Shock

ANS: B A decreased segmented neutrophil count is indicative of late sepsis. Serum lactate is increased in late sepsis. Monocytosis is usually seen in diseases such as tuberculosis and Rocky Mountain spotted fever. An increased platelet count does not indicate sepsis; late in sepsis, platelets may decrease due to consumptive coagulopathy.

Which laboratory result is seen in late sepsis? a. Decreased serum lactate b. Decreased segmented neutrophil count c. Increased numbers of monocytes d. Increased platelet count

ANS: B Airway is the priority, followed by breathing and circulation (IVs and direct pressure). Obtaining consent is done by the physician.

A client arrives in the emergency department after being in a car crash with fatalities. The client has a nearly amputated leg that is bleeding profusely. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Apply direct pressure to the bleeding. b. Ensure the client has a patent airway. c. Obtain consent for emergency surgery. d. Start two large-bore IV catheters.

ANS: C The first manifestations of hypovolemic shock result from compensatory mechanisms. Signs of shock are first evident as changes in cardiovascular function. As shock progresses, changes in skin, respiration, and kidney function progress. The other questions would not identify early stages of shock.

A client brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident is suspected of having internal bleeding. Which question does the nurse ask to determine whether the client is in the early stages of hypovolemic shock? a. "Are you more thirsty than normal?" b. "When was the last time you urinated?" c. "What is your normal heart rate?" d. "Is your skin usually cool and pale?"

ANS: A The nurse's priority is to care for the client. Since the client has gunshot wounds and is bleeding, the nurse applies personal protective equipment (i.e., gloves) prior to care. This takes priority over calling law enforcement. Requesting blood bank products can be delegated. The nurse may or may not have to prepare the client for emergency surgery.

A client has been brought to the emergency department after being shot multiple times. What action should the nurse perform first? a. Apply personal protective equipment. b. Notify local law enforcement officials. c. Obtain "universal" donor blood. d. Prepare the client for emergency surgery.

ANS: A, C, E Septic shock manifests with decreased cardiac output, increased blood glucose, and increased serum lactate. The other parameters do not correlate with septic shock.

A client has septic shock. Which hemodynamic parameters does the nurse correlate with this type of shock? (Select all that apply.) a. Decreased cardiac output b. Increased cardiac output c. Increased blood glucose d. Decreased blood glucose e. Increased serum lactate f. Decreased serum lactate

ANS: A Broad-spectrum antibiotics must be initiated within 1 hour of establishing diagnosis. A blood transfusion is indicated for low red blood cell count or low hemoglobin and hematocrit; transfusion is not part of the sepsis resuscitation bundle. Cooling baths are not indicated because the client is hypothermic, nor is this part of the sepsis resuscitation bundle. NPO status is not indicated for this client, nor is it part of the sepsis resuscitation bundle.

A client is admitted to the hospital with two of the systemic inflammatory response syndrome variables: temperature of 95° F (35° C) and high white blood cell count. Which intervention from the sepsis resuscitation bundle does the nurse initiate? a. Broad-spectrum antibiotics b. Blood transfusion c. Cooling baths d. NPO status

ANS: A, D, E Having a familiar person nearby may provide comfort to the client. The nurse should remain with the client who is demonstrating physiologic deterioration. Offering genuine reassurance supports the client who is anxious. The health care provider should be notified, and increasing IV and oxygen rates may be needed, but these actions do not support the client's psychosocial integrity.

A client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of early shock. What is important for the nurse to do to support the psychosocial integrity of the client? (Select all that apply.) a. Ask the family members to stay with the client b. Call the health care provider c. Increase IV and oxygen rates d. Remain with client e. Reassure the client that everything is being done for him or her

ANS: A High glucose readings are common in shock, and best outcomes are the result of treating them and maintaining glucose readings in the normal range. Medications and IV solutions may raise blood glucose levels, but this is not the most accurate answer. The stress of the illness has not "made" the client diabetic.

A client is in shock and the nurse prepares to administer insulin for a blood glucose reading of 208 mg/dL. The spouse asks why the client needs insulin as the client is not a diabetic. What response by the nurse is best? a. "High glucose is common in shock and needs to be treated." b. "Some of the medications we are giving are to raise blood sugar." c. "The IV solution has lots of glucose, which raises blood sugar." d. "The stress of this illness has made your spouse a diabetic."

ANS: A Normal cognitive function is a good indicator that the client is receiving the benefits of norepinephrine. The brain is very sensitive to changes in oxygenation and perfusion. Norepinephrine can cause chest pain as an adverse reaction, so the absence of chest pain does not indicate therapeutic effect. The IV site is normal. The urine output is normal, but only minimally so.

A client is receiving norepinephrine (Levophed) for shock. What assessment finding best indicates a therapeutic effect from this drug? a. Alert and oriented, answering questions b. Client denial of chest pain or chest pressure c. IV site without redness or swelling d. Urine output of 30 mL/hr for 2 hours

ANS: A A sign of early sepsis is low-grade fever. Both early sepsis and thrombus may cause tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension.

