shoo sheesh

39. As reproductive strategies have evolved in plants, their: A) gametes have become progressively smaller. B) gametes have become progressively larger. C) seeds have become progressively smaller. D) spores have become progressively smaller. E) sperm have become progressively larger.

A) gametes have become progressively smaller

37. The most important reason that Mendel's law of independent assortment is not universally true is that: A) genes are carried on chromosomes. B) genes are almost always pleiotropic. C) some genes are sex-linked. D) half of your genes are inherited from your mother and half from your father. E) genes are made of DNA.

A) genes are carried on chromosomes.

9. A bacterium is Gram-positive only if it: A) has a layer of peptidoglycan on the outside of the cell wall. B) has a layer of glycoproteins beneath the cell wall. C) maintains its natural color when dye is added. D) has no pili on its outermost surface. E) has a layer of cytoplasm on the outside of the cell wall.

A) has a layer of peptidoglycan on the outside of the cell wall.

26. What life history trade-off characterizes big-bang reproducers, such as salmon? A) high parental investment and a large number of offspring B) an exceptionally high reproductive investment and early death C) production of a few large eggs and better survival of offspring D) delayed reproduction and great longevity E) delayed reproduction and significant growth

A) high parental investment and a large number of offspring

44. The threads that make up the mycelium of a fungal body are called: A) hyphae. B) hydra. C) fruiting bodies. D) yeast. E) thallium.

A) hyphae

23. The main differences between mammals and birds that affect their mating systems are that: A) in mammals, the fertilized egg develops internally and the female lactates, whereas in birds, the fertilized egg develops externally and no lactation occurs. B) in mammals, the fertilized egg develops externally and the female lactates, whereas in birds, the fertilized egg develops internally and no lactation occurs. C) mammals have hair and four legs, whereas birds have feathers and two legs. D) in mammals, the fertilized egg develops internally and the parents are land-bound, whereas in birds, the fertilized egg develops externally and the parents can fly. E) in mammals, the parents are land-bound and the female lactates, whereas in birds, the parent can fly and no lactation occurs

A) in mammals, the fertilized egg develops internally and the female lactates, whereas in birds, the fertilized egg develops externally and no lactation occurs

5. Most species of animals are: A) invertebrates. B) carnivores. C) radially symmetrical. D) autotrophs. E) vertebrates.

A) invertebrates

3. In what order do the following taxa appear in the fossil record? A) invertebrates; fish; land plants; amphibians B) invertebrates; amphibians; fish; land plants C) land plants; invertebrates; amphibians; fish D) land plants; invertebrates; fish; amphibians E) invertebrates; fish; amphibians; land plants

A) invertebrates; fish; land plants; amphibians

27. A population of organisms that breaks away and becomes different from the original population through isolation and separate evolution might eventually become a separate: A) species. B) class. C) diversity. D) genus. E) order.

A) species.

10. Collar cells are found in: A) sponges. B) clams. C) shrimp. D) flatworms. E) segmented worms

A) sponges

30. In evolutionary time, the nuclear membrane was probably first formed by: A) the fusion of folds of the plasma membrane that surrounded the cell. B) the endoplasmic reticulum. C) bacteria that had invaded the cell. D) protists that had invaded the cell. E) the accumulation of extra phospholipids in the cytoplasm of the cell.

A) the fusion of folds of the plasma membrane that surrounded the cell.

35. Phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder that causes: A) the inability to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine. B) the inability to convert tyrosine to phenylalanine. C) too many copies of phenylalanine to be added to protein chains. D) too few copies of tyrosine to be added to protein chains. E) the buildup of tyrosine in the system.

A) the inability to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine.

32. A population's survivorship curve is a downward-sloping straight line when: A) the mortality rate is constant, regardless of age. B) juvenile mortality is extremely high. C) the mortality rate decreases with age. D) the birth rate exceeds the death rate. E) the mortality rate increases with age.

A) the mortality rate is constant, regardless of age

3. The undersides of the arms of a sea star are carpeted with ___________________ that extend and contract in waves, grasping and releasing the substrate as the animal glides along. A) tube feet B) radula C) cnidocysts D) belly feet E) cilia

A) tube feet

33. Organisms with a slow development and a high investment in their young will most likely have a __________ survivorship curve. A) type 1 B) type 2 C) type 3 D) type 1/type 2 hybrid E) type 2/type 3 hybrid

A) type 1

40. Viral DNA is replicated by: A) using the host's metabolic machinery and energy. B) reverse transcriptase. C) viral DNA. D) mitosis. E) conjugation

A) using the host's metabolic machinery and energy.

57. Homo neanderthalensis were about the same height as Homo sapiens, but they: A) were more robust and muscular. B) were slighter and weaker. C) had skeletal features that were more adapted to life in trees. D) had much smaller heads, even though they were equal in intelligence. E) walked on all-fours instead of upright, on two legs.

A) were more robust and muscular

20. The human disease elephantiasis is caused by worms from which phylum? A)Nematoda B) Platyhelminthes C) Annelida D) Cnidaria E) Arthropoda

A)Nematoda

31. Which statement describes disruptive selection? A) A cattle breeder selects the largest male calf to be the sire for his next herd. B) Coho salmon eggs tend to be fertilized by the smallest or largest males. C) Female starlings that lay four or five eggs per clutch have more surviving young than those with larger or smaller clutches. D) The most common color form of an insect experiences the heaviest predation. E) Female long-tailed widowbirds prefer males with the longest tails.

B) Coho salmon eggs tend to be fertilized by the smallest or largest males.

46. Which statement about HIV is false? A) HIV mutates easily. B) HIV has no surface glycoproteins. C) HIV attacks the white blood cells. D) HIV is a retrovirus. E) HIV can remain dormant in a host for many years.

B) HIV has no surface glycoproteins.

34. Which statement best explains the finding that the nuclear DNA of house cats and African wild cats has a very high degree of similarity? A) Convergent morphological evolution has occurred. B) House cats and African wild cats share a recent common ancestor. C) Divergent morphological evolution has occurred. D) House cats and African wild cats are both members of the family Felidae. E) Environmental pressures were the same.

B) House cats and African wild cats share a recent common ancestor.

47. Why is the carrying capacity for humans difficult to estimate? A) No one is certain about the size of the current world population. B) Humans have used technology to increase the carrying capacity for our population in a variety of ways. C) All nations currently have more available resources than are required to support their needs. D) Human populations never alter their fundamental growth properties. E) Carrying capacity is a concept that only applies to wild animals; it does not apply to human populations

B) Humans have used technology to increase the carrying capacity for our population in a variety of ways.

19. Which scenario is the most likely to result in natural selection that leads to adaptive evolution in a population of humans? A) Individuals in Australia only reproduce by random mating. B) Individuals colonize another planet and become isolated from earth. C) A tsunami kills hundreds of thousands of people in Southeast Asia. D) A new influenza strain becomes an epidemic and kills all individuals over age 50. E) Mortality due to heart disease increases to 80% in middle-aged Americans.

B) Individuals colonize another planet and become isolated from earth.

47. Which statement about HIV is false? A) It mutates frequently. B) It attacks red blood cells. C) It is a virus. D) It is derived from a simian immunodeficiency virus. E) It contains RNA but not DNA.

B) It attacks red blood cells

14. _________ is the use of arbitrary symbols to represent complex concepts and a system of rules that dictates how the symbols can be used to convey ideas. A) Visualization B) Language C) Communication D) Ritual E) Deception

B) Language

41. Which statement is an example of evolution by natural selection that has taken place over the last few decades in a manner that has allowed scientists to observe the evolutionary process? A) Insect wings evolved by first functioning as thermoregulatory organs before gradually becoming flight organs. B) Many strains of the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus have become resistant to penicillin. C) Blood-sucking bats retained their molars, even though they have a completely liquid diet. D) Honeycreepers in Hawaii have radiated into niches occupied by parrots and hummingbirds in other areas. E) The forelimbs of humans, horses, bats, and porpoises all contain the same bones, even though they are used for very different functions.

B) Many strains of the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus have become resistant to penicillin.

27. In ABO blood group inheritance, what is the relationship between the alleles A and B (sometimes written as IA and IB)? A) They are pleiotropic to each other. B) They are incompletely dominant to each other. C) They are codominant to each other. D) They are polygenic to each other. E) A alleles are dominant; B alleles are recessive

C) They are codominant to each other.

12. Which fact correctly distinguishes the archaea from other organisms? A) They are the only prokaryotic organisms. B) They evolved from modern-day eukaryotes. C) They have cell walls composed of unique polysaccharides. D) They live in moderate environments. E) They are the only group that lacks organelles.

C) They have cell walls composed of unique polysaccharides.

15. Which statement about conifers is false? A) They have thick outer layers of bark that protect them from insect predators. B) They exude sticky pitch that engulfs and smothers insect predators. C) They produce seeds that emit a foul odor to ward off predators. D) They commonly have needle-shaped leaves. E) They have the greatest number of species and a larger geographic range than all other gymnosperms.

C) They produce seeds that emit a foul odor to ward off predators.

39. Which statement is true of giant tortoises? A) They evolved in environments with high mortality risk. B) They tend to reproduce early and often. C) They tend to age later and have long life spans. D) They evolved in environments with a high hazard factor. E) They have a high risk of death at any age.

C) They tend to age later and have long life spans.

2. What could be said of our sense of taste? A) Individuals have widely different tastes that contribute to the variety of our species. B) Taste is a matter of arbitrary preference. C) What tastes good to us is dictated by our nutritional needs. D) How we define what tastes good or bad is fundamentally a learned behavior. E) There is no accounting for taste in evolution.

C) What tastes good to us is dictated by our nutritional needs.

6. You find a green leafy moss growing in the forest. It is unquestionably: A) an angiosperm. B) a gymnosperm. C) a bryophyte. D) diploid. E) polyploid.

C) a bryophyte.

1. What is the best definition of a population? A) a group of species that share the same habitat B) a group of individuals of the same species that have the potential to interbreed C) a group of individuals of the same species that live in the same general location and have the potential to interbreed D) a group of individuals of related species that live in the same general location and have the potential to interbreed E) a group of individuals of the same species that live in the same general location and have the same genotypes

C) a group of individuals of the same species that live in the same general location and have the potential to interbreed

28. A type 3 survivorship curve would be expected in a species in which: A) mortality occurs at a constant rate over the life span. B) parental care is extensive. C) a large number of offspring are produced, but parental care is minimal. D) mortality rate is quite low for the young. E) the life span is very short.

C) a large number of offspring are produced, but parental care is minimal.

22. Polygynous species: A) are usually sexually monomorphic. B) are often asexual. C) are usually sexually dimorphic, with males that are larger and more highly ornamented. D) are usually sexually dimorphic, with females that are larger and more highly ornamented. E) usually employ external fertilization

C) are usually sexually dimorphic, with males that are larger and more highly ornamented.

18. Several species of ________ are added to milk to produce yogurt. A) algae B) viruses C) bacteria D) archaea E) amoeba

C) bacteria

9. When a sudden change in the environment, such as a flood or fire, reduces the size of a population, the survivors' collective gene pool will be only a limited representation of what was present before the disaster. This phenomenon is called the: A) Hardy-Weinberg effect. B) the founder effect. C) bottleneck effect. D) culling effect. E) genetic load.

C) bottleneck effect.

20. Pathogenic bacteria are bacteria that: A) feed on organic chemicals. B) feed on inorganic chemicals. C) cause disease. D) feed on each other. E) use energy from the sun to create sugars.

C) cause disease.

17. Classification is an important aspect of understanding and describing the many life forms on earth. In their classification scheme, biologists use different "ranks" that are more or less inclusive. Which of the following correctly lists these ranks from most to least inclusive? A) phylum; class; genus; family; species B) kingdom; order; class; genus; species C) class; order; family; genus; species D) kingdom; domain; family; genus; species E) order; class; family; genus; species

C) class; order; family; genus; species

4. Human beings: A) contain more human cells than microbial cells. B) contain more protist cells than bacterial cells. C) contain more microbial cells than human cells. D) are more closely related to viruses than to their siblings. E) are more closely related to bacteria than archaea

C) contain more microbial cells than human cells.

2. The dry, waxy layer that covers the leaves and stems of plants is known as the: A) roots. B) vasculature. C) cuticle. D) prothallus. E) sporangia

C) cuticle.

6. All of the living organisms that we can see with the naked eye are in the: A) kingdom Eukarya. B) kingdom Animalia. C) domain Eukarya. D) domain Archaea. E) phylum Animalia

C) domain Eukarya.

30. Which choice best exemplifies an organism with a type 1 survivorship curve? A) oysters B) annual plants C) elephants D) sea turtles E) mackerel

C) elephants

22. The stamens of a flowering plant are divided into two separate parts. The long, stalk-like structure is the _________, and the pollen-producing bodies on the tips are the __________. A) stem; anthers B) filament; carpels C) filament; anthers D) stem; ovaries E) stigma; style

C) filament; anthers

25. You are eating in a French restaurant, and you read that snails are on the menu. Being a knowledgeable biologist, you inform the other members at the table that this restaurant is serving: A) cephalopods. B) bivalves. C) gastropods. D) nautiluses. E) annelids.

C) gastropods

13. A storm washed five female and five male tiger beetles from the mainland to a small island that had no previous population of tiger beetles. In tiger beetles, having six spots (A) is dominant to having four spots (a). All ten beetles had six spots; however, one male and one female were heterozygous for the four-spot trait. If six of the beetles died without reproducing, the ratio of the genotypes could be quite different in subsequent generations. This is an example of: A) diploidy. B) gene flow. C) genetic drift. D) disruptive selection. E) stabilizing selection.

C) genetic drift.

