delivered a D-positive infant should be suspected if the: A) direct antiglobulin test on the infant is positive. B) infant is premature. C) fetomaternal hemorrhage screen result is positive. D) maternal antibody screen is positive postpartum.

A large fetomaternal bleed in a D-negative woman who delivered a D-positive infant should be suspected if the: C) fetomaternal hemorrhage screen result is positive.

A layer of tears blankets the cornea to provide all of the following EXCEPT: a. Waste elimination b. Optical clarity c. Lubrication d. Nutrition

A layer of tears blankets the cornea to provide all of the following EXCEPT: a. Waste elimination

A lipid droplet that does not stain with Sudan III may be composed of:

A lipid droplet that does not stain with Sudan III may be composed of: Cholesterol

A male donor has a reactive nucleic acid test for hepatitis C. What kind of deferral is assigned to this donor? A) Indefinite B) Permanent C) Temporary D) None of the above

A male donor has a reactive nucleic acid test for hepatitis C. What kind of deferral is assigned to this donor? B) Permanent

A man and his family drive to the coast in the USA and have an oyster dinner. A couple of days later, the man arrives at the emergency department with a fever, bullous skin lesions, and diarrhea. He is extremely ill and the doctor questions whether he is septic. Blood and stool specimens are collected. The microbiology technician notices curved gram-negative rods on the stool Gram stain. What is the most probable organism causing this condition? Genus and species

A man and his family drive to the coast in the USA and have an oyster dinner. A couple of days later, the man arrives at the emergency department with a fever, bullous skin lesions, and diarrhea. He is extremely ill and the doctor questions whether he is septic. Blood and stool specimens are collected. The microbiology technician notices curved gram-negative rods on the stool Gram stain. What is the most probable organism causing this condition? Genus and species Vibrio vulnificus

A man has sex with a woman on Saturday night. On Wednesday he notices dysuria, pyuria, and a urethral discharge. He goes to his physician who orders a Gram stain of the discharge. The results of the Gram stain show greater than 25 wbc/hpf, moderate gram-negative intracellular diplococci, and 3+ gram-negative diplococci. What is the mostly likely diagnosis?

A man has sex with a woman on Saturday night. On Wednesday he notices dysuria, pyuria, and a urethral discharge. He goes to his physician who orders a Gram stain of the discharge. The results of the Gram stain show greater than 25 wbc/hpf, moderate gram-negative intracellular diplococci, and 3+ gram-negative diplococci. What is the mostly likely diagnosis? Gonorrhea

A man is taking a shower and notices this lesion on his penis that is not tender but is firm with a clean surface and raised edges. He is quite dismayed, so he goes to his physician. The physician does a rapid plasmin reagin (RPR) and a darkfield microscopy. Both tests are positive. What is the physician's probable diagnosis?

A man is taking a shower and notices this lesion on his penis that is not tender but is firm with a clean surface and raised edges. He is quite dismayed, so he goes to his physician. The physician does a rapid plasmin reagin (RPR) and a darkfield microscopy. Both tests are positive. What is the physician's probable diagnosis? Syphilis

A medical laboratory science student consistently obtains lower RBC counts than the instructor. A possible reason for this might be: A. Failure to completely resuspend the sedimented specimen B. Reading the same cells twice C. Counting all crenated cells twice D. Using too much stain

A medical laboratory science student consistently obtains lower RBC counts than the instructor. A possible reason for this might be: A. Failure to completely resuspend the sedimented specimen

A microbiologist is checking the mycobacteria cultures. She notices one tube of Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) that is a buff color, rough, and seems arranged in a cord. It has taken these organisms 4 weeks to grow. What is the most probable organism?

A microbiologist is checking the mycobacteria cultures. She notices one tube of Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) that is a buff color, rough, and seems arranged in a cord. It has taken these organisms 4 weeks to grow. What is the most probable organism? Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A microbiologist is reading CTA sugars from a vaginal culture that grew an oxidase-positive, gram-negative cocci. Only the glucose tube is yellow. What is the organism?

A microbiologist is reading CTA sugars from a vaginal culture that grew an oxidase-positive, gram-negative cocci. Only the glucose tube is yellow. What is the organism? Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A microbiologist is reading a gram stain and observes gram-negative, curved rods with a seagull-wing appearance. What organism could this be? Genus

A microbiologist is reading a gram stain and observes gram-negative, curved rods with a seagull-wing appearance. What organism could this be? Genus Campylobacter (Vibrio is also an acceptable answer)

A microbiologist is reading a sputum culture and notices that there is no growth on the sheep blood and MacConkey agars, but there is growth on the chocolate plate. The colonies on the plate are translucent, moist, smooth, and convex, with a mousy odor. What is the most likely identification of the organism?

A microbiologist is reading a sputum culture and notices that there is no growth on the sheep blood and MacConkey agars, but there is growth on the chocolate plate. The colonies on the plate are translucent, moist, smooth, and convex, with a mousy odor. What is the most likely identification of the organism? Haemophilus influenzae

A microbiologist is reading a sputum culture when she notices tiny, translucent colonies growing closely around a Beta-hemolytic colony on sheep blood agar (SBA). In fact, the colonies are growing in the area where the blood has been hemolyzed. What is the probable identity of the organism that is growing closely to the Beta-hemolytic organism, and why are they growing in the hemolyzed area?

A microbiologist is reading a sputum culture when she notices tiny, translucent colonies growing closely around a Beta-hemolytic colony on sheep blood agar (SBA). In fact, the colonies are growing in the area where the blood has been hemolyzed. What is the probable identity of the organism that is growing closely to the Beta-hemolytic organism, and why are they growing in the hemolyzed area? Haemophilus influenzae They need the V factor in this area.

A microbiologist is reading a stool culture and notices a very moist and mucoid pink colony on MacConkey agar. What is the most likely organism?_________________

A microbiologist is reading a stool culture and notices a very moist and mucoid pink colony on MacConkey agar. What is the most likely organism? Klebsiella sp.

A microbiologist reading genital cultures on a Martin-Lewis plate should look for what colonial morphology if Neisseria gonorrhoeae is suspected? a. Large, white, creamy b. Small, tan, translucent c. Small, white, transparent d. Small, rough, transparent

A microbiologist reading genital cultures on a Martin-Lewis plate should look for what colonial morphology if Neisseria gonorrhoeae is suspected? b. Small, tan, translucent

A microbiologist receives cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the laboratory and does a Gram stain on it. Much to her surprise, she sees intracellular and extracellular gram-negative diplococci. What is the most likely organism?

A microbiologist receives cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the laboratory and does a Gram stain on it. Much to her surprise, she sees intracellular and extracellular gram-negative diplococci. What is the most likely organism? Neisseria meningitidis

A microbiology technologist is reading an anaerobic culture and observes a double zone of hemolysis on an anaerobically incubated sheep blood agar plate. The Gram stain of that organism was a boxcar-shaped, gram-positive bacillus. What organism is this?

A microbiology technologist is reading an anaerobic culture and observes a double zone of hemolysis on an anaerobically incubated sheep blood agar plate. The Gram stain of that organism was a boxcar-shaped, gram-positive bacillus. What organism is this? Clostridium perfringens

A microbiology technologist is reading an anaerobic plate from an intestinal abscess. There is growth on the Bacteroides bile esculin (BBE) plate: gray colonies with a brown color in the area around the colonies. There is also a dark precipitate in the medium in the areas of heavy growth. The technician Gram stains the colonies and observes gram-negative coccobacilli. What is the presumptive identification of this organism?

A microbiology technologist is reading an anaerobic plate from an intestinal abscess. There is growth on the Bacteroides bile esculin (BBE) plate: gray colonies with a brown color in the area around the colonies. There is also a dark precipitate in the medium in the areas of heavy growth. The technician Gram stains the colonies and observes gram-negative coccobacilli. What is the presumptive identification of this organism? Bacteroides fragilis

A microorganism that is a unicellular organism and lacks a nuclear membrane and true nucleus belongs to which classification? a. Fungi b. Bacteria c. Algae d. Parasite

A microorganism that is a unicellular organism and lacks a nuclear membrane and true nucleus belongs to which classification? b. Bacteria

A milky or light brown-beige-colored BAL fluid indicates a/an: A. Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis B. Alveolar hemorrhage C. Airway disease D. Infectious lung disease

A milky or light brown-beige-colored BAL fluid indicates a/an: A. Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

A milky-appearing synovial fluid can be associated with the presence of:_______________________

A milky-appearing synovial fluid can be associated with the presence of: monosodium urate crystals

A monoclonal antibody is:

A monoclonal antibody is: An antibody that is derived from one cell initially, which has been exposed to one epitope.

A mother brings her lethargic, feverish baby into the emergency department. The baby is diagnosed with meningitis and the doctor does a spinal tap. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) Gram stain shows many tiny gram-negative rods. What is the most probably identification of this organism?

A mother brings her lethargic, feverish baby into the emergency department. The baby is diagnosed with meningitis and the doctor does a spinal tap. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) Gram stain shows many tiny gram-negative rods. What is the most probably identification of this organism? Haemophilus influenzae serotype b

A negative reagent strip test for glucose with a positive Clinitest indicates the possibility of:____________________________

A negative reagent strip test for glucose with a positive Clinitest indicates the possibility of:____________________________ Galactosuria

A negative urine pregnancy test performed on a random specimen may need to be repeated using a________________

A negative urine pregnancy test performed on a random specimen may need to be repeated using a________________ First morning, Serum is also correct, but a first morning specimen is easier to collect.

A newborn phenotypes as group O, D-positive with a 1+ direct antiglobulin test. The mother's antibody screening test is negative. Assuming the antibody screen is valid; one should consider the reason for the positive DAT is due to an antibody against _______________ antigen. A) D B) A or B C) low-incidence D) high-incidence

A newborn phenotypes as group O, D-positive with a 1+ direct antiglobulin test. The mother's antibody screening test is negative. Assuming the antibody screen is valid; one should consider the reason for the positive DAT is due to an antibody against _______________ antigen. C) low-incidence

A night tech is working in microbiology when a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) specimen comes in. Almost simultaneously, the tech is called to the emergency department to draw blood on seriously injured car accident victims. How would the tech store the CSF until time permits to work on the CSF specimen? a. Put the specimen in the refrigerator where it is good for 4 hours at 4° C. b. Leave the specimen on the shelf where it is good for 6 hours at room temperature. c. Pour the specimen into a tube of broth. d. Place the specimen in a 35° C incubator for 6 hours.

A night tech is working in microbiology when a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) specimen comes in. Almost simultaneously, the tech is called to the emergency department to draw blood on seriously injured car accident victims. How would the tech store the CSF until time permits to work on the CSF specimen? d. Place the specimen in a 35° C incubator for 6 hours.

A pale, frothy looking stool is indicative of:__________________________________

A pale, frothy looking stool is indicative of:__________________________________ Excess fat

A patient comes to the emergency department with a productive cough, shortness of breath, and a fever of 102° F. The patient is diagnosed with pneumonia. What organism commonly encountered in the microbiology laboratory can cause this disease? Genus and species ________________________________________

A patient comes to the emergency department with a productive cough, shortness of breath, and a fever of 102° F. The patient is diagnosed with pneumonia. What organism commonly encountered in the microbiology laboratory can cause this disease? Genus and species: Streptococcus pneumoniae

A patient demonstrated the following symptoms: hypotension, tachycardia, cold or clammy skin, and cyanosis. What is the most likely cause? A) Anaphylactic shock B) Graft-versus-host disease C) Congestive heart failure D) Hypovolemic shock

A patient demonstrated the following symptoms: hypotension, tachycardia, cold or clammy skin, and cyanosis. What is the most likely cause? D) Hypovolemic shock

A patient finds a small ribbon-like piece in his stool sample and reports this to his physician. The physician orders a fecal O&P analysis that reveals the following egg in the sample. The most likely identity of this parasite is: A) Hymenolepis nana. B) Taenia spp. C) Diphyllobothrium latum. D) Paragonimus westermani.

A patient finds a small ribbon-like piece in his stool sample and reports this to his physician. The physician orders a fecal O&P analysis that reveals the following egg in the sample. The most likely identity of this parasite is: B) Taenia spp.

A patient has a rise in temperature and chills during a transfusion. The transfusion is stopped, and a posttransfusion blood sample is carefully drawn. What should the transfusion service immediately perform upon receipt of this postreaction sample? A) Perform a clerical check, observe the color of serum and perform an antibody screen B) Perform a clerical check, observe the color of serum and perform a direct antiglobulin test C) Perform an antibody screen and a direct antiglobulin test Perform an antibody screen and a crossmatch

A patient has a rise in temperature and chills during a transfusion. The transfusion is stopped, and a posttransfusion blood sample is carefully drawn. What should the transfusion service immediately perform upon receipt of this postreaction sample? B) Perform a clerical check, observe the color of serum and perform a direct antiglobulin test

A patient is diagnosed with cardiac insufficiency and needs a red blood cell transfusion. How should the transfusion be administered? A) The red blood cell unit should be transfused slowly over a 4-hour period. B) The unit should be transfused as whole blood. C) Diuretics should be administered with the unit. D) Transfusion should be avoided.

A patient is diagnosed with cardiac insufficiency and needs a red blood cell transfusion. How should the transfusion be administered? A) The red blood cell unit should be transfused slowly over a 4-hour period.

A patient phenotypes as D+C+E-c-e+. Predict the most likely genotype. A) R1r B) R1R1 C) R1r' D) R1R0

A patient phenotypes as D+C+E-c-e+. Predict the most likely genotype. B) R1R1

A patient previously diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency arrives in the emergency room with symptoms of meningitis. A lumbar puncture is performed.Using the information provided, in addition to Gram stain, what additional testing should be performed? A. VDRL B. Electrophoresis C. Cryptococcal antigen test D. Differential of peripheral blood

A patient previously diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency arrives in the emergency room with symptoms of meningitis. A lumbar puncture is performed.Using the information provided, in addition to Gram stain, what additional testing should be performed? C. Cryptococcal antigen test

A patient receiving chemotherapy for leukemia has developed a fever causing the physician to request blood cultures times three. Each set of cultures grows an α-hemolytic streptococcal organism? What is the most likely explanation for these results? a. The patient probably has an infection with α-hemolytic strep. b. The blood cultures were contaminated with skin flora c. The blood cultures were probably contaminated in the laboratory. d. The patient probably has an infection with Bacillus spp.

A patient receiving chemotherapy for leukemia has developed a fever causing the physician to request blood cultures times three. Each set of cultures grows an α-hemolytic streptococcal organism? What is the most likely explanation for these results? a. The patient probably has an infection with α-hemolytic strep.

A patient undergoes a colon resection. Because of the amount of bacteria present in the colon, the physician put the patient on broad-spectrum antibiotics after surgery. The patient develops a fever 2 days after surgery. He developed an infection with vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE). What antibiotics can be used to treat this organism? Bonus question. a. Synercid b. Quinolones c. Aminoglycosides d. Erythromycin

A patient undergoes a colon resection. Because of the amount of bacteria present in the colon, the physician put the patient on broad-spectrum antibiotics after surgery. The patient develops a fever 2 days after surgery. He developed an infection with vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE). What antibiotics can be used to treat this organism? Bonus question. a. Synercid

A patient was admitted to the hospital with acute bleeding. Anti-E was detected in the patient's serum. Four E-negative units of blood were crossmatched for the patient. The units were compatible at immediate-spin and following the antiglobulin test. After the antiglobulin test was performed, IgG-sensitized red cells gave a 2+-agglutination reaction. What is the proper interpretation of this 2+-agglutination reaction? A) Antihuman globulin washing procedure was adequate. B) IgG-sensitized red cells spontaneously agglutinated. C) Crossmatch was incompatible. Patient's anti-E reacted with the IgG-sensitized red cells.

A patient was admitted to the hospital with acute bleeding. Anti-E was detected in the patient's serum. Four E-negative units of blood were crossmatched for the patient. The units were compatible at immediate-spin and following the antiglobulin test. After the antiglobulin test was performed, IgG-sensitized red cells gave a 2+-agglutination reaction. What is the proper interpretation of this 2+-agglutination reaction? A) Antihuman globulin washing procedure was adequate.

A patient who makes her own saline solution for her contact lenses is examined at her physician's office because she has a blood red, infected right eye. The doctor performs bacterial, fungal, and viral cultures, all of which are negative. What is the most probable cause of this infection? Need to think through this one.

A patient who makes her own saline solution for her contact lenses is examined at her physician's office because she has a blood red, infected right eye. The doctor performs bacterial, fungal, and viral cultures, all of which are negative. What is the most probable cause of this infection? Need to think through this one. Acanthamoeba sp.

A patient who wears long-term contact lenses comes to her physician after noting a small spot on her cornea. Collection of the lesion for culture produced a fast-growing mold with a slight pink color on the surface. Microscopic review showed the following organism. This organism is most likely: A) Sporothrix schenckii B) Fusarium spp. . C) Mucor spp. D) Geotrichum spp.

A patient who wears long-term contact lenses comes to her physician after noting a small spot on her cornea. Collection of the lesion for culture produced a fast-growing mold with a slight pink color on the surface. Microscopic review showed the following organism. This organism is most likely: B) Fusarium spp. .

A patient whose stool exhibits increased fats, undigested muscle fibers, and the inability to digest gelatin may have:______________________________________________

A patient whose stool exhibits increased fats, undigested muscle fibers, and the inability to digest gelatin may have:______________________________________________ Cystic fibrosis

A patient with severe back pain and 15 to 20 RBCs/hpf in the urine sediment may have: A. Renal calculi B. Acute glomerulonephritis C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Osteomyelitis

A patient with severe back pain and 15 to 20 RBCs/hpf in the urine sediment may have: A. Renal calculi

A patient with symptoms of pulmonary hemoptysis and urinary hematuria should be tested for: A. Antiglomerular basement membrane antibody B. Antistreptolysin O antibody C. Antistreptococcal antibody D. Anti-IgM antibody

A patient with symptoms of pulmonary hemoptysis and urinary hematuria should be tested for: A. Antiglomerular basement membrane antibody

A patient with very pale patches on his arms and legs is examined at his doctor's office. His doctor orders a fungal culture. The fungus shows a spaghetti-and-meatball appearance on the direct smear. What organism is it? A) Microsporum canis B) Malassezia furfur C) Trichophyton rubrum D) Epidermophyton floccosum

A patient with very pale patches on his arms and legs is examined at his doctor's office. His doctor orders a fungal culture. The fungus shows a spaghetti-and-meatball appearance on the direct smear. What organism is it? B) Malassezia furfur

A patient's normal florae can be altered by all of the following EXCEPT: a. Broad-spectrum antibiotics b. Recent hospitalization c. Chronic illness d. Visited a nursing home

A patient's normal florae can be altered by all of the following EXCEPT: d. Visited a nursing home

A patient's red cells are agglutinated by anti-B, but not by anti-A. What is this patient's ABO phenotype? A) Group B B) Group O C) Group AB D) Group A

A patient's red cells are agglutinated by anti-B, but not by anti-A. What is this patient's ABO phenotype? A) Group B

A patient, group AB, D-positive, has a bleeding aortic aneurysm. A massive transfusion is undertaken for lifesaving measures. What ABO phenotype is recommended for transfusion to this patient? A) Group A B) Group B C) Group O D) Group AB

A patient, group AB, D-positive, has a bleeding aortic aneurysm. A massive transfusion is undertaken for lifesaving measures. What ABO phenotype is recommended for transfusion to this patient? A) Group A

A pericardial exudate from a patient diagnosed with AIDS might be tested with: A. An India ink preparation B. An acid-fast stain C. A Gram stain D. An immunofixation electrophoresis

A pericardial exudate from a patient diagnosed with AIDS might be tested with: B. An acid-fast stain

A person travels to Southeast Asia and Africa for an extended vacation. A couple weeks after returning come home, the person develops a cough, fatigue, weight loss, low-grade fever, and night sweats. What disease should the physician suspect?

A person travels to Southeast Asia and Africa for an extended vacation. A couple weeks after returning come home, the person develops a cough, fatigue, weight loss, low-grade fever, and night sweats. What disease should the physician suspect? Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB)

A person whose red cells type as M+N+ with antisera would be: A) a homozygote. B) a heterozygote. C) unable to be determined without family studies. D) linked.

A person whose red cells type as M+N+ with antisera would be: B) a heterozygote.

A physician transferred a virus during optometry examination through contaminated tonometer tips. What is a likely virus? Bonus question as multiple answers are possible.

A physician transferred a virus during optometry examination through contaminated tonometer tips. What is a likely virus? Bonus question as multiple answers are possible. Adenovirus Herpes simplex virus Varicella-zoster virus (Any of the three are acceptable)

A positive fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test (FTA-ABS) and a positive CSF venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL) indicate: A. A false-positive reaction B. Neurosyphilis C. Failure to inactivate the CSF D. The need to perform a rapid plasma reagin test

A positive fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test (FTA-ABS) and a positive CSF venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL) indicate: B. Neurosyphilis

A positive nitrite test and a negative leukocyte esterase test is an indication of a:

A positive nitrite test and a negative leukocyte esterase test is an indication of a: Specimen older than 2 hours.

A positive nitrite test suggests the presence of a minimum of ____________ organisms /mL

A positive nitrite test suggests the presence of a minimum of ____________ organisms /mL 10 to the fifth

A positive test for motility: a. Turns the motility media blue b. Shows hazy appearance throughout or movement away from a stab c. Appears as a scum on the top of the media d. Will turn blue after the addition of the indicator bromthymol blue

A positive test for motility: b. Shows hazy appearance throughout or movement away from a stab

A primary function of amniotic fluid is to: a) Provide nourishment to the fetus b) Provide protection for the fetus c) Remove waste products from the fetus d) Facilitate oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange

A primary function of amniotic fluid is to: b) Provide protection for the fetus

A primary tenet of antimicrobial therapy is to use: a. The least toxic agents b. The most cost-effective agents c. The most clinically effective agents d. All of the above

A questionable India ink preparation on the CSF from an immunocompromised patient should be further tested using: A. A cryptococcal antigen test B. A bacterial antigen panel C. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis D. An anaerobic culture

A questionable India ink preparation on the CSF from an immunocompromised patient should be further tested using: A. A cryptococcal antigen test

A questionnaire is provided to the donor to assess 4 different factors with potential impact to donor and recipient safety. List the 4 factors included in the questionnaire. a. ________________________ b. ________________________ c. ________________________ d. ________________________

A questionnaire is provided to the donor to assess 4 different factors with potential impact to donor and recipient safety. List the 4 factors included in the questionnaire. a. ________________________ b. ________________________ c. ________________________ d. ________________________ risky behaviors medications travel other factors (e.g. physical health)

A reagent strip test for blood is reported positive. No red blood cells are seen on the microscopic examination. The patient's condition is called: A. Hematuria B. Oliguria C. Hemoglobinuria D. Hemosiderinuria

A reagent strip test for blood is reported positive. No red blood cells are seen on the microscopic examination. The patient's condition is called: C. Hemoglobinuria

A recipient is group O with the following Rh phenotype: D+C+c-E+e+. If this recipient is transfused with red blood cells from six random group O D-positive donors, what Rh alloantibody could this patient produce as a result of transfusion? A) Anti-E B) Anti-C C) Anti-c D) Anti-D

A recipient is group O with the following Rh phenotype: D+C+c-E+e+. If this recipient is transfused with red blood cells from six random group O D-positive donors, what Rh alloantibody could this patient produce as a result of transfusion? C) Anti-c

A recipient with group A phenotype requires a transfusion of 2 units of frozen plasma. Which of the following types are appropriate to select for transfusion A) AB and B B) B and A C) O and A D) AB and A

A recipient with group A phenotype requires a transfusion of 2 units of frozen plasma. Which of the following types are appropriate to select for transfusion D) AB and A Group AB plasma contains no ABO system antibodies, and group A plasma contains anti-B, which would be compatible with the recipient's red cells.

A recreational cave explorer develops a productive cough and fever. A sputum culture is sent to the laboratory for bacterial, fungal, and mycobacterial cultures. A white mold colony develops on Sabouraud's agar after 5 days at 22° C. Identify the organism shown below. A) Histoplasma capsulatum B) Toxoplasma gondii C) Microsporum tonsurus D) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

A recreational cave explorer develops a productive cough and fever. A sputum culture is sent to the laboratory for bacterial, fungal, and mycobacterial cultures. A white mold colony develops on Sabouraud's agar after 5 days at 22° C. Identify the organism shown below. A) Histoplasma capsulatum

A report of many gram-positive cocci on a clear CSF sample with a normal cell count may be the result of: A. An incorrect cell count B. Effective antibiotic treatment C. Use of contaminated albumin in the cytocentrifuge D. Use of recycled cytocentrifuge chambers

A report of many gram-positive cocci on a clear CSF sample with a normal cell count may be the result of: C. Use of contaminated albumin in the cytocentrifuge

A safe method of transporting aspirated material would be in: a. A leak-proof bag b. A tube of broth c. An anaerobic transport system d. A plastic container

A safe method of transporting aspirated material would be in: c. An anaerobic transport system

A second amniocentesis is performed on a diabetic woman believed to be at approximately 35 weeks gestation. She is pregnant with her second child, and the bilirubin A450 on the first amniocentesis was in zone 2 of the Liley graph. Using the information provided, why was a second amniocentesis performed? a) She is diabetic b) To determine fetal antibodies c) To monitor the bilirubin concentration d) This is her second pregnancy

A second amniocentesis is performed on a diabetic woman believed to be at approximately 35 weeks gestation. She is pregnant with her second child, and the bilirubin A450 on the first amniocentesis was in zone 2 of the Liley graph. Using the information provided, why was a second amniocentesis performed? c) To monitor the bilirubin concentration

A semen specimen delivered to the laboratory in a condom has a normal sperm count and markedly decreased sperm motility. Why?

A semen specimen delivered to the laboratory in a condom has a normal sperm count and markedly decreased sperm motility. Why? Antispermicide in the condom

A significant rise in IgG detected during the convalescent phase is diagnostic for infection and is called:

A significant rise in IgG detected during the convalescent phase is diagnostic for infection and is called: Seroconversion

A slightly hazy CSF specimen is diluted 1:10 with acetic acid. An average of 50 cells are counted in five large squares on both sides of the Neubauer counting chamber (10 squares total 49 on one side and 51 on the other). The count is reported as: ______ Show your math for full credit.

A slightly hazy CSF specimen is diluted 1:10 with acetic acid. An average of 50 cells are counted in five large squares on both sides of the Neubauer counting chamber (10 squares total 49 on one side and 51 on the other). The count is reported as: ______ Show your math for full credit. 50*10/5*0.1=1000 WBCs/uL

A smooth layer of cells in the bottom of the well is interpreted as a/an ____________ reaction when the solid-phase red cell adherence method is completed for the antiglobulin test: A) positive B) negative C) indeterminate D) mixed field

A smooth layer of cells in the bottom of the well is interpreted as a/an ____________ reaction when the solid-phase red cell adherence method is completed for the antiglobulin test: A) positive

A solution contains 40 g of solute dissolved in 0.5 L of water. What is the percentage of this solution? 2% 4% 8% 16%

A solution contains 40 g of solute dissolved in 0.5 L of water. What is the percentage of this solution? 8%

A specific gravity of greater than 1.040 by refractometer is 1.025 when checked using a reagent strip. The technologist should: A. Report the result as 1.025 B. Dilute the specimen and retest by refractometer C. Request a new specimen D. Report the result as greater than 1.040

A specific gravity of greater than 1.040 by refractometer is 1.025 when checked using a reagent strip. The technologist should: A. Report the result as 1.025

A specific gravity reading of 1.040 by refractometer and 1.015 by reagent strip is indicative of_____________________________________

A specific gravity reading of 1.040 by refractometer and 1.015 by reagent strip is indicative of: Radiographic dye

A specimen delivered to the laboratory in a gray-top Vacutainer is acceptable for urinalysis. True/False

A specimen delivered to the laboratory in a gray-top Vacutainer is acceptable for urinalysis. False

A specimen from a child's hair is received for examination for fungus. The hair fluoresced under a Wood lamp. Cultures revealed a fungus with mycelium and very few macroconidia or microconidia. What is the most likely identification of the fungus? A) Microsporum gypseum B) Microsporum audouinii C) Trichophyton tonsurans D) Epidermophyton floccosum

A specimen from a child's hair is received for examination for fungus. The hair fluoresced under a Wood lamp. Cultures revealed a fungus with mycelium and very few macroconidia or microconidia. What is the most likely identification of the fungus? B) Microsporum audouinii

A specimen that is spread on a smear and appears to have a homogenous constitution is said to: a. Be clumped at different areas on the slide b. Contain pathogens only in one visual field c. Have material spread evenly throughout the slide d. Contain normal florae

A specimen that is spread on a smear and appears to have a homogenous constitution is said to: c. Have material spread evenly throughout the slide

A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.005 would be considered: a. Isosthenuric b. Hyposthenuric c. Hypersthenuric d. Not urine

A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.005 would be considered: b. Hyposthenuric

A specimen with a strong ammonia odor and a heavy white precipitate when it arrives in the laboratory may require:___________________________

A specimen with a strong ammonia odor and a heavy white precipitate when it arrives in the laboratory may require: Recollection

A spotted reaction on the reagent strip reaction for blood can indicate: A. Hematuria B. Hemoglobinuria C. Myoglobinuria D. Porphyrinuria

A spotted reaction on the reagent strip reaction for blood can indicate: A. Hematuria

A strong odor of ammonia in a urine specimen could indicate: a. Ketones b. Normal c. Phenylketonuria d. Urinary tract infection

A strong odor of ammonia in a urine specimen could indicate: d. Urinary tract infection

A symptomatic congenital infection with cytomegalovirus (CMV) includes all the following symptoms except: a. hepatosplenomegaly. b. microcephaly. c. chorioretinitis. d. meningitis.

A symptomatic congenital infection with cytomegalovirus (CMV) includes all the following symptoms except: d. meningitis.

A synovial fluid was collected and a cell count was performed. An average of 52 WBCs were observed in 4 large squares counted. The synovial fluid was very cloudy and yellow and had to be diluted 1:20. A differential was performed and 85% neutrophils were seen with 15% lymphs. 1. What is the calculated cell count? Show your work. 2. What is the suspected diagnosis? 3. What other test needs performed on this sample?

A synovial fluid was collected and a cell count was performed. An average of 52 WBCs were observed in 4 large squares counted. The synovial fluid was very cloudy and yellow and had to be diluted 1:20. A differential was performed and 85% neutrophils were seen with 15% lymphs. 1. What is the calculated cell count? Show your work. 2. What is the suspected diagnosis? 3. What other test needs performed on this sample? 52*20/4*0.1=2600 cells/uL Bacterial infection Gram stain and culture

A tech is reading the biochemical tests for identifying a particular gram-negative rod. The organism has produced acid, indicated by a color change, in the closed tube only. This indicates that the organism is: a. An oxidizer b. A fermenter c. Both an oxidizer and a fermenter d. A reducer

A tech is reading the biochemical tests for identifying a particular gram-negative rod. The organism has produced acid, indicated by a color change, in the closed tube only. This indicates that the organism is: b. A fermenter

A tech is working the night shift and receives a CSF specimen on an infant. The tech makes a Gram stain of the spinal fluid then reads the smear under the microscope. The report the tech sends to the physician reads as follows: "gram-negative bacillus, small and pleomorphic." What bacteria are being implied as the infecting agent? Genus and species _____________________________________________________

A tech is working the night shift and receives a CSF specimen on an infant. The tech makes a Gram stain of the spinal fluid then reads the smear under the microscope. The report the tech sends to the physician reads as follows: "gram-negative bacillus, small and pleomorphic." What bacteria are being implied as the infecting agent? Genus and species: Haemophilus influenzae

A technician is reading CTA sugars. The maltose and glucose tubes are positive. What organism produces acid in these two tubes?

A technician is reading CTA sugars. The maltose and glucose tubes are positive. What organism produces acid in these two tubes? Neisseria meningitidis

A technician is reading a sputum culture on the bench. There is growth on the BAP and CHOC plates, but no growth on the MAC plate. The colonies growing on the BAP have discolored the media to a green color around and under the colonies. What organism could this be? Genus and species____________________________________________________________________

A technician is reading a sputum culture on the bench. There is growth on the BAP and CHOC plates, but no growth on the MAC plate. The colonies growing on the BAP have discolored the media to a green color around and under the colonies. What organism could this be? Genus and species: Streptococcus Pneumoniae

A technician is reading a sputum culture on the bench. There is growth on the sheep blood agar (SBA) and chocolate (CHOC) plates, but no growth on the MacConkey (MAC) plate. The colonies growing on the SBA have produced a wide, deep, clear zone of Beta-hemolysis around and under the colonies. What organism could this be? Genus and species _________________________________________________

A technician is reading a sputum culture on the bench. There is growth on the sheep blood agar (SBA) and chocolate (CHOC) plates, but no growth on the MacConkey (MAC) plate. The colonies growing on the SBA have produced a wide, deep, clear zone of Beta-hemolysis around and under the colonies. What organism could this be? Genus and species: Streptococcus pyogenes

A technician is reading a vaginal culture on the bench. There is growth on the sheep blood agar (SBA) and chocolate (CHOC) plates, but no growth on the MacConkey (MAC) plate. The colonies growing on the SBA have produced a narrow, diffuse zone of Beta-hemolysis around and under the colonies. What organism could this be? ____________________________ a. Escherichia coli b. Streptococcus agalactiae c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A technician is reading a vaginal culture on the bench. There is growth on the sheep blood agar (SBA) and chocolate (CHOC) plates, but no growth on the MacConkey (MAC) plate. The colonies growing on the SBA have produced a narrow, diffuse zone of Beta-hemolysis around and under the colonies. What organism could this be? b. Streptococcus agalactiae

A technician is reading a vaginal culture. She sees the very white colonies that are Gamma-hemolytic on a blood agar plate but appear to have feet. What organism could this possibly be? _________________________________________________

A technician is reading a vaginal culture. She sees the very white colonies that are Gamma-hemolytic on a blood agar plate but appear to have feet. What organism could this possibly be? Yeast

A technician is reading plates from a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) culture. She notices that there is growth on chocolate agar (CHOC), but no growth on sheep blood agar (SBA) or MacConkey (MAC) agar. The Gram stain showed a gram-negative bacillus. What organism should be suspected? Genus and species__________________________________________

A technician is reading plates from a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) culture. She notices that there is growth on chocolate agar (CHOC), but no growth on sheep blood agar (SBA) or MacConkey (MAC) agar. The Gram stain showed a gram-negative bacillus. What organism should be suspected? Genus and species: Haemophilus influenzae

A technician is reading stool culture plates. She is looking for enteric pathogens on the MacConkey (MAC) plate. What do they look like?________________________________

A technician is reading stool culture plates. She is looking for enteric pathogens on the MacConkey (MAC) plate. What do they look like? Clear and colorless

A technician is reading stool culture plates. She sees an organism that has a dry, pink colony with a surrounding "halo" of pink on MacConkey (MAC). What is a good presumptive identification of this organism? Genus and species _____________________________________

A technician is reading stool culture plates. She sees an organism that has a dry, pink colony with a surrounding "halo" of pink on MacConkey (MAC). What is a good presumptive identification of this organism? Genus and species: Eschericia/Citrobacter like organism

A technician is reading stool culture plates. She sees an organism that has a large, mucoid pink colony on MacConkey (MAC). What is a good presumptive identification of this organism? Genus ______________________________________________________________________

A technician is reading stool culture plates. She sees an organism that has a large, mucoid pink colony on MacConkey (MAC). What is a good presumptive identification of this organism? Genus: Klebsiella/Enterobacter like organism

A technician is reading the plates from a sputum culture. The culture is from a patient with cystic fibrosis. One organism dominates the blood agar, chocolate, and MacConkey plates. The MacConkey plate shows an organism with a green pigment and a metallic sheen. The probable identification for this organism is: Genus and species ___________________________________

A technician is reading the plates from a sputum culture. The culture is from a patient with cystic fibrosis. One organism dominates the blood agar, chocolate, and MacConkey plates. The MacConkey plate shows an organism with a green pigment and a metallic sheen. The probable identification for this organism is: Genus and species: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A technician is reading the plates from a sputum culture. There is growth only on the chocolate plate. When the technician takes off the lid of the culture plate, he notices a distinct "mousy" smell. What organism can this be? Genus and species __________________________________

A technician is reading the plates from a sputum culture. There is growth only on the chocolate plate. When the technician takes off the lid of the culture plate, he notices a distinct "mousy" smell. What organism can this be? Genus: Haemophilus sp.

A technologist added 4 drops of a 5% red cell suspension instead of the required 1 drop to a hemagglutination test. What is the potential consequence to the test results? 1. False-positive 2. False-negative 3. Hemolysis due to complement activation 4. Test results are not affected

A technologist added 4 drops of a 5% red cell suspension instead of the required 1 drop to a hemagglutination test. What is the potential consequence to the test results? 2. False-negative

A technologist was being trained in a different area of the blood bank and noticed that the person training her had not recorded the results of a test. To be helpful, she carefully recorded the results she saw at a later time, using the technologist's initials. Is this acceptable procedure? A. Yes; all results must be recorded regardless of who did the test. B. No; she should have brought the error to the technologist's attention. C. Yes; because she used the other technologist's initials. D. Yes; as long as she records the result in pencil.

A technologist was being trained in a different area of the blood bank and noticed that the person training her had not recorded the results of a test. To be helpful, she carefully recorded the results she saw at a later time, using the technologist's initials. Is this acceptable procedure? B. No; she should have brought the error to the technologist's attention.

A teenager and her friends go to the lake and spend the day swimming and picnicking. Later that evening, she starts to feel sick. She complains of a headache and general malaise. The next morning, she is very ill and is rushed to the emergency department. Many neurologic changes are noted. Despite the staff's best efforts, the teenager dies. Autopsy reveals the presence of small protozoans in her brain tissue. What is the most probable organism that caused her death?

A teenager and her friends go to the lake and spend the day swimming and picnicking. Later that evening, she starts to feel sick. She complains of a headache and general malaise. The next morning, she is very ill and is rushed to the emergency department. Many neurologic changes are noted. Despite the staff's best efforts, the teenager dies. Autopsy reveals the presence of small protozoans in her brain tissue. What is the most probable organism that caused her death? Naegleria fowleri

A teenager was admitted to the hospital with severe keratitis. She confessed to rarely taking her contacts out and usually cleaning them with tap water or saliva. What is the most likely pathogen causing her keratitis? A) Entamoeba histolytica B) Acanthamoeba spp. C) Naegleria fowleri D) Balantidium coli

A teenager was admitted to the hospital with severe keratitis. She confessed to rarely taking her contacts out and usually cleaning them with tap water or saliva. What is the most likely pathogen causing her keratitis? B) Acanthamoeba spp.

A tube was received in the blood bank for crossmatching. The label was torn and the only information that was visible was the patient's last name and the medical record number. Which of the following is an acceptable procedure? A) Request a recollection of the specimen. B) Call the phlebotomist back to relabel the tube. C) Reprint a label using the MRI as the identifier. D) Use the tube since the MRI is visible.

A tube was received in the blood bank for crossmatching. The label was torn and the only information that was visible was the patient's last name and the medical record number. Which of the following is an acceptable procedure? A) Request a recollection of the specimen.

A tube was received in the blood bank for crossmatching. the label was torn and the only information that was visible was the patient's last name and the medical record number. Which of the following is an acceptable procedure? Request a recollection of the specimen. Call the phlebotomist back to relabel the tube. Reprint a label using the MRI as the identifier. Use the tube since the MRI is visible.

A tube was received in the blood bank for crossmatching. the label was torn and the only information that was visible was the patient's last name and the medical record number. Which of the following is an acceptable procedure? Request a recollection of the specimen.

A turbid synovial fluid with yellow-green color indicates:____________________________

A turbid synovial fluid with yellow-green color indicates: Infection

A unit of CPDA-1 RBCs, expiring in 35 days, is split using a sterile collection device to prepare pediatric units. What is the expiration date for each split unit? A) 4 days from collection B) 4 days from sterile docking C) 35 days from collection D) 28 days from collection

A unit of CPDA-1 RBCs, expiring in 35 days, is split using a sterile collection device to prepare pediatric units. What is the expiration date for each split unit? C) 35 days from collection

A urine bacterial culture should not be performed on a catheterized specimen. True/False

A urine bacterial culture should not be performed on a catheterized specimen. False

A urine sample that tests positive for ketones and negative for glucose is most likely from a patient suffering from:____________________________________

A urine sample that tests positive for ketones and negative for glucose is most likely from a patient suffering from:____________________________________ Starvation

A urine specimen containing a large amount of precipitated amorphous material may have been preserved using what method?

A urine specimen containing a large amount of precipitated amorphous material may have been preserved using what method? Refrigeration

A urine specimen for reagent strip glucose analysis can be preserved using all of the following methods except: 1) Refrigeration 2) Boric acid 3) Sodium fluoride 4) Commercial tablets

A urine specimen for reagent strip glucose analysis can be preserved using all of the following methods except: 3) Sodium fluoride

A urine specimen has a specific gravity of 1.025. It also has 2 g/dL of protein and 3 g/dL of glucose. Calculate the corrected specific gravity. Show your work.

A urine specimen has a specific gravity of 1.025. It also has 2 g/dL of protein and 3 g/dL of glucose. Calculate the corrected specific gravity. Show your work. Answer: 1.025 -2(0.003) -3(0.004)= 1.025-0.006-0.012=1.007

A urine specimen is referred for cytodiagnostic urine testing to detect the presence of:

A urine specimen is referred for cytodiagnostic urine testing to detect the presence of: Malignant cells

A urine specimen label should include the date and time of collection. True/False

A urine specimen label should include the date and time of collection. True

A urine specimen may be rejected by the laboratory for all of the following reasons except: 1) Nonmatching label and requisition form 2) Specimen contaminated with feces 3) Contamination on the exterior of the container 4) The container uses a screw-top lid

A urine specimen may be rejected by the laboratory for all of the following reasons except: 4) The container uses a screw-top lid

A urine specimen refrigerated overnight is cloudy and has a pH of 6. The turbidity is probably due to:_____________________________

A urine specimen refrigerated overnight is cloudy and has a pH of 6. The turbidity is probably due to:_____________________________ Amorphous urates

A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0 indicates that the patient should be:

A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0 indicates that the patient should be: asked to collect a new specimen

A urine that turns black after standing may contain: a. Homogentisic acid b. Melanin c. Methemoglobin d. All of the above.

A vaginal fluid collection kit is dropped off in the laboratory for analysis and the technologist notices condensation inside the biohazard bag. Which of the following tests cannot be performed? A. Trichomonas motility testing B. HSV testing C. C. trachomatis testing D. Atropic vaginitis

A vaginal fluid collection kit is dropped off in the laboratory for analysis and the technologist notices condensation inside the biohazard bag. Which of the following tests cannot be performed? A. Trichomonas motility testing

A vaginal fluid was collected from a 25-year-old female that showed the following results: appearance is pink with flocculent discharge, pH is 3.9, whiff test is negative, many Gram-positive rods, clue cells are absent. What is your interpretation of these results? A. Patient has a possible bacterial infection B. Patient has a possible yeast infection C. Patient is normal and is menstruating D. Patient has a possible Trichomonas infection

A vaginal fluid was collected from a 25-year-old female that showed the following results: appearance is pink with flocculent discharge, pH is 3.9, whiff test is negative, many Gram-positive rods, clue cells are absent. What is your interpretation of these results? C. Patient is normal and is menstruating

A vaginal pH value of 6.0 could indicate which of the following conditions? A. Normal condition B. Bacterial infection C. Yeast infection D. Increased estrogen production

A vaginal pH value of 6.0 could indicate which of the following conditions? B. Bacterial infection

A weakly reactive anti-D was detected in a sample from a D-negative mother one day following delivery of a D-negative baby. Based on these results the lab should: titer the anti-D perform a rosette test review records for prenatal RhIG administration administer RhIG

A weakly reactive anti-D was detected in a sample from a D-negative mother one day following delivery of a D-negative baby. Based on these results the lab should: review records for prenatal RhIG administration

A weakly reactive anti-D was detected in a sample from a D-negative mother one day following delivery of a D-negative baby. Based on these results, what is the next step? A) Titer the anti-D B) Perform a rosette test C) Review records for prenatal RhIG administration D) Administer RhIG

A weakly reactive anti-D was detected in a sample from a D-negative mother one day following delivery of a D-negative baby. Based on these results, what is the next step? C) Review records for prenatal RhIG administration

A woman in her 20s goes to her physician complaining of burning upon urination, frequency, and general malaise. Her physician does a urine culture, and it grows out 25,000 colony-forming units (CFU)/mL of a catalase-positive, coagulase-negative, novobiocin-resistant gram-positive cocci. What is the most likely pathogen?__________________________________________

A woman in her 20s goes to her physician complaining of burning upon urination, frequency, and general malaise. Her physician does a urine culture, and it grows out 25,000 colony-forming units (CFU)/mL of a catalase-positive, coagulase-negative, novobiocin-resistant gram-positive cocci. What is the most likely pathogen? Staphylococcus saprophyticus

A xanthochromic CSF specimen will appear: A. Crystal clear B. White and turbid C. Yellow and clear D. Red and turbid

A xanthochromic CSF specimen will appear: C. Yellow and clear

A yellow-brown specimen that produces a yellow foam when shaken can be suspected of containing: __________________________________

A yellow-brown specimen that produces a yellow foam when shaken can be suspected of containing: Bilirubin

A young adult goes to the emergency room complaining of headache, dizziness, stiff neck, and purpura with a petechial skin rash. What two tests should the physician immediately perform? a. Skin scraping and pupil dilation b. Genital and throat culture c. Urine and blood culture d. Blood and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) culture

A young adult goes to the emergency room complaining of headache, dizziness, stiff neck, and purpura with a petechial skin rash. What two tests should the physician immediately perform? d. Blood and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) culture

A young girl goes to her doctor's office with a fever, headache, and a sore throat. The mother states the girl has a fever of 38.8° C (102° F). What test should the physician perform? a. Throat culture b. Antistreptolysin O c. Optochin d. Gram stain

A young girl goes to her doctor's office with a fever, headache, and a sore throat. The mother states the girl has a fever of 38.8° C (102° F). What test should the physician perform? a. Throat culture

A young girl is brought to her physician by her mother, who says the child has been very sluggish with a fever of 38° C (100.5 F) for a week. The mother noticed that the child's tonsils were red and that yesterday the back of her throat turned a gray color and looked to have a gray membrane on it. What disease should the physician suspect? a. Strep throat b. Tonsillitis c. Diphtheria d. Scarlet fever

A young girl is brought to her physician by her mother, who says the child has been very sluggish with a fever of 38° C (100.5 F) for a week. The mother noticed that the child's tonsils were red and that yesterday the back of her throat turned a gray color and looked to have a gray membrane on it. What disease should the physician suspect? c. Diphtheria

A young man goes to his doctor complaining of a discharge from his penis. The doctor collects a slide for Gram stain and a swab for culture and sends them to the laboratory. The Gram stain is prepared and read: > 25 wbc/hpf, no bacteria seen. The culture results after 48 hours show no growth. What is the most probable diagnosis and the organism responsible? (Need two answers)

A young man goes to his doctor complaining of a discharge from his penis. The doctor collects a slide for Gram stain and a swab for culture and sends them to the laboratory. The Gram stain is prepared and read: > 25 wbc/hpf, no bacteria seen. The culture results after 48 hours show no growth. What is the most probable diagnosis and the organism responsible? (Need two answers) Chlamydia trachomatis Nongonococcal urethritis

A young man goes to his physician complaining of large, raised, suppurative abscesses on his neck. The man denies having a fever or the chills. What is the name of the lesions on his neck, and what organism causes this type of lesions? a. Staphylococcus epidermidis and boils b. S. aureus and furuncles c. S. saprophyticus and carbuncles d. S. sciuri and folliculitis

A young man goes to his physician complaining of large, raised, suppurative abscesses on his neck. The man denies having a fever or the chills. What is the name of the lesions on his neck, and what organism causes this type of lesions? b. S. aureus and furuncles

A young woman goes to her doctor complaining of dysuria, frequency, urgency, and suprapubic pain. A urinalysis shows hematuria, positive protein, positive leukocyte esterase, and a positive nitrite. What is a probable diagnosis?

A young woman goes to her doctor complaining of dysuria, frequency, urgency, and suprapubic pain. A urinalysis shows hematuria, positive protein, positive leukocyte esterase, and a positive nitrite. What is a probable diagnosis? Urinary Tract Infection (UTI)

A young woman notices a bruise that looks like an erythema chronicum migrans lesion on her lower leg. She cannot remember getting bruised, even though she went hiking through the woods last weekend. The bruise goes away in about a week and she thinks nothing more about it. About 2 weeks later, she begins to feel very bad. She has joint and bone pain, extreme fatigue, and her heart just "doesn't feel right." What disease does she have, and what antibiotic is used to treat it?

A young woman notices a bruise that looks like an erythema chronicum migrans lesion on her lower leg. She cannot remember getting bruised, even though she went hiking through the woods last weekend. The bruise goes away in about a week and she thinks nothing more about it. About 2 weeks later, she begins to feel very bad. She has joint and bone pain, extreme fatigue, and her heart just "doesn't feel right." What disease does she have, and what antibiotic is used to treat it? Lyme disease Doxycycline

A young, healthy patient goes into the hospital for reconstructive knee surgery and spikes a fever the day after surgery. The doctor finds the patient has a nosocomial infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). What antibiotic should the doctor use to treat this patient?___________________________________________

A young, healthy patient goes into the hospital for reconstructive knee surgery and spikes a fever the day after surgery. The doctor finds the patient has a nosocomial infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). What antibiotic should the doctor use to treat this patient?___________________________________________ Vancomycin

A young, healthy woman was rushed to the hospital with a high fever, hypotension, and shock. She hadn't been feeling well that day, but her condition progressively worsened throughout the day. She was feeling fine until a couple days after she started menstruating. What condition could this woman be exhibiting?

A young, healthy woman was rushed to the hospital with a high fever, hypotension, and shock. She hadn't been feeling well that day, but her condition progressively worsened throughout the day. She was feeling fine until a couple days after she started menstruating. What condition could this woman be exhibiting? toxic shock syndrome

A zone of inhibition is: a. The area on the agar plate where the drug no longer diffuses into the agar b. The area around the antibiotic disk where the bacteria cannot not grow c. The zone around the edge of the plate where the streaking does not cover the agar and bacterial growth is inhibited d. All of the above

A zone of inhibition is: b. The area around the antibiotic disk where the bacteria cannot not grow

How is it genetically possible for a child to phenotype as D-negative? A) Both parents are heterozygous D-positive. B) Both parents are homozygous D-positive. C) Mom is homozygous D-positive, and Dad is heterozygous D-positive. D) The sibling is D-positive.

A) Both parents are heterozygous D-positive.

RT-PCR involves which of the following? Reverse transcription DNA isolation Product analysis PCR amplification A, C, D All of the above

A, C, D

How is contamination in DNA absorbance determined? 280/A260 A260/A280 A260 x dilution x 50 A260 x dilution x 40

A260/A280

Abnormal conditions that may indicate the presence of bacteremia include all of the following except: a. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) b. Thrombocytopenia c. Coagulopathy d. Anemia

Abnormal conditions that may indicate the presence of bacteremia include all of the following except: d. Anemia

Abnormal crystals are most frequently seen in a urine that is: (what characteristic)_________________

Abnormal crystals are most frequently seen in a urine that is: (what characteristic)_________________ Acidic

According to Landsteiner's rule (law), what ABO antibody will be detected in a group A individual's serum? A) Anti-A B) Anti-B C) Anti-A,B D) None

According to Landsteiner's rule (law), what ABO antibody will be detected in a group A individual's serum? B) Anti-B According to Landsteiner, a person is expected to demonstrate the ABO antibody to the antigen he or she lacks on the red cells.

Accurate epidemiologic surveillance of specific organisms is needed for all the following reasons, except: a. Increase the rates of toxin-producing bacteria b. The spread of pathogenic microbes across the world c. The increase in nosocomial infections d. The rise of large numbers of antibiotic resistant isolates

Accurate epidemiologic surveillance of specific organisms is needed for all the following reasons, except: c. The increase in nosocomial infections

Acquired mechanisms of resistance are those that: a. Are passed on from one bacteria to the next using pili b. Are the result of a frameshift mutation in chromosomal DNA c. Result from acquisition of DNA by acquisition of extrachromosomal DNA d. Passed on from generation to generation.

Acquired mechanisms of resistance are those that: c. Result from acquisition of DNA by acquisition of extrachromosomal DNA

Actual laboratory testing is called a(n):

Actual laboratory testing is called a(n): Analytical activity

Acute renal failure may be classified as all of the following except: A. Rapidly progressive B. Prerenal C. Renal D. Postrenal

Acute renal failure may be classified as all of the following except: A. Rapidly progressive

Addition of which of the following will increase the shelf life of red blood cells? A) Heparin B) AS-3 C) Lactated Ringer's D) Citrate

Addition of which of the following will increase the shelf life of red blood cells? B) AS-3

Which base pairs with Thymine? Adenine Cytosine Guanine Uracil

Adenine

Aerobes are bacteria that grow: a. In low oxygen tension b. In high carbon dioxide concentrations c. In high nitrogen concentrations d. In ambient air

Aerobes are bacteria that grow: d. In ambient air

After 24 hours, a sheep blood agar (SBA) from a vaginal culture is read. The SBA has alpah-hemolytic, pinpoint, rough colonies all over the plate. A catalase test is performed, and it is negative. What organisms do these characteristics fit? a. Lactobacillus and viridans streptococci b. Diphtheroids and rhodococci c. Staphylococcus and Listeria d. Corynebacterium and Arcanobacterium

After 24 hours, a sheep blood agar (SBA) from a vaginal culture is read. The SBA has alpah-hemolytic, pinpoint, rough colonies all over the plate. A catalase test is performed, and it is negative. What organisms do these characteristics fit? a. Lactobacillus and viridans streptococci

After accidently being stuck with a contaminated needle, the first action should be: File an incident report Seek immediate medical assistance Wash the wound with soap and water Bandage the wound

After accidently being stuck with a contaminated needle, the first action should be: Wash the wound with soap and water

After adding antigen and antibody to a test tube, one large agglutinate was observed. How should this reaction be graded?