A client recovering from an open reduction of the femur suddenly feels light-headed, with increased anxiety and agitation. Which key vital sign differentiates a pulmonary embolism from early sepsis? a. Temperature b. Pulse c. Respiration d. Blood pressure

ANS: A The client at risk for septic shock should be instructed to clean his or her toothbrush daily, either by running it through the dishwasher or by rinsing it in laundry bleach. Clients should be instructed to bathe daily and wash the armpits, the groin, and the rectal area. The client should refrain from cleaning pet litter boxes. Clients recovering from septic shock are not at higher risk for bleeding disorders.

A client recovering from septic shock is preparing for discharge home. What priority information does the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client? a. "Clean your toothbrush with laundry bleach daily." b. "Bathe every other day with antimicrobial soap." c. "Wash your hands after changing pet litter boxes." d. "Use an electric razor when you shave your face."

ANS: C The hypodynamic phase of septic shock is characterized by a rapid decrease in cardiac output, systolic blood pressure, and pulse pressure. The nurse must initiate drug therapy to maintain blood pressure and cardiac output. Accurate urinary output and blood cultures are important to the treatment but are not the priority when a client's pulse pressure is decreasing rapidly. The family should be updated appropriately.

A client was admitted 2 days ago with early stages of septic shock. Today the nurse notes that the client's systolic blood pressure, pulse pressure, and cardiac output are decreasing rapidly. Which intervention does the nurse do first? a. Insert a Foley catheter to monitor urine output closely. b. Ask the client's family to come to the hospital because death is near. c. Initiate the prescribed dobutamine (Dobutrex) intravenous drip. d. Obtain blood cultures before administering the next dose of antibiotics.

ANS: A When a local infection becomes systemic, the client develops a high-grade temperature, decreased urine output, and increased respiratory rate. Because of tachycardia and low blood pressure, the client may exhibit orthostatic hypotension. This is a subtle sign of systemic infection that requires further evaluation by the health care provider. The other signs are not manifestations of complications. Warmth and redness are expected with local infection.

A client who has a local infection of the right forearm is being discharged. The nurse teaches the client to seek immediate medical attention if which complication occurs? a. Dizziness on changing position b. Increased urine output c. Warmth and redness at site d. Low-grade temperature

ANS: B Ringer's lactate is an isotonic solution that acts as a volume expander. Also, the lactate acts as a buffer in the presence of acidosis. The other solutions do not contain any substance that would buffer or correct the client's acidosis.

A client who has acidosis resulting from hypovolemic shock has been prescribed intravenous fluid replacement. Which fluid does the nurse prepare to administer? a. Normal saline b. Ringer's lactate c. 5% dextrose in water d. 5% dextrose in 0.45% normal saline

ANS: A Blood cultures should be obtained before IV antibiotics are started. If hypotension occurs, fluid resuscitation is used first. CVP monitoring and vasopressor therapy are started if hypotension persists.

A client who has septic shock is admitted to the hospital. What priority intervention does the nurse implement first? a. Obtain two sets of blood cultures. b. Administer the prescribed IV vancomycin (Vancocin). c. Obtain central venous pressure (CVP) measurements. d. Administer the prescribed IV norepinephrine (Levophed).

ANS: D A diuretic such as bumetanide will decrease blood volume in a client who is already hypovolemic; this order should be questioned because this is not an appropriate action to expand the client's blood volume. The other orders are appropriate for improving blood pressure in shock, and do not need to be questioned.

A client with hypovolemic shock has these vital signs: temperature 97.9° F; pulse 122 beats/min; blood pressure 86/48 mm Hg; respirations 24 breaths/min; urine output 20 mL for last 2 hours; skin cool and clammy. Which medication order for this client does the nurse question? a. Dopamine (Intropin) 12 mcg/kg/min b. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) 5 mcg/kg/min c. Plasmanate 1 unit d. Bumetanide (Bumex) 1 mg IV

ANS: B Dopamine improves blood flow by increasing peripheral resistance, which increases blood pressure—a positive response in this case. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr or 0.5 mL/kg/hr and elevations in serum creatinine indicate poor tissue perfusion to the kidney and are a negative consequence of shock, not a positive response. Although a blood glucose of 245 mg/dL is an abnormal finding, dopamine increases blood pressure and myocardial contractility, not glucose levels.

A client with septic shock has been started on dopamine (Intropin) at 12 mcg/kg/min. Which response indicates a positive outcome? a. Hourly urine output 10 to 12 mL/hr b. Blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg and mean arterial pressure 70 mm Hg c. Blood glucose 245 mg/dL d. Serum creatinine 3.6 mg/dL

ANS: C This client has several indicators of sepsis with systemic inflammatory response. The nurse should notify the health care provider immediately. Documentation needs to be thorough but does not take priority. The client may appreciate warm blankets, but comfort measures do not take priority. The client may or may not need insulin.

