Study Guide Multiple Choice Test (A)
The spherical equivalent of a (-2.00 +3.00 x 090) lens is a) -0.50 b) -1.50 c) +0.50 d) +1.50
-0.50
How many pads are used when applying a pressure patch? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
2
The test that is used to determine if a patient may be suffering from age-related macualr degeneration (ARMD) is the a) Amsler Grid test b) Entopic test c) Four-Prism Diopter test d) Fournier analysis
Amsler Grid test
Which of the following ophthalmic emergencies require immediate attention a) Chemical burns, sudden severe loss of vision, lacerated or penetrated globe b) ocular discomfort, mucus discharge, tearing, itching c) diplopia, eyelid edema, lid twitching d) photophobia, floater, near vision difficulty
Chemical burns, sudden severe loss of vision, lacerated or penetrated globe
The following are all methods of color vision testing except a) Goldmann b) Ishihara c) Farnsworth-Munsell d) Nagel anomaloscope
Goldmann
The instrument most commonly used to measure introcular pressure by flattening the cornea is the a) Schiotz tonometer b) Stein tension tonometer c) Helmholtz applanation tonometer d) Goldmann applanation tonometer
Goldmann applanation tonometer
Which of the following statements regarding the accurate measurement of visual acuity is TRUE? a) Binocular acuity testing is more important than monocular testing b) Patients who cannot see the largest letters on the distance acuity chart should be allowed to move closer until they are able to read some of the letters c) The patient must be allowed to squint during the test to attain his or her best visual image d) Patients who wear corrective lenses should NOT wear them for the visual acuity test
Patients who cannot see the largest letters on the distance acuity chart should be allowed to move closer until they are able to read some of the letters
The primary visual acuity test performed as part of the comprehensive ocular examination is the a) Helmholtz test b) Snellen acuity test c) Schiotz tonometry test d) Farnsworth D-15 test
Snellen acuity test
Which is not an antifungal agent a) Amphotericin B b) Natamycin c) Miconazole d) Vivarabine
Vivarabine
A past ocular history includes all of the following except: a) strabismus surgery at the age of 5 b) first reading glasses 6 years ago c) a cousin diagnosed with glaucoma 10 years ago d) red eye a month ago
a cousin diagnosed with glaucoma 10 years ago
Medical ethics are a) not applicable to the ophthalmic assistant b) a form of state law c) a set of moral values d) primarily for the benfit of the physician
a set of moral values
Cycloplegic refraction is a procedure which paralyzes the eyes a) photoreceptive ability b) fusional ability c) accommodative ability d) pupillary ability
accommodative ability
If dirt accumulates on the mirror of the slit lamp, the tech may clean it by using all of the following except a) a soft lint-free cloth b) a lens brush c) a blast of air d) alcohol
alcohol
The slit-lamp biomicroscope is most often utilized for the a) internal examination of the eye b) refractive examination of the eye c) nerve system examination of the eye d) anterior segment examination of the eye
anterior segment examination of the eye
The lighting system of a slit-lamp biomicroscope can be adjusted to vary the a) ocular acuity and beam length b) beam width and angle c) beam color and tonometer strength d) tonometer strength and angle
beam width and angle
In the hyperopic eye, parallel rays of light are brought into focus a) behind the retina b) sharply on the retina c) both slightly in front of and slightly behind the retina d) in front of the retina
behind the retina
Cycloplegic agents differ from mydriatic agents in that they a) both dilate the pupil and paralyze accommodation b) paralyze accommodation c) dilate the pupil only d) are not effective in children
both dilate the pupil and paralyze accommodation
Pupillary function is an important objective clinical sign in patients with visual loss and neurological disease. What can be expected during a normal pupil exam? a) iris color in two eyes is different b) pupil size in both eyes is unequal c) both pupils are large in dim light d) both pupils are small in dim light
both pupils are large in dim light
The acronym CPR stands for a) carotoidpulse reaction b) cardiopulmonary reflex c) corneal pupillary reflex d) cardiopulmonary resuscitation
cardiopulmonary resuscitation
In regard to metabolic diseases, diabetes is the one that a) affects very few individuals b) rarely affects vision c) has no known cure d) carries the greatest risk of blindness
carries the greatest risk of blindness
In taking a history, which of the following is the most important? a) allergies and drug reactions b) medications taken at present c) past ocular history d) chief complaint
chief complaint
The specific reason a patient is being seen for an eye exam is referred to as the a) chief complaint b) diabetes in parent c) drug allergies d) family history
chief complaint
The ophthalmic medical assistant may perform which of the following? a) diagnose ophthalmic conditions b) treat medical conditions c) collect data as authorized for the supervising physician d) perform surgical procedures as authorized by the supervising physician
collect data as authorized for the supervising physician