39. The _________________ on the surface of a virus determine(s) which host species the virus can infect and which tissues the host species can enter. A) capsid B) envelope C) glycoproteins D) phospholipids E) plasma membrane

C) glycoproteins

31. Because it is possible for a female to mate with multiple males, any of whom could be the father, male mammals and birds will always: A) invest less in the care of the offspring. B) invest more in the care of the offspring. C) have some degree of paternity uncertainty. D) spend less energy in mating. E) be the choosier sex in mating.

C) have some degree of paternity uncertainty

35. All mammals have hair because they inherited that trait from a common ancestor. Features that are inherited from a common ancestor are called: A) analogous traits. B) convergent features. C) homologous features. D) divergent traits. E) monophyletic traits

C) homologous features.

40. Ninety-six percent of the base-pair sequences in chimps and humans are the same. This finding indicates that: A) humans are more closely related to chimps than any two mice are related to each other. B) 96% of the genes in humans have identical counterparts in chimps. C) humans are more closely related to chimps than to any other species on earth. D) 4% of the DNA we carry contains mutations. E) 96% of the proteins produced by chimps are identical to the proteins produced by humans.

C) humans are more closely related to chimps than to any other species on earth.

22. All of these statements about Streptococcus pyogenes are true except: A) it can cause the "flesh-eating disease," necrotizing fasciitis. B) it is a normal part of the bacterial community of the nose and mouth. C) it is a harmful pathogen under normal conditions. D) it is the bacterial agent that causes strep throat. E) some strains are responsible for the disease scarlet fever

C) it is a harmful pathogen under normal conditions.

36. Phenylketonuria is a good example of the environmental effects on phenotype because: A) some people carry two copies of a mutant version of the gene that is supposed to produce the enzyme that converts phenylalanine to tyrosine. B) its adverse effects can be avoided by increasing the amount of phenylalanine in the diet. C) its adverse effects can be avoided by limiting the amount of phenylalanine in the diet. D) its adverse effects can be avoided by increasing the amount of tyrosine in the diet. E) its beneficial effects can be increased by limiting the amount of phenylalanine in the diet

C) its adverse effects can be avoided by limiting the amount of phenylalanine in the diet.

6. The phenotype of an organism is: A) its genetic makeup. B) the form it achieves as an adult. C) its physical characteristics. D) the chronological expression of its genes. E) a hypothesis of its evolutionary origins.

C) its physical characteristics.

29. The same genetic condition that causes sickle-cell anemia can also protect against: A) HIV. B) hemophilia. C) malaria. D) cholera. E) yellow fever.

C) malaria.

8. In a particular population, over the course of several dozen generations, an adenine was replaced by a guanine at a particular noncoding locus in the DNA base sequence. The evolutionary mechanism responsible for this change was: A) genetic drift. B) migration. C) mutation. D) directional selection. E) disruptive selection.

C) mutation.

48. The feeding structure of a fungus is called a: A) mushroom. B) fruiting body. C) mycelium. D) spore. E) chitin.

C) mycelium.

29. In amphibians, it is generally the case that: A) the female invests more energy in the care of offspring than the male. B) the male invests more energy in the care of offspring than the female. C) neither the female nor the male invest much energy in the care of offspring. D) the offspring are so numerous that, no matter how much energy is expended, it is never enough, and some of the offspring inevitably die. E) both males and females invest significant energy in the care of offspring, but females invest more.

C) neither the female nor the male invest much energy in the care of offspring

11. If a gene is fixed in a population: A) it cannot undergo mutation. B) one allele exhibits complete dominance over the other allele for that gene. C) only one allele appears for that gene in that population. D) it causes the organism to be infertile. E) it is located near the centromere on the chromosome, reducing its ability to recombine.

C) only one allele appears for that gene in that population.

6. Evolution occurs: A) only through natural selection. B) only when the environment is changing. C) only via natural selection, genetic drift, migration, or mutation. D) almost entirely because of directional selection. E) by altering physical traits but not behavioral traits.

C) only via natural selection, genetic drift, migration, or mutation.

28. Which term refers to the genetic control of continuously varying traits such as height? A) multi-allelic B) codominant C) polygenic D) incomplete dominance E) pleiotropic

C) polygenic

6. The vast majority of invertebrates are: A) carnivores. B) terrestrial. C) protostomes. D) parasitic. E) asexually reproductive

C) protostomes.

24. Which organism is not a bivalve? A) clam B) oyster C) scallop D) mussel E) barnacle

C) scallop

38. The larvae of the gooseneck barnacle and brine shrimp display similar morphological features, despite differences observed in the adult forms. The similarities present in the larval forms suggest that: A) evolution was "descent with modification." B) the results of evolution could be viewed as a "tree of life." C) similarities among embryos can infer relationships between species. D) changes in genes regulate the development of organisms. E) the genes that regulate development are highly conserved.

C) similarities among embryos can infer relationships between species

34. Protists that spread without any individual cells moving, but instead by adding new cells at the edge of the colony are called: A) green algae. B) phytoplankton. C) slime molds. D) amoebas. E) Plasmodium

C) slime molds.

45. Which phrase would characterize a pre-industrialized nation? A) low birth and death rates B) high levels of employment C) slow population growth D) reliable health care that is readily available E) efficient food production and distribution

C) slow population growth

34. "Natural selection decreases genetic variability in a population." This statement is: A) always true. B) never true. C) sometimes true, especially in cases of stabilizing selection. D) sometimes true, especially in cases of disruptive selection. E) sometimes true, especially in cases of frequency-dependent selection.

C) sometimes true, especially in cases of stabilizing selection.

20. Artificial selection was used on corn to produce a single strain of corn with increased growth rates and greater resistance to a fungus. Although farmers have continued to select for these traits, the productivity of this strain is no longer increasing. This suggests that: A) the population size has been decreasing. B) artificial selection is not as strong as natural selection. C) the corn population has been weakened by artificial selection. D) all or most of the natural variation for these traits has been eliminated. E) long-term disruptive selection may lead to speciation.

C) the corn population has been weakened by artificial selection.

19. In the oscillating cycle of growth seen in Canadian lynx and snowshoe hare populations, the hare population tends to grow when: A) lynx begin to reproduce at higher rates. B) lynx prey upon too many hares. C) the lynx population crashes. D) seasons change from fall to winter. E) seasons change from spring to summer

C) the lynx population crashes.

29. Successful wind pollination usually requires: A) large, colorful flowers. B) the wind out of the north. C) the relative proximity of individuals to one another. D) the release of small amounts of pollen. E) the wind out of the south.

C) the relative proximity of individuals to one another.

47. You bite into your favorite late night studying snack, which is mushroom cheese pizza, and think to yourself, "What exactly am I eating?" Which part of a fungus do you have smothered with cheese on your pizza? A) the extensive grouping of hyphae into the mycelium B) the non-reproductive thallus C) the short-lived reproductive structure called a fruiting body D) the rhizoids E) an aggregation of spores formed into a club-shaped structure

C) the short-lived reproductive structure called a fruiting body

11. Populations that exhibit logistic growth still exhibit exponential growth. This statement is: A) false; populations exhibiting logistic growth show exponential growth when the population size is greater than the environment's carrying capacity. B) false; logistic growth occurs first, and as the population gets used to the food supply, exponential growth occurs. C) true; populations exhibiting logistic growth go through a period of exponential growth before growth rates level off around zero. D) true; logistic growth is another term for exponential growth. E) true; however, this can only occur in different populations of the same organism because one population cannot exhibit both types of growth.

C) true; populations exhibiting logistic growth go through a period of exponential growth before growth

4. When does the growth rate of a population equal zero? A) when N/K is one-half B) when N/K is zero *C) when deaths equal births D) when deaths exceed births E) when N is one

C) when deaths equal births

18. In snapdragons, there is an allele for flower color, CW, that produces no pigment. A plant with the genotype CWCW will produce _____________ flowers. A) red B) pink C) white D) purple E) no

C) white

40. Cotton grass (Eriophorum) produces small seeds that are attached to a fluffy mass of "cotton" hairs. These seeds are most likely dispersed by: A) bats. B) birds. C) wind. D) water. E) propulsion

C) wind.

26. In the United States, approximately 25 million pounds of antibiotics, more than eight times as much as used in human medicine, are used in: A) waste cleanup. B) global warming. C) ecological research. D) agriculture. E) forestry.

D) agriculture.

15. Although coral polyps can catch prey using their cnidocysts, they obtain most of their nutrition from _____________, called zooxanthellae, which live symbiotically with the polyps. A) lichens B) fungi C) medusae D) algae E) sponges

D) algae

44. Cross-cultural studies are important in studying behavioral biology because they: A) allow us to determine the extent to which culture has shaped behavior. B) allow us to compare humans to monkeys C) reveal how unique human behaviors are from the behaviors of other animals. D) allow us to evaluate the hereditary component of behaviors by revealing behaviors that persist throughout different cultures. E) reveal how diverse human biology is through the many distinct cultures that have developed through human history

D) allow us to evaluate the hereditary component of behaviors by revealing behaviors that persist throughout different cultures.

11. Which example illustrates kin selection? A) a female goose that preferentially retrieves a large model egg outside of her nest instead of a smaller real egg B) a male lion that kills unrelated cubs upon taking over a pride C) a vampire bat that shares a blood meal with an unrelated, starving bat D) an older female squirrel that sounds an alarm call to warn her relatives of an approaching aerial predator E) a male ground squirrel that leaves the colony where it was born upon reaching maturity

D) an older female squirrel that sounds an alarm call to warn her relatives of an approaching aerial predator

16. Which of these is the most diverse group of plants? A) gymnosperms B) ferns C) nontracheophytes D) angiosperms E) conifers

D) angiosperms

43. The closest relative to fungi are ___________, which diverged about _____________ years ago. A) plants; 1 trillion B) bacteria; 10 million C) protists; 100 million D) animals; 1 billion E) archaea; 1 million

D) animals; 1 billion

22. Segmented worms (annelids), roundworms (nematodes), and flatworms (platyhelminthes): A) are a monophyletic group. B) are all asexual. C) are all internal parasites. D) are all bilaterally symmetrical. E) are all chordates

D) are all bilaterally symmetrical.

36. Analogous features are problematic when constructing evolutionary trees because they: A) are based on DNA instead of comparative anatomy. B) are based on comparative anatomy instead of embryology. C) diverge and eventually converge. D) are the result of natural selection instead of common ancestry. E) are the result of common ancestry instead of natural selection

D) are the result of natural selection instead of common ancestry

23. Gonorrhea and syphilis are examples of sexually transmitted diseases caused by: A) protists. B) fungi. C) viruses. D) bacteria. E) arthropods.

D) bacteria

32. Which group would be placed nearest the fungi in an evolutionary tree based on DNA sequences? A) animals B) plants C) archaea D) bacteria E) protists.

D) bacteria

2. The most fundamental groups of organisms on the planet are: A) plants, animals, and bacteria. B) plants, animals, and eukarya. C) bacteria, animals, plants, and eukarya. D) bacteria, archaea, and eukarya. E) bacteria, archaea, and protista

D) bacteria, archaea, and eukarya.

28. Flowering plants have evolved to attract animals to assist them in pollination. Which animal is a common pollinator of flowering plants? A) eagle B) ant C) sparrow D) bat E) dragonfly

D) bat

10. Natural populations fluctuate through time. One of the forces causing variation in population size is variation in the physical environment, which can have both direct and indirect effects on populations. Variation in population size linked to environmental factors (aside from those that occur daily or seasonally) is likely to: A) be predictable and constant. B) be density-dependent. C) affect the biotic potential exponentially. D) be irregular, perhaps even random. E) track the logistic growth model.

D) be irregular, perhaps even random.

10. Early seed plants were pollinated by: A) bees. B) wind. C) butterflies. D) birds. E) still water.

D) birds.

42. Monogamy, a relatively rare system outside of the birds, evolves when: A) males compete for females who have higher parental investment. B) females compete for males who have higher parental investment. C) both males and females have low parental investment. D) both males and females have high and equal parental investment. E) the number of females was low in the population

D) both males and females have high and equal parental investment.

14. Autosomal recessive traits: A) occur more frequently in females than males. B) occur more frequently in males than females. C) occur in one-quarter of all offspring. D) can skip generations. E) are exhibited only in the offspring of two heterozygous parents.

D) can skip generations.

11. The biological species concept: A) states that any organisms that are biologically similar constitute a species. B) states that a species is any group that shares similar DNA. C) is the best and most accurate species concept. D) defines a species as any group of actually or potentially interbreeding species that produce viable offspring. E) states that species that live together will eventually start breeding. .

D) defines a species as any group of actually or potentially

21. Under the right conditions, which type of selection is most likely to lead to the formation of new species? A) stabilizing B) convergent C) sexual D) disruptive E) directional

D) disruptive.

38. The evolution of flowers and fruit corresponds with the evolution of: A) seeds. B) pollen. C) sporophytes. D) double fertilization. E) cuticles.

D) double fertilization.

23. The contribution of a genotype or phenotype to the genetic composition of subsequent generations relative to other genotypes or phenotypes best describes which of the following concepts? A) evolution B) migration C) the founder effect D) fitness E) natural selection

D) fitness

15. The waggle dance is used: A) for mate choice in black widow spiders. B) for mate choice in grebes. C) for kin selection in Belding's ground squirrels. D) for food location in honeybees. E) as a warning system.

D) for food location in honeybees.

39. The idea that evolutionary change is slow and continuous is best described as: A) punctuated equilibrium. B) geographic isolation. C) natural selection. D) gradual change. E) microevolution

D) gradual change

37. When a male fish defends his nest: A) he insures that only he will fertilize the eggs in the nest. B) it has no effect on the identity of the males that fertilize the eggs in the nest. C) he only protects the eggs from predators. D) he increases the percentage of eggs in the nest that he will fertilize. E) he only protects the females from predators.

D) he increases the percentage of eggs in the nest that he will fertilize

4. Which phrase best illustrates an instinctive behavior in cats? A) being afraid of dogs B) scratching at the door to get in C) knowing when it is time to get fed D) hunting and killing prey E) meowing to be let outside.