A nurse caring for a client notes the following assessments: white blood cell count 3800/mm3, blood glucose level 198 mg/dL, and temperature 96.2° F (35.6° C). What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Document the findings in the client's chart. b. Give the client warmed blankets for comfort. c. Notify the health care provider immediately. d. Prepare to administer insulin per sliding scale.

ANS: B Hypovolemic shock can be caused by dehydration. A client who has bulimia is at highest risk for dehydration owing to excessive vomiting. Basketball, smoking, and traveling do not put the client at risk for hypovolemic shock.

The emergency department nurse is triaging clients. Which client does the nurse assess most carefully for hypovolemic shock? a. 15-year-old adolescent who plays high school basketball b. 24-year-old computer specialist who has bulimia c. 48-year-old truck driver who has a 40-pack-year history of smoking d. 62-year-old business executive who travels frequently

ANS: B Urine output changes are a sensitive early indicator of shock. The nurse should delegate emptying the urinary catheter and measuring output to the UAP as a baseline for hourly urine output measurements. The UAP cannot assess for pain. Repositioning may or may not be effective for decreasing restlessness, but does not take priority over physical assessments. Reassurance is a therapeutic nursing action, but the nurse needs to do more in this situation.

A nurse is caring for a client after surgery who is restless and apprehensive. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports the vital signs and the nurse sees they are only slightly different from previous readings. What action does the nurse delegate next to the UAP? a. Assess the client for pain or discomfort. b. Measure urine output from the catheter. c. Reposition the client to the unaffected side. d. Stay with the client and reassure him or her.

ANS: B Signs of the earliest stage of shock are subtle and may manifest in slight increases in heart rate, respiratory rate, or blood pressure. Even though these readings are not out of the normal range, the nurse should conduct a thorough assessment of the client, focusing on indicators of perfusion. The client may need pain medication, but this is not the priority at this time. Documentation should be done thoroughly but is not the priority either. The nurse should not increase the rate of the IV infusion without an order.

A nurse is caring for a client after surgery. The client's respiratory rate has increased from 12 to 18 breaths/min and the pulse rate increased from 86 to 98 beats/min since they were last assessed 4 hours ago. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask if the client needs pain medication. b. Assess the client's tissue perfusion further. c. Document the findings in the client's chart. d. Increase the rate of the client's IV infusion.

ANS: B A lactate level of 6 mmol/L is high and is indicative of possible shock. A creatinine level of 0.9 mg/dL is normal. A sodium level of 150 mEq/L is high, but that is not related directly to shock. A white blood cell count of 11,000/mm3 is slightly high but is not as critical as the lactate level.

A nurse is caring for several clients at risk for shock. Which laboratory value requires the nurse to communicate with the health care provider? a. Creatinine: 0.9 mg/dL b. Lactate: 6 mmol/L c. Sodium: 150 mEq/L d. White blood cell count: 11,000/mm3

ANS: A, B, D Heart and respiratory rates increased from the client's baseline level and a slight increase in diastolic blood pressure may be the only objective manifestations of this early stage of shock.

The nurse is assessing a client who is in early stages of hypovolemic shock. Which manifestations does the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Elevated heart rate b. Elevated diastolic blood pressure c. Decreased body temperature d. Elevated respiratory rate e. Decreased pulse rate

ANS: B Preventing dehydration in older adults is important because the age-related decrease in the thirst mechanism makes them prone to dehydration. Having older adults drink fluids on a regular schedule will help keep them hydrated without the influence of thirst (or lack of thirst). Telling clients not to get dehydrated is important, but not the best answer because it doesn't give them the tools to prevent it from occurring. Older adults should seek attention for lacerations, but this is not as important an issue as staying hydrated. Taking medications as prescribed may or may not be related to hydration.

A nurse works at a community center for older adults. What self-management measure can the nurse teach the clients to prevent shock? a. Do not get dehydrated in warm weather. b. Drink fluids on a regular schedule. c. Seek attention for any lacerations. d. Take medications as prescribed.

ANS: B Monitoring hourly urine output is included in nursing assistant education and does not require special clinical judgment; the nurse evaluates the results. Obtaining vital signs, monitoring oxygen saturation, and assessing mental status in critically ill clients requires the clinical judgment of the critical care nurse because immediate intervention may be needed.

A postoperative client is admitted to the intensive care unit with hypovolemic shock. Which nursing action does the nurse delegate to an experienced nursing assistant? a. Obtain vital signs every 15 minutes b. Measure hourly urine output c. check oxygen saturation d. Assess level of alertness

ANS: B Lower blood volume will decrease MAP. The other answers are not accurate.