Shining a bright light into one eye normally cause both pupils to constrict equally. The pupillary reaction is the illuminated eye is called a) indirect light reflex b) consensual light reflex c) direct light reflex d) near light reflex
consensual light reflex
The ability in human vision to decern objects of relative different lightness and darkness from their surroundings is referred to as a) individual magnification effect b) visual field extent c) contrast sensitivity d) distance visual acuity
contrast sensitivity
The most serious complication of the improper removal of rigid contact lenses is a) corneal abrasion b) damage to the lens c) giant papillary conjunctivitis d) loss of the lens
corneal abrasion
Kerotometry is the procedure for measurement of the patient's a) pupil size b) crystalline lens curvature c) macular radius d) corneal curvature
corneal curvature
The method used to treat eyelid lesions by freezing is called a) cryotherapy b) cautery c) chemotherapy d) capsulotomy
cryotherapy
The term astigmatism refers to the refractive condition that may be corrected with a) plus lenses b) minus lenses c) cylinder lenses d) prism lenses
cylinder lenses
What should the ophthalmic medical assistant do if the patient refuses to discuss their medical history a) defer the history to the nurse b) defer the history to the physician c) refer the patient elsewhere d) reschedule the patient
defer the history to the physician
Responsibilities of the ophthalmic technician in the care of patients include all of the following except a) determining the diagnosis and resulting treatment of the disease b) identifying the factors in the patient's history that may be indicative of glaucoma c) performing tests to determine the status of the patient's glaucoma d) teaching the patient about their condition
determining the diagnosis and resulting treatment of the disease
A common endrocrine problem associate with eye disorders is a) diabetes b) high blood pressure c) retinopathy of prematurity d) rheumatoid arthritis
diabetes
Which of the following is included in a past medical history? a) details of ocular treatment b) diabetes in parent c) drug allergies d) family history
diabetes in parent
Anisocoria is described as a) unequal corneal diameter b) differing iris colors c) different refractive errors d) difference in pupil size
difference in pupil size
Local anesthetics by injection are used in ophthalmology to produce all of the following except a) anesthesia of the globe b) anesthesia of the eyelid c) dilate the pupil only d) are not effective in children
dilate the pupil only
The primary disadvantage of ophthalmic topical solution medication is a) unstable pH b) increased allergic reaction c) diminished contact with the eye d) topical delivery
diminished contact with the eye
A-scan biometry measures the a) distance between internal ocular structures b) size of normal ocular structures c) size of ocular tumors d) size of the optic disc
distance between internal ocular structures
Which is not a valid visual field test a) confrontational field b) tangent screen c) exophthalmometry d) Goldmann perimeter
exophthalmometry
Which if of the following is most likely to be responsible for the transmission of epidemic adenovirus keratoconjunctivitis? a) finger-to-eye transmission b) applanation tonometry c) fluorescein solutions d) kissing
finger-to-eye transmission
Lensometry always begins with a) focusing the eyepiece b) positioning the lenses c) measuring the sphere power d) measuring the cylinder power
focusing the eyepiece
Protocols for applying pressure patches or chields require that the adhesive tape must be applied from a) forehead to the cheek b) temple to near the nose c) forehead to the temple d) temple to the ear on the same side
forehead to the cheek
The part of the retina which is most concerned with the fine visual resolution and good color perception is called the a) bipolar cell b) fovea c) pigment epithelium d) rod receptors
fovea
A brightness acuity tester (BAT) determines the effect of a) glare on visual acuity b) illumination on visual acuity c) contrast on visual acuity d) color on visual acuity
glare on visual acuity
An ocular shield is indicated in which of the following circumstances a) corneal abrasion b) globe laceration c) conjunctivits d) blepharitis
globe laceration
The condition in a visual field in which the right half or the left half of the visual field is missing is referred to as a a) perimetry cone b) semi-hemisphere c) hemianopsia d) macropia
hemianopsia
Slit lamp biomicroscope photography is useful for a) determining cup to disc ration b) imaging the optic nerve c) determining the need for spectacles d) imaging the anterior segment of the eye
imaging the anterior segment of the eye
In the myopic eye, parallel rays of light are brought into focus a) behind the retina b) sharply on the retina c) both slightly in front of and slightly behind the retina d) in front of the retina
in front of the retina
The process by which a patient is able to make a knowledgeable assessment of a specific medical or surgical procedure is referred to as a) informed consent b) a law statue c) standard setting d) office information
informed consent
The structure that provides color to the eye is the a) pupil b) crystalline lens c) iris d) cornea
iris
