Term 3 C7 Exam 2

What is the nurse's first action when planning to teach the parents of an infant with a congenital heart defect (CHD)? a. Assess the parents' anxiety level and readiness to learn. b. Gather literature for the parents. c. Secure a quiet place for teaching. d. Discuss the plan with the nursing team.

A Any effort to organize the right environment, plan, or literature is of no use if the parents are not ready to learn or have high anxiety. Decreasing their level of anxiety is often needed before new information can be processed. A baseline assessment of prior knowledge should be taken into consideration before developing any teaching plan. Locating a quiet place for meeting with parents is appropriate; however, an assessment should be done before any teaching is done. Discussing a teaching plan with the nursing team is appropriate after an assessment of the parents' knowledge and readiness.

Which intervention should be included in the plan of care for an infant with the nursing diagnosis of Excess Fluid Volume related to congestive heart failure? a. Weigh the infant every day on the same scale at the same time. b. Notify the physician when weight gain exceeds more than 20 g/day. c. Put the infant in a car seat to minimize movement. d. Administer digoxin (Lanoxin) as ordered by the physician.

A Excess fluid volume may not be overtly visible. Weight changes may indicate fluid retention. Weighing the infant on the same scale at the same time each day ensures consistency. An excessive weight gain for an infant is an increase of more than 50 g/day. With fluid volume excess, skin will be edematous. The infant's position should be changed frequently to prevent undesirable pooling of fluid in certain areas. Lanoxin is used in the treatment of congestive heart failure to improve cardiac function. Diuretics will help the body get rid of excess fluid.

A child with pulmonary atresia exhibits cyanosis with feeding. On reviewing this child's laboratory values, the nurse is not surprised to notice which abnormality? a. Polycythemia b. Infection c. Dehydration d. Anemia

A Polycythemia is a compensatory response to chronic hypoxia. The body attempts to improve tissue oxygenation by producing additional red blood cells and thereby increases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Infection is not a clinical consequence of cyanosis. Although dehydration can occur in cyanotic heart disease, it is not a compensatory mechanism for chronic hypoxia. It is not a clinical consequence of cyanosis. Anemia may develop as a result of increased blood viscosity. Anemia is not a clinical consequence of cyanosis.

Which structural defects constitute tetralogy of Fallot? a. Pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy b. Aortic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy c. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy d. Pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, aortic hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy

A Tetralogy of Fallot has these four characteristics: pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. There is pulmonic stenosis but not aortic stenosis in tetralogy of Fallot. Right ventricular hypertrophy, not left ventricular hypertrophy, is present in tetralogy of Fallot. There is a ventricular septal defect, not an atrial septal defect, and overriding aorta, not aortic hypertrophy, is present

Parents of a 3-year-old child with congenital heart disease are afraid to let their child play with other children because of possible overexertion. The nurse's reply should be based on knowing that: a. The child needs opportunities to play with peers. b. The child needs to understand that peers' activities are too strenuous. c. Parents can meet all the child's needs. d. Constant parental supervision is needed to avoid overexertion.

A The child needs opportunities for social development. Children usually limit their activities if allowed to set their own pace and regulate their activities. The child will limit activities as necessary. Parents must be encouraged to seek appropriate social activities for the child, especially before kindergarten. The child needs to have activities that foster independence.

In which situation is there the greatest risk that a newborn infant will have a congenital heart defect (CHD)? a. Trisomy 21 detected on amniocentesis b. Family history of myocardial infarction c. Father has type 1 diabetes mellitus d. Older sibling born with Turner's syndrome

A The incidence of congenital heart disease is approximately 50% in children with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome). A family history of congenital heart disease, not acquired heart disease, increases the risk of giving birth to a child with CHD. Infants born to mothers who are insulin dependent have an increased risk of CHD. Infants identified as having certain genetic defects, such as Turner's syndrome, have a higher incidence of CHD.

What information does the nurse teach a womens group about osteoporosis? a. For 5 years after menopause you lose 2% of bone mass yearly. b. Men actually have higher rates of the disease but are underdiagnosed. c. There is no way to prevent or slow osteoporosis after menopause. d. Women and men have an equal chance of getting osteoporosis.