A student is caring for a client who suffered massive blood loss after trauma. How does the student correlate the blood loss with the client's mean arterial pressure (MAP)? a. It causes vasoconstriction and increased MAP. b. Lower blood volume lowers MAP. c. There is no direct correlation to MAP. d. It raises cardiac output and MAP.

ANS: B Poor tissue oxygenation at the cellular level causes anaerobic metabolism, with the by-product of lactic acid. Elevated partial pressure of carbon dioxide occurs with hypoventilation, which may be related to respiratory muscle fatigue, secretions, and causes other than hypoxia. Coagulation times reflect the ability of the blood to clot, not oxygenation at the cellular level. Elevation in potassium appears in septic shock due to acidosis; this value is decreased and is not consistent with septic shock.

How does the nurse caring for a client with septic shock recognize that severe tissue hypoxia is present? a. PaCO2 58 mm Hg b. Lactate 9.0 mmol/L c. Partial thromboplastin time 64 seconds d. Potassium 2.8 mEq/L

ANS: B Plasmanate expands the blood volume and helps maintain MAP greater than 65 mm Hg, which is a desired outcome in shock. Urine output should be 0.5 mL/kg/hr, or greater than 30 mL/hr. Albumin levels reflect nutritional status, which may be poor in shock states due to an increased need for calories. Plasmanate expands blood volume by exerting increasing colloid osmotic pressure in the bloodstream, pulling fluid into the vascular space; this does not improve an abnormal hemoglobin.

How does the nurse recognize that a positive outcome has occurred when administering plasma protein fraction (Plasmanate)? a. Urine output 20 to 30 mL/hr for the last 4 hours b. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) 70 mm Hg c. Albumin 3.5 g/dL d. Hemoglobin 7.6 g/dL

ANS: A Prolonged INR indicates that blood takes longer than normal to clot; this client is at risk for bleeding. PTT of 12.5 seconds and a platelet value of 170,000/mm3 are both normal and pose no risk for bleeding. Although a hemoglobin of 8.2 g/dL is low, the client could have severe iron deficiency or could have received medication affecting the bone marrow.

The client with which laboratory result is at risk for hemorrhagic shock? a. International normalized ratio (INR) 7.9 b. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) 12.5 seconds c. Platelets 170,000/mm3 d. Hemoglobin 8.2 g/dL

ANS: A Esophageal varices are caused by portal hypertension; the portal vessels are under high pressure and are prone to rupture, causing massive upper gastrointestinal tract bleeding and hypovolemic shock. As the kidneys fail, fluid is typically retained, causing fluid volume excess, not hypovolemia. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs such as naproxen and ibuprofen, not acetaminophen, predispose the client to gastrointestinal bleeding and hypovolemia. Although a kidney stone may cause hematuria, there is not generally massive blood loss or hypovolemia.

The client with which problem is at highest risk for hypovolemic shock? a. Esophageal varices b. Kidney failure c. Arthritis and daily acetaminophen use d. Kidney stone

ANS: D During severe sepsis, interventions should focus on decreasing hypoxia, maintaining acid-base balance, keeping blood glucose levels as normal as possible, maintaining organ perfusion, minimizing adrenal insufficiency, and decreasing microemboli. Treatment should include administration of low-dose corticosteroids, insulin drip with blood glucose checks every 1 to 2 hours, hourly intake and output monitoring, and an increase in ventilator rate and tidal volume.

The intensive care nurse is caring for an intubated client who has severe sepsis that led to acute respiratory distress. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate during this stage of sepsis? a. Check blood glucose levels every 4 hours. b. Monitor intake and urinary output twice each shift. c. Decrease ventilator rate and tidal volume. d. Administer prescribed low-dose corticosteroids.

ANS: A Any problem that impairs oxygen delivery to tissues and organs can start the syndrome of shock and lead to a life-threatening emergency. Shock represents the "whole-body response," affecting all organs in a predictable sequence. Compensation mechanisms attempt to maintain homeostasis and deliver necessary oxygen to organs but eventually will fail without reversal of the cause of shock, resulting in death.

The intensive care nurse is educating the spouse of a client who is being treated for shock. The spouse states, "The doctor said she has shock. What is that?" What is the nurse's best response? a. "Shock occurs when oxygen to the body's tissues and organs is impaired." b. "Shock is a serious condition, but it is not a life-threatening emergency." c. "Shock progresses slowly and can be stopped by the body's normal compensation." d. "Shock is a condition that affects only specific body organs like the kidneys."

ANS: A This client has a falling systolic blood pressure, rising diastolic blood pressure, and narrowing pulse pressure, all of which may be indications of the progressive stage of shock. The nurse should assess this client first. The client with the unchanged oxygen saturation is stable at this point. Although the client with a change in pulse has a slower rate, it is not an indicator of shock since the pulse is still within the normal range; it may indicate the client's pain or anxiety has been relieved, or he or she is sleeping or relaxing. A urine output of 40 mL/hr is only slightly above the normal range, which is 30 mL/hr.