D) hunting and killing prey

12. The sum of an individual's indirect and direct fitness is called _______. A) kin selection B) reciprocal altruism C) selfish behavior D) inclusive fitness E) exclusive fitness

D) inclusive fitness

16. A situation in which the heterozygote offspring of two homozygotes shows a phenotype intermediate between those of the parents is called: A) a test-cross. B) polygenic traits. C) multiple allelism. D) incomplete dominance. E) pleiotropy.

D) incomplete dominance

34. The failure of a seedling to turn green if grown in the dark is an example of: A) interaction between codominant alleles. B) pleiotropy. C) continuous variation. D) interaction between genotype and environment. E) incomplete dominance.

D) interaction between genotype and environment.

39. When crossing-over occurs, _______________ genes usually stay together. A) sex-linked B) multi-allelic C) independently assorting D) linked E) pleiotropic

D) linked

26. Which of these is a way that a male fruit fly can increase reproductive success? A) invest more resources in fewer offspring B) put more effort into parenting C) put less effort into mating D) mate with as many females as possible E) produce more sperm cells

D) mate with as many females as possible

32. Which list shows the proper sequence of events that occurs when a flowering plant reproduces? A) meiosis; fertilization; growth of the pollen tube; germination B) mitosis; embryo formation; pollination; seed development C) growth of pollen tube; pollination; germination; fertilization D) meiosis; pollination; fertilization; embryo formation E) fertilization; meiosis; nuclear fusion; endosperm formation

D) meiosis; pollination; fertilization; embryo formation

18. Two parrots mate. Both the male and female have identical coloration and identical body sizes. Based on this information, you would expect them to be: A) polygamous and sexually dimorphic. B) monogamous and sexually dimorphic. C) polygamous and sexually monomorphic. D) monogamous and sexually monomorphic. E) monogamous, with the female making the nest and caring for the young.

D) monogamous and sexually monomorphic.

3. At the time life first appeared on earth, the atmosphere contained large amounts of carbon dioxide, methane, ammonia, hydrogen, hydrogen sulfide, and: A) oxygen. B) helium. C) ozone. D) nitrogen. E) phosphorus.

D) nitrogen

51. A mycorrhizal fungus provides __________ to its host plant, and it receives __________ from the plant. A) nutrients; proteins B) carbohydrates; vitamins C) lipid; carbohydrates D) nutrients; carbohydrates E) nothing; nutrients

D) nutrients; carbohydrates

37. In examples of convergent evolution, it can be demonstrated that the organisms of the two groups that converged: A) lived together at one point in time. B) have a recent common ancestry. C) are, in fact, the same species. D) occupy similar environments. E) had to converge because of the lack of food supply in their environment

D) occupy similar environments

15. Dogs and pigs are members of different species because: A) one is a predator, and the other is prey. B) hybrids between them are infertile. C) they are at the far end of the ring in a ring species. D) of prezygotic barriers to their ability to breed. E) of postzygotic barriers to their ability to breed.

D) of prezygotic barriers to their ability to breed. .

30. Directional selection favors: A) one narrow intermediate phenotype. B) two otherwise maladapted phenotypes. C) one broad intermediate phenotype. D) one extreme phenotype. E) two extreme phenotypes.

D) one extreme phenotype.

25. Gymnosperms and angiosperms have the following in common except: A) seeds. B) pollen. C) xylem. D) ovaries. E) ovules.

D) ovaries.

45. A single breeding, male red-winged blackbird (Agelaius phoeniceus) may mate with several females, but each female usually mates with only one male. This type of mating system is known as: A) serial monogamy. B) a learned behavior. C) monogamy. D) polygyny. E) polyandry.

D) polygyny

14. At carrying capacity: A) a population's growth rate begins to decline. B) a population's death rate rapidly increases. C) purely abiotic factors prevent further population growth. D) population growth fluctuates around zero. E) birth rate becomes zero.

D) population growth fluctuates around zero.

16. If an animal gives up something of relatively low value as an investment toward receiving something of greater value in the future, this is known as: A) kin selection. B) a fixed action pattern. C) a sign stimulus. D) reciprocal altruism. E) indirect fitness.

D) reciprocal altruism.

30. Petals: A) are present mainly to protect the stamens and carpels. B) serve to attract insects to collect and disperse fruit. C) serve as landing pads for pollinators. D) serve to attract animals to collect and disperse pollen. E) serve all of the above purposes.

D) serve to attract animals to collect and disperse pollen

4. In the life cycle of a non-flowering, non-seed plant (fern), the process of meiosis produces: A) gametes. B) diploid cells. C) eggs. D) spores. E) pollen

D) spores.

27. A graph illustrating the proportion of individuals in a population that live to a given age is called a(n): A) logistic curve. B) growth curve. C) exponential growth curve. D) survivorship curve. E) death extrapolation

D) survivorship curve.

43. Reptiles show numerous adaptations for a completely terrestrial life cycle. One adaptation that first occurred in the reptiles includes: A) lungs. B) the ability to "breathe" through their skin. C) tetraploidy. D) the amniotic egg. E) teeth.

D) the amniotic egg.

39. Which of these is not a vestigial structure? A) eye-less eye sockets in cave-dwelling fishes B) molars in bats that only a consume a liquid diet C) pelvic bones in whales D) the canine teeth of a housecat E) the human appendix

D) the canine teeth of a housecat

2. Define "ecology." A) the study of heredity and variation of inherited traits B) the study of plants C) the study of the physical history and structure of the earth D) the study of the interactions between organisms and their environments E) the study of living organisms and their parts

D) the study of the interactions between organisms and their environments

32. All of these are insects except: A) flies. B) lice. C) fleas. D) ticks. E) bugs

D) ticks.

33. Evolutionary trees are constructed using all of the following except: A) similarities in the physical structure of organisms. B) similarities in the embryological development of organisms. C) similarities in the DNA sequences of organisms. D) tissue samples. E) similarities in molecular structure.

D) tissue samples.

43. In polyandrous mating systems: A) males tend to compete for access to females. B) multiple females tend to mate with the same male. C) parental investment is restricted to gestation and lactation. D) variance in female reproductive success is greater than variance in male reproductive success. E) sexual monomorphism is expected.

D) variance in female reproductive success is greater than variance in male reproductive success.

29. Members of the Archaea have been observed most commonly in: A) the ocean. B) lakes and rivers (i.e., fresh water). C) well-aerated soils. D) very extreme (with respect to temperature, salinity, pressure, etc.) environments. E) the same places viruses are found..

D) very extreme (with respect to temperature, salinity, pressure, etc.) environments.

10. A bacteriophage is a: A) bacterium that eats other bacteria. B) protist that eats bacteria. C) specialized white blood cell that attacks bacteria in an immune system defense. D) virus that infects bacteria. E) bacterium that eats mammalian red blood cells.

D) virus that infects bacteria.

2. If a baby has "his father's nose," it is because the baby has: A) inherited the "father's nose" allele from his father. B) not inherited the "suppress father's nose allele" from his father. C) inherited the "father's nose" allele from his mother. D) not inherited the "suppress father's nose allele" from his mother. E) inherited many alleles from his father that work together to shape the

E) inherited many alleles from his father that work together to shape the

18. Explosive population growth: A) is seen more often in nature than logistic growth patterns. B) is often followed by members of the population committing suicide. C) can continue unchecked, as long as food and shelter are available. D) can lead to a population exceeding its carrying capacity. E) is rarer in nature than logistic population growth

E) is rarer in nature than logistic population growth

30. Exclusive male parental care is much more prevalent in fish than mammals because: A) fish are less likely to live in habitats with high-quality resources. B) both male and female fish lactate. C) the male fish release their sperm before the females release their eggs. D) fish do not have the option of raising young in a defended nest site or den. E) most fish reproduce by external fertilization, whereas most mammals do not

E) most fish reproduce by external fertilization, whereas most mammals do not

24. Evolutionary change as a result of natural selection: A) always leads to increased complexity. B) inevitably leads to malfunction. C) always leads to more intricate adaptations. D) trends toward uniformity. E) never leads to perfect organisms.

E) never leads to perfect organisms.

30. Most, if not all, genes are: A) codominant. B) multi-allelic. C) sex-linked. D) heterozygous. E) pleiotropic.

E) pleiotropic

15. In the equation for logistic growth, when N = K: A) population growth is doubles. B) population growth becomes bimodal. C) population growth rate is declining, though the population itself is still increasing. D) the population has exceeded carrying capacity. E) population growth stops.

E) population growth stops

13. What "new" evolutionary innovation that is seen in conifers is absent in more primitive plants? A) waterproofing cuticles on the leaves B) a prominent diploid generation C) fertilization of the female gamete by the male gamete D) roots that penetrate the soil E) production of seeds

E) production of seeds

19. The more asymmetric the parental investment is between the sexes, the more: A) radical we expect the physical dimorphism but not the behavioral dimorphism. B) likely a population's mating system is monogamy. C) likely the species in question is a bird species. D) radical we expect the behavioral dimorphism but not the physical dimorphism. E) radical we expect the sexual dimorphism, both physically and behaviorally.

E) radical we expect the sexual dimorphism, both physically and behaviorally

23. Which term can be associated with gastropods? A) collar cells B) compound eyes C) complete stomach D) notochord E) radula

E) radula

35. Which aspect of the angiosperm life cycle and morphology is not unique to angiosperms? A) double fertilization B) stamens C) petals D) ovaries E) seeds

E) seeds

23. All of these floral parts are directly involved in pollination or fertilization except the: A) style. B) stigma. C) carpel. D) stamen. E) sepal.

E) sepal.

8. Researchers have found that mixtures of phospholipids placed in water or salt solutions tend to spontaneously form: A) RNA molecules. B) DNA molecules. C) ATP. D) methane. E) small spherical units that resemble living cells.

E) small spherical units that resemble living cells.

30. The arthropoda class Crustacea includes all of the following kinds of animals except: A) lobsters. B) crabs. C) shrimp. D) crayfish. E) snails.

E) snails.

24. The female parts of a flower are the: A) filament, ovary, sepal, and egg. B) anther, ovary, and ovule. C) anther, filament, style, and ovary. D) ovule, sepal, ovary, and stigma. E) stigma, style, ovary, and ovule.

E) stigma, style, ovary, and ovule.

14. Genetic drift will have the greatest effect for populations: A) that are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. B) that are undergoing stabilizing selection. C) that are undergoing directional selection. D) with a high degree of gene exchange with other populations. E) that are very small.

E) that are very small.

40. Chordate animals get their name from which prominent characteristic? A) the rope-like extension of their tails beyond the anus B) the dorsal hollow nerve cord C) the elongated pharyngeal slits, which appear as piano keys D) the bony skeleton supporting the spine E) the presence of a rod of support tissue

E) the presence of a rod of support tissue

18. The outer, green leaf-like portion of a flower encloses the inner petals like a protective barrier. What is the name of this outermost portion? A) the stalk B) the leaves C) the carpel D) the pistil E) the sepa

E) the sepa

43. What is the most effective medical approach to treating viral infections? A) antibiotics B) drugs that target proteins C) drugs that target ATP synthesis D) drugs that target cell walls E) vaccines

E) vaccines

7. Which choice is not an example of a density-dependent limiting factor that will influence carrying capacity? A) food supply B) predation C) disease D) territory availability E) water quality

E) water quality

3. From an evolutionary perspective, behavior can be viewed best as: a. not subject to the normal evolutionary process because it involves a neurological system. b. a trait that can satisfy the three conditions required for evolution by natural selection. c. something that is too complex to arise through natural selection. d. Both b) and c) are correct. e. All of the above are correct.

b. a trait that can satisfy the three conditions required for evolution by natural selection.

10. Most apparent acts of altruism in the animal kingdom have proved, on closer inspection, to be not truly altruistic. Instead, they have evolved as a consequence of either _____________________ or _____________________. A) kin selection; inclusive fitness B) competition; kin selection C) kin selection; reciprocal altruism D) monogamy; polygamy E) reproductive investment; reciprocal altruism

c. kin selection; reciprocal altruism

27. Which has the fewest species? A) angiosperms B) mosses C) ferns D) conifers E) gingko

E) gingko

19. Which of these is not an example of an angiosperm? A) orchids B) cherry trees C) grasses D) cacti E) gingko trees

E) gingko trees

23. Which mammal would you expect to have the shortest gestation period? A) a giraffe B) a chimpanzee C) an elephant D) a mouse E) a human

D) a mouse

47. A feature that only mammals have is: A) predatory behavior. B) internal skeleton. C) bilateral symmetry. D) a skeleton of calcium carbonate. E) hair

E) hair.

18. Which of these is not a mechanism of genetic change in populations? A) mutation B) migration C) genetic drift D) natural selection E) heritability

E) heritability

21. Which worm lacks a digestive system? A) earthworm B) leech *C) tapeworm D) roundworm E) tube worm

*C) tapeworm

31. In general, a positive correlation exists between body size and generation time. This statement is: A) true; larger animals tend to have fewer offspring. B) false; the correlation is between small body size and longer generation time. C) false; however, a correlation exists between body size and type of survivorship curve. *D) true; larger animals tend to have a longer generation time. E) true; however, after reaching a certain body size, this correlation levels off.

*D) true; larger animals tend to have a longer generation time.

24. "Establishing a phylogeny for bacteria is more difficult than establishing a phylogeny for plants or animals." This statement is: A) correct because it is difficult to obtain enough morphological data from bacteria. B) correct because bacteria can engage in lateral gene transfer. C) incorrect because bacteria are so small. D) correct because of the quick generation time of bacteria. E) incorrect because the metabolic diversity of bacteria makes classification emerge almost automatically.

.B) correct because bacteria can engage in lateral gene transfer.

42. The adaptive radiation of the insects was most probably triggered by: A) evolutionary innovations. B) autopolyploidy. C) allopolyploidy. D) allopatric speciation. E) sympatric speciation.