ANS: A For the first 5 years after menopause, women lose about 2% of their bone mass each year. Men have a slower loss of bone after the age of 75. Many treatments are now available for women to slow osteoporosis after menopause.

A client with fibromyalgia is in the hospital for an unrelated issue. The client reports that sleep, which is always difficult, is even harder now. What actions by the nurse are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Allow the client uninterrupted rest time. b. Assess the client's usual bedtime routine. c. Limit environmental noise as much as possible. d. Offer a massage or warm shower at night. e. Request an order for a strong sleeping pill.

ANS: A, B, C, D Clients with fibromyalgia often have sleep disturbances, which can be exacerbated by the stress, noise, and unfamiliar environment of the hospital. Allowing uninterrupted rest time, adhering to the client's usual bedtime routine as much as possible, limiting noise and light, and offering massages or warm showers can help. The client does not need a strong sleeping pill unless all other options fail and the client requests something for sleep. At that point a mild sleeping agent can be tried.

A nurse is assessing a community group for dietary factors that contribute to osteoporosis. In addition to inquiring about calcium, the nurse also assesses for which other dietary components? (Select all that apply.) a. Alcohol b. Caffeine c. Fat d. Carbonated beverages e. Vitamin D

ANS: A, B, D, E Dietary components that affect the development of osteoporosis include alcohol, caffeine, high phosphorus intake, carbonated beverages, and vitamin D. Tobacco is also a contributing lifestyle factor. Fat intake does not contribute to osteoporosis.

A client has been prescribed denosumab (Prolia). What instruction about this drug is most appropriate? a. Drink at least 8 ounces of water with it. b. Make appointments to come get your shot. c. Sit upright for 30 to 60 minutes after taking it. d. Take the drug on an empty stomach.

ANS: B Denosumab is given by subcutaneous injection twice a year. The client does not need to drink 8 ounces of water with this medication as it is not taken orally. The client does not need to remain upright for 30 to 60 minutes after taking this medication, nor does the client need to take the drug on an empty stomach.

A nurse is working with a community group promoting healthy aging. What recommendation is best to help prevent osteoarthritis (OA)? a. Avoid contact sports. b. Get plenty of calcium. c. Lose weight if needed. d. Engage in weight-bearing exercise.

ANS: C Obesity can lead to OA, and if the client is overweight, losing weight can help prevent OA or reduce symptoms once it occurs. Arthritis can be caused by contact sports, but this is less common than obesity. Calcium and weight-bearing exercise are both important for osteoporosis.

The nurse working in the orthopedic clinic knows that a client with which factor has an absolute contraindication for having a total joint replacement? a. Needs multiple dental fillings b. Over age 85 c. Severe osteoporosis d. Urinary tract infection

ANS: C Osteoporosis is a contraindication to joint replacement because the bones have a high risk of shattering as the new prosthesis is implanted. The client who needs fillings should have them done prior to the surgery. Age greater than 85 is not an absolute contraindication. A urinary tract infection can be treated prior to surgery. The contraindications for TJA are active infection anywhere in the body, advanced osteoporosis, and rapidly progressive inflammation

A nurse is providing education to a community womens group about lifestyle changes helpful in preventing osteoporosis. What topics does the nurse cover? (Select all that apply.) a. Cut down on tobacco product use. b. Limit alcohol to two drinks a day. c. Strengthening exercises are important. d. Take recommended calcium and vitamin D. e. Walk 30 minutes at least 3 times a week.

ANS: C, D, E Lifestyle changes can be made to decrease the occurrence of osteoporosis and include strengthening and weight-bearing exercises and getting the recommended amounts of both calcium and vitamin D. Tobacco should be totally avoided. Women should not have more than one drink per day.