The nurse gets the hand-off report on four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first? a. Client with a blood pressure change of 128/74 to 110/88 mm Hg b. Client with oxygen saturation unchanged at 94% c. Client with a pulse change of 100 to 88 beats/min d. Client with urine output of 40 mL/hr for the last 2 hours

ANS: B The client receiving sodium nitroprusside should have his or her blood pressure assessed every 15 minutes. Higher doses can cause systemic vasodilation and can increase shock. The nurse should monitor the client's pain, urinary output, and extremities, but these assessments do not directly relate to the nitroprusside infusion.

The nurse is administering prescribed sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) intravenously to a client who has shock. Which nursing intervention is a priority when administering this medication? a. Ask if the client has chest pain every 30 minutes. b. Assess the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes. c. Monitor the client's urinary output every hour. d. Observe the client's extremities every 4 hours.

ANS: B Administration of oxygen for any type of shock is appropriate to help reduce potential damage from tissue hypoxia. The other interventions should be completed after oxygen is administered.

The nurse is assessing a client at risk for shock. The client's systolic blood pressure is 20 mm Hg lower than baseline. Which intervention does the nurse perform first? a. Increase the IV fluid rate. b. Administer oxygen. c. Notify the health care provider. d. Place the client in high Fowler's position.

ANS: B The syndrome of hypovolemic shock results in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygenation; thus some cells are metabolizing anaerobically. Such metabolism increases the production of lactic acid, resulting in an increase in hydrogen ion production and acidosis. Other laboratory values associated with acidosis include increased creatinine (impaired renal function) and increased partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide. Urine specific gravity is not associated with acidosis.

The nurse is assessing a client who has hypovolemic shock. Which laboratory value indicates that the client is at risk for acidosis? a. Decreased serum creatinine b. Increased serum lactic acid c. Increased urine specific gravity d. Decreased partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide

ANS: A An increase in heart and respiratory rates (heart rate first) from the client's baseline and a slight increase in diastolic blood pressure may be the only objective manifestations of early shock. These findings do not correlate with other stages of shock.

The nurse is assessing a client who has septic shock. The following assessment data were collected: Baseline Data Today's Data Heart rate 75 beats/min 98 beats/min Blood pressure 125/65 mm Hg 128/75 mm Hg Respiratory rate 12 breaths/min 18 breaths/min Urinary output 40 mL/hr 40 mL/hr The nurse correlates these findings with which stage of shock? a. Early b. Compensatory c. Intermediate d. Refractory

ANS: D The late phase of sepsis-induced distributive shock is characterized by most of the same cardiovascular manifestations as any other type of shock. The distinguishing feature is lack of ability to clot blood, causing the client to bleed from areas of minor trauma and to bleed spontaneously. The other manifestations are associated with all types of shock.

The nurse is assessing a client who was admitted for treatment of shock. Which manifestation indicates that the client's shock is caused by sepsis? a. Hypotension b. Pale clammy skin c. Anxiety and confusion d. Oozing of blood at the IV site

ANS: C Certain conditions or treatments that cause immune suppression, such as having cancer and being treated with chemotherapeutic agents, aspirin, and certain antibiotics, can predispose a person to septic shock. The other client situations do not increase the client's risk for septic shock.

The nurse is assessing clients in the emergency department. Which client is at highest risk for developing septic shock? a. 25-year-old man who has irritable bowel syndrome b. 37-year-old woman who is 20% above ideal body weight c. 68-year-old woman who is being treated with chemotherapy d. 82-year-old man taking beta blockers for hypertension

ANS: A During the hyperdynamic phase of septic shock, because of alterations in the clotting cascade, clients begin to form numerous small clots. Heparin is administered to limit clotting and prevent consumption of clotting factors. The other medications would not be prescribed during the hyperdynamic phase of septic shock.

The nurse is caring for a client in the hyperdynamic phase of septic shock. Which medication does the nurse expect to be prescribed? a. Heparin sodium b. Vitamin K c. Corticosteroids d. Hetastarch (Hespan)

ANS: C In this irreversible phase, therapy is not effective in saving the client's life, even if the cause of shock is corrected and mean arterial pressure temporarily returns to normal. A discussion on palliative care should be considered. Rehabilitation or returning home is unlikely. The client with sustained tissue hypoxia is not a candidate for organ transplantation.

The nurse is caring for a client in the refractory stage of cardiogenic shock. Which intervention does the nurse consider? a. Admission to rehabilitation hospital for ambulatory retraining b. Collaboration with home care agency for return to home c. Discussion with family and provider regarding palliative care d. Enrollment in a cardiac transplantation program

ANS: D Anaphylaxis damages cells and causes release of large amounts of histamine and other inflammatory chemicals. This results in massive blood vessel dilation and increased capillary leak, which manifests as swelling. The other clinical manifestations do not relate to anaphylaxis or distributive shock.