A) evolutionary innovations

2. The Eukarya split from the Archaea approximately: A) 2.5 billion years ago. B) 4 billion years ago. C) 400 million years ago. D) 4 million years ago. E) 2.5 million years ago

A) 2.5 billion years ago.

23. There are ______ different alleles for blood type in humans. A) 3 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 12

A) 3

16. Archaea and bacteria diverged approximately: A) 3 billion years ago. B) 2 billion years ago. C) 4 billion years ago. D) 100,000 million years ago. E) 10,000 million years ago..

A) 3 billion years ago

3. Darwin made which of the following observations during his journey aboard the HMS Beagle? A) Although Galápagos finches had different physical attributes, they resembled mainland finches in Ecuador. B) The largest and most fit organisms tended to have a higher rate of survival. C) Galápagos finch populations were growing faster than the available food supply. D) In Argentina, extant glyptodonts closely resembled extinct armadillos, only the armadillos were much larger. E) He discovered the fossil remains of large animals, such as giant ground sloths and mastodons, deep in coal and slate mines

A) Although Galápagos finches had different physical attributes, they resembled mainland finches in Ecuador.

17. _____, which is the largest group of extant plants, currently includes approximately _____ species. A) Angiosperms; 230,000 B) Ferns; 150,000 C) Conifers; 150,000 D) Mosses; 150,000 E) Eudicots; 100,000

A) Angiosperms; 230,000

50. Which list shows the correct complete classification of modern humans, from phylum to species? A) Chordata; Vertebrata; Mammalia; Primates; Hominidae; Homo; Homo sapiens B) Vertebrata; Chordata; Mammalia; Carnivora; Hominidae; Homo; Homo sapiens C) Vertebrata; Chordata; Carnivora; Primates; Sapienidae; Homo; Homo sapiens D) Chordata; Mammalia; Eutheria; Carnivora; Sapienidae; Homo; Homo sapiens E) Chordata; Vertebrata; Marsupialia; Hominidae; Homo; Homo sapiens

A) Chordata; Vertebrata; Mammalia; Primates; Hominidae; Homo; Homo sapiens

41. The basic structure of a virus consists of genetic information in the form of: A) DNA or RNA enclosed within a protein coat. B) DNA or RNA enclosed within a protein coat, along with a few enzymes. C) DNA, a protein coat, and polymerase to replicate its DNA. D) RNA, a protein coat, and reverse transcriptase in order to turn its RNA to DNA. E) DNA enclosed in a phospholipid.

A) DNA or RNA enclosed within a protein coat.

13. Progeria is a genetic disorder that causes numerous symptoms that resemble premature aging in patients. Progeria is caused by a dominant allele, and it always results in fatality before sexual maturity. Which statement must be true about progeria? A) Every case of progeria must be caused by a new mutation. B) Both parents of every progeria patient must also be carriers of progeria. C) At least one parent of every progeria patient must also be a carrier of progeria. D) Progeria must be relatively common. E) Progeria must be more common in some geographic areas than in others.

A) Every case of progeria must be caused by a new mutation.

31. Which type of skeleton contains the carbohydrate called chitin? A) exoskeleton of insects, crabs, and lobsters B) hydrostatic skeleton of earthworms C) fluid skeleton of jellyfish D) endoskeleton of lizards E) appendicular skeleton of humans

A) exoskeleton of insects, crabs, and lobsters

19. The phylum Platyhelminthes are more commonly known as: A) flatworms. B) ribbon worms. C) earthworms. D) mollusks. E) snakes

A) flatworms.

21. The cholera bacterium was first identified as a disease-causing agent through the groundbreaking work of Dr. John Snow in London in 1854. Dr. Snow mapped the incidence of disease and found that it clustered around a particular water pump. How did he make the causal connection between that pump and the disease? A) He persuaded authorities to shut down the water pump, and the incidence of disease dropped sharply. B) He persuaded authorities to shut down the water pump, and the incidence of disease rose sharply. C) He fed water from the pump to a disease-free population and watched the incidence of cholera rise markedly in that population. D) He isolated water from the pump and counted the number of cholera organisms in a liter of that water. E) He took a sample of the water, looked at it under the microscope, and determined that the bacterium was present.

A) He persuaded authorities to shut down the water pump, and the incidence of disease dropped sharply.

55. The other species of humans that were alive contemporaneously with Homo sapiens were: A) Homo neanderthalensis, Homo floresiensis, and Homo erectus. B) Homo neanderthalensis and Homo floresiensis. C) Australopithecus afarensis, Homo neanderthalensis, Homo floresiensis, and Homo erectus. D) Australopithecus afarensis and Homo neanderthalensis. E) Australopithecus afarensis and Homo erectus.

A) Homo neanderthalensis, Homo floresiensis, and Homo erectus..

1. How can an individual whose parents did not have the "fish odor syndrome" trait inherit that trait? A) If each parent was a silent carrier of "fish odor syndrome," then their offspring would have a 25% chance of having the syndrome. B) Under the circumstances outlined above, the "fish odor syndrome" cannot be inherited. C) If each parent was a silent carrier of the "fish odor syndrome," then their offspring would have a 50% chance of having the syndrome. D) Only one parent needs to pass on the gene in order for the offspring to have the "fish odor syndrome." E) If each parent was a silent carrier of the "fish odor syndrome," then their offspring would have a 100% chance of having the syndrome.

A) If each parent was a silent carrier of "fish odor syndrome," then their offspring would have a 25% chance of having the syndrome.

12. In logistic population growth, as the population size, N, approaches the environment's carrying capacity, K, what happens to the rate of population increase? A) It approaches zero. B) It decreases exponentially. C) It increases exponentially. D) It approaches K. E) It remains less than K.

A) It approaches zero.

27. At conception, how does the mother's material and energetic contribution to the offspring relate to the father's? A) It is much greater. B) It is about the same. C) It is much lower. D) It depends on the type of animal. E) It is greater, but only in mammals

A) It is much greater.

11. Which animal phylum lacks true tissues? A) Porifera (sponges) B) Cnidaria (jellies, corals, and their relatives) C) Annelida (segmented worms) D) Nematoda (roundworms) E) Platyhelminthes (flatworms

A) Porifera (sponges)

19. _____________________ is a method of treating infections by deliberately introducing benign bacteria in numbers large enough to swamp the harmful bacteria. A) Probiotic therapy B) Gene therapy C) Physical therapy D) Bacterial therapy E) Vaccination

A) Probiotic therapy

36. __________ selection is the type of natural selection that acts on characteristics that determine reproductive success. A) Sexual B) Reproductive C) Reducing D) Endocrine E) Hormonal

A) Sexual.

25. Among natterjack toads in northern Europe, males produce booming calls to attract females. Females desire large males and the size of the male determines the volume of the call. Why is the natterjack's call considered an "honest signal"? A) The call of a large natterjack male cannot be faked by a smaller natterjack male. B) The large natterjack males invest more parental effort than smaller natterjack males. C) The call of the natterjack male accurately provides both distance and direction to the female. D) The female natterjack toads can detect a booming call from a small toad. E) The female natterjack toads were taught by their mothers to avoid dishonest signals

A) The call of a large natterjack male cannot be faked by a smaller natterjack male

37. As the course of evolution has proceeded in plants, what is the overall trend in the relationship of the diploid stage and the haploid stage? A) The haploid stage has been reduced in size, whereas the diploid stage has become more prominent. B) The diploid stage has been reduced in size, whereas the haploid stage has become more prominent. C) Both the diploid stage and haploid stage have been reduced in size. D) Both the haploid stage and the diploid stage have become more prominent. E) The relationship between diploid stage and haploid stage has remained the same over evolution.

A) The haploid stage has been reduced in size, whereas the diploid stage has become more prominent.

32. Assume that you find a population of finches in which the members have a bimodal distribution in bill size. Some individuals have a significantly larger bill than others, regardless of sex. Under which condition could disruptive selection maintain this bimodal distribution of bill size? A) The population has two major food sources that differ markedly in size. B) Bills of the intermediate size are difficult to form. C) In the original population, all of the birds had large bills, but there is continual immigration of birds with small bills into the population. D) Males use their bills in two different forms of sexual display. E) Directional selection cannot act on bill size.

A) The population has two major food sources that differ markedly in size.

38. How are viruses able to recognize a host cell and enter it? A) Viruses have spikes outside of their protein coats or envelopes that puncture the outside membrane of the host cell and the virus enters through the hole. B) Viruses enter through the pores already present on a host cell. C) Viruses adhere to proteins on the host cell's surface that were created specifically for viral entry. D) Viruses attach to host cell surface molecules that were created for some other function of the cell. E) Viruses trick the cell into engulfing it

A) Viruses have spikes outside of their protein coats or envelopes that puncture the outside membrane of the host cell and the virus enters through the hole

4. An animal with an anterior brain that surrounds the entrance to the digestive tract is: A) a protostome. B) a deuterostome. C) diploblastic. D) a sponge. E) a ctenophore

A) a protostome.

21. In angiosperms, the _______________ are the specialized reproductive organ(s) whose main function is to bring together the sperm and egg. A) flowers B) seeds C) cones D) pollen grains E) leaves

A) flowers

31. The SRY gene is considered pleiotropic because it is: A) a single gene that influences multiple traits: development of fetal gonads, secretion of testosterone, and more. B) a single gene that influences multiple traits: development of fetal gonads, secretion of estrogen, and more. C) one gene involved in continuously varying traits—in this instance, height. D) one gene involved in continuously varying traits—in this instance, eye color. E) part of a multi-allelic system that determines blood type.

A) a single gene that influences multiple traits: development of fetal gonads, secretion of testosterone, and more.

12. Endosperm is: A) a store of carbohydrate to fuel a seed's initial growth. B) the male portion of a flowering plant. C) tissue that develops into a protective seed coat surrounding the embryo. D) the leaves that are part of the embryo. E) the female portion of a flowering plant.

A) a store of carbohydrate to fuel a seed's initial growth.

46. In fungi, the "mushroom" is: A) a temporary reproductive structure. B) the entire organism. C) a single cell. D) a diploid nucleus. E) a toxic mold.

A) a temporary reproductive structure.

38. Which of these is not a member of the group of vertebrates that produce amniotic eggs? A) amphibians B) birds C) whales D) monotremes E) marsupials

A) amphibians

36. Plants known as "annuals," that is, those that complete their entire life cycle in one growing season, are found in which of the following groups? A) angiosperms only B) angiosperms, ferns, and mosses C) ferns only D) angiosperms and ferns E) ferns and mosses

A) angiosperms only

22. An individual's blood-type alleles carry instructions that direct construction of a specific set of chemicals that protrude from every red blood cell. These chemicals are called: A) antigens. B) antibodies. C) cell proteins. D) hemoglobins. E) sickled cells.

A) antigens

28. Which group is made up solely of carnivores? A) arachnids B) wasps C) vertebrates D) mammals E) flatworms

A) arachnids

19. Bacteria and Archaea are the two domains whose members: A) are prokaryotic. B) are eukaryotic. C) have undergone punctuated equilibrium. D) have not speciated. E) are multicellular

A) are prokaryotic.

22. Life history patterns: A) are subject to the pressures of natural selection. B) are usually learned. C) have no genetic component. D) exist only in organisms that exhibit parental care. E) show up in the fossils of plants.

A) are subject to the pressures of natural selection.

27. Which is the only animal phylum to have over 1 million described species? A) arthropods B) mollusks C) flatworms D) chordates E) nematodes

A) arthropods

37. Which of these are pairs of homologous features? A) bear paw and bat wing B) butterfly wing and blue jay wing C) bear paw and blue jay wing D) snout of African golden mole and snout of North American mole E) bat wing and arm of flying squirrel

A) bear paw and bat wing

36. Echinoderm larvae are ________, whereas echinoderm adults are ________. A) bilaterally symmetrical; radially symmetrical B) radially symmetrical; asymmetrical C) aquatic; terrestrial D) gastropods; bivalves E) segmented; unsegmented

A) bilaterally symmetrical; radially symmetrical

52. Three major differences between humans and chimpanzees are that humans are bipedal, have a larger brain, and have a larger body. Which of these characteristics evolved first? A) bipedality B) larger brain C) larger body D) bipedality and larger brain together E) larger brain, bipedality, and larger body at the same time

A) bipedality

44. Both birds and mammals have four-chambered hearts. But birds are more closely related to crocodiles, which have three-chambered hearts, than they are to mammals. The correct interpretation of these observations is that: A) birds and mammals evolved four-chambered hearts independently. B) having a four-chambered heart would be detrimental to crocodiles. C) crocodiles evolved from a group that originally had four-chambered hearts. D) the trend in heart evolution is from four-chambered to three-chambered. E) the number of heart chambers that an organism possesses can never be an indication of evolutionary relationships.

A) birds and mammals evolved four-chambered hearts independently.

7. Plants with the diploid stage smaller than and dependent upon the haploid stage are called: A) bryophytes. B) ferns. C) gymnosperms. D) angiosperms. E) algae

A) bryophytes.

7. Interacting systems of molecules enclosed in compartments called __________ evolved 3.8 billion years ago in living organisms. A) cells B) organs C) microspheres D) tissues E) circulatory systems

A) cells

22. Hominidae is the name of a family. Primate is the name of an order. Mammal is the name of a: A) class. B) phylum. C) kingdom. D) genus. E) species

A) class.

5. Spherical bacteria are known as: A) cocci. B) bacilli. C) spirilla. D) Gram-positive. E) Gram-negative.

A) cocci.

14. Which method of DNA exchange between bacteria is most likely to confer antibiotic resistance to the recipient bacteria? A) conjugation B) transformation C) transduction D) replication E) binary fission

A) conjugation

46. Birds are most closely related to: A) crocodiles. B) mammals. C) lizards. D) snakes. E) insects

A) crocodiles

42. An inverted population pyramid represents _____, whereas a column-like population pyramid represents _____. A) declining growth; stationary growth B) increasing growth; declining growth C) stationary growth; increasing growth D) a young population; increasing growth E) increasing growth; stationary growth

A) declining growth; stationary growth

18. Animals such as jellyfish and cnidarians acquire nutrients and oxygen by: A) direct diffusion. B) breathing. C) capturing them with sticky hemolymph. D) using a trachea system. E) pumping them inside

A) direct diffusion.