After adding antigen and antibody to a test tube, one large agglutinate was observed. How should this reaction be graded? 4+

After eating beets purchased at the local farmers' market, Mrs. Williams notices that her urine is red, but Mr. Williams's urine remains yellow. The Williams should: a. Be concerned because red urine always indicates the presence of blood b. Not be concerned because all women produce red urine after eating beets c. Be concerned because both of them should have red urine if beets are the cause d. Not be concerned because only Mrs. Williams is genetically susceptible to producing red urine from beets

After eating beets purchased at the local farmers' market, Mrs. Williams notices that her urine is red, but Mr. Williams's urine remains yellow. The Williams should: d. Not be concerned because only Mrs. Williams is genetically susceptible to producing red urine from beets

After using the phone, the laboratory tech sprayed the receiver with a chemical spray. This process will kill a defined scope of microorganisms. What is this process called? ___________________________

After using the phone, the laboratory tech sprayed the receiver with a chemical spray. This process will kill a defined scope of microorganisms. What is this process called? Disinfection

Alcohols use what mechanism to inactivate microorganisms? A) Denature proteins B) Destroy DNA C) Denature RNA D) Inhibit cell wall synthesis

Alcohols use what mechanism to inactivate microorganisms? A) Denature proteins

All Neisseria spp. are generally all of the following EXCEPT: a. Motile b. Aerobic c. Oxidase positive d. Catalase positive

All Neisseria spp. are generally all of the following EXCEPT: a. Motile

All accidents, even minor ones, must be reported to a supervisor. A. True B. False

All accidents, even minor ones, must be reported to a supervisor. A. True

Human genome consists of: Diploid copy number 23 chromosome pairs Linear chromosomes All of the above

All of the above

The migration of a molecule through a gel matrix depends on: Pore size of gel Charge of molecule Size of molecule All of the above

All of the above

All of the following additional patient history questions will help narrow the search for the pathogen EXCEPT: a. Does the patient have a history of previous gastrointestinal symptoms? b. Did the patient eat any hot food? c. Does the patient have an underlying illness? d. Is the patient taking any medication?

All of the following additional patient history questions will help narrow the search for the pathogen EXCEPT: b. Did the patient eat any hot food?

All of the following affect the formation of crystals except: A. Urine specific gravity B. Urine pH C. Urinary casts D. Urine temperature

All of the following affect the formation of crystals except: C. Urinary casts

All of the following are antigens present in a hepatitis B infection EXCEPT: a. HBsAg b. HBcAg c. HBeAg d. VCNA

All of the following are antigens present in a hepatitis B infection EXCEPT: d. VCNA

All of the following are approaches to treating anaerobic infections EXCEPT: a. Surgical therapy b. Hyperbaric oxygen c. Antitoxins d. Enzyme inactivators

All of the following are approaches to treating anaerobic infections EXCEPT: d. Enzyme inactivators

All of the following are biochemical tests for the identification of Mycobacterium spp. EXCEPT: a. Niacin b. Nitrate c. Catalase d. PYR

All of the following are biochemical tests for the identification of Mycobacterium spp. EXCEPT: d. PYR

All of the following are characteristics of Shigella spp. EXCEPT: a. Nonmotile b. Urea positive c. Hydrogen sulfide negative d. Lysine decarboxylase negative

All of the following are characteristics of Shigella spp. EXCEPT: b. Urea positive

All of the following are common characteristics of ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn except: A) weak positive direct antiglobulin test. B) the mother is group A. C) the antibody on the infant's cells is anti-A,B. D) mild clinical symptoms.

All of the following are common characteristics of ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn except: B) the mother is group A.

All of the following are common fungal causes of central nervous system (CNS) infection EXCEPT: a. Cryptococcus neoformans b. Coccidioides immitis c. Candida albicans d. Histoplasma capsulatum

All of the following are common fungal causes of central nervous system (CNS) infection EXCEPT: c. Candida albicans

All of the following are common problems associated with using serologic methods to diagnose viral infections except: a. the host does not produce specific antibodies to viruses. b. serologic assays measure host response rather than directly detecting the virus. c. the antibody-producing capabilities of human hosts vary widely. d. the antibody level does not correlate with the activity level of the infection.

All of the following are common problems associated with using serologic methods to diagnose viral infections except: a. the host does not produce specific antibodies to viruses.

All of the following are examples of dimorphic fungi EXCEPT: A) Candida albicans B) Coccidioides immitis C) Histoplasma capsulatum D) Sporothrix schenckii

All of the following are examples of dimorphic fungi EXCEPT: A) Candida albicans

All of the following are examples of personal protective equipment (PPE) EXCEPT: A) Gloves B) Lab coats C) Safety glasses D) Prescription glasses

All of the following are examples of personal protective equipment (PPE) EXCEPT: D) Prescription glasses

All of the following are examples of suboptimal specimens that must be rejected EXCEPT: a. The information on the requisition does not match the information on the specimen label. b. The specimen is for a Neisseria gonorrhea (GC) culture and submitted in a JEMBEC system .c. The specimen container is leaking when received in the laboratory. d. The specimen is received in a fixative solution such as formalin.

All of the following are examples of suboptimal specimens that must be rejected EXCEPT: b. The specimen is for a Neisseria gonorrhea (GC) culture and submitted in a JEMBEC system

All of the following are functions of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) except: A. Nutritional enrichment of nervous tissue B. Transmission of neurologic impulses C. Removal of metabolic waste products D. Protection of neurologic tissue from trauma

All of the following are functions of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) except: B. Transmission of neurologic impulses

All of the following are goals of an exchange transfusion except to: A) correct anemia. B) remove high levels of unconjugated bilirubin. C) remove high levels of maternal antibody. D) restore the platelet count.

All of the following are goals of an exchange transfusion except to: D) restore the platelet count.

All of the following are hepatitis antibodies EXCEPT: a. EBNA b. HBsAb c. HBcAb d. HBeAb

All of the following are hepatitis antibodies EXCEPT: a. EBNA

All of the following are non-spore-forming, anaerobic, gram-positive bacilli EXCEPT: a. Actinomyces b. Bifidobacterium c. Eubacterium d. Clostridium

All of the following are non-spore-forming, anaerobic, gram-positive bacilli EXCEPT: d. Clostridium

All of the following are rapid methods used to definitively identify Legionella species EXCEPT: a. Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) b. DNA detection c. Indirect immunofluorescence d. Urine antigen testing

All of the following are rapid methods used to definitively identify Legionella species EXCEPT: c. Indirect immunofluorescence

All of the following are reasons why institutionalized patients have more urinary tract infections (UTIs) than noninstitutionalized patients EXCEPT: a. General ill condition of institutionalize patients b. Less frequent emptying of the bladder c. Higher probability of urinary tract instrumentation d. Higher incidence of urinary tract anatomic or functional abnormalities.

All of the following are reasons why institutionalized patients have more urinary tract infections (UTIs) than noninstitutionalized patients EXCEPT: b. Less frequent emptying of the bladder

All of the following are reported as the quantity per high-power field except: A. Casts B. Red blood cells (RBCs) C. White blood cells (WBCs) D. Bacteria

All of the following are reported as the quantity per high-power field except: A. Casts

All of the following are responsibilities of the quality assurance department of a blood bank except: A. performing internal audits. B. performing quality control. C. reviewing standard operating procedures. D. reviewing and approving training programs.

All of the following are responsibilities of the quality assurance department of a blood bank except: B. performing quality control.

All of the following are symptoms of salmonellosis that may appear 8 to 36 hours after ingestion of contaminated food EXCEPT: a. Nausea b. Vomiting c. Headache d. Watery diarrhea

All of the following are symptoms of salmonellosis that may appear 8 to 36 hours after ingestion of contaminated food EXCEPT: c. Headache

All of the following are symptoms of tertiary syphilis EXCEPT: a. Gummas in the skin, bones, and liver b. Encephalitis c. Aortitis d. Aortic valve insufficiency

All of the following are symptoms of tertiary syphilis EXCEPT: b. Encephalitis

All of the following are tests frequently performed on synovial fluid except: A. Gram stain B. WBC count C. Uric acid D. Differential

All of the following are tests frequently performed on synovial fluid except: C. Uric acid

All of the following are traditional characteristics used to identify mycobacteria EXCEPT: a. Rate of growth b. Colony morphology c. Gram stain results d. Pigmentation

All of the following are traditional characteristics used to identify mycobacteria EXCEPT: c. Gram stain results

All of the following are true about waxy casts except they: Represent extreme urine stasis May have a brittle consistency Require staining to be visualized Contain degenerated granules

All of the following are true about waxy casts except they: Require staining to be visualized

All of the following are true regarding competency testing except: A. it must be performed following training. B. it must be performed on an annual basis. C. it is required only if the technologist has no experience. D. retraining is required if there is a failure in competency testing.

All of the following are true regarding competency testing except: C. it is required only if the technologist has no experience.

All of the following can cause crystals to be present in the synovial fluid except: A. Metabolic disorders B. Increased ingestion of dairy products C. Degeneration of cartilage D. Injection of medications

All of the following can cause crystals to be present in the synovial fluid except: B. Increased ingestion of dairy products

All of the following can cause the D antigen expression to be weaker except: A) inheriting the G gene. B) inheriting the C antigen in trans to the D antigen. C) an RHD gene that is genetically weaker. D) partial D expression.

All of the following can cause the D antigen expression to be weaker except: A) inheriting the G gene.

All of the following cellular elements can be seen in patients with candidiasis, except: A. Clue cells B. White blood cells C. Epithelial cells D. Budding yeast

All of the following cellular elements can be seen in patients with candidiasis, except: A. Clue cells

All of the following characteristics are used to describe bacterial colony characteristics EXCEPT: a. Temperature b. Hemolysis c. Color d. Elevation

All of the following characteristics are used to describe bacterial colony characteristics EXCEPT: a. Temperature

All of the following crystals can be found in acid urine except: A. Cholesterol B. Tyrosine C. Cystine D. Ammonium biurate

All of the following crystals can be found in acid urine except: D. Ammonium biurate

All of the following descriptions apply to orthostatic proteinuria except: A. Most commonly appears in young adults B. Usually occurs without apparent disease C. Urinary proteins are excreted only when the patient is lying down D. Is considered to be a functional, transitory proteinuria

All of the following descriptions apply to orthostatic proteinuria except: C. Urinary proteins are excreted only when the patient is lying down A. Most commonly appears in young adults B. Usually occurs without apparent disease D. Is considered to be a functional, transitory proteinuria

All of the following diseases are associated with Chlamydia trachomatis except: a. undulant fever b. urethritis c. conjunctivitis d. lymphogranuloma venereum

All of the following diseases are associated with Chlamydia trachomatis except: a. undulant fever

All of the following diseases are produced by Treponema EXCEPT: a. Syphilis b. Elephantiasis c. Yaws d. Pinta

All of the following diseases are produced by Treponema EXCEPT: b. Elephantiasis

All of the following factors are associated with an unfavorable outcome in bacteremia EXCEPT: a. Pneumonia b. Polymicrobial bacteremia c. Presence of malignancy d. AIDS

All of the following factors are associated with an unfavorable outcome in bacteremia EXCEPT: a. Pneumonia

All of the following factors can help the microbiologist differentiate between colonization and infection, EXCEPT: a. Presence of a pure culture or mixed florae on the culture plates b. Method and site of collection of the specimen c. Presence of white blood cells (WBCs) and the number of organisms seen on Gram stain d. A compatible clinical syndrome

All of the following factors can help the microbiologist differentiate between colonization and infection, EXCEPT: a. Presence of a pure culture or mixed florae on the culture plates

All of the following factors determine whether a pathogen can cause disease in the eye EXCEPT: a. Immune status of host b. Health of normal flora c. Integrity of underlying tissue d. Host's immune system

All of the following factors determine whether a pathogen can cause disease in the eye EXCEPT: b. Health of normal flora

All of the following features should be considered in a urinary tract infection (UTI) workup EXCEPT: a. Colony count of a pure or predominant organism b. Measurement of pyuria c. Presence or absence of symptoms d. Nitrite positive

All of the following features should be considered in a urinary tract infection (UTI) workup EXCEPT: d. Nitrite positive

All of the following is used to describe the colonial morphology of Staphylococcus epidermidis EXCEPT: a. Gamma-Hemolytic b. Beta-Hemolytic c. White d. Small to medium

All of the following is used to describe the colonial morphology of Staphylococcus epidermidis EXCEPT: b. Beta-Hemolytic

All of the following may be helpful in preventing the formation of renal calculi except: A. Increased hydration B. Increased exercise C. Dietary restrictions D. Adjustment of urine pH

All of the following may be helpful in preventing the formation of renal calculi except: B. Increased exercise

All of the following may be seen in the urine following strenuous exercise except: A. Protein B. Glucose C. Hyaline casts D. Granular casts

All of the following may be seen in the urine following strenuous exercise except: B. Glucose

All of the following may produce false-negative glucose reactions except: A. Detergent contamination B. B. Ascorbic acid C. C. Unpreserved specimens D. Low urine temperature

All of the following nonamplified typing techniques are used to differentiate strains of an organism, except: (Bonus question) a. Southern blotting b. Pulse-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE). c. Multilocus sequence typing d. Plasmid profile analysis

All of the following nonamplified typing techniques are used to differentiate strains of an organism, except: (Bonus question) c. Multilocus sequence typing

All of the following organisms are colonizers of indwelling catheters EXCEPT: a. Coagulase-negative staphylococci b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Enterococcus spp.

All of the following organisms are colonizers of indwelling catheters EXCEPT: b. Streptococcus pyogenes

All of the following organisms are common in pneumonia and typically produce a concurrent bacteremia EXCEPT: a. Enterobacter aerogenes b. Escherichia coli c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Staphylococcus aureus

All of the following organisms are common in pneumonia and typically produce a concurrent bacteremia EXCEPT: b. Escherichia coli

All of the following organisms are found on the skin EXCEPT: a. Propionibacterium b. Peptostreptococcus c. Eubacterium d. Clostridium

All of the following organisms are found on the skin EXCEPT: d. Clostridium

All of the following organisms can cause enterotoxin-mediated diarrhea EXCEPT: a. Salmonella typhi b. Clostridium perfringens c. Vibrio cholera d. Staphylococcus aureus

All of the following organisms can cause enterotoxin-mediated diarrhea EXCEPT: a. Salmonella typhi

All of the following organisms can typically cause infection from aerosolization of specimens EXCEPT: A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis B) Brucella spp. C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Francisella tularensis

All of the following organisms can typically cause infection from aerosolization of specimens EXCEPT: C) Staphylococcus aureus

All of the following organisms commonly cause meningitis EXCEPT: a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Haemophilus influenza d. Neisseria meningitides

All of the following organisms commonly cause meningitis EXCEPT: b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

All of the following primary cells are seen in normal synovial fluid except: A. Macrophages B. Neutrophils C. Monocytes D. Synovial tissue cells

All of the following primary cells are seen in normal synovial fluid except: B. Neutrophils

All of the following procedures should be performed on clinical specimens to recover anaerobic bacteria EXCEPT: a. Specimen plating on appropriate tubed and plated media b. Anaerobic incubation c. Kinyoun stain d. Gram stain

All of the following procedures should be performed on clinical specimens to recover anaerobic bacteria EXCEPT: c. Kinyoun stain

All of the following specimens are acceptable for a urine culture except: 1) Catheterized specimen 2) Timed specimen 3) Suprapubic aspiration 4) Midstream clean-catch specimen

All of the following specimens are acceptable for a urine culture except: 2) Timed specimen

All of the following statements on synovial fluid are true except that it: A. Surrounds all joints in the body B. Is found only in the knee C. Acts as a lubricant D. Supplies nourishment to cartilage

All of the following statements on synovial fluid are true except that it: B. Is found only in the knee

All of the following steps should be used to prepare a smear from thick, granular, or mucoid materials EXCEPT: a. Place a portion of the sample on the labeled slide, and press a second slide onto the sample to flatten or crush the components. b. Once the material is flattened and sufficiently thinned, pull the glass slides smoothly away from each other to produce two smears. c. Take an additional swab and rub it back and forth on the two glass slides to ensure the material is thin enough to read once it is stained. d. If the material is still too thick, repeat the first three steps with another (third) glass slide.

All of the following steps should be used to prepare a smear from thick, granular, or mucoid materials EXCEPT: c. Take an additional swab and rub it back and forth on the two glass slides to ensure the material is thin enough to read once it is stained.

All of the following will cause false-positive protein reagent strip values except: Proteins other than albumin Highly buffered alkaline urines Delay in removing the reagent strip from the specimen Contamination by quartenary ammonium compounds

All of the following will cause false-positive protein reagent strip values except: Proteins other than albumin

All of the following will produce a positive leukocyte esterase (LE) reaction except: A. Monocytes B. Trichomonas C. Neutrophils D. Lymphocytes

All of the following will produce a positive leukocyte esterase (LE) reaction except: D. Lymphocytes

All of the following will produce an alkaline urine except: A. Lettuce B. Cranberry juice C. Green beans D. Tomatoes

All of the following will produce an alkaline urine except: B. Cranberry juice

All precipitation tests must be performed on ____________specimens to remove any extraneous contamination.

All precipitation tests must be performed on ____________specimens to remove any extraneous contamination. centrifuged

All refrigerators, freezers, and platelet incubators must have which of the following: A) Recording devices to monitor temperature at least every 4 hours. B) Audible alarms to ensure a response 24 hours a day. C) Emergency Power Back up systems D) All of the above

All specimens must be transported: a. In leak-proof secondary containers b. In syringes with needles attached c. In a tube of broth d. In a latex glove

All specimens must be transported: a. In leak-proof secondary containers

All the following activities must occur for phagocytosis to take place and be effective in host defense except: a. attachment of the particle to the phagocyte. b. ingestion. c. killing. d. migration of lymphocytes to the area of infection (chemotaxis).

All the following activities must occur for phagocytosis to take place and be effective in host defense except: d. migration of lymphocytes to the area of infection (chemotaxis).

All the following are biochemical features of Salmonella EXCEPT: a. Lactose positive b. Indole negative c. Hydrogen sulfide positive d. Voges-Proskauer (VP) negative

All the following are biochemical features of Salmonella EXCEPT: a. Lactose positive

All the following are direct methods for diagnosing viral infections except: a. indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA). b. direct fluorescent antibody (DFA). c. radioimmunoassay (RIA). d. enzyme immunoassay (EIA).

All the following are direct methods for diagnosing viral infections except: c. radioimmunoassay (RIA).

All the following are general characteristics of the genus Bacillus EXCEPT: a. Aerobic b. Gram positive c. Form endospores d. Cocci

All the following are general characteristics of the genus Bacillus EXCEPT: d. Cocci

All the following are laboratory-associated problems related to identifying biofilm-associated diseases EXCEPT: a. False-positive cultures b. False-negative cultures c. Viable but noncultural organisms d. Loss of or decreased antimicrobial susceptibility

All the following are laboratory-associated problems related to identifying biofilm-associated diseases EXCEPT: a. False-positive cultures

All the following are types of media except: a. selective. b. differential. c. fastidious. d. transport.

All the following are types of media except: c. fastidious.

All the following factors play a significant role in the selection and implementation of the appropriate method of disinfection EXCEPT: A) Temperature B) Contact time C) Biofilms D) Humidity

All the following factors play a significant role in the selection and implementation of the appropriate method of disinfection EXCEPT: D) Humidity

All the following methods are used by the laboratory to diagnose viral infections except: a. chemiluminescence b. direct detection. c. culture. d. serologic assays.

All the following methods are used by the laboratory to diagnose viral infections except: a. chemiluminescence

All the following organisms are found in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract EXCEPT: a. Bacteroides b. Clostridium c. Propionibacterium d. Bifidobacterium

All the following organisms are found in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract EXCEPT: c. Propionibacterium

All the following organisms invade the bowel mucosal surface to produce diarrhea EXCEPT: a. Salmonella spp. b. Vibrio cholera c. Campylobacter spp. d. Shigella spp.

All the following organisms invade the bowel mucosal surface to produce diarrhea EXCEPT: b. Vibrio cholera

All the following statements are true regarding Lewis system antibodies except antibodies: A) may be observed at the immediate-spin, 37° C, and antihuman globulin phases. B) can be neutralized by Lewis substance. C) may cause hemolysis in vitro. D) do not react following enzyme treatment of cells.

All the following tests should be performed by sentinel laboratories to rule out the possibility of Bacillus anthracis from an isolate EXCEPT: a. Gram stain b. Glucose fermentation c. Catalase d. Motility

All the following tests should be performed by sentinel laboratories to rule out the possibility of Bacillus anthracis from an isolate EXCEPT: b. Glucose fermentation

Allogeneic whole blood donors may donate every __________ days. A) 24 B) 36 C) 56 D) 72

Allogeneic whole blood donors may donate every __________ days. C) 56

Alpha-Hemolysis is:______________________________________________________

Alpha-Hemolysis is: Partial lysing of erythrocytes in a blood agar plate around and under the colony

Amniotic fluid analysis showed a marked increase into zone III of the Liley graph. Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratios indicated that the fetal lungs were not mature. Select the most appropriate decision regarding medical intervention. A) No immediate need for intervention B) An intrauterine transfusion C) Delivery by cesarean section D) None of the above

Amniotic fluid analysis showed a marked increase into zone III of the Liley graph. Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratios indicated that the fetal lungs were not mature. Select the most appropriate decision regarding medical intervention. B) An intrauterine transfusion

Amniotic fluid for fetal lung maturity testing should be preserved: a) In the refrigerator b) At room temperature c) In a dark container d) At 37C

Amniotic fluid for fetal lung maturity testing should be preserved: a) In the refrigerator

Amniotic fluid is formed by all of the following except: a) Fetal urine b) Fetal cell metabolism c) Fetal swallowing d) Transfer of water across the placenta

Amniotic fluid is formed by all of the following except: c) Fetal swallowing

Amniotic fluid tests for determining fetal lung maturity include: a) Bilirubin and urea b) Bilirubin and lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio c) L/S ratio and lamellar bodies d) Creatinine and urea

Amniotic fluid tests for determining fetal lung maturity include: c) L/S ratio and lamellar bodies

Amniotic fluid that is being tested for bilirubin should be protected from _________

Amniotic fluid that is being tested for bilirubin should be protected from _________ light

An 80-year-old woman is admitted from a nursing home where she has been sick with a cough and fever for two days. She is coughing up thick, rust-colored sputum. The physician prescribed penicillin, but she is not getting any better. What is her most probable diagnosis? a. Viral pneumonia b. Pneumococcal pneumonia with penicillin-resistant organism c. Enterococcal pneumonia with vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE) d. S. agalactiae infection

An 80-year-old woman is admitted from a nursing home where she has been sick with a cough and fever for two days. She is coughing up thick, rust-colored sputum. The physician prescribed penicillin, but she is not getting any better. What is her most probable diagnosis? b. Pneumococcal pneumonia with penicillin-resistant organism

An advantage in using the Acetest tablet test for ketones is the ability to:_________________________

An advantage in using the Acetest tablet test for ketones is the ability to:_________________________ Tests serum and urine

An alkaline urine turns black upon standing, develops a cloudy white precipitate, and has a specific gravity of 1.012. The major concern about this specimen would be: a. Color b. Turbidity c. Specific gravity d. All of the above

An alkaline urine turns black upon standing, develops a cloudy white precipitate, and has a specific gravity of 1.012. The major concern about this specimen would be: a. Color

An alternative to the catheterized specimen is the: 1) Fasting specimen 2) First morning specimen 3) Midstream clean-catch specimen 4) Three glass collection

An alternative to the catheterized specimen is the: 3) Midstream clean-catch specimen

An amniocentesis is performed on a woman believed to be at approximately 15 weeks gestation. A possible abnormality has been observed on her sonogram, and her serum alpha fetoprotein is elevated. What type of fetal distress is suspected? a) Hemolytic disease of the newborn b) Polyhydramnios c) Oligohydramnios d) Neural tube disorder

An amniocentesis is performed on a woman believed to be at approximately 15 weeks gestation. A possible abnormality has been observed on her sonogram, and her serum alpha fetoprotein is elevated. What type of fetal distress is suspected? d) Neural tube disorder

An amniocentesis is performed on a woman whose last two pregnancies have resulted in stillbirths due to hemolytic disease of the newborn. A screening test performed at the hospital is positive for bilirubin, and the specimen is sent to a reference laboratory for a bilirubin scan. Doctors are concerned when the report comes back negative, and they question if the: a) Correct specimen was sent b) Specimen was refrigerated c) Specimen was exposed to light d) Specimen reached the reference laboratory within 30 minutes

An amniocentesis is performed on a woman whose last two pregnancies have resulted in stillbirths due to hemolytic disease of the newborn. A screening test performed at the hospital is positive for bilirubin, and the specimen is sent to a reference laboratory for a bilirubin scan. Doctors are concerned when the report comes back negative, and they question if the: c) Specimen was exposed to light

An animal attendant at the zoo became ill. Symptoms included fever, chills, headache, severe myalgia, and malaise. This person's urinalysis was abnormal with protein and blood present. A couple of weeks earlier, the attendant was urinated on by a chimpanzee. What is the most likely cause of his illness?

An animal attendant at the zoo became ill. Symptoms included fever, chills, headache, severe myalgia, and malaise. This person's urinalysis was abnormal with protein and blood present. A couple of weeks earlier, the attendant was urinated on by a chimpanzee. What is the most likely cause of his illness? Leptospira

An antibody identified in the transfusion service appeared to be reacting stronger following the second exposure to an antigen from a transfusion. The most likely explanation of this observation is: 1. affinity maturation of the immunoglobulin molecule. 2. anamnestic response. 3. isotype switching. 4. All of the above

An antibody screen on a patient with a prior history of transfusion was negative. The crossmatch was incompatible with 1 unit selected at AHG phase. The next step in the investigation would be to: perform a prewarm procedure for crossmatching perform a direct antiglobulin test on the incompatible unit redraw the patient and begin a new crossmatch crossmatch a new unit and discard the incompatible unit

An antibody screen on a patient with a prior history of transfusion was negative. The crossmatch was incompatible with 1 unit selected at AHG phase. The next step in the investigation would be to: perform a direct antiglobulin test on the incompatible unit

An antibody screen on a patient with a prior history of transfusion was negative. The patient had an indication to perform an AHG crossmatch on file. The crossmatch was incompatible with 1 of 5 units selected at AHG phase. What is the next step in the investigation? A) Perform a prewarm procedure for crossmatching B) Perform a direct antiglobulin test on the incompatible unit C) Redraw the patient and begin a new crossmatch D) Crossmatch a new unit and discard the incompatible unit

An antibody screen on a patient with a prior history of transfusion was negative. The patient had an indication to perform an AHG crossmatch on file. The crossmatch was incompatible with 1 of 5 units selected at AHG phase. What is the next step in the investigation? B) Perform a direct antiglobulin test on the incompatible unit

An antibody was detected at immediate-spin and 37° C that appeared to have anti-Leb specificity. To confirm the antibody identity and determine if there were other antibodies in the serum, a Lewis neutralization technique was performed. Patient serum + Lewis substance = 0 Patient serum + saline control = 1+ Neutralized serum + Fy(a+b+) red cell = 0 What conclusion can be made from these results? a. Anti-Leb is confirmed. b. Antibody was diluted, therefore no conclusion can be made. c. Antibody was not neutralized, therefore anti-Leb has not been identified d. Antibody other than anti-Leb is most likely in the serum.

An antibody was detected at immediate-spin and 37° C that appeared to have anti-Leb specificity. To confirm the antibody identity and determine if there were other antibodies in the serum, a Lewis neutralization technique was performed. Patient serum + Lewis substance = 0 Patient serum + saline control = 1+ Neutralized serum + Fy(a+b+) red cell = 0 What conclusion can be made from these results? a. Anti-Leb is confirmed.

An ascitic fluid absolute neutrophil count of 1000/µL is most indicative of: A. Cirrhosis B. Malignancy C. Bacterial peritonitis D. Blunt trauma injury

An ascitic fluid absolute neutrophil count of 1000/µL is most indicative of: C. Bacterial peritonitis

An autoadsorption may be performed to investigate underlying autoantibodies. When is this procedure acceptable? a. When the autoantibody is reactive at 4° C b. When the patient has not been recently transfused c. Only if complement is coating the red cells d. When the eluate is negative

An autoadsorption may be performed to investigate underlying autoantibodies. When is this procedure acceptable? b. When the patient has not been recently transfused

An elevated urine bilirubin with a normal urobilinogen is indicative of: A. Cirrhosis of the liver B. Hemolytic disease C. Hepatits D. Biliary obstruction.

An elevated urine bilirubin with a normal urobilinogen is indicative of: D. Biliary obstruction.

An iatrogenic infection is one that is:_____________________________________

An iatrogenic infection is one that is:_____________________________________ Occurs as a result of medical treatment

An immunosuppressed patient notices sinus tracts that are draining pus. He also notices that there appear to be small, hard "nuggets" in the pus. What disease will his doctor most likely diagnose? a. Gas gangrene b. Pseudomembranous colitis c. Actinomycosis d. Myonecrosis

An immunosuppressed patient notices sinus tracts that are draining pus. He also notices that there appear to be small, hard "nuggets" in the pus. What disease will his doctor most likely diagnose? c. Actinomycosis

An increase in neutrophils in BAL indicates: A. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis B. Aspiration pneumonia C. Granulomatous lung disease D. Alveolar hemorrhage

An increase in neutrophils in BAL indicates: B. Aspiration pneumonia

An increase in urinary WBCs is called:

An increase in urinary WBCs is called: Pyuria

An increase in urine production during the night is described as:

An increase in urine production during the night is described as: Nocturia

An increased urinary eosinophils are diagnostic for: A. Acute pyelonephritis B. Acute interstitial nephritis C. Acute tubular necrosis D. Chronic pyelonephritis

An increased urinary eosinophils are diagnostic for: B. Acute interstitial nephritis

An index case is: _________________________________________________

An index case is: _________________________________________________ The first case described in an outbreak

An individual's red cells gave the following reactions with antisera: Anti-D 4+ Anti-C 3+ Anti-E 0 Anti-c 3+ Anti-e 3+ Rh control 0 The most probable genotype is: A) R1R2. B) R2r. C) R0r. D) R1r.

An individual's red cells gave the following reactions with antisera: Anti-D 4+ Anti-C 3+ Anti-E 0 Anti-c 3+ Anti-e 3+ Rh control 0 The most probable genotype is: D) R1r.

An outbreak occurs when: a. Numbers of isolates or infection rates increase significantly above the baseline. b. Numbers of isolates or infection rates decrease significantly below the baseline. c. Many people in a community are infected with a particular organism. d. The mortality rate from a particular organism increases above 2%.

An outbreak occurs when: a. Numbers of isolates or infection rates increase significantly above the baseline.

An unpreserved urine specimen left at room temperature overnight will have decreased _____________ and ______________.

An unpreserved urine specimen left at room temperature overnight will have decreased _____________ and ______________. Glucose Ketone

An unusual number of positive occult blood tests are reported by a new employee in a satellite clinic. What is the most likely cause of these false positives?

An unusual number of positive occult blood tests are reported by a new employee in a satellite clinic. What is the most likely cause of these false positives? Patients are not being given proper dietary instructions.

Anaerobes are bacteria that grow: a. In increased carbon dioxide concentrations b. In low oxygen concentrations c. In reduced oxygen concentrations but increased carbon dioxide concentrations d. Where little or no oxygen is present

Anaerobes are bacteria that grow: d. Where little or no oxygen is present

Anaerobes outnumber aerobes in all of the following locations EXCEPT: a. Skin b. Oral cavity c. Gastrointestinal (GI) tract d. Genitourinary tract

Anaerobes outnumber aerobes in all of the following locations EXCEPT: a. Skin

Analysis of amniotic fluid bilirubin levels is performed using: a) Fluorescence polarization b) Spectrophotometry c) Thin-layer chromatography d) Immunoassay

Analysis of amniotic fluid bilirubin levels is performed using: b) Spectrophotometry

What is the most critical step in the specificity of a PCR reaction? Denaturation Extension Number of cycles Annealing

Annealing

Annual testing for occult blood has a high positive predictive value for detecting_________ in its early stages.

Annual testing for occult blood has a high positive predictive value for detecting_________ in its early stages. colorectal cancer

Anti-D reagent and the D control were tested with patient's red cells. Both tests were 2+ agglutination reactions. What is the interpretation of the results? A) D-positive B) D-negative C) Unable to interpret without further testing D) D-positive if the sample is from a patient

Anti-D reagent and the D control were tested with patient's red cells. Both tests were 2+ agglutination reactions. What is the interpretation of the results? C) Unable to interpret without further testing

Anti-D, anti-K, and anti-Jka are the antibodies that are tentatively identified on a panel after initially ruling out on negative cells. What selected cell from another panel should be chosen to confirm the presence of anti-K? a. K-, D+, Jk(a+) b. K+, D+, Jk(a+) c. K+, D-, Jk(a+) d. K+, D-, Jk(a-)

Anti-D, anti-K, and anti-Jka are the antibodies that are tentatively identified on a panel after initially ruling out on negative cells. What selected cell from another panel should be chosen to confirm the presence of anti-K? d. K+, D-, Jk(a-)

Anti-Fya was identified in a patient's serum. The patient's red cells phenotyped as Fy(a+) using commercial antisera. What is the next step? a. Repeat the panel to confirm the antibody. b. Report the antibody because this result is normal. c. Investigate a recent transfusion history. d. Wash the cells and use monoclonal anti-Fya antibodies.

Anti-Fya was identified in a patient's serum. The patient's red cells phenotyped as Fy(a+) using commercial antisera. What is the next step? c. Investigate a recent transfusion history.

Anti-Jsb was identified in a patient scheduled for elective surgery later. What is the best approach to finding compatible blood? A) Contact the rare donor registry since Js(b-) units are rare. B) Request that family members be tested to determine if they share the same phenotype. C) Screen donors from the black population because Js(b-) phenotype is common. D) A and B are correct.

Anti-Jsb was identified in a patient scheduled for elective surgery later. What is the best approach to finding compatible blood? A) Contact the rare donor registry since Js(b-) units are rare. B) Request that family members be tested to determine if they share the same phenotype. D) A and B are correct.

Antibodies to which blood group system is often implicated in delayed transfusion reactions? A) Kell B) ABO C) Duffy D) Kidd

Antibodies to which blood group system is often implicated in delayed transfusion reactions? D) Kidd

Antibodies to which blood group system is often implicated in delayed transfusion reactions? Kell Rh Duffy Kidd

Antibodies to which blood group system is often implicated in delayed transfusion reactions? Kidd

Antibodies to which of the following blood group system show dosage (i.e., are stronger with homozygous expression of the antigen)? A) Lutheran B) P C) Duffy D) Kell

Antibodies to which of the following blood group system show dosage (i.e., are stronger with homozygous expression of the antigen)? C) Duffy

Antibody screening cells are positive at the antihuman globulin phase of testing. What is the first step in this investigation? a. Check transfusion and pregnancy history. b. Perform a direct antiglobulin test using anti-C3. c. Repeat the ABO typing. d. Crossmatch units until one is compatible.

Antibody screening cells are positive at the antihuman globulin phase of testing. What is the first step in this investigation? a. Check transfusion and pregnancy history.

Antimicrobial agents include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Plant extracts b. Antibiotics c. Preservatives d. Antiseptics

Antimicrobial agents include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Plant extracts

Antimicrobial susceptibility is hard to control because many of the same species of organisms have a varied susceptibility to particular antibiotics. To reduce this variation, Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) guidelines recommend the following: a. Use in-house organisms isolated from past patients b. Share strains between hospital laboratories c. Use specific strains from American Type Culture Collection (ATCC) d. Obtain test strains from Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

Antimicrobial susceptibility is hard to control because many of the same species of organisms have a varied susceptibility to particular antibiotics. To reduce this variation, Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) guidelines recommend the following: c. Use specific strains from American Type Culture Collection (ATCC)

Approximately what is the percentage of individuals who demonstrate H in their saliva? A) 15% B) 50% C) 80% D) 98%

Approximately what is the percentage of individuals who demonstrate H in their saliva? C) 80%

At what point in the employment process should safety training take place? A. During orientation and training B. Following lab training when employees are more familiar with their responsibilities C. Following the employees' first evaluation D. Before independent work is permitted and annually thereafter

At what point in the employment process should safety training take place? D. Before independent work is permitted and annually thereafter

At-risk groups for contracting walking pneumonia include all the following EXCEPT: a. Prisoners b. College students c. Military personnel d. Very young children

At-risk groups for contracting walking pneumonia include all the following EXCEPT: d. Very young children

Autoclaves use this method to sterilize inanimate objects. __________________________________

Autoclaves use this method to sterilize inanimate objects. Heat under steam pressure

Autologous donors may not donate if they: A) have a positive test for syphilis. B) are on antibiotics for an infection. C) are taking aspirin. D) are over 65 years old.

Autologous donors may not donate if they: B) are on antibiotics for an infection.

Avidity means the antibodies have

Avidity means the antibodies have: Strong binding kinetics to specific antigens.

Bacillary dysentery caused by this organism is marked by penetration of intestinal epithelial cells following attachment of the organisms to mucosal surfaces, local inflammation, shedding of the intestinal lining, and formation of ulcers that follow the epithelial penetration. What is this organism? a. Enterobacter b. Citrobacter c. Shigella d. Salmonella

Bacillary dysentery caused by this organism is marked by penetration of intestinal epithelial cells following attachment of the organisms to mucosal surfaces, local inflammation, shedding of the intestinal lining, and formation of ulcers that follow the epithelial penetration. What is this organism? c. Shigella

Bacteremia with this organism may lead to endocarditis, osteomyelitis, septic arthritis, hepatic abscess, or pyomyositis. a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Escherichia coli c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Bacteremia with this organism may lead to endocarditis, osteomyelitis, septic arthritis, hepatic abscess, or pyomyositis. c. Staphylococcus aureus

Bacteria demonstrating weak decarboxylase activity: a. Will have a false-negative test b. May take up to 4 days to be positive c. Require extra reagents to show the positive reaction d. Will have a false-positive test

Bacteria demonstrating weak decarboxylase activity: b. May take up to 4 days to be positive

Bacteria gain access to the urinary tract by all of the following routes EXCEPT: a. The ascending route b. The neurologic route c. The hematogenous route d. The lymphatic pathways

Bacteria gain access to the urinary tract by all of the following routes EXCEPT: b. The neurologic route

Bacterial antigen tests have replaced the Gram stain as the method of choice for detecting meningitis. True or False

Bacterial antigen tests have replaced the Gram stain as the method of choice for detecting meningitis. False

Bacterial growth requirements for oxygen and carbon dioxide can be divided into all the following categories EXCEPT: a. Ambient air (95% O2 and 5% CO2) b. Microaerophilic (5% O2 ) c. Anaerobic (0% O2) d. Capnophilic (about 15% O2 and 5% to 10% CO2)

Bacterial growth requirements for oxygen and carbon dioxide can be divided into all the following categories EXCEPT: a. Ambient air (95% O2 and 5% CO2)

Bacterial keratitis associated with contact lenses in warmer climates is commonly caused by which of the following organism? a. Corynebacterium sp. b. Staphylococcus sp. c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Viridans streptococci

Bacterial keratitis associated with contact lenses in warmer climates is commonly caused by which of the following organism? c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Bacterial vaginosis is a synergistic infectious process involving all the following bacteria EXCEPT: a. Eubacterium b. Bacteroides c. Gardnerella d. Peptostreptococcus

Bacterial vaginosis is a synergistic infectious process involving all the following bacteria EXCEPT: a. Eubacterium

Barlett's method for scoring sputum and the Murray-Washington method for contamination assessment associate what with unacceptable sputum specimens? a. 10 to 25 neutrophils/10× field b. Greater than 25 neutrophils/10× field c. 10 to 20 squamous epithelial cells/10× field d. Less than 10 squamous epithelial cells/10× field

Barlett's method for scoring sputum and the Murray-Washington method for contamination assessment associate what with unacceptable sputum specimens? c. 10 to 20 squamous epithelial cells/10× field

Based on the following description, identify the cell: a large irregular shaped cell that ranges from 25 to 70 microns in diameter with a prominent central nucleus that is 8-10 microns in size, a cytoplasm that contains no granules, with "shaggy" borders. A. Squamous epithelial cell B. Clue cell C. Transitional epithelial cell D. Renal tubule epithelial cell

Based on the following description, identify the cell: a large irregular shaped cell that ranges from 25 to 70 microns in diameter with a prominent central nucleus that is 8-10 microns in size, a cytoplasm that contains no granules, with "shaggy" borders. B. Clue cell

Based on the information provided, how long should the slide for muscle fibers be examined?_______

Based on the information provided, how long should the slide for muscle fibers be examined?_______ 5 minutes

Based on the information provided, if the bilirubin A450 is now in zone 3, what additional testing should be performed? a) Alpha fetoprotein b) Lamellar bodies c) Maternal antibody screen d) Fern test

Based on the information provided, if the bilirubin A450 is now in zone 3, what additional testing should be performed? b) Lamellar bodies

Based on the information provided, should an L/S ratio or an Amniostat test be performed? a) L/S ratio b) Amniostat

Based on the information provided, should an L/S ratio or an Amniostat test be performed? b) Amniostat

Based on the information provided, the presence of what substance is of particular concern prior to inducing labor? a) Lecithin b) Sphingomyelin c) Acetylcholinesterase d) Phosphatidyl glycerol

Based on the information provided, the presence of what substance is of particular concern prior to inducing labor? d) Phosphatidyl glycerol

Because Biosafety Level 3 (BSL-3) organisms have the potential for aerosol transmission, and diseases with these agents may have serious lethal consequences, all of the following guidelines apply to BSL-3 labs EXCEPT: A) BSL-3 labs should be separated from other parts of the building by an anteroom. B) BSL-3 labs should have restricted access with logbook documentation of personnel entering and exiting lab. C) BSL-3 labs should have solid ceiling and floor seams, and any seams must be sealed. D) BSL-3 labs should have positive air pressure.

Because Biosafety Level 3 (BSL-3) organisms have the potential for aerosol transmission, and diseases with these agents may have serious lethal consequences, all of the following guidelines apply to BSL-3 labs EXCEPT: D) BSL-3 labs should have positive air pressure.

Because cell wall-damaged bacteria, antibiotic-treated bacteria, or dead bacteria may appear falsely gram-negative, what are "critical co-characteristics" (those that don't change)? a. Color and cell wall composition b. Growth characteristics c. Shape and size d. Size and color

Because cell wall-damaged bacteria, antibiotic-treated bacteria, or dead bacteria may appear falsely gram-negative, what are "critical co-characteristics" (those that don't change)? c. Shape and size

Because the urethra is shorter in women, bacteria are easily introduced into the bladder by___________________________________________

Because the urethra is shorter in women, bacteria are easily introduced into the bladder by... sexual intercourse

Because urine is an excellent supportive medium for bacteria growth, how must urine specimens be handled after collection? _______________________________________

Because urine is an excellent supportive medium for bacteria growth, how must urine specimens be handled after collection? Refrigerate immediately, or preserve

Before analysis, a refrigerated urine specimen must be________________________.

Before analysis, a refrigerated urine specimen must be________________________. returned to room temperature

Before and during collection of a sample for quantitative fecal fats, a patient should: A. Consume 100 g of fat per day B. Consume less than 10 g of fat per day C. Increase usual fat intake by 20% D. Maintain a soft or liquid diet

Before and during collection of a sample for quantitative fecal fats, a patient should: A. Consume 100 g of fat per day

Before donation, the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with: A) PVP-iodine complex. B) alcohol. C) 10% acetone. D) green soap.

Before donation, the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with: A) PVP-iodine complex.

Before performing a phlebotomy, the phlebotomist will clean the area on a patient's arm with a substance before inserting the needle. This substance is called a(n): ______________________________

Before performing a phlebotomy, the phlebotomist will clean the area on a patient's arm with a substance before inserting the needle. This substance is called a(n): Antiseptic

Below are the results of the medical screening for a prospective female donor: Age: 16 Hematocrit: 35% Temperature: 37.2° C Hemoglobin: 12.0 g/dL History: HPV immunization, 1 week ago How many of the above results would exclude this donor from donating? A) None, she is acceptable. B) 1 C) 2 D) 3

Below are the results of the medical screening for a prospective female donor: Age: 16 Hematocrit: 35% Temperature: 37.2° C Hemoglobin: 12.0 g/dL History: HPV immunization, 1 week ago How many of the above results would exclude this donor from donating? C) 2 Hematocrit level must be 38% or above. Hemoglobin must be 12.5 g/dL or above. Temperature is acceptable (<37.5° C) and toxoid immunization has no deferral.

Besides antimicrobial therapy, how are most carbuncles treated?

Besides antimicrobial therapy, how are most carbuncles treated? Surgical Drainage.

Besides dark yellow, what color or urine could indicate the presence of bilirubin? _____________________

Besides dark yellow, what color or urine could indicate the presence of bilirubin? Green

Beta-Hemolysis is:________________________________________________________

Beta-Hemolysis is: Complete clearing of erythrocytes in a blood agar plate around and under the colony

Biochemical tests are based on the _____ of microorganisms. a. Phenotype b. Genotype c. Plasmid d. Lysogeny

Biochemical tests are based on the _____ of microorganisms. a. Phenotype

Biosafety Level 4 (BSL-4) organisms are dangerous, exotic, and pose an increased risk of aerosol-transmitted infections and life-threatening disease. Two examples of BSL-4 organisms are: A) Smallpox and Ebola B) St. Louis encephalitis virus and Coccidioides immitis C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Ebola D) Francisella tularensis and Ebola

Biosafety Level 4 (BSL-4) organisms are dangerous, exotic, and pose an increased risk of aerosol-transmitted infections and life-threatening disease. Two examples of BSL-4 organisms are: A) Smallpox and Ebola

Birdseed agar is used to help identify which organism? A) Candida albicans B) Candia neoformans C) Cryptococcus neoformans D) Cryptococcus albicans

Birdseed agar is used to help identify which organism? C) Cryptococcus neoformans

Blood collected from a therapeutic phlebotomy is: A) acceptable for inventory under certain Food and Drug Administration guidelines. B) unacceptable for inventory. C) acceptable if the "volunteer donor" label is removed. D) acceptable if the patient meets all regular donor criteria.

Blood collected from a therapeutic phlebotomy is: A) acceptable for inventory under certain Food and Drug Administration guidelines.

Blood flows through the nephron in the following order: 1) Efferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta, afferent arteriole 2) Peritubular capillaries, afferent arteriole, vasa recta, efferent arteriole 3) Afferent arteriole, efferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta 4) Efferent arteriole, vasa recta, peritubular capillaries, afferent arteriole

Blood flows through the nephron in the following order: 3) Afferent arteriole, efferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta

Blood irradiators require all of the following safety procedures except: A. proper training. B. that the user have a degree in radiology. C. equipment leak detection. D. personal protective equipment.

Blood irradiators require all of the following safety procedures except: B. that the user have a degree in radiology.

Blood tests can be used to confirm the diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis because of the detection of: A. M protein B. Electrolyte imbalance C. Antistreptococcal antibodies D. Decreased serum albumin

Blood tests can be used to confirm the diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis because of the detection of: C. Antistreptococcal antibodies

PCR includes denaturation of DNA which refers to: Breaking peptide bonds in base pairs Breaking hydrogen bonds in base pairs Breaking the codons of genetic base pairs Breaking the proteins in base pairs

Breaking hydrogen bonds in base pairs

Broad casts may form as a result of: A. Extreme urinary stasis B. Strenuous exercise C. Increase in loss of amino acids D. Dehydration

Broad casts may form as a result of: A. Extreme urinary stasis

By looking at a bacterial smear, how can you tell if the infection is polymicrobial? a. Mucus, red blood cells, neutrophils, and necrosis are on the smear. b. Lymphocytes, monocytes, and macrophages are on the smear. c. More than one morphologic type of bacteria is present on the smear. d. Both gram-negative rods and gram-positive cocci are present on the smear.

By looking at a bacterial smear, how can you tell if the infection is polymicrobial? c. More than one morphologic type of bacteria is present on the smear.

CSF electrophoresis can be used to confirm the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis and would be expected to show which of the following? A. Increased IgG with oligoclonal bands not seen on serum electrophoresis B. Increased IgG with oligoclonal bands similar to those seen on serum electrophoresis C. Decreased IgG with antibody-specific oligoclonal bands D. Decreased IgG with oligoclonal bands resembling those seen on serum electrophoresis

CSF electrophoresis can be used to confirm the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis and would be expected to show which of the following? A. Increased IgG with oligoclonal bands not seen on serum electrophoresis

CSF is formed in the _______________ and reabsorbed by the _______________. A. Ventricles, spinal cord B. Choroid plexus, arachnoid granulations C. Arachnoid space, blood-brain barrier D. Blood-brain barrier, arachnoid granulations

CSF is formed in the _______________ and reabsorbed by the _______________. B. Choroid plexus, arachnoid granulations

CSF is produced primarily by: A. Secretion by cells of the arachnoid villi B. Diffusion from the plasma into the central nervous system (CNS) C. Selective filtration of plasma in the choroid plexus D. Excretions from the ependymal cells lining the central nervous system

CSF is produced primarily by: C. Selective filtration of plasma in the choroid plexus

Calculate the CV for the following 5 data points: 7.0, 6.8, 8.2, 7.2, 6.9. Points will be given for correct mean and correct SD shown on work. Show all calculations.

Calculate the CV for the following 5 data points: 7.0, 6.8, 8.2, 7.2, 6.9. Points will be given for correct mean and correct SD shown on work. Show all calculations. CV = (SD/Mean) x 100 SD = 0.57 Mean = 7.22 0.57/7.22 = 0.0789 x 100 = 7.89 Answer as it appears in D2L: Mean= 7.22, SD= 0.57, CV= 7.8

Calculate the number of moles of H2SO4. Atomic Weight of H=1 Atomic Weight of S=32 Atomic Weight of O= 16 Show your math for full credit

Calculate the number of moles of H2SO4. Molar mass of H2SO4 = (1 x 2) + 32 + (16 x 4) = 2 + 32 + 64 = 98 g/mol.

Campy-BAP contains: a. Brucella agar base, 10% sheep red blood cells, vancomycin, trimethoprim, polymyxin B, amphotericin B, and cephalothin b. Columbia agar base, 5% sheep red blood cells, erythromycin, spectinomycin, Diflucan, and ampicillin c. Brucella agar base, 5% sheep red blood cells, Zithromax, sulfamethoxazole, nystatin, amphotericin B, and imipenem d. Columbia agar base, glycerol, L-cysteine, hemin, streptomycin, amphotericin B, and gentamicin

Campy-BAP contains: a. Brucella agar base, 10% sheep red blood cells, vancomycin, trimethoprim, polymyxin B, amphotericin B, and cephalothin

Capnophiles are bacteria that grow: a. in increased carbon dioxide concentrations b. In low oxygen concentrations c. In reduced oxygen concentrations but increased carbon dioxide concentrations d. Where little or no oxygen is present

Capnophiles are bacteria that grow: a. in increased carbon dioxide concentrations

Category A bioterrorism agents: A) Pose the highest threat because they are easily transmitted and highly infectious B) Have moderate morbidity and low mortality and are not easily transmitted C) Are emerging pathogens D) Are enteric pathogens

Category A bioterrorism agents: A) Pose the highest threat because they are easily transmitted and highly infectious

Causes of acute renal failure can include all of the following except: A. Malignancy B. Goodpasture syndrome C. Acute tubular necrosis D. Renal calculi

Causes of acute renal failure can include all of the following except: B. Goodpasture syndrome

Cell counts on CSF are performed on: A. Cells as they are counted in the hemocytometer B. Cover-slipped wet preparations C. Stained smears prepared from the undiluted specimen D. Stained smears prepared from a concentrated specimen

Cell counts on CSF are performed on: A. Cells as they are counted in the hemocytometer

Centrifugation of less than the recommended 12 mL of urine for the microscopic examination will:

Centrifugation of less than the recommended 12 mL of urine for the microscopic examination will: Decrease the number of cellular elements

Cerebral Spinal fluids are collected by a doctor using what procedure?

Cerebral Spinal fluids are collected by a doctor using what procedure? Lumbar Puncture

Chemical analysis of CSF shows that the fluid contains: A. Plasma chemicals in the same concentration as in the plasma B. Plasma chemicals in concentrations different from those in the plasma C. More chemicals than are found in plasma D. Fewer chemicals than are found in plasma

Chemical analysis of CSF shows that the fluid contains: B. Plasma chemicals in concentrations different from those in the plasma

Chemosterilizers exert their killing effect through all the following mechanisms except: A) denaturation of cellular proteins. B) damage of RNA and DNA. C) inactivating enzyme substrates. D) reactions with components of the cytoplasmic membrane

Chemosterilizers exert their killing effect through all the following mechanisms except: C) inactivating enzyme substrates.