The nurse studying osteoporosis learns that which drugs can cause this disorder? (Select all that apply.) a. Antianxiety agents b. Antibiotics c. Barbiturates d. Corticosteroids e. Loop diuretics

ANS: C, D, E Several classes of drugs can cause secondary osteoporosis, including barbiturates, corticosteroids, and loop diuretics. Antianxiety agents and antibiotics are not associated with the formation of osteoporosis.

A nurse is teaching nursing students the physiology of congenital heart defects. Which defect results in decreased pulmonary blood flow? a. Atrial septal defect c. Ventricular septal defect b. Tetralogy of Fallot d. Patent ductus arteriosus

B Tetralogy of Fallot results in decreased blood flow to the lungs. The pulmonic stenosis increases the pressure in the right ventricle, causing the blood to go from right to left across the interventricular septal defect. Atrial and ventricular septal defects and patent ductus arteriosus result in increased pulmonary blood flow.

The nurse assessing a premature newborn infant auscultates a continuous machinery-like murmur. This finding is associated with which congenital heart defect? a. Pulmonary stenosis b. Patent ductus arteriosus c. Ventricular septal defect d. Coarctation of the aorta

B The classic murmur associated with patent ductus arteriosus is a machinery-like one that can be heard throughout both systole and diastole. A systolic ejection murmur that may be accompanied by a palpable thrill is a manifestation of pulmonary stenosis. The characteristic murmur associated with ventricular septal defect is a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur. A systolic murmur that is accompanied by an ejection click may be heard on auscultation when coarctation of the aorta is present.

An 8-month-old infant has a hypercyanotic spell while blood is being drawn. The nurse's first action should be to: a. Assess for neurologic defects. b. Place the child in the knee-chest position. c. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation. d. Prepare the family for imminent death.

B The first action is to place the infant in the knee-chest position. Blow-by oxygen may be indicated. Neurologic defects are unlikely. The child should be assessed for airway, breathing, and circulation. Often calming the child and administering oxygen and morphine can alleviate the hypercyanotic spell; cardiopulmonary resuscitation is not necessary, and death is unlikely.

What is the appropriate priority nursing action for the infant with a CHD who has an increased respiratory rate, is sweating, and is not feeding well? a. Recheck the infant's blood pressure. b. Alert the physician. c. Withhold oral feeding. d. Increase the oxygen rate.

B These are signs of early congestive heart failure, and the physician should be notified. Although rechecking blood pressure may be indicated, it is not the priority action. Withholding the infant's feeding is an incomplete response to the problem. Increasing oxygen may alleviate symptoms; however, medications such as digoxin and furosemide are necessary to improve heart function and fluid retention. Notifying the physician is the priority nursing action.

A clinical manifestation of the systemic venous congestion that can occur with congestive heart failure is: a. Tachypnea. b. Tachycardia c. Peripheral edema.. d. Pale, cool extremities.

C Peripheral edema, especially periorbital edema, is a clinical manifestation of systemic venous congestion. Tachypnea is a manifestation of pulmonary congestion. Tachycardia and pale, cool extremities are clinical manifestations of impaired myocardial function.

What is best described as the inability of the heart to pump an adequate amount of blood to the systemic circulation at normal filling pressures? a. Pulmonary congestion c. Congestive heart failure b. Congenital heart defect d. Systemic venous congestion

C The definition of congestive heart failure is the inability of the heart to pump an adequate amount of blood to the systemic circulation at normal filling pressures to meet the metabolic demands of the body. Pulmonary congestion is an excessive accumulation of fluid in the lungs. Congenital heart defect is a malformation of the heart present at birth. Systemic venous congestion is an excessive accumulation of fluid in the systemic vasculature.

When assessing a child for possible congenital heart defects (CHDs), where should the nurse measure blood pressure? a. The right arm b. The left arm c. All four extremities d. Both arms while the child is crying

C When a CHD is suspected, the blood pressure should be measured in all four extremities while the child is quiet. Discrepancies between upper and lower extremities may indicate cardiac disease. Blood pressure measurements for upper and lower extremities are compared during an assessment for CHDs. Blood pressure measurements when the child is crying are likely to be elevated; thus the readings will be inaccurate.