29. Two populations of a species of frog live around the Gulf of Mexico. One population has a brown back and lives on rocky islands with brown rocks and little vegetation. A second population lives on the mainland among the vegetation and has a back that is speckled with greens and browns. This species is undergoing _______________ selection. A) disruptive B) stabilizing C) frequency-dependent D) sexual E) directional

A) disruptive

35. Radiometric data is useful in conjunction with the study of the fossil record because: A) it allows a determination, not just of the relative ages of different fossils, but also their absolute ages. B) radioactive fossils break down much more slowly than non-radioactive fossils. C) radioactive fossils break down much more quickly than non-radioactive fossils. D) radiometric data makes it possible to analyze the "soft parts" of extinct animals, which fill in the gaps in the fossil record. E) radiometric dating of a species currently living on earth reveals how long the species has existed.

A) it allows a determination, not just of the relative ages of different fossils, but also their absolute ages.

49. Which series of events correctly describes the evolutionary history of the vertebrates, from earliest to latest in time? A) jaws, lungs, four limbs, and hair B) lungs, jaws, four limbs, and hair C) four limbs, lungs, jaws, and hair D) two limbs, lungs, jaws, and hair E) four limbs, hair, lungs, and jaws

A) jaws, lungs, four limbs, and hair

15. "Photoautotroph" means: A) light self-feeder. B) chemical inorganic feeder. C) chemical organic feeder. D) light organic feeder. E) light-reflective organic feeders

A) light self-feeder.

29. All of these are arachnids except: A) lobsters. B) spiders. C) scorpions. D) mites. E) ticks

A) lobsters.

35. The death rate of organisms in a population exhibiting a type 3 survivorship curve is: A) lower after the organisms survive to the critical age of establishment. B) more or less constant throughout their lives. C) higher in post-reproductive than in pre-reproductive years. D) unrelated to age. E) usually correlated with density-independent causes.

A) lower after the organisms survive to the critical age of establishment.

36. The same genetic condition that causes sickle-cell anemia can also protect against: A) malaria. B) HIV-AIDS. C) hemophilia. D) yellow fever. E) tuberculosis.

A) malaria.

41. Relative to mammals, more bird species are: A) monogamous. B) polygynous. C) polyandrous. D) promiscuous. E) sexually dimorphic.

A) monogamous..

1. Within the plant kingdom, relative to the gymnosperms, the angiosperm species are: A) monophyletic. B) more evolutionarily advanced. C) non-vascular. D) seedless. E) more multicellular

A) monophyletic.

38. Linked genes: A) must be immediately adjacent to each other on the same chromosome. B) are on the same chromosome. C) never have multiple alleles. D) have alleles that assort independently of each other. E) never show crossing over.

A) must be immediately adjacent to each other on the same chromosome. B) are on the same chromosome.

7. The origin of all genetic variation is: A) mutation. B) natural selection. C) gene flow. D) genetic drift. E) non-random mating.

A) mutation.

16. An oak tree produces two kinds of leaves: large with shallow lobes, and narrow with deep lobes. If this dimorphism is based solely on the ecological condition of amount of sunlight exposure and no genetic difference exists between leaves that express either of the two forms, then: A) natural selection cannot preferentially select one of the two leaf forms over the other. B) the environment cannot affect the relative abundance of the two leaf forms. C) this must be a trait that expresses quantitative variation. D) natural selection cannot act on the trait of leaf morphology. E) the large, shallow-lobed leaves must be adapted for sunnier conditions

A) natural selection cannot preferentially select one of the two leaf forms over the other.

39. Which features do humans share with tunicates? A) notochord; dorsal hollow nerve cord; pharyngeal slits in the embryonic stage; a post-anal tail in the embryonic stage B) notochord; vertebrae; lungs; amniotic egg C) notochord; dorsal hollow nerve cord; pharyngeal slits in the embryonic stage; jaws D) vertebrae; lungs; amniotic egg; four-chambered heart E) vertebrae; bony skeleton; lungs; a post-anal tail in the embryonic stage

A) notochord; dorsal hollow nerve cord; pharyngeal slits in the embryonic stage;

32. Sex-linked traits: A) often are expressed in different frequencies in males and females. B) occur in males but not females. C) are coded for by genes on the autosomes. D) are coded for by genes on the Y chromosome only. E) occur in females but not males.

A) often are expressed in different frequencies in males and females.

31. Which flower part develops into a seed? A) ovule B) ovary C) base of the style D) stigma E) stamen

A) ovule

4. Which gas was the least abundant in the earth's atmosphere 3.5 billion years ago? A) oxygen B) nitrogen C) carbon dioxide D) carbon monoxide E) water vapor

A) oxygen

41. Chemical defenses are more common among plants than animals because: A) plants cannot move to escape predators and, therefore, must develop other deterrents. B) the cell wall can contain them more effectively than a simple plasma membrane. C) mechanical defenses from predators can evolve only in animals. D) parasites frequently prey on plants, but they rarely prey on animals. E) plant cells contain chloroplasts, whereas animal cells do not.

A) plants cannot move to escape predators and, therefore, must develop other deterrents.

11. Small circular DNA molecules capable of self-replication are called: A) plasmids. B) introns. C) conjugation factors. D) transposable elements. E) transcription factors

A) plasmids.

16. In the cnidarians, the two body types are the sessile _____________ and the free-living _______________. A) polyp; medusa B) medusa; polyp C) anemone; coral D) coral; anemone E) zooxanthellae; coral

A) polyp; medusa

29. Applying what you know about punctuated equilibrium versus gradualism, which method of speciation is most likely to lead to punctuated equilibrium? A) polyploidy B) geographic isolation C) stabilizing evolution D) reproductive isolation E) allopatric speciation

A) polyploidy

42. Rainbow trout are: A) ray-finned fishes. B) lobe-finned fishes. C) cartilaginous fishes. D) bottom feeders. E) lungfishes.

A) ray-finned fishes.

14. Which of these is not a cnidarian? A) sea cucumber B) coral C) sea anemones D) man-o'-war E) jellyfish

A) sea cucumber

20. When a population reaches carrying capacity (K), it appears to persist indefinitely. One assumption could be that organisms stop dying. Which statement is a more likely explanation for this observation? A) The number of individuals arriving is exactly the same as the number of individuals leaving. B) As a population gets closer to the carrying capacity of its environment, its growth stops. C) The population is growing so quickly that it overshoots its carrying capacity. D) The rate of population growth is dependent on the resources available. E) More organisms are arriving into the population than leaving.

B) As a population gets closer to the carrying capacity of its environment, its growth stops.

30. The method of speciation that has led to the production of wheat, bananas, potatoes, and coffee is called: A) allopatric speciation. B) allopolyploidy. C) ring speciation. D) gradual speciation. E) stabilizing speciation.

B) allopolyploidy.

9. Which statement about animal nervous systems is true? A) All taxonomic groups of animals have nervous systems, except annelids. B) All taxonomic groups of animals have nervous systems, except sponges. C) All taxonomic groups of animals have nervous systems, except jellyfish. D) All taxonomic groups of animals have nervous systems, except sponges and jellyfish. E) All taxonomic groups of animals have nervous systems.

B) All taxonomic groups of animals have nervous systems, except sponges.

10. A male with an X-linked recessive disorder mates with a female who is a carrier for this same X-linked recessive disorder. Which of these is the correct expected frequency of this disorder in their children? A) 50% frequency in the sons B) 50% frequency in the daughters C) 50% frequency in both the sons and the daughters D) 100% frequency in the sons E) 100% frequency in the daughters

C) 50% frequency in both the sons and the daughters

9. Which of the these is a goose MOST LIKELY to retrieve first if found just outside her nest? a. a model egg that is larger than any other object near the nest b. a beer can c. a model egg that is more colorful than any other object near the nest d. her own egg e. an egg laid by another goose

A. a model egg that is larger than any other object near the nest

3. A plant with pink flowers is allowed to self-pollinate. Generation after generation, it produces pink flowers. This is an example of: A) allopolyploidy. B) incomplete dominance. C) the law of independent assortment. D) a true-breeding plant. E) interbreeding.

D) a true-breeding plant.

31. Eukaryotic cells appear in the fossil record approximately how long after the appearance of prokaryotic cells? A) 1 billion years B) 2 billion years C) 500 million years D) 100 million years E) 1 million years

B) 2 billion years

8. A true-breeding, purple-flowered pea plant is repeatedly mated with a true-breeding, white-flowered pea plant. All of their offspring are purple-flowered. If two of these purple-flowered offspring are mated, what percentage of their offspring will be white-flowered? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% E) 100%

B) 25%

33. All genetically normal humans have: A) 46 autosomes. B) 44 autosomes. C) 23 chromosomes. D) two pairs of 22 autosomes, a Y chromosome, and an X chromosome. E) 22 pairs of chromosomes.

B) 44 autosomes.

9. Which statement is true about mosses and gymnosperms? A) Mosses are better adapted for desert habitats, whereas gymnosperms are better adapted for wet habitats. B) Mosses rely on liquid water for fertilization, whereas gymnosperms do not need liquid water for fertilization. C) Mosses are primarily diploid in their adult form, whereas gymnosperms are primarily haploid. D) Mosses produce flowers in order to reproduce, whereas gymnosperms produce cones. E) Mosses use wind pollination, whereas gymnosperms use insects for pollination.

B) Mosses rely on liquid water for fertilization, whereas gymnosperms do not need liquid water for fertilization.

42. Which reason best explains why vaccines against the influenza virus lose their effectiveness each year? A) The flu virus is generated from mixing viruses from several animals. B) RNA replication in the flu virus has many errors, causing the virus to mutate into new forms. C) Glycoproteins on the surface of the flu virus cannot be recognized by the vaccine. D) The flu virus spreads rapidly through human populations, making vaccines ineffective. E) Humans get different kinds of flu viruses from pigs and birds.

B) RNA replication in the flu virus has many errors, causing the virus to mutate into new forms.

31. _________________ produces new species and _________________ takes them away. A) Extinction; speciation B) Speciation; extinction C) Background extinction; mass extinction D) Gradual change; punctuated equilibrium E) Mutation; mutation

B) Speciation; extinction

1. Suppose a mutation of an allele occurred in a few members of an isolated group of early humans that resulted in a distaste for foods that were rich in fat. Which of these would most likely result from this mutation? A) This group would perish as whole.B) The allele frequency would decrease.C) This group would be absolutely devoid of obese individuals.D) Diabetes would not afflict this group of humans.E) The allele frequency would remain the same.

B) The allele frequency would decrease

13. When scientists displace an adult female Belding's ground squirrel to a new group for an experiment, she still risks her life by alarm calling, although she is not saving any of her kin. Why does this behavior still persist, even though it is harmful to her fitness? A) The ground squirrel is engaging in reciprocal altruism; later, an individual from the new group will risk its life alarm calling for her. B) The ground squirrel is acting on instinct and still calls because she possesses no instincts suited to this evolutionarily novel situation. C) The ground squirrel wants to be part of a group no matter what. D) Natural selection has not had enough time to act on this individual to remove this behavior. E) All Belding's ground squirrels' groups are related; therefore, the displaced female is actually saving extended kin.

B) The ground squirrel is acting on instinct and still calls because she possesses no instincts suited to this evolutionarily novel situation.

7. Cystic fibrosis, which is usually lethal before reproductive ages, is a homozygous recessive disease. Why do cases continue to arise, even though people with the disease rarely live to reproduce? A) Individuals can pass on the alleles in non-genetic ways, including through the sharing of needles. B) The harmful allele can reside in heterozygous individuals with few to no negative effects. C) Mosquitoes can transfer the disease from person to person. D) People continue to make unhealthy lifestyle choices. E) Cystic fibrosis is a multifactorial disorder, and is probably controlled by the action of many genes

B) The harmful allele can reside in heterozygous individuals with few to no negative effects.

37. Which statement is true about starfish, sand dollars, and sea urchins? A) They are sessile. B) They are radially symmetrical. C) They have outer skeletons or shells made of chitin. D) They belong to the arachnids. E) They all have a distinct head, thorax, and abdomen.

B) They are radially symmetrical.

25. Which statement is true of an individual with blood type AB? A) They have red blood cells with A antigens only. B) They have red blood cells with A and B antigens. C) They are classified as the "universal donor" and can donate blood to anyone. D) They can receive blood from blood type O individuals only. E) They produce A and B antibodies.

B) They have red blood cells with A and B antigens.

40. Field mice have few natural defenses. What other characteristics are also likely to be true about field mice? A) They age slowly. B) They reach sexual maturity early. C) They have long life spans. D) They live with low risk of predation. E) They have a low risk of death at each age.

B) They reach sexual maturity early.

19. If two individuals who are heterozygous for the sickle-cell disease mate, what will be true of their offspring? A) They will all have the sickle-cell disease. B) They will have a one-quarter chance of being a sickle-cell free homozygote. C) They will consist of males who all have sickle-cell disease and females who all are heterozygous for sicklecell disease. D) They will all have the genotype HbSHbA. E) They will all be heterozygous for the sickle-cell disease.

B) They will have a one-quarter chance of being a sickle-cell free homozygote.

25. Among mammals, litter size increases with distance from the equator. What is the likely reason for this trend? A) Mammals at higher latitudes exhibit more parental care toward offspring than mammals at the equator. B) To compensate for a shorter breeding season, mammals at higher latitudes produce more offspring per litter. C) Because it is often too hot to mate at the equator, mammals at higher latitudes have the advantage of being able to mate more often and also produce larger litters. D) More natural predators exist at higher latitudes; therefore, mammals living a greater distance from the equator produce more offspring to ensure survival. E) More competition for resources occurs at higher latitudes; therefore, mammals living at higher latitudes produce larger litters to outcompete other animals.