Child who has ingested ethylene glycol A. Prerenal B. Renal C. Postrenal

Child who has ingested ethylene glycol B. Renal

Chlamydia trachomatis is the infectious agent in all the following conditions in humans EXCEPT: a. Trachoma b. Urogenital infections c. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) d. Pharyngitis

Chlamydia trachomatis is the infectious agent in all the following conditions in humans EXCEPT: d. Pharyngitis

Chlamydia trachomatis produces all the following conditions in adult women EXCEPT: a. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) b. Salpingitis c. Bacterial vaginosis d. Endometritis

Chlamydia trachomatis produces all the following conditions in adult women EXCEPT: c. Bacterial vaginosis

Chromatography is based on the principle of: Column retention time Time Temperature Differential solubility

Chromatography is based on the principle of: Differential solubility

Class C fires involve: Paper, wood, and plastics Electrical equipment Hazardous chemicals Grease and oil

Class C fires involve: Electrical equipment

Clue cells are derived from: A. Renal tubular epithelial cells B. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Histiocytes D. Squamous epithelial cells

Clue cells are derived from: D. Squamous epithelial cells

Cobiofilms of what two organisms are associated with serious lung infections in cystic fibrosis patients? a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Moraxella b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Burkholderia cepacia c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Streptococcus pneumoniae

Cobiofilms of what two organisms are associated with serious lung infections in cystic fibrosis patients? b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Burkholderia cepacia

Collection of a midstream clean-catch specimen will alleviate contamination by: A. Renal tubular epithelial cells B. RBCs C. Transitional epithelial cells D. Squamous epithelial cells

Collection of a midstream clean-catch specimen will alleviate contamination by: D. Squamous epithelial cells

Colonies of Bacillus anthracis are described as:__________________________________

Colonies of Bacillus anthracis are described as: Medusa's heads

Colony characteristics for Staphylococcus aureus on blood agar after 18 to 24 hours incubation at 35° C include all the following EXCEPT: a. Swarming b. Smooth c. White d. Round

Colony characteristics for Staphylococcus aureus on blood agar after 18 to 24 hours incubation at 35° C include all the following EXCEPT: a. Swarming

Colony morphology is defined as: a. Colony characteristics and form b. Colony size and color c. Colony smell and shape d. Colony constitution and environmental conditions

Colony morphology is defined as: a. Colony characteristics and form

Commercial identification systems fall into all of the following categories EXCEPT: a. pH-based reactions b. Enzyme-based reactions c. Visual detection of bacterial growth d. Utilization of nitrogen and sulfur sources

Commercial identification systems fall into all of the following categories EXCEPT: d. Utilization of nitrogen and sulfur sources

Commercial media must have quality control testing performed by the manufacturer. Because of high failure rates, all of the following media must be retested by the hospital laboratory EXCEPT: a. Campylobacter media b. Selective media for pathogenic Neisseria c. Trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood d. Chocolate

Commercial media must have quality control testing performed by the manufacturer. Because of high failure rates, all of the following media must be retested by the hospital laboratory EXCEPT: c. Trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood

Common arborviruses that cause meningitis include all the following EXCEPT: a. St. Louis encephalitis virus b. La Cross virus c. Venezuelan equine encephalitis d. West Nile virus

Common arborviruses that cause meningitis include all the following EXCEPT: c. Venezuelan equine encephalitis

Common uses of probes include all of the following, except: a. microbial pathogen detection b. chromosomal translocations c. gene expression analysis d. Abnormal white blood cell detection

Common uses of probes include all of the following, except: d. Abnormal white blood cell detection

Commonly encountered polymicrobial infections are: a. Perirectal abscesses b. Indwelling catheter infections c. Infant meningitis d. Food poisoning

Commonly encountered polymicrobial infections are: a. Perirectal abscesses

Conditions that produce elevated CSF protein include all of the following except: A. Fluid leakage B. Meningitis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Hemorrhage

Conditions that produce elevated CSF protein include all of the following except: A. Fluid leakage

Confirmation is used after:

Confirmation is used after: obtaining a positive screening result

Confirmatory tests for syphilis include all the following EXCEPT: a. FTA-ABS b. TP-PA c. RPR d. MHA-TP

Confirmatory tests for syphilis include all the following EXCEPT: c. RPR

Contaminating materials include all the following EXCEPT: a. Crystallized Gram stain b. Materials not coming from the collection site c. Materials not contributed by the inflammatory response from the tissues d. Materials not likely to contain the infecting organism

Contaminating materials include all the following EXCEPT: a. Crystallized Gram stain

Crystals found in the urine that are associated with pathogenic disease include: A. Calcium oxalate and uric acid B. Leucine and tyrosine C. Heavy amorphous phosphates D. Triple phosphate and ammonium biurate

Crystals found in the urine that are associated with pathogenic disease include: B) Leucine and tyrosine

Crystals frequently seen in patients' joints with chronic inflammation are:_______________________

Crystals frequently seen in patients' joints with chronic inflammation are: Cholesterol

Crystals that appear to be rhombic-shaped and are blue when aligned with the slow vibration of red compensated polarized light are: A. Monosodium urate B. Calcium pyrophosphate C. Hydroxyapatite D. Corticosteroid

Crystals that appear to be rhombic-shaped and are blue when aligned with the slow vibration of red compensated polarized light are: B. Calcium pyrophosphate

Crystals that are found in synovial fluid during attacks of gout are most likely:_________________

Crystals that are found in synovial fluid during attacks of gout are most likely: Monosodium urate

Current theory regarding the genetics of the Rh system suggests that: A) each Rh system antigen is coded by its own gene locus. B) Rh system antigens are coded by two closely linked genes. C) one gene locus with multiple alleles codes for the protein antigens. D) the Rh system genes are a haplotype that codes for three sets of alleles.

Current theory regarding the genetics of the Rh system suggests that: B) Rh system antigens are coded by two closely linked genes.

Customers of a laboratory include all the following EXCEPT: a. Patients b. Insurers c. Doctors d. Accrediting organizations

Customers of a laboratory include all the following EXCEPT: d. Accrediting organizations

Cystine crystals are often confused with what other crystal?

Cystine crystals are often confused with what other crystal? Uric acid crystals

Cystitis can be differentiated from pyelonephritis by: A. Performing a cystoscopy B. The presence of white blood cell casts C. Performing blood cultures The presence of bacteriuria

Cystitis can be differentiated from pyelonephritis by: B. The presence of white blood cell casts

Damage to the blood-brain barrier by Mycobacterium tuberculosis may cause the CSF to: A. Appear blood-streaked B. Appear xanthochromic C. Contain a pellicle or clot D. Contain decreased protein

Damage to the blood-brain barrier by Mycobacterium tuberculosis may cause the CSF to: C. Contain a pellicle or clot

Dark yellow amniotic fluid is caused by:

Dark yellow amniotic fluid is caused by: Bilirubin

Data generated by the laboratory is directly influenced by: a. The quality of the specimen and its condition when received b. The physician's decision to do the test c. Quality control performed on a monthly basis d. The air quality in the laboratory

Data generated by the laboratory is directly influenced by: a. The quality of the specimen and its condition when received

Decarboxylase tests exist for all the following amino acids EXCEPT: a. Lysine b. Tyrosine c. Ornithine d. Arginine

Decarboxylase tests exist for all the following amino acids EXCEPT: b. Tyrosine

Decontaminating agents used in the decontamination-digestion process include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Sodium hydroxide b. N-acetyl-1-cysteine c. Benzalkonium chloride d. Hydrochloric acid

Decontaminating agents used in the decontamination-digestion process include all of the following EXCEPT: d. Hydrochloric acid

Define Autoimmune hemolytic anemia:

Define Autoimmune hemolytic anemia: Immune destruction of autologous (self) red cells.

Define Azoospermia

Define Azoospermia: No sperm

Define Diarrhea in two words.

Define Diarrhea in two words. Watery stools

Define Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn:

Define Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn: Condition caused by destruction of fetal or neonatal red cells by maternal antibodies.

Define Oligospermia

Define Oligospermia: <20 million/ml

Define a hepatitis B virus carrier. A) Hepatitis B surface antigen-positive person who has liver disease because of a previous hepatitis exposure B) Person who can transmit hepatitis B virus but may not be outwardly affected by it C) Hepatitis B surface antibody-positive person, negative for hepatitis B surface antigen D) Hepatitis B core antibody-positive person, negative for hepatitis B surface antigen

Define a hepatitis B virus carrier. B) Person who can transmit hepatitis B virus but may not be outwardly affected by it

Define nonchromogens.

Define nonchromogens. Species whose colonies are a buff color and exposure to light does not induce pigment formation.

Define osmolarity.

Define osmolarity. The osmotic pressure of a solution expressed in milliosmoles per kilogram; it is affected only by the number of particles present.

Define pathogenic:

Define pathogenic: Organisms capable of causing disease.

Define performance improvement.

Define performance improvement. Continuous analysis of processes or procedures and continual implementation of improvements.

Define photochromogens.

Define photochromogens. Species that produce carotene pigment upon exposure to light.

Define scotochromogens.

Define scotochromogens. Species that produce pigment in the light or the dark.

Define the following terms: Antibiograms: CLA-BSIs: SSIs: VAPs:

Define the following terms: Antibiograms: Compilation of selected microorganisms and the percentage susceptibility to selected antimicrobial agents CLA-BSIs: Central Line associated blood stream infections. SSIs: Surgical Site Infection VAPs: Ventilator-associated pneumonia

Define xanthochromia:

Define xanthochromia: Yellowish, pink, or orange supernatant discoloration of the cerebrospinal fluid.

Which of the following are the proper order and steps of PCR? Digestion, annealing, extension Annealing, detection, extension Denaturing, annealing, extension Denaturing, extension, detection

Denaturing, annealing, extension

Describe the gram stain and morphology of Clostridium.

Describe the gram stain and morphology of Clostridium. Gram positive spore forming rods or bacilli.

Determine whether each of the following patients is expected to produce this urine. A 7-year-old girl with uncontrolled diarrhea and vomiting for 3 days. o Yes o No An uncontrolled diabetic patient who is 2 hours postprandial. o Yes o No A 42-year-old man taking diuretics and maintaining adequate fluid intake. o Yes o No A 25-year-old woman on a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet. o Yes o No

Determine whether each of the following patients is expected to produce this urine. A 7-year-old girl with uncontrolled diarrhea and vomiting for 3 days. o Yes An uncontrolled diabetic patient who is 2 hours postprandial. o No A 42-year-old man taking diuretics and maintaining adequate fluid intake. o No A 25-year-old woman on a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet. o Yes

Diabetics may sometimes be infected with their own resident flora. This type of infection is called: a. an opportunistic infection. b. a carrier state. c. symbiosis. d. a parasitic infection.

Diabetics may sometimes be infected with their own resident flora. This type of infection is called: a. an opportunistic infection.

Diagnostic microbiologists apply placement and naming of bacterial organisms into all the following categories except: a. order b. family. c. genus. d. species.

Diagnostic microbiologists apply placement and naming of bacterial organisms into all the following categories except: a. order.

Diarrhea can result from all of the following except: A. Disruption of the normal intestinal bacterial flora B. Addition of pathogenic organisms to the normal intestinal flora C. Increased reabsorption of intestinal water and electrolytes Increased concentration of fecal electrolytes

Diarrhea can result from all of the following except: C. Increased reabsorption of intestinal water and electrolytes A. Disruption of the normal intestinal bacterial flora B. Addition of pathogenic organisms to the normal intestinal flora D. Increased concentration of fecal electrolytes

Differential media: a. Support the grouping of microbes based on different characteristics demonstrated in the media b. Allow the growth of fastidious microbes through the addition of certain growth enhancers c. Support the growth of most nonfastidious microbes d. Support the growth of one type or group of microbes, but not another

Differential media: a. Support the grouping of microbes based on different characteristics demonstrated in the media

Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following except: A. Observation of budding in yeast cells B. Increased refractility of oil droplets C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid D. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid

Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following except: C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid

Differentiation between a hemothorax and a hemorrhagic effusion on a bloody pleural fluid is done by: A. Observing the fluid for streaks of blood, because this indicates a hemothorax B. Performing a hematocrit value, because a hemothorax will give a value close to that of blood C. Performing a red blood cell (RBC) count, because a hemorrhagic effusion will have a count over 100,000/L D. Performing both RBC and white blood cell (WBC) counts, because a hemothorax will have marked elevations of both cell types

Differentiation between a hemothorax and a hemorrhagic effusion on a bloody pleural fluid is done by: B. Performing a hematocrit value, because a hemothorax will give a value close to that of blood

Differentiation between an ascitic fluid transudate and exudate is most accurately made using the: A. Fluid-to-serum bilirubin ratio B. Serum-ascites albumin gradient C. Absolute neutrophil count D. Fluid-to-serum albumin ratio

Differentiation between an ascitic fluid transudate and exudate is most accurately made using the: B. Serum-ascites albumin gradient

Dilute alkaline urine should be examined carefully for the presence of:

Dilute alkaline urine should be examined carefully for the presence of: Ghost RBCs

Dilution of CSF prior to performing a total cell count should be made using: A. Normal saline B. Deionized water C. Acetic acid D. Acetic acid containing methylene blue

Dilution of CSF prior to performing a total cell count should be made using: A. Normal saline

Direct microscopic examinations are not recommended for all the following specimen sources EXCEPT: a. Throat specimens b. Urethral discharge from a male c. Nasopharyngeal specimens d. Vagina specimens

Direct microscopic examinations are not recommended for all the following specimen sources EXCEPT: b. Urethral discharge from a male

Disease caused by which of the following organisms has fever, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and stools with gross blood and pus? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Clostridium difficile c. Campylobacter jejuni d. Bacillus cereus

Disease caused by which of the following organisms has fever, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and stools with gross blood and pus? c. Campylobacter jejuni

Diseases affecting the glomerulus are primarily caused by: A. Trauma B. Diabetes C. Immunological disorders D. Toxic chemicals

Diseases affecting the glomerulus are primarily caused by: C. Immunological disorders

Diseases caused by rickettsial organisms are usually transmitted to man by what means?

Diseases caused by rickettsial organisms are usually transmitted to man by what means? Arthropod vector

Disinfectants are usually used at this temperature range. _______________________

Disinfectants are usually used at this temperature range. 20-22 C

Disinfectants containing heavy metal compounds have been replaced as disinfectants, except for _____, which is still used as a prophylactic treatment in newborns to prevent gonococcal conjunctivitis. A) silver nitrate B) copper sulfate C) ammonium nitrate D) mercuric chloride

Disinfectants containing heavy metal compounds have been replaced as disinfectants, except for _____, which is still used as a prophylactic treatment in newborns to prevent gonococcal conjunctivitis. A) silver nitrate

Documentation of a transfusion reaction investigation should include all of the following except: A) posttransfusion patient temperature. B) human leukocyte antigen (HLA) typing. C) re-identification of the patient and transfused component. D) collection of a blood sample.

Documentation of a transfusion reaction investigation should include all of the following except: B) human leukocyte antigen (HLA) typing.

Documentation of appropriate handling of specimens for drug analysis is provided by the:

Documentation of appropriate handling of specimens for drug analysis is provided by the: Chain of Custody Form

Donor educational materials must contain risk factors for _____________

Donor educational materials must contain risk factors for _____________ relevant transfusion-transmitted infections (RTTIs)

During a first-trimester prenatal examination, a pregnant group A, D-negative woman had an anti-D titer of 8. What is the most likely course of action? A) The anti-D is probably from prenatal Rh immune globulin; another dose should be given at birth. B) Repeat the titer in 4 weeks to determine if significant rise in titer is detected. C) The pregnancy is considered high risk, and the mother should be followed up immediately with amniocentesis or percutaneous umbilical cord testing. D) None of the above is correct.

During a first-trimester prenatal examination, a pregnant group A, D-negative woman had an anti-D titer of 8. What is the most likely course of action? B) Repeat the titer in 4 weeks to determine if significant rise in titer is detected.

During the childbearing years, the normal flora of the vagina maintain a low pH, thus encouraging colonization with all the following types of organisms except: a. lactobacilli. b. gram-negative rods. c. anaerobic gram-negative bacilli. d. gram-positive cocci.

During the childbearing years, the normal flora of the vagina maintain a low pH, thus encouraging colonization with all the following types of organisms except: b. gram-negative rods.

During the denaturation step in polymerase chain reaction (PCR): a. DNA polymerase extends the primers. b. Oligonucleotide primers are hybridized to the single-stranded DNA. c. Native DNA is cut into small pieces with a restriction enzyme. d. The target double-stranded DNA is separated into single strands during the denaturation step.

During the denaturation step in polymerase chain reaction (PCR): d. The target double-stranded DNA is separated into single strands during the denaturation step.

During this process, glucose enters the glycolysis pathway, resulting in the formation of pyruvic acid, which is further oxidized to other acids. What is this process called? a. Oxidation b. Reduction c. Fermentation d. Synthesis

During this process, glucose enters the glycolysis pathway, resulting in the formation of pyruvic acid, which is further oxidized to other acids. What is this process called? c. Fermentation

Each of the following genotypes is possible for an individual whose red cells react as indicated below except: ANTISERA REACTIONS anti-C + anti-D + anti-E + anti-c + anti-e + A) R1R2. B) R1r". C) Rzr. D) R0r'

Each of the following genotypes is possible for an individual whose red cells react as indicated below except: ANTISERA REACTION anti-C + anti-D + anti-E + anti-c + anti-e + D) R0r'

Early-onset congenital syphilis is characterized by all the following symptoms EXCEPT: a. Osteochondritis b. Anemia c. Hepatosplenomegaly d. Encephalitis

Early-onset congenital syphilis is characterized by all the following symptoms EXCEPT: d. Encephalitis

Efflux pumps: a. Allow nutrients into the cells through specialized channels in the bacteria's outer membrane b. Allow electrolytes into the cells through specialized channels in the bacteria's outer membrane c. Act as a semipermeable membrane and maintain the cell's osmotic pressure d. Function as transporter proteins involved in the removal of toxic substances from the interior of the cell to the external environment

Efflux pumps: d. Function as transporter proteins involved in the removal of toxic substances from the interior of the cell to the external environment

Elements of the respiratory tract that can help prevent infection include all the following EXCEPT: a. Nasal hair b. Normal florae c. Coughing d. Epiglottis

Elements of the respiratory tract that can help prevent infection include all the following EXCEPT: d. Epiglottis

Employee training takes place: A. after hiring and following implementation of new procedures. B. following competency assessment. C. only for new inexperienced employees. D. as procedures are validated.

Employee training takes place: A. after hiring and following implementation of new procedures.

Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) differs from immunofluorescent tests by: a. Using a different fluorescent label b. Using a enzymes and a chromogenic substrate c. Being valid for direct testing only d. All of the above

Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) differs from immunofluorescent tests by: b. Using a enzymes and a chromogenic substrate

Eosinophils are found in the urine in cases of:

Eosinophils are found in the urine in cases of: Acute interstitial nephritis

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae produces all the following diseases EXCEPT: a. Septicemia b. Meningitis c. Endocarditis d. Erysipeloid

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae produces all the following diseases EXCEPT: b. Meningitis

Escherichia coli strains are associated with all the following properties EXCEPT: a. Indole production b. Fermentation of glucose and lactose c. Methyl red (MR) positive, Voges-Proskauer (VP) negative d. Can use citrate as a sole carbon source

Escherichia coli strains are associated with all the following properties EXCEPT: d. Can use citrate as a sole carbon source

Even though hypochlorites are inexpensive and have a broad range of microbes that they kill, they are not used as sterilants because of: _____________________________________________________

Even though hypochlorites are inexpensive and have a broad range of microbes that they kill, they are not used as sterilants because of: Long exposure time for sporicidal action

Examination of a CSF shows 1000 WBCs, of which 75% are lymphocytes and 25% are monocytes. This finding is consistent with: A. Normal spinal fluid B. Bacterial meningitis C. Viral meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis

Examination of a CSF shows 1000 WBCs, of which 75% are lymphocytes and 25% are monocytes. This finding is consistent with: C. Viral meningitis

Examination of synovial fluid under direct polarized light reveals intracellular needle-shaped crystals that appear white against the black background. When a red compensator is added and the crystals are aligned with the slow vibration, they appear yellow against the red background. These crystals are: A. Monosodium urate showing positive birefringence B. Monosodium urate showing negative birefringence C. Calcium pyrophosphate showing positive birefringence D. Calcium pyrophosphate showing negative birefringence

Examination of synovial fluid under direct polarized light reveals intracellular needle-shaped crystals that appear white against the black background. When a red compensator is added and the crystals are aligned with the slow vibration, they appear yellow against the red background. These crystals are: B. Monosodium urate showing negative birefringence

Excessive fat metabolism is indicated by the urinary presence of:

Excessive fat metabolism is indicated by the urinary presence of: Ketones

Failure to empty the bladder before beginning the collection of a timed urine specimen will: 1) Cause falsely increased results 2) Affect the preservation of glucose 3) Cause falsely decreased results 4) Adversely affect culture results

Failure to empty the bladder before beginning the collection of a timed urine specimen will: 1) Cause falsely increased results

Failure to mix a specimen prior to inserting the reagent strip will primarily affect the: Glucose reading Blood reading Nitrite reading Ph reading

Failure to mix a specimen prior to inserting the reagent strip will primarily affect the: Blood reading

Fifty years after his release from a concentration camp, a man develop signs and symptoms of typhus. He has no known contacts or source of disease exposure at this time; however, he may have had it in 1945. What is the most likely current diagnosis? A. Oroya fever B. Q fever C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever D. Brill Zinsser syndrome

Fifty years after his release from a concentration camp, a man develop signs and symptoms of typhus. He has no known contacts or source of disease exposure at this time; however, he may have had it in 1945. What is the most likely current diagnosis? D. Brill Zinsser syndrome

Fill in the blanks with the correct tapeworm. 1st blank 2nd blank Third blank Fourth Blank 5th blank 1. Dipylidium caninum 2. Hymenolepis diminuta 3. Diphyllobothrium latum 4. Taenia spp. 5. Hymenolepis nana

Fill in the blanks with the correct tapeworm. 1. Diphyllobothrium latum 2. Taenia spp. 3. Hymenolepis nana 4. Hymenolepis diminuta 5. Dipylidium caninum

Filtration of protein is prevented in the glomerulus by_______________________________________ and _________________

Filtration of protein is prevented in the glomerulus by_______________________________________ and _________________ Capillary pores Shield of negativity

Following a platelet concentrate transfusion, a patient did not obtain the calculated corrected count increment that was expected. Select the possible reason(s) the increment increase did not occur. A) Patient had a fever B) Patient was actively bleeding C) Patient has platelet antibodies D) All of the above are correct

Following centrifugation of the gel card, red cells are evenly dispersed throughout one of the microtubes. This reaction could be graded as a: A) 4+. B) 3+. C) 2+. D) 1+.

Following centrifugation of the gel card, red cells are evenly dispersed throughout one of the microtubes. This reaction could be graded as a: C) 2+.

Following delivery, what is the deferral time for donating a unit of whole blood? A) 2 weeks B) 4 weeks C) 6 weeks D) 8 weeks

Following delivery, what is the deferral time for donating a unit of whole blood? C) 6 weeks

Following delivery, when should Rh immune globulin be administered? A) 12 hours B) 24 hours C) 48 hours D) 72 hours

Following delivery, when should Rh immune globulin be administered? D) 72 hours

Following donation, how long does it take to replace the fluid lost from giving whole blood? A) 3 hours B) 12 hours C) 48 hours D) 72 hours

Following donation, how long does it take to replace the fluid lost from giving whole blood? D) 72 hours

Following recovery from an upper respiratory infection, a 5-year-old boy develops numerous petechia. He reports that his urine is red. Results of his urinalysis are: · Color: Red · Clarity: Cloudy · Specific gravity: 1.017 · pH: 6.0 · Protein: 2+ · Glucose: Negative · Ketones: Negative · Bilirubin: Negative · Blood: Large · Urobilinogen: 0.2EU · Nitrite: Negative · Leukocyte esterase: Trace · Microscopic · 6-8 WBCs/hpf · >100 RBCs/hpf · 1-3 hyaline casts/lpf · 2-4 RBC casts/lpf Based on the information provided, what other specimen(s) could be collected and tested for the presence of blood? A. Sputum B. Cerebral spinal fluid C. Bronchial washing D. Abdominal fluid Based on the information provided, how does the presence of petechiae relate to the abnormal results? A. Allergic reaction B. Decreased vascular integrity C. Increased platelets D. Increased destruction of red cells Based on the information given, what is the most probable diagnosis? A. Henoch-Schönlein purpura B. Minimal change disease C. Wegener's granulomatosus D. Goodpasture syndrome

Following recovery from an upper respiratory infection, a 5-year-old boy develops numerous petechia. He reports that his urine is red. Results of his urinalysis are: · Color: Red · Clarity: Cloudy · Specific gravity: 1.017 · pH: 6.0 · Protein: 2+ · Glucose: Negative · Ketones: Negative · Bilirubin: Negative · Blood: Large · Urobilinogen: 0.2EU · Nitrite: Negative · Leukocyte esterase: Trace · Microscopic · 6-8 WBCs/hpf · >100 RBCs/hpf · 1-3 hyaline casts/lpf · 2-4 RBC casts/lpf Based on the information provided, what other specimen(s) could be collected and tested for the presence of blood? A. Sputum Based on the information provided, how does the presence of petechiae relate to the abnormal results? B. Decreased vascular integrity Based on the information given, what is the most probable diagnosis? A. Henoch-Schönlein purpura Answer as it appears in D2L: Sputum Decreased vasular integrity Henoch-Schonlein pupura

For the most effective microbial killing, all iodophors must be properly diluted because: A) they stain the skin if too concentrated. B) this decreases contact time for adequate killing. C) there must be enough free iodine to kill the microorganisms. D) this increases contact time for adequate killing.

For the most effective microbial killing, all iodophors must be properly diluted because: C) there must be enough free iodine to kill the microorganisms.

Formation of crystals due to medications is most frequently caused by: A. Inadequate hydration B. Incorrect timing of medication doses C. Medication overdoses D. Use of expired antibiotics

Formation of crystals due to medications is most frequently caused by: A. Inadequate hydration

When a nucleotide is either deleted or added to a sequence such that a protein is produced in an altered state, it is referred to as: Introns Exons Frameshift Splicing

Frameshift

Freshly voided normal urine is usually clear; however, if it is alkaline, a white turbidity may be present due to: a. Amorphous phosphates and carbonates b. Uroerythrin c. WBCs d. Yeast

Freshly voided normal urine is usually clear; however, if it is alkaline, a white turbidity may be present due to: a. Amorphous phosphates and carbonates

Galactose will react with: A. Multistix but not Clinitest B. Multistix but not Chemstrip C. Multistix and Chemstrip D. Clinitest but not Chemstrip

Galactose will react with: D. Clinitest but not Chemstrip

Gamma-Hemolysis is:_____________________________________________________

Gamma-Hemolysis is: When organisms have no lytic effect on the erythrocytes in the blood agar plate.

Generally, microbiologists observe the colonial morphology of organisms on primary culture after how many hours of incubation?_____________________________

Generally, microbiologists observe the colonial morphology of organisms on primary culture after how many hours of incubation? 18-24 hours

Ghost RBCs most frequently occur with a urine specimen that exhibits the following: A. High pH, high specific gravity B. High pH, low specific gravity C. Low pH, high specific gravity D. Low pH, low specific gravity

Ghost RBCs most frequently occur with a urine specimen that exhibits the following: B. High pH, low specific gravity

Gram stains performed on CSF specimens are helpful in the: A. Diagnosis of tubercular meningitis B. Diagnosis of bacterial meningitis C. Detection of viral meningitis D. Detection of bacterial and fungal meningitis

Gram stains performed on CSF specimens are helpful in the: D. Detection of bacterial and fungal meningitis

HLA matching between the donor and recipient is important for progenitor cell transplantation to avoid: A) graft versus host disease (GVHD). B)graft rejection. C) transfusion reactions. D) A and B.

HLA matching between the donor and recipient is important for progenitor cell transplantation to avoid: A) graft versus host disease (GVHD). B)graft rejection. D) A and B.

Hepatitis A virus transmission in blood is unusual because: hepatitis A virus is usually transmitted by the enteric route. hepatitis A virus is usually an acute hepatitis. infectivity after a hepatitis A virus infection is usually only 2 weeks. all of the above.

How are antibiotics chosen for inclusion into laboratory antimicrobial testing protocols? a. There are no set standards, because physicians demand which drugs they want tested for particular bugs each time an antimicrobial susceptibility test is performed. b. The Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) sets the standard for drugs that must be tested for each type of specimen. c. It is important that the drugs tested by the laboratory match as closely as possible the institutional formulary. d. The patient population decides the drugs included in the laboratory's testing protocols.

How are antibiotics chosen for inclusion into laboratory antimicrobial testing protocols? c. It is important that the drugs tested by the laboratory match as closely as possible the institutional formulary.

How are most blood group systems inherited? A) Autosomal recessive B) Autosomal dominant C) Sex-linked recessive D) Autosomal codominant

How are most blood group systems inherited? D) Autosomal codominant

How are mycobacterial infections transmitted?

How are mycobacterial infections transmitted? Air or Respiratory Droplets

How are organisms identified with commercial identification kits? a. Numeric codes b. Color codes c. Alphabetic codes d. Alphanumeric codes

How are organisms identified with commercial identification kits? a. Numeric codes

How can Nocardia spp. be presumptively identified? a. Strong staining with Gram stain and the presence of filamentous, branching organisms b. Medusa head colonies with filamentous, branching organisms present on acid-fast stain c. Sulfur granules that when crushed and Gram stained reveal filamentous, branching organisms d. Filamentous, branching organisms with a modified acid fast stain.

How can Nocardia spp. be presumptively identified? d. Filamentous, branching organisms with a modified acid fast stain.

How can one determine if a person has had a previous illness with an organism?

How can one determine if a person has had a previous illness with an organism? Perform acute and convalescent IgG levels.

How does the Department of Transportation (DOT) define an infectious substance? a. Any substance capable of transmitting disease b. A material known to contain or is suspected of containing a pathogen that causes disease in humans or animals c. Any substance that can cause disease in animals d. A bacterium, virus, prion, or virion

How does the Department of Transportation (DOT) define an infectious substance? b. A material known to contain or is suspected of containing a pathogen that causes disease in humans or animals

How does the biofilm protect the organism? a. By inhibiting phagocytosis b. By inhibiting chemotaxis c. By suppressing the lymphoproliferative response d. All of the above

How does the small intestine try to prevent infection?

How does the small intestine try to prevent infection? Peristalsis

How has the treatment of mycobacterial disease changed in light of the multidrug-resistant strains of mycobacteria that are being isolated?____________________________

How has the treatment of mycobacterial disease changed in light of the multidrug-resistant strains of mycobacteria that are being isolated?____________________________ Combinations of three or four drugs are used instead of a single drug.

How is Bordetella disease spread?

How is Bordetella disease spread? Respiratory droplets

How is Helicobacter pylori presumptively identified?

How is Helicobacter pylori presumptively identified? A rapid urease test done on a gastric biopsy

How is Neisseria meningitidis spread?

How is Neisseria meningitidis spread? Respiratory droplets

How is congenital syphilis transmitted from the mother to her unborn child?

How is congenital syphilis transmitted from the mother to her unborn child? Crossing the placenta

How is culture media selected for specimen plating? a. Determine the supplemental agar needed as well as the broth media. b. Always include nonselective media and differential media to help save a day of reading the culture on the bench. c. Use only broth for the initial inoculation and subculture to plates after 24 hours of incubation. d. The selection of media to inoculate is based on the type of specimen submitted for culture and the organisms likely to be involved in the infectious process.

How is culture media selected for specimen plating? d. The selection of media to inoculate is based on the type of specimen submitted for culture and the organisms likely to be involved in the infectious process.

How is hepatitis B transmitted? Should know from memory.

How is hepatitis B transmitted? Should know from memory. Blood and Body fluids

How is the sensitivity of a viral marker assay described? A) True positives divided by difference between true positives and false negatives B) True negatives divided by sum of true negatives and false positives C) True positives divided by sum of true positives and false negatives D) True negatives divided by difference between true negatives and false positives

How is the sensitivity of a viral marker assay described? C) True positives divided by sum of true positives and false negatives

How is the stability of a given hybrid calculated? a. By calculating the number of certain types of bases in its structure b. By calculating the length of the hybrid c. By determining the melting temperature of a probe d. By determining the ionic strength of the test solution

How is the stability of a given hybrid calculated? c. By determining the melting temperature of a probe

How long are anaerobic cultures routinely held in the laboratory?

How long are anaerobic cultures routinely held in the laboratory? 5-7 days

How long are continuous monitoring blood cultures usually held?

How long are continuous monitoring blood cultures usually held? 5 days

How long are conventional blood cultures usually held?

How long are conventional blood cultures usually held? 7 days

How long following transfusion must the recipient's sample be stored? A) 5 days B) 7 days C) 10 days D) 14 days

How long following transfusion must the recipient's sample be stored? B) 7 days

How long must a donor wait to donate red blood cells again following a 2-unit red blood cell apheresis donation? A) 56 days B) 4 weeks C) 10 weeks D) 16 weeks

How long must a donor wait to donate red blood cells again following a 2-unit red blood cell apheresis donation? D) 16 weeks

How many grams of NaCl is used to prepare 2L of 0.9% normal saline? 0.9 grams 9 grams 1.8 grams 18 grams

How many grams of NaCl is used to prepare 2L of 0.9% normal saline? 18 grams

How many stool specimens should be collected and over what period of time for parasitology studies? A) 1 over 1 day B) 2 over 5 days C) 3 over 10 days D) 4 over 15 days

How many stool specimens should be collected and over what period of time for parasitology studies? C) 3 over 10 days

How many units of red blood cells are required to raise the hematocrit of a 70-kg nonbleeding adult man from 24% to 30%? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Know calculations. Numbers will change on quizzes and exams

How many units of red blood cells are required to raise the hematocrit of a 70-kg nonbleeding adult man from 24% to 30%? B) 2 Know calculations. Numbers will change on quizzes and exams

How often can a person donate a unit of whole blood for a directed donation? A) 8 weeks B) 2 weeks C) 48 hours D) 24 hours

How often can a person donate a unit of whole blood for a directed donation? A) 8 weeks

How should BAL specimens be transported to the laboratory for analysis? A. Body temperature B. Cold on ice C. Room temperature D. Freeze immediately

How should BAL specimens be transported to the laboratory for analysis? C. Room temperature

How should a specimen for Neisseria gonorrhoeae be transported to the laboratory? a. Placed in the paper swab cover and transported to the laboratory at the end of the day b. Placed in a bacterial transport and transported to the laboratory at the end of the day c. Placed in a tube of broth and transported to the laboratory immediately d. Placed in Amies with charcoal transport system and transported to the laboratory immediately

How should a specimen for Neisseria gonorrhoeae be transported to the laboratory? d. Placed in Amies with charcoal transport system and transported to the laboratory immediately

How should specimen collection instructions be given to the patient to ensure collection of a good specimen for culture? a. Verbally b. Verbally, in many different languages c. Verbally and written in English d. Written, using simple language (in several languages) and pictures to help the patient understand the procedure as it is verbally explained

How should specimen collection instructions be given to the patient to ensure collection of a good specimen for culture? d. Written, using simple language (in several languages) and pictures to help the patient understand the procedure as it is verbally explained

How would the following results be interpreted? Anti A with patient cells= 4+ Anti B with patient cells= 1+ Patient serum with A1 cells= 0 Patient serum with B cells =4+

How would the following results be interpreted? Anti A with patient cells= 4+ Anti B with patient cells= 1+ Patient serum with A1 cells= 0 Patient serum with B cells =4+ Group A with Acquired B Antigen

How would you interpret the results if both the anti-D reagent and the Rh control were 2+ agglutination reactions? A) D-positive B) D-negative C) Unable to determine without further testing D) Depends on whether the sample was from a patient or a blood donor

How would you interpret the results if both the anti-D reagent and the Rh control were 2+ agglutination reactions? C) Unable to determine without further testing

How would you label a donor who tested negative with anti-D reagent upon immediate-spin and positive in antihuman globulin test? A) D-positive B) D-negative C) Cannot label; more testing needed

How would you label a donor who tested negative with anti-D reagent upon immediate-spin and positive in antihuman globulin test? A) D-positive

Hyaline casts may degenerate into:

Hyaline casts may degenerate into: Waxy casts

If CSF tubes numbered 2 and 3 cannot be analyzed within 1 hour, the correct procedure is to: A. Refrigerate both tubes B. Leave both tubes at room temperature C. Refrigerate tube 2 and freeze tube 3 D. Refrigerate tube 3 and leave tube 2 at room temperature

If CSF tubes numbered 2 and 3 cannot be analyzed within 1 hour, the correct procedure is to: D. Refrigerate tube 3 and leave tube 2 at room temperature

If D-negative red cells are transfused to an R1R1 individual, what is the most likely Rh antibody that could develop? A) Anti-E B) Anti-d C) Anti-D D) Anti-c

If D-negative red cells are transfused to an R1R1 individual, what is the most likely Rh antibody that could develop? D) Anti-c

If a D-positive person appears to have anti-D in their serum, what is the most likely explanation? A) D-deletion phenotype B) Compound antigen C) Partial D antigen D) Transposition effect

If a D-positive person appears to have anti-D in their serum, what is the most likely explanation? C) Partial D antigen

If a baby were exposed to hepatitis A in utero, and now has a current illness, what type of antibodies would be produced by the baby?

If a baby were exposed to hepatitis A in utero, and now has a current illness, what type of antibodies would be produced by the baby? IgM

If a patient has a throat culture done and the culture reveals the presence of alpha- hemolytic colonies, what does this indicate? a. These organisms are pathogenic and must be treated. b. These organisms are normally found in the pharynx and are normal. c. The patient is suffering from a viral pharyngitis. d. The patient has mouth ulcers that require antiviral treatment

If a patient has a throat culture done and the culture reveals the presence of alpha- hemolytic colonies, what does this indicate? b. These organisms are normally found in the pharynx and are normal.

If a prospective donor has participated in a plasmapheresis program, how long must he or she wait to donate whole blood? A) 56 days B) 48 hours C) 24 hours D) 4 weeks

If a prospective donor has participated in a plasmapheresis program, how long must he or she wait to donate whole blood? B) 48 hours

If a symptomatic patient presents to a physician with an infection, the physician will treat the patient with antibiotics. What role does the laboratory play in antibiotic selection if the physician has already treated the patient before receiving the culture results? a. The physician has only given the patient antibiotic samples, and they will only last for a couple days—until the culture results are ready and a proper prescription can be written. b. Physicians will only write antibiotic prescriptions for patients who are infected with a large number of bacteria, so the laboratory needs to tell the physician which antibiotic to use to treat the patient infected with small number of bacteria. c. The physician can treat the patient for bacterial infections, but if the patient has a fungal infection, the physician relies on the laboratory to tell her or him if the patient has a fungal infection. d. The physician expects the laboratory to affirm or reject the antibiotic choice made after the presumptive diagnosis.

If a symptomatic patient presents to a physician with an infection, the physician will treat the patient with antibiotics. What role does the laboratory play in antibiotic selection if the physician has already treated the patient before receiving the culture results? d. The physician expects the laboratory to affirm or reject the antibiotic choice made after the presumptive diagnosis.

If a test is not considered appropriate for the specimen, the following should happen: a. Discipline the ward clerk for ordering the wrong test. b. Discipline the nurse for ordering the wrong test. c. Hold a training session to teach hospital staff about correctly ordering tests. d. The laboratory needs to communicate with the physician to determine exactly what needs to be done.

If a test is not considered appropriate for the specimen, the following should happen: d. The laboratory needs to communicate with the physician to determine exactly what needs to be done.

If all antibody identification panel cells were reactive at the same strength at the antihuman globulin phase, no negative reactions were observed, and the autocontrol was negative, what antibody should be suspected? a. Multiple antibody specificities b. Warm autoantibody c. Antibody to a low-frequency antigen d. Antibody to a high-frequency antigen

If all antibody identification panel cells were reactive at the same strength at the antihuman globulin phase, no negative reactions were observed, and the autocontrol was negative, what antibody should be suspected? d. Antibody to a high-frequency antigen

If an anti-I is suspected in a patient's sample that requires a transfusion, what is the most acceptable course of action? a. Call the rare donor registry. b. Crossmatch cord blood. c. Perform a cold autoadsorption. d. Perform the prewarm technique.

If an anti-I is suspected in a patient's sample that requires a transfusion, what is the most acceptable course of action? d. Perform the prewarm technique.

If an emergency exists and there is not enough time to perform a crossmatch for red cells, what is the correct procedure? A) Release group O, D-negative whole blood. B) Release group O, D-negative RBC units. C) Release group AB fresh frozen plasma until the blood type is performed. D) Release ABO-compatible blood based on the patient's prior record in the computer.

If an emergency exists and there is not enough time to perform a crossmatch for red cells, what is the correct procedure? B) Release group O, D-negative RBC units.

If an organism fermented glucose only and utilized peptones, what would the triple sugar iron (TSI) reaction be? a. Acid/acid b. Alkaline/acid c. Alkaline/alkaline d. Acid/alkaline

If an organism fermented glucose only and utilized peptones, what would the triple sugar iron (TSI) reaction be? b. Alkaline/acid

If the technologist forgets to add the Gram's iodine to the staining procedure, what will most likely occur?

If the technologist forgets to add the Gram's iodine to the staining procedure, what will most likely occur? Gram positive bacteria will decolorize more readily producing a false gram negative reaction. The iodine forms a complex with crystal violet, aiding the retention of the dye during the decolorization step.

If transport of the specimen is delayed, the specimen can be maintained by all of the following EXCEPT: a. Preservatives b. Transport or holding medium c. Saltwater d. Anticoagulants

If transport of the specimen is delayed, the specimen can be maintained by all of the following EXCEPT: c. Saltwater

If two traits occur higher in a population together than each occurs separately, they may be linked. What does this fact suggest? A) They are found far apart on the same chromosome. B) They are inherited on different chromosomes. C) Crossover has occurred. D) The genes are close together on the same chromosome.

If two traits occur higher in a population together than each occurs separately, they may be linked. What does this fact suggest? D) The genes are close together on the same chromosome.

In a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction, what is a typical DAT result? A) Negative B) Positive due to C3 C) Mixed field positive D) Very strongly positive

In a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction, what is a typical DAT result? C) Mixed field positive

In a family study, all four siblings in the family had a different blood type: A, B, O, and AB. What is the most likely genotypes of the parents? A) AA and BB B) AO and BB C) OO and AB D) AO and BO

In a family study, all four siblings in the family had a different blood type: A, B, O, and AB. What is the most likely genotypes of the parents? D) AO and BO

In a fully automated analyzer, clarity is measured by: A. Light scatter B. Turbidity C. Laser light D. Reflectance

In a fully automated analyzer, clarity is measured by: A. Light scatter

In a random population, 16% of the population is homozygous for a particular trait. What percentage of the same population is heterozygous for that particular trait? Show your math.

In a random population, 16% of the population is homozygous for a particular trait. What percentage of the same population is heterozygous for that particular trait? Show your math. Hardy-Weinberg equation: p^2 + 2pq + q^2= 1 p^2 = homozygous dominant q^2 = homozygous recessive 2pq = heterozygous A = p a = q AA = p^2 aa = q^2 Aa = pq If p^2 = 16%, then p = 4, (4 x 4 = 16) p + q = 1 Therefore, q = 6 So, 2 x 4 x 6 = 48% ANSWER: Using the Hardy Weinberg formula, (p + q)2 = 1.0. therefore the square root of 0.16 is 0.4 and 0.4 + 0.6 = 1. Since the expanded formula is p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1.0, then 2pq is the heterozygous population, which is 2 x 0.4 x0. 6 = 0.48 or 48%

In a routine audit of a facilities blood collection area, the quality assurance department found that the blood bags being used on that particular day had expired. What is the appropriate course of action? A. Initiate a root cause analysis and quarantine the blood collected in the expired bags. B. Call the Food and Drug Administration to report the incident. C. Change the expiration date on the bags to avoid legal issues. D. Fire the donor room supervisor, and discard the blood collected in the expired bags.

In a routine audit of a facilities blood collection area, the quality assurance department found that the blood bags being used on that particular day had expired. What is the appropriate course of action? A. Initiate a root cause analysis and quarantine the blood collected in the expired bags.

In a serologic test, the term prozone is also known as: 1. equivalence. 2. antigen excess. 3. antibody excess. 4. serum-to-cell ratio.

In a serologic test, the term prozone is also known as: 3. antibody excess.

In a spectrophotometer the most common light source for the visible range is a: Tungsten lamp A Flame emission photometer Didymium lamp Hydrogen dishcharge lamp

In a spectrophotometer the most common light source for the visible range is a: Tungsten lamp

In a suspected case of ABO HDFN, what significant information is obtained from the baby's blood smear? A) The estimated platelet count B) Increase in nucleated red cells C) The presences of spherocytes D) Increase in monocytes

In a suspected case of ABO HDFN, what significant information is obtained from the baby's blood smear? C) The presences of spherocytes

In diabetic nephropathy, solid material deposited around the capillary tufts includes: A. IgG B. Glycosylated IgA C. Glycosylated protein D. IgM complexes

In diabetic nephropathy, solid material deposited around the capillary tufts includes: C. Glycosylated protein

In gout, both serum and synovial fluid will have increased levels of:_______________________

In gout, both serum and synovial fluid will have increased levels of: uric acid

In gram-positive bacteria, this is substantially thicker and more multilayered than in gram-negative bacteria. a. Lipopolysaccharide b. Phospholipid c. Peptidoglycan d. Cholesterol

In gram-positive bacteria, this is substantially thicker and more multilayered than in gram-negative bacteria. c. Peptidoglycan

In polymerase chain reaction (PCR), the target DNA is: a. Complexed with RNA b. Made using reverse transcriptase c. Exponentially amplified over many cycles of PCR d. Separated so that the solution can be electrophoresed and a Northern blot performed

In polymerase chain reaction (PCR), the target DNA is: c. Exponentially amplified over many cycles of PCR

In precipitation assays, what is the precipitate made out of? a. Complement and protein complex b. Antibody and protein complex c. Antigen and antibody complex d. Antigen and protein complex

In precipitation assays, what is the precipitate made out of? c. Antigen and antibody complex

In relationship testing, a "direct exclusion" is established when a genetic marker is: A) present in the child but absent in both the mother and alleged father. B) present in the child, absent in the mother, and present in the alleged father. C) absent in the child, present in the mother, and the alleged father. D) absent in the child, present in the mother, and absent in the alleged father.

In relationship testing, a "direct exclusion" is established when a genetic marker is: A) present in the child but absent in both the mother and alleged father.

In safety training, employees must become familiar with all of the following except: A. tasks that have an infectious risk. B. limits of protective clothing and equipment. C. the appropriate action to take if exposure occurs. D. how to perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation on a donor or other employee.

In safety training, employees must become familiar with all of the following except: D. how to perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation on a donor or other employee.

In testing amniotic fluid, the Liley method of predicting the severity of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn is based on: A) colorimetric protein analysis. B) optical density of bilirubin at 450 nm. C) ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin. D) titration of antibody.

In testing amniotic fluid, the Liley method of predicting the severity of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn is based on: B) optical density of bilirubin at 450 nm.

In the Kirby-Bauer test, what is used to grow streptococci that do not grow adequately on unsupplemented Mueller-Hinton agar? a. Chocolate agar b. PEA agar c. Mueller-Hinton agar with 5% sheep blood d. Mueller-Hinton agar with 5% rabbit blood

In the Kirby-Bauer test, what is used to grow streptococci that do not grow adequately on unsupplemented Mueller-Hinton agar? c. Mueller-Hinton agar with 5% sheep blood

In the Laboratory Response Network (LRN) program, hospital-based microbiology laboratories are classified as this type of laboratory. _______________________________________

In the Laboratory Response Network (LRN) program, hospital-based microbiology laboratories are classified as this type of laboratory. Sentinel

In the PCR reaction, what is the term for the short pieces of single-stranded DNA that are complementary and mark the sequence to be amplified? A) Nucleotides B) Polymerases C) Primers D) Amplicons

In the PCR reaction, what is the term for the short pieces of single-stranded DNA that are complementary and mark the sequence to be amplified? C) Primers

In the laboratory, the clinical microbiologist is responsible for all the following except: a. isolating microorganisms. b. selecting treatment for patients. c. identifying microorganisms. d. analyzing bacteria that cause disease.

In the laboratory, the clinical microbiologist is responsible for all the following except: b. selecting treatment for patients.

In the laboratory, the preferred method of urine preservation is______________________.

In the laboratory, the preferred method of urine preservation is______________________. refrigeration

In the process of identifying an antibody, the technologist observed 2+ reactions with 3 of the 10 cells in a panel at the immediate-spin phase. These reactions disappeared following incubation at 37° C and the antihuman globulin phase of testing. What is the most likely responsible antibody? a. Anti-E b. Anti-D c. Anti-I d. Anti-Lea

In the process of identifying an antibody, the technologist observed 2+ reactions with 3 of the 10 cells in a panel at the immediate-spin phase. These reactions disappeared following incubation at 37° C and the antihuman globulin phase of testing. What is the most likely responsible antibody? d. Anti-Lea

In the solid-phase red cell adherence test, how does a negative test appear? A) A button of cells on the bottom of the well B) Adherence of cells along the sides and bottom of the wells C) Hemolysis of red cells D) A line of cells along the top of the well

In the solid-phase red cell adherence test, how does a negative test appear? A) A button of cells on the bottom of the well

In this type of antimicrobial susceptibility test, a McFarland 0.5 standardized suspension of bacteria is swabbed over the surface of a Mueller-Hinton agar plate, and paper disks containing single concentrations of each antimicrobial agent are placed onto the inoculated surface. What is the name of this test?

In this type of antimicrobial susceptibility test, a McFarland 0.5 standardized suspension of bacteria is swabbed over the surface of a Mueller-Hinton agar plate, and paper disks containing single concentrations of each antimicrobial agent are placed onto the inoculated surface. What is the name of this test? Kirby-Bauer

In warm climate, what organism is the most frequently isolated ocular pathogen? Genus and species

In warm climate, what organism is the most frequently isolated ocular pathogen? Genus and species Staphylococcus aureus

In what circumstance might a sediment be slightly warmed prior to microscopic examination? a. To hemolyze RBCs b. To dissolve amorphous urates c. To increase specific gravity d. To correct for temperature in determining the specific gravity

In what circumstance might a sediment be slightly warmed prior to microscopic examination? b. To dissolve amorphous urates

In which of the following disorders would waxy and broad casts be most likely to be seen? A. Chronic pyelonephritis B. Acute renal failure C. Chronic renal failure D. Acute interstitial nephritis

In which of the following disorders would waxy and broad casts be most likely to be seen? C. Chronic renal failure

In which step of the infectious process could biofilms help bacteria when it comes to indwelling medical devices? a. Downregulation b. Phenotypic variation c. Genotypic variation d. Attachment

In which step of the infectious process could biofilms help bacteria when it comes to indwelling medical devices? d. Attachment

Increased CSF eosinophils are associated with: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Introduction of foreign material C. Human immunodeficiency virus D. Viral meningitis

Increased CSF eosinophils are associated with: B. Introduction of foreign material

Increased neutrophils in a stool sample may indicate that the patient has which of the following? A. Staphylococcal food poisoning B. Pancreatic insufficiency C. Lower GI bleeding D. Salmonella infection

Increased neutrophils in a stool sample may indicate that the patient has which of the following? D. Salmonella infection

Increased turbidity in urine stored at room temperature is usually caused by: 1) Evaporation 2) White blood cells 3) Bacterial growth 4) Protein precipitation

Increased turbidity in urine stored at room temperature is usually caused by: 3) Bacterial growth

India ink preparations are useful in the diagnosis of:________

India ink preparations are useful in the diagnosis of:________ Cryptococcal meningitis or Fungal meningitis

Indicate how the following allogeneic donors should be classified. 1. ___ 28-year-old man who was incarcerated overnight for unspecified reason 2 months ago 2. ___ 25-year-old man treated for syphilis 3 months ago 3. ___ 48-year-old man taking Propecia for baldness 4. ___ 27-year-old woman returning from the Peace Corps in Nigeria who was vaccinated for typhoid 6 months ago 5. ___ 50-year-old woman on vacation in the United States who currently lives in England 6. ___ 19-year-old woman who recently finished the three-part vaccination for hepatitis B surface antigen after starting a volunteer position at the hospital 7. ___ 18-year-old woman currently taking Accutane for acne 8. ___ 53-year-old woman taking a beta-blocker for hypertension and over-the-counter low-dose aspirin for blood-clot prevention 9. ___ 22-year-old man who returned from Iraq 3 months ago and was vaccinated for tetanus and yellow fever before being deployed 10. ___ 65-year-old woman taking sleep medication at night 1. Temporarily deferred 2. Temporarily deferred 3. Indefinite deferral 4. Acceptable donors 5. Acceptable donors 6. Temporarily deferred 7. Temporarily deferred 8. Acceptable donors 9. Temporarily deferred 10. Acceptable donors 11. Permanently deferred

Indicate how the following allogeneic donors should be classified. 1. Acceptable donors = 28-year-old man who was incarcerated overnight for unspecified reason 2 months ago 2. Temporarily deferred = 25-year-old man treated for syphilis 3 months ago 3. Temporarily deferred = 48-year-old man taking Propecia for baldness 4. Temporarily deferred = 27-year-old woman returning from the Peace Corps in Nigeria who was vaccinated for typhoid 6 months ago 5. Indefinite deferral = 50-year-old woman on vacation in the United States who currently lives in England 6. Acceptable donors = 19-year-old woman who recently finished the three-part vaccination for hepatitis B surface antigen after starting a volunteer position at the hospital 7. Temporarily deferred = 18-year-old woman currently taking Accutane for acne 8. Acceptable donors = 53-year-old woman taking a beta-blocker for hypertension and over-the-counter low-dose aspirin for blood-clot prevention 9. Temporarily deferred = 22-year-old man who returned from Iraq 3 months ago and was vaccinated for tetanus and yellow fever before being deployed 10. Acceptable donors = 65-year-old woman taking sleep medication at night

Indicate whether each of the following would be considered a Preanalytical, Analytical, or Post Analytical factor. Rejection of a contaminated specimen Telephoning a positive Clinitest result on a newborn Examining a urine for microscopic elements Collecting a timed urine specimen 1. Preanalytical 2. Analytical 3. Post Analytical

Indicate whether each of the following would be considered a Preanalytical, Analytical, or Post Analytical factor. Rejection of a contaminated specimen = 1. Preanalytical Telephoning a positive Clinitest result on a newborn = 3. Post Analytical Examining a urine for microscopic elements = 2. Analytical Collecting a timed urine specimen = 1. Preanalytical

Infections with Vibrio spp. can be contracted in all of the following situations EXCEPT: a. Increased travel to either coastal or cholera-endemic areas b. Increased consumption of seafood (particularly uncooked) c. Greater numbers of Vibrio spp. in the environment d. Increased use of recreational water facilities

Infections with Vibrio spp. can be contracted in all of the following situations EXCEPT: c. Greater numbers of Vibrio spp. in the environment

Information that the microbiology laboratory can provide to infection control practitioners includes: a. The prevalence of a particular pathogen b. Data on the effectiveness of handwashing techniques c. Information about the outbreak of meningitis cases in the surrounding counties d. The antibiotic ordering patterns of particular physicians

Information that the microbiology laboratory can provide to infection control practitioners includes: a. The prevalence of a particular pathogen

Innate immunity consists of which of the following components? a. Physical and chemical barriers, such as the skin and mucous membranes b. Blood proteins that act as mediators of infection c. Cells capable of phagocytosis d. All of the above are part of the innate immune system.