Which defect results in increased pulmonary blood flow? a. Pulmonic stenosis b. Tricuspid atresia c. Atrial septal defect d. Transposition of the great arteries

C Atrial septal defect results in increased pulmonary blood flow. Blood flows from the left atrium (higher pressure) into the right atrium (lower pressure) and then to the lungs via the pulmonary artery. Pulmonic stenosis is an obstruction to blood flowing from the ventricles. Tricuspid atresia results in decreased pulmonary blood flow. Transposition of the great arteries results in mixed blood flow.

A nurse is conducting discharge teaching to parents about the care of their infant after cardiac surgery. The nurse instructs the parents to notify the physician if what conditions occur (Select all that apply)? a. Respiratory rate of 36 at rest b. Appetite slowly increasing c. Temperature above 37.7° C (100° F) d. New, frequent coughing e. Turning blue or bluer than normal

C, D, E The parents should be instructed to notify the physician after their infant's cardiac surgery for a temperature above 37.7° C (100° F); new, frequent coughing; and any episodes of the infant turning blue or bluer than normal. A respiratory rate of 36 at rest for an infant is within normal expectations, and it is expected that the appetite will increase slowly.

The nurse is conducting discharge teaching about signs and symptoms of heart failure to parents of an infant with a repaired tetralogy of Fallot. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse include (Select all that apply)? a. Warm flushed extremities b. Weight loss c. Decreased urinary output d. Sweating (inappropriate) e. Fatigue

C, D, E The signs and symptoms of heart failure include decreased urinary output, sweating, and fatigue. Other signs include pale, cool extremities, not warm and flushed, and weight gain, not weight loss.

For what reason might a newborn infant with a cardiac defect, such as coarctation of the aorta, that results in a right-to-left shunt receive prostaglandin E1? a. To decrease inflammation c. To decrease respirations b. To control pain d. To improve oxygenation

D Prostaglandin E1 is given to infants with a right-to-left shunt to keep the ductus arteriosus patent. This will improve oxygenation and increase pulmonary blood flow.

Which postoperative intervention should be questioned for a child after a cardiac catheterization? a. Continue intravenous (IV) fluids until the infant is tolerating oral fluids. b. Check the dressing for bleeding. c. Assess peripheral circulation on the affected extremity. d. Keep the affected leg flexed and elevated.

D The child should be positioned with the affected leg straight for 4 to 6 hours after the procedure. IV fluid administration continues until the child is taking and retaining adequate amounts of oral fluids. The insertion site dressing should be observed frequently for bleeding. The nurse should also look under the child to check for pooled blood. Peripheral perfusion is monitored after catheterization. Distal pulses should be palpable, although they may be weaker than in the contralateral extremity.

What is an expected assessment finding in a child with coarctation of the aorta? a. Orthostatic hypotension b. Systolic hypertension in the lower extremities c. Blood pressure higher on the left side of the body d. Disparity in blood pressure between the upper and lower extremities

D The classic finding in children with coarctation of the aorta is a disparity in pulses and blood pressures between the upper and lower extremities. Orthostatic hypotension is not present with coarctation of the aorta. Systolic hypertension may be detected in the upper extremities. The left arm may not accurately reflect systolic hypertension because the left subclavian artery can be involved in the coarctation.

Surgical closure of the ductus arteriosus would: a. Stop the loss of unoxygenated blood to the systemic circulation. b. Decrease the edema in legs and feet. c. Increase the oxygenation of blood. d. Prevent the return of oxygenated blood to the lungs.

D The ductus arteriosus allows blood to flow from the higher-pressure aorta to the lower-pressure pulmonary artery, causing a right-to-left shunt. If this is surgically closed, no additional oxygenated blood (from the aorta) will return to the lungs through the pulmonary artery. The aorta carries oxygenated blood to the systemic circulation. Because of the higher pressure in the aorta, blood is shunted into the pulmonary artery and the pulmonary circulation. Edema in the legs and feet is usually a sign of heart failure. This repair would not directly affect the edema. Increasing the oxygenation of blood would not interfere with the return of oxygenated blood to the lungs.