B) To compensate for a shorter breeding season, mammals at higher latitudes produce more offspring per litter.

15. Assuming that a particular disorder is caused by an allele of a single gene, what feature of a pedigree would allow one to conclude that the disorder was caused by a dominant allele? A) Two unaffected parents have an affected child. B) Two affected parents have an unaffected child. C) An affected mother only has affected sons. D) All of the descendants of a particular affected person are also affected. E) Two unaffected parents have an unaffected child.

B) Two affected parents have an unaffected child.

26. All arthropods have: A) six legs and three body segments. B) a chitinous exoskeleton and jointed appendages. C) antennae and compound eyes. D) stinging mouthparts. E) a mantle and a radula

B) a chitinous exoskeleton and jointed appendages

12. Conjugation is a process in which a: A) virus containing pieces of bacterial DNA that it inadvertently picked up from its previous host infects a bacterial cell. B) bacterium transfers a copy of some or all of its DNA to another bacterium. C) bacterial cell bursts open, releasing short lengths of DNA, which are taken up by another bacterial cell and inserted into its own genome. D) virus bursts open, releasing short lengths of DNA, which are taken up by a bacterial cell. E) strand of viral RNA is used as a template to make a complementary strand of DNA, which is inserted into a bacterial cell.

B) bacterium transfers a copy of some or all of its DNA to another bacterium.

33. Which order of insects has the highest species diversity—more than that of any other order in animals? A) flies and mosquitoes B) beetles C) bees D) butterflies E) aphids

B) beetles

25. The species of Darwin's finches on the Galápagos Islands mainly differ in: A) coloration. B) bill size. C) tail length. D) song type. E) body size

B) bill size.

40. In black widow spider mating, the male ___________________________, and the female ___________________________. A) produces a copulatory plug; removes the copulatory plug B) breaks off his sexual organ inside the female; kills and eats the male C) bring the female a nuptial gift of food; decides whether to accept it D) mates with many females; mates with only one male E) does a dance to get into position to copulate; then moves into position

B) breaks off his sexual organ inside the female; kills and eats the male.

37. The protein coat of a virus is also referred to as its: A) outer membrane. B) capsid. C) antigen. D) cell wall. E) armor.

B) capsid.

20. Which of these is the correct order of floral organs from the inside to the outside of a complete flower? A) petals; sepals; stamens; carpels B) carpels; stamens; petals; sepals C) sepals; petals; stamens; carpels D) petals; stamens; sepals; carpels E) sepals; stamens; petals; carpels

B) carpels; stamens; petals; sepals

3. The population size that a particular habitat can support indefinitely is called the: A) survivorship curve. B) carrying capacity. C) realized niche. D) fundamental niche. E) intrinsic population size.

B) carrying capacity.

16. Most of the bacteria that live in and on your body are: A) chemolithotrophs. B) chemoorganotrophs. C) photoautotrophs. D) photoorganotrophs. E) chemotaxic autotrophs

B) chemoorganotrophs.

14. The world's tallest and longest-lived trees are: A) oaks. B) conifers. C) cycads. D) maples. E) ginkgos.

B) conifers.

21. To establish that evolution by natural selection is operating in a population, one must demonstrate variability for a trait, heritability, and which of the following? A) progress B) differential reproductive success C) increased complexity of an organism D) random mating E) continuous change in the environment

B) differential reproductive success

33. Until the middle of the 19th century, all peppered moths (Biston betularia) observed around Manchester, England, were light in color. In 1845, a single black peppered moth was reported. As Manchester became more industrialized and dark soot began to cover the bark of the trees, the frequency of black moths increased greatly. The change in proportion of light and dark forms resulted from: A) disruptive selection. B) directional selection. C) decreased population size. D) the ability of moths to change color within their lifetimes. E) increased mutation.

B) directional selection.

45. Birds are ___________________, whereas turtles are _________________. A) ectotherms; endotherms B) endotherms; ectotherms C) vertebrates; invertebrates D) organisms of flight; no longer organisms of flight E) reptiles; amphibians

B) endotherms; ectotherms

26. Which list correctly identifies the rank of the major groups of plants, based upon how many species they contain, from most to fewest? A) flowering plants; conifers; ferns; mosses B) flowering plants; ferns; mosses; conifers C) flowering plants; mosses; conifers; ferns D) mosses; flowering plants; ferns; conifers E) mosses; flowering plants; conifers; ferns

B) flowering plants; ferns; mosses; conifers

20. Wolves and bears are placed in the same taxonomic order. Therefore, they must also be classified in the same: A) family. B) genus. C) species. D) phylum. E) order

B) genus

23. Giraffa is a taxon at which level? A) species B) genus C) genome D) order E) class

B) genus

41. Which animal is not a chordate? A) fish B) grasshopper C) frog D) lancelet E) lizard

B) grasshopper

24. An allele leads to deceptive behavior that increases individual fitness. Under these conditions, that allele would: A) decrease in a population. B) increase in a population. C) stay the same in a population. D) always be inherited from the male parent. E) always be inherited from the female parent.

B) increase in a population

53. When thinking about the evolutionary history of humans, which feature is most related to the success of H. sapiens? A) decrease in caloric intake resulting in a lower body weight B) increase in brain size C) development of game-playing strategies D) increased use of teeth as tools E) longer arm lengt

B) increase in brain size

9. Population density is determined by the number of: A) species in a given area. B) individuals of a species in a given area. C) individual organisms in a given area. D) breeding individuals of a species in a given area. E) interactions of populations in a community.

B) individuals of a species in a given area.

8. Sponges are sessile, which means they: A) are parasitic and depend on their host for a constant supply of nutrients. B) live attached to a solid structure and do not move around. C) reproduce asexually. D) have exoskeletons that they must shed as they grow larger. E) live within shells that they find on the ocean floor.

B) live attached to a solid structure and do not move around.

5. A population with an S-shaped growth curve is said to exhibit _____________ growth. A) density-dependent B) logistic C) biotic potential D) positive E) exponential

B) logistic

18. Which of these is not caused by bacteria? A) morning breath B) malaria C) strep throat D) tuberculosis E) the taste of sourdough bread

B) malaria

33. In a study conducted at Florida State University, experimenters randomly selected men and women and asked them, "Would you have sex with me tonight?" Results found that men were much more likely to accept this proposal than women. This finding is most likely because: A) men are consciously trying to maximize their reproductive success, whereas women are responding by rules of thumb. B) men have a lower initial investment than women; therefore, they will be less discriminating in choosing a mate. C) men benefit from additional matings, whereas women do not. D) men are trying to get in as many matings as possible to lower the variance of reproductive success; however, women already have low variance in reproductive success. E) the female experimenter propositioning the men was far more attractive than the male experimenter propositioning the women; therefore, the experiment was poorly designed, giving biased results.

B) men have a lower initial investment than women; therefore, they will be less discriminating in choosing a mate.

13. Which of these is a correct list of the types of plasmids that bacteria can carry? A) metabolic plasmids, replication plasmids, and virulence plasmids B) metabolic plasmids, resistance plasmids, and virulence plasmids C) conjugation plasmids, transduction plasmids, and transformation plasmids D) replication plasmids, conjugation plasmids, transduction plasmids, and transformation plasmids E) metabolic plasmids, resistance plasmids, virulence plasmids, replication plasmids, and conjugation plasmids

B) metabolic plasmids, resistance plasmids, and virulence plasmid

6. Which of these is not contained in a bacterium? A) ribosomes B) mitochondria C) DNA D) cytoplasm E) plasma membrane

B) mitochondria

21. The ABO blood type system in humans is an example of: A) multiple alleles but not codominance. B) multiple alleles and codominance. C) codominance but not multiple alleles. D) balanced polymorphism and codominance. E) balanced polymorphism but not codominance.

B) multiple alleles and codominance.

45. The main bulk of a multicellular fungus is called the _________. A) hyphae B) mycelium C) fruiting body D) thallus E) yeast

B) mycelium

21. The point at which the maximum number of individuals are removed from a population without impairing its growth rate: A) is that population's carrying capacity. B) occurs when a population is halfway to its carrying capacity. C) is also when a population is growing at its slowest rate. D) is the definition of a density-dependent factor. E) is impossible to calculate.

B) occurs when a population is halfway to its carrying capacity.

17. The offspring from each cross done in Mendel's pea experiments always looked like one of the two parental varieties because: A) the traits blended together due to crossing-over in meiosis. B) one allele showed complete dominance over the other. C) many different genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype. D) many different genes interacted to produce the F1 phenotype. E) each allele affected phenotypic expression.

B) one allele showed complete dominance over the other

17. If the males of a particular species are larger and more highly ornamented than females, we can expect this species to be: A) polyandrous. B) polygynous. C) monogamous. D) either polyandrous or polygynous. E) highly invested in caring for offspring, with males and females sharing these duties equally.

B) polygynous.

1. When more than two members of the same species live in the same place at the same time, they constitute a(n): A) biome. B) population. C) community. D) niche. E) ecosystem.

B) population.

29. A life table: A) reflects the number of individuals in various age groups in a population at a given time. B) predicts survival and mortality rates for an individual at a given age. C) can be used to construct a population pyramid. D) shows the current birth and death rates of an entire population. E) predicts survivorship, but it cannot accurately predict mortality rat

B) predicts survival and mortality rates for an individual at a given age.

6. Most children do not start talking until the age of one. By the age of three, they understand most rules of sentence construction. The average six-year-old, native English speaker has a vocabulary of about 13,000 words. These skills are impressive, considering that most children at that age are not adept at activities such as driving, cooking, or fine motor coordination. From this, we can surmise that language acquisition is: A) highly variable across cultures. B) prepared learning. C) a fixed action pattern. D) an example of supernormal stimulus. E) instinctual behavior.

B) prepared learning.

39. Mate guarding: A) decreases a female's fitness. B) reduces paternity uncertainty. C) reduces the male's reproductive investment. D) increases a female's reproductive investment. E) increases the number of mates to which a male has access

B) reduces paternity uncertainty

13. According to the biological species concept, species are natural populations of organisms that have the potential to interbreed and are ____________ isolated from other such populations. A) geographically B) reproductively C) behaviorally D) postzygotically E) prezygotically

B) reproductively

11. The ferns possess all of these except: A) leaves. B) seeds. C) embryos. D) cuticle. E) roots.

B) seeds.

20. If two alleles exist at the same gene locus in a population—one for a selfish behavior and one for a selfless behavior—then regardless of the initial frequencies, over time the: A) two alleles will reach an equilibrium of 50%. B) selfish behavior allele will increase its percentage in the population to near fixation. C) selfless behavior allele will increase its percentage in the population to near fixation. D) population size will increase. E) population will display a blending of the characteristics.

B) selfish behavior allele will increase its percentage in the population to near fixation.

7. What distinguishes a protostome from a deuterostome? A) the molting pattern B) sequence or order of gut development C) the way the skeleton grows D) whether the body can be divided into two or more symmetrical units E) whether an animal has tissues or not

B) sequence or order of gut development

40. Which statement is true? A) A bird's eye is analogous with a whale's eye. B) A bat's wing is homologous with a moth's wing. C) Adaptive radiation is a special case of divergent evolution. D) Convergent evolution results in unrelated organisms developing very dissimilar traits. E) Punctuated evolution caused animal evolution.

C) Adaptive radiation is a special case of divergent evolution

1. The classic "Miller experiments," performed in the 1950s by Harold Urey and Stanley Miller, were the first to show that: A) the average bill size of a population of Darwin's finches changed with environmental conditions, proving that microevolution can occur within a human lifetime. B) simple organic molecules, such as amino acids, could form spontaneously in the laboratory under chemical conditions mimicking those of primitive earth. C) naturally occurring antibiotics, such as penicillin, could be used to treat bacterial diseases. D) natural selection could occur in a petri dish within a population of bacteria known to have differential abilities to digest complex sugars. E) water (H2O) could be separated into atmospheric oxygen and H2 gas.

B) simple organic molecules, such as amino acids, could form spontaneously in the laboratory under chemical conditions mimicking those of primitive earth.

17. Many mosquito populations today are resistant to pesticides that were historically effective. This pesticide resistance arose in these populations because: A) the pesticides caused mutations in the DNA of mosquitoes that conferred resistance phenotypes, and these were passed on to subsequent generations. B) some individuals were resistant to the pesticides before they were used, and those mosquitoes were more likely to survive and reproduce. C) populations had to develop tolerance in order to survive. D) individual mosquitoes built up immunity to the pesticides after exposure. E) mosquitoes from surrounding areas came into the pesticide area.

B) some individuals were resistant to the pesticides before they were used, and those mosquitoes were more likely

12. Which group feeds primarily on material filtered from the water? A) cephalopods B) sponges C) annelids D) gastropods E) nematodes

B) sponges

50. Which phrase is the best description of lichen? A) endosymbiosis between chloroplasts and plant cells B) symbiosis between fungi and algae (or cyanobacteria) C) symbiosis between fungi and the roots of a tree D) symbiosis between algae and yeast E) the evolutionary symbiosis that led to the evolution of the chloroplast

B) symbiosis between fungi and algae (or cyanobacteria)

37. The physiological breakdowns that we experience as we age are the result of: A) natural selection selecting against alleles that cause death after sexual maturity. B) the cumulative effects of the buildup of late-acting mutant alleles in our genomes. C) not producing any offspring after maturity and, therefore, not passing along alleles for longevity. D) producing too many offspring after maturity, thereby "giving away" one's alleles for longevity. E) poor lifestyle choices, such as smoking or heavy drinking, early in life.

B) the cumulative effects of the buildup of late-acting mutant alleles in our genomes.