K-positive donor red cells were mistakenly transfused to a recipient with anti-K. The patient's posttransfusion blood sample has a positive direct antiglobulin test with polyspecific antihuman globulin. The direct antiglobulin test is positive because anti-K is an __________ antibody that has sensitized the __________ cells in vivo. A) IgG, donor's B) IgM, donor's C) IgG, recipient's D) IgM, recipient'

K-positive donor red cells were mistakenly transfused to a recipient with anti-K. The patient's posttransfusion blood sample has a positive direct antiglobulin test with polyspecific antihuman globulin. The direct antiglobulin test is positive because anti-K is an __________ antibody that has sensitized the __________ cells in vivo. A) IgG, donor's

LIS interfaces are an important component in automation because of its potential in: A) recognizing errors in sample ID. B) flagging discrepancies with previous test results. C) providing a mechanism for the electronic crossmatch. D) All of the above

Laboratory safety includes all the following areas EXCEPT: A) Radioactivity B) Chemical C) Isolation D) Fire

Laboratory safety includes all the following areas EXCEPT: C) Isolation

Laboratory technologists must not only keep themselves educated in their contribution to the infection control team, they must keep: a. Housekeeping alerted as to the nature of the microbiology laboratory's biohazardous waste b. Laboratory management aware of equipment needs c. The infection control personnel educated regarding the laboratory's contribution to the team d. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) informed of the continuing education needs of the microbiology laboratory's staff

Laboratory technologists must not only keep themselves educated in their contribution to the infection control team, they must keep: c. The infection control personnel educated regarding the laboratory's contribution to the team

Large orange-red droplets seen on direct microscopic examination of stools that have been mixed with Sudan III stain can represent: A. Fatty acids B. Soaps C. Neutral fats D. Cholesterol

Large orange-red droplets seen on direct microscopic examination of stools that have been mixed with Sudan III stain can represent: C. Neutral fats

Later in the evening, after attending a family reunion, several family members went to the emergency department after experiencing nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and severe cramping. When questioned about the food at the family reunion, the menu included fried chicken, hot dogs, hamburgers, potato salad, deviled eggs, éclairs, and cheesecake. The symptoms appeared about 4 hours after they ate. What is the most probable explanation for these symptoms? a. Staphylococcal food poisoning b. Toxic shock syndrome c. Toxic epidermal necrolysis d. Scalded skin syndrome

Later in the evening, after attending a family reunion, several family members went to the emergency department after experiencing nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and severe cramping. When questioned about the food at the family reunion, the menu included fried chicken, hot dogs, hamburgers, potato salad, deviled eggs, éclairs, and cheesecake. The symptoms appeared about 4 hours after they ate. What is the most probable explanation for these symptoms? a. Staphylococcal food poisoning

List five nonpathologic causes of cloudy urine. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

List five nonpathologic causes of cloudy urine. Squamous epithelial cells Mucus Amorphous phosphates carbonates urates Semen Radiographic contrast media Talcum powder Vaginal cream Fecal Contamination

List five pathologic causes of cloudy urine that are observed as cells during the microscopic examination. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

List five pathologic causes of cloudy urine that are observed as cells during the microscopic examination. RBC WBC Bacteria Yeast Nonsquamous Epithelial cells

List four of the eight body fluids that the soluble antigens can be found in.

List four of the eight body fluids that the soluble antigens can be found in. saliva urine tears bile amniotic fluid breast milk exudate digestive fluids

Major advantages of the leukocyte esterase reagent strip test include all of the following except: A. It will detect the presence of lysed leukocytes B. It can be used to screen specimens before bacterial culturing C. It is a more standardized method for detecting leukocytes than the microscopic method D. It will accurately quantitate the leukocytes present

Major advantages of the leukocyte esterase reagent strip test include all of the following except: D. It will accurately quantitate the leukocytes present

Match the Fisher-Race notation with the correct Weiner notation for the following: ___ R0 ___ ry ___ Rz ___ r' 1. DCE 2. CE 3. Ce 4. Dce

Match the Fisher-Race notation with the correct Weiner notation for the following: 4. Dce = R0 2. CE = ry 1. DCE = Rz 3. Ce = r'

Match the component with the indications for use. Each can be used more than once. 1. ___ Specific clotting deficiencies of factors VIII, V, and X 2. ___ Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura 3. ___ Decreases immunization to leukocytes 4. ___ Intravascular volume expansion 5. ___ Avoid graft-versus-host disease 6. ___ Deficiency of factor XIII and von Willebrand factor 7. ___ Bleeding due to thrombocytopenia 8. ___ Reduce the risk of allergic reactions 9. ___ Deficiency of factors II, V, X, and XI 10. ___ Treatment of symptomatic anemia 1. Albumin/plasma protein fraction 2. Platelets 3. Leukoreduced blood components 4. Washed red blood cells 5. Red blood cells 6. Factor concentrates 7. Fresh frozen plasma 8. Plasma, cryoprecipitate reduced 9. Irradiated blood products 10. Cryoprecipitated AHF

Match the component with the indications for use. Each can be used more than once. 1. ___ Specific clotting deficiencies of factors VIII, V, and X = 6. Factor concentrates 2. ___ Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura = 8. Plasma, cryoprecipitate reduced 3. ___ Decreases immunization to leukocytes = 3. Leukoreduced blood components 4. ___ Intravascular volume expansion = 1. Albumin/plasma protein fraction 5. ___ Avoid graft-versus-host disease = 9. Irradiated blood products 6. ___ Deficiency of factor XIII and von Willebrand factor = 10. Cryoprecipitated AHF 7. ___ Bleeding due to thrombocytopenia = 2. Platelets 8. ___ Reduce the risk of allergic reactions = 4. Washed red blood cells 9. ___ Deficiency of factors II, V, X, and XI = 7. Fresh frozen plasma 10. ___ Treatment of symptomatic anemia = 5. Red blood cells

Match the following types of microscopy with their descriptions: 1. _____Bright-field 2. _____Phase 3. _____Polarized 4. _____Dark-field 5. _____Fluorescent 6. _____Interference contrast A. Indirect light is reflected off the object B. Objects split light into two beams C. Low refractive index objects may be overlooked D. Three-dimensional images E. Forms halo of light around object F. Detects specific wavelengths of light emitted from objects

Match the following types of microscopy with their descriptions: 1. _____Bright-field = C. Low refractive index objects may be overlooked 2. _____Phase = E. Forms halo of light around object 3. _____Polarized = B. Objects split light into two beams 4. _____Dark-field = A. Indirect light is reflected off the object 5. _____Fluorescent = F. Detects specific wavelengths of light emitted from objects 6. _____Interference contrast = D. Three-dimensional images

Match the following viruses with the skin infections or descriptions. _____Rubeola _____Parvovirus B19 _____Herpes zoster or Shingles _____Rubella _____Herpes Simplex Virus _____Human Papillomavirus _____Zika _____Varicella-Zoster A. Hemorrhagic fever virus identified in 2015 B. German measles C. Fifth disease D. Genital Cancer E. Most common skin and mucous membrane infection affecting humans F. Measles G. Reactivation of VZ virus H. Chicken Pox

Match the following viruses with the skin infections or descriptions. Measles = Rubeola Fifth disease = Parvovirus B19 Reactivation of VZ virus = Herpes zoster or Shingles German measles = Rubella Most common skin and mucous membrane infection affecting humans = Herpes Simplex Virus Genital Cancer = Human Papillomavirus Hemorrhagic fever virus identified in 2015 = Zika Chicken Pox = Varicella-Zoster

Match the following: This layer of a biofilm is exposed to the highest concentration of nutrients and oxygen, containing the most active organisms.___ In this level of the biofilm, the organisms downregulate somewhat their metabolic activity, but they can still use nutrients and exchange genes.___ In this level of the biofilm, the organisms downregulate very efficiently and are the least metabolically active.___ Inner Outer Intermediate

Match the following: This layer of a biofilm is exposed to the highest concentration of nutrients and oxygen, containing the most active organisms. = Outer In this level of the biofilm, the organisms downregulate somewhat their metabolic activity, but they can still use nutrients and exchange genes. = Intermediate In this level of the biofilm, the organisms downregulate very efficiently and are the least metabolically active. = Inner

Match the government or accrediting agencies with the description that best fits their purpose. 1. ___ Ensures safe and healthful working conditions 2. ___ Ensures the safety and efficacy of biologics, drugs, and devices 3. ___ Provides peer-reviewed accreditation for hospital laboratories 4. ___ Professional organization that accredits blood banks and transfusion services 5. ____Makes recommendations to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration regarding the prevention of disease transmission A. FDA B. OSHA C. CDC D. AABB E. CAP

Match the government or accrediting agencies with the description that best fits their purpose. OSHA ensures safe and healthful working conditions The FDA Ensures the safety and efficacy of biologics, drugs, and devices The CAP provides peer-reviewed accreditation for hospital laboratories The AABB is a professional organization that accredits blood banks and transfusion services The CDC makes recommendations to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration regarding the prevention of disease transmission

Match the immunodominant sugar that corresponds to the ABO system group or antigen. This question is for bonus only. Question options: ___H antigen ___Group B ___Group A ___Group O ___Bombay 1.N-acetylgalactosamine 2.D-galactose 3.L-fucose 4.L-fucose 5.None of the above

Match the immunodominant sugar that corresponds to the ABO system group or antigen. This question is for bonus only. Question options: ___H antigen = 4. L-fucose ___Group B = 2.D-galactose ___Group A = 1. N-acetylgalactosamine ___Group O = 4. L-fucose ___Bombay = 5. None of the above 1.N-acetylgalactosamine 2.D-galactose 3.L-fucose 4.L-fucose 5.None of the above

Match the tentative interpretation of antibody screen and direct antiglobulin test (DAT) with the results given below. ____ All screening cells 2+ at antihuman globulin phase, DAT positive, IgG 2+ ____ All screening cells positive 1+ at IS, DAT negative ____ One screening cell 1+ at antihuman globulin phase, DAT negative _____ All screening cells positive 1+ at IS, DAT positive, C3 1+ 1.Autoantibody or transfusion reaction, IgG 2.Alloantibody, IgG 3.Autoantibody, IgM 4.Alloantibody, IgM

Match the tentative interpretation of antibody screen and direct antiglobulin test (DAT) with the results given below. 1.Autoantibody or transfusion reaction, IgG____ All screening cells 2+ at antihuman globulin phase, DAT positive, IgG 2+ 4.Alloantibody, IgM____ All screening cells positive 1+ at IS, DAT negative 2. Alloantibody, IgG____ One screening cell 1+ at antihuman globulin phase, DAT negative 3.Autoantibody, IgM_____ All screening cells positive 1+ at IS, DAT positive, C3 1+ 2 = One screening cell 1+ at antihuman globulin phase, DAT negative 4 = All screening cells positive 1+ at IS, DAT negative 3 = All screening cells positive 1+ at IS, DAT positive, C3 1+ 1 = All screening cells 2+ at antihuman globulin phase, DAT positive, IgG 2+

Match the term with the definition that best fits. A. Short segment of DNA with a known sequence that can be labeled with a marker B. The binding of two complementary pairs of DNA C. Amplified target sequences of DNA produced by polymerase chain reaction D. Marks the sequence to be amplified during PCR E. Technique used to replicate a specific DNA sequences _____Hybridization _____Primer _____Amplicon DNA sequence _____Probe _____Polymerase chain reaction

Match the term with the definition that best fits. A. Short segment of DNA with a known sequence that can be labeled with a marker = _____Probe B. The binding of two complementary pairs of DNA = _____Hybridization C. Amplified target sequences of DNA produced by polymerase chain reaction = _____Amplicon DNA sequence D. Marks the sequence to be amplified during PCR = _____Primer E. Technique used to replicate a specific DNA sequences_____Polymerase chain reaction

Match the terms below with the definition that best fits. A) Equal expression of two different inherited genes as in most blood group systems B) A gene that does not express a detectable product C) Having two or more alleles at a given gene locus D) When two genes are close together on the same chromosome and are inherited as a "group" or "bundle" E) When a gene product is expressed only when it is inherited by both parents 1.Haplotypes 2.Amorphic genes 3.Codominant genes 4.Polymorphic 5.Recessive

Match the terms below with the definition that best fits. A) Equal expression of two different inherited genes as in most blood group systems = 3.Codominant genes B) A gene that does not express a detectable product = 2.Amorphic genes C) Having two or more alleles at a given gene locus = 4.Polymorphic D) When two genes are close together on the same chromosome and are inherited as a "group" or "bundle" = 1.Haplotypes E) When a gene product is expressed only when it is inherited by both parents = 5.Recessive

Match the transfusion reaction with the description that best fits. 1. ___ Transfusion-related acute lung injury 2. ___ Febrile, nonhemolytic 3. ___ Acute hemolytic 4. ___ Urticarial 5. ___ Circulatory overload (TACO) 6. __ Delayed hemolytic 7. ___ Graft-versus-host disease 1. Prevented by leukocyte-reduced components 2. Symptoms include hives and itching 3. Prevented by irradiation of components 4. Caused by donor white cell antibodies 5. Alloantibodies to red cell antigens 6. Associated with ABO incompatibilities 7. Can be prevented by transfusion slowly

Match the transfusion reaction with the description that best fits. 1. ___ Transfusion-related acute lung injury = 4. Caused by donor white cell antibodies 2. ___ Febrile, nonhemolytic = 1. Prevented by leukocyte-reduced components 3. ___ Acute hemolytic = 6. Associated with ABO incompatibilities 4. ___ Urticarial = 2. Symptoms include hives and itching 5. ___ Circulatory overload (TACO) = 7. Can be prevented by transfusion slowly 6. __ Delayed hemolytic = 5. Alloantibodies to red cell antigens 7. ___ Graft-versus-host disease = 3. Prevented by irradiation of components

Matching: ______ Cervical lymphadenitis in children ______ Swimming pool granuloma ______Most common NTM causing tuberculosis in the USA ______ Tap water bacillus ______ 42C tap water bacillus A. Mycobacterium gordonae B. Mycobacterium avium complex C. Mycobacterium xenopi D. Mycobacterium marinum E. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum

Matching: Mycobacterium scrofulaceum = Cervical lymphadenitis in children Mycobacterium marinum = Swimming pool granuloma Mycobacterium avium complex = Most common NTM causing tuberculosis in the USA Mycobacterium gordonae = Tap water bacillus Mycobacterium xenopi = 42C tap water bacillus

Matching: Choose the description for the following urine crystals: A. Thorny apple B. Coffin lid C. Notched corners D. Hexagonal E. Dumbbell 1. Ammonium biurate ___ 2. Calcium carbonate ___ 3. Triple phosphate ___ 4. Cystine ___ 5. Cholesterol ___

Matching: Choose the description for the following urine crystals: A. Thorny apple = 1. Ammonium biurate B. Coffin lid = 3. Triple phosphate C. Notched corners = 5. Cholesterol D. Hexagonal = 4. Cystine E. Dumbbell = 2. Calcium carbonate

Mechanisms that mediate intrinsic antibiotic resistance include all the following EXCEPT: a. Cell-wall impermeability b. Biofilm formation c. Expression of genes mediating inactivating enzymes d. Alternate biosynthetic pathways

Mechanisms that mediate intrinsic antibiotic resistance include all the following EXCEPT: d. Alternate biosynthetic pathways

Mechanisms used by the skin to prevent infection and protect the underlying tissue from invasion by potential pathogens include all the following except: a. desquamation of the epithelium. b. excretion of lysozyme by sweat glands. c. antibiotics that inhibit many microorganisms. d. mechanical separation of microorganisms from the tissues.

Mechanisms used by the skin to prevent infection and protect the underlying tissue from invasion by potential pathogens include all the following except: c. antibiotics that inhibit many microorganisms.

Meconium is composed of bowel constituents. T/F

Meconium is composed of bowel constituents. True

Media that do not need to be retested by the hospital laboratory must still undergo observation for all of the following EXCEPT: a. Moisture b. Sterility c. Breakage d. Organism colony characteristics

Media that do not need to be retested by the hospital laboratory must still undergo observation for all of the following EXCEPT: d. Organism colony characteristics

Who was the father of genetics? Galileo Newton Koch Mendel

Mendel

Microaerophiles are bacteria that grow: a. In low oxygen concentrations b. In high carbon dioxide concentrations c. In reduced oxygen concentrations but increased carbon dioxide concentrations d. Where little or no oxygen is present

Microaerophiles are bacteria that grow: c. In reduced oxygen concentrations but increased carbon dioxide concentrations

Microscopic examination of stools for fecal cells provides preliminary information as to the cause of diarrhea because: A. Neutrophils are present in conditions caused by toxin-producing bacteria B. Neutrophils are present in conditions that affect the intestinal wall C. Red and white blood cells are present if the cause is malabsorption D. Neutrophils are present if the condition is of nonbacterial etiology

Microscopic examination of stools for fecal cells provides preliminary information as to the cause of diarrhea because: B. Neutrophils are present in conditions that affect the intestinal wall

Microscopic screening of a pale, frothy stool from a patient with prolonged diarrhea is performed for fecal neutrophils, fats, and meat fibers. The fecal neutrophil examination result is negative, increased large and small orange droplets are seen in the fat stains, and 10 unstriated muscle fibers are observed. Based on the information provided, what is the significance of the pale, frothy stool? A. Biliary obstruction B. Lactose intolerance C. Malnutrition D. Dumping syndrome

Microscopic screening of a pale, frothy stool from a patient with prolonged diarrhea is performed for fecal neutrophils, fats, and meat fibers. The fecal neutrophil examination result is negative, increased large and small orange droplets are seen in the fat stains, and 10 unstriated muscle fibers are observed. Based on the information provided, what is the significance of the pale, frothy stool? A. Biliary obstruction

Monoclonal antibodies are prepared in: A) vitro. B) vivo. C) laboratory animals. D) humans.

Monoclonal antibodies are prepared in: A) vitro.

Most "naturally occurring" ABO system antibodies fall into which immunoglobulin class? A) IgA B) IgM C) IgE D) IgG

Most "naturally occurring" ABO system antibodies fall into which immunoglobulin class? B) IgM

Most bacterial cultures are incubated at this temperature range._____________________

Most bacterial cultures are incubated at this temperature range. 35 to 37

Most doctors' offices use the rapid throat swab methods to identify Streptococcus pyogenes. If the test is positive, the physician treats the patient. What should happen if the test is negative? a. The physician should treat the patient to be safe. b. The physician should perform a throat culture. c. The physician should repeat the rapid strep tests. d. None of the above.

Most doctors' offices use the rapid throat swab methods to identify Streptococcus pyogenes. If the test is positive, the physician treats the patient. What should happen if the test is negative? b. The physician should perform a throat culture.

A PCR reaction in which four different sets of primers are used to amplify four different loci in the same reaction tube is a ______________ PCR reaction. Multiplex Heteroplex Polyplex Quadraplex

Multiplex

Multiplex PCR is good for: a. Simultaneously detecting two or more different targets from one polymerase chain reaction (PCR) tube b. Being the most sensitive method used to detect transfer RNA c. Detecting PCR products at the lowest levels of any of the PCR tests d. Using more than one DNA polymerase to make three to four times the amount of PCR products than standard PCR

Multiplex PCR is good for: a. Simultaneously detecting two or more different targets from one polymerase chain reaction (PCR) tube

Mycoplasmas are a different type of bacteria because they do not have a _____.

Mycoplasmas are a different type of bacteria because they do not have a _____. cell wall

Myelin basic protein is measured in the CSF to assess the condition of patients with: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Multiple sclerosis C. Bacterial meningitis D. Neurosyphilis

Myelin basic protein is measured in the CSF to assess the condition of patients with: B. Multiple sclerosis

Myoglobinuria may be caused by: A. A "crushing" injury B. Incompatible blood transfusions C. Chronic renal disease D. Biliary obstruction

Myoglobinuria may be caused by: A. A "crushing" injury

NASBA stands for: a. Nucleic acid sequence-based assay b. Nucleic acid short-base amplification c. Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification d. Nucleotide amplification subsequent-base assay

NASBA stands for: c. Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification

Name 3 major biochemical characteristics of Vibrio spp. Test and reaction (positive or negatie) needed for full credit.

Name 3 major biochemical characteristics of Vibrio spp. Test and reaction (positive or negative) needed for full credit. Positive Oxidase test Fermentative metabolism including inabillity to ferment inositol positive string test Susceptibility to the vibriostatic agen O/129 Halophilic Carbohydrate fermentation

Name 5 abnormal morphologies for sperm.

Name 5 abnormal morphologies for sperm. Double tail Spermatid Pinhead Double head Amorphous head Giant head Tapered head Constricted head Coiled tail

Name 6 advantages of Nucleic Acid Based Detection for viruses.

Name 6 advantages of Nucleic Acid Based Detection for viruses. Faster turn around time Better sensitivity compared with cell culture and DFA Assays that can be quantitative Detection of noncultruable viruses Ability to detect multiple viruses simultaneously Potentially characterization of the virus genetically

Name a curved, gram-negative rod that grows on TCBS agar? Genus

Name a curved, gram-negative rod that grows on TCBS agar? Genus Vibrio

Name four genus of nonfermenters that make up the majority of isolates routinely seen in the clinical laboratory.

Name four genus of nonfermenters that make up the majority of isolates routinely seen in the clinical laboratory. Pseudomonas Acinetobacter Stenotrophomonas Burkholderia Moraxella

Name the 4 required components of the ISBT 128 Blood Component label. a. b. c. d.

Name the 4 required components of the ISBT 128 Blood Component label. Donation Identification Number ABO/Rh Blood Groups Produce Code Expiration date and time

Name the genus and species of the organism that causes Lyme's disease

Name the genus and species of the organism that causes Lyme's disease Borrelia burgdorferi

Name the genus and species of the organism that causes relapsing fever.

Name the genus and species of the organism that causes relapsing fever. Borrelia recurrentis

Name the system associated with McLeod phenotype.

Name the system associated with McLeod phenotype. Kell

Name the system associated with chronic granulomatous disease.

Name the system associated with chronic granulomatous disease. Kell

Name the three genus that are pathogenic Spirochetes.

Name the three genus that are pathogenic Spirochetes. Treponema Borrelia Leptospira

Name the three initial steps in processing a suspected anaerobe.

Name the three initial steps in processing a suspected anaerobe. Gram stain Aerotolerance Pure culture to special disks

Name the two most common species of Enterobacter.

Name the two most common species of Enterobacter. E. cloacae E. aerogenes

Name the two reagents that are needed to visualize nitrite in the nitrate reduction test.____________________________ and _________________________

Name the two reagents that are needed to visualize nitrite in the nitrate reduction test. N,N-dimethyl-alpha-naphthylamine sulfanilic acid

Name the two ways that microorganisms that live in close proximity exchange DNA? ______________________ ______________________

Name the two ways that microorganisms that live in close proximity exchange DNA? ______________________ ______________________ Transformation Conjugation

Name three characteristics of nonfermenters.

Name three characteristics of nonfermenters. Thin Gram negative bacilli or coccobacilli Oxidase positive Don't ferment carbohydrates or TSI= Alk/Alk Non reacting in commericial identification kits. Resistant to a variety of antimicrobials such as aminoglycosides third generation cephalosporins, penicillins, and fluoroquinolones

Name three mosquito born Flaviviridae virus infections of concern in the United States. Spell out the names. Do not use acronyms.

Name three mosquito born Flaviviridae virus infections of concern in the United States. Spell out the names. Do not use acronyms. St. Louis encephalitis West Nile Virus Zika Virus

Name three species of nonfermenters that make up the majority of isolates routinely seen in the clinical laboratory.

Name three species of nonfermenters that make up the majority of isolates routinely seen in the clinical laboratory. Pseudomonas aeruginosa Acinetobacter spp. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

Name three stains used to visualize mycobacteria on a smear. _______________________________________________________________________________________

Name three stains used to visualize mycobacteria on a smear. _______________________________________________________________________________________ Ziehl-Neelsen Kinyoun Auramine

Name two methods for PCR product analysis.

Name two methods for PCR product analysis. Agarose Gel Electrophoresis Real Time Polymerase Chain Reaction

Name two nonpathogenic causes of abnormally high specific gravity readings using a refractometer.

Name two nonpathogenic causes of abnormally high specific gravity readings using a refractometer. I.V. pyelogram (excretion of radiographic dye) receiving dextran or high molecular weight IV fluids.

Nephelometers measure: Light scattered at a right angle to the light path Radiation absorbed by suspended particles Light transmitted by a particulate mixture Light reflected by a particulate mixture

Nephelometers measure: Light scattered at a right angle to the light path

Nested polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is very sensitive and specific because: a. It uses more than one DNA polymerase to make three to four times the amount of PCR products than standard PCR. b. The assay itself basically serves as a form of internal control and ensures specificity. c. The assay will act as a form of external control, ensuring specificity and sensitivity. d. The fluorochrome that is attached to the primers ensures specificity of the nucleotides that are attached to the template.

Nested polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is very sensitive and specific because: b. The assay itself basically serves as a form of internal control and ensures specificity.

Nongonococcal urethritis is most commonly caused by which of the following organisms? a) Haemophilus ducreyi b) Trichomonas vaginalis c) Chlamydia trachomatis d) Ureaplasma urealyticum

Nongonococcal urethritis is most commonly caused by which of the following organisms? c) Chlamydia trachomatis

Nonpathogenic or "normal" crystals found in acidic urine include: A. Calcium oxalate, uric acid, amorphous urates B. Calcium oxalate, uric acid, sulfonamides C. Uric acid, amorphous urates, triple phosphate D. Uric acid, calcium carbonate, bilirubin

Nonpathogenic or "normal" crystals found in acidic urine include: A. Calcium oxalate, uric acid, amorphous urates

Nonpathogenic or "normal" crystals found in alkaline urine include: A. Calcium oxalate, uric acid, amorphous urates B. Calcium oxalate, uric acid, sulfonamides C. Uric acid, amorphous urates, calcium carbonate D. Triple phosphate, calcium carbonate, ammonium biurate

Nonpathogenic or "normal" crystals found in alkaline urine include: D. Triple phosphate, calcium carbonate, ammonium biurate

Nonselective media supports: a. The grouping of microbes based on different characteristics demonstrated in the media b. The growth of one type or group of microbes, but not another c. The growth of most nonfastidious microbes d. The growth of fastidious microbes through the addition of certain growth enhancers

Nonselective media supports: c. The growth of most nonfastidious microbes

Nontreponemal antibody tests for syphilis include all of the following except: a) rapid plasma reagin (RPR). b) toluidine red unheated serum test (TRUST). c) Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL). d) enzyme immunoassay (EIA).

Nontreponemal antibody tests for syphilis include all of the following except: d) enzyme immunoassay (EIA).

Normal semen should liquefy: ____________________________ (what time frame?)

Normal semen should liquefy: ____________________________ (what time frame?) Within 1 hour

Normal sperm count range in seminal fluid is:

Normal sperm count range in seminal fluid is: 20-250 million/ml, 40 million per ejaculate

Normal vaginal flora is predominantly of which genus? A. Mobiluncus sp B. Gardnerella sp C. Bacteroides sp D. Lactobacillus sp

Normal vaginal flora is predominantly of which genus? D. Lactobacillus sp

Normal volume range of seminal fluid is:

Normal volume range of seminal fluid is: 2-5 mL

Nosocomial infections are:_____________________________________________

Nosocomial infections are:_____________________________________________ Acquired in hospitals or other health care settings.

Notations from the macroscopic (gross) examination of a specimen should include all the following EXCEPT: a. Swab or aspirate b. Stool consistency c. Blood or mucus present d. What type of container the specimen was collected in

Notations from the macroscopic (gross) examination of a specimen should include all the following EXCEPT: d. What type of container the specimen was collected in

Nucleated red blood cells (RBCs) seen in the CSF indicate: A. Recent cerebral hemorrhage B. Acute leukemia C. A ventricular rather than a lumbar puncture D. Bone marrow contamination from the puncture

Nucleated red blood cells (RBCs) seen in the CSF indicate: D. Bone marrow contamination from the puncture

Nucleic acid assays are based on the _____ of the organism and are believed to be more accurate. a. Phenotype b. Genotype c. Plasmid d. Lysogeny

Nucleic acid assays are based on the _____ of the organism and are believed to be more accurate. b. Genotype

Nucleic acid hybridization is: a. Coupling of complementary single-stranded nucleic acid molecules b. Mixing different pieces of DNA together and making a hybrid molecule| c. Attaching an RNA to an mRNA unit d. Making RNA from a DNA template

Nucleic acid hybridization is: a. Coupling of complementary single-stranded nucleic acid molecules

Of the following markers used to test for paternity, which marker provides the most useful statistical value? A) Human leukocyte antigen typing B) D antigens C) ABO system antigens D) The Kidd system (Jka, Jkb)

Of the following markers used to test for paternity, which marker provides the most useful statistical value? A) Human leukocyte antigen typing

Oligoclonal bands are significant in the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis when: A. They are seen in both the serum and CSF B. At least five bands are seen in the CSF C. They are seen in the CSF and not in the serum D. They appear in both the albumin and globulin fractions of serum and CSF

Oligoclonal bands are significant in the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis when: C. They are seen in the CSF and not in the serum

On a breakpoint panel, when there is growth in both wells, the isolate is: a. Susceptible b. Resistant c. Intermediate d. None of the above

On a breakpoint panel, when there is growth in both wells, the isolate is: b. Resistant

On a breakpoint panel, when there is growth in the low concentration but no growth in the high concentration, the isolate is: a. Susceptible b. Resistant c. Intermediate d. None of the above

On a breakpoint panel, when there is growth in the low concentration but no growth in the high concentration, the isolate is: b. Resistant

On a breakpoint panel, when two concentrations are tested and no growth is present in either well, the isolate is: a. Susceptible b. Resistant c. Intermediate d. None of the above

On a breakpoint panel, when two concentrations are tested and no growth is present in either well, the isolate is: c. Intermediate

Once bioterrorism is suspected, a sentinel laboratory should perform all culture manipulation using these safety guidelines. A) BSL-2 B) BSL-3 C) BSL-4 D) BSL-1

Once bioterrorism is suspected, a sentinel laboratory should perform all culture manipulation using these safety guidelines. B) BSL-3

Once the cryoprecipitate is removed from fresh frozen plasma, the remaining plasma can be refrozen and stored at -18° C for 1 year from collection. Which of the following clinical conditions can use this product? A)Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura B) Hemophilia C) Warfarin overdose D) Volume replacement following surgery

Once the cryoprecipitate is removed from fresh frozen plasma, the remaining plasma can be refrozen and stored at -18° C for 1 year from collection. Which of the following clinical conditions can use this product? A)Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

Once zone measurements have been made, the millimeter reading for each antimicrobial agent is: a. Sent to the physician to determine the appropriateness of antibiotic therapy for his patient b. Converted into minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) units c. Interpreted as susceptible, intermediate, or resistant d. None of the above

Once zone measurements have been made, the millimeter reading for each antimicrobial agent is: c. Interpreted as susceptible, intermediate, or resistant

One major virulence factor for Streptococcus pneumonia is: a. Hemolysin b. Protease c. Hyaluronidase d. Capsular polysaccharide

One major virulence factor for Streptococcus pneumonia is: d. Capsular polysaccharide

One of the foremen at a pig farm notices purple sores on one of his workers. The worker has not been feeling well for the past two weeks, so the foreman sends him to the doctor. The doctor takes scrapings from the sores and sends them to the laboratory for a culture and sensitivity. The Gram stain shows 3+ thin, gram-positive rods that have filaments. The culture plates were examined the next day and revealed nonhemolytic, pinpoint, transparent colonies. What is the most likely pathogen? a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae d. Rhodococcus

One of the foremen at a pig farm notices purple sores on one of his workers. The worker has not been feeling well for the past two weeks, so the foreman sends him to the doctor. The doctor takes scrapings from the sores and sends them to the laboratory for a culture and sensitivity. The Gram stain shows 3+ thin, gram-positive rods that have filaments. The culture plates were examined the next day and revealed nonhemolytic, pinpoint, transparent colonies. What is the most likely pathogen? c. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

Organisms that are frequently encountered as causes of health care-associated infections in acute care settings include all the following organisms EXCEPT: a. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus b. Enterococci c. Clostridium difficile d. Neisseria meningitis

Organisms that are frequently encountered as causes of health care-associated infections in acute care settings include all the following organisms EXCEPT: d. Neisseria meningitis

Organisms that are the most resistant to heat, chemicals, and radiation are ________

Organisms that are the most resistant to heat, chemicals, and radiation are: Prions

Organisms that participate in a biologic relationship where both benefit from one another are called: a. parasites. b. symbionts. c. hosts. d. flora.

Organisms that participate in a biologic relationship where both benefit from one another are called: b. symbionts.

Other important factors must be considered when determining whether antimicrobial susceptibility testing is warranted, including: a. The body site from which the organism was isolated b. The presence of other bacteria and the quality of the specimen from which the organism was grown c. The host's status d. All the above

Oval fat bodies and fatty casts are characteristic urine sediment constituents in patients with: A. Chronic glomerulonephritis B. Acute interstitial nephritis C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Wegener's granulomatosis

Oval fat bodies and fatty casts are characteristic urine sediment constituents in patients with: C. Nephrotic syndrome

Oxacillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is called: (Spell out, don't use acronym.)

Oxacillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is called: (Spell out, don't use acronym.) Methicillin-resistant S. Aureus

PCR requires all of the following components EXCEPT: a. DNA helicase b. DNA polymerase c. Oligonucleotides (primers) d. Deoxynucleotide triphosphates

PCR requires all of the following components EXCEPT: a. DNA helicase

Parasitism is a: a. biologic relationship between two or more organisms in which both benefit from one another. b. biologic relationship between only two organisms in which there are no beneficial or harmful effects to the host. c. biologic relationship in which one species gains benefits at the expense of the host. d. synonym for mutualism.

Parasitism is a: c. biologic relationship in which one species gains benefits at the expense of the host.

Parents of a kidney transplant candidate were tested for a potential compatible kidney because the candidate demonstrated HLA antibodies. The antibodies were for A11 and B7. Mom is: A1 A11 B35 B7 DR4 DR17 Dad is: A3 A24 B44 B35 DR17 DR8 Patient is: A1 A3 B35 B44 DR4 DR17 With anti A11 and anti B7. Predict the other 3 siblings and decide who the best match is. List the probable HLA types of the candidate's three siblings, and select the kidney or kidneys with the best match. Sibling 1: Sibling 2: Sibling 3: Best match:

Parents of a kidney transplant candidate were tested for a potential compatible kidney because the candidate demonstrated HLA antibodies. The antibodies were for A11 and B7. Mom is: A1 A11 B35 B7 DR4 DR17 Dad is: A3 A24 B44 B35 DR17 DR8 Patient is: A1 A3 B35 B44 DR4 DR17 With anti A11 and anti B7. Predict the other 3 siblings and decide who the best match is. List the probable HLA types of the candidate's three siblings, and select the kidney or kidneys with the best match. ANSWER: Sibling 1: Group 1=A1, B35, DR4. Group 2=A24, B35, DR8 Sibling 2: Group 1= A11, B7, DR17 Group 2= A3, B44, DR17 Sibling 3: Group 1 is A11, B7, DR17 Group 2 is A24, B35, DR8 Sibling 1: A1, B35, DR4/ A24, B35, DR8 is the best match Answer in D2L: Sibling 1: Group 1=A1, B35, DR4. Group 2=A24, B35, DR8 Sibling 2: Group 1= A11, B7, DR17 and Group 2= A3, B44, DR17 Sibling 3 Group 1 is A11, B7, DR17 and Group 2 is A24, B35, DR8 Sibling 1: A1, B35, DR4/ A24, B35, DR8 is the best match

Pasteurization achieves ________________________________________.

Pasteurization achieves: Disinfection

Pathogens can be transmitted through all the following routes except: a. ingestion. b. handwashing. c. sexual contact. d. air.

Pathogens can be transmitted through all the following routes except: b. handwashing.

Patient with increased transitional epithelial cells in the urine sediment A. Prerenal B. Renal C. Postrenal

Patient with increased transitional epithelial cells in the urine sediment C. Postrenal

Patient with positive blood cultures for Staphylococcus aureus A. Prerenal B. Renal C. Postrenal

Patient with positive blood cultures for Staphylococcus aureus A. Prerenal

Patients in both extended care facilities and home care settings are frequently immunosuppressed by disease or therapy and often need intravascular or other device-related care. The microbes identified in these patients are often opportunistic pathogens and include all the following EXCEPT: a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Neisseria meningitis c. Candida d. Acinetobacter

Patients in both extended care facilities and home care settings are frequently immunosuppressed by disease or therapy and often need intravascular or other device-related care. The microbes identified in these patients are often opportunistic pathogens and include all the following EXCEPT: b. Neisseria meningitis

Pediatric urine specimens are additionally tested for the presence of:_______________________ using what test?____________________

Pediatric urine specimens are additionally tested for the presence of:_______________________ using what test?____________________ Galactose using Clinitest

Penicillins, cephalosporins, monobactams, and carbapenems all have this ring in their structure that is responsible for inhibiting the transpeptidation reaction, resulting in bacterial lysis and cell death. a. Benzene b. Beta-Lactam c. Alpha-Lactam d. Delta-cephems

Penicillins, cephalosporins, monobactams, and carbapenems all have this ring in their structure that is responsible for inhibiting the transpeptidation reaction, resulting in bacterial lysis and cell death. b. Beta-Lactam

Peritoneal fluid is collected by a procedure called:________________

Peritoneal fluid is collected by a procedure called:________________ Pericardiocentesis

Peritoneal lavage is performed to:__________________________

Peritoneal lavage is performed to:__________________________ Detect intra-abdominal bleeding

Personal protective equipment includes: A. safety glasses. B. splash barriers. C. masks. D. all of the above.

Persons taking diuretics can be expected to produce: A. Anuria B. Polyuria C. Nocturia D. Oliguria

Persons taking diuretics can be expected to produce: B. Polyuria

Persons who have had injections of human growth hormone are indefinitely deferred as blood donors. What disease is associated with the injections? A) Trypanosomiasis cruzi B) Babesia microti C) Borrelia burgdorferi D) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

Persons who have had injections of human growth hormone are indefinitely deferred as blood donors. What disease is associated with the injections? D) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

Plans that provide the framework for establishing quality assurance in an organization are: A. current good manufacturing practices. B. standard operating procedures. C. change control plan. D. continuous quality improvement plan.

Plans that provide the framework for establishing quality assurance in an organization are: D. continuous quality improvement plan.

Plasma, frozen within 24 hours of collection (PF24), has similar coagulation factors as which of the following plasma products? A) FFP B) CRYO C) Thawed plasma D) Recovered plasma

Plasma, frozen within 24 hours of collection (PF24), has similar coagulation factors as which of the following plasma products? A) FFP

Plasmids are: a. Circular structures present in bacteria that contain genes encoding proteins and RNA and have the capacity to self-replicate and portion into daughter cells during cellular division b. DNA elements that encode transposition and excision function and can transpose from one place on the chromosome to another c. Genetic elements capable of integrating resistance genes (cassettes) by an integron-encoded, site-specific recombinase d. DNA elements found in bacteria that carry genes only for the enzymes needed to promote their own transposition

Plasmids are: a. Circular structures present in bacteria that contain genes encoding proteins and RNA and have the capacity to self-replicate and portion into daughter cells during cellular division

Plate reading is: a. Examining the colonial morphology of bacteria b. A comparative examination of bacteria growing on a variety of culture media c. Setting up biochemical tests to identify bacteria d. Determining if the inoculum is mixed and the suspected identification of the bacteria from the Gram stain

Plate reading is: b. A comparative examination of bacteria growing on a variety of culture media

Platelet concentrates that are prepared from whole blood have a minimum quality control limit of __________ platelets in __________ of the units tested. A) 3 ´ 1011, 75% B) 1 ´ 1010, 75% C) 5.5 ´ 1010, all D) 5.5 ´ 1010, 90%

Platelet concentrates that are prepared from whole blood have a minimum quality control limit of __________ platelets in __________ of the units tested. D) 5.5 ´ 1010, 90%

Pleural fluid is collected in a procedure called:

Pleural fluid is collected in a procedure called: Thoracentesis

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) includes all the following steps EXCEPT: a. Denaturation b. Primer annealing c. Primer extension d. Gene expression

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) includes all the following steps EXCEPT: d. Gene expression

Polymicrobial presentations in smears require more interpretation and must take into account all the following EXCEPT: a. Smear background b. Morphology of the organisms c. Anatomic location of the suspected infection d. Method used to make the smear

Polymicrobial presentations in smears require more interpretation and must take into account all the following EXCEPT: d. Method used to make the smear

Predict the agglutination reaction of red cells from a Bombay phenotype when combined with anti-H lectin. A) Strong 4+ B) Mixed field C) Weak 1+ D) Negative

Predict the agglutination reaction of red cells from a Bombay phenotype when combined with anti-H lectin. D) Negative

Predict the probable antibody's identity if all red cells tested at room temperature are positive with a patient's serum except for cord cells. A) Anti-Lu B) Anti-Lea C) Anti-I D) Anti-M

Predict the probable antibody's identity if all red cells tested at room temperature are positive with a patient's serum except for cord cells. C) Anti-I

Preventive maintenance on an instrument includes all the following EXCEPT: a. Disinfecting the surface of the instrument b. Oiling and cleaning the instrument c. Replacing filters d. Recalibrating instruments

Preventive maintenance on an instrument includes all the following EXCEPT: a. Disinfecting the surface of the instrument

Prior to identifying an RBC cast, all of the following should be observed except: This is a tricky question. Chose the answer that is best. Free floating RBCs Intact RBCs in the cast Presence of a cast matrix Positive reagent strip blood reactions

Prior to identifying an RBC cast, all of the following should be observed except: This is a tricky question. Chose the answer that is best. Intact RBCs in the cast

Prior to performing a Gram stain in CSF, the specimen must be:

Prior to performing a Gram stain in CSF, the specimen must be: centrifuged

Prior to reporting a postvasectomy specimen as negative for the presence of sperm, the specimen must be:________________________

Prior to reporting a postvasectomy specimen as negative for the presence of sperm, the specimen must be: Centrifuged

Prisoners or people housed in behavioral health facilities are more likely to contract infections with pathogens from their intimate contact with blood and body fluids. A likely pathogen may be: a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Hepatitis C c. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) d. Clostridium difficile

Prisoners or people housed in behavioral health facilities are more likely to contract infections with pathogens from their intimate contact with blood and body fluids. A likely pathogen may be: b. Hepatitis C

Processing of patient specimens and handling of actively growing cultures of microorganisms puts an employee at risk of potential contact with the infectious agent through all the following routes EXCEPT: A) Mucous membranes B) Blood splashed onto intact skin C) Inhalation of aerosols D) Accidental ingestion

Processing of patient specimens and handling of actively growing cultures of microorganisms puts an employee at risk of potential contact with the infectious agent through all the following routes EXCEPT: B) Blood splashed onto intact skin

Production of both lecithin and sphingomyelin increases after 35 weeks gestation. T/F

Production of both lecithin and sphingomyelin increases after 35 weeks gestation. False

Proper care of reagent strips includes all of the following except: A. Checking the expiration date B. Storing in a clear container C. Preventing exposure to toxic fumes D. Storing with a desiccant

Proper care of reagent strips includes all of the following except: B. Storing in a clear container A. Checking the expiration date C. Preventing exposure to toxic fumes D. Storing with a desiccant

Proper collection of a semen specimen should include all of the following except: A. In a sterile container B. After a 3-day period of sexual abstinence C. At the laboratory followed by 1 hour of refrigeration D. At home and delivery to the laboratory within 1 hour

Proper collection of a semen specimen should include all of the following except: C. At the laboratory followed by 1 hour of refrigeration

Proper identification of each specimen includes a label firmly attached to the container with all the following information EXCEPT: a. Diagnosis b. Name c. Identification number d. Date

Proper identification of each specimen includes a label firmly attached to the container with all the following information EXCEPT: a. Diagnosis

Western Blot Techniques are used to identify what substances? RNA DNA Amino Acids Proteins

Proteins

Prozone occurs when______

Prozone occurs when: When the relative concentration of antibody exceeds the concentration of antigen

Purpura fulminans, a skin manifestation of DIC is associated with what condition? a.Hepatitis b.Meningococcemia c.Encephalitis d.Salmonella

Purpura fulminans, a skin manifestation of DIC is associated with what condition? b.Meningococcemia

Quality control is designed to: a. Ensure the medical reliability of lab data b. Check media c. Check reagents d. Monitor incubator and refrigerator temperatures

Quality control is designed to: a. Ensure the medical reliability of lab data

Quality control is the same as quality assurance. A. True B. False

Quality control is the same as quality assurance. B. False

Quality control of antimicrobial susceptibility tests involves: a. Performing antimicrobial susceptibility tests on organisms using the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) charts to interpret the results b. Using organisms grown from patient cultures to test the reactivity of the antimicrobial drugs c. Testing standard reference strains that have defined antimicrobial susceptibility (or resistance) to the drugs tested d. None of the above

Quality control of antimicrobial susceptibility tests involves: c. Testing standard reference strains that have defined antimicrobial susceptibility (or resistance) to the drugs tested

Quality control on reagent strips must be performed whenever a/an: A. Abnormal result is obtained B. Different person performs the test C. New bottle of strips is opened D. Student is training in the laboratory

Quality control on reagent strips must be performed whenever a/an: C. New bottle of strips is opened

Quantitation of a substance that varies with daily activities should be performed on what type of specimen?

Quantitation of a substance that varies with daily activities should be performed on what type of specimen? 24 Hour Specimen

Northern Blot techniques identify what substances? RNA DNA Amino Acids Proteins

RNA

Random access is an important feature in selecting an automated instrument for testing in the transfusion service. What is random access? A) Ability of multiple users to sign into the system B) The recognition of various types of barcodes C) The need for minimal maintenance procedures D) The ability to accommodate STAT testing

Random access is an important feature in selecting an automated instrument for testing in the transfusion service. What is random access? D) The ability to accommodate STAT testing

Reagent antibodies prepared from human sources are: A) unsafe. B) too low in potency to be effective. C) polyclonal in specificity. D) preferred because of their lower cost.

Reagent antibodies prepared from human sources are: C) polyclonal in specificity.

Reagent strip chemical tests may be inaccurate if the specimen is: A. Mixed before delivery B. Tested immediately after refrigeration C. Tested immediately after it is voided D. Collected by catheter

Reagent strip chemical tests may be inaccurate if the specimen is: B. Tested immediately after refrigeration

Reagent strip reactions for blood are based on the: A. Peroxidase activity of hemoglobin B. Oxidation of hemoglobin peroxidase C. Reaction of hemoglobin with bromothymol blue D. Reduction of a chromogen by hemoglobin

Reagent strip reactions for blood are based on the: A. Peroxidase activity of hemoglobin

Reagent strip reactions for ketones react primarily with:

Reagent strip reactions for ketones react primarily with: Acetoacetic acid

Reagent strip reactions for white blood cells are based on the detection of__________________________

Reagent strip reactions for white blood cells are based on the detection of: Esterase activity

Reagents that should undergo quality control in the microbiology laboratory include all the following EXCEPT: a. Optochin b. Immersion Oil c. Beta-Lactamase d. Nitrate

Reagents that should undergo quality control in the microbiology laboratory include all the following EXCEPT: b. Immersion Oil

Red cells that phenotype as D-negative indicate that: A) they inherited two D genes. B) there is no genetic material inherited from the RHD gene from both parents. C) a suppressor gene was inherited that is turning off the D gene expression. D) reagents currently in use are not detecting the D antigen.

Red cells that phenotype as D-negative indicate that: B) there is no genetic material inherited from the RHD gene from both parents.

Red cells that phenotype as S-s- are also: A) M-negative. B) N-negative. C) Tja-negative. D) U-negative.

Red cells that phenotype as S-s- are also: D) U-negative.

Red cells that phenotype as S-s- are also: M-negative N-negative Tja-negative U-negative

Red cells that phenotype as S-s- are also: U-negative

Refractive index compares:___________________________________________________

Refractive index compares: Light velocity in air versus velocity in solution.

Refractometers are calibrated using: a. Distilled water and protein b. Distilled water and blood c. Distilled water and sodium chloride d. Distilled water and urea

Refractometers are calibrated using: c. Distilled water and sodium chloride

Rejuvenation of a unit of RBCs is a method used to: A) inactivate viruses. B) restore 2, 3 DPG and ATP levels. C) increase the expiration date by 21 days. D) prepare a unit for freezing in high glycerol.

Rejuvenation of a unit of RBCs is a method used to: B) restore 2, 3 DPG and ATP levels.

Requests for amylase and alkaline phosphatase determinations on ascitic fluid are received in suspected cases of: A. Peritonitis B. Gastrointestinal perforations C. Ruptured bladder D. Malignancy

Requests for amylase and alkaline phosphatase determinations on ascitic fluid are received in suspected cases of: B. Gastrointestinal perforations

Rh immune globulin contains: A) IgG anti-D. B) immune serum globulin. C) IgM anti-D. D) gamma globulin.

Rh immune globulin contains: A) IgG anti-D.

Risk factors for bleeding during cardiac surgery include all of the following except: A) length of time on the pump. B) level of preoperative medications. C) presence of a red cell antibody. D) hypothermia.

Risk factors for bleeding during cardiac surgery include all of the following except: C) presence of a red cell antibody. A) length of time on the pump. B) level of preoperative medications. D) hypothermia.

Rouleaux is a false-positive reaction caused by elevated serum protein levels. Which of the following tests would not likely be affected by an elevated protein level? A) Immediate-spin antibody screen B) Direct antiglobulin test C) Reverse typing in the ABO test D) ABO forward typing

Rouleaux is a false-positive reaction caused by elevated serum protein levels. Which of the following tests would not likely be affected by an elevated protein level? B) Direct antiglobulin test

Routine handwashing in health care settings mandates washing at all the following times except: A) in high-risk areas such as ICU and burn units. B) on entering protective isolation units. C) before and after routine patient contact. D) when gloves become soiled during a procedure or dressing change on the same patient.

Routine handwashing in health care settings mandates washing at all the following times except: D) when gloves become soiled during a procedure or dressing change on the same patient.

Routine primary plating media include all the following items EXCEPT: a. Special biochemical media b. Nonselective agar plate c. Selective and differential medium for enteric gram-negative bacilli for most routine bacterial cultures d. Broth medium used as a supplement

Routine primary plating media include all the following items EXCEPT: a. Special biochemical media

SPS performs all the following functions in the blood culture bottles EXCEPT: a. Anticoagulation b. Prevention of phagocytosis c. Act as a bacterial nutrient d. Inactivate certain antibiotics

SPS performs all the following functions in the blood culture bottles EXCEPT: c. Act as a bacterial nutrient

Which fluorescent dye exhibits the greatest sensitivity for quantifying DNA? Methylene Blue SYBR Green Porpidium iodide Ethidium bromide

SYBR Green

Safety program and Work Practice Controls consist of all of the following EXCEPT: A) Ensuring written procedures are in place for a task B) Altering the manner in which a task is performed to reduce exposure to infectious agents C) Allowing workers to eat at the bench if it gets busy and they don't have time to take a lunch break D) Reviewing the procedure manual annually

Safety program and Work Practice Controls consist of all of the following EXCEPT: C) Allowing workers to eat at the bench if it gets busy and they don't have time to take a lunch break

Schistosoma haematobium would most likely be found in the urine from a: A. Foreign-service employee B. Marathon runner C. Diabetic patient D. Health-care worker

Schistosoma haematobium would most likely be found in the urine from a: A. Foreign-service employee

Screening is used for:

Screening is used for: for large populations of patients

Screening methods for urinary tract infections are appropriate for which of the following? Urine specimens with significant pyuria and bacteriuria Straight catheterization Suprapubic aspiration Cystoscopy

Screening methods for urinary tract infections are appropriate for which of the following? Urine specimens with significant pyuria and bacteriuria

Sediment constituents that are used to differentiate between upper and lower urinary tract infections are: A. WBCs B. WBC clumps C. RBCs and WBCs D. WBC casts

Sediment constituents that are used to differentiate between upper and lower urinary tract infections are: D. WBC casts

Select the antibody that is not produced against a low-incidence antigen. a. Anti-Vel b. Anti-Cw c. Anti-V d. Anti-Lua

Select the antibody that is not produced against a low-incidence antigen. a. Anti-Vel

Select the antibody where DTT (dithiothreitol) would be useful in the identification investigation. a. Anti-Jsa b. Anti-Kpb c. Anti-Vel d. Anti-K

Select the antibody where DTT (dithiothreitol) would be useful in the identification investigation. b. Anti-Kpb

Select the antiglobulin test that best fits the descriptions below. A selection may be used more than once. 1. ___ Requires washing the cells several times before the addition of antihuman globulin reagent 2. ___ Tests for certain clinical conditions such as hemolytic disease of the newborn and autoimmune hemolytic anemia 3. ___ Detects IgG or complement-coated red cells 4. ___ Incubation step is not necessary A. Direct antiglobulin test B. Both the direct and indirect antiglobulin test C. Indirect antiglobulin test

Select the antiglobulin test that best fits the descriptions below. A selection may be used more than once. 1. ___ Requires washing the cells several times before the addition of antihuman globulin reagent = B. Both the direct and indirect antiglobulin test 2. ___ Tests for certain clinical conditions such as hemolytic disease of the newborn and autoimmune hemolytic anemia = A. Direct antiglobulin test 3. ___ Detects IgG or complement-coated red cells = B. Both the direct and indirect antiglobulin test 4. ___ Incubation step is not necessary = A. Direct antiglobulin test A. Direct antiglobulin test B. Both the direct and indirect antiglobulin test C. Indirect antiglobulin test

Select the appropriate strategy if the results of red cell and serum testing in the ABO typing procedure have negative agglutination reactions. A) Wash patient cells with warm saline. B) Use polyclonal typing reagents. C) Perform an autocontrol. D) Incubate tubes at room temperature or 4° C with an autocontrol.

Select the appropriate strategy if the results of red cell and serum testing in the ABO typing procedure have negative agglutination reactions. D) Incubate tubes at room temperature or 4° C with an autocontrol.

Select the best description of the elution technique. a. Technique that disassociates IgM antibodies from red cells for further identification b. Technique that disassociates IgG antibodies from red cells for further identification c. Technique that adsorbs IgG antibodies from serum d. Technique that separates IgG and IgM antibodies in serum

Select the best description of the elution technique. b. Technique that disassociates IgG antibodies from red cells for further identification

Select the cell involved in humoral immunity. 1. Neutrophils 2. T lymphocytes 3. B lymphocytes 4. Monocytes

Select the cell involved in humoral immunity. 3. B lymphocytes

Select the clinical sign that is not associated with a hemolytic transfusion reaction. A) Disseminated intravascular coagulation B) Renal failure C) Shock D) Graft-versus-host disease

Select the clinical sign that is not associated with a hemolytic transfusion reaction. D) Graft-versus-host disease

Select the clinical situation where iron chelation is recommended to prevent iron overload. A) Aplastic anemia B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia C) Sickle cell anemia D) Anemia caused by trauma

Select the clinical situation where iron chelation is recommended to prevent iron overload. C) Sickle cell anemia

Select the correct statement regarding the collection of a blood sample for compatibility testing. A) The sample must be labeled at the bedside. B) The sample requires a new numeric identifier for the patient for each admittance. C) The sample may be labeled at any time in an emergency. D) The sample does not require a means to identify the phlebotomist.

Select the correct statement regarding the collection of a blood sample for compatibility testing. A) The sample must be labeled at the bedside.

Select the example of a cold alloantibody. a. Anti-M. b. Anti-I. c. Anti-Lub. d. Anti-k.

Select the example of a cold alloantibody. a. Anti-M.