A client sustains a crushing injury to the lower left leg, and a below-the-knee amputation is performed. For which common clinical manifestations of a pulmonary embolus should the nurse assess this client? Select all that apply. 1 Sharp chest pain 2 Acute onset of dyspnea 3 Pain in the residual limb 4 Absence of the popliteal pulse 5 Blanching of the affected extremity

Sharp chest pain Acute onset of dyspnea

A nurse assesses a client with a fracture who is being treated with skeletal traction. Which assessment should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health provider? a. Blood pressure increases to 130/86 mm Hg b. Traction weights are resting on the floor c. Oozing of clear fluid is noted at the pin site d. Capillary refill is less than 3 seconds

b (The immediate action of the nurse should be to reapply the weights to give traction to the fracture. The health care provider must be notified that the weights were lying on the floor, and the client should be realigned in bed.)

A nurse cares for a client recovering from an above-the-knee amputation of the right leg. The client reports pain in the right foot. Which prescribed medication should the nurse administer first? a. Intravenous morphine b. Oral acetaminophen c. Intravenous calcitonin d. Oral ibuprofen

c (The client is experiencing phantom limb pain, which usually manifests as intense burning, crushing, or cramping. IV infusions of calcitonin during the week after amputation can reduce phantom limb pain. Opioid analgesics such as morphine are not as effective for phantom limb pain as they are for residual limb pain. Oral acetaminophen and ibuprofen are not used in treating phantom limb pain)

A nurse coordinates care for a client with a wet plaster cast. Which statement should the nurse include when delegating care for this client to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Assess distal pulses for potential compartment syndrome. b. Turn the client every 3 to 4 hours to promote cast drying. c. Use a cloth-covered pillow to elevate the clients leg. d. Handle the cast with your fingertips to prevent indentations.

c (When delegating care to a UAP for a client with a wet plaster cast, the UAP should be directed to ensure that the extremity is elevated on a cloth pillow instead of a plastic pillow to promote drying. The client should be turned every 1 to 2 hours to allow air to circulate and dry all parts of the cast. Providers should handle the cast with the palms of the hands to prevent indentations.)

A trauma nurse cares for several clients with fractures. Which client should the nurse identify as at highest risk for developing deep vein thrombosis? a. An 18-year-old male athlete with a fractured clavicle b. A 36-year old female with type 2 diabetes and fractured ribs c. A 55-year-old woman prescribed aspirin for rheumatoid arthritis d. A 74-year-old man who smokes and has a fractured pelvis

d (Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as a complication with bone fractures occurs more often when fractures are sustained in the lower extremities and the client has additional risk factors for thrombus formation. Other risk factors include obesity, smoking, oral contraceptives, previous thrombus events, advanced age, venous stasis, and heart disease. The other clients do not have risk factors for DVT.)

A nurse is caring for a client who is recovering from an above-the-knee amputation. The client reports pain in the limb that was removed. How should the nurse respond? a. The pain you are feeling does not actually exist. b. This type of pain is common and will eventually go away. c. Would you like to learn how to use imagery to minimize your pain? d. How would you describe the pain that you are feeling?

d (The nurse should ask the client to rate the pain on a scale of 0 to 10 and describe how the pain feels. Although phantom limb pain is common, the nurse should not minimize the pain that the client is experiencing by stating that it does not exist or will eventually go away. Antiepileptic drugs and antispasmodics are used to treat neurologic pain and muscle spasms after amputation. Although imagery may assist the client, the nurse must assess the clients pain before determining the best action.)

A nurse assesses a client with a pelvic fracture. Which assessment finding should the nurse identify as a complication of this injury? a. Hypertension b. Constipation c. Infection d. Hematuria

d (The pelvis is very vascular and close to major organs. Injury to the pelvis can cause integral damage that may manifest as blood in the urine (hematuria) or stool. The nurse should also assess for signs of hemorrhage and hypovolemic shock, which include hypotension and tachycardia.)