The nurse is caring for a client who has had an anaphylactic event. Which priority question does the nurse ask to determine whether the client is experiencing distributive shock? a. "Is your blood pressure higher than usual?" b. "Are you having pain in your throat?" c. "Have you been vomiting?" d. "Are you usually this swollen?"

ANS: C IV therapy for fluid resuscitation is the primary intervention for hypovolemic shock. A dopamine hydrochloride drip is a secondary treatment if the client does not respond to fluids. Aminoglycosides and heparin are given to clients with septic shock

The nurse is caring for a client who has hypovolemic shock. After administering oxygen, what is the priority intervention for this client? a. Administer an aminoglycoside. b. Initiate a dopamine hydrochloride (Intropin) drip. c. Administer crystalloid fluids. d. Initiate an intravenous heparin drip.

ANS: A Distributive shock is the type of shock that occurs when blood volume is not lost from the body but is distributed to the interstitial tissues, where it cannot circulate and deliver oxygen. Neurally-induced distributive shock may be caused by pain, anesthesia, stress, spinal cord injury, or head trauma. The other clients are at risk for hypovolemic and cardiogenic shock.

The nurse is caring for multiple clients in the emergency department. The client with which condition is at highest risk for distributive shock? a. Severe head injury from a motor vehicle accident b. Diabetes insipidus from polycystic kidney disease c. Ischemic cardiomyopathy from severe coronary artery disease d. Vomiting of blood from a gastrointestinal ulcer

ANS: D Heart and respiratory rates increased from the client's baseline level or a slight increase in diastolic blood pressure may be the only objective manifestation of this early stage of shock. Catecholamine release occurs early in shock as a compensation for fluid loss; blood pressure will be normal. Early in shock, the client displays rapid, not slow, respirations. Dysrhythmias are a late sign of shock; they are related to lack of oxygen to the heart.

The nurse is caring for postoperative clients at risk for hypovolemic shock. Which condition represents an early symptom of shock? a. Hypotension b. Bradypnea c. Heart blocks d. Tachycardia

ANS: C Dopamine hydrochloride causes vasoconstriction that in turn increases cardiac output and mean arterial pressure, thereby improving tissue perfusion and oxygenation. Tachycardia is not a desired response but often occurs as a side effect.

The nurse is monitoring a client in hypovolemic shock who has been placed on a dopamine hydrochloride (Intropin) drip. Which manifestation is a desired response to this medication? a. Decrease in blood pressure b. Increase in heart rate c. Increase in cardiac output d. Decrease in mean arterial pressure

ANS: D When caring for any client, determining airway and respiratory status is the priority. The airway takes priority over obtaining IV access, applying the blood pressure cuff, and assessing for changes in the client's mental status.

When caring for an obtunded client admitted with shock of unknown origin, which action does the nurse take first? a. Obtain IV access and hang prescribed fluid infusions b. Apply the automatic blood pressure cuff c. Assess level of consciousness and pupil reaction to light d. Check the airway and respiratory status

ANS: A Therapy during the second (late) phase of septic shock is aimed at enhancing the blood's ability to clot. Enoxaparin would increase the client's risk of bleeding and therefore should not be administered during the last phase of septic shock. Administering clotting factors, plasma, platelets, and other blood products will assist the client's blood to clot. Intravenous insulin to control hyperglycemia and antibiotic therapy would continue in the late phases of septic shock.

The nurse is planning care for a client with late-phase septic shock. All of the following treatments have been prescribed. Which prescription does the nurse question? a. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg subcutaneous twice daily b. Transfusion of 2 units of fresh frozen plasma c. Regular insulin intravenous drip per protocol d. Cefazolin (Ancef) 1 g IV every 6 hours

ANS: A A decrease in urine output is a sensitive indicator of early shock. In severe shock, urine output is decreased (compared with fluid intake) or even absent. Alterations in temperature, irregular rhythms, and changes in bowel movements are not early signs of shock.

The nurse is planning discharge education for a client who had an exploratory laparotomy. Which nursing statement is appropriate when teaching the client to monitor for early signs of shock? a. "Monitor how much urine you void and report a decrease in the amount." b. "Take your temperature daily and report any below-normal body temperatures." c. "Assess your radial pulse every day and report an irregular rhythm." d. "Monitor your bowel movements and report ongoing constipation or diarrhea."

ANS: C Sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) must be protected from light to prevent degradation of the drug. It should be delivered via pump. This medication does not have any effect on respiratory rate. Hypertension is a sign of milrinone (Primacor) overdose.

The nurse is preparing to administer sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) to a client. Which important action related to the administration of this drug does the nurse implement? a. Assess the client's respiratory rate. b. Administer the medication with gravity tubing. c. Protect the medication from light with an opaque bag. d. Monitor for hypertensive crisis.