Select the immunoglobulin class from the list below that best fits the characteristic described. (Each class can be used more than once.) IgA IgM IgG IgE _______ Found in secretions, such as breast milk _______ Able to cross the placenta _______ Associated with intravascular cell destruction _______ Associated with allergic reactions and mast cell activation _______ Efficient in activation of the complement cascade _______ Has the highest serum concentration _______ Associated with immediate-spin, in vitro reactions _______ Has the highest number of antigen binding sites

Select the immunoglobulin class from the list below that best fits the characteristic described. (Each class can be used more than once.) IgA IgM IgG IgE IgA = Found in secretions, such as breast milk IgG = Able to cross the placenta IgM = Associated with intravascular cell destruction IgE = Associated with allergic reactions and mast cell activation IgM = Efficient in activation of the complement cascade IgG = Has the highest serum concentration IgM = Associated with immediate-spin, in vitro reactions IgM = Has the highest number of antigen binding sites

Select the item that compatibility procedures will not address. A) Prevent formation of all red cell antibodies B) Prevent life-threatening transfusion reactions C) Maximize in vivo survival rate of red cells D) Check ABO compatibility

Select the item that compatibility procedures will not address. A) Prevent formation of all red cell antibodies

Select the method that uses a dextran-acrylamide matrix. A) Solid-phase red cell adherence B) Microplate C) Gel technology D) Tube techniques

Select the method that uses a dextran-acrylamide matrix. C) Gel technology

Select the most common antibody specificity associated with hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn. A) Anti-A,B B) Anti-C C) Anti-D D) Anti-K

Select the most common antibody specificity associated with hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn. A) Anti-A,B

Select the portion of the antibody molecule that imparts the antibody's unique class function. 1. Constant region of the heavy chain 2. Constant region of the light chain 3. Variable region of the heavy chain 4. Variable region of the light chain

Select the portion of the antibody molecule that imparts the antibody's unique class function. 1. Constant region of the heavy chain

Select the reagent from the list below and match it to the routine blood banking procedure. 1. ___Reagent used to determine the ABO antigenic composition of a patient's red cells 2. ___Reagent used to identify the specificity of a red cell antibody 3. ___Reagent derived from plants used to distinguish group A1 from group A2 red cells 4. ___Reagent used in the identification of ABO antibodies 5. ___Reagent used to detect the presence of red cell antibodies A. Lectins B. ABO antisera C. Screening cells D. Panel cells E. A1 and B cells

Select the reagent from the list below and match it to the routine blood banking procedure. 1. ___Reagent used to determine the ABO antigenic composition of a patient's red cells = B. ABO antisera 2. ___Reagent used to identify the specificity of a red cell antibody = D. Panel cells 3. ___Reagent derived from plants used to distinguish group A1 from group A2 red cells = A. Lectins 4. ___Reagent used in the identification of ABO antibodies = E. A1 and B cells 5. ___Reagent used to detect the presence of red cell antibodies = C. Screening cells

Select the region of the antibody molecule responsible for imparting unique antibody specificity. 1. Variable region 2. Constant region 3. Hinge region 4. Fc fragment

Select the region of the antibody molecule responsible for imparting unique antibody specificity. 1. Variable region

Select the situation where the administration of Rh immune globulin would be contraindicated. MOTHER // NEWBORN A) r"r; no antibody detected // Ror; DAT negative B) rr; no antibody detected // R1r; DAT negative C) Rr; anti-E detected R2r; // DAT positive D) r"r; 4+ anti-D detected // R2r: DAT positive

Select the situation where the administration of Rh immune globulin would be contraindicated. D) r"r; 4+ anti-D detected // R2r: DAT positive

Select the substance that regulates the activity of other cells by binding to specific receptors. 1. Cytokines 2. Complement 3. Immunoglobulins 4. Anaphylatoxin

Select the substance that regulates the activity of other cells by binding to specific receptors. 1. Cytokines

Select the term that describes cells or tissue from a genetically different individual within the same species. 1. Allogeneic 2. Autologous 3. Xenogeneic 4. Autograft

Select the term that describes cells or tissue from a genetically different individual within the same species. 1. Allogeneic

Select the test that uses IgG-sensitized red cells (check cells). A) Antiglobulin test B) D-antigen typing C) Rh-antigen typing D) B-antigen detection

Select the test that uses IgG-sensitized red cells (check cells). A) Antiglobulin test

Select the true statement regarding ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN). A) It is frequently seen in group A mothers with group O infants. B) It cannot occur during prima gravida (first pregnancy). C) Bilirubin levels often exceed 15 mg/dL in the affected infants. D) The frequency of ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn is greater than Rh hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn.

Select the true statement regarding ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN). D) The frequency of ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn is greater than Rh hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn.

Selective media: a. Allow the growth of fastidious microbes through the addition of certain growth enhancers b. Support the grouping of microbes based on different characteristics demonstrated in the media c. Support the growth of most nonfastidious microbes d. Support the growth of one type or group of microbes, but not another

Selective media: d. Support the growth of one type or group of microbes, but not another

Semen analysis on postvasectomy patients should be performed: A. Within 1 week postvasectomy B. 1 month postvasectomy C. Until two consecutive monthly specimens show no sperm D. Until two consecutive monthly specimens show no viable sperm

Semen analysis on postvasectomy patients should be performed: C. Until two consecutive monthly specimens show no sperm

Semiautomated analyzers for the chemical analysis of urine use the test principle of: A. Enzyme immunochemistry B. Laser light scattering C. Reflectance photometry D. Electrical resistance

Semiautomated analyzers for the chemical analysis of urine use the test principle of: C. Reflectance photometry

Separate venipunctures were performed to collect three sets of blood cultures from a patient with an artificial heart valve. The first and third sets grew a gram-positive pleomorphic rod in 1 of 2 bottles while the second set had no growth in either bottle. What is the most likely explanation for these findings? a. The patient probably has an infection with Clostridium spp. b. The blood cultures were contaminated with skin flora. c. The blood cultures were probably contaminated in the laboratory. d. The patient probably has an infection with Bacillus spp.

Separate venipunctures were performed to collect three sets of blood cultures from a patient with an artificial heart valve. The first and third sets grew a gram-positive pleomorphic rod in 1 of 2 bottles while the second set had no growth in either bottle. What is the most likely explanation for these findings? b. The blood cultures were contaminated with skin flora.

Septi-Chek is which type of blood culture system? a. Continuous-monitoring blood culture system b. Lysis centrifugations blood culture system c. Aerobic-anaerobic blood culture system d. Biphasic broth-slide system

Septi-Chek is which type of blood culture system? d. Biphasic broth-slide system

Several people from a picnic came down with a gastrointestinal disturbance, and public health officials suspected a case of food poisoning. The food, especially hot dogs, were cultured and after 24 hours of growth on sheep blood agar (SBA), there was a small, round, smooth, translucent colony surrounded by a narrow zone of Beta-hemolysis. A Gram stain showed gram-positive coccobacilli. Motility medium was inoculated and an umbrella pattern of motility was observed at room temperature. What organism was isolated as the cause of the illness? a. Listeria monocytogenes b. Rhodococcus equi c. Rothia dentocariosa d. Corynebacterium diphtheria

Several people from a picnic came down with a gastrointestinal disturbance, and public health officials suspected a case of food poisoning. The food, especially hot dogs, were cultured and after 24 hours of growth on sheep blood agar (SBA), there was a small, round, smooth, translucent colony surrounded by a narrow zone of Beta-hemolysis. A Gram stain showed gram-positive coccobacilli. Motility medium was inoculated and an umbrella pattern of motility was observed at room temperature. What organism was isolated as the cause of the illness? a. Listeria monocytogenes

Several units were released to a hospital by mistake before all viral marker testing was completed. What is the appropriate course of action? A. The error is reportable, and the Food and Drug Administration must be contacted. B. Ask the hospital to avoid transfusion and quickly complete the testing. C. Perform a root cause analysis and, if the units are found to be negative, report the test result to the hospital. D. Recall only the units that are positive for viral markers.

Several units were released to a hospital by mistake before all viral marker testing was completed. What is the appropriate course of action? A. The error is reportable, and the Food and Drug Administration must be contacted.

Solute dissolved in solvent will: 1)Decrease vapor pressure 2)Lower the boiling point 3)decrease the osmotic pressure 4)lower the specific gravity

Solute dissolved in solvent will: 1)Decrease vapor pressure

Solute dissolved in sovent will: a) Raise the vapor pressure b) Lower the boiling point c) Decrease the osmotic pressure d) Lower the freezing point

Solute dissolved in sovent will: d) Lower the freezing point

Some bacteria grow at 25° C or 42° C, but diagnostic laboratories routinely grow pathogenic bacteria at what temperature? a. 30° C b. 60° C c. 35° C d. 10° C

Some bacteria grow at 25° C or 42° C, but diagnostic laboratories routinely grow pathogenic bacteria at what temperature? c. 35° C

Some donor centers have implemented the practice of diverting the first few milliliters of blood collected into a pouch attached to the collection bag. What is the purpose of this procedure? A) Reduce leukocyte contamination B) Prepare pedipacks for neonates C) Avoid bacterial contamination D) Collect blood for viral testing

Some donor centers have implemented the practice of diverting the first few milliliters of blood collected into a pouch attached to the collection bag. What is the purpose of this procedure? C) Avoid bacterial contamination

True or False: Specific gravity is of more diagnostic value than osmolarity in evaluating renal concentration ability.

Specific gravity is of more diagnostic value than osmolarity in evaluating renal concentration ability. False

Specimens containing mucus may be erroneously reported as containing: A. Bacteria B. Yeast C. Hyaline casts D. Oval fat bodies

Specimens containing mucus may be erroneously reported as containing: C. Hyaline casts

Specimens from patients receiving treatment for urinary tract infections frequently appear:___________________________(consistency)_ and ____________________________(color)

Specimens from patients receiving treatment for urinary tract infections frequently appear:___________________________(consistency)_ and ____________________________(color) Viscous yellow/orange

Specimens from patients suspected of having fungal meningitis should be tested with: A. Gram stain, acid-fast stain, and India ink B. Gram stain and India ink C. India ink only D. Acid-fast stain and India ink

Specimens from patients suspected of having fungal meningitis should be tested with: B. Gram stain and India ink

Specimens such as blood, bone marrow, and synovium are mixed with anticoagulants right after collection. Why should this occur? a. Anticoagulants often dissolve part of the bacteria's cell wall and congeal many bacteria into groups. b. Organisms become bound up in the clotted material and are difficult to isolate. c. It ensures the specimen will work when using an automated spreader device. d. It kills off the normal florae and only leaves the pathogens in the specimen.

Specimens such as blood, bone marrow, and synovium are mixed with anticoagulants right after collection. Why should this occur? b. Organisms become bound up in the clotted material and are difficult to isolate.

Specimens that contain intact RBCs can be visually distinguished from those that contain hemoglobin because: a. Hemoglobin produces a much brighter red color b. Hemoglobin produces a cloudy, pink specimen c. RBCs produce a cloudy specimen d. RBCs are quickly converted to hemoglobin

Specimens that contain intact RBCs can be visually distinguished from those that contain hemoglobin because: c. RBCs produce a cloudy specimen

Sperm motility after 1 hour should be at least:

Sperm motility after 1 hour should be at least: 50%

Sputum specimens are often collected for the diagnosis of: a. Acute pharyngitis b. Bacterial pneumonia c. Meningitis d. Diverticulitis

Sputum specimens are often collected for the diagnosis of: b. Bacterial pneumonia

Standard Precautions do not address the following: A) Hand washing B) Gloves C) Lab coats D) Respirators

Standard Precautions do not address the following: D) Respirators

Staphylococci are members of the family Staphylococcaceae. They are catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci that resemble other bacteria that are members of this family. (Name the family that the Staph. can resemble) ___________________________________________

Staphylococci are members of the family Staphylococcaceae. They are catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci that resemble other bacteria that are members of this family. (Name the family that the Staph. can resemble) Micrococcaceae

State the most probable cause for each of the following scenarios: A student is having difficulty interpreting the reagent strip color reactions on a thick orange specimen. A. Vegetarian diet B. Elevated urobilinogen C. Phenazopyridium D. Cloudy specimen A laboratory that routinely screens all infants with the Clinitest is accused of missing a case of galactosuria. A. "Pass through" was not observed B. Specimen was too old C. High level of ketones D. High level of glucose

State the most probable cause for each of the following scenarios: A student is having difficulty interpreting the reagent strip color reactions on a thick orange specimen. C. Phenazopyridium A laboratory that routinely screens all infants with the Clinitest is accused of missing a case of galactosuria. A. "Pass through" was not observed

State the most probable disorder that would relate to the following scenario: A patient who works in a steel-processing plant presents to the hospital with a normal plasma glucose has consistently elevated reagent strip urine glucose readings. A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Renal glycosuria C. Fanconi syndrome D. Goodpasture syndrome

State the most probable disorder that would relate to the following scenario: A patient who works in a steel-processing plant presents to the hospital with a normal plasma glucose has consistently elevated reagent strip urine glucose readings. C. Fanconi syndrome

State the most probable disorder that would relate to the following scenario: A patient with a history of intermittent hematuria following strenuous exercise has an elevated serum immunoglobulin A level. A. Minimal change disease B. IgA nephropathy C. Acute glomerulonephritis D. Alport's disease

State the most probable disorder that would relate to the following scenario: A patient with a history of intermittent hematuria following strenuous exercise has an elevated serum immunoglobulin A level. B. IgA nephropathy

State the most probable disorder that would relate to the following scenario: A positive antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody test is obtained on a patient exhibiting symptoms of pulmonary hemoptysis and urinary hematuria. A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis C. Goodpasture syndrome D. Wegener's granulomatosis

State the most probable disorder that would relate to the following scenario: A positive antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody test is obtained on a patient exhibiting symptoms of pulmonary hemoptysis and urinary hematuria. D. Wegener's granulomatosis

State the most probable disorder that would relate to the following scenario: An HIV-positive patient develops edema, elevated cholesterol and triglyceride levels, and heavy proteinuria. A. Chronic glomerulonephritis B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis D. Fanconi syndrome

State the most probable disorder that would relate to the following scenario: An HIV-positive patient develops edema, elevated cholesterol and triglyceride levels, and heavy proteinuria. C. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

State the most probable disorder that would relate to the following scenario: An intravenous pyelogram is performed on a child with a history of episodes of urinary frequency and burning and the presence of WBC and bacterial casts. A. Acute interstitial nephritis B. Minimal change disease C. Acute pyelonephritis D. Chronic pyelonephritis

State the most probable disorder that would relate to the following scenario: An intravenous pyelogram is performed on a child with a history of episodes of urinary frequency and burning and the presence of WBC and bacterial casts. D. Chronic pyelonephritis

State the most probable disorder that would relate to the following scenario: Following ingestion of mushrooms found growing in his garden, a man develops symptoms of oliguria, lethargy, and edema. Many renal tubular epithelial (RTE) cells are observed in his urinalysis. A. Fanconi syndrome B. Acute tubular necrosis C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Acute renal failure

State the most probable disorder that would relate to the following scenario: Following ingestion of mushrooms found growing in his garden, a man develops symptoms of oliguria, lethargy, and edema. Many renal tubular epithelial (RTE) cells are observed in his urinalysis. B. Acute tubular necrosis

State whether the following actions will cause false-positive or false-negative test results: A. False-positive B. False negative A patient is deprived of fluids during a 6-hour timed urine collection.

State whether the following actions will cause false-positive or false-negative test results: A. False-positive B. False negative A patient is deprived of fluids during a 6-hour timed urine collection. B. False negative

State whether the following actions will cause false-positive or false-negative test results: A. False-positive B. False negative Aliquots from 24-hour specimens are being obtained before measuring and mixing the sample.

State whether the following actions will cause false-positive or false-negative test results: A. False-positive B. False negative Aliquots from 24-hour specimens are being obtained before measuring and mixing the sample. B. False negative

State whether the following actions will cause false-positive or false-negative test results: A. False-positive B. False negative The second sample of a three glass collection has a positive urine culture.

State whether the following actions will cause false-positive or false-negative test results: A. False-positive B. False negative The second sample of a three glass collection has a positive urine culture. A. False-positive

State whether the following actions will cause false-positive or false-negative test results: A. False-positive B. False negative The temperature of a specimen for drug testing is 25oC when measured within 4 minutes of collection.

State whether the following actions will cause false-positive or false-negative test results: A. False-positive B. False negative The temperature of a specimen for drug testing is 25oC when measured within 4 minutes of collection. B. False negative

Stools from persons with steatorrhea contain excess amounts of:________________________

Stools from persons with steatorrhea contain excess amounts of:________________________ Fat

What are the most common bacteria isolated from nontraumatic brain abscesses? (Genus only)

Streptococcus

Streptococcus agalactiae is a significant cause of?____________________________

Streptococcus agalactiae is a significant cause of? Invasive disease of the newborn

Streptococcus pneumoniae causes all the following infections EXCEPT: a. Pharyngitis b. Pneumonia c. Bacteremia d. Meningitis

Streptococcus pneumoniae causes all the following infections EXCEPT: a. Pharyngitis

Streptococcus pneumoniae typically produces colonies that are said to resemble coins. The technical term for this colony shape is:________________________________________

Streptococcus pneumoniae typically produces colonies that are said to resemble coins. The technical term for this colony shape is: Umbilicate

What is a chromosome with a primary constriction that give the chromosome clearly defined short and long arms? Acrocentric Metacentric Submetacentric Telocentric

Submetacentric

Substances found in the urinary sediment that can be confirmed using polarized light are: A. WBCs B. Casts C. Ketone bodies D. Lipids

Substances found in the urinary sediment that can be confirmed using polarized light are: D. Lipids

Substances that may interfere with measurement of urine and serum osmolarity include all of the following except: 1) ethanol 2) lactic acid 3) sodium 4) lipids

Substances that may interfere with measurement of urine and serum osmolarity include all of the following except: 3) sodium

Susceptibility testing of control organisms is usually conducted daily until precision can be demonstrated with _______________or__________ _____ _____ days of susceptibility testing using Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) guidelines.

Susceptibility testing of control organisms is usually conducted daily until precision can be demonstrated with _______________or__________ _____ _____ days of susceptibility testing using Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) guidelines. 20; 30; consecutive

Swabs are appropriate for specimens collected from all the following sites EXCEPT: a. Upper respiratory tract b. External ear c. Urine d. Genital tract

Swabs are appropriate for specimens collected from all the following sites EXCEPT: c. Urine

Synovial fluid for crystal examination should be: A. Stained with Wright's stain and examined with bright-field microscopy B. Stained with methylene blue and examined under polarized light C. Examined unstained under direct and red compensated polarized light D. Examined unstained with phase microscopy

Synovial fluid for crystal examination should be: C. Examined unstained under direct and red compensated polarized light

T/F Normal values for chemistry tests on serous fluid are different from values obtained on serum

T/F Normal values for chemistry tests on serous fluid are different from values obtained on serum False

T/F Pleural fluid amylase is elevated in cases of pancreatitis

T/F Pleural fluid amylase is elevated in cases of pancreatitis True

T/F A significant finding in a serous effusion is an increase in mesothelial cells

T/F A significant finding in a serous effusion is an increase in mesothelial cells False

T/F Cultures of peritoneal fluid should be routinely incubated both aerobically and anaerobically

T/F Cultures of peritoneal fluid should be routinely incubated both aerobically and anaerobically True

T/F Reactive mesothelial cells indicate a malignant effusion

T/F Reactive mesothelial cells indicate a malignant effusion False

Technicians are doing the morning chemistry run. Once they load the specimens onto the instrument, they remove their gloves to do paperwork in a clean area of the laboratory. What should the technicians do after removing their gloves? ________________________________________

Technicians are doing the morning chemistry run. Once they load the specimens onto the instrument, they remove their gloves to do paperwork in a clean area of the laboratory. What should the technicians do after removing their gloves? Wash their hands

Ten days after a 2-unit RBC transfusion, a patient experienced a 2 g/dL drop in hemoglobin and appeared slightly jaundiced. No evidence of bleeding was observed. What tests would be helpful in determining whether the patient is experiencing a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction? A) Culture the donor unit. B) Compare pretransfusion and posttransfusion ABO and D typing. C) Perform hepatitis B surface antigen test. D) Perform an antibody screen and DAT on the current posttransfusion sample.

Ten days after a 2-unit RBC transfusion, a patient experienced a 2 g/dL drop in hemoglobin and appeared slightly jaundiced. No evidence of bleeding was observed. What tests would be helpful in determining whether the patient is experiencing a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction? D) Perform an antibody screen and DAT on the current posttransfusion sample.

Testing for the weak D expression is performed by: A) using anti-Du antisera with an extended incubation. B) using monoclonal anti-D. C) performing the indirect antiglobulin test with anti-D. D) performing the direct antiglobulin test with anti-D.

Testing for the weak D expression is performed by: C) performing the indirect antiglobulin test with anti-D.

Tests for the detection of occult blood rely on which chemical reaction? A. Reaction of hemoglobin with hydrogen peroxide B. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin C. Reaction of hemoglobin with peroxidase D. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hydrogen peroxide

Tests for the detection of occult blood rely on which chemical reaction? B. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin

The Beta-lactams consist of all the following antibiotics EXCEPT: a. Vancomycin b. Penicillins c. Cephalosporins d. Carbapenems

The Beta-lactams consist of all the following antibiotics EXCEPT: a. Vancomycin

The Biosafety Levels were categorized using all the following criteria EXCEPT: A) The bacterial load necessary to cause infection B) The organism's ability to cause serious illness C) The organism's mode of transmission D) Whether there is treatment available for an infection

The Biosafety Levels were categorized using all the following criteria EXCEPT: A) The bacterial load necessary to cause infection

The CSF circulates through the brain and spinal cord in the: A. Arachnoid mater B. Choroid plexuses C. Dura mater D. Subarachnoid space

The CSF circulates through the brain and spinal cord in the: D. Subarachnoid space

The CSF glucose in a patient with a blood glucose of 90 mg/dL is 60 mg/dL. These results are representative of: A. An improperly preserved specimen B. Bacterial meningitis C. Normal CSF D. Damage to the blood-brain barrier

The CSF glucose in a patient with a blood glucose of 90 mg/dL is 60 mg/dL. These results are representative of: C. Normal CSF

The CSF/serum albumin index is performed to determine: A. The amount of albumin in the CSF B. Synthesis of IgG within the CNS C. The integrity of the blood-brain barrier D. If an unknown fluid is in the CSF

The CSF/serum albumin index is performed to determine: C. The integrity of the blood-brain barrier

The Clinical Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) defines hazardous waste as: ______________________________________________________________________________

The Clinical Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) defines hazardous waste as: Those substances that singly or in combination pose a significant present or potential threat or hazard to human health.

The Escherichia coli serotype O157:H7 is associated with all the following EXCEPT: a. Hemorrhagic diarrhea b. Colitis c. Liver damage d. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome

The Escherichia coli serotype O157:H7 is associated with all the following EXCEPT: c. Liver damage

The Gram stain is a routine stain used in bacteriology to determine gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria based on the: a. phenotypic characteristics of the organism. b. composition of the bacterial cell wall. c. composition of the bacterial cell membrane. d. composition of the bacterial pili.

The Gram stain is a routine stain used in bacteriology to determine gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria based on the: b. composition of the bacterial cell wall.

The HACEK group includes: List 5 species

The HACEK group includes: Haemophilus spp Aggregatibacter actinomycetamicomitans Cardiobacterium hominis Eikenella corrodens Kingella sp

The Ictotest is a more sensitive test for urinary bilirubin because: A. The tablets contain a more sensitive diazonium salt B. Sulfosalicylic acid is included in the tablets C. Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat D. Water is used to dissolve the tablet

The Ictotest is a more sensitive test for urinary bilirubin because: C. Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat

The Kleihauer Betke test was performed using a 1-hour post-delivery maternal blood sample. Results: 10 fetal cells/1000 cells counted It is the policy to add 1 vial of Rh immune globulin to the calculated dose when the estimated volume of the hemorrhage exceeds 20 mL of whole blood. Calculate the number of vials of Rh immune globulin that would be indicated under these circumstances. Know how to work this problem. Numbers will change on quiz. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

The Kleihauer Betke test was performed using a 1-hour post-delivery maternal blood sample. Results: 10 fetal cells/1000 cells counted It is the policy to add 1 vial of Rh immune globulin to the calculated dose when the estimated volume of the hemorrhage exceeds 20 mL of whole blood. Calculate the number of vials of Rh immune globulin that would be indicated under these circumstances. Know how to work this problem. Numbers will change on quiz. B) 3 10/1000 = 1% bleed 1 ´ 50 = 50 (50 mL of fetal blood in the mother's circulation) 50/30 = 1.66 (30 mL bleed is protected by 1 vial of Rh immune globulin) 1.66 ® 2 (round up) 2 + 1 = 3 doses (one added for safety margin)

The LW antigen expression is typically stronger on _____________ red cells. A) D-positive B) D-negative C) Rh null D) D-variant

The LW antigen expression is typically stronger on _____________ red cells. A) D-positive

The Lancefield Classification is based on the _________________________ from the streptococcal cell wall.

The Lancefield Classification is based on the ??? from the streptococcal cell wall. C carbohydrate

The Multistix and Chemstrip color charts are interchangeable. True/False

The Multistix and Chemstrip color charts are interchangeable. False

The Northern blot is used to detect: ____________________

The Northern blot is used to detect: ____________________ RNA

The Occupation Safety and Health Administration does not require the routine use of gloves by phlebotomists working with healthy prescreened donors or changing gloves between donors. A. True B. False

The Occupation Safety and Health Administration does not require the routine use of gloves by phlebotomists working with healthy prescreened donors or changing gloves between donors. A. True

The PROVUE, TANGO, and NEO have the ability to perform all of the followingtests except: A) ABO/D typing. B) antibody ID panels. C) direct antiglobulin test. D) acid elution.

The Southern blot test separates:______________________

The Southern blot test separates:______________________ DNA

The TANGO, PROVUE, and NEO all use one of the following reagents or components in the indirect antiglobulin test. A) Washing mechanism B) Centrifuge C) Indicator cells D) Antihuman globulin

The TANGO, PROVUE, and NEO all use one of the following reagents or components in the indirect antiglobulin test. B) Centrifuge

The _________________ phenotype is found in 68-70% of African Americans and rarely found in Caucasians.

The _________________ phenotype is found in 68-70% of African Americans and rarely found in Caucasians. Fy(a-b-)

The ability of an organism to produce disease in a susceptible individual is called: a. pathogenicity. b. iatrogenic infection. c. parasitic infection. d. opportunistic infection.

The ability of an organism to produce disease in a susceptible individual is called: a. pathogenicity.

The antiglobulin test was performed using gel technology. A button of cells was observed at the bottom of the microtube following centrifugation. How do you interpret this result? A) There is a problem with the card. B) The result is a negative reaction. C) The result is a strong positive reaction. D) The test was not washed correctly.

The antiglobulin test was performed using gel technology. A button of cells was observed at the bottom of the microtube following centrifugation. How do you interpret this result? B) The result is a negative reaction.

The appearance of glucose in the urine of a patient with an elevated blood sugar indicates:

The appearance of glucose in the urine of a patient with an elevated blood sugar indicates: Diabetes mellitus

The atypical clinical presentation of a geriatric patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI) includes all the following EXCEPT: a. Burning upon urination b. Delirium c. Fever d. Failure to thrive

The atypical clinical presentation of a geriatric patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI) includes all the following EXCEPT: a. Burning upon urination

The average range of volume of CSF in an adults is: _____

The average range of volume of CSF in an adults is: _____ 90-150 mls

The basis for this method is a microscopic grouping of DNA molecules attached to a solid support mechanism. Silicon chips, glass, or plastic have been used as the solid surfaces. Which method is this? a. PCR b. DNA microarray c. Multilocus enzymes electrophoresis d. RFLP

The basis for this method is a microscopic grouping of DNA molecules attached to a solid support mechanism. Silicon chips, glass, or plastic have been used as the solid surfaces. Which method is this? b. DNA microarray

The best way to minimize the amount of upper respiratory florae in a sputum specimen is to follow these procedures: a. Cough up the specimen, then when the specimen gets to the lab, digest it with enzymes that will kill the normal florae b. When plating the specimen, ensure that the swab goes deep into the sample to get only bacteria present in the lower lung. c. Have the patient rinse their mouth with water and expectorate with the aid of a really deep cough directly into a sterile container. d. Have a respiratory tech decontaminate a patient's mouth and throat before the specimen is collected.

The best way to minimize the amount of upper respiratory florae in a sputum specimen is to follow these procedures: c. Have the patient rinse their mouth with water and expectorate with the aid of a really deep cough directly into a sterile container.

The blood culture draw of three sets of blood culture specimens taken at 1-hour intervals within the first 24 hours is recommended to diagnose which of the following conditions? a. Meningitis b. Subacute bacterial endocarditis c. Pneumonia d. Peritonitis

The blood culture draw of three sets of blood culture specimens taken at 1-hour intervals within the first 24 hours is recommended to diagnose which of the following conditions? b. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

The blood level at which tubular reabsorption stops (renal threshold) for glucose is approximately _________ to __________.

The blood level at which tubular reabsorption stops (renal threshold) for glucose is approximately _________ to __________. 160-180 mg/dL

The buffering capacity of the blood depends on __________ which are readily filtered by the glomerulus and must be expediently returned to the blood to maintain the proper pH.

The buffering capacity of the blood depends on __________ which are readily filtered by the glomerulus and must be expediently returned to the blood to maintain the proper pH. HCO3- or bicarbonate

The cells lining the pleural cavities are primarily:______________________

The cells lining the pleural cavities are primarily:______________________ Mesothelial

The cells most frequently associated with urinary tract infection are______________________

The cells most frequently associated with urinary tract infection are: Neutrophils

The chemical or physical method that destroys all forms of life is called: ________________________

The chemical or physical method that destroys all forms of life is called: Sterilization

The chemical principle of the reagent strip test for bilirubin is that bilirubin:

The chemical principle of the reagent strip test for bilirubin is that bilirubin: Combines with a diazonium salt to form a colored complex.

The chemical reaction in the reagent strip reaction for glucose uses a ________________________

The chemical reaction in the reagent strip reaction for glucose uses a ________________________ Double sequential enzyme reaction.

The children of a group AB mother and a group B father could phenotype as all of the following except: A) O. B) A. C) B. D) AB.

The children of a group AB mother and a group B father could phenotype as all of the following except: A) O

The clinical sequelae of a hemolytic transfusion reaction may include all of the following except: disseminated intravascular coagulation renal failure shock graft-versus- host disease

The clinical sequelae of a hemolytic transfusion reaction may include all of the following except: graft-versus- host disease

The comprehensive safety program for the microbiology laboratory needs to fulfill all the following provision EXCEPT: A) It is specific to the hospital and does not need to conform to state, local, and federal regulations. B) It must address biologic hazards. C) It must teach correct techniques for lifting and moving heavy objects and patients (where applicable). D) It must describe the safe handling, storage, and disposal of chemicals.

The comprehensive safety program for the microbiology laboratory needs to fulfill all the following provision EXCEPT: A) It is specific to the hospital and does not need to conform to state, local, and federal regulations.

The correct storage temperature and time limit for pooled platelets are: 20-24 degrees C, 5 days 1-6 degrees C, 7 days 1-10 degrees C, 24 hours 20-24 degrees C, 4 hours

The counties surrounding yours are seeing an increase in the number of whooping cough cases. This is important for the microbiology laboratory because: a. Physicians may start sending these cases to you. b. You will need to advise physicians to suspect such cases and to send them to the hospitals in the surrounding counties. c. You need to make sure that the infection control practitioners in those counties have baseline data. d. You need to educate health care providers on specimen collection and transportation and have the specialized media ready so you can detect any cases in your county.

The counties surrounding yours are seeing an increase in the number of whooping cough cases. This is important for the microbiology laboratory because: d. You need to educate health care providers on specimen collection and transportation and have the specialized media ready so you can detect any cases in your county.

The criteria used to determine the presence of a urinary tract infection (UTI) include all the following EXCEPT: a. Presence or absence of symptoms b. Patient history c. Predisposing factors d. The type of organism or organisms isolated

The criteria used to determine the presence of a urinary tract infection (UTI) include all the following EXCEPT: b. Patient history

The decarboxylase tests determine: a. Whether the bacteria possess enzymes capable of removing the carboxyl group of specific amino acids in the test medium b. Whether the bacteria can further metabolize the acids formed during fermentation to 2,3 butanediol c. If bacteria can maintain an acid pH if only sucrose is present in the media d. To see if alpha-naphthol can be broken down into its constituent parts: acetoin and diacetyl KOH

The decarboxylase tests determine: a. Whether the bacteria possess enzymes capable of removing the carboxyl group of specific amino acids in the test medium

The determination of the ABO and D type by the NEO and ECHO uses the same solid-phase red cell adherence technique that is used for the antibody screen. True/False

The determination of the ABO and D type by the NEO and ECHO uses the same solid-phase red cell adherence technique that is used for the antibody screen. False

The development of diabetic nephropathy leading to reduced glomerular filtration and eventual renal failure is a common occurrence in persons with diabetes. Onset of renal complications can first be predicted by detection of _______________________________ performed on _________________________ (specific type of specimen)

The development of diabetic nephropathy leading to reduced glomerular filtration and eventual renal failure is a common occurrence in persons with diabetes. Onset of renal complications can first be predicted by detection of _______________________________ performed on _________________________ (specific type of specimen) Microalbumin, First Morning Urine specimen

The development of staphylococcal infection is determined by: a. Virulence of the strain b. Size of the inoculum c. Status of host's immune system d. All of the above

The direct microscopic examination is a useful tool for all the following reasons EXCEPT: a. It can tell the physician what type of normal flora is present on the smear and if it is anaerobic or aerobic. b. It can be used to determine the quality of the specimen. c. It can give the microbiology technologist and the physician an indication of the infectious process involved. d. It can dictate the need for non-routine or additional testing.

The direct microscopic examination is a useful tool for all the following reasons EXCEPT: a. It can tell the physician what type of normal flora is present on the smear and if it is anaerobic or aerobic.

The direct microscopic examination of infected materials, along with specimen site and historical information, may suggest modifications in routine culture techniques to allow the isolation of a suspected pathogen. Common modifications include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Ordering other culture tests b. Adding special media c. Changing incubation temperature or atmosphere d. Changing the amount of humidity in the incubator

The direct microscopic examination of infected materials, along with specimen site and historical information, may suggest modifications in routine culture techniques to allow the isolation of a suspected pathogen. Common modifications include all of the following EXCEPT: d. Changing the amount of humidity in the incubator

The edge of the colonies is described as all the following EXCEPT: a. Smooth b. Glasslike c. Filamentous d. Irregular

The edge of the colonies is described as all the following EXCEPT: b. Glasslike

The elevation of bacterial colonies is described by all the following EXCEPT: a. Raised b. Pointed c. Convex d. Umbilicate

The elevation of bacterial colonies is described by all the following EXCEPT: b. Pointed

The fetal fibronectin test is used to determine which of the following conditions? A. Pregnancy B. Preterm delivery C. Postpartum status D. Gestational age

The fetal fibronectin test is used to determine which of the following conditions? B. Preterm delivery

The finding of a 2+ reagent strip reaction for blood in the urine of a patient with severe lower back pain can aid in confirming a diagnosis of: A. Pyelonephritis B. Appendicitis C. Renal calculi D. Multiple myeloma

The finding of a 2+ reagent strip reaction for blood in the urine of a patient with severe lower back pain can aid in confirming a diagnosis of: C. Renal calculi

The finding of bacterial casts can be associated with: A. Acute pyelonephritis B. Acute interstitial nephritis C. Cystitis D. Acute glomerulonephritis

The finding of bacterial casts can be associated with: A. Acute pyelonephritis

The finding of increased hyaline and granular casts in the urine of an otherwise healthy person may be the result of:

The finding of increased hyaline and granular casts in the urine of an otherwise healthy person may be the result of: Recent strenuous exercise

The first procedure to be followed if an instrument is out of control for all parameters is: Rerun the controls Replace components and rerun until the controls are in Run patients in duplicates and report Recalibrate and rerun controls.

The first procedure to be followed if an instrument is out of control for all parameters is: Recalibrate and rerun controls.

The fluid leaving the glomerulus has a specific gravity of________________________________

The fluid leaving the glomerulus has a specific gravity of________________________________ 1.010

The following cyst was observed in a stool specimen from a patient. What is the most likely organism? A) Entamoeba hartmanni B) Entamoeba coli C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Iodamoeba butschlii

The following cyst was observed in a stool specimen from a patient. What is the most likely organism? B) Entamoeba coli

The following urinalysis results are obtained from a female vegetarian who supplements her diet with megavitamins: Why is there a discrepancy between the urine color and specific gravity? A. An old specimen B. Diabetes mellitus C. Increased beta carotene D. Increased bacteria

The following urinalysis results are obtained from a female vegetarian who supplements her diet with megavitamins: Why is there a discrepancy between the urine color and specific gravity? C. Increased beta carotene

The frequency of the D-negative phenotype in the population is: A) 15%. B) 85%. C) 50%. D) 35%.

The frequency of the D-negative phenotype in the population is: A) 15%

The function of serous fluid is to:

The function of serous fluid is to: Provide lubrication for the serous membranes

The function of the probe is to: a. Form a duplex with every complementary sequence available in the reaction. b. Make sure that the chromogenic or radioactive label is functional. c. Break up the large oligonucleotides into smaller pieces so there will be more complementary pieces with which to pair. d. Inhibit the formation of hybrids.

The function of the probe is to: a. Form a duplex with every complementary sequence available in the reaction.

The goal of the primer annealing step is to: a. Hybridize oligonucleotide primers to the denatured, single-stranded target DNA strands. b. Separate the target DNA so that the solution can be electrophoresed and a Northern blot performed. c. Cut the native DNA into small pieces with a restriction enzyme. d. Amplify exponentially over many cycles of these three reaction steps.

The goal of the primer annealing step is to: a. Hybridize oligonucleotide primers to the denatured, single-stranded target DNA strands.

The goal of the specimen collector when collecting specimens for culture should be to: a. Make sure the specimen gets to the lab b. Avoid hurting the patient when collecting the specimen. c. Maintain the viability of the living organisms at the site with minimal contamination. d. Get the specimen quickly to get the doctor off the collector's back.

The goal of the specimen collector when collecting specimens for culture should be to: c. Maintain the viability of the living organisms at the site with minimal contamination.

The hospital infection control committee will expect reports from the laboratory that deal with all the following EXCEPT: a. Antibiograms b. Water contamination rates c. Blood culture contamination rates d. Pathogens recovered in certain hospital units

The hospital infection control committee will expect reports from the laboratory that deal with all the following EXCEPT: b. Water contamination rates

The initial screening of gram-negative rods is done by testing for the utilization of what carbohydrate?_______________________________________

The initial screening of gram-negative rods is done by testing for the utilization of what carbohydrate? Lactose

The laboratory receives a specimen in which the doctor suspects that the infecting organism is Haemophilus influenzae. This organism grows best in an atmosphere that contains 5% to 10% carbon dioxide. It is therefore classified as what type of bacteria? a. Obligate aerobe b. Capnophilic c. Facultative anaerobe d. Obligate anaerobe

The laboratory receives a specimen in which the doctor suspects that the infecting organism is Haemophilus influenzae. This organism grows best in an atmosphere that contains 5% to 10% carbon dioxide. It is therefore classified as what type of bacteria? b. Capnophilic

The largest source of error in creatinine clearance tests is:

The largest source of error in creatinine clearance tests is: Improperly timed specimen

The least contaminated specimen for bacterial culture is the: 1) Catheterized specimen 2) Suprapubic aspiration 3) Three glass collection 4) Midstream clean-catch specimen

The least contaminated specimen for bacterial culture is the: 2) Suprapubic aspiration

The linked HLA genes on each chromosome are inherited as a: A) haplotype. B) phenotype. C) genotype. D) antithetical pair.

The linked HLA genes on each chromosome are inherited as a: A) haplotype.

The liver breaks down protein to form what waste product?

The liver breaks down protein to form what waste product? urea

The lysine iron agar (LIA) slant is also useful in differentiating: a. Acinetobacter and Alcaligenes b. Klebsiella and Enterobacteriaceae c. Proteus, Morganella, and Providencia d. Escherichia, Salmonella, and Campylobacter

The lysine iron agar (LIA) slant is also useful in differentiating: c. Proteus, Morganella, and Providencia

The main goal of handwashing is to: A) sterilize a person's hand. B) increase the risk of passing on pathogens. C) eliminate transient flora D) disinfect a persons hands

The main goal of handwashing is to: C) eliminate transient flora

The major constituent of urinary casts is:

The major constituent of urinary casts is: Uromodulin protein

The major constituents of the adaptive or specific immune response are: a. neutrophils. b. macrophages. c. monocytes. d. lymphocytes.

The major constituents of the adaptive or specific immune response are: d. lymphocytes.

The mean value of a control is 8.5. The SD was calculated to be 1.5. Acceptable control for the laboratory is =/- 2SD. What would be the allowable limits for this control? 7.0-10 5.5-11.5 8.5-11.5 7.0-8.5

The mean value of a control is 8.5. The SD was calculated to be 1.5. Acceptable control for the laboratory is =/- 2SD. What would be the allowable limits for this control? 5.5-11.5

The mechanisms of action of antibiotics include all the following EXCEPT: a. Blocking the Embden-Meyerhof pathway b. Bacterial cell wall synthesis c. DNA replication d. RNA transcription

The mechanisms of action of antibiotics include all the following EXCEPT: a. Blocking the Embden-Meyerhof pathway

The method for determining a urine specific gravity that is based on the principle that the frequency of a sound wave entering a solution changes in proportion to the density of the solution is: ___________________________________________________________

The method for determining a urine specific gravity that is based on the principle that the frequency of a sound wave entering a solution changes in proportion to the density of the solution is: Harmonic oscillation densitometry

The methyl red test detects metabolic by-products from what pathway? ______________________________________

The methyl red test detects metabolic by-products from what pathway? Mixed acid fermentation

The microbiology lab receives 2 specimen from 2 different patients, collected at the same time by the same nurse. The specimen is a leg wound. What is the appropriate course of action? Call the nurse and correct the error upon her verbal explanation of the discrepancy Ask the nurse to correct the error and have her read the procedure for proper labeling of specimens Call the nurse for a recollection. If the specimen is not recoverable, process the specimen with documentation of the error. Fill out documentation of error and discard the specimen without further action.

The microbiology lab receives 2 specimen from 2 different patients, collected at the same time by the same nurse. The specimen is a leg wound. What is the appropriate course of action? Call the nurse for a recollection. If the specimen is not recoverable, process the specimen with documentation of the error.

The microscopic hematuria associated with renal lithiasis is caused by: A. Glomerular damage B. Tubular inflammation C. Tissue irritation D. Bacterial infection

The microscopic hematuria associated with renal lithiasis is caused by: C. Tissue irritation

The microscopic of a cloudy amber urine is reported as rare WBCs and epithelial cells. What does this suggest? a. Urinary tract infection b. Dilute random specimen c. Precipitated amorphous urates d. Possible mix-up of specimen and sediment

The microscopic of a cloudy amber urine is reported as rare WBCs and epithelial cells. What does this suggest? d. Possible mix-up of specimen and sediment

The minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) is: a. The lowest antibiotic concentration to slow the growth of an organism. b. The highest antibiotic concentration to slow the growth of an organism. c. The lowest antibiotic concentration to inhibit the growth of an organism. d. The highest antibiotic concentration to inhibit the growth of an organism.

The minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) is: c. The lowest antibiotic concentration to inhibit the growth of an organism.

The minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC) test differs from the minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) test because the MIC test gives the concentration needed at the site of infection to inhibit bacterial multiplications, whereas the MBC gives: a. The highest concentration of antimicrobial that will kill an organism b. The amount of antimicrobial that must be achieved at the infection site to inhibit the organism c. The amount of antimicrobial that must be achieved at the infection site to kill the organism d. None of the above

The minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC) test differs from the minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) test because the MIC test gives the concentration needed at the site of infection to inhibit bacterial multiplications, whereas the MBC gives: c. The amount of antimicrobial that must be achieved at the infection site to kill the organism

The most common bacterial characteristic that allows for evasion of phagocytosis by the host is called: a. exotoxin production. b. extracellular enzyme production. c. pili. d. polysaccharide capsule.

The most common bacterial characteristic that allows for evasion of phagocytosis by the host is called: d. polysaccharide capsule.

The most common route of infection of laboratory workers with hepatitis B virus (HBV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is: ________________________________________

The most common route of infection of laboratory workers with hepatitis B virus (HBV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is: Needle sticks

The most common sites associated with bacteremia and sepsis include all the following EXCEPT: a. Reproductive organs b. Infected intravascular catheters c. The lung d. The abdomen

The most common sites associated with bacteremia and sepsis include all the following EXCEPT: a. Reproductive organs

The most commonly used polymerase is: a. Escherichia coli 37 DNA polymerase b. Dds DNA polymerase c. Mg DNA polymerase d. Taq DNA polymerase

The most commonly used polymerase is: d. Taq DNA polymerase

The most frequent concern of premature delivery is underdevelopment of the: __________

The most frequent concern of premature delivery is underdevelopment of the: __________ Lungs

The most sensitive technique available for detecting and quantifying messenger RNA is: a. Multiplex polymerase chain reaction (PCR) b. Standard PCR c. Nested PCR d. Reverse-transcription PCR

The most sensitive technique available for detecting and quantifying messenger RNA is: d. Reverse-transcription PCR

The normal CSF glucose is: A. 25 to 50 mg/dL B. 80 to 120 mg/dL C. 60% to 70% of the blood glucose D. 10% to 20% higher than the blood glucose

The normal CSF glucose is: C. 60% to 70% of the blood glucose

The normal CSF protein range is:

The normal CSF protein range is: 15-45 mg/dL

The normal brown color of the feces results from intestinal oxidation of _________ to _____________________

The normal brown color of the feces results from intestinal oxidation of _________ to _____________________ stercobilinogen urobilin

The normal composition of feces includes all of the following except Bacteria Blood Electrolytes Water

The normal composition of feces includes all of the following except Blood

The normal range of urine pH is:

The normal range of urine pH is: 4.5-8.0

The normal yellow color of urine is produced by _________

The normal yellow color of urine is produced by: Urochrome

The number of fields that should be examined when quantitating urinary sediment constituents is:

The number of fields that should be examined when quantitating urinary sediment constituents is: 10

The only type of cast capable of polarization is the: A. Waxy cast B. Hyaline cast C. Fatty cast D. Granular cast

The only type of cast capable of polarization is the: C. Fatty cast

The organisms attached to a clue cell are:

The organisms attached to a clue cell are: Gardnerella vaginalis

The outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria is composed of: a. Lipopolysaccharides, phospholipids, and porin proteins b. Peptidoglycan, phospholipids, and proteins c. Enzymes, cholesterol, and carbohydrates d. Carbohydrates, peptidoglycan, and proteins

The outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria is composed of: a. Lipopolysaccharides, phospholipids, and porin proteins

The polyuria associated with diabetes mellitus is caused by: 1) The presence of excess glucose in the urine 2) A defect in the production of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) 3) The diuretic effect of insulin 4) Failure of the collecting duct to respond to ADH

The polyuria associated with diabetes mellitus is caused by: 1) The presence of excess glucose in the urine

The presence of a fetal neural tube disorder may be detected by: a) Increased amniotic fluid bilirubin b) Increased maternal serum alpha fetoprotein c) Decreased amniotic fluid phosphatidyl glycerol d) Decreased maternal serum acetylcholinesterase

The presence of a fetal neural tube disorder may be detected by: b) Increased maternal serum alpha fetoprotein

The presence of amebic dysentery may be suspected when a stool: A. Has a green color B. Is coated with blood-streaked mucus C. Has an extremely foul odor D. Appears unusually slender

The presence of amebic dysentery may be suspected when a stool: B. Is coated with blood-streaked mucus

The presence of heavy proteinuria is most characteristic of: A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Acute interstitial nephritis C. Pyelonephritis D. Nephrotic syndrome

The presence of heavy proteinuria is most characteristic of: D. Nephrotic syndrome

The presence of increased renal tubular epithelial cell casts is most indicative of: A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Fanconi syndrome C. Acute tubular necrosis D. Acute pyelonephritis

The presence of increased renal tubular epithelial cell casts is most indicative of: C. Acute tubular necrosis

The presence of organisms at different sites of a host is influenced by __________ and ____________ factors.

The presence of organisms at different sites of a host is influenced by __________ and ____________ factors. nutritional environmental

The presence of red blood cells indicates: A. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis B. Aspiration pneumonia C. Granulomatous lung disease D. Alveolar hemorrhage

The presence of red blood cells indicates: D. Alveolar hemorrhage

The presence of which of the following crystals can be associated with nephrotic syndrome? A. Cholesterol B. Tyrosine C. Cystine D. Ampicilli

The presence of which of the following crystals can be associated with nephrotic syndrome? A. Cholesterol

The presence of xanthochromia and an increased D-dimer test in the CSF is indicative of: A. A traumatic tap B. Multiple sclerosis C. A cerebral hemorrhage D. Viral meningitis

The presence of xanthochromia and an increased D-dimer test in the CSF is indicative of: C. A cerebral hemorrhage

The primary cause of a decreased CSF glucose in bacterial meningitis is: A) Utilization of glucose by the microorganisms present in the fluid B) Rapid glycolysis C) Utilization of glucose by leukocytes present in the fluid D) Alteration of blood-brain glucose transport

The primary cause of a decreased CSF glucose in bacterial meningitis is: D) Alteration of blood-brain glucose transport

The primary cause of a decreased CSF glucose in bacterial meningitis is: A. Utilization of glucose by the microorganisms present in the fluid B. Rapid glycolysis C. Utilization of glucose by leukocytes present in the fluid D. Alteration of blood-brain glucose transport

The primary cause of a decreased CSF glucose in bacterial meningitis is: D. Alteration of blood-brain glucose transport

The primary disadvantage in using a cytocentrifuge to prepare CSF differential slides is: A. Frequent bacterial contamination B. Uneven distribution of cells C. Cellular distortion D. Increased cost

The primary disadvantage in using a cytocentrifuge to prepare CSF differential slides is: C. Cellular distortion

The primary factor that favors the formation of urinary casts is:

The primary factor that favors the formation of urinary casts is: Urinary stasis

The primary pathogens of the Enterobacteriaceae include all the following EXCEPT: a. Salmonella enterica b. Proteus mirabilis c. Shigella spp. d. Yersinia spp.

The primary pathogens of the Enterobacteriaceae include all the following EXCEPT: b. Proteus mirabilis

The primary reservoir for staphylococci is:__________________________________

The primary reservoir for staphylococci is: Nares

The principle of in-solution hybridization is: a. The hybridization between a labeled probe and target nucleic acids in a liquid solution in tubes or in microtiter wells b. The hybridization between an immobilized labeled probe and target nucleic acids in a liquid solution in tubes or in microtiter wells c. The hybridization between a labeled probe in solution and immobilized target nucleic acids d. When two solutions are combined and hybridization occurs between the probe and the target, then the tube is centrifuged to detect the precipitated hybridized target and probes

The principle of in-solution hybridization is: a. The hybridization between a labeled probe and target nucleic acids in a liquid solution in tubes or in microtiter wells

The principle of reflectance photometry is: A. Laser light that causes a deflection of the light beam to measure color B. Electrical current that causes a change in electrical resistance to measure color C. Enzymes utilizing chemical pads to generate light to measure color D. A light-emitting diode for a specific wavelength to measure color

The principle of reflectance photometry is: D. A light-emitting diode for a specific wavelength to measure color

The principle of solid support hybridization (often called blotting) is: a. The target sequence is part of the liquid support, and the probe, which is attached to solid support, hybridizes to the target. b. All the target nucleic acids are gathered in one spot on the electrophoresis gel. Then all the probes are flooded in the same area and produce a blot of duplexes. c. The target sequence is part of the solid support, and the probe, which is in solution, hybridizes to the target. d. The probe is electrophoresed in agar, then transferred to filter paper. The antibody-based probe is then applied to the filter paper, and blots appear where there is binding.

The principle of solid support hybridization (often called blotting) is: c. The target sequence is part of the solid support, and the probe, which is in solution, hybridizes to the target.

The principle of the citrate test includes all the following EXCEPT: a. Bacteria able to use citrate will use the ammonium salts releasing ammonia. b. The alkaline pH that results from use of the ammonium salts changes the pH indicator. c. The pH indicator changes from red to bright yellow. d. The pH indicator changes from green to blue.

The principle of the citrate test includes all the following EXCEPT: c. The pH indicator changes from red to bright yellow.

The principle of the reagent strip test for pH is:

The principle of the reagent strip test for pH is: Double indicator reaction

The principle of the reagent strip test for protein is the:

The principle of the reagent strip test for protein is the: Protein "error of indicator"

The principle of the reagent strip test for specific gravity is:_________________________________________________

The principle of the reagent strip test for specific gravity is: Ionization of a polyelectrolyte with bromethymol blue to produce a pH change

The probe is: (What does it do?) a. Immobilized on a solid support mechanism b. The strand that is used as the oligonucleotide primer c. The RNA portion that will act as the DNA replicase and allow replication to occur d. Used to detect the target nucleic acid molecule

The probe is: (What does it do?) d. Used to detect the target nucleic acid molecule

The process that results in enhanced phagocytosis by neutrophils is: a. opsonization. b. chemotaxis. c. digestion. d. glycolysis.

The process that results in enhanced phagocytosis by neutrophils is: a. opsonization

The pronounced edema associated with nephrotic syndrome is related to the: A. Lipidemia B. Hypoalbuminemia C. Decreased glomerular filtration rate D. Lipiduria

The pronounced edema associated with nephrotic syndrome is related to the: B. Hypoalbuminemia

The protein section of the reagent strip is most sensitive to: A. Albumin B. Mucoprotein C. Bence Jones protein D. Globulin

The protein section of the reagent strip is most sensitive to: A. Albumin

The pseudoperoxidase reaction is the principle for the reagent strip test(s) for:___________________

The pseudoperoxidase reaction is the principle for the reagent strip test(s) for:___________________ blood

The purpose of a simple stain is to:__________________________________________________

The purpose of a simple stain is to: Color the forms and shapes present

The purpose of plotting amniotic fluid bilirubin on a Liley graph is to: a) Detect possible fluid contamination b) Detect exposure to light c) Determine the optical density difference d) Determine further treatment

The purpose of plotting amniotic fluid bilirubin on a Liley graph is to: d) Determine further treatment

The purpose of scanning the perimeter of urine sediment placed under a conventional glass slide is to:

The purpose of scanning the perimeter of urine sediment placed under a conventional glass slide is to: Detect the presence of casts

The purpose of surgical hand scrubs and waterless hand rubs is to: A) eliminate the transient flora and most of the resident flora on the skin. B) remove all physical dirt and some residential flora. C) remove all resident flora. D) remove all transient flora

The purpose of surgical hand scrubs and waterless hand rubs is to: A) eliminate the transient flora and most of the resident flora on the skin.

