Test D

1.) You are consulting to an organization that has been plagued by problems with rater leniency in the evaluation of employees. You would most likely recommend that the company: a. Begin to utilize BARS b. Adopt a forced-choice format for ratings c. Utilize graphic rating scales d. Have supervisors rate employees at more frequent intervals throughout the year

Adopt a forced-choice format for ratings a. The best approach to correct for a leniency set would be to utilize a forced-choice format, in which the rater would need to evaluate employees by selecting adjectives from a series of pairs of seemingly equally desirable or undesirable choices (e.g., reliable or agreeable; stubborn or moody). BARS (behaviorally anchored rating scale) is based on critical incidents, yet BARS is based on hypothetical situations rather than day to day activities. Thus, the leniency set may continue to operate (Response 1). Graphic rating scales involve likert scale ratings of various aspects of job performance (Response 3). Likert scales certainly would not correct for a leniency bias. More frequent ratings of employees also would not correct for a leniency set (Response 4), although it would correct for recency biases.

1.) A patient with schizophrenia has avoided inpatient hospitalization for several years. This is most likely due to: a. Supportive psychotherapy b. Medication c. Family psychoeducation d. Social skills training

Medication a. Although all the interventions listed can be useful, the most potent factor in managing the symptoms of Schizophrenia is antipsychotic medication. Supportive therapy can be beneficial (Response 1), and behavioral family therapy (Response 3) can be useful when there is a lot of expressed negative affect in the family. Social skills training (Response 4) can be very helpful in contributing to optimal independent functioning and enhanced interpersonal relationships.

1.) A person who has a first-degree relative (e.g., sibling, parent) with schizophrenia is how many times more likely to develop schizophrenia than someone in the general population? a. 2 to 3 b. 10 to 12 c. 20 to 25 d. 45 to 50

a. 10 to 12 a. According to the DSM-5, the lifetime prevalence rate of schizophrenia is .3%-.7%, although historically, the most commonly cited prevalence rate has been about 1%. When a person has a first-degree relative (e.g., sibling or parent) with schizophrenia, the concordance rate is about .10, meaning that there is now about a 10% chance of developing schizophrenia. This is about a ten-fold to twelve-fold increase (Response 2, correct answer). The concordance rate for identical twins is .50, meaning that there is a 50% chance that a person will develop schizophrenia if his or her identical twin has schizophrenia. This probability is 50 times more than that of someone in the general population (Response 4)

1.) At what age is racial awareness first present? a. 3-4 years b. 6-7 years c. 10 years d. 12-13 years

a. 3-4 years a. The bulk of the research suggests that between the ages of three and four children become aware of differences based on racial or ethnic background. By age four, while children do not fully understand racial differences, they have begun to realize that color differences have social meaning. At this age, children also begin to exhibit a preference for same-race playmates.

1.) A test has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10. Assuming a normal distribution, to eliminate the bottom 15% of the scorers, you would want to remove those who scored below: a. 40 b. 37.5 c. 35 d. 32.5

a. 40 a. This question requires you to have knowledge of the normal distribution. If you select your cutoff at one standard deviation below the mean (40) you would be removing approximately 15% of the scorers (exactly 15.87%). If you selected 37.5 (Response 2), which is 1.25 standard deviations below the mean, you would be eliminating exactly 10.56% of your sample. When you are asked for either the top or bottom 15% of scorers, select the value that corresponds exactly to one standard deviation above or below the mean, respectively.

1.) Ms. Ann Examinee receives a score of 82 on a math test. If the standard error of measurement for the test is 5, we can be 95% confident that her true score falls between: a. 77 and 87 b. 72 and 92 c. 79.5 and 84.5 d. 68 and 97

a. 72 and 92 a. This question requires the straightforward construction of a confidence interval. A 95% confidence interval is defined as plus or minus two standard errors of measurement (SEM) around the obtained score. In this case, the obtained score is 82, the SEM is 5, so two SEMs would be 10. The confidence interval would therefore be 72 to 92. A 68% confidence interval is plus or minus 1 SEM, in this case 77 to 87 (Response 1). A 99% confidence interval is plus or minus 3 SEMs, in this case 67 to 97 (Response 4).