ANS: C Teach everyone to prevent dehydration by having adequate fluid intake during exercise or when in a hot and dry environment. Insensitive water loss increases in this type of environment. Heat causes vasodilation as well, also contributing to water loss. The other statements are not accurate.

The nurse is providing community education for clients at risk for dehydration. One client states, "We are not at risk because we live in a hot and dry climate." What is the nurse's best response? a. "You are still at risk but not as high a risk as those who live in hot and humid climates." b. "Any type of heat can cause peripheral vasoconstriction, which causes the body to lose water." c. "In a hot and dry environment, the body can lose an increased amount of water without your knowledge." d. "Even though you are not at risk, you should drink adequate fluids when you exercise."

ANS: B, E, F Daily temperatures, washing dishes in hot sudsy water or a dishwasher, and rinsing toothbrushes in liquid bleach or in the dishwasher are infection precautions for the immune compromised client. Clients at increased risk because of immune suppression need to wear a facemask when in large crowds or around ill people. Water need not be bottled but should not be used if it has been standing for longer than 15 minutes. This population is not restricted from pets but is only advised not to change pet litter boxes.

The nurse is providing health education to a client on immunosuppressant therapy. Which instructions does the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Wear a facemask at all times." b. "Take your temperature once a day." c. "Drink only bottled water." d. "Avoid any contact with pets." e. "Wash dishes with hot sudsy water." f. "Rinse your toothbrush in liquid laundry bleach."

ANS: B Cultures must be taken to identify the organism for more targeted antibiotic treatment before antibiotics are administered. Antibiotics are not administered until after all cultures are taken. A signed consent is not needed for medication administration. Monitoring the client's vital signs is important, but the antibiotic must be administered within 1 to 3 hours; timing is essential.

The nurse plans to administer an antibiotic to a client newly admitted with septic shock. What action does the nurse take first? a. Administer the antibiotic immediately b. Ensure that blood cultures were drawn c. Obtain signature for informed consent d. Take the client's vital signs

ANS: A Establishing an airway is the priority in all emergency situations. Although administering Plasmanate and normal saline, and typing and crossmatching for 4 units of PRBCs are important actions, airway always takes priority.

The nurse reviews the medical record of a client with hemorrhagic shock, which contains the following information: -Pulse 140 beats/min and thready -Blood pressure 60/40 mm Hg -Respirations 40/min and shallow -ABG respiratory acidosis -Lactate level 7 mmol/L All of these provider prescriptions are given for the client. Which does the nurse carry out first? a. Notify anesthesia for endotracheal intubation. b. Give Plasmanate 1 unit now c. Give normal saline solution 250 mL/hr d. Type and crossmatch for 4 units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs)

ANS: A Vital sign trends must be taken into consideration; a BP of 90/60 mm Hg may be normal for this client. Calling the surgeon is not necessary at this point, and increasing IV fluids is not indicated. The same equipment should be used when vital signs are taken postoperatively.

The nursing assistant is concerned about a postoperative client with blood pressure (BP) of 90/60 mm Hg, heart rate of 80 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min. What does the supervising nurse do? a. Compare these vital signs with the last several readings b. Request that the surgeon see the client c. Increase the rate of intravenous fluids d. Reassess vital signs using different equipment

ANS: C Signs of systemic inflammatory response syndrome, which precedes sepsis, include rapid respiratory rate, leukocytosis, and tachycardia. In the early stage of septic shock, the client is usually warm and febrile. Hypotension does not develop until later in septic shock due to compensatory mechanisms. Respiratory alkalosis occurs early in shock because of an increased respiratory rate.

What typical sign/symptom indicates the early stage of septic shock? a. Pallor and cool skin b. Blood pressure 84/50 mm Hg c. Tachypnea and tachycardia d. respiratory acidosis

ANS: B A compensatory response to shock is vasoconstriction. Initially, the diastolic pressure increases but systolic pressure remains the same. As a result, the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures (pulse pressure), is smaller or "narrower." When interventions are inadequate and shock worsens, systolic pressure decreases as cardiac output decreases. This causes the pulse pressure to narrow even further, indicating that shock is progressing. Although an increase in urine output usually signals improvement, a change of 1 mL/hr is within the margin of measurement error and is meaningless in this situation.

Which change in laboratory value or clinical manifestations in a client with hypovolemic shock indicates to the nurse that current therapy may need to be changed? a. Urine output increases from 5 mL/hour to 6 mL/hour b. Pulse pressure decreases from 28 mm Hg to 22 mm Hg c. Serum potassium level increases from 3.6 mEq/L to 3.9 mEq/L d. Core body temperature increases from 98.2° F (36.8° C) to 98.8° F (37.1° C)

ANS: A, D, E The client who is unrestrained in a motor vehicle accident is prone to multiple trauma and bleeding. Surgical clients are at high risk for hypovolemic shock owing to fluid loss and hemorrhage. Older adult clients are prone to shock; a gastrointestinal virus results in fluid losses. Unless injured or working in excessive heat, the construction worker and the athlete are not at risk for hypovolemic shock; they may be at risk for dehydration.