The uvea consists of the a) cornea, anterior chamber, and posterior chamber b) iris, ciliary body, and choroid c) cornea, retina, and optic nerve d) retina, optic nerve, and optic tract
iris, ciliary body, and choroid
In order to maintain the retinoscope, you need to a) keep an adequate supply of spare bulbs in the examining room b) keep the retinoscope in the a case when not in use c) assure the examiner is able to operate it adequately d) replace the batteries after each use
keep an adequate supply of spare bulbs in the examining room
Red eye may be the result of all the following except a) conjunctivits b) subconjunctival hemorrhage c) keratoconus d) iritis
keratoconus
An ophthalmometer is also known as a a) goniometer b) lens clock c) keratometer d) tonometer
keratometer
This is a(n) image a) phoropter b) lensomter c) Goldmann tonometer d) keratometer
keratometer
The area of the eye MOST critical to central vision is the a) cornea b) lens c) macula d) pupil
macula
What is the MOST common cause of low vision among the elderly today? a) cataract b) glaucoma c) macular degeneration d) retinitis pigmentosa
macular degeneration
A patient who reports metamorphopsia (waviness when looking at the straight lines or letters) most like has a) astigmatism b) cataract c) macular disease d) optic neuritis
macular disease
When an ophthalmologist dos not perform surgery in an operating room rather in the ophthalmologist's office this is referred to as a) enucleation surgery b) minor surgery c) vitreous surgery d) evisceration surgery
minor surgery
The following all represent a type of bifocal spectacle lens except a) cement b) ultex c) mono lens d) kryotok
mono lens
Strabismus is faiure of both eyes to spontaneously direct their gaze at the same object due to a) retinal dysfunction b) muscular imbalance c) corneal aberrations d) crystalline lens atrophy
muscular imbalance
Dilation of the pupil is referred to as a) miosis b) neomycin c) mydrasis d) increased blurred vision
mydrasis
The following are the main methods of ophthalmic drug delivery to patients except a) nasal delivery b) oral delivery c) injectable delivery d) topical delivery
nasal delivery
The determination of a patient's refractive error through retinoscopy is a) subjective b) objective c) intermediate d) intuitive
objective
Inaccurate pressure readings when performing indentation tonometry can be attributed to the a) corneal curvature b) ocular rigidity c) crystalline lens d) extraocular muscles
ocular rigidity
The tear film consists of which three layers oily, aqueous, mucin
oily, aqueous, mucin
Which method would be recommended for delivering a drug to a crying child? a) drops b) ointments c) solutions d) suspensions
ointments
The thickness of the cornea is measured using a a) lensometer b) laser interferometer c) pachymeter d) pupillometer
pachymeter
A properly applied eye dressing should be secured with a) alternating vertical and horizontal strips of adhesive tape b) horizontal parallel strips of adhesive tape c) parallel strips of surgical tape from the forehead to the cheekbone d) strips of adhesive tape from the upper lid near the ear to the forehead
parallel strips of surgical tape from the forehead to the cheekbone
The image shown is a(n) a) phoropter b) lensometer c) Goldmann tonometer d) keratometer
phoropter
Proper care of a phoropter does not include a) wiping the cross cylinder with a lens tissue occasionally b) protecting the phoropter with a dust cover when not in use c) cleaning the retinoscopy lens and other back lenses with a glass cleaner and cotton-tipped swabs d) placing a finger in the sight aperture
placing a finger in the sight aperture
The pupose of the chin rest adjustment knob on the keratometer is to a) position the keratometer to the patient's eye below the keratometer barrel b) position the keratometer to the patient's eye roughly in line with the keratometer barrel c) position the keratometer to the patient's eye above the keratometer barrel d) position the patient in the most comfortable way without respect to the keratometer barrel
position the keratometer to the patient's eye roughly in line with the keratometer barrel
All of the following may cause irregularly shaped pupils except a) congenital abnormalities b) iris inflammation c) presbyopia d) loss of the lens
presbyopia
Tonometry refers to the measurement of the eyes a) pressure b) vitreous c) curvature d) striations
pressure
If upon examination, the anterior chamber appears shallow, the patient may be a) suffering from dark adaptation b) developing presbyopia c) prone to narrow angle glaucoma d) showing myopia progression
prone to narrow angle glaucoma
Interpupillary distance is measured by a(n) a) lensometer b) laser interferometer c) Geneva lens clock d) pupillometer
pupillometer
Refractometry is the clinic procedure for determining a patient's a) visual field b) refractive error c) retinal thickness d) intraocular pressure
refractive error
The acronym RAPD standards for a) removable anterior pupillary deposits b) relative afferent pupillary defect c) retro-aqueous pupil development d) reasonably adapted pupil diameters
relative afferent pupillary defect
A concern with using ultrasonic cleaning systems is that they can a) rust instruments b) remove all lubrication c) dull instrument teeth d) scratch instruments
remove all lubrication
The elctro-oculogram (EOG) is a test that provides information about a) corneal response b) retinal response c) crystalline lens response d) extraocular muscle response