1.) Who is the most likely primary caregiver for an Alzheimer's patient? a. A child b. A friend c. A paid caregiver d. A spouse

a. A child a. Most studies of Alzheimer's caregivers conclude that the majority of caregivers are grown children, usually daughters followed by daughters-in-law. About 85% of people who take care of Alzheimer's patients are family members

1.) Down syndrome is caused by: a. Maternal infection during the prenatal period b. Exposure to alcohol in utero c. A chromosomal abnormality d. Birth complications

a. A chromosomal abnormality a. Down's Syndrome, also called Trisomy 21, is caused by the presence of an extra number 21 chromosome, resulting in three rather than two chromosomes. Down's Syndrome involves mental retardation, a broad skull with slanted eyes, physical deformity, and reduced activity. Maternal infection during the prenatal period (e.g., rubella), can cause a host of problems including blindness and deafness (Response 1). Exposure to alcohol in utero (Response 2) can cause fetal-alcohol syndrome. Birth complications (Response 4) may result in minor to severe problems (e.g., hypoxia or reduction of oxygen leading to brain damage)

1.) During a family session involving a wife, husband, and their teenage daughter, the wife says something disparaging to the daughter about her husband. This behavior is an example of: a. A coalition b. Triangulation c. Enmeshment d. Homeostasis

a. A coalition a. This situation is an example of a coalition. Here, the mother is trying to form an alliance with the daughter against the father. Triangulation (Response 2) occurs when both parents try to get the child to take sides with them against the other. No information is provided about the father trying to get the daughter to take sides with him. Enmeshment (Response 3) refers to overinvolvement among family members, and is not directly suggested by this scenario. Homeostasis (Response 4) refers to the status quo in a family. It is not a term used for a particular maneuver or behavior on the part of a family member.

1.) Groupthink is most likely to occur under which of the following circumstances? a. A group is high in cohesion, and members are high in conformity b. A group is high in cohesion, and members are low in conformity c. A group is low in cohesion, and members are high in conformity d. A group is low in cohesion, and members are low in conformity

a. A group is high in cohesion, and members are high in conformity a. Groupthink refers to the tendency of group members to suspend their critical thinking, and to dismiss dissenting or conflicting information. The ingredients that contribute most to groupthink are a highly cohesive group, with members that are highly conforming and do not want to go against group norms. To minimize groupthink, it is suggested that group members be encouraged to take on the role of devil's advocate.

1.) With regard to hypnosis and memory, research has indicated that: a. A hypnotized person recalls more true memories than false ones b. A hypnotized person recalls more false memories than true ones c. Hypnosis increases both true and false memories about equally d. A hypnotized person recalls the same rate of true or false memories as someone who is not hypnotized

a. A hypnotized person recalls more false memories than true ones a. Research has indicated that hypnosis results in a higher proportion of false memories than true ones, and that a person under hypnosis is more likely to reconstruct memories to fill in memory gaps

1.) Which of the following may be associated with autism spectrum disorder? a. Biogenetic factors b. Emotional deprivation c. Perinatal trauma d. Maternal substance use

a. Biogenetic factors a. Heritability estimates for autism spectrum disorder are quite high (ranging from about 35% to 90% in twin studies), with as many as 15% of all cases of autism spectrum disorder associated with a known genetic mutation (Response 1, correct answer). Other risk factors for autism spectrum disorder include advanced parental age and low birth weight. Autism Spectrum disorder has not been associated with emotional deprivation (Response 2), perinatal trauma (Response 3), or maternal substance use (Response 4)