The purpose of transport media is to: a. Make sure the microorganisms can multiply and live as though they were still in the host b. Keep the swab moist so that the microorganisms do not dry out c. Not promote the multiplication of microorganisms but ensure their preservation d. Take the place of plating a routine culture with the specimen

The purpose of transport media is to: c. Not promote the multiplication of microorganisms but ensure their preservation

The reading of distilled water by the refractometer is 1.003. You should:_________________________________

The reading of distilled water by the refractometer is 1.003. You should: Adjust the set screw.

The reagent strip reaction that should be read last is the:

The reagent strip reaction that should be read last is the: Leukocyte esterase

The reagent strip test for ketones may detect the urinary presence of:_________________ and _________________________________

The reagent strip test for ketones may detect the urinary presence of:_________________ and _________________________________ Acetoacetic acid and acetone

The recommended centrifugation setting for preparation of the urine sediment is:

The recommended centrifugation setting for preparation of the urine sediment is: 400 RCF for 5 minutes

The recommended diluting fluid for synovial fluid cell counts is:__________

The recommended diluting fluid for synovial fluid cell counts is: Saline

The recommended serologic test for the diagnosis of neurosyphilis is the rapid plasma reagin test. True or False

The recommended serologic test for the diagnosis of neurosyphilis is the rapid plasma reagin test. False

The recommended specimen for quantitative fecal testing is a:________________________________

The recommended specimen for quantitative fecal testing is a:________________________________ 72 hour specimen

The recommended specimen for routine urinalysis testing is the___________.

The recommended specimen for routine urinalysis testing is the___________. First morning midstream clean catch

The relative concentration of bacteria on culture plates is directly proportional to: ________________________________________________________________________

The relative concentration of bacteria on culture plates is directly proportional to: The concentration in which they are present in the clinical specimen

The reliability of a test to be positive in the presence of the disease it was used to detect is: Sensitivity Specificity Accuracy Precision

The reliability of a test to be positive in the presence of the disease it was used to detect is: Sensitivity

The required specimen for quantitative analysis of urinary constituents is the_____________.

The required specimen for quantitative analysis of urinary constituents is the_____________. Times specimen

The requisition form should provide all the following information EXCEPT: a. Patient name or identification number b. Patient age and gender c. Patient home address d. Specific anatomic site

The requisition form should provide all the following information EXCEPT: c. Patient home address

The role of the microbiology laboratory is to perform cultures and provide culture results to health care providers. The microbiology laboratory also has the responsibility to: a. Report the identification or suspicion of certain infectious diseases to local, state, and federal public health entities. b. Report any bioterrorism findings to the news media. c. Report odd infectious diseases to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). d. Report any bioterrorism finding to the police.

The role of the microbiology laboratory is to perform cultures and provide culture results to health care providers. The microbiology laboratory also has the responsibility to: a. Report the identification or suspicion of certain infectious diseases to local, state, and federal public health entities.

The rosette test will detect a fetomaternal hemorrhage as small as: A) 5 mL B) 10 mL C) 15 mL D) 20 mL

The rosette test will detect a fetomaternal hemorrhage as small as: B) 10 mL

The secretion of _______________ by the renal tubular cells into the filtrate prevents the filtered bicarbonate from being excreted in the urine and causes the return of ta bicarbonate ion to the plasma.

The secretion of _______________ by the renal tubular cells into the filtrate prevents the filtered bicarbonate from being excreted in the urine and causes the return of ta bicarbonate ion to the plasma. H+ or Hydrogen ions

The significance of seeing bacteria in the urine sediment is increased when what else is present?_______________________________________

The significance of seeing bacteria in the urine sediment is increased when what else is present?_______________________________________ WBCs are present

The smaller the number of microorganisms necessary to cause infection in a competent host, the more _____ the microorganism. a. opportunistic b. parasitic c. invasive d. virulent

The smaller the number of microorganisms necessary to cause infection in a competent host, the more _____ the microorganism. d. virulent

The specimen of choice for detecting gastrointestinal pathogens is:______________________

The specimen of choice for detecting gastrointestinal pathogens is: stool

The specimen of choice for routine urinalysis is the first morning urine because it _________________________________.

The specimen of choice for routine urinalysis is the first morning urine because it _________________________________. It is more concentrated to better detect abnormalities.

The standard operating procedure is a document that: A. helps achieve consistency of results. B. may be substituted with package inserts. C. is necessary only for training new employees. D. must be very detailed to be accurate.

The standard operating procedure is a document that: A. helps achieve consistency of results.

The stomach can be considered a first line of defense against microbial infections because: a. most microorganisms are susceptible to the antibiotics and alkaline pH present in the stomach. b. most microorganisms are killed by the liver enzymes that are emptied into the stomach during a meal. c. the stomach produces proteases, which attacks the lipopolysaccharide cell wall of the organisms. d. most microorganisms are susceptible to the acid pH of the stomach.

The stomach can be considered a first line of defense against microbial infections because: d. most microorganisms are susceptible to the acid pH of the stomach.

The symptoms of meningococcal meningitis include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Frontal headache b. Stiff neck c. Backache d. Fever

The symptoms of meningococcal meningitis include all of the following EXCEPT: c. Backache

The symptoms of pyelonephritis include all of the following EXCEPT: Flank pain Costovertebral angle tenderness Fever Septicemia

The symptoms of pyelonephritis include all of the following EXCEPT: Septicemia

The symptoms of pyelonephritis include all the following EXCEPT: a. Flank pain b. Costovertebral angle tenderness c. Fevers d. Septicemia

The symptoms of pyelonephritis include all the following EXCEPT: d. Septicemia

The target nucleic acid strand is: a. The one to which the extra nucleic acid attaches b. The DNA or RNA sequence unique to the organism of interest c. The strand that is used as the oligonucleotide primer d. The one that is labeled with a chromogen.

The target nucleic acid strand is: b. The DNA or RNA sequence unique to the organism of interest

The tech needs to sterilize a piece of equipment that cannot be autoclaved or gas sterilized because the equipment contains lenses, metal, and rubber components. What solution should be used to sterilize this piece of equipment? A) 10% Bleach B) 37% Formalin C) Glutaraldehyde D) 90% Alcohol

The tech needs to sterilize a piece of equipment that cannot be autoclaved or gas sterilized because the equipment contains lenses, metal, and rubber components. What solution should be used to sterilize this piece of equipment? C) Glutaraldehyde

The technician in the laboratory has received a specimen that is rejected. The technician calls the physician and tells the physician the specimen is unacceptable and the reason why. The physician insists that the culture needs to be performed on this unacceptable culture. What should the technician do? a. Have the laboratory manager call the physician and tell him that a new specimen needs to be resubmitted because the laboratory will not perform a culture on this specimen. b. Throw the specimen away and request a new one from the physician. c. Plate the culture, but include a comment explaining the potentially compromised test results. d. Discard both the specimen and the requisition and pretend that the specimen was never received in the laboratory.

The technician in the laboratory has received a specimen that is rejected. The technician calls the physician and tells the physician the specimen is unacceptable and the reason why. The physician insists that the culture needs to be performed on this unacceptable culture. What should the technician do? c. Plate the culture, but include a comment explaining the potentially compromised test results.

The temperature of a RBC unit shipment from the local blood center was recorded as 8° C upon arrival at the hospital. What is the correct course of action? A) Place the units in inventory because the temperature is acceptable. B) Quarantine the units until approved by the supervisor. C) Send the units back to the blood center. D) Have the units tested for bacterial contamination before release.

The temperature of a RBC unit shipment from the local blood center was recorded as 8° C upon arrival at the hospital. What is the correct course of action? A) Place the units in inventory because the temperature is acceptable.

The term occult blood in fecal analysis can indicate which of the following? A. Blood that is produced in the lower GI tract B. Blood that is produced in the upper GI tract C. Blood that is not visibly apparent in the stool specimen D. Blood that produces a black, tarry stool

The term occult blood in fecal analysis can indicate which of the following? C. Blood that is not visibly apparent in the stool specimen

The test for placental alpha-1 microglobulin protein is used to determine: A. Fetal membrane rupture B. Pregnancy C. Bacterial vaginosis D. Atropic vaginosis

The test for placental alpha-1 microglobulin protein is used to determine: A. Fetal membrane rupture

The test performed on peritoneal lavage fluid is the:_________________

The test performed on peritoneal lavage fluid is the:_________________ RBC count

The tests used to detect clumping factor will differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococcal species. What are these tests? a. Novobiocin and hemolysin A b. Coagulase and latex agglutination c. Complement fixation and coagulase d. Latex agglutination and enzyme immunoassay (EIA)

The tests used to detect clumping factor will differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococcal species. What are these tests? b. Coagulase and latex agglutination

The third tube of CSF collected from a lumbar puncture should be used for: A. Chemistry tests B. Cytology examination C. Microbiology tests D. Hematology tests

The third tube of CSF collected from a lumbar puncture should be used for: D. Hematology tests

The three basic shapes of bacteria include all the following except: a. spirochetes. b. cell wall deficient. c. cocci. d. bacilli.

The three basic shapes of bacteria include all the following except: b. cell wall deficient.

The three glass collection is used for the diagnosis of:

The three glass collection is used for the diagnosis of: Prostatitis

The two most common species of coagulase-negative staphylococci are: _________________ and ____________________________________________

The two most common species of coagulase-negative staphylococci are: Staph. epidermidis Staph. saprophyticus

The two reagents used in the Voges-Proskauer Test are: __________________ and _____________________________________

The two reagents used in the Voges-Proskauer Test are: 40% KOH alpha naphthol

The type of cast most closely associated with tubular damage is the: A. WBC cast B. Epithelial cell cast C. RBC cast D. Fatty cast

The type of cast most closely associated with tubular damage is the: B. Epithelial cell cast

The type of cells that line the bladder and ureters are called:

The type of cells that line the bladder and ureters are called: Transitional Epithelial cells.

The type of proteinuria least likely to be detected by reagent strip is: A. Orthostatic B. Prerenal C. Renal D. Postrenal

The type of proteinuria least likely to be detected by reagent strip is: B. Prerenal

The unpleasant odor associated with fecal analysis is caused primarily by: A. Undigested foodstuffs B. Bile salts C. Bacterial metabolism D. Pancreatic secretions

The unpleasant odor associated with fecal analysis is caused primarily by: C. Bacterial metabolism

The urinary sediment constituent most closely associated with bleeding within the nephron is the:

The urinary sediment constituent most closely associated with bleeding within the nephron is the: RBC casts

The usual average daily volume of urine produced by a normal adult is approximately: (Don't forget units)

The usual average daily volume of urine produced by a normal adult is approximately: (Don't forget units) 1200 mls

The variables that affect the outcome of a given hybridization reaction include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Organic acid concentration b. Salt strength c. pH d. Temperature

The variables that affect the outcome of a given hybridization reaction include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Organic acid concentration

The volume of amniotic fluid is regulated by fetal swallowing. T/F

The volume of amniotic fluid is regulated by fetal swallowing. True

The weak D test detects: A) the Du antigen. B) the missing D mosaic. C) a weak D antibody. D) a weak D antigen.

The weak D test detects: D) a weak D antigen.

Thermometers used in the laboratory must be calibrated before they are put into use. This is accomplished by:

Thermometers used in the laboratory must be calibrated before they are put into use. This is accomplished by: checking against an NIST thermometer

These bacteria are unable to ferment either lactose or glucose, but they can degrade the peptones present in the TSI agar aerobically or anaerobically, resulting in the production of alkaline by-products in the slant. What type of bacteria cannot ferment lactose or glucose? Nonenteric bacilli Anaerobic bacilli Gram-positive cocci Gram-positive rods

These bacteria are unable to ferment either lactose or glucose, but they can degrade the peptones present in the TSI agar aerobically or anaerobically, resulting in the production of alkaline by-products in the slant. What type of bacteria cannot ferment lactose or glucose? Nonenteric bacilli

This antibiotic affects the DNA replication by targeting topoisomerases II and IV, enzymes considered important in controlling DNA replication. a. Glycopeptide b. Sulfamethoxazole c. Trimethoprim d. Quinolone

This antibiotic affects the DNA replication by targeting topoisomerases II and IV, enzymes considered important in controlling DNA replication. d. Quinolone

This antibiotic inhibits folate synthesis, which provides the essential precursor molecule, pyridine thymidylate, needed in DNA synthesis. a. Vancomycin b. Quinolones c. Aminoglycosides d. Sulfamethoxazole

This antibiotic inhibits folate synthesis, which provides the essential precursor molecule, pyridine thymidylate, needed in DNA synthesis. d. Sulfamethoxazole

This bacteria is said to have a fruity or grapelike smell. Genus and species _______________

This bacteria is said to have a fruity or grapelike smell. Genus and species: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

This disease is slowly progressive, malignant, and, if untreated, life threatening. It is characterized by skin lesions and progressive, symmetric nerve damage. Lesions of the mucous membranes of the nose may lead to destruction of the cartilaginous septum, resulting in nasal and facial deformities. What disease is this?____________________

This disease is slowly progressive, malignant, and, if untreated, life threatening. It is characterized by skin lesions and progressive, symmetric nerve damage. Lesions of the mucous membranes of the nose may lead to destruction of the cartilaginous septum, resulting in nasal and facial deformities. What disease is this? Hansen's disease or leprosy

This genus has one species associated with it that has been implicated in urinary tract infections. What is the name of this species? _______________________________

This genus has one species associated with it that has been implicated in urinary tract infections. What is the name of this species? Morganella morganii

This identification system for Enterobacteriaceae has a series of 20 cupules attached to a plastic strip. Inside the cupules are lyophilized pH-based substrates. What is the name of this system?______________________________________

This identification system for Enterobacteriaceae has a series of 20 cupules attached to a plastic strip. Inside the cupules are lyophilized pH-based substrates. What is the name of this system? API 20E

This is practiced throughout the hospital and mandates safety for all personnel when handling blood and body fluids.

This is practiced throughout the hospital and mandates safety for all personnel when handling blood and body fluids. Standard Precautions

This method is good for separating large DNA fragments in a low-percentage, low-melt agarose gel by an angled electrical field that periodically changes orientation. a. Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) b. Southern blot c. Agarose gel electrophoresis d. Pulsed field gel electrophoresis (PFGE)

This method is good for separating large DNA fragments in a low-percentage, low-melt agarose gel by an angled electrical field that periodically changes orientation. d. Pulsed field gel electrophoresis (PFGE)

This ongoing process helps public health and health care officials recognize outbreaks, upward trends of infections, and positive effects of interventions.__________________

This ongoing process helps public health and health care officials recognize outbreaks, upward trends of infections, and positive effects of interventions.__________________ Surveillance

This program involves a close watch of only specific, high-risk, high-volume procedures for nosocomial infections.______________________________________________

This program involves a close watch of only specific, high-risk, high-volume procedures for nosocomial infections.______________________________________________ Targeted surveillance program

This reagent is used to demonstrate a positive phenylalanine deaminase test. ______________________________________

This reagent is used to demonstrate a positive phenylalanine deaminase test. 10% ferric chloride

This staphylococcal species is associated with urinary tract infections in young, sexually active females.__________________________________________________________________

This staphylococcal species is associated with urinary tract infections in young, sexually active females. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

This staphylococcus produces wide zones of beta hemolysis on 5% sheep blood agar._____________________

This staphylococcus produces wide zones of beta hemolysis on 5% sheep blood agar. Staph. aureus

This test determines if an organism is a delayed lactose-fermenter. a. Beta-Galactosidase b. Dihydroxylase c. Nitrate d. Ortho-Nitrophenyl-Beta-D-galactopyranoside (ONPG) test

This test determines if an organism is a delayed lactose-fermenter. d. Ortho-Nitrophenyl-Beta-D-galactopyranoside (ONPG) test

This test is useful in the initial differentiation of Proteus, Morganella, and Providencia species from the rest of the Enterobacteriaceae. a. Oxidation-fermentation b. Methyl red c. Amino acid decarboxylase d. Phenylalanine deaminase

This test is useful in the initial differentiation of Proteus, Morganella, and Providencia species from the rest of the Enterobacteriaceae. d. Phenylalanine deaminase

Three levels of laboratories outlined in the Laboratory Response Network (LRN) include all the following EXCEPT: A) Sentinel B) Reference C) First responder D) National responder

Three levels of laboratories outlined in the Laboratory Response Network (LRN) include all the following EXCEPT: C) First responder

Three tubes of CSF are submitted to the laboratory. They are numbered 1, 2, and 3 and show blood in all tubes but decreasing in amount as one inspects tubes 1 through 3. This observation should be interpreted as: A. The tubes were numbered in the wrong sequence, as one would expect increasing amounts of blood B. A traumatic or bloody tap is suspected and, in all likelihood, no pathogenic significance should be attached to the presence of the blood C. The pathologic presence of RBCs and reported to the supervisor immediately D. A pathologic presence of RBCs, but because the RBC morphology is normal there is minimal importance

Three tubes of CSF are submitted to the laboratory. They are numbered 1, 2, and 3 and show blood in all tubes but decreasing in amount as one inspects tubes 1 through 3. This observation should be interpreted as: B. A traumatic or bloody tap is suspected and, in all likelihood, no pathogenic significance should be attached to the presence of the blood

Three tubes of blood-streaked synovial fluid from the elbow of a 40-year-old tennis player are delivered to the laboratory with a request for a WBC count, differential, crystal analysis, glucose, and Gram stain. Based on the information provided, what is the significance of the blood-streaked fluid? A. Elbow trauma B. Infection C. Traumatic collection D. Membrane damage

Three tubes of blood-streaked synovial fluid from the elbow of a 40-year-old tennis player are delivered to the laboratory with a request for a WBC count, differential, crystal analysis, glucose, and Gram stain. Based on the information provided, what is the significance of the blood-streaked fluid? C. Traumatic collection

To assist hospital personnel in collecting the highest quality specimen, the laboratory should: a. Post the microbiology laboratory's phone numbers in each section so personnel can call with questions and problems. b. Develop a well-written handbook and make it available at every patient care unit. c. Allow personnel to go to the floor and collect all specimens. d. Severely reprimand staff for not collecting specimens properly

To assist hospital personnel in collecting the highest quality specimen, the laboratory should: b. Develop a well-written handbook and make it available at every patient care unit.

To be considered a candidate for Rh immune globulin, the mother is ______________ and the infant is _____________. A) D-positive, D-negative B) D-negative, D-positive C) D-negative, D-negative D) D-positive, D-positive

To be considered a candidate for Rh immune globulin, the mother is ______________ and the infant is _____________. B) D-negative, D-positive

To detect the presence of early renal disease, diabetic patients are tested for:_____________________. This test should be performed on _____________(what type of specimen).

To detect the presence of early renal disease, diabetic patients are tested for:_____________________. This test should be performed on _____________(what type of specimen). Microalbumin First Morning

To determine if a questionable specimen is semen, the specimen should be tested for:__________

To determine if a questionable specimen is semen, the specimen should be tested for:__________ Acid phosphatase

To differentiate a bacterial cast from a granular cast, a clinical laboratory scientist could: A. Perform a Gram stain B. Use polarizing microscopy C. Perform a Hansel stain D. Add acetic acid to the sediment

To differentiate a bacterial cast from a granular cast, a clinical laboratory scientist could: A. Perform a Gram stain

To differentiate between maternal and fetal blood in blood-streaked amniotic fluid, the fluid is tested for:___________________

To differentiate between maternal and fetal blood in blood-streaked amniotic fluid, the fluid is tested for:___________________ Fetal hemoglobin

To dissolve amorphous urates, you could:

To dissolve amorphous urates, you could: Warm the specimen to body temperature

To distinguish a cellular cast from a clump of cells, the clinical laboratory scientist should:

To distinguish a cellular cast from a clump of cells, the clinical laboratory scientist should: Look carefully for the cast matrix

To distinguish between an A1 and A2 blood type, which reagent is used? A) Ulex europeaus lectin B) Anti-A,B C) Monoclonal anti-A D) Dolichos biflorus lectin

To distinguish between an A1 and A2 blood type, which reagent is used? D) Dolichos biflorus lectin

What is Chlex 100 resin used for? To purify RNA To purify DNA To extract RNA To extract DNA

To extract DNA

To help the microbiologist report microbiology results to the physician in a timely fashion to ensure the appropriate treatment, the tech may use this report. a. Antibiogram b. Infection control summary c. Preliminary d. Final

To help the microbiologist report microbiology results to the physician in a timely fashion to ensure the appropriate treatment, the tech may use this report. c. Preliminary

To inoculate triple sugar iron (TSI) agar or Kligler's iron agar (KIA), the laboratory scientist should pick a well-isolated colony with an inoculating needle and: a. Touch the bottom of the needle to the bottom of the slant portion of the agar and move the needle back and forth across the surface of the slant all the way to the top of the tube. b. Touch the bottom of the needle to the top of the slant portion of the agar and move the needle back and forth across the surface of the slant all the way to the bottom of the tube. c. Touch the bottom of the needle to the bottom of the slant portion of the agar and move the needle up the slant in a straight line all the way to the top of the tube. d. Stab the butt almost all the way to the bottom of the tube, then move the needle back and forth over the surface of the slant all the way to the top of the tube.

To inoculate triple sugar iron (TSI) agar or Kligler's iron agar (KIA), the laboratory scientist should pick a well-isolated colony with an inoculating needle and: d. Stab the butt almost all the way to the bottom of the tube, then move the needle back and forth over the surface of the slant all the way to the top of the tube.

To keep abreast of all infections that occur in the hospital, infection control practitioners set up surveillance programs. These surveillance programs look at this parameter to determine if there are more or fewer infections in a given period.________________________________________

To keep abreast of all infections that occur in the hospital, infection control practitioners set up surveillance programs. These surveillance programs look at this parameter to determine if there are more or fewer infections in a given period.________________________________________ Infection Rates

To perform a quality laboratory analysis, the laboratory needs specific information regarding the patient and the specimen. What can be a critical weak link in the specimen management process? a. Poor specimen collection techniques b. Incomplete information on the requisition c. Poor-quality hospital information system d. Poor-quality laboratory information system

To perform a quality laboratory analysis, the laboratory needs specific information regarding the patient and the specimen. What can be a critical weak link in the specimen management process? b. Incomplete information on the requisition

To prevent false-positive fecal occult blood results, patients should be instructed to avoid eating all of the following for 3 days before testing except: A. Horseradish B. Chicken C. Melons D. Red meat

To prevent false-positive fecal occult blood results, patients should be instructed to avoid eating all of the following for 3 days before testing except: B. Chicken

To prevent graft-versus-host disease, blood components prepared for a fetus that needs an intrauterine transfusion should be: A) saline washed. B) irradiated. C) frozen and deglycerolized. D) human leukocyte antigen-matched.

To prevent graft-versus-host disease, blood components prepared for a fetus that needs an intrauterine transfusion should be: B) irradiated.

To prevent graft-versus-host disease, red blood cells prepared for intrauterine transfusions should be: A) frozen and deglycerolized. B) saline washed. C) ABO and D-compatible with the mother. D) irradiated.

To prevent graft-versus-host disease, red blood cells prepared for intrauterine transfusions should be: D) irradiated.

To quantitate the number of bacteria for a routine urine culture, what size is the calibrated loop that is most often used?___________________________

To quantitate the number of bacteria for a routine urine culture, what size is the calibrated loop that is most often used? 0.001 (0.01 also used but not as often)

To standardize the sediment concentration for microscopic analysis one must: A) Centrifuge the entire urine collection B) Use only the urine tubes and pipettes for a single commercial system C) Interchange the urine tubes and pipettes from several commercial systems D) Use only the parts of the commercial system that you want

To standardize the sediment concentration for microscopic analysis one must: B) Use only the urine tubes and pipettes for a single commercial system

To survive, microbial inhabitants have learned to adapt by varying all of the following except: a. growth rate. b. growth in all atmospheric conditions. c. growth at particular temperatures. d. bacterial shape.

To survive, microbial inhabitants have learned to adapt by varying all of the following except: d. bacterial shape.

To what does the abbreviation "MSBOS" refer? A) Monthly surgical blood order schedule B) Minimum surgical blood order staffing C) Maximum blood order schedule D) Minimum safe blood order schedule

To what does the abbreviation "MSBOS" refer? C) Maximum blood order schedule

To which category does Neisseria spp. belong? a. Facultatively anaerobic b. Capnophilic c. Anaerobic d. Facultatively aerobic

To which category does Neisseria spp. belong? b. Capnophilic

Transfusion-associated hepatitis can be caused by hepatitis __________ virus. A) B B) C C) D D) All of the above

Trauma requiring transfusion of 8 pints of blood A. Prerenal B. Renal C. Postrenal

Trauma requiring transfusion of 8 pints of blood A. Prerenal

Two antibiotics are contraindicated in pediatric patients. They are: a. Erythromycin and Augmentin b. Cleocin and Zithromax c. Tetracycline and Ceclor d. Tetracycline and fluoroquinolones

Two antibiotics are contraindicated in pediatric patients. They are: d. Tetracycline and fluoroquinolones

Two serious complications of an infection with group A streptococcal disease are: _____________________________________________ and _____________________________________________

Two serious complications of an infection with group A streptococcal disease are: Acute Glomerulonephritis Rheumatic fever

Two types of specimens can use preservatives to maintain them until they can be delivered to the laboratory. They are: a. Urine, stool b. Urine, vaginal secretions c. Stool, throat cultures d. Pus from a wound, vaginal secretions

Two types of specimens can use preservatives to maintain them until they can be delivered to the laboratory. They are: a. Urine, stool

Unacceptable quality control results for the antiglobulin test performed in test tubes may be noticed if: A. preventive maintenance has not been performed on the cell washer. B. the technologist performing the test was never trained. C. the reagents used were improperly stored. D. all of the above.

Under what circumstance would a direct antiglobulin test be negative in the presence of a hemolytic process? A) Bacterial contamination of the unit B) Medications administered with the unit C) Red blood cell unit transfused quickly through a leukocyte reduction filter D) All of the above

Under what conditions should inoculated plates for Neisseria gonorrhoeae culture be incubated? a. 35 C and 3% to 5% carbon dioxide b. 25 C and room air c. 35C and room air d. 25 C and 3% to 5% carbon dioxide

Under what conditions should inoculated plates for Neisseria gonorrhoeae culture be incubated? a. 35 C and 3% to 5% carbon dioxide

Under what conditions will a port-wine urine color be observed in a urine specimen?________________________________

Under what conditions will a port-wine urine color be observed in a urine specimen? Urine contains porphyrins.

Universal/Standard Precautions require that: ___________________

Universal/Standard Precautions require that: Blood and Body fluids from all patients are considered infectious and capable of transmitting disease

Untreated cystitis A. Prerenal B. Renal C. Postrenal

Untreated cystitis B. Renal

Which of the following bases replace a base in RNA? Adenine Thymine Guanine Uracil

Uracil

Urinalysis on a patient with severe back and abdominal pain is frequently performed to check for: Glucosuria Proteinuria Hematuria Hemoglobinuria

Urinalysis on a patient with severe back and abdominal pain is frequently performed to check for: Hematuria

Urinary casts are formed in the:

Urinary casts are formed in the: Distal collecting tubules

Urinary crystals that appear yellow to reddish-brown are in normal acidic urine are :__________________________________

Urinary crystals that appear yellow to reddish-brown are in normal acidic urine are :______________ Uric acid

Urinary pH provides valuable information for the:

Urinary pH provides valuable information for the: Identification of crystals

Urinary tract infection (UTI) in children is associated with significant morbidity and long-term medical problems, including all the following EXCEPT: a. Impaired renal function b. Hypertension c. End-stage renal disease d. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome

Urinary tract infection (UTI) in children is associated with significant morbidity and long-term medical problems, including all the following EXCEPT: d. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome

Urine contains organic and inorganic chemicals that can vary with body metabolic functions. True/False

Urine contains organic and inorganic chemicals that can vary with body metabolic functions. True

Urine from a patient with diabetes insipidus has: 1) Decreased volume and decreased specific gravity 2) Decreased volume and increased specific gravity 3) Increased volume and increased specific gravity 4) Increased volume and decreased specific gravity

Urine from a patient with diabetes insipidus has: 4) Increased volume and decreased specific gravity

Urine sediment artifacts frequently differ from true sediment constituents by their:_______________________________________

Urine sediment artifacts frequently differ from true sediment constituents by their:_______________________________________ Refractility

Urine sediments containing increased WBCs should be observed closely for the presence of:

Urine sediments containing increased WBCs should be observed closely for the presence of: Bacteria

True or False: Urine specific gravity is equally influenced by the presence of glucose and sodium.

Urine specific gravity is equally influenced by the presence of glucose and sodium. False

Urine that remains unpreserved at room temperature will show an increase in the concentrations of nitrate, glucose, and white blood cells. True/False

Urine that remains unpreserved at room temperature will show an increase in the concentrations of nitrate, glucose, and white blood cells. False

Urobilinogen is formed from the: A. Conjugation of bilirubin in the liver B. Reduction of conjugated bilirubin in the bile C. Reduction of bilirubin by intestinal bacteria D. Oxidation of urobilin by intestinal bacteria

Urobilinogen is formed from the: C. Reduction of bilirubin by intestinal bacteria

Using Möeller's decarboxylase base medium, what color is a positive reaction and what causes this color to be produced? a. Purple, alkaline environment produced b. Yellow, acid environment produced c. Purple, acid environment produced d. Yellow, alkaline environment produced

Using Möeller's decarboxylase base medium, what color is a positive reaction and what causes this color to be produced? a. Purple, alkaline environment produced

Using a 1:10 dilution, 120 cells are counted in the four large corner squares on one side of the hemocytometer. What is the cell count? Show your math for full credit.

Using a 1:10 dilution, 120 cells are counted in the four large corner squares on one side of the hemocytometer. What is the cell count? Show your math for full credit. count x depth factor x dilution factor/# of large squares 120 x 10 x 10 / 4 = 3,000 ANSWER: 120*10/4*0.1=3000 cells/uL

Using a 1:10 dilution, an average of 64 cells are counted in five large squares on both sides of the hemocytometer.(10 squares counted 63 in one side and 65 in the other) What is the reported cell count? Show your math for full credit.

Using a 1:10 dilution, an average of 64 cells are counted in five large squares on both sides of the hemocytometer.(10 squares counted 63 in one side and 65 in the other) What is the reported cell count? Show your math for full credit. 64*10/5*0.1=1280 cells/uL

Using a 1:20 dilution and the 5 RBC counting squares of the Neubauer counting chamber, an average of 54 sperm is counted. The sperm concentration is:___________________________________________ Show your work

Using a 1:20 dilution and the 5 RBC counting squares of the Neubauer counting chamber, an average of 54 sperm is counted. The sperm concentration is:___________________________________________ Show your work 54 x 20 / 5 * 0.004 = 54,000/ul x 1000 = 54,000,000/ml

Using the following laboratory results, determine whether they represent bacterial, viral, tubercular, or fungal meningitis: WBC count: 1000/uL Lymphocytes: 10% Monocytes: 0% Neutrophils: 90% Protein 150 mg/dL Glucose: 15 mg/dL (Serum 90 mg/dL) Lactate: 40 mg/dL

Using the following laboratory results, determine whether they represent bacterial, viral, tubercular, or fungal meningitis: WBC count: 1000/uL Lymphocytes: 10% Monocytes: 0% Neutrophils: 90% Protein 150 mg/dL Glucose: 15 mg/dL (Serum 90 mg/dL) Lactate: 40 mg/dL Bacterial

Using the following laboratory results, determine whether they represent bacterial, viral, tubercular, or fungal meningitis: WBC count: 300/uL Lymphocytes: 70% Monocytes: 30% Neutrophils: 0% Protein 90mg/dL Glucose: 30 mg/dL (Serum 90 mg/dL) Lactate: 30 mg/dL Pellicle formation

Using the following laboratory results, determine whether they represent bacterial, viral, tubercular, or fungal meningitis: WBC count: 300/uL Lymphocytes: 70% Monocytes: 30% Neutrophils: 0% Protein 90mg/dL Glucose: 30 mg/dL (Serum 90 mg/dL) Lactate: 30 mg/dL Pellicle formation Tubercular

Using the following laboratory results, determine whether they represent bacterial, viral, tubercular, or fungal meningitis: WBC count: 400/uL Lymphocytes: 90% Monocytes: 8% Neutrophils: 2% Glucose: 70 mg/dL (Serum 100 mg/dL) Lactate: 18 mg/dL

Using the following laboratory results, determine whether they represent bacterial, viral, tubercular, or fungal meningitis: WBC count: 400/uL Lymphocytes: 90% Monocytes: 8% Neutrophils: 2% Glucose: 70 mg/dL (Serum 100 mg/dL) Lactate: 18 mg/dL Viral

Waterborne illnesses that may be associated with contaminated drinking water or recreation water include all the following EXCEPT: a. Legionellosis b. Hepatitis A c. Pseudomonas skin infection d. Hepatitis B

Waterborne illnesses that may be associated with contaminated drinking water or recreation water include all the following EXCEPT: d. Hepatitis B

What is the name of the condition in which there is hemorrhage in the adrenal glands?

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

Waxy casts are most easily differentiated from hyaline casts by their: A. Color B. Size C. Granules D. Refractivity

Waxy casts are most easily differentiated from hyaline casts by their: D. Refractivity

Waxy casts can be found in the urine sediment of patients with what disease state?

Waxy casts can be found in the urine sediment of patients with what disease state? Renal failure

What 2 substances do organisms that use oxygen have to protect themselves from superoxide anions? __________________________ &______________________

What 2 substances do organisms that use oxygen have to protect themselves from superoxide anions? Superoxide dismutase Catalase

What ABO phenotype would agglutinate in the presence of anti-A,B produced by group O individuals? A) A only B) B only C) A and B D) O only

What ABO phenotype would agglutinate in the presence of anti-A,B produced by group O individuals? C) A and B

What Bacillus sp. is a relatively common cause of food poisoning and opportunistic infection in susceptible hosts?

What Bacillus sp. is a relatively common cause of food poisoning and opportunistic infection in susceptible hosts? Bacillus cereus

What Corynebacterium infects mostly immunocompromised patients?

What Corynebacterium infects mostly immunocompromised patients? Corynebacterium jeikeium

What McFarland standard provides turbidity comparable to that of a bacterial suspension containing approximately 1.5 x 108 CFU/mL?

What McFarland standard provides turbidity comparable to that of a bacterial suspension containing approximately 1.5 x 108 CFU/mL? 0.5

What McFarland standard provides turbidity comparable to that of a bacterial suspension containing approximately 1.5 x 10x8 CFU/ml

What McFarland standard provides turbidity comparable to that of a bacterial suspension containing approximately 1.5 x 10x8 CFU/ml 0.5

What Mycobacterium species fails to grow in vitro?_______________________

What Mycobacterium species fails to grow in vitro?_______________________ Mycobacterium leprae

What Neisseria spp. can be found as part of the transient flora of the upper respiratory tract?

What Neisseria spp. can be found as part of the transient flora of the upper respiratory tract? Neisseria meningitidis

What Vibrio species would be suspected in patients with a traumatic aquatic wound resulting in cellulitis?

What Vibrio species would be suspected in patients with a traumatic aquatic wound resulting in cellulitis? Vibrio vulnificus

What action would you take with the following results? A. Call the floor because the urobilinogen is over the panic value B. Notify the floor that the specimen is too old C. Recheck the sediment D. Report the result

What action would you take with the following results? D. Report the result

What additive can maintain urine sample integrity for up to 48 hours at room temperature? ___________________________________

What additive can maintain urine sample integrity for up to 48 hours at room temperature? sodium borate

What advantage do the methods based on enzyme substrates have over conventional methods? ___________________________________________

What advantage do the methods based on enzyme substrates have over conventional methods? They do not require growth of the organism in the system

What amino acid is the substrate in indole test broth?______________________

What amino acid is the substrate in indole test broth? Tryptophan

What antibiotic is used for detection of methicillin resistance? NOTE: Two listed in the book. One is better than the other. ____________________________

What antibiotic is used for detection of methicillin resistance? NOTE: Two listed in the book. One is better than the other. Cefoxitin

What antibodies cause an anaphylactic transfusion reaction? A) IgA B) IgG C) IgE D) All of the above

What antibodies cause an anaphylactic transfusion reaction? A) IgA

What are giant multinucleated cells formed from cell fusion as a result of a viral infection?

What are giant multinucleated cells formed from cell fusion as a result of a viral infection? Syncytia

What are the two most frequently identified bacterial causes of community-acquired sinusitis? a. Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli b. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenza c. S. pneumoniae and Mycoplasma pneumonia d. H. influenzae and Neisseria meningitides

What are the two most frequently identified bacterial causes of community-acquired sinusitis? b. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenza

What are two conditions that make a patient susceptible to forming antibodies? ________________________________________

What are two conditions that make a patient susceptible to forming antibodies? Pregnancy Transfusion

What are two important factors that must be taken into consideration when transporting specimens for anaerobic culture?

What are two important factors that must be taken into consideration when transporting specimens for anaerobic culture? Minimum exposure to Oxygen do not let the specimen dry out.

What are two main key identification features of Serratia?

What are two main key identification features of Serratia? Red pigment ability to produce extracellular DNase

What are two potential consequences of bacteremia? _____________________________

What are two potential consequences of bacteremia? Sepsis Septic shock

What are two tests used to presumptively identify group B strep? ______________________________________________ ______________________________________________

What are two tests used to presumptively identify group B strep? Hippurate hydrolysis CAMP

What bacteria may cause up to 50% of all cases of pneumonia in the summer months?

What bacteria may cause up to 50% of all cases of pneumonia in the summer months? Mycoplasma pneumoniae

What bacterium is the causative agent of the plague?

What bacterium is the causative agent of the plague? Yersinia pestis

What biochemical test will differentiate nonfermenters from Enterobacteriaceae? Not asking for a sugar.

What biochemical test will differentiate nonfermenters from Enterobacteriaceae? Not asking for a sugar. Oxidase

What biological molecules are considered the most immunogenic? 1. Carbohydrates 2. Lipids 3. Proteins 4. Enzymes

What biological molecules are considered the most immunogenic? 3. Proteins

What body fluid is the India ink stain most commonly described for? A) Blood B) Spinal fluid C) Urine D) Sputum

What body fluid is the India ink stain most commonly described for? B) Spinal fluid

What can be done to increase the sensitivity of the antibody screen in a compatibility test? A) Extend the incubation time. B) Increase the serum-to-cell ratio. C) Use an enhancement such as polyethylene glycol. D) All of the above are correct.

What can cause a false-positive IgM serologic test?

What can cause a false-positive IgM serologic test? The presence of rheumatoid factors

What can happen when a transient bacteremia is produced from a dental procedure or a superficial skin infection? _________________________________________________

What can happen when a transient bacteremia is produced from a dental procedure or a superficial skin infection? Cardiac valves can be seeded with bacteria

What causes Scarlet fever? A) S. aureus B) Endotoxin C) Proteases D) Erythrogenic toxin

What causes Scarlet fever? D) Erythrogenic toxin

What causes Scarlet fever? a. S. aureus b. Endotoxin c. Proteases d. Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins

What causes Scarlet fever? d. Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins

What cells are found in bacterial vaginosis?

What cells are found in bacterial vaginosis? clue cells

What characteristic of urine inhibits growth of many pathogens?

What characteristic of urine inhibits growth of many pathogens? Low pH

What characterizes the Donath-Landsteiner antibody? A) An IgG auto anti-P. B) An IgM auto anti-I. C) Anti-IH that reacts at cold temperatures. D)An IgG anti-Pk.

What characterizes the Donath-Landsteiner antibody? A) An IgG auto anti-P.

What chemical has been very successful in reducing carryover from polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assays? ___________________________________

What chemical has been very successful in reducing carryover from polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assays? ___________________________________ Uracil-N-glycosylase (UNG)

What chemicals are added to triple sugar iron (TSI) to detect the production of hydrogen sulfide gas?______________________ and ______________________

What chemicals are added to triple sugar iron (TSI) to detect the production of hydrogen sulfide gas? Ferrous sulfate sodium thiosulfate

What class of organisms are Clostridium sp. that can live in the presence of oxygen but do not use oxygen in its metabolic processes? a. Microaerophilic b. Aerotolerant anaerobe c. Obligate anaerobe d. Facultative anaerobe

What class of organisms are Clostridium sp. that can live in the presence of oxygen but do not use oxygen in its metabolic processes? b. Aerotolerant anaerobe

What condition leads to most (75%) of the cases of bacteremia from intra-abdominal infections? _____________________________________________________

What condition leads to most (75%) of the cases of bacteremia from intra-abdominal infections? Peritonitis

What condition results when a procedural manipulation of a particular body site that is colonized by normal florae occurs?____________________________

What condition results when a procedural manipulation of a particular body site that is colonized by normal florae occurs? Transient bacteremia

What condition underlying predisposes a person to a polymicrobial bacteremia? a. Intravenous drug use b. Burns c. Gastrointestinal tract sources d. All of the above

What constituent of a gram-positive cell wall absorbs crystal violet but is not dissolved by alcohol, thus giving the gram-positive cell its characteristic purple color? a. Mycolic acid b. Cholesterol c. Carbolfuchsin d. Peptidoglycan

What constituent of a gram-positive cell wall absorbs crystal violet but is not dissolved by alcohol, thus giving the gram-positive cell its characteristic purple color? d. Peptidoglycan

What diarrheal illness occurs when organisms invade through the bowel wall, cause bacteremia, and also cause a mesenteric lymphadenitis that may be confused with appendicitis? a. Diarrhea in which the mucosal surface is invaded b. Diarrhea in which the full bowel thickness is invaded c. Diarrhea caused by endotoxins d. Diarrhea caused by enterotoxins

What diarrheal illness occurs when organisms invade through the bowel wall, cause bacteremia, and also cause a mesenteric lymphadenitis that may be confused with appendicitis? b. Diarrhea in which the full bowel thickness is invaded

What diarrheal pathogen can produce a disease that may lead to hemolytic-uremic syndrome (hemolytic anemia, low platelet count, and kidney failure)? a. Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC) b. Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) c. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) d. Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)

What diarrheal pathogen can produce a disease that may lead to hemolytic-uremic syndrome (hemolytic anemia, low platelet count, and kidney failure)? a. Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC)

What disease can newborns acquire through a birth canal infected with Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

What disease can newborns acquire through a birth canal infected with Neisseria gonorrhoeae? Ophthalmia neonatorum

What disease does Chlamydia psittaci cause in humans?

What disease does Chlamydia psittaci cause in humans? Parrot fever

What disease does Clostridium tetani cause?

What disease does Clostridium tetani cause? Tetanus

What diseases does the varicella zoster virus (VZV) cause?

What disease does the varicella zoster virus (VZV) cause? Chicken pox

What disease is produced by group A streptococci that is characterized by a rapidly progressing inflammation and necrosis of the skin, subcutaneous fat, and fascia? ___________________________

What disease is produced by group A streptococci that is characterized by a rapidly progressing inflammation and necrosis of the skin, subcutaneous fat, and fascia? Necrotizing fasciitis

What disease manifests in acute cases as a severe gastroenteritis, accompanied by vomiting followed by diarrheic stools that are described as rice water and occur 10 to 30 times a day?

What disease manifests in acute cases as a severe gastroenteritis, accompanied by vomiting followed by diarrheic stools that are described as rice water and occur 10 to 30 times a day? Cholera

What disease produced by a salmonellae species is a severe form of enteric fever? ________________________________________________________________

What disease produced by a salmonellae species is a severe form of enteric fever? Typhoid fever

What disease, caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, is considered a sexually transmitted disease where the organisms enter the lymph nodes near the genital tract, resulting in bubo formation and ultimately rupturing the lymph node?

What disease, caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, is considered a sexually transmitted disease where the organisms enter the lymph nodes near the genital tract, resulting in bubo formation and ultimately rupturing the lymph node? Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)

What disease, caused by biofilms, consumes more resources in the intensive care unit (ICU) than any other infectious disease? a. Blood cultures positive with coagulase-negative staphylococci b. Urinary tract infections due to gram-negative rods c. Surgical site infections d. Ventilator-associated pneumonia

What disease, caused by biofilms, consumes more resources in the intensive care unit (ICU) than any other infectious disease? d. Ventilator-associated pneumonia

What diseases are currently screened using nucleic acid tests? A) Hepatitis B and C viruses, West Nile virus, and HIV-1 B) Chagas disease, malaria, and syphilis C) Hepatitis B virus, hepatitis C virus, and HIV D) Human T-cell lymphotropic virus-I/human T-cell lymphotropic virus-II, HIV 1/HIV-2, and hepatitis C virus

What diseases are currently screened using nucleic acid tests? A) Hepatitis B and C viruses, West Nile virus, and HIV-1

What disk is used to presumptively identify Peptostreptococcus anaerobius?______

What disk is used to presumptively identify Peptostreptococcus anaerobius?______ SPS Sodium polyanethol sulfonate

What do aeromonad colonies look like on cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN) agar?

What do aeromonad colonies look like on cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN) agar? pink colonies

What do biofilms allow members of the microbial community to do? a. Withstand the shear forces of blood and urine b. Remain in a nutrient rich environment c. Survive d. All of the above

What do specimens with multiple uropathogens (i.e., three or more) indicate? ______________________________________________________________

What do specimens with multiple uropathogens (i.e., three or more) indicate? Probable contamination

What do the H and the N stand for in the influenza virus names?

What do the H and the N stand for in the influenza virus names? H= hemagglutinin used to bind to host cells, N= neuraminidase which cleaves budding viruses from infected cells.

What do the following results suggest? A. Diabetes mellitus B. Unsatisfactory specimen C. Urinary tract infection D. Normal female specimen

What do the following results suggest? C. Urinary tract infection

What does MALDI-TOF stand for and briefly explain the technology.

What does MALDI-TOF stand for and briefly explain the technology. Matrix-assisted laser desorption-ionization time-of-flight mass spectrometry Colony proteins are cocrystallized with the matrix chemical. They are then pulsed with a UV laser giving the proteins a positive charge. They are ionized and put into a flight tube. The mass spec separates the ions by their mass-to-charge ratio. Software is used to analyze the time of flight. This is compared to a reference for identification.

What does a negative reaction in the MTS Gel Test look like in the gel card? A) pellet of cells at the bottom of the column. B) layer of cells at the top of the column. C) cells evenly distributed throughout the column. D) cells distributed only in the bottom half of the column.

What does a negative reaction in the MTS Gel Test look like in the gel card? A) pellet of cells at the bottom of the column.

What does blood-borne dissemination of Neisseria gonorrhoeae usually result in?

What does blood-borne dissemination of Neisseria gonorrhoeae usually result in? Purulent arthritis

What does the oxidase test determine? a. If the bacteria have the enzyme, oxidase, to reduce oxygen to carbon dioxide b. If the bacteria have oxidase, which will allow for the oxidation of carbohydrates c. If the bacteria can hydrolyze urea to ammonia and carbon dioxide d. The presence of the cytochrome oxidase system that oxidizes reduced cytochrome with molecular oxygen

What does the oxidase test determine? d. The presence of the cytochrome oxidase system that oxidizes reduced cytochrome with molecular oxygen

What elements should be included in the direct examination of a microbial smear? a. Only those elements useful in characterizing the specimen b. Only elements pertaining to the necrosis present in the specimen c. Only those elements pertaining to the amount of gram-positive cocci present in the specimen d. Only those elements of contaminating material present in the specimen

What elements should be included in the direct examination of a microbial smear? a. Only those elements useful in characterizing the specimen

What enables the microbiologist to select the correct media for primary culture and optimize the chance of isolating a pathogenic organism? a. Determining staining characteristics b. Understanding the cell structure and biochemical pathways of an organism c. Understanding the growth requirements of potential pathogens for the body site d. Knowing the differences in cell walls of particular bacteria

What enables the microbiologist to select the correct media for primary culture and optimize the chance of isolating a pathogenic organism? c. Understanding the growth requirements of potential pathogens for the body site

What evidence indicates the presence of anaerobes in culture? a. A foul odor b. Growth on the anaerobic plates, but not on the sheep blood agar plates incubated in the CO2 incubator c. Colonies on kanamycin-vancomycin laked blood agar that fluoresce brick-red under ultraviolet light. d. All of the above.

What factor is the most common reason for xanthochromia?

What factor is the most common reason for xanthochromia? Presence of RBC degradation products.

What form of anthrax is found among animal workers and has been dubbed woolsorter's disease? a. Cutaneous b. Gastrointestinal c. Inhalation d. Optical

What form of anthrax is found among animal workers and has been dubbed woolsorter's disease? c. Inhalation

What forward typing reagent can be used to confirm group O units before placing them in inventory?(Chose only one correct answer. Think easiest and fastest). A) Anti-A B) Anti-B C) Anti-A,B D) Anti-H

What forward typing reagent can be used to confirm group O units before placing them in inventory?(Chose only one correct answer. Think easiest and fastest). C) Anti-A,B

What fungus causes chronic meningitis in HIV patients?

What fungus causes chronic meningitis in HIV patients? Cryptococcus neoformans

What genus comprise the four major groups of anaerobic gram-negative bacilli?

What genus comprise the four major groups of anaerobic gram-negative bacilli? Bacteroides Porphyromonas Prevotella Fusobacterium

What genus has the following characteristics: negative for urea, positive for lysine decarboxylase, positive for hydrogen sulfide, positive for indole, and does not grow on Simmon's citrate? _______________________________________________________

What genus has the following characteristics: negative for urea, positive for lysine decarboxylase, positive for hydrogen sulfide, positive for indole, and does not grow on Simmon's citrate? Edwardsiella

What genus of bacteria is considered an opportunistic pathogen associated with nosocomial outbreaks? a. Enterobacter b. Serratia c. Proteus d. Escherichia

What genus of bacteria is considered an opportunistic pathogen associated with nosocomial outbreaks? b. Serratia

What group has more urinary tract infections (UTIs) caused by Staphylococcus saprophyticus?

What group has more urinary tract infections (UTIs) caused by Staphylococcus saprophyticus? Symptomatic sexually active young women

What happens if clinically significant red cell antibodies are found in donor units? A) Platelet and fresh frozen plasma can be transfused. B) Red blood cells can be used if the antibody interpretation is indicated on the label. C) The red blood cells, plasma, and platelet products must be discarded. D) Red blood cells must be washed before transfusion.

What happens if clinically significant red cell antibodies are found in donor units? B) Red blood cells can be used if the antibody interpretation is indicated on the label.

What happens to dental plaque if it is allowed to remain undisturbed for several days? a. The biofilm disaggregates. b. The persister cells predominate the biofilm. c. Pathogenic bacteria become the main bacterial constituents of the biofilm. d. Nonpathogenic bacteria become the main bacterial constituents of the biofilm.

What happens to dental plaque if it is allowed to remain undisturbed for several days? c. Pathogenic bacteria become the main bacterial constituents of the biofilm.

What happens when the renal threshold for glucose is exceeded?

What happens when the renal threshold for glucose is exceeded? Glucose appears in the urine

What has an outer membrane similar to that of many gram-negative bacteria, with the most prominent feature being the major outer membrane protein?

What has an outer membrane similar to that of many gram-negative bacteria, with the most prominent feature being the major outer membrane protein? Elementary body

What immunoglobulin class is capable of crossing the placenta?

What immunoglobulin class is capable of crossing the placenta? IgG

What immunoglobulin class reacts best at room temperature at immediate-spin?

What immunoglobulin class reacts best at room temperature at immediate-spin? IgM

What immunoglobulin class reacts best by antiglobulin testing?____

What immunoglobulin class reacts best by antiglobulin testing? IgG

What immunoglobulin is capable of crossing the placenta? A) IgA B) IgG C) IgM D) IgE

What immunoglobulin is capable of crossing the placenta? B) IgG

What immunosuppressive agents increase a patient's risk of bacteremia? a. Cancer chemotherapy b. Corticosteroid therapy c. Transplant maintenance therapy d. All of the above

What infectious agent causes Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, Kuru, and "mad cow" disease?

What infectious agent causes Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, Kuru, and "mad cow" disease? Prion

What is ASO used for? a. To demonstrate serologic response to streptococcal antigen b. To determine if a strep has been lysogenized c. To determine if a strep produces a hemolysin d. To demonstrate serologic response to Streptococcus pyogenes

What is ASO used for? d. To demonstrate serologic response to Streptococcus pyogenes

What is Hidradenitis Suppurativa?

What is Hidradenitis Suppurativa? Skin disease that affects areas that maintain apocrine sweat glands and hair follicles, such as the axillae, groin, and buttocks and under the breasts of women.

What is LRN and what are most hospital laboratories categorized as? (read pages 724-725)

What is LRN and what are most hospital laboratories categorized as? (read pages 724-725) Laboratory Response Network Sentinel.

What is VRE?

What is VRE? Vancomycin resistant enterococcus

What is a Leptospira infection called when it becomes a severe systemic disease?

What is a Leptospira infection called when it becomes a severe systemic disease? Weil's disease

What is a biofilm? a. Communities of organisms attached to a solid surface b. The resulting thick, slimy mucous produced in cystic fibrosis c. A slime factor that can be found in your gastrointestinal tract d. The resulting film that is produced by necrotic tissue, bacteria, and immune cells

What is a biofilm? a. Communities of organisms attached to a solid surface

What is a characteristic of Rh system antibodies? a. Mixed-field reactions on panels b. Weak reactions with panel cells c. Strong reactions with panel cells when read at immediate-spin phase d. Reactions that are enhanced with enzymes

What is a characteristic of Rh system antibodies? d. Reactions that are enhanced with enzymes

What is a chronic pneumonia? a. A viral pneumonia that lasts for months b. A pneumonia that is caused by a slow-growing bacteria such as Bacillus anthracis and takes months to resolve c. A bacterial pneumonia that become resistant to antibiotic therapy d. A pneumonia that appears to resolve clinically, but where radiographic lung abnormalities persist for a long period

What is a chronic pneumonia? d. A pneumonia that appears to resolve clinically, but where radiographic lung abnormalities persist for a long period

What is a confirmatory test for a positive rapid plasmin reagin (RPR)? Spell out the words for the acronym for full credit.