27. Brassica oleracea was a European wild plant. Early farmers were able to use artificial selection on this plant to produce cabbage, Brussels sprouts, kohlrabi, kale, broccoli, and cauliflower. This diversification through selection was possible because: A) artificial selection is always possible, whereas natural selection requires much larger population sizes. B) the species contained large amounts of genetic variation. C) artificial selection does not require differential reproductive success, whereas natural selection does. D) exotic species are always more adaptable than the native species in an area. E) artificial selection is only done on plants that are used for food, whereas natural selection is used on all other plants.

B) the species contained large amounts of genetic variation.

10. Much of what is known about the history of the origin of life came from: A) the study of climate change. B) the study of fossils. C) educated guesses. D) written history. E) oral history.

B) the study of fossils.

44. A primary difference in the age pyramids of industrialized versus third-world countries is that: A) mean longevity is significantly greater among third-world countries. B) third-world countries have much larger proportions of their population in the youngest age group. C) in third-world countries, the few who survive childhood live to a very old age. D) third-world countries show a characteristic "bulge" that indicates a baby boom. E) third-world countries have significantly more individuals than industrialized countries

B) third-world countries have much larger proportions of their population in the youngest age group.

1. There are _______ major domains, which are determined by molecular evidence. A) two B) three C) four D) five E) six

B) three

41. Researchers have proven that life extension is possible. This statement is: A) true; scientists have successfully increased the longevity of human subjects in a laboratory setting. B) true; scientists were able to significantly increase the life expectancy of fruit flies in a laboratory setting. C) true; scientists have achieved this by selectively breeding fruit flies at the earliest possible age of maturity. D) false; scientists attempted to increase the life expectancy of fruit flies, but the average longevity was always 33 days. E) false; experiments to increase the longevity of living organisms have never been undertaken.

B) true; scientists were able to significantly increase the life expectancy of fruit flies in a laboratory setting.

33. Each angiosperm pollen grain contains how many sperm cells? A) one B) two C) thousands D) hundreds E) millions

B) two

42. All fungi are multicellular, but some also have a unicellular form that is called: A) sperm. B) yeast. C) spores. D) hyphae. E) seeds.

B) yeast.

13. The tissues of most shallow-water corals harbor photosynthetic algae called: A) cyanobacteria. B) zooxanthellae. C) medusae. D) cnidocytes. E) nematocysts.

B) zooxanthellae.

1. Which statement about all animals is true? A) All animals are able to conduct photosynthesis. B) All animals eat other animals. C) All animals are multicellular. D) All animals are prokaryotes. E) All animals reproduce sexually.

C) All animals are multicellular.

20. Flower color in snapdragons is an example of incomplete dominance. When a red-flowered plant is crossed with a white-flowered plant, the offspring have pink flowers. If a pink-flowered plant is crossed with another pinkflowered plant, their offspring will be: A) all pink. B) all red. C) 25% red, 50% pink, and 25% white. D) 50% pink and 50% red. E) 25% white, 25% pink and 50% red.

C) 25% red, 50% pink, and 25% white.

5. Life on earth arose from non-life approximately _________ years ago. A) 8,000 B) 4 million C) 4 billion D) 8 trillion E) 400 billion

C) 4 billion

5. In peas, tall plants are dominant to short plants. A heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous recessive plant. What fraction of the offspring would you expect to have the short phenotype? A) none B) 1/4 C) 1/2 D) 3/4 E) all of the offspring

C) 1/2

17. The 20 adult females in a small population each have a probability of 0.5 of producing a single offspring each year and a probability of 0.5 of producing no offspring. How many female offspring will be produced each year? A) 50 offspring, because a female can produce twin and triplet births B) exactly 10 offspring per year C) 10 offspring per year on average, with some variation around this average D) exactly 20 offspring per year E) 20 offspring per year on average, with some variation around this average

C) 10 offspring per year on average, with some variation around this average

26. Mary, who has type O blood, is expecting a child with her husband, who has type B blood. Mary's husband's father has type A blood. What is the probability that the child will have type O blood? A) 100% B) 75% C) 50% D) 25% E) 0%

C) 50%

26. In Lewis Carroll's Through the Looking-Glass, the Red Queen tells Alice, "In this place it takes all the running you can do to stay in the same place." How is this statement logically connected with the idea of evolution by natural selection? A) As individuals evolve to better fit their environment, their environment also changes, subjecting the individuals to continually changing selective pressures. B) Running in place is an important measure of optimal running speed, which is a strong correlate of survival and reproduction. C) As populations evolve to become better adapted to their environments, their environments also change, subjecting the populations to continually changing selective pressures. D) As individuals evolve through natural selection, they tend to develop characteristics that cause them to be less adapted to their environment. E) As individuals evolve through natural selection, they tend to move to new places that are very similar to the places in which they originally evolved.

C) As populations evolve to become better adapted to their environments, their environments also change, subjecting the populations to continually changing selective pressures.

12. Which statement best explains why genetic bottlenecks and founder effects are evolutionarily important? A) In both cases, strong selective pressures lead to fast directional selection. B) Both result in stabilizing selection due to strong selective pressures. C) Both result in small populations that are influenced more by genetic drift. D) Both result in increased fitness. E) Both result in decreased fitness.

C) Both result in small populations that are influenced more by genetic drift.

17. Which group has members that exhibit radial symmetry? A) Porifera B) Arthropoda C) Cnidaria D) Nematoda E) Platyhelminthes

C) Cnidaria

28. ______________ selection favors organisms that have character values at both extremes of the phenotypic distribution. A) Stabilizing B) Directional C) Disruptive D) Sexual E) Frequency-dependent

C) Disruptive

2. Which statement about Charles Darwin is false? A) He dropped out of medical school. B) He and Alfred Russell Wallace independently developed the theory of evolution by natural selection. C) He was enthusiastic about unleashing his theory of natural selection on the world as soon as he thought of it. D) He was under constant pressure from his father to make something of himself. E) He spent five years traveling the world, observing living organisms and collecting fossils.

C) He was enthusiastic about unleashing his theory of natural selection on the world as soon as he thought of it.

34. What is the major developmental characteristic that shows the close relationship between echinoderms and chordates? A) In both groups, all individuals have notochords during the larval stage. B) In both groups, the gut develops from front to back. C) In both groups, the gut develops from back to front. D) In both groups, development occurs by continually adding skeletal elements. E) Both groups are asymmetrical in all life stages.

C) In both groups, the gut develops from back to front.

3. Which of these is a false statement about microbes? A) Microbes can be one thousand billion trillion times smaller than a human. B) Microbes lack the distinct body systems that humans have. C) Microbes are not genetically diverse. D) Microbes cause all of the diseases in the human. E) Microbes are the most abundant organism on earth.

C) Microbes are not genetically diverse.

48. Based on what you know about mammals, which statement best describes what happened in areas where marsupial and placental mammals came into contact? A) They learned to co-exist. B) All marsupial animals went extinct. C) Most marsupial animals went extinct. D) Most placental animals went extinct. E) The two groups mixed with minimal competition due to their niche differences.

C) Most marsupial animals went extinct.

36. Which statement about natural selection is true? A) Natural selection operates only on people of advanced age. B) Natural selection has produced a high degree of infant mortality in humans, compared to other species. C) Natural selection "weeds out" alleles that cause death in early life. D) Natural selection has produced increasing numbers of people who choose never to have children. E) Natural selection tends to increase the risk of dying from external forces

C) Natural selection "weeds out" alleles that cause death in early life.

51. Humans are not a part of which taxonomic group? A) apes B) primates C) Old World monkeys D) placental mammals E) animals

C) Old World monkeys

7. Which statement about prokaryotes is false? A) Prokaryotes contain ribosomes. B) Some prokaryotes can conduct photosynthesis. C) Prokaryotes have circular pieces of DNA within their nuclei. D) Prokaryotes appeared on earth before eukaryotes. E) Prokaryotes contain cytoplasm

C) Prokaryotes have circular pieces of DNA within their nuclei.

45. ________________ is a virus that infects the widest range of mammals. A) HIV B) Influenza C) Rabies D) The common cold virus E) Staphylococcus aureus

C) Rabies

21. ____________ is the energy a parent puts into feeding, growth, and care for its offspring. A) Mating B) Reproduction C) Reproductive investment D) Reciprocal altruism E) Kin selection

C) Reproductive investment

8. If a goose spots a discarded soda can near her nest, why will she roll it back to her nest? A) She is looking to get nutrition from any source she can. B) She has poor eyesight and cannot tell the difference. C) She is exhibiting a fixed action pattern, which directs her to retrieve any item that even vaguely resembles an egg. D) She is planning to use the can as part of the nest border to protect the eggs. E) She is a first-time mother and is in the process of learning the difference between eggs and non-eggs.

C) She is exhibiting a fixed action pattern, which directs her to retrieve any item that even vaguely resembles an egg.

27. Which statement about the archaeal genome is true? A) The archaeal genome has more in common with the bacterial genome than the eukaryotic genome. B) The archaeal genome is much smaller than any bacterial genome. C) The archaeal genome is primarily composed of genes that cannot be found in either of the other domains of life. D) The archaeal genome has more in common with the eukaryotic genome than the bacterial genome. E) The archaeal genome has more in common with the genome of viruses than any other domain of life

C) The archaeal genome is primarily composed of genes that cannot be found in either of the other domains of life.

54. Which anatomical characteristic of humans can be traced back to our arboreal origins? A) increased body weight B) omnivorous diet C) viviparity D) ability to grasp objects with fingers and toes E) hair that insulates the body

D) ability to grasp objects with fingers and toes

34. Which of the choices below best describes the phrase "double fertilization" in angiosperms? A) Two pollen grains land on the same stigma. B) Two sperm cells fertilize the same egg cell that leads to the embryo. C) Each pollen grain contains two sperm cells and each fertilizes its own egg. D) Each pollen grain contains two sperm cells: one leads to the fertilization that produces the embryo, and the other leads to the fertilization that produces the endosperm. E) Each angiosperm has two ovules, and each is fertilized by a sperm cell

D) Each pollen grain contains two sperm cells: one leads to the fertilization that produces the embryo, and the other leads to the fertilization that produces the endosperm.

14. Horses and donkeys can breed and produce sterile offspring known as mules. Horses and donkeys remain separate species because of this hybrid sterility, which is: A) an allopatric barrier to reproduction. B) a sympatric barrier to reproduction. C) a prezygotic barrier to reproduction. D) a postzygotic barrier to reproduction. E) causing the species numbers of both horses and donkeys to decline

D) a postzygotic barrier to reproduction.

12. In pea plants, the allele for purple flower color is dominant to the allele for white flower color. If you performed a test-cross to determine the genotype of a purple-flowered plant, you would expect the percentage of purpleflowered progeny to be _________ if the plant is homozygous and _____________ if the plant is heterozygous. A) 50%, 100% B) 100%, 25% C) 50%, 25% D) 100%, 50% E) 75%, 75%

D) 100%, 50%

9. A true-breeding pigmented male giraffe (MM) is bred with a pigmented heterozygous female (Mm). What are the possible genotypic ratios of this cross? A) 2 MM: 1 Mm: 1 mm B) 1 MM: 2 Mm: 1 mm C) 2 MM: 0 Mm: 2 mm D) 2 MM: 2 Mm: 0 mm E) 0 MM: 2 Mm: 2 mm

D) 2 MM: 2 Mm: 0 mm

28. Plant species A has a diploid chromosome number of 18. Plant species B has a diploid chromosome number of 10. A new species C arises as an allopolyploid of species A and B. What is the most likely diploid chromosome number of species C? A) 10 B) 18 C) 19 D) 28 E) 46

D) 28

9. The oldest prokaryotic fossils date to: A) 1.5 billion years ago. B) 2 billion years ago. C) 2.5 billion years ago. D) 3.5 billion years ago. E) 4.6 billion years ago

D) 3.5 billion years ago.

11. In voles, gray hair (H) is dominant to brown hair (h). Short claws (C) are dominant to long claws (c). What is the probability that the offspring of the cross HhCc × HHcc will have gray hair and long claws? A) 0% B) 25% C) 37.5% D) 50% E) 56.25%

D) 50%

24. Red blood cells have how many different possible genotypes? A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 6 E) 8

D) 6

38. Which statement is an example of a female mating with a male only after submitting him to a courtship ritual? A) A female arctic squirrel will mate with the male that controls the best territory. B) A female frigate bird is attracted to the male with the brightest red chest feathers. C) A female black widow will only mate with a male that will mate-guard her. D) A female bowerbird will mate with a male only after inspecting the small thatched structure he has built for her. E) A female moth will mate with the same male for 24 hours.

D) A female bowerbird will mate with a male only after inspecting the small thatched structure he has built for her.

2. Which statement about all animals is false? A) All animals are descended from a common ancestor. B) All animals eat other organisms. C) All animals are eukaryotes. D) All animals have a dorsal nerve cord. E) All animals reproduce sexually.

D) All animals have a dorsal nerve cord.

24. Which statement about sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) is false? A) More than 300 million people worldwide are newly infected by STDs each year. B) Most STDs are curable with drugs. C) Symptoms of STDs are often mild or absent, so people may unwittingly pass infections to their sexual partners. D) Although STDs can cause discomfort, they are never fatal. E) STDs can be transmitted by needles used for injecting drugs. 25. Is it necessary to take every dose of the antibiotic prescribed to you by your physician, even if your

D) Although STDs can cause discomfort, they are never fatal

22. Which characteristic would not increase or decrease the fitness of the organisms that possess it? A) Certain fruit flies in a population carry genes that increase their ability to survive longer without food than individuals that do not possess that gene. B) Certain mice in a population carry genes that cause their fur to be darker than the fur of other individuals that do not possess those genes. C) Certain male birds in a population carry genes that increase the size of their tail relative to the size of the tails of the male individuals that do not possess those genes. D) Certain sterile mules in a population carry genes that allow them to carry heavier loads than other sterile individuals that do not possess those genes. E) Certain humans in a population carry genes that cause their eyesight to deteriorate at a more rapid rate than other individuals who do not possess those genes.