Which clients are at immediate risk for hypovolemic shock? (Select all that apply.) a. Unrestrained client in motor vehicle accident b. Construction worker c. Athlete d. Surgical intensive care client e. 85-year-old with gastrointestinal virus

ANS: D The manifestations of hypotension, pale and clammy skin, and decreased urine output are associated with any type of shock, including hypovolemic shock and septic shock. Sepsis and septic shock, however, are associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation, which consumes clotting factors and leaves the client at high risk for hemorrhage. One of the earliest manifestations of septic shock is bleeding from any area of nonintact skin, including IV insertion sites.

Which clinical manifestation in a client alerts the nurse to the probability of septic shock instead of hypovolemic shock? a. Hypotension b. Pale, clammy skin c. Decreased urine output d. Oozing of blood at the IV site

ANS: B Low-grade fever and mild hypotension indicate very early sepsis, but with treatment, the probability of recovery is high. Localized erythema and edema indicate local infection. A low oxygen saturation rate and decreased cognition indicate active (not early) sepsis. Reduced urinary output and increased respiratory rate indicate severe sepsis.

Which clinical symptoms in a postoperative client indicate early sepsis with an excellent recovery rate if treated? a. Localized erythema and edema b. Low-grade fever and mild hypotension c. Low oxygen saturation and decreased cognition d. Reduced urinary output and increased respiratory rate

ANS: C Rationale: Both reduced urine output and thirst are stimulated by a decreasing circulating blood volume. When people can respond to thirst by drinking, the action compensates temporarily by increasing circulating fluid volume. Decreased or absent urine output compensates by preventing a greater fluid loss. The fluid that would have been lost from the body as urine is retained. This is why hourly urine output measurements are such a sensitive indicator for whether shock is improving or progressing. Edema and weight gain are not compensations for circulating blood volume. Confusion and lethargy are responses to circulating blood volume, not compensation to improve it. Increasing pulse and respiratory rates compensate for hypoxia, not for reduced volume.

Which manifestations of shock are a result of compensatory mechanisms to maintain circulating blood volume? a. Edema and weight gain b. Confusion and lethargy c. Decreased urine output and thirst d. Increased pulse and respiratory rates

ANS: D The RN with current intensive care experience who is not caring for a postoperative client would be an appropriate assignment. Care of the unstable client with intubation and mechanical ventilation is not within the scope of practice for the LPN/LVN. A client who is experiencing septic shock is too complex for the new RN. Although the RN who is also caring for the post-CABG client is experienced, this assignment will put the post-CABG client at risk for MRSA infection.

Which nurse should be assigned to care for an intubated client who has septic shock as the result of a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection? a. The LPN/LVN who has 20 years of experience b. The new RN who recently finished orienting and is working independently with moderately complex clients c. The RN who will also be caring for a client who had coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery 12 hours ago d. The RN with 2 years of experience in intensive care

ANS: B Fluid shifts from vascular to intra-abdominal may cause decreased circulating blood volume and poor tissue perfusion. Volume depletion is only one reason why a person may require a blood transfusion; anemia is another. The client receiving a blood transfusion does not have as high a risk as the client with severe ascites. Myocardial infarction results in tissue necrosis in the heart muscle; no blood or fluid losses occur. Owing to excess antidiuretic hormone secretion, the client with SIADH will retain fluid and therefore is not at risk for hypovolemic shock.

Which problem in the clients below best demonstrates the highest risk for hypovolemic shock? a. Client receiving blood transfusion b. Client with severe ascites c. Client with myocardial infarction d. Client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion

ANS: C The post-kidney transplant client will need to take lifelong immune suppressant therapy and is at risk for infection from internal and external organisms. Pernicious anemia is related to lack of vitamin B12, not to bone marrow failure (aplastic anemia), which would place the client at risk for infection. Inflammation of the pericardial sac is an inflammatory condition that does not pose a risk for septic shock. Although owning pets, especially cats and reptiles, poses a risk for infection, the immune-suppressed kidney transplant client has a very high risk for infection, sepsis, and death.

Which problem places a client at highest risk for sepsis? a. Pernicious anemia b. Pericarditis c. Post kidney transplant d. Client owns an iguana

ANS: D The skin forms the first barrier to prevent entry of organisms into the body; this client is at very high risk for sepsis and death. Although the client with kidney failure has an increased risk for infection, his skin is intact, unlike the client with burn injury. Although the liver acts as a filter for pathogens, the client with cirrhosis has intact skin, unlike the burned client. The client with lung cancer may be at risk for increased secretions and infection, but risk is not as high as for a client with open skin.

Which problem places a person at highest risk for septic shock? a. Kidney failure b. Cirrhosis c. Lung cancer d. 40% burn injury