What is a confirmatory test for a positive rapid plasmin reagin (RPR)? Spell out the words for the acronym for full credit. Fluorescent treponemal antibody, absorbed (FTA-ABS)

What is a major cause of pelvic inflammatory disease in women? a. Untreated gonococcal cervicitis b. Untreated meningococcal cystitis c. Treated gonococcal cervicitis d. Treated meningococcal cystitis

What is a major cause of pelvic inflammatory disease in women? a. Untreated gonococcal cervicitis

What is a porin? a. An inner membrane pore that allows proteins out into the cytoplasm b. Outer membrane pores that allow the membrane to "breathe" c. Substrates for enzymes that enable protein synthesis d. Outer membrane channels that permit the inflow of nutrients and the outflow of wastes

What is a porin? d. Outer membrane channels that permit the inflow of nutrients and the outflow of wastes

What is a prion? a. A virion b. A viroid c. A proteinaceous infectious particle d. A lipopolysaccharide infectious particle

What is a prion? c. A proteinaceous infectious particle

What is a sessile-type biofilm? a. A biofilm made up of free-floating microorganisms b. A multiple-species biofilm c. A biofilm that is attached and made up of multiple species d. A biofilm that is present in an aquatic environment

What is a sessile-type biofilm? c. A biofilm that is attached and made up of multiple species

What is an advantage of Nucleic Acid Testing (NAT) for viral marker testing? A) Quicker to perform than most other tests B) More cost effective than traditional test methods C) A small amount of DNA or RNA can be detected D) No problem with cross-contamination of samples

What is an advantage of Nucleic Acid Testing (NAT) for viral marker testing? C) A small amount of DNA or RNA can be detected

What is an advantage of the MTS gel technology over test tubes when performing panels? A) shorter centrifugation time. B) decreased reagent cost. C) reduced patient sample requirements. D) the incubation step is optional.

What is an advantage of the MTS gel technology over test tubes when performing panels? C) reduced patient sample requirements.

What is an anaerobe?

What is an anaerobe? Organism that does not require oxygen for life and reproduction.

What is an example of a nontreponemal test?

What is an example of a nontreponemal test? Rapid plasmin reagin (RPR)

What is an obligate anaerobe?

What is an obligate anaerobe? An organism that grows only in the absence of molecular oxygen.

What is an unsuitable storage temperature for viruses because it allows the development of ice crystals?

What is an unsuitable storage temperature for viruses because it allows the development of ice crystals? -20C

What is another common name for the infamous type of myonecrosis caused by Clostridium perfringens?

What is another common name for the infamous type of myonecrosis caused by Clostridium perfringens? gas gangrene

What is benchmarking?

What is benchmarking? Seeking an industry's or professions' best practices to imitate and improve.

What is considered to be the primary blood borne infectious occupational health hazard for laboratory workers? Hep B MRSA TB HIV

What is considered to be the primary blood borne infectious occupational health hazard for laboratory workers? Hep B

What is empyema?

What is empyema? A collection of purulent fluid in the pleural space between the lung and the chest wall.

What is erysipelas?

What is erysipelas? Acute spreading skin lesion that involves the subcutaneous tissues.

What is helpful when initiating empiric antimicrobial therapy? a. Knowing the patient's age b. Knowing the pathogens most likely to cause a particular type of infection c. Knowing a patient's medical history d. Knowing the anatomy of the respiratory tract

What is helpful when initiating empiric antimicrobial therapy? b. Knowing the pathogens most likely to cause a particular type of infection

What is one factor that may contribute to the incidence of candiduria in hospitalized patients?

What is one factor that may contribute to the incidence of candiduria in hospitalized patients? Increased use of broad-spectrum antibiotic

What is one key biochemical reaction that will separate the Proteus, Morganella, and Providencia from the other Enterobacteriaciae?

What is one key biochemical reaction that will separate the Proteus, Morganella, and Providencia from the other Enterobacteriaciae? Answer: Phenylalanine deaminase

What is one of the biggest uses for Western blot tests in the laboratory today? a. Confirming antibodies to HIV b. Confirming antibodies to cytomegalovirus (CMV) c. Confirming antibodies to rubella d. DNA sequencing from herpes

What is one of the biggest uses for Western blot tests in the laboratory today? a. Confirming antibodies to HIV

What is one of the most common diseases caused by streptococci? ______________________

What is one of the most common diseases caused by streptococci? Strep throat

What is one of the most frequently isolated, clinical significant corynebacteria?

What is one of the most frequently isolated, clinical significant corynebacteria? C. urealyticum

What is one of the most widely used applications of the direct antigen test? a. HIV in saliva b. Group A strep in throat swabs c. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in urine d. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) in hair follicles

What is one of the most widely used applications of the direct antigen test? b. Group A strep in throat swabs

What is proteomics? a. The study of proteins on a cellular level b. The study of the human genome c. The study of serum proteins d. The study of proteins in genes

What is proteomics? a. The study of proteins on a cellular level

What is pulsed-field gel electrophoresis? ____________________________________

What is pulsed-field gel electrophoresis? ____________________________________ Commonly used strain-typing method. A restriction enzyme is used to digest chromosomal DNA, and the resulting fragments are separated in an agarose gel in a pulsed electrical field. The strains show unique banding patterns.

What is suspected if the auto control is positive? ___________________

What is suspected if the auto control is positive? Autoantibody

What is the ABO blood type of the cells used in antibody identification?

What is the ABO blood type of the cells used in antibody identification? O

What is the Apt test used for? (What does it differentiate?)

What is the Apt test used for? (What does it differentiate?) Fetal blood and maternal blood in an infant's stool

What is the Gram Stain reaction for Staphylococcus? (Remember: Gram stains are reported with stain reaction and morphology.)

What is the Gram Stain reaction for Staphylococcus? (Remember: Gram stains are reported with stain reaction and morphology.) Gram positive cocci in clusters

What is the Gram stain reaction of Streptoccus and Enterococci?

What is the Gram stain reaction of Streptoccus and Enterococci? Gram positive cocci in pairs or chains

What is the IMViC reaction of Klebsiella pneumonia?

What is the IMViC reaction of Klebsiella pneumonia? Indole test, negative Methyl Red test, negative Voges Proskauer test, positive Citrate utilization test, positive Answer: --++

What is the IMVic reaction for E. coli? Indole test, positive Methyl Red test, positive Voges Proskauer test, negative Citrate utilization test, negative Answer: ++--

What is the IMVic reaction for E. coli? Indole test, positive Methyl Red test, positive Voges Proskauer test, negative Citrate utilization test, negative In D2L: ++--

What is the VP reaction of the Enterobacter?

What is the VP reaction of the Enterobacter? Positive

What is the advantage of cytocentrifuge of CSF specimens?

What is the advantage of cytocentrifuge of CSF specimens? Produces a more concentrated area of cells

What is the advantage of testing donors' blood using nucleic acid test methods? A) Detection of small amounts of the virus B) Reduction of costs involved in testing C) Quicker and easier to perform than other methods D) All of the above

What is the advantage of testing donors' blood using nucleic acid test methods? A) Detection of small amounts of the virus

What is the advantage to using FDA approved NAAT for detection of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

What is the advantage to using FDA approved NAAT for detection of Neisseria gonorrhoeae? You can also diagnose Chlamydia

What is the advantage to using PACE 2C and NAAT for detection of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

What is the advantage to using PACE 2C and NAAT for detection of Neisseria gonorrhoeae? You can also find Chlamydia

What is the agent of Human Monocytic Ehrlichiosis? Genus and species

What is the agent of Human Monocytic Ehrlichiosis? Genus and species Ehrlichia chaffeensis

What is the agent of Q fever? Genus and species

What is the agent of Q fever? Genus and species Coxiella burnetii

What is the antigen used in the purified protein derivative (PPD) skin test? _________________

What is the antigen used in the purified protein derivative (PPD) skin test? _________________ A purified protein from the cell wall of M. tuberculosis.

What is the approximate probability of finding a compatible unit of blood for a D-positive patient with antibodies to C, E, and K, if the frequency of C is 70%, E is 30%, and K is 10%? Show your math. Express as a percentage and then as a number out of 10 units.

What is the approximate probability of finding a compatible unit of blood for a D-positive patient with antibodies to C, E, and K, if the frequency of C is 70%, E is 30%, and K is 10%? Show your math. Express as a percentage and then as a number out of 10 units. 0.3 x 0.7 x 0.9= 0.19 = 0.19 19% 2 out of 10

What is the biggest drawback to PCR? (What must the tech be very aware of?) ____________________________________

What is the biggest drawback to PCR? (What must the tech be very aware of?) ____________________________________ The process is easily contaminated.

What is the causative agent of glanders? Genus and species.

What is the causative agent of glanders? Genus and species. Burkholderia mallei

What is the causative agent of melioidosis? Genus and species

What is the causative agent of melioidosis? Genus and species Burkholderia pseudomallei

What is the cause (organism) of most uncomplicated urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

What is the cause (organism) of most uncomplicated urinary tract infections (UTIs)? Escherichia coli

What is the cause of posttransfusion purpura? A) Red cell antibodies B) White cell antibodies C) Platelet antibodies D) Bacterial contamination

What is the cause of posttransfusion purpura? C) Platelet antibodies

What is the cause of reduced clearance of respiratory secretions that predisposes people to respiratory infections? a. Obstruction of a foreign body b. Alterations in the viscosity of the mucus c. Immature anatomic development d. All of the above

What is the colony morphology of A. haemolyticum on sheep blood agar (SBA)?

What is the colony morphology of A. haemolyticum on sheep blood agar (SBA)? A narrow zone of Beta-hemolysis and a black opaque dot is seen when the colony is scraped away

What is the common manifestation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in men?

What is the common manifestation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in men? Purulent discharge and dysuria

What is the common name for a dental biofilm?

What is the common name for a dental biofilm? Plaque

What is the correct storage temperature and time limit for pooled platelets? A) 20° to 24° C, 5 days B) 1° to 6° C, 7 days C) 1° to 10° C, 24 hours D) 20° to 24° C, 4 hours

What is the correct storage temperature and time limit for pooled platelets? D) 20° to 24° C, 4 hours

What is the definition of an antibody demonstrating dosage? a. homozygous red cells were stronger b. heterozygous red cells were stronger c. red cells reacted best with PEG d. red cells reacted best at 4C

What is the definition of an antibody demonstrating dosage? a. homozygous red cells were stronger

What is the definitive method for collecting uncontaminated urine specimens?

What is the definitive method for collecting uncontaminated urine specimens? Suprapubic aspirate

What is the drug of choice for treating most streptococcal infections? _____________________

What is the drug of choice for treating most streptococcal infections? Penicillin

What is the drug of choice to treat Streptococcus pneumoniae?__________________________

What is the drug of choice to treat Streptococcus pneumoniae? Penicillin

What is the earliest serologic marker detected in hepatitis B?

What is the earliest serologic marker detected in hepatitis B? HBsAg

What is the first presumptive test (after the Gram Stain) to determine if an isolate is Staphylococcus?

What is the first presumptive test (after the Gram Stain) to determine if an isolate is Staphylococcus? catalase

What is the first step in developing meningitis?

What is the first step in developing meningitis? Nasopharyngeal colonization

What is the first step in proper disposal of chemicals? Ask the supervisor how he wants them disposed of Pour all chemicals down the drain Consult the MSDS for proper disposal Put all containers in the biohazard trash for removal

What is the first step in proper disposal of chemicals? Consult the MSDS for proper disposal

What is the first thing to tell a medical personal administrating blood products who reports and adverse reaction?

What is the first thing to tell a medical personal administrating blood products who reports and adverse reaction? Stop the blood

What is the fluorescence resonance energy transfer (FRET) methodology? a. The transfer of energy from a donor dye molecule to an acceptor dye molecule. b. A fluorescent probe is mixed with labeled primers and a sandwich occurs where the fluorescent molecule is activated to fluorescent. c. A light shines on the fluorescent probe label and it fluoresces. d. A chromogenic substrate is mixed into solution, and when it combines with the Taq DNA polymerase, a fluorophore is formed and it fluoresces.

What is the fluorescence resonance energy transfer (FRET) methodology? a. The transfer of energy from a donor dye molecule to an acceptor dye molecule.

What is the formation of germ tubes used for in mycology? A) Presumptive identification of a fungus B) To identify Cryptococcus neoformans C) To presumptively identify Candida albicans D) To rule out a pathogen

What is the formation of germ tubes used for in mycology? C) To presumptively identify Candida albicans

What is the formula for calculating the number of moles of a chemical? (gx100)/GMW g/GMW gxGMW GMW/g

What is the formula for calculating the number of moles of a chemical? g/GMW

What is the function of protein A in the cell wall of Staphylococcus aureus? a. To keep the structural integrity of the cell wall and keep out antibiotics b. To bind the IgG and prevent phagocytosis c. To bind the IgM and inactivate natural killer cells d. To block the activation of the complement cascade

What is the function of protein A in the cell wall of Staphylococcus aureus? b. To bind the IgG and prevent phagocytosis

What is the generalized term used to describe the Mycobacterium because of its staining characteristics?

What is the generalized term used to describe the Mycobacterium because of its staining characteristics? Acid Fast Bacillus AFB

What is the goal of therapeutic apheresis? A) Reduce a high antibody level B) Replace cellular elements C) Clear immune complexes D) All of the above are correct

What is the hemolysin responsible for hemolysis on SBA incubated anaerobically?____________

What is the hemolysin responsible for hemolysis on SBA incubated anaerobically? Streptolysin O

What is the ideal anaerobic incubation system?

What is the ideal anaerobic incubation system? Anaerobic chamber

What is the immunoglobulin class of antibodies detected in the immediate-spin crossmatch? A) IgA B) IgM C) IgG D) IgD

What is the immunoglobulin class of antibodies detected in the immediate-spin crossmatch? B) IgM

What is the immunoglobulin class of most Rh system antibodies? A) IgM B) IgG C) IgA D) IgE

What is the immunoglobulin class of most Rh system antibodies? B) IgG

What is the index of precision known as? Mean Median Standard of deviation Coefficient of variation

What is the index of precision known as? Coefficient of variation

What is the indigenous ocular microbial flora? (2 genus)

What is the indigenous ocular microbial flora? (2 genus) Coagulase negative Staphylococcus Corynebacteria

What is the inexpensive test used to presumptively identify Streptococcus pyogenes? ___________________________________________________

What is the inexpensive test used to presumptively identify Streptococcus pyogenes? Bacitracin

What is the infective particle of Chlamydia? See Chapter 24)

What is the infective particle of Chlamydia? See Chapter 24) Elementary body

What is the instillation volume for cellular examination and culture? A. 50 to 100 mL in 10 to 20 aliquots of sterile saline B. 100 to 200 mL in 10 to 20 aliquots of sterile saline C. 100 to 300 mL in 20 to 50 aliquots of sterile saline D. 200 to 400 mL in 20 to 50 aliquots of sterile saline

What is the instillation volume for cellular examination and culture? C. 100 to 300 mL in 20 to 50 aliquots of sterile saline

What is the leading cause of infectious blindness and ocular morbidity in the United States?

What is the leading cause of infectious blindness and ocular morbidity in the United States? Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

What is the main reason for performing and osmolality test?

What is the main reason for performing and osmolality test? For a more accurate evaluation of renal concentrating ability.

What is the main symptom for primary syphilis?

What is the main symptom for primary syphilis? Chancre

What is the major functional unit of the kidney and what two components make it up?

What is the major functional unit of the kidney and what two components make it up? Nephron Glomerulus and renal tubules

What is the mechanism by which toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1) causes toxic shock syndrome (TSS)? a. The bacteria release the toxin into the blood and it goes to the hypothalamus to produce an extremely high fever. b. The bacteria release the toxin into the gastrointestinal system where phagocytes engulf the bacteria, leaving a pseudomembrane that irritates the colon. c. The toxin is a superantigen that stimulates T-cell proliferation with production of large amounts of cytokines. d. All of the above.

What is the mechanism by which toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1) causes toxic shock syndrome (TSS)? c. The toxin is a superantigen that stimulates T-cell proliferation with production of large amounts of cytokines.

What is the mechanism of action of the glycopeptides (vancomycin and teicoplanin)? a. The glycopeptides inhibit folate synthesis and prevent the bacteria from using this as an energy source. b. The glycopeptides interfere with DNA replication and disrupt the protein synthesis peration. c. The glycopeptides bind to the substrate of the transpeptidation enzyme and disrupt the cell membrane construction. d. The glycopeptides interfere with transfer RNA production and disrupt the protein synthesis operation.

What is the mechanism of action of the glycopeptides (vancomycin and teicoplanin)? c. The glycopeptides bind to the substrate of the transpeptidation enzyme and disrupt the cell membrane construction.

What is the media and reaction used to screen for E.coli o157?

What is the media and reaction used to screen for E.coli o157? MacConkey with Sorbital Non sorbital fermenter

What is the minimum acceptable storage temperature for frozen red blood cells? A) 4° C B) -12° C C) -20° C D) -65° C

What is the minimum acceptable storage temperature for frozen red blood cells? D) -65° C

What is the minimum hemoglobin level for a potential female allogeneic donor? A) 11 g/dL B) 12 g/dL C) 12.5 g/dL D) 14 g/dL

What is the minimum hemoglobin level for a potential female allogeneic donor? C) 12.5 g/dL

What is the most clinically significant species of Serratia?

What is the most clinically significant species of Serratia? S. marcescens

What is the most common bacterial cause of travelers' diarrhea? Genus and species

What is the most common bacterial cause of travelers' diarrhea? Genus and species Escherichia coli

What is the most common bacterium found on the skin?

What is the most common bacterium found on the skin? Coagulase negative Staphylococcus

What is the most common causative agent of gas gangrene? Genus and species _____________________________

What is the most common causative agent of gas gangrene? Genus and species: Clostridium perfringens

What is the most common causative agent of pyoderma? Genus and species ________________________________

What is the most common causative agent of pyoderma? Genus and species: Staphylococcus aureus

What is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis in the world? Genus and species

What is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis in the world? Genus and species Campylobacter jejuni

What is the most common cause of death among patients with diarrhea?

What is the most common cause of death among patients with diarrhea? Dehydration

What is the most common clinical manifestation associated with continuous bacteremia? _____________________________________________________________________

What is the most common clinical manifestation associated with continuous bacteremia? Endocarditis

What is the most common localized infection of the upper respiratory tract in preschool-age patients? a. Orbital cellulitis b. Acute sinusitis c. Otitis media d. Mastoiditis

What is the most common localized infection of the upper respiratory tract in preschool-age patients? c. Otitis media

What is the most common mode of transmission for hepatitis C virus? A) Contaminated food and water B) Transfusion C) Sexual transmission D) Intravenous drug use

What is the most common mode of transmission for hepatitis C virus? D) Intravenous drug use

What is the most common route of administration for ophthalmic drugs?

What is the most common route of administration for ophthalmic drugs? Topical

What is the most common virus isolated from infants with lower respiratory infections and causes croup, bronchitis, bronchiolitis, and interstitial pneumonia?

What is the most common virus isolated from infants with lower respiratory infections and causes croup, bronchitis, bronchiolitis, and interstitial pneumonia? Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

What is the most commonly identified intestinal parasite in the United States? Genus and species

What is the most commonly identified intestinal parasite in the United States? Genus and species Giardia lamblia

What is the most commonly used method to collect urine samples?

What is the most commonly used method to collect urine samples? Clean catch mid-stream voided urine

What is the most critical step in any susceptibility test?

What is the most critical step in any susceptibility test? Inoculum preparation

What is the most effective component to treat a patient with von Willebrand disease? A) Fresh frozen plasma B) Red blood cells C) Platelets D) Cryoprecipitated AHF

What is the most effective component to treat a patient with von Willebrand disease? D) Cryoprecipitated AHF

What is the most frequently isolated Pasteurella species?

What is the most frequently isolated Pasteurella species? Pasturella multocida

What is the most important cause of iatrogenic diarrhea in adults? Genus and species

What is the most important cause of iatrogenic diarrhea in adults? Genus and species Clostridium difficile

What is the most important concern when trying to identify antibodies in a patient with a warm autoantibody? a. Identifying the specificity of the autoantibodyb. Determining whether there are underlying alloantibodies c. Identifying the antibody found in the eluate d. Determining whether complement is binding to the autologous red cells

What is the most important concern when trying to identify antibodies in a patient with a warm autoantibody? b. Determining whether there are underlying alloantibodies

What is the most important factor when evaluating missing or weak ABO antibodies?

What is the most important factor when evaluating missing or weak ABO antibodies? Patient's age

What is the most important thing the creatinine clearance test tells a clinician?

What is the most important thing the creatinine clearance test tells a clinician? Measures the rate at which the kidneys are able to remove a filterable substance from the blood.

What is the most probable cause of the discrepancies in the chemical and microscopic results? A. Dilute specimen B. Increased ascorbic acid C. Specimen color D. Specimen clarity

What is the most probable cause of the discrepancies in the chemical and microscopic results? B. Increased ascorbic acid

What is the most prominent cell type seen in BAL?

What is the most prominent cell type seen in BAL? Macrophages

What is the most sensitive method of diagnosing cutaneous infections?

What is the most sensitive method of diagnosing cutaneous infections? Culture of deep aspirate or punch biopsy

What is the most sensitive test for HIV? A) Enzyme-linked assays B) Chemiluminescence C) Western blot D) Nucleic acid

What is the most sensitive test for HIV? D) Nucleic acid

What is the most widely used method of inoculum standardization?

What is the most widely used method of inoculum standardization? McFarland turbidity standards

What is the name of the Bacillus species that causes anthrax in cattle?

What is the name of the Bacillus species that causes anthrax in cattle? Bacillus anthracis

What is the name of the Genus that, before the onset of bioterrorism and immunocompromised patients, was considered a common laboratory contaminant? a. Streptococcus b. Bacillus c. Rhodococcus d. Arcanobacterium

What is the name of the Genus that, before the onset of bioterrorism and immunocompromised patients, was considered a common laboratory contaminant? b. Bacillus

What is the name of the bacteria that plays an important role in the health of the female vaginal tract, protecting it against pathogens?

What is the name of the bacteria that plays an important role in the health of the female vaginal tract, protecting it against pathogens? Lactobacillus

What is the name of the bacterial state that occurs when a host harbors a disease-causing organism, but does not show signs of disease? a. Carrier b. Transient c. Resident d. Indigenous

What is the name of the bacterial state that occurs when a host harbors a disease-causing organism, but does not show signs of disease? a. Carrier

What is the name of the disease that is characterized by rapid onset, acute inflammation, and intense edema that may cause complete airway obstruction in 2- to 4-year-olds?

What is the name of the disease that is characterized by rapid onset, acute inflammation, and intense edema that may cause complete airway obstruction in 2- to 4-year-olds? Epiglottis

What is the name of the genus of organisms that colonized 45% of all tracheotomy patients?

What is the name of the genus of organisms that colonized 45% of all tracheotomy patients? Acinetobacter spp.

What is the name of the group of bacteria that are slightly curved, gram-positive rods often referred to as club-shaped or Chinese letters when viewed in a Gram stain?

What is the name of the group of bacteria that are slightly curved, gram-positive rods often referred to as club-shaped or Chinese letters when viewed in a Gram stain? Corynebacterium

What is the name of the numerous short (3 to 10 mm) projections that extend from the cell surface and are used for cellular locomotion? a. Flagella b. Mitochondria c. Cilia d. Phospholipid

What is the name of the numerous short (3 to 10 mm) projections that extend from the cell surface and are used for cellular locomotion? c. Cilia

What is the name of the organism that causes the disease cholera? Genus and species _________

What is the name of the organism that causes the disease cholera? Genus and species _________ Vibrio cholerae

What is the name of the organism that causes tularemia that can be contracted from rabbits?

What is the name of the organism that causes tularemia that can be contracted from rabbits? Francisella tularensis

What is the name of the organism that has been a documented cause of nursery outbreaks of neonatal meningitis and brain abscesses?

What is the name of the organism that has been a documented cause of nursery outbreaks of neonatal meningitis and brain abscesses? Citrobacter koseri

What is the name of the organism that is responsible for "summer diarrhea" in Japan? Genus and species.

What is the name of the organism that is responsible for "summer diarrhea" in Japan? Genus and species. Vibrio parahaemolyticus

What is the name of the organism that is strongly associated with gastric, peptic, and duodenal ulcers as well as GI carcinoma? Genus and species

What is the name of the organism that is strongly associated with gastric, peptic, and duodenal ulcers as well as GI carcinoma? Genus and species Helicobacter pylori

What is the name of the test used to detect rickettsial agents? a. Levy-Jennings b. Mueller-Hinton c. Weil-Felix d. Watson-Crick

What is the name of the test used to detect rickettsial agents? c. Weil-Felix

What is the name of the test used to presumptively identify group B streptococci ? ________________________________

What is the name of the test used to presumptively identify group B streptococci ? CAMP

What is the next step in the investigation of a positive direct antiglobulin test with polyspecific antihuman globulin reagent? a. Repeat the direct antiglobulin test using warm saline. b. Perform an eluate. c. Add IgG-sensitized red cells to verify positive reaction. d. Repeat the direct antiglobulin test using monospecific anti-IgG and anti-C3 reagents.

What is the next step in the investigation of a positive direct antiglobulin test with polyspecific antihuman globulin reagent? d. Repeat the direct antiglobulin test using monospecific anti-IgG and anti-C3 reagents.

What is the normal glucose value in an adult CSF?

What is the normal glucose value in an adult CSF? 48-80 mg/dL, 40-80 mg/dL

What is the optimum growth time for most mycobacteria associated with disease? _________________

What is the optimum growth time for most mycobacteria associated with disease? _________________ 2-6 Weeks

What is the organism that causes Chagas disease? A) Treponema pallidum B) Trypanosoma cruzi C) Cytomegalovirus D) Plasmodium vivax

What is the organism that causes Chagas disease? B) Trypanosoma cruzi

What is the patient's probable diagnosis? A. Renal calculi B. Glomerulonephritis C. Allergic reaction D. Urinary tract infection

What is the patient's probable diagnosis? D. Urinary tract infection

What is the potential effect in a tube agglutination test if a red cell suspension with a concentration greater than 5% is used? What is the term used to describe this error?

What is the potential effect in a tube agglutination test if a red cell suspension with a concentration greater than 5% is used? False negative What is the term used to describe this error? Post zone

What is the primary goal in the transportation of specimens to the laboratory? a. To get the specimen to the lab by the end of the day b. To maintain the specimen as near its original state as possible with minimal deterioration c. To place the specimen in formalin and then transport it to the laboratory d. To allow the specimen to sit, as long as it is delivered to the laboratory within 2 to 3 days after collection

What is the primary goal in the transportation of specimens to the laboratory? b. To maintain the specimen as near its original state as possible with minimal deterioration

What is the principle of the 5' nuclease assay (Taqman)? Bonus question a. Fluorescent probe is mixed with labeled primers and a sandwich occurs where the fluorescent molecule is activated to fluorescence. b. The Taq DNA polymerase extends from the primers and replicates the template to which the Taqman probe is annealed. The reporter dye is released by the 5' nuclease activity of the polymerase first, then the probe is released, thus increasing the fluorescence. c. The Taq DNA polymerase extends from the primers and replicates the template to which the Taqman probe is annealed. Then the reporter dye is activated and the fluorescence increases with the number of hybrids that are produced. d. A bioluminescent probe is attached to the 5' side of the primer. As the Taq DNA polymerase begins adding nucleotides to the growing chain, the last nucleotide added (because of steric hindrance) will be the bioluminescent probe. Once added, the probe will begin luminescing and the concentration of the hybrids is directly proportional to the amount of luminescence that is produced.

What is the principle of the 5' nuclease assay (Taqman)? Bonus question b. The Taq DNA polymerase extends from the primers and replicates the template to which the Taqman probe is annealed. The reporter dye is released by the 5' nuclease activity of the polymerase first, then the probe is released, thus increasing the fluorescence.

What is the principle of the flocculation test? a. The antigen is incorporated into the agar and the test wells hold the antibody. The antibody and antigen combine at a specific concentration and produce a zone of equivalence. b. Antibodies are mixed with labeled antigen, and a sandwich reaction occurs. c. Antibodies and antigens combine then precipitate out of solution to the bottom of the tube. d. The antigen-antibody reaction forms a macroscopically visible clump that remains in solution.

What is the principle of the flocculation test? d. The antigen-antibody reaction forms a macroscopically visible clump that remains in solution.

What is the principle of the most commonly used test to detect -lactamase production? a. Chromogenic cephalosporin nitrocefin b. Redox reaction c. Hydrolysis of fluorogenic substrate d. Reduction of acetoin

What is the principle of the most commonly used test to detect -lactamase production? a. Chromogenic cephalosporin nitrocefin

What is the principle of the most commonly used test to detect Beta-lactamase production? A) Chromogenic cephalosporin nitrocefin B) Redox reaction C) Hydrolysis of fluorogenic substrate D) Reduction of acetoin

What is the principle of the most commonly used test to detect Beta-lactamase production? A) Chromogenic cephalosporin nitrocefin

What is the purpose of a "diversion pouch" used when collecting blood from a donor? A) Collect samples for viral marker testing B) Prime the line to remove air C) Determine if blood flow is sufficient D) Avoid bacterial contamination of the blood product

What is the purpose of a "diversion pouch" used when collecting blood from a donor? D) Avoid bacterial contamination of the blood product

What is the purpose of a capsule? a. Prevent osmotic rupture of the cell membrane. b. Make up the periplasmic space. c. Act as a virulence factor in helping the pathogen evade phagocytosis. d. Provide an attachment site for somatic antigens.

What is the purpose of a capsule? c. Act as a virulence factor in helping the pathogen evade phagocytosis.

What is the purpose of adding antibody-sensitized red cells following the antiglobulin test? A) Ensure a weak antibody reaction was not missed B) Confirm positive reactions C) Check that the wash procedure was sufficient to remove unbound antibodies D) Check that sufficient incubation took place

What is the purpose of adding antibody-sensitized red cells following the antiglobulin test? C) Check that the wash procedure was sufficient to remove unbound antibodies

What is the purpose of the digestion-decontamination processing of specimens submitted for mycobacterial culture? _______________________________

What is the purpose of the digestion-decontamination processing of specimens submitted for mycobacterial culture? _______________________________ To allow chemical decontaminants to liquify the specimen and kill nonmycobacterial organisms.

What is the purpose of the primer extension? a. To cut the native DNA into small pieces with a restriction enzyme b. To hybridize the oligonucleotide primers to the single stranded DNA pieces c. To produce PCR products d. To activate the DNA polymerase to form hybrids with the oligonucleotide primers

What is the purpose of the primer extension? c. To produce PCR products

What is the recommended contact time for most disinfectants in a mycobacteriology laboratory? _______________________________

What is the recommended contact time for most disinfectants in a mycobacteriology laboratory? _______________________________ 10-30 minutes

What is the recommended number of samples that should be tested to confirm a negative occult blood result?

What is the recommended number of samples that should be tested to confirm a negative occult blood result? Two samples taken from different parts of three stools.

What is the significance of a peritoneal fluid with an elevated creatinine level? A. Renal malignancy B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Ruptured bladder D. No significance

What is the significance of a peritoneal fluid with an elevated creatinine level? C. Ruptured bladder

What is the significance of a pleural fluid with a hematocrit value of 30% (blood hematocrit: 34%)? A. Hemothorax B. Pneumonia C. Esophageal rupture D. Mesothelioma

What is the significance of a pleural fluid with a hematocrit value of 30% (blood hematocrit: 34%)? A. Hemothorax

What is the significance of a positive RPR test for syphilis? A) Antibodies to Treponema pallidum are present B) Past or present venereal disease infection C) Possibility of an infection with Treponema pallidum D) Antigens associated with venereal disease are present

What is the significance of a positive RPR test for syphilis? C) Possibility of an infection with Treponema pallidum

What is the significance of an ascitic fluid exudate with a positive CA 125 and a negative CEA? A. Gastrointestinal malignancy B. No significance C. Tuberculosis D. Ovarian malignancy

What is the significance of an ascitic fluid exudate with a positive CA 125 and a negative CEA? D. Ovarian malignancy

What is the single most important piece of equipment in a mycobacterial laboratory? ___________________________________________

What is the single most important piece of equipment in a mycobacterial laboratory? ___________________________________________ Biological Safety Cabinet

What is the specimen of choice for Bordetella species?

What is the specimen of choice for Bordetella species? Nasopharygeal swabs or washes

What is the specimen of choice for recovery of Bordetella pertussis?

What is the specimen of choice for recovery of Bordetella pertussis? Nasopharyngeal swabs or washes.

What is the specimen of choice for the VDRL test?

What is the specimen of choice for the VDRL test? CSF

What is the specimen of choice for the diagnosis of pneumonia?

What is the specimen of choice for the diagnosis of pneumonia? Sputum

What is the specimen of choice in males for genital infections?

What is the specimen of choice in males for genital infections? Purulent discharge

What is the test procedure that combines patient's serum with commercial A1 and B reagent red cells? A) ABO forward grouping B) ABO reverse grouping C) Antibody screen D) Antibody panel

What is the test procedure that combines patient's serum with commercial A1 and B reagent red cells? B) ABO reverse grouping

What is the true statement regarding West Nile virus testing? A) Testing for West Nile virus is required only in New York and California. B) Testing for West Nile virus is necessary only in the warmer months of the year. C) West Nile virus testing is performed using nucleic acid testing on all donor units. D) West Nile virus testing is optional.

What is the true statement regarding West Nile virus testing? C) West Nile virus testing is performed using nucleic acid testing on all donor units.

What is the typical specificity of cold autoantibodies? a. M b. N c. I d. Leb

What is the typical specificity of cold autoantibodies? c. I

What is the volume of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in an adult human?

What is the volume of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in an adult human? 90-150 mls

What is used as the indicator in a complement fixation (CF) test? a. Latex particles b. Horse red blood cells c. Rabbit red blood cells d. Sheep red blood cells

What is used as the indicator in a complement fixation (CF) test? d. Sheep red blood cells

What makes cervicitis difficult to diagnose? a) Lack of well-recognized symptoms b) Inability to culture causative agents c) Most causes are noninfectious d) Symptoms are obvious: not difficult to diagnose

What makes cervicitis difficult to diagnose? a) Lack of well-recognized symptoms

What may candiduria be a sign of? a. Bladder or renal parenchymal infection b. Urinary tract fungus ball c. Disseminated candidiasis d. All of the above

What media are recommended for routine culturing of specimens for the recovery of acid-fast bacilli? _____________________________

What media are recommended for routine culturing of specimens for the recovery of acid-fast bacilli? _____________________________ Lowenstein-Jensen

What media does Corynebacterium diphtheriae grow on? a. Sheep blood agar (SBA) b. Loeffler c. Cystine-tellurite blood d. All of the above

What media is used to isolate Legionella? (Spell out the words, not just use the acronym for full credit)

What media is used to isolate Legionella? (Spell out the words, not just use the acronym for full credit) Buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE)

What media should be used to isolate Neisseria meningitidis? a. Differential and nonselective b. Specific and nonspecific c. Selective and nonselective d. Enriched and nonenriched

What media should be used to isolate Neisseria meningitidis? c. Selective and nonselective

What medium is used in the laboratory to grow leptospires?

What medium is used in the laboratory to grow leptospires? Fletcher's

What medium is used in the urease test?_____________________________

What medium is used in the urease test? Christensen's media

What medium will sustain the growth of most Haemophilus spp.?

What medium will sustain the growth of most Haemophilus spp.? Chocolate agar

What method displays a positive reaction as a compact red cell button? A) Gel test B) Microtiter plate C) Solid-phase red cell adherence D) Molecular testing

What method displays a positive reaction as a compact red cell button? B) Microtiter plate

What method is used to concentrate specimens to increase recovery of pathogens in the microbiology laboratory?_______________

What method is used to concentrate specimens to increase recovery of pathogens in the microbiology laboratory? Centrifugation

What method is used to confirm a positive Chlamydia trachomatis enzyme immunoassay (EIA)? Spell out the answer

What method is used to confirm a positive Chlamydia trachomatis enzyme immunoassay (EIA)? Spell out the answer Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)

What must be done before preparing a cytospin smear on CSF specimens of greater than 1 ml?

What must be done before preparing a cytospin smear on CSF specimens of greater than 1 ml? Centrifuge to concentrate

What nonfermenter is considered by the government to be a potential bioterrorist agent? Genus and species. There are two, but you only have to list one.

What nonfermenter is considered by the government to be a potential bioterrorist agent? Genus and species. There are two, but you only have to list one. Burkholderia mallei

What nonfermenter is the leading cause of nosocomial pneumonia and bacteremia? Genus and species.

What nonfermenter is the leading cause of nosocomial pneumonia and bacteremia? Genus and species. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

What of the following measures is taken to prevent cytomegalovirus infection from blood units? A) Leukocyte reduction B) Washing C) Freezing and thawing D) Nucleic acid testing

What of the following measures is taken to prevent cytomegalovirus infection from blood units? A) Leukocyte reduction

What organ is colonized in a patient that carries Salmonella typhi?

What organ is colonized in a patient that carries Salmonella typhi? Gallbladder

What organ of the recipient's body is involved in a TRALI? A) Heart B) Lung C) Liver D) Brain

What organ of the recipient's body is involved in a TRALI? B) Lung

What organism (Genus and species) causes the condition primary atypical pneumonia?

What organism (Genus and species) causes the condition primary atypical pneumonia? Mycoplasma pneumoniae

What organism (genus) causes undulant fever and is considered a category B select biological agent?

What organism (genus) causes undulant fever and is considered a category B select biological agent? Brucella

What organism causes "pink eye"?

What organism causes "pink eye"? Haemophilus aegyptius

What organism causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever? Genus and speciesanti

What organism causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever? Genus and species Rickettsia rickettsii

What organism causes chancroid?

What organism causes chancroid? Haemophilus ducreyi

What organism causes epidemic louse-borne typhus? Genus and species

What organism causes epidemic louse-borne typhus? Genus and species Rickettsia prowazekii

What organism causes epiglottis? a. Haemophilus influenza b. Streptococcus pneumonia c. Moraxella catarrhalis d. Bordetella pertussis

What organism causes epiglottis? a. Haemophilus influenza

What organism causes multifocal brain lesions in AIDs patients and can cross the placenta? A) Pneumocystis sp. B) Giardia lamblia C) Cryptosporidium parvum D) Toxoplasma gondii

What organism causes multifocal brain lesions in AIDs patients and can cross the placenta? D) Toxoplasma gondii

What organism causes neonatal conjunctivitis, lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), and trachoma? Genus and species.

What organism causes neonatal conjunctivitis, lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), and trachoma? Genus and species. Chlamydia trachomatis

What organism causes pulmonary disease among individuals with cystic fibrosis? Genus and species.

What organism causes pulmonary disease among individuals with cystic fibrosis? Genus and species. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

What organism complex is associated with chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)? Genus and species.

What organism complex is associated with chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)? Genus and species. Burkholderia cepacia complex

What organism has a microscopic morphology of tiny gram-negative rods, curved, with S-shapes or seagull-wing shapes on Gram stain? Genus

What organism has a microscopic morphology of tiny gram-negative rods, curved, with S-shapes or seagull-wing shapes on Gram stain? Genus Campylobacter

What organism in the genus Providencia is incriminated in nosocomial outbreaks in burn units and has been isolated from urine cultures?_

What organism in the genus Providencia is incriminated in nosocomial outbreaks in burn units and has been isolated from urine cultures? Providencia stuartii

What organism is a commensal of the upper respiratory tract and has become an opportunistic pathogen causing upper respiratory tract infections in otherwise healthy children and the elderly?

What organism is a commensal of the upper respiratory tract and has become an opportunistic pathogen causing upper respiratory tract infections in otherwise healthy children and the elderly? Moraxella catarrhalis

What organism is a common cause of meningitis in neonates and infants up to 3 months of age and can be contracted by passing through the birth canal?

What organism is a common cause of meningitis in neonates and infants up to 3 months of age and can be contracted by passing through the birth canal? Streptococcus agalactiae

What organism is found in the San Joaquin Valley region of California? A) Penicillium marneffei B) Penicillium marneffei C) Coccidioides immitis D) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

What organism is found in the San Joaquin Valley region of California? C) Coccidioides immitis

What organism is likely to cause an infection after a cat bite?

What organism is likely to cause an infection after a cat bite? Pasturella sp.

What organism is most commonly associated with bacteremia caused by acute pyelonephritis? a. Escherichia coli b. Enterobacter aerogenes c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Staphylococcus aureus

What organism is most commonly associated with bacteremia caused by acute pyelonephritis? a. Escherichia coli

What organism is most often responsible for folliculitis after swimming in a pool?

What organism is most often responsible for folliculitis after swimming in a pool? Pseudomonas aeruginosa

What organism is one of the primary opportunistic infections in AIDS patients? A) Pneumocystis jiroveci B) Phaeoannellomyces werneckii C) Coccidioides immitis D) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

What organism is one of the primary opportunistic infections in AIDS patients? A) Pneumocystis jiroveci

What organism is one of the primary opportunistic infections in AIDS patients? A) Pneumocystis jirovecii B) Hortaea werneckii C) Coccidioides immitis D) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

What organism is one of the primary opportunistic infections in AIDS patients? A) Pneumocystis jirovecii

What organism is responsible for spontaneous abortion and stillborn neonates and can cause meningitis with a fatality rate approaching 50% in newborns?

What organism is responsible for spontaneous abortion and stillborn neonates and can cause meningitis with a fatality rate approaching 50% in newborns? Listeria monocytogenes

What organism is spread via human bite wounds or "clenched fist" wounds?

What organism is spread via human bite wounds or "clenched fist" wounds? Eikenella corrodens

What organism is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis worldwide? Genus and species

What organism is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis worldwide? Genus and species Campylobacter jejuni

What organism is the most common cause of meningitis in older adults?

What organism is the most common cause of meningitis in older adults? Streptococcus pneumoniae

What organism is the most common opportunistic pathogen that routinely infects patients with HIV/AIDS?

What organism is the most common opportunistic pathogen that routinely infects patients with HIV/AIDS? Pneumocystis jirovecii, Pneumocystis carinii is an old term. Use P. jirovecii

What organism may play a role in Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)? Genus

What organism may play a role in Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)? Genus Campylobacter

What organism on sheep blood agar (SBA) has colonies that are small and transparent, surrounded by a wide zone of Beta-hemolysis? a. Streptococcus agalactiae b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Enterococcus d. Viridans strep

What organism on sheep blood agar (SBA) has colonies that are small and transparent, surrounded by a wide zone of Beta-hemolysis? b. Streptococcus pyogenes

What organism on sheep blood agar (SBA) has grayish white colonies surrounded by a small zone of Beta-hemolysis?___________________________________________________

What organism on sheep blood agar (SBA) has grayish white colonies surrounded by a small zone of Beta-hemolysis? Streptococcus agalactiae.

What organism presents as a pink colony with a halo on MacConkey media and a green metallic sheen on EMB?

What organism presents as a pink colony with a halo on MacConkey media and a green metallic sheen on EMB? Escherichia coli

What organism that causes gastroenteritis can be found in aquaculture-farmed fish and cold blooded animals such as reptiles? Genus

What organism that causes gastroenteritis can be found in aquaculture-farmed fish and cold blooded animals such as reptiles? Genus Salmonella

What organism's unique life cycle contains an elementary body and a reticulate body? Genus

What organism's unique life cycle contains an elementary body and a reticulate body? Genus Chlamydia sp.

What organism, which is gram negative coccobacilli, can appear as gram-positive cocci in smears made from blood culture bottles? Genus

What organism, which is gram negative coccobacilli, can appear as gram-positive cocci in smears made from blood culture bottles? Genus Acinetobacter spp.

What organisms are most frequently isolated from cultures of individuals with otitis media? A) Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli B) Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenza C) S. pneumoniae and Mycoplasma pneumonia D) H. influenzae and Neisseria meningitides

What organisms are most frequently isolated from cultures of individuals with otitis media? B) Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenza

What organisms causes the disease called whooping cough?

What organisms causes the disease called whooping cough? Bordetella pertussis

What organisms growing in a urine culture can be considered contaminants? a. Enterobacteriaceae b. Streptococcus spp. c. Fungus d. Bacillus spp.

What organisms growing in a urine culture can be considered contaminants? d. Bacillus spp.

What organisms usually cause urinary tract infections (UTIs) in older men in conjunction with prostatic hypertrophy?

What organisms usually cause urinary tract infections (UTIs) in older men in conjunction with prostatic hypertrophy? Enterococcus sp.

What parasite is observed with a cellophane prep? A) Hymenolepis nana B) Taenia spp. C) Enterobius vermicularis D) Ascaris lumbricoides

What parasite is observed with a cellophane prep? C) Enterobius vermicularis

What part of the immunoglobulin molecule distinguishes the isotype? 1. Light chain 2. Heavy chain 3. Kappa chain 4. Lambda chain

What part of the immunoglobulin molecule distinguishes the isotype? 2. Heavy chain

What part of the urinary tract is most susceptible to infection? _____________________

What part of the urinary tract is most susceptible to infection? Urethral mucosa

What patient population needs leukocyte-reduced red blood cells? A) Patients with febrile transfusion reactions B) Patients with iron deficiency anemia C) Patients with hemophilia A D) Patients with cancer undergoing chemotherapy treatments

What patient population needs leukocyte-reduced red blood cells? A) Patients with febrile transfusion reactions

What percentage of Hepatits B infections are transmitted through sexual contact?

What percentage of Hepatits B infections are transmitted through sexual contact? 50

What percentage of the group A population are type as A2? A) 1% B) 10% C) 20% D) 35%

What percentage of the group A population are type as A2? C) 20%

What percentage of women patients that are positive for Neisseria gonorrhoeae typically also have genital chlamydiosis?

What percentage of women patients that are positive for Neisseria gonorrhoeae typically also have genital chlamydiosis? 42%

What phenotype will be expressed when the Le, Se, and H genes are inherited? A) Le(a+b+) B) Le(a-b+) C) Le(a-b-) D) Le(a+b-)

What phenotype will be expressed when the Le, Se, and H genes are inherited? B) Le(a-b+)

What piece of instrumentation is an integral part of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) process? ____________________

What piece of instrumentation is an integral part of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) process? ____________________ Thermal cycler

What portion of the antibody molecule binds to receptors on macrophages and assists in the removal of antibody bound to red cells? 1. Fab fragment 2. Hinge region 3. Fc fragment 4. J chain

What portion of the antibody molecule binds to receptors on macrophages and assists in the removal of antibody bound to red cells? 3. Fc fragment

What procedure is performed to confirm that an unknown mold is one of the pathogenic dimorphic fungi? A) serological antigen studies B) demonstrate reproduction structures on lactophenol prep C) show growth characteristics on BHI D) use culture to convert to yeast form

What procedure is performed to confirm that an unknown mold is one of the pathogenic dimorphic fungi? D) use culture to convert to yeast form

What protective measures can a laboratory worker take when working with actively growing cultures to ensure that they do not become infected? A) Ensure that fungal cultures are sealed and worked in a biosafety cabinet. B) Wash their hands at the end of their shift. C) Handle specimens routinely, using extra care for HIV and HBV cultures. D) d. Take off bandages on fingers when reading platees

What protective measures can a laboratory worker take when working with actively growing cultures to ensure that they do not become infected? A) Ensure that fungal cultures are sealed and worked in a biosafety cabinet.

What reagent contains antibodies to multiple antigenic epitopes? A) Polyclonal-based B) Monoclonal-based C) Heterophile antibody-based D) Alloantibody-based

What reagent contains antibodies to multiple antigenic epitopes? A) Polyclonal-based

What requirements do viruses have for replication? a. They must be inside a living cell. b. They must be in an environment where all the necessary amino acids are present. c. They can use a dead cell to replicate. d. They need to be around dead, decaying flesh so that all the amino acids and enzymes are present.

What requirements do viruses have for replication? a. They must be inside a living cell.

What should a microbiologist do if he or she finds alpha-hemolytic colonies on a properly collected sputum specimen on a patient suspected of having lobar pneumonia?

What should a microbiologist do if he or she finds alpha-hemolytic colonies on a properly collected sputum specimen on a patient suspected of having lobar pneumonia? Do a full work up to identity to rule out Strep. pneumoniae.

What size calibrated loops should be used to ensure accurate quantification of organisms?

What size calibrated loops should be used to ensure accurate quantification of organisms? 0.01 mL

What size calibrated loops should be used to ensure accurate quantitation of organisms? a. 0.001 mL b. 0.01 mL c. 0.1 mL d. 1.0 mL

What size calibrated loops should be used to ensure accurate quantitation of organisms? b. 0.01 mL

What species of Aeromonas is most frequently associated with wound infections?

What species of Aeromonas is most frequently associated with wound infections? A. hydrophilia

What species of Aeromonas is the most frequently associated with gastrointestinal infections

What species of Aeromonas is the most frequently associated with gastrointestinal infections A. caviae

What specificities does polyspecific antihuman globulin contain? A) Anti-IgG. B) Anti-C3b and anti-C3d. C) Anti-IgG and anti-C3d. D) Anti-IgG and anti-IgM.

What specificities does polyspecific antihuman globulin contain? C) Anti-IgG and anti-C3d.

What stain is used for medically important fungi? a. Methylene blue b. Acridine orange c. Acid-fast d. Lactophenol cotton blue

What stain is used for medically important fungi? d. Lactophenol cotton blue

What structure is responsible for motility in spirochetes?

What structure is responsible for motility in spirochetes? flagella

What subgroup of A possesses the least amount of A antigen? A) A3 B) Ax C) A2 D) Ael

What subgroup of A possesses the least amount of A antigen? D) Ael

What substances are found in the saliva of a group A person who also inherited the secretor gene? A) A, H B) H C) A, Se D) A, B, H

What substances are found in the saliva of a group A person who also inherited the secretor gene? A) A, H

What substances do nonfermenters fail to ferment?

What substances do nonfermenters fail to ferment? Carbohydrates

What temperature is an optimal growth temperature for Campylobacter jejuni?

What temperature is an optimal growth temperature for Campylobacter jejuni? 42C

What temperature is used for incubation in the indirect antihuman globulin test?__________

What temperature is used for incubation in the indirect antihuman globulin test? 37C

What term is describes the replacement of one or more blood volumes within 24 hours whether in an infant or in an adult patient? A) Acute hypovolemic shock B) Hemorrhage C) Intravascular shock D) Massive transfusion

What term is describes the replacement of one or more blood volumes within 24 hours whether in an infant or in an adult patient? D) Massive transfusion

What test differentiates staphylococci from streptococci? a. Catalase b. Coagulase c. Beta-Hemolysis d. All of the above

What test differentiates staphylococci from streptococci? a. Catalase

What test has its results reported as the relative amount of a signal generated by the patient's serum when compared with that of a known weakly positive serum? a. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) c. Radioimmunoassay (RIA) d. Solid phase immunobead assay (SPIA)

What test has its results reported as the relative amount of a signal generated by the patient's serum when compared with that of a known weakly positive serum? b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

What test has remained the principal confirmatory assay for HIV antibody detection?

What test has remained the principal confirmatory assay for HIV antibody detection? Western Blot Test

What test is performed to determine if Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a toxigenic strain of the organism?

What test is performed to determine if Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a toxigenic strain of the organism? Elek test

What test is sufficient for a diagnosis of Neisseria gonorrhoeae in men? a) Culture b) Gram stain c) Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) d) Radioimmunoassay (RIA)

What test is sufficient for a diagnosis of Neisseria gonorrhoeae in men? b) Gram stain

What test is used as a presumptive identification of Streptococcus pneumoniae? _____________________________________

What test is used as a presumptive identification of Streptococcus pneumoniae? Optochin

What test is used to diagnose an Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection: a. ASO b. EBV antibody c. Heterophile antibody d. Cold agglutinin

What test is used to diagnose an Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection: c. Heterophile antibody

What test presumptively differentiates Beta-hemolytic group A streptococci and nonhemolytic group D enterococci from other streptococcal species?___________________________________

What test presumptively differentiates Beta-hemolytic group A streptococci and nonhemolytic group D enterococci from other streptococcal species? PYR

What test principle uses microbial antigens that are attached to erythrocytes after chemical treatment of the cells that promotes cross-linking of the antigens? a. Indirect hemagglutination (IHA) b. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) c. Complement fixation (CF) d. Latex agglutination (LA)

What test principle uses microbial antigens that are attached to erythrocytes after chemical treatment of the cells that promotes cross-linking of the antigens? a. Indirect hemagglutination (IHA)

What test uses the patient's serum, and the bacterial isolate responsible for the patient's infection, to determine the dilution of patient's serum that inhibits the bacteria? a. Molecular probe b. Macrodilution test c. Serum bactericidal test d. Minimal bactericidal test concentraion

What test uses the patient's serum, and the bacterial isolate responsible for the patient's infection, to determine the dilution of patient's serum that inhibits the bacteria? c. Serum bactericidal test

What testing method is the method of choice for detecting antibodies to Chlamydia pneumoniae? Bonus. Not found in text.

What testing method is the method of choice for detecting antibodies to Chlamydia pneumoniae? Bonus. Not found in text. Microimmunofluorescence (MIF) or serological

What tests are performed on newborns to detect congenital infections? Spell out tests. Do not just list the acronym.

What tests are performed on newborns to detect congenital infections? Spell out tests. Do not just list the acronym. TORCH Toxoplasma gondii, rubella, CMV and herpex simplex, and Treponema pallidum

What three parameters are considered when evaluating sperm?

What three parameters are considered when evaluating sperm? Motility Morphology Viability

What toxin do Shigella spp. produce?

What toxin do Shigella spp. produce? Shiga

What two agars are used to isolate Bordetella species?

What two agars are used to isolate Bordetella species? Bordet-Gengou Regan Lowe Transport media

What two alcohols are effective in killing the hepatitis B virus (HBV)? A) 50% isopropyl and 50% butanol B) 95% propanol and 70% ethanol C) 70% isopropyl and 95% ethanol D) 70% pentanol and 70% isopropyl

What two alcohols are effective in killing the hepatitis B virus (HBV)? C) 70% isopropyl and 95% ethanol

What two bacteria produce swarming colonies on nonselective media such as sheep blood agar (SBA)? a. Enterobacter aerogenes and Serratia marcescens b. Proteus pannier and Klebsiella pneumoniae c. Proteus vulgaris and Proteus mirabilis d. Proteus mirabilis and Escherichia coli

What two bacteria produce swarming colonies on nonselective media such as sheep blood agar (SBA)? c. Proteus vulgaris and Proteus mirabilis

What two biochemical tests help distinguish Aeromonas species from other enterics?

What two biochemical tests help distinguish Aeromonas species from other enterics? Oxidase indole

What two common organisms invades the full thickness of the bowel with lymphatic spread? Genus and species

What two common organisms invades the full thickness of the bowel with lymphatic spread? Salmonella typhi Yersinia enterocolitica

What two diseases do Borrelia spp. cause?

What two diseases do Borrelia spp. cause? Lyme disease Relapsing fever

What two diseases does Clostridium perfringens cause?

What two diseases does Clostridium perfringens cause? Gas gangrene Food poisoning

What two methods are used to diagnose histoplasmosis and coccidioidomycosis? Note: Text says most, but choose the best answer. Keep reading. a. Complement fixation and immunodiffusion b. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and immunodiffusion c. Complement fixation and hemagglutination inhibition (HAI) d. Agglutination and precipitation

What two methods are used to diagnose histoplasmosis and coccidioidomycosis? Note: Text says most, but choose the best answer. Keep reading. a. Complement fixation and immunodiffusion

What two organisms are associated with urogenital tract infections but have also been isolated from asymptomatic individuals? a. Mycoplasma hominis and Ureaplasma urealyticum b. M. hominis and M. fermentans c. U. urealyticum and M. pneumoniae d. M. penetrans and M. pneumoniae

What two organisms are associated with urogenital tract infections but have also been isolated from asymptomatic individuals? a. Mycoplasma hominis and Ureaplasma urealyticum

What two organisms are most often responsible for impetigo?