D) Certain sterile mules in a population carry genes that allow them to carry heavier loads than other sterile

44. The smallpox virus is a(n) _______ virus with mutation-correcting enzymes, so it changes __________. The flu virus is a(n) ________ virus without error-correcting mechanisms, so it changes ____________. A) DNA; rapidly; RNA; slowly B) RNA; rapidly; DNA; slowly C) RNA; slowly; DNA; rapidly D) DNA; slowly; RNA; rapidly E) RNA; rapidly; RNA; slowly

D) DNA; slowly; RNA; rapidly

5. Human babies quickly and easily develop a fear of snakes. Yet they don't easily develop a fear of guns. Why? A) Guns are hard to aim and most of the time the bullet misses the target. B) In order to learn fear of guns, human babies need to be exposed to another human expressing fear of guns, and this rarely happens. C) Fear of snakes is a fixed action pattern in humans. D) During most of the history of human evolution, snakes were dangerous to humans, and guns didn't exist. E) Guns produce an "honest signal," whereas snakes do not.

D) During most of the history of human evolution, snakes were dangerous to humans, and guns didn't exist

28. In many species, male-male fighting is part of the courtship rituals that have evolved for attracting a mate. Why is it rare for the females to fight as a way of attracting a mate? A) Fighting to outcompete other females is too risky. B) Males will only mate with the female who provides the largest amount of food to help maximize reproductive success. C) Males are not impressed by displays of strength; instead, they select mates based on the most dominant female. D) Females make the larger investment in mating; therefore, almost any male will mate with them. E) Females work hard to attract mates in other ways, such as providing nuptial gifts and performing rituals

D) Females make the larger investment in mating; therefore, almost any male will mate with them

36. The fact that fish, penguins, and dolphins all have the same basic shape is best explained by which of the following? A) The basic shapes of fish, penguins, and dolphins are vestigial structures. B) Divergent evolution and adaptive radiation into new niches often result in convergent evolution. C) The similarities are due to having the same genetic ancestors. D) Fish, penguins, and dolphins all faced the same physical constraints during their evolution and converged upon the same body plan. E) Parallel evolution is common among aquatic mammals

D) Fish, penguins, and dolphins all faced the same physical constraints during their evolution and converged upon the same body plan

4. Which statement about Gregor Mendel is false? A) His initial research was inspired by his desire to demonstrate that a tiny, pre-made human existed in each sperm cell. B) By focusing on easily categorized traits, he was able to definitively classify the results of genetic crosses. C) His experiments on heredity involved thousands of pea plants. D) He discovered the laws of segregation and independent assortment. E) He was a monk who lived in what is now the Czech Republic.

D) He discovered the laws of segregation and independent assortment.

56. The species of human that averaged only 3 feet tall was: A) Homo sapiens. B) Homo erectus. C) Homo habilis. D) Homo floresiensis. E) Homo neanderthalensis

D) Homo floresiensis.

24. Which statement about life history patterns is generally false? A) The longer a species lives, the more offspring they are likely to leave behind. B) The greater the average size of offspring, the fewer offspring that are produced in a mating. C) The fewer the reproductive events, the longer individuals are likely to live. D) The greater the investment in reproduction, the longer a species is likely to live. E) Growth is slowed during periods when reproduction occurs.

D) The greater the investment in reproduction, the longer a species is likely to live.

8. In a population exhibiting logistic growth, what happens when the carrying capacity is exceeded? A) The population fluctuates around the new level. B) The carrying capacity cannot be exceeded, because population death precedes it. C) The population crashes and becomes extinct. D) The growth rate becomes negative until the population is back within the carrying capacity. E) The growth rate becomes zero until the population is back within the carrying capacity.

D) The growth rate becomes negative until the population is back within the carrying capacity

6. How does exponential growth differ from logistic growth? A) Logistic growth models take the population's age structure into account. B) Logistic growth requires a large population. C) Long-term exponential growth is more commonly observed than long-term logistic growth in nature. D) The logistic model of growth incorporates environmental limitations on population size. E) Exponential growth models include consideration of a population's carrying capacity

D) The logistic model of growth incorporates environmental limitations on population size.

32. Which statement is true about the sexual behavior of males and females? A) Females are generally more willing to take a mating opportunity; males are generally more hesitant. B) Male bush crickets spend a great deal of effort courting females, whereas females are much choosier when picking a mate. C) Nearly all mammals are characterized by a greater initial reproductive investment by males. D) The sex of any species with the greater energetic investment in reproduction will be more discriminating about mating. E) The sex of any species with the higher energetic investment in reproduction will compete for access to the sex with the lower energetic investment.

D) The sex of any species with the greater energetic investment in reproduction will be more discriminating about mating

33. How did mitochondria originate in protists? A) They broke off from the cell wall and differentiated to synthesize energy. B) They evolved by mitosis. C) The force of gravity compressed the energy-synthesizing parts of the cell into one organelle. D) They derived from bacterial cells that were taken in and later specialized. E) They derived from viruses that first infected protists and then formed a symbiotic relationship with them.

D) They derived from bacterial cells that were taken in and later specialized.

7. In an experiment, it was observed that a group of mainland animals increased their vigilance and decreased foraging in response to novel predators. What is the best prediction we can make about a group of the same species of animal found on a predator-free island? A) When exposed to the novel predators, the island animals will behave in the same way because they are the same species as the mainland animals. B) When exposed to the novel predators, the island animals will show the same response because antipredator behaviors have components in other behaviors that have been maintained. C) When exposed to the novel predators, the island animals will not behave in the same way as the mainland animals because they do not have evolved responses to these novel predators. D) When exposed to the novel predators, the island animals will not respond because they have lost costly antipredator behaviors in the absence of all predators. E) When exposed to the novel predators, the island animals will perform unique anti-predator behaviors that have evolved in isolation from the mainland group.

D) When exposed to the novel predators, the island animals will not respond because they have lost costly antipredator behaviors in the absence of all predators.

43. From the following, select the best example of a cohort. A) a group of fish with the same mother and father B) a group of similarly banded butterflies C) a group of lizards from the same patch of desert D) a group of birds born in the same year E) a group of wolves that are capable of interbreeding

D) a group of birds born in the same year

38. An external force on a population that increases the risk of death is known as: A) aging. B) mortality. C) a density-independent factor. D) a hazard factor. E) a survivorship curve.

D) a hazard factor.

38. The earth has gone through a series of mass extinctions caused by a variety of different factors. The current mass extinction is believed to be the result of: A) global warming. B) loss of the ozone layer. C) normal fluctuations in species diversity. D) reduced levels of speciation. E) human activities.

E) human activities.

16. Exponential growth can continue indefinitely only if: A) the population starts out very small. B) the population starts out high but grows slowly. C) the carrying capacity of the habitat (K) is very high. D) the carrying capacity of the habitat (K) is a moderate figure. E) Exponential growth cannot continue indefinitely.

E) Exponential growth cannot continue indefinitely.

4. Which statement represents a change in people's worldview after Darwin published The Origin of Species? A) Earth is mostly unchanging. B) Earth is approximately 6,000 years old. C) Organisms are fixed, with no additions or extinctions. D) Every extant organism was put on earth by a creator at the same time. E) Organisms change and adapt over time.

E) Organisms change and adapt over time.

25. Which of these is not considered a difficulty with the biological species concept? A) fossil species B) asexual species C) hybridizing species D) ring species E) inbreeding species.

E) inbreeding species

10. Genetic drift leads to fixation when an allele's frequency reaches _____ in a population. A) 1% B) 10% C) 50% D) 51% E) 100%

E) 100%

28. Which statement is not a difference between archaea and bacteria? A) The composition of their plasma membranes is different. B) They have very different DNA sequences. C) The composition of their cell walls is different. D) They have different types of flagella. E) Archaea have a nucleus, whereas bacteria do not.

E) Archaea have a nucleus, whereas bacteria do not.

8. Both mosses and ferns must have freestanding water present (water droplets, for example) in order to fulfill their requirements for fertilization. Which statement is the best explanation for why this is true? A) Both mosses and ferns have male gametes that float in water to the female structure. B) Both mosses and ferns have gametes that require the plant to take in a lot of water in order to fulfill their photosynthetic requirements. C) Both mosses and ferns have motile female gametes that require water to travel to the male gametes. D) Both mosses and ferns have motile male and motile female gametes that come together in water to fertilize. E) Both mosses and ferns have motile male gametes that require water to travel to the female gametes.

E) Both mosses and ferns have motile male gametes that require water to travel to the female gametes.

5. Which is the best brief description of the vascular system of the very first terrestrial plants? A) The first plants developed specialized vessel cells that conducted water. B) The first plants did not develop a vascular system and did not transport water through the plant. C) The first plants had a very basic vascular system with a simple method of internal transport. D) The first plants had only long, needle-like leaves, from which water could evaporate easily. E) The first plants did not develop a vascular system and transported water through the plant by diffusion from cell to cell.

E) The first plants did not develop a vascular system and transported water through the plant by diffusion from cell to cell.

34. Usually, the female is more discriminating than the male when it comes to mating. However, in bush crickets, the opposite is the case. Why is this? A) Male bush crickets accept the newly fertilized zygotes from the female and incubate them. B) A male bush cricket must bring the female a large offering of food in order for the female to accept him as a mate. C) Male bush crickets produce few sperm, so they are more discriminating than females. D) Male bush crickets have tremendous variation in the desirability of their territories. E) The male contributes a massive amount of energy to the female during mating—his ejaculate makes up approximately one-quarter of his body weight

E) The male contributes a massive amount of energy to the female during mating—his ejaculate makes up approximately one-quarter of his body weigh

35. Which statement about diatoms is false? A) They are unicellular. B) They are photosynthetic. C) They live in oceans, ponds, and rivers. D) They are enclosed in a shell made of silica. E) They feed by the process of phagocytosis.

E) They feed by the process of phagocytosis.

25. Is it necessary to take every dose of the antibiotic prescribed to you by your physician, even if your symptoms improve? A) No, your physician is just being extra careful to avoid a lawsuit. B) No, by overmedicating, you are reducing the likelihood that the same medicine will be effective the next time you get sick. C) Yes, it is important to take every dose because you should never allow prescription medication to sit unused in your medicine cabinet. D) Yes, the extra antibiotic in your system will help you build immunity to subsequent bacterial infections. E) Yes, because even after your symptoms improve, there are still harmful bacteria in your system, which are the most resistant to the antibiotic. It is important to reduce the population size of the harmful bacteria and expose them to competition from other types of bacteria

E) Yes, because even after your symptoms improve, there are still harmful bacteria in your system, which are the most resistant to the antibiotic. It is important to reduce the population size of the harmful bacteria and expose them to competition from other types of bacteria

5. Evolution is defined as: A) survival of the fittest. B) a change in the frequency of a physical trait in a population over time. C) a progressive "ladder" of changes from the most primitive organisms to the most advanced organisms. D) a change in a physical trait of an individual during its lifetime. E) a change in the frequency of alleles in a population over time.

E) a change in the frequency of alleles in a population over time.

48. A retrovirus is an RNA-containing virus that also contains a viral enzyme called reverse transcriptase that uses a strand of viral RNA as a template to synthesize: A) surface glycoproteins. B) a single strand of RNA. C) a double strand of RNA. D) a single strand of DNA. E) a double strand of DNA.

E) a double strand of DNA.

41. The honeycreepers are a group of Hawaiian birds with many different species that all evolved from a single species that migrated from the Americas. Which pattern of evolution does the speciation of the honeycreepers most likely exemplify? A) convergent evolution B) convergent radiation C) punctuated equilibrium D) allopolyploidy E) adaptive radiation

E) adaptive radiation

17. The first cells that evolved from photosynthesis appeared on earth: A) approximately 1.5 billion years ago. B) 250 million years ago. C) 100,000 years ago. D) approximately 4.3 billion years ago. E) approximately 2.6 billion years ago

E) approximately 2.6 billion years ago

35. Which of these is not an echinoderm? A) sea stars B) sea urchins C) sand dollars D) sea cucumbers E) barnacles

E) barnacles

35. Male elephant seals tend to be three to four times the size of female elephant seals. We can surmise that reproduction in this species includes all of the following except: A) sexual dimorphism. B) polygyny. C) inequality in parental care of the offspring. D) high male variance in reproductive success. E) both sexes are equally choosy in selecting a mate.

E) both sexes are equally choosy in selecting a mate.

34. A survivorship curve that had low survivorship in the beginning and stabilized after high initial mortality would be a characteristic of which type of organism? A) rodents B) hummingbirds C) birds of prey D) elephants E) cod

E) cod

26. Scientists disagree about how many species are currently on earth for all of the following reasons except: A) one true definition of species does not exist. B) many organisms on earth have yet to be discovered. C) at any one time, few populations are in the process of speciation. D) different scientists use different techniques to estimate the actual number of species from the known number of species. E) controversy exists over whether natural selection is the only mode of speciation

E) controversy exists over whether natural selection is the only mode of speciation.

49. Just before the first diploid cell is formed in a fungal life cycle, the cell is said to be: A) haploid. B) a gamete. C) a mycelium. D) monokaryotic. E) dikaryotic.

E) dikaryotic.

32. Protists are alike in that they all are: A) multicellular. B) photosynthetic. C) terrestrial. D) prokaryotic. E) eukaryotic

E) eukaryotic

13. The growth rate of a population at its carrying capacity: A) depends on the carrying capacity of the population. B) is negative. C) is logistic. D) is at its maximum. E) fluctuates around zero.

E) fluctuates around zero.

15. In a given population, a few individuals may, by random chance, leave behind more descendants than other individuals. Thus, the next generation will have a higher proportion of the alleles of the "lucky" individuals. Which concept is illustrated by this example? A) migration B) mutation C) the founder effect D) the bottleneck effect E) genetic drift

E) genetic drift