retinal response
The elements that convert light into electrical impulses for transmission of messages to the brain are a) retinal elements b) sensory receptors c) pigment epithelium layers d) rods and cones
rods and cones
The partial of complete blindness within a normal visual field is known as a a) confrontational field b) diplopia c) hemianopia d) scotoma
scotoma
The chief advantage of the projected acuity chart compared with the printed Snellen distance chart is that it can be used to a) show the patient one line of print at a time b) allow for an actual distance of less than 20 feet c) test color vision d) test dark adaptation
show the patient one line of print at a time
The pantoscopic angle of an eyeglass frome on the face is best estimate by viewing the eyeglasses from the a) side b) front c) rear d) back
side
A pledget is a a) focusing knob on a binocular microscope b) type of hypodermic needle c) small tuft of cotton soaked in anesthetic solution * d) type of lacrimal cannula
small tuft of cotton soaked in anesthetic solution
Which of the following statement is TRUE about soft contact lenses compared to hard contact lenses a) soft lenses are more difficult to keep clean and free from deposits b) soft lenses have minimal overwear reactions c) soft lenses have better optics and usually give better vision d) soft lenses may be more easily modified
soft lenses have minimal overwear reactions
A family history includes except: a) mother b) daughter c) spouse d) brother
spouse
Washing hands between patients is an example of which of the following? a) aseptic technique b) disinfection c) request of the physician d) standard precaution
standard precaution
Which of the following symptoms suggests an urgent problem? a) difficulty seeing at night b) increased difficulty in reading fine print c) sudden onset blurry vision and haloes around lights d) visual flashes followed by headache
sudden onset blurry vision and haloes around lights
The Worth four-dot test is used to detect the a) maximum visual acuity b) retinal rod function c) suppression of one eye d) extent of the color vision
suppression of one eye
Intravenous, intramuscular and subcutaneous injections of pharmaeutical substance are classified as a) intravitreal drug delivery b) subconjunctival drug delivery c) systemic drug delivery d) periocular drug delivery
systemic drug delivery
A Schrimer test measures the patient's a) tear output b) color vision c) visual field d) prism requirement
tear output
If eyes are misaligned or the extraocular muscles are unable to move the eyes in a coordinated manner, then a) the brain may be unable to merge the two images received from the eyes b) the two images received by the brain should still maintain corresponding retinal points c) the physical appearance of the eyes should not be affected d) stereopsis will not be affected
the brain may be unable to merge the two images received from the eyes
A near visual acuity test deterines the ability of the patient to see a) the large E at a predetermined distance b) the large E at a normal distance c) the specified M unit in a far point d) the card clearly at at normal distance
the card clearly at at normal distance
Systemic disorders that manifest retinal effects include all of the following except a) thyroid disorders b) sickle cell disease c) the common cold d) hypertension
the common cold
A patient calls the office and reports she had cataract surgery two years ago and is experiencing bright flashes of light in the eye that was operated on x 2 days. What should the patient be told? a) call back to an ophthalmologist if the symptoms persist b) flashes of light are normal with aphakic surgery c) see an ophthalmologist within 24 hours d) see an ophthalmologist within a month
the patient should see an ophthalmologist within 24 hours
What is the cause of a projected image to become dim on one half of the acuity projector screen a) fingerprints are on the screen b) fingerprints are on the bulb c) the projector bulb is failing d) the screen is dusty
the projector bulb is failing
B-scan ultrasonography provides a a) one-dimensional reconstruction of ocular and orbital tissues b) two-dimensional reconstruction of ocular and orbital tissues c) three-dimensional reconstruction of ocular and orbital tissues d) one-dimensional reconstruction of the retina
two-dimensional reconstruction of ocular and orbital tissues
Factors that determine whether or not surgery will be performed in the ophthalmologist's office include all the following except a) outpatient facilities in a nearby hospital b) time spent at the hospital by the physician c) type of insurance the patient has d) presence of a trained ophthalmic assistant
type of insurance the patient has
What is the best method for someone to assist a blind patient to ambulate? a) Hold both of the patient's hands and guide towards you b) Walk next to the patient with your arm around the patient's waist c) walk slightly ahead of the patient allowing the patient to rest their hand on your arm d) have the patient take our arm
walk slightly ahead of the patient allowing the patient to rest their hand on your arm
Information on a chart should not shared without the patient's a) verbal consent b) knowledge c) written consent d) family knowing
written consent