What two organisms are most often responsible for impetigo? Streptococcus pyogenes Staph. aureus

What two reagents can be used to visualize indole in the broth?_________________ or ___________________________

What two reagents can be used to visualize indole in the broth? Ehrlich's Kovac's

What two tests are used to presumptively identify Enterococcus? ______________________________ and _________________________________

What two tests are used to presumptively identify Enterococcus? Bile esculin 6.5% NaCl broth or salt tolerance

What two tests have been mainstays in identification schemes for the non-Beta-hemolytic, catalase-negative, gram-positive cocci?______________________________ and ___________________

What two tests have been mainstays in identification schemes for the non-Beta-hemolytic, catalase-negative, gram-positive cocci? Bile esculin Salt tolerance

What two things do you measure to determine if a specimen is urine?

What two things do you measure to determine if a specimen is urine? Urea Creatinine

What type of a device can cause osteomyelitis, which will then lead to bacteremia? a. Prosthetic joints b. Stainless steel rods c. Orthopedic screws d. Orthopedic plates

What type of a device can cause osteomyelitis, which will then lead to bacteremia? a. Prosthetic joints

What type of abscess extends more deeply into the subcutaneous fat and may have multiple draining sites?

What type of abscess extends more deeply into the subcutaneous fat and may have multiple draining sites? Carbuncle

What type of an atmosphere do campylobacters require for growth? (two types)

What type of an atmosphere do campylobacters require for growth? (two types) microaerophilic capnophilic

What type of bacteria is able to live in the colon with little to no oxygen and is the predominant organism? a. Anaerobes b. Facultative anaerobes c. Facultative gram-negative rods d. Gram-positive cocci

What type of bacteria is able to live in the colon with little to no oxygen and is the predominant organism? a. Anaerobes

What type of cancer is associated with human papilloma virus (HPV)?

What type of cancer is associated with human papilloma virus (HPV)? Cervical

What type of diarrheal illness has a rapid onset of symptoms after food ingestion (usually less than 12 hours)? a. Diarrhea where the mucosal surface is invaded b. Diarrhea where the full bowel thickness is invaded c. Diarrhea caused by endotoxins d. Diarrhea caused by enterotoxins

What type of diarrheal illness has a rapid onset of symptoms after food ingestion (usually less than 12 hours)? d. Diarrhea caused by enterotoxins

What type of diarrheal illness has no fever and no blood or pus in the stool? a. Diarrhea where the mucosal surface is invaded b. Diarrhea where the full bowel thickness is invaded c. Diarrhea caused by endotoxins d. Diarrhea caused by enterotoxins

What type of diarrheal illness has no fever and no blood or pus in the stool? d. Diarrhea caused by enterotoxins

What type of diarrheal illness produces fever, leukocytosis in peripheral blood, and fecal leukocytes? a. Diarrhea in which the mucosal surface is invaded b. Diarrhea in which the full bowel thickness is invaded c. Diarrhea caused by endotoxins d. Diarrhea caused by enterotoxins

What type of diarrheal illness produces fever, leukocytosis in peripheral blood, and fecal leukocytes? a. Diarrhea in which the mucosal surface is invaded

What type of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn affects the first-born? A) ABO B) D C) E D) M

What type of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn affects the first-born? A) ABO

What type of infection is ringworm?

What type of infection is ringworm? Fungal skin infection

What type of infection is thrush?

What type of infection is thrush? Oral candidiasis

What type of medium is used in the motility test? a. Semisolid b. Cornmeal c. Sabouraud dextrose d. Peptone gel

What type of medium is used in the motility test? a. Semisolid

What type of meningitis is usually uncomplicated and resolves in 2 to 7 days? a. Septic meningitis b. Enteroviral c. Bacterial d. Meningococcal

What type of meningitis is usually uncomplicated and resolves in 2 to 7 days? b. Enteroviral

What type of red cells is used in an autoadsorption to remove antibody from the serum? a. Antibody screening cells b. Donor red cells c. Patient red cells d. Antibody identification panel cells

What type of red cells is used in an autoadsorption to remove antibody from the serum? c. Patient red cells

What type of swab can inhibit the replication of some viruses and can interfere with nucleic acid amplification tests?

What type of swab can inhibit the replication of some viruses and can interfere with nucleic acid amplification tests? Calcium alginate

What type of swab should be used for a Neisseria gonorrhoeae culture?

What type of swab should be used for a Neisseria gonorrhoeae culture? Dacron

What types of activities have led to the emergence of the microbiology laboratory as the forefront in keeping Americans safe? a. Terrorist b. Research c. Military d. Educational

What types of activities have led to the emergence of the microbiology laboratory as the forefront in keeping Americans safe? a. Terrorist

What types of cells in a biofilm are viable but nonculturable?

What types of cells in a biofilm are viable but nonculturable? Persister cells

What types of stools are characteristic of cholera?

What types of stools are characteristic of cholera? Rice water stools

What usually causes community-acquired pneumonias in children during the winter months? a. Haemophilus influenza b. Streptococcus pneumonia c. Viral pathogens d. Legionella spp.

What usually causes community-acquired pneumonias in children during the winter months? c. Viral pathogens

What virus causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?(Spell out the acronym)

What virus causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?(Spell out the acronym) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

What virus causes community-wide seasonal What virus causes community-wide seasonal outbreaks of bronchiolitis in infants? (Spell the acronym out for full credit.)

What virus causes community-wide seasonal What virus causes community-wide seasonal outbreaks of bronchiolitis in infants? (Spell the acronym out for full credit.) Respiratory syncytial virus RSV

What virus is the leading cause of diarrhea in children younger than age 5?

What virus is the leading cause of diarrhea in children younger than age 5? Rotavirus

What virus is the most common cause genital herpes?

What virus is the most common cause genital herpes? Herpes simplex virus type 2

What virus is the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis in infants and children?

What virus is the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis in infants and children? Rotavirus

What virus of the family Caliciviridae causes an acute self-limited diarrheal illness that is highly contagious in closed quarters but is associated with vomiting and low-grade fever? Genus

What virus of the family Caliciviridae causes an acute self-limited diarrheal illness that is highly contagious in closed quarters but is associated with vomiting and low-grade fever? Genus Norovirus

What virus, spread by the mosquito, causes a self-limiting illness that is associated with a rash, aseptic meningitis, myelitis, and fatal encephalitis?

What virus, spread by the mosquito, causes a self-limiting illness that is associated with a rash, aseptic meningitis, myelitis, and fatal encephalitis? West Nile Virus

What waterborne organism is known to cause severe necrotic cellulitis and primary sepsis?

What waterborne organism is known to cause severe necrotic cellulitis and primary sepsis? Vibrio vulnificus

What work practice have microbiologists incorporated to keep laboratory testing cost-effective while providing optimum patient care? A) Using definitive identification for the standard of quality patient care B) Always identifying organisms to the maximum extent C) Limited identification procedures. D) Limited antimicrobial susceptibility procedure

What work practice have microbiologists incorporated to keep laboratory testing cost-effective while providing optimum patient care? C) Limited identification procedures.

What worm can be pulled from the eye and is responsible for causing blindness in West Africa?

What worm can be pulled from the eye and is responsible for causing blindness in West Africa? Loa Loa

When a CSF specimen is received in the microbiology laboratory, the first thing the technologist should do is: A. Perform a Gram stain B. Perform an India ink preparation C. Centrifuge the specimen D. Streak the fluid on chocolate agar

When a CSF specimen is received in the microbiology laboratory, the first thing the technologist should do is: C. Centrifuge the specimen

When a laboratory professional examines a specimen smear, he or she should be looking for all of the following EXCEPT: a. Squamous epithelial cells b. Mucus c. Bacteria without the cells of inflammation d. Antibiotics

When a laboratory professional examines a specimen smear, he or she should be looking for all of the following EXCEPT: d. Antibiotics

When a medium needs to be quality controlled because it was prepared in-house or because it is complex, all the following rules must be followed EXCEPT: a. Only media not specified in Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) guidelines should be tested. b. The medium should be tested for sterility and pH. c. The organism selected for quality control testing should represent most fastidious organisms for which the medium is designed. d. Testing techniques should be different for primary plating media than for biochemical or subculturing media.

When a medium needs to be quality controlled because it was prepared in-house or because it is complex, all the following rules must be followed EXCEPT: a. Only media not specified in Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) guidelines should be tested.

When a person is exposed to an antigen for a second time, what type of response is mounted?

When a person is exposed to an antigen for a second time, what type of response is mounted? Anamnestic

When an L/S ratio by thin-layer chromatography is performed, a mature fetal lung will show: a) Sphingomyelin twice as concentrated as lecithin b) No sphingomyelin c) Lecithin twice as concentrated as sphingomyelin d) Equal concentrations of lecithin and sphingomyelin

When an L/S ratio by thin-layer chromatography is performed, a mature fetal lung will show: c) Lecithin twice as concentrated as sphingomyelin

When an individual is group A, which of the following genetic terms applies? A) Alleles B) Haplotype C) Genotype D) Phenotype

When an individual is group A, which of the following genetic terms applies? D) Phenotype

When an outbreak is suspected, all the following steps are taken in investigating that event EXCEPT: a. Establish a case definition. b. Confirm that an outbreak exists. c. Immediately treat all persons involved with appropriate antibiotic. d. Establish an epidemiologic curve

When an outbreak is suspected, all the following steps are taken in investigating that event EXCEPT: c. Immediately treat all persons involved with appropriate antibiotic.

When are surrogate marker tests useful? A) When the required test is too expensive B) When direct testing is not yet available C) When the required test detects too many false-positive results D) When the internal controls are not valid

When are surrogate marker tests useful? B) When direct testing is not yet available

When collecting specimens that may contain Campylobacter spp. bacteria, what transport medium should they be placed in, if a delay in transport is possible?

When collecting specimens that may contain Campylobacter spp. bacteria, what transport medium should they be placed in, if a delay in transport is possible? Cary-Blair

When designing a mycobacterial laboratory, the designers should build in all the following engineering controls to keep the workers safe EXCEPT: a. Inside air vents to outside b. Nonrecirculating ventilation system c. Negative air pressure d. Separate room from main laboratory

When designing a mycobacterial laboratory, the designers should build in all the following engineering controls to keep the workers safe EXCEPT: a. Inside air vents to outside

When differentiating colony size on the culture plates, what organisms generally have the larger colonies by comparison? a. Gram-negative rods b. Gram-positive cocci c. Gram-negative diplococci d. Gram-positive rods

When differentiating colony size on the culture plates, what organisms generally have the larger colonies by comparison? a. Gram-negative rods

When drawing blood for blood cultures in a child younger than age 10, how much blood do you draw? _____________________________________________________________

When drawing blood for blood cultures in a child younger than age 10, how much blood do you draw? 1 ml of blood for each year of life.

When examining specimen smears for pathogenic bacteria, what is important to note? a. Wright's stain reaction b. Intracellular and extracellular forms c. Details of the microbe's nuclear structure d. The amount of fecal material on the slide

When examining specimen smears for pathogenic bacteria, what is important to note? b. Intracellular and extracellular forms

When is the best time to collect a specimen for culture from a patient suspected of having a viral disease?

When is the best time to collect a specimen for culture from a patient suspected of having a viral disease? Less than 3 days after onset of symptoms.

When is the immediate-spin or abbreviated crossmatch an acceptable procedure for the recipient? A) No prior or existing clinically significant antibodies B) Never been pregnant or transfused C) Needs blood before a sample can be obtained D) Using blood from a directed donation

When is the immediate-spin or abbreviated crossmatch an acceptable procedure for the recipient? A) No prior or existing clinically significant antibodies

When making slides of thin materials such as urine and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF): a. Spread the material once, let the specimen dry, then spread another layer on top to ensure enough specimen to stain. b. Use the two-slide pull method to ensure evenly distributed material over the slides. c. Dip a swab into the specimen, then roll the swab over the glass slide to ensure adequate coverage for staining. d. Mark the area of the sample drop on the reverse side with a wax pencil, then place a drop of the specimen into the marked area.

When making slides of thin materials such as urine and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF): d. Mark the area of the sample drop on the reverse side with a wax pencil, then place a drop of the specimen into the marked area.

When microbiologists encounter a sputum specimen, they know that the upper respiratory tract contains many indigenous organisms and to identify every organism in the culture would be a time-consuming, cost-prohibitive, and insurmountable task. So microbiologists must: a. Work quickly with commercially available kits to identify all organisms present in a sputum specimen for the best quality patient care available. b. Work up only the gram-negative rods present in the culture. c. Differentiate the potential pathogens from the "usual" inhabitants of the upper respiratory tract and direct the diagnostic workup only to potential pathogens. d. Be able to ascertain whether the results generated by a commercial or automated system correlate with the suspected organism.

When microbiologists encounter a sputum specimen, they know that the upper respiratory tract contains many indigenous organisms and to identify every organism in the culture would be a time-consuming, cost-prohibitive, and insurmountable task. So microbiologists must: c. Differentiate the potential pathogens from the "usual" inhabitants of the upper respiratory tract and direct the diagnostic workup only to potential pathogens.

When microbiologists set up a biochemical identification using a commercial system on a suspected pathogen from a culture, they must: a. Recognize the colony characteristics of the pathogen. b. Observe the culture after 18 to 24 hours of incubation. c. Use quality control organisms to ensure the identification of the organism is correct. d. Correlate colony characteristics with the suspected identification of the organism. e. all of the above

When microscopic elements are flagged by the Sysmex UF 1000i, the corrective action is: A. Call the physician's office B. Ask for a new specimen C. Rerun the specimen D. Confirm by manual examination

When microscopic elements are flagged by the Sysmex UF 1000i, the corrective action is: D. Confirm by manual examination

When performing a Gram stain on a gram-negative organism, the crystal violet is absorbed into this outer cell wall layer, then washed away with the acetone alcohol. What is the main component of the outer layer of the cell wall? a. Peptidoglycan b. Mycolic acid c. N-acetyl-d-muramic acid d. Lipopolysaccharide

When performing a Gram stain on a gram-negative organism, the crystal violet is absorbed into this outer cell wall layer, then washed away with the acetone alcohol. What is the main component of the outer layer of the cell wall? d. Lipopolysaccharide

When performing microscopic examination of a stool for muscle fibers, the structures that are counted: A. Are coiled and stain red B. Contain no visible striations C. Have vertical and horizontal striations D. Have horizontal striations and stain blue

When performing microscopic examination of a stool for muscle fibers, the structures that are counted: C. Have vertical and horizontal striations

When performing ophthalmic cultures, all of the following are required for best results except: a. The specimen should be collected in a transport swab b. The sample should be plated directly when possible c. The specimen requisition must be filled out completely. d. The ophthalmologist must communicate with the hospital or reference laboratory.

When performing ophthalmic cultures, all of the following are required for best results except: a. The specimen should be collected in a transport swab

When performing tests in the microbiology laboratory, the detection limit of a test refers to the __________________ ________________________of that test.

When performing tests in the microbiology laboratory, the detection limit of a test refers to the __________________ ________________________of that test. analytic sensitivity

When performing the oxidative/fermentative (O/F) test, one tube is covered with mineral oil and one tube is left uncovered. Why is one tube covered with mineral oil? _________________________________________________________________

When performing the oxidative/fermentative (O/F) test, one tube is covered with mineral oil and one tube is left uncovered. Why is one tube covered with mineral oil? To create an anaerobic (fermentative environment.)

When plating a nonroutine culture on primary culture media, the tech should ask all the following questions EXCEPT: a. What anaerobic bacteria will be present in this specimen? b. Is the specimen likely to contain low numbers or high numbers of organisms? c. Are the organisms to be found in this specimen likely to be fastidious or nonfastidious? d. Are any normal florae presently associated with the specimen?

When plating a nonroutine culture on primary culture media, the tech should ask all the following questions EXCEPT: a. What anaerobic bacteria will be present in this specimen?

When reading broth microdilution minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) testing, the MIC for a particular drug is: a. The lowest concentration showing no obvious growth b. The highest concentration showing no obvious growth c. The lowest concentration showing confluent growth d. The highest concentration showing confluent growth

When reading broth microdilution minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) testing, the MIC for a particular drug is: a. The lowest concentration showing no obvious growth

When reading culture plates from respiratory specimens, what must the microbiologist take into consideration? a. The types of organisms normally found at the culture site b. The amount of media inoculated c. The quality control performed on the media d. The patient's physician

When reading culture plates from respiratory specimens, what must the microbiologist take into consideration? a. The types of organisms normally found at the culture site

When reading cultures, the microbiologist should always compare the _______________ to the culture results to assess the quality of the specimen and the proper interpretation of the results.

When reading cultures, the microbiologist should always compare the ??? to the culture results to assess the quality of the specimen and the proper interpretation of the results. Gram stain

When reviewing surgical site infections, the infection control practitioner must determine if the patient's infection is nosocomial by considering all the following EXCEPT: a. Whether an endotracheal tube was present during surgery b. The length of surgery c. The degree of contamination of the surgical site (gunshot wound to the abdomen versus a hernia repair) d. Whether any breaks in surgical technique occurred

When reviewing surgical site infections, the infection control practitioner must determine if the patient's infection is nosocomial by considering all the following EXCEPT: a. Whether an endotracheal tube was present during surgery

When should antimicrobial susceptibility testing be performed on a bacterial isolate from a clinical specimen? a. When the isolate is determined to be a probable cause of the patient's infection b. When the susceptibility of the isolate to particular antimicrobial agents cannot be reliably predicted c. a and b d. None of the above

When should antimicrobial susceptibility testing be performed on a bacterial isolate from a clinical specimen? c. a and b a. When the isolate is determined to be a probable cause of the patient's infection b. When the susceptibility of the isolate to particular antimicrobial agents cannot be reliably predicted

When testing for the A antigen in a patient, what would you use to perform the test? A) Patient's plasma and commercial A red cells B) Commercial A cells and anti-A C) Patient's red cells and anti-A D) None of the above

When testing for the A antigen in a patient, what would you use to perform the test? C) Patient's red cells and anti-A

When the antigen-binding sites on the antibody molecule react with specific epitopes and not with other antigens containing different epitopes, this is called:

When the antigen-binding sites on the antibody molecule react with specific epitopes and not with other antigens containing different epitopes, this is called: Showing high specificity

When the exact concentration of the solute of a solution is known and is used to evaluate the concentration of an unknown solution, the known solution is: Control Standard Calibrator Unknown

When the exact concentration of the solute of a solution is known and is used to evaluate the concentration of an unknown solution, the known solution is: Standard

When using a swab to make a smear: a. It is okay to use the swab after it has been used to inoculate culture media. b. Ensure the swab has not been used to inoculate culture media first. c. Rub the swab back and forth on the glass slide to smear the specimen for easier viewing. d. Dip the swab in thioglycollate broth for easier smearing on the slide.

When using a swab to make a smear: b. Ensure the swab has not been used to inoculate culture media first.

When using the Hardy-Weinberg equation to calculate genetic frequencies, which of the following must be TRUE? A) The population statistics must be large. B) Mutations cannot occur. C) Mating must be random. D) All of the above are true.

Where are most Salmonella serotypes found? a. Dogs b. Cold-blood animals (fish and reptiles) c. Cats d. Horses

Where are most Salmonella serotypes found? b. Cold-blood animals (fish and reptiles)

Where are product limitations and technical considerations for each reagent located?_______

Where are product limitations and technical considerations for each reagent located? Product Insert

Where are the viridans streptococci constituents of the normal florae? a. Upper respiratory tract b. Female genital tract c. Gastrointestinal tract d. All of the above

Where do most cerebral abscesses spread from? a. Middle ear infections b. Mastoiditis c. Paranasal sinus infections d. All of the above

Where does intravascular destruction of blood cells occur? _____When testing for the A antigen in a patient, what would you use to perform the test? 1. Patient's plasma and commercial A red cells 2. Commercial A cells and anti-A 3. Patient's red cells and anti-A 4. None of the above

Where does intravascular destruction of blood cells occur? _____ Blood vessels When testing for the A antigen in a patient, what would you use to perform the test? 3. Patient's red cells and anti-A

Which elution method is ideal in the investigation of ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn? A) Glycine-acid B) Lui freeze-thaw C) Xylene D) Chloroform

Which elution method is ideal in the investigation of ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn? B) Lui freeze-thaw

Which fungus causes chronic meningitis in HIV patients?

Which fungus causes chronic meningitis in HIV patients? Cryptococcus neoformans

Which hepatitis virus is spread by the fecal/oral route?

Which hepatitis virus is spread by the fecal/oral route? Hepatitis A

Which hepatitis virus is transmitted similar to hepatitis A? A) Hepatitis E virus B) Hepatitis B virus C) Hepatitis C virus D) Hepatitis D virus

Which hepatitis virus is transmitted similar to hepatitis A? A) Hepatitis E virus

Which hepatitis virus leads to chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis, often requiring a liver transplant, and causes a high risk for development of liver cancer?

Which hepatitis virus leads to chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis, often requiring a liver transplant, and causes a high risk for development of liver cancer? Hepatitis C

Which immunoglobulin class is impacted by the zeta potential in a hemagglutination test?

Which immunoglobulin class is impacted by the zeta potential in a hemagglutination test? IgG

Which of the following agars is not selective for Enterobacteriaceae? a. Buffered charcoal yeast extract b. MacConkey c. Hektoen enteric d. Xylose-lysine deoxycholate

Which of the following agars is not selective for Enterobacteriaceae? a. Buffered charcoal yeast extract

Which of the following agencies administers the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments? A. AABB B. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services C. OSHA D. Food and Drug Administration

Which of the following agencies administers the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments? B. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

Which of the following cells found in increased numbers in the urine sediment is only indicative of nephron damage? A. Erythrocytes B. WBCs C. Squamous epithelial cells D. Renal tubular cells

Which of the following cells found in increased numbers in the urine sediment is only indicative of nephron damage? D. Renal tubular cells

Which of the following cells need further intervention when analyzed by automated body fluid instruments? A. Malignant cells B. White blood cells C. Red blood cells D. Mesothelial cells

Which of the following cells need further intervention when analyzed by automated body fluid instruments? A. Malignant cells

Which of the following characteristics is associated with human T-cell lymphotropic virus-I? A) It can be transmitted in blood products. B) It is found in patients with tropical spastic paraparesis. C) It is found in patients with adult T-cell leukemia. D) All of the above

Which of the following clinical applications applies to molecular testing for blood group antigens? A) Confirm the D type of blood donors B) Identify fetus at risk for HDFN C) Predict the phenotype of a patient with autoimmune hemolytic anemia D) All of the above

Which of the following components in the complement cascade mediates the lysis of the target cells? 1. C1qrs 2. C4a, C3a, and C5a 3. C5 to C9 4. C3a and C3b

Which of the following components in the complement cascade mediates the lysis of the target cells? 3. C5 to C9

Which of the following conditions can result from long-term red blood cell transfusions? A) Citrate toxicity B) Hemosiderosis C) Graft-versus-host disease D) Transfusion-related acute lung injury

Which of the following conditions can result from long-term red blood cell transfusions? B) Hemosiderosis

Which of the following facts is not a characteristic of Kell system antibodies? A) Usually clinically significant IgG antibodies B) Best detected in indirect antiglobulin test phases C) Lose reactivity with proteolytic enzyme reagents D) Do not bind complement proteins

Which of the following facts is not a characteristic of Kell system antibodies? C) Lose reactivity with proteolytic enzyme reagents

Which of the following instruments performs assays using gel technology? A) ECHO B) PROVUE C) NEO D) TANGO

Which of the following instruments performs assays using gel technology? B) PROVUE

Which of the following is a symptom of tertiary syphilis? a) Gummas b) Chancre c) Genital warts d) Strokes

Which of the following is a symptom of tertiary syphilis? a) Gummas

Which of the following is an example of a primary bacteremia source? a. infected heart valve B. A case of pneumonia c. A patient with hepatitis d. A wound abscess.

Which of the following is an example of a primary bacteremia source? a. infected heart valve

Which of the following is an example of a secondary bacteremia source? a. an infected cardiac valve b. the lung c. An infected intravenous catheter d. The bone marrow.

Which of the following is an example of a secondary bacteremia source? b. the lung

Which of the following is an example of an unacceptable record-keeping procedure? A. Using dittos in columns to save time B. Recording the date and initials next to a correction C. Not deleting the original entry when making a correction D. Always using permanent ink on all records

Which of the following is an example of an unacceptable record-keeping procedure? A. Using dittos in columns to save time

Which of the following is associated with the Rhnull phenotype? A) Membrane abnormalities B) Immunized Rhnull individuals may produce anti-Rh29 C) Mutation of the RhAG regulator gene D) All of the above

Which of the following is considered a better specimen for anaerobic culture than a swab?' a. Aspirate b. Washing c. Scraping d. Lavage

Which of the following is considered a better specimen for anaerobic culture than a swab?' a. Aspirate

Which of the following is considered a human pathogen? A) Entamoeba histolytica B) Entamoeba coli C) Entamoeba hartmanni D) Endolimax nana

Which of the following is considered a human pathogen? A) Entamoeba histolytica

Which of the following is least likely to occur if a urine specimen stands at room temperature for more than 2 hours? 1) Deterioration of formed elements 2) Increased bacteria 3) Decreased pH 4) Decreased glucose

Which of the following is least likely to occur if a urine specimen stands at room temperature for more than 2 hours? 3) Decreased pH

Which of the following is most likely to be found in the urine of a diabetic patient? A. Trichomonas vaginalis B. Escherichia coli C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Candida albicans

Which of the following is most likely to be found in the urine of a diabetic patient? D. Candida albicans

Which of the following is necessary to prevent an anaphylactic reaction due to a known IgA antibody in a patient? A) All red blood cell units should be irradiated. B) Red blood cell units should be washed. C) All blood components should be leukocyte-reduced. D) Patient should be given antihistamine before transfusion.

Which of the following is necessary to prevent an anaphylactic reaction due to a known IgA antibody in a patient? B) Red blood cell units should be washed.

Which of the following is not a cause for temporary deferment of a whole blood donor? A) Aspirin ingestion 12 hours previously B) Hepatitis B immunoglobulin taken 4 weeks previously C) Oral polio vaccine taken 1 week previously D) Rubella injection 1 week previously

Which of the following is not a cause for temporary deferment of a whole blood donor? A) Aspirin ingestion 12 hours previously

Which of the following is not an advantage of automated microscopy? A. Standardization B. Reduced turnaround time (TAT) C. Cost effectiveness D. High variation of results

Which of the following is not an advantage of automated microscopy? D. High variation of results

Which of the following is not an advantage of using a monoclonal antibody over a polyclonal antibody? A) There are very few variations between lots. B) There are no contaminating antibodies. C) Direct agglutination is usually faster. D) All variations of the antigen can be detected.

Which of the following is not an advantage of using a monoclonal antibody over a polyclonal antibody? D) All variations of the antigen can be detected.

Which of the following is not true about the Ictotest? A. Bilirubin is concentrated on the surface of an absorbent pad. B. Interfering pigments can be washed into the pad. C. It uses the same principle as the reagent strip. D. It is less sensitive than the reagent strip test.

Which of the following is not true about the Ictotest? D. It is less sensitive than the reagent strip test.

Which of the following is responsible for the activation of the classic pathway of complement? 1. Bacteria 2. Foreign proteins 3. Virus 4. Antibody bound to antigen

Which of the following is responsible for the activation of the classic pathway of complement? 4. Antibody bound to antigen

Which of the following is the description of cytopathic effects in viral culture? a. The way viruses kill the infected host cell b. The visual changes produced in an infected cell by a virus c. The tears that the virus puts in an infected host cell's membrane d. The way the virus lyses the infected cell after all the new virus particles are formed and ready to be released.

Which of the following is the description of cytopathic effects in viral culture? B) The visual changes produced in an infected cell by a virus

Which of the following is the most common transfusion-transmitted infection? A) AIDS B) Syphilis C) Cytomegalovirus D) Hepatitis

Which of the following is the most common transfusion-transmitted infection? D) Hepatitis

Which of the following is the most likely reason a physician would collect BAL? A. Pancreatitis B. Ulcers C. Cirrhosis D. Lung disease

Which of the following is the most likely reason a physician would collect BAL? D. Lung disease

Which of the following is the most likely reason a physician would collect vaginal fluid for analysis? A. Preeclampsia B. Vaginitis C. Pregnancy testing D. As part of a police rape kit for sexual assault

Which of the following is the most likely reason a physician would collect vaginal fluid for analysis? B. Vaginitis

Which of the following is true about Nocardia spp.? a. These organisms grow well on standard nonselective media. b. Growth may take a week or more. c. Infections occur in immunocompromised patients. d. All of the above.

Which of the following is true regarding good manufacturing practices (GMPs)? A. GMPs are legal requirements established by the Food and Drug Administration. B. GMPs are optional guidelines written by the AABB. C. GMPs are required only by pharmaceutical companies. D. GMPs are part of the quality control requirements for blood products.

Which of the following is true regarding good manufacturing practices (GMPs)? A. GMPs are legal requirements established by the Food and Drug Administration.

Which of the following items provides evidence for reagent red cell deterioration? A) Spontaneous agglutination B) Significant hemolysis C) Loss of agglutination strength over time D) All of the above

Which of the following medications is most likely to cause the production of autoantibodies? a. Tetracycline b. Cephalothin c. Methyldopa d. Acutane

Which of the following medications is most likely to cause the production of autoantibodies? c. Methyldopa

Which of the following nonimmune mechanisms can lead to a hemolytic reaction to red blood cells? A) Incompatible intravenous solutions mixed with the unit B) Improper storage of the unit C) Bacterial contamination of the unit D) All of the above

Which of the following organisms are inhibited by the anticoagulant sodium polyanethole sulfonate (SPS)? a) Enterobacter aerogenes b) Escherichia coli c) Peptostreptococcus anaerobius d) Streptococcus pyogenes

Which of the following organisms are inhibited by the anticoagulant sodium polyanethole sulfonate (SPS)? c) Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

Which of the following organizations are involved in the regulation of blood banks? A. The Joint Commission B. AABB C. College of American Pathologists D. Food and Drug Administration

Which of the following organizations are involved in the regulation of blood banks? D. Food and Drug Administration

Which of the following pairings of stool appearance and cause does not match? A. Black, tarry: blood B. Yellow-green: barium sulfate C. Pale, frothy: steatorrhea D. Yellow-gray: bile duct obstruction

Which of the following pairings of stool appearance and cause does not match? B. Yellow-green: barium sulfate

Which of the following patients should not receive cytomegalovirus (CMV)-positive blood? A) Premature infants B) HIV-positive patients C) Bone marrow recipients D) Unborn infants of pregnant women who are seronegative E) All of the above

Which of the following products is tested for bacterial contamination following storage? Cryoprecipitated AHF Red blood cells, frozen Platelets Fresh frozen plasma

Which of the following products is tested for bacterial contamination following storage? Platelets

Which of the following red cell antigens do proteolytic enzymes destroy? A) Rh system antigens B) Antigens Fya and Fyb in the Duffy system C) Antigens in the Kidd system D) Lewis system antigens

Which of the following red cell antigens do proteolytic enzymes destroy? B) Antigens Fya and Fyb in the Duffy system

Which of the following requires adjustment in order to enhance the reaction of an antibody in vitro? 1. Temperature above 37° C 2. Speed of the centrifuge above the calibrated settings 3. Increase the concentration of red cells in the test system 4. Increase the incubation time in the incubator

Which of the following requires adjustment in order to enhance the reaction of an antibody in vitro? 4. Increase the incubation time in the incubator

Which of the following secretion combinations are considered to be normal? A. White, curd-like B. White, flocculent discharge C. Yellow-green, frothy D. Yellow, opaque

Which of the following secretion combinations are considered to be normal? B. White, flocculent discharge

Which of the following sets of results most closely indicates an exudate? A. Clear, fluid-to-serum LD ratio: 0.5; fluid-to-serum protein ratio: 0.5; WBC count: 900/µL B. Cloudy, fluid-to-serum LD ratio: 0.5; fluid-to-serum protein ratio: 0.4; WBC count: 1200/µL C. Cloudy, fluid-to-serum LD ratio: 0.8; fluid-to-serum protein ratio: 0.7; WBC count: 2500/µL D. Clear, fluid-to-serum LD ratio: 0.55; fluid-to-serum protein ratio: 0.55;

Which of the following sets of results most closely indicates an exudate? C. Cloudy, fluid-to-serum LD ratio: 0.8; fluid-to-serum protein ratio: 0.7; WBC count: 2500/µL

Which of the following situations can be found in a classic case of autoimmune hemolytic anemia? a. Positive direct antiglobulin test b. False-positive Fya phenotyping c. Crossmatch incompatibility at antihuman globulin d) All of the above

Which of the following situations is most likely to cause intravascular hemolysis when an incompatible transfusion is given? A) Group B packed cells to a group O recipient B) Group A packed red cells to a group AB recipient C) Group AB plasma to a group A recipient D) Group AB plasma to a group O recipient

Which of the following situations is most likely to cause intravascular hemolysis when an incompatible transfusion is given? A) Group B packed cells to a group O recipient

Which of the following specific gravities would be most likely to correlate with a dark yellow urine? a. 1.005 b. 1.010 c. 1.020 d. 1.030

Which of the following specific gravities would be most likely to correlate with a dark yellow urine? d. 1.030

Which of the following specimen handling combinations is incorrect? A. Trichomonas: room temperature B. N. gonorrhoeae: room temperature C. Herpes simplex virus (HSV): room temperature D. C. trachomatis: refrigerated

Which of the following specimen handling combinations is incorrect? C. Herpes simplex virus (HSV): room temperature

Which of the following statements contributes to permanent rejection status for a donor? A) A tattoo 5 months previously B) Contact with a patient with viral hepatitis C) Two units of blood transfused 4 months previously D) Confirmed positive test for hepatitis B surface antigen 10 years previously

Which of the following statements contributes to permanent rejection status for a donor? D) Confirmed positive test for hepatitis B surface antigen 10 years previously

Which of the following statements is true regarding IgG-sensitized red cells? A) They must be used to confirm a negative antiglobulin tube test. B) They must be used to confirm a positive antiglobulin test. C) They must be used to confirm a direct antiglobulin test that was negative with anti-C3d. D) They should be used only with the indirect antiglobulin test.

Which of the following statements is true regarding IgG-sensitized red cells? A) They must be used to confirm a negative antiglobulin tube test.

Which of the following statements is true regarding high-protein anti-D reagents? A) They have been largely replaced with low-protein monoclonal reagents. B) They contain high concentrations of bovine albumin. C) They may increase the possibility of a false-positive reaction, requiring the use of a control. D) All of the above are true.

Which of the following terms is correctly matched with urine output? 1) Anuria: 400 mL in 24 hours 2) Oliguria: 1000 mL in 24 hours 3) Polyuria: 3000 mL in 24 hours 4) Nocturia: no urine output

Which of the following terms is correctly matched with urine output? 3) Polyuria: 3000 mL in 24 hours

Which of the following tests is not included in routine compatibility testing? A) ABO phenotyping B) Direct antiglobulin test C) D typing D) Antibody screen

Which of the following tests is not included in routine compatibility testing? B) Direct antiglobulin test

Which of the following tests is valuable in the diagnosis of esophageal rupture? A. Pleural fluid pH B. Ascitic fluid pH C. Pleural fluid amylase D. Ascitic fluid amylase

Which of the following tests is valuable in the diagnosis of esophageal rupture? A. Pleural fluid pH

Which of the following transfusion reactions can be linked to the administration of whole blood to a patient with cardiac insufficiency? A) Delayed hemolytic reaction B) Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) C) Circulatory overload (TACO) D) Febrile nonhemolytic reaction

Which of the following transfusion reactions can be linked to the administration of whole blood to a patient with cardiac insufficiency? C) Circulatory overload (TACO)

Which of the following transfusion reactions demonstrates with coughing, cyanosis, and difficulty breathing? A) Allergic B) Febrile C) Hemolytic D) TRALI

Which of the following transfusion reactions demonstrates with coughing, cyanosis, and difficulty breathing? D) TRALI

Which of the following transfusion reactions has the highest incidence? A) Hemolytic reactions due to ABO incompatibility B) Urticarial C) Graft-versus-host disease D) Transfusion-related acute lung injury

Which of the following transfusion reactions has the highest incidence? B) Urticarial

Which of the following transfusion reactions has the highest incidence? Hemolytic reactions due to ABO incompatibility Urticarial Graft-versus-host disease Transfusion-related acute lung injury

Which of the following transfusion reactions has the highest incidence? Urticarial

Which of the following urine elements if flagged by automated microscopy would need to be confirmed by a manual examination? A. Red blood cells B. White blood cells C. Crystals D. Bacteria

Which of the following urine elements if flagged by automated microscopy would need to be confirmed by a manual examination? C. Crystals

Which of the following will be detected by the reagent strip nitrite reaction? A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus B. Candida albicans C. Enterococcus faecalis D. Escherichia coli

Which of the following will be detected by the reagent strip nitrite reaction? D. Escherichia coli

Which of the following will be least affected in an unpreserved specimen left at room temperature overnight? 1) Bilirubin 2) Urobilinogen 3) Red blood cells 4) Protein

Which of the following will be least affected in an unpreserved specimen left at room temperature overnight? 4) Protein

Which of the following will cause an antigen to elicit a greater immune response? 1. Small antigen size 2. Composed largely of carbohydrates 3. Size greater than 10,000 daltons 4. Similarity to the host

Which of the following will cause an antigen to elicit a greater immune response? 3. Size greater than 10,000 daltons

Which of the following will not cause ketonuria? A. Inability to use carbohydrates B. Inadequate intake of carbohydrates C. Increased metabolism of carbohydrates D. Excessive loss of carbohydrates

Which of the following will not cause ketonuria? C. Increased metabolism of carbohydrates

Which of these bacteria cannot grow in the presence of oxygen? a. Obligate aerobes b. Capnophilic organisms c. Facultative anaerobes d. Obligate anaerobe

Which of these bacteria cannot grow in the presence of oxygen? d. Obligate anaerobe

Which one of the following antibodies is unlikely to cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn? A) Anti-C B) Anti-K C) Anti-Lea D) Anti-S

Which one of the following antibodies is unlikely to cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn? C) Anti-Lea

Which one of the following histories represents an acceptable male donor? Hematocrit // Blood Pressure // Temp. // Pulse Age A) 39, 110/70, 99.9° F, 75, 40 B) 35, 136/86, 98.6° F, 80, 18 C) 39, 90/60, 98.9° F, 65, 65 D) 40, 190/90, 98.6° F, 78, 56

Which one of the following histories represents an acceptable male donor? Hematocrit // Blood Pressure // Temp. // Pulse Age C) 39, 90/60, 98.9° F, 65, 65

Which one of the following transfusion reactions is associated with high fever, shock, hemoglobinuria, and DIC? A) Anaphylactic B) Sepsis C) Circulatory overload D) Allergic

Which one of the following transfusion reactions is associated with high fever, shock, hemoglobinuria, and DIC? B) Sepsis

Which organism is DFA used to detect, despite the test having a low sensitivity (25% to 75%)? A) Neisseria B) Streptococcus C) Legionella D) Klebsiella

Which organism is DFA used to detect, despite the test having a low sensitivity (25% to 75%)? C) Legionella

Which organism is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs) in humans?__________________________________________

Which organism is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs) in humans? E. coli

Which organization was formed for voluntary attainment of high standards in institutional medical care? JCAHO CAP FDA CDC

Which organization was formed for voluntary attainment of high standards in institutional medical care? JCAHO

Which red cells are used to screen for antibodies in donor samples? A) Screening cells (two vials) B) Pooled screening cells C) Panel cells D) Screening cells (three vials)

Which red cells are used to screen for antibodies in donor samples? B) Pooled screening cells

Which species are associated with infections in humans? a. Haemophilus influenza b. H. aegyptius c. H. ducreyi d. All of the above

Which species are/is associated with infections in humans? Haemophilus aegyptius Haemophilus influenza Haemophilus ducreyi All of the above

Which species of Haemophilus requires both X and V factor?

Which species of Haemophilus requires both X and V factor? H. influenzae

Which species of Haemophilus requires both X and V factors?

Which species of Haemophilus requires both X and V factors? H. influenza

Which species of Yersinia can cause intestinal disease including mesenteric lymphadenitis in children?

Which species of Yersinia can cause intestinal disease including mesenteric lymphadenitis in children? Yersinia enterocolitica

Which structures are important in the microscopic identification of Coccidioides immitis? A) macroconidia B) microconidia C) sporangia D) arthrospores

Which structures are important in the microscopic identification of Coccidioides immitis? D) arthrospores

Which test is a confirmatory test of enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) for HIV? a. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) b. Northern blot c. Southern blot d. Western blot

Which test is a confirmatory test of enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) for HIV? d. Western blot

Which tests are performed to identify the cause of suspected hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn? A) ABO group B) D testing C) Direct antiglobulin test D) All of the above

Which tests are performed to identify the cause of suspected hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn? D) All of the above

Which type of autologous donation procedure is most common for the majority of surgeries? A) Preoperative hemodilution B) Postoperative salvage C) Intraoperative blood salvage D) Preoperative donation

Which type of autologous donation procedure is most common for the majority of surgeries? D) Preoperative donation

Which urine chemicals will deteriorate when exposed to light?

Which urine chemicals will deteriorate when exposed to light? Bilirubin

Which virus is a bloodborne pathogen? a. Hepatitis A virus (HAV) b. Rabies c. Hepatitis C virus (HCV) d. Norovirus

Which virus is a bloodborne pathogen? c. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)

Which virus is endemic to deer mice in New Mexico and has a mortality rate of around 50%?

Which virus is endemic to deer mice in New Mexico and has a mortality rate of around 50%? Hanta virus or Sin Nombre Virus

While performing a Clinitest, you observe that the color changes rapidly from blue to orange and then back to blue. You should: A. Report the test as negative, because the final reaction color is blue B. Report the test as negative, because the brief orange color probably was from detergent in the tube C. Repeat the test using fewer drops of urine to check for "pass through" D. Repeat the test using more drops of urine to prevent "pass through"

While performing a Clinitest, you observe that the color changes rapidly from blue to orange and then back to blue. You should: C. Repeat the test using fewer drops of urine to check for "pass through"

Who needs the transfusion of CMV-negative blood products? A) Sickle cell B) Neonates C) Cardiac D) Trauma

Who needs the transfusion of CMV-negative blood products? B) Neonates

Why are aminoglycosides not an effective treatment for meningitis? a. They do not cross the blood-brain barrier. b. They are nephrotoxic and will harm the patient's kidneys. c. They are ototoxic and will harm the patient's ears. d. They are not effective against Neisseria, Streptococcus, or Haemophilus.

Why are aminoglycosides not an effective treatment for meningitis? a. They do not cross the blood-brain barrier.

Why are antibody detection methods for Chlamydia trachomatis infection severely limited in the knowledge they provide the physician? A) Because C. trachomatis is an intracellular parasite, the body does not produce antibodies against it. B) Only IgE antibodies are produced against C. trachomatis. C) Many people have antibodies from previous infections, and local infections do not cause great increases in antibody levels. D) All of the above.

Why are antibody detection methods for Chlamydia trachomatis infection severely limited in the knowledge they provide the physician? C) Many people have antibodies from previous infections, and local infections do not cause great increases in antibody levels.

Why are plastic overwraps recommended when thawing FFP and CRYO? A) To prevent contamination of the water bath B) To prevent rapid thawing, which affects labile factors C) To prevent entry ports from becoming contaminated with water D) To prevent the label from peeling off when thawing

Why are plastic overwraps recommended when thawing FFP and CRYO? C) To prevent entry ports from becoming contaminated with water

Why are proteolytic enzymes not used in the routine screening for antibodies? a. The reagent is too expensive for routine use. b. Clinically insignificant antibodies are enhanced. c. Red cells must be treated with enzymes first, which makes this technique impractical. d. Some antigens are destroyed by enzymes, which would cause the antibodies to be missed

Why are proteolytic enzymes not used in the routine screening for antibodies? d. Some antigens are destroyed by enzymes, which would cause the antibodies to be missed

Why are there so many cases of genital herpes in the Unites States? a) Condoms cannot prevent spread of genital herpes. b) No protection is available against genital herpes. c) Lesions shed virus when asymptomatic. d) Lesions shed virus only when symptomatic

Why are there so many cases of genital herpes in the Unites States? c) Lesions shed virus when asymptomatic.

Why can't direct microscopy be used to provide a presumptive identification of the enteric bacteria? ___________________________________________________

Why can't direct microscopy be used to provide a presumptive identification of the enteric bacteria? The microscopic characteristics are indistinguishable from other gram-negative bacteria

Why do Streptococcus pneumoniae colonies on sheep blood agar (SBA) appear like a coin—raised edges and a depressed center? a. The older growth at the center is smaller due to lack of nutrients. b. The newer growths on the outside of the colony undergo the Quellung reaction. c. The older growth at the center is killed due to autolysis. d. The newer growth has a thicker capsule, therefore it appears raised.

Why do Streptococcus pneumoniae colonies on sheep blood agar (SBA) appear like a coin—raised edges and a depressed center? c. The older growth at the center is killed due to autolysis.

Why do Thayer-Martin and Martin-Lewis media have antibiotics added? a. To permit the growth of Neisseria spp., Mycoplasma spp., and Ureaplasma spp., because these organisms use the antibiotics as growth factors b. To allow the growth of gram-negative rods c. To allow the growth of gram-positive rods d. To prevent overgrowth of normal florae

Why do Thayer-Martin and Martin-Lewis media have antibiotics added? d. To prevent overgrowth of normal florae

Why do premature neonates require red blood cell transfusions? A) Iatrogenic blood loss B) Hemoglobin F is being changed to hemoglobin A C) Insufficient erythropoiesis D) All of the above

Why do thick and thin blood smears need to be performed when looking for parasites? A) to improve staining B) to remove artifacts C) to remove platelets D) to improve detection of parasites.

Why do thick and thin blood smears need to be performed when looking for parasites? D) to improve detection of parasites.

Why have Lewis system antibodies not been implicated in hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn? A) The antigens are not fully developed at birth. B) Lewis system antibodies do not cross the placenta. C) The antibodies are not clinically significant. D) All of the above are correct.

Why is Hepatitis A virus transmission in blood unusual? A) Hepatitis A virus is usually transmitted by the enteric route B) Hepatitis A virus is usually an acute hepatitis C) Infectivity after a hepatitis A virus infection is usually only 2 weeks D) All of the above

Why is it sometimes necessary to distinguish A1 and A2 blood types? A) To resolve a discrepancy between the forward and reverse typing B) To prevent A1 recipients from receiving A2 blood C) To determine the secretor status of group A individuals D) To prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn

Why is it sometimes necessary to distinguish A1 and A2 blood types? A) To resolve a discrepancy between the forward and reverse typing

Why is it that although Nocardia spp. grow well on most common nonselective laboratory media, many are missed when the cultures are read? a. These organisms require 3 to 6 days to grow. b. These organisms require factors X and V to grow. c. These organisms require 3 to 6 weeks to grow. d. These organisms are anaerobic.

Why is it that although Nocardia spp. grow well on most common nonselective laboratory media, many are missed when the cultures are read? a. These organisms require 3 to 6 days to grow.

Why is it that most cases of salmonella food poisoning are not treated with antibiotics? ______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________

Why is it that most cases of salmonella food poisoning are not treated with antibiotics? List two reasons that that most cases of salmonella food poisoning are not treated with antibiotics? The disease is self-limiting and will subside on its own. Antibiotic can lead to the carrier state.

Why is laboratory-acquired infection an obvious hazard for personnel working in a microbiology lab? A) Microbiology personnel do not always adhere to safety practices. B) Safety practices are not applicable for the microbiology laboratory. C) In-service education is not provided for microbiology staff. D) Personnel deal with a variety of infections agents: viral, fungal, parasitic, and bacterial.

Why is laboratory-acquired infection an obvious hazard for personnel working in a microbiology lab? D) Personnel deal with a variety of infections agents: viral, fungal, parasitic, and bacterial.

Why is polyethylene glycol reagent added to the screen or panel? A) Enhance detection of IgM antibodies. B) Eliminate the reactivity of certain antigens. C) Increase the avidity of IgG antibodies. D) Eliminate the need for washing in the indirect antiglobulin test.

Why is polyethylene glycol reagent added to the screen or panel? C) Increase the avidity of IgG antibodies.

Why is reverse grouping omitted in the neonatal period for ABO testing? A) The maternal antibody is identical to that of the newborn. B) Newborns do not produce their own antibody until about 4 months. C) The newborn's antibody is the same as the paternal antibody. D) None of the above is correct.

Why is reverse grouping omitted in the neonatal period for ABO testing? B) Newborns do not produce their own antibody until about 4 months.

Why is the agglutination reaction phase important in the interpretation of the antibody screen or antibody identification panel? a. Determines whether there is a delayed transfusion reaction b. Provides clues on antibody dosage c. Indicates the class of the antibody d. Determines whether an autoantibody is present

Why is the agglutination reaction phase important in the interpretation of the antibody screen or antibody identification panel? c. Indicates the class of the antibody

Why is the determination of the D antigen important for women during pregnancy? A) A D-positive mother can form anti-D during pregnancy that may destroy the D-positive red cells of the fetus. B) A D-negative mother should be given Rh immune globulin to prevent potential formation of anti-D during delivery of a D-positive infant. C) A D-negative mother may form anti-D if the father of the child is also D-negative. D) A D-positive mother may pass her red cells to the D-negative fetus and cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn.

Why is the determination of the D antigen important for women during pregnancy? B) A D-negative mother should be given Rh immune globulin to prevent potential formation of anti-D during delivery of a D-positive infant.

Why is the travel history of the patient important when evaluating a person with diarrhea?

Why is the travel history of the patient important when evaluating a person with diarrhea? Travel to different countries puts on at risk for various infections

Why must the laboratory draw blood when a creatinine clearance is ordered?

Why must the laboratory draw blood when a creatinine clearance is ordered? To determine the plasma or serum level of the substance being cleared.

Why should health care workers wash their hands after coming into contact with a patient? A) To reduce the amount of red blood cells transmitted from one patient to the next B) To reduce the occurrence of hemolytic transfusion reactions C) To reduce the need for antiseptics and disinfectants D) To reduce the spread of pathogenic bacteria from one individual to another

Why should health care workers wash their hands after coming into contact with a patient? D) To reduce the spread of pathogenic bacteria from one individual to another

Why should laboratory professionals look for contamination of a specimen by normal microbial florae? a. Contaminated specimens will have much amorphous debris that also goes with them. b. Normal florae always preclude the possibility of a pathogen infecting the area where they reside. c. The normal florae will be found in clumps, and any pathogenic bacteria will be found with the normal florae. d. Contamination of specimens with normal florae that are not collected from sterile sites diminishes the value of the culture studies.

Why should laboratory professionals look for contamination of a specimen by normal microbial florae? d. Contamination of specimens with normal florae that are not collected from sterile sites diminishes the value of the culture studies.

Why was CLIA established? To provide oversight to all labs To provide oversight to labs reporting patient results To provide oversight to CAP accredited labs To aid the FDA in approving laboratory patient testing.

Why was CLIA established? To provide oversight to labs reporting patient results

With few exceptions, ______________________ demonstrating seroconversion or a __________________ rise in titer are required to establish a diagnosis of recent infection.

With few exceptions, ______________________ demonstrating seroconversion or a __________________ rise in titer are required to establish a diagnosis of recent infection. paired sera (acute and convalescent) fourfold

Would a control sample that has accidentally become diluted produce a trend or a shift in the Levy-Jennings plot?

Would a control sample that has accidentally become diluted produce a trend or a shift in the Levy-Jennings plot? Shift

Xanthochromic CSF may appear pink, orange, or yellow. T/F

Xanthochromic CSF may appear pink, orange, or yellow. True

You are working in a microbiology laboratory and receive a sputum for culture. You perform a Gram stain on the sputum and get the following results: 3+ gram-positive cocci, greater than 25 epithelial cells/10× field, less than 10 neutrophils/10× field, and heavy mucus. What do these results indicate? a. An acceptable specimen that should be worked up with definitive identification for all bacteria present b. An unacceptable specimen and workup that should be limited to basic identification of bacteria c. An unacceptable specimen that should be worked up with definitive identification for all bacteria present d. An acceptable specimen and workup that should be limited to the basic identification of bacteria

You are working in a microbiology laboratory and receive a sputum for culture. You perform a Gram stain on the sputum and get the following results: 3+ gram-positive cocci, greater than 25 epithelial cells/10× field, less than 10 neutrophils/10× field, and heavy mucus. What do these results indicate? b. An unacceptable specimen and workup that should be limited to basic identification of bacteria

You receive a call from a physician's practice asking about "extra swabs" for a vaginal secretions collection for Neisseria possible infection. Which of the following swabs cannot be used and why? A. Sterile polyester tipped swabs because they are toxic to Neisseria B. Sterile polyester tipped swabs because they inactivate Neisseria C. Sterile wood shaft swabs with cotton because they are toxic to Neisseria D. Sterile wood shaft swabs with cotton because they inactivate Neisseria

You receive a call from a physician's practice asking about "extra swabs" for a vaginal secretions collection for Neisseria possible infection. Which of the following swabs cannot be used and why? C. Sterile wood shaft swabs with cotton because they are toxic to Neisseria

______________ is a disorder frequently associated with tubular dysfunction and present with urinalysis findings including glycosuria or a normal blood glucose and possible mild proteinuria. Urinary pH can be very low due to the failure to reabsorb bicarbonate.

______________ is a disorder frequently associated with tubular dysfunction and present with urinalysis findings including glycosuria or a normal blood glucose and possible mild proteinuria. Urinary pH can be very low due to the failure to reabsorb bicarbonate. Fanconi Syndrome

_________occurs primarily in children after upper respiratory infections. The initial symptoms include the appearance of raised, red patches on the skin.

_________occurs primarily in children after upper respiratory infections. The initial symptoms include the appearance of raised, red patches on the skin. Henoch-Schonlein Purpura

____________ is a serious form of acute glomerular disease in which symptoms are initiated by deposition of immune complexes in the glomerulus, often as a complication of another form of glomerulonephritis or an immune systemic disorder such as systemic lupus erythematosus.

· ____________ is a serious form of acute glomerular disease in which symptoms are initiated by deposition of immune complexes in the glomerulus, often as a complication of another form of glomerulonephritis or an immune systemic disorder such as systemic lupus erythematosus. Rapidly Progressive Crescentic Glomerulonephritis

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