1.) The Gate Control Theory is most relevant to which of the following patients? a. A man whose back pain worsens after losing his job and becoming depressed b. A woman whose irritable bowel syndrome worsens when she is anxious before a major exam c. A woman with alcohol use disorder d. A man whose depression worsens after losing his wife

a. A man whose back pain worsens after losing his job and becoming depressed a. The Gate Control Theory is a theory of pain developed by Melzack and Wall in the 1960's. It proposes that there are chemical gates that reside in the neural pathway in the spinal cord that carries messages of pain from the body to the brain. These gates can be "open," in which case the message of pain is received by the brain, or "closed," in which case the message is blocked. Negative emotional states are thought to open the gates, and positive emotions may close them. Response 1 is the only response that directly deals with the issue of pain.

1.) Which of the following may result from a hostility attribution bias? a. A person engages in a preemptive strike b. A person is viewed as hostile because he has a mean looking face c. A person is viewed as hostile because he has behaved violently in the past d. A person is viewed as hostile because he is a member of an ethnic group that is stereotypically associated with high levels of violence

a. A person engages in a preemptive strike a. A hostility attribution bias refers to a mental state in which a person expects others to be hostile and acts aggressively as a result, thus eliciting hostility from others and reinforcing the bias. A person who engages in a preemptive strike (Response 1) is deciding to act violently due to the expectation of hostility rather than the direct experience of hostility

1.) Which of the following statements about confidentiality is incorrect? a. A psychologist may need to breach confidentiality when a patient is at imminent risk for homicide b. A psychologist may breach confidentiality when a patient is at imminent risk for suicide c. A psychologist should maintain confidentiality when he believes it to be in the patient's best interest d. A psychologist may reveal some confidential information if a patient is suing him

a. A psychologist should maintain confidentiality when he believes it to be in the patient's best interest a. The incorrect statement is that a psychologist should maintain confidentiality when he believes it to be in the patient's best interest. There are times when a psychologist may want to maintain confidentiality and even believes it would be in the patient's best interest, but cannot by law. Examples of these situations include mandatory child abuse reporting or when there is a court order to release confidential information. When a patient poses an imminent risk of homicide (Response 1), frequently, although not always, confidentiality is breached (e.g., as required by Tarasoff). When a patient is at imminent risk for suicide (Response 2), it may be necessary to breach confidentiality, e.g, by involuntarily hospitalizing the patient. When a patient sues a therapist (Response 4), privilege is generally waived. The psychologist may need to divulge some confidential information in response to the lawsuit to protect himself in court.

1.) The most likely outcome of fetal malnutrition is: a. Anoxia b. Reduced axonal and dendritic growth c. A reduction in the number of neurons d. Difficult to determine since the effects of fetal malnutrition may be compensated for by other factors later in development

a. A reduction in the number of neurons a. Malnutrition during the fetal period results in a reduced number of brain cells or neurons. The infant's brain contains at birth the majority of neurons it will ever have. Brain development after birth occurs as the neurons grow in size, develop more axons and dendrites, and increase their connections, in response to stimulation and experience (Response 2). Anoxia (Response 1) is a deficiency of oxygen that can occur with birth complications.

1.) Self-monitoring is: a. A stimulus control procedure b. An operant conditioning strategy c. An element of metacognition d. A self-control procedure

a. A self-control procedure b. Self-monitoring is a self-control procedure in which a person monitors the behavior of interest. For example, someone who is trying to lose weight may keep track of all food eaten (when, where, how much, etc.). Stimulus control (Response 1), another self-control procedure, involves controlling the situations that trigger eating (e.g., the person eats only at certain times or only at the kitchen table). Self-reinforcement, which is based on operant conditioning (Response 2), is also used in self-control procedures. For example, a dieter rewards himself with a pleasurable activity (e.g., a movie) after achieving a weight-loss goal. Metacognition (Response 3) refers to awareness about how one thinks about things.

1.) Which of the following best explains the finding that Asians presenting for treatment exhibit more somatic distress complaints than whites? a. Problems with access to medical services b. A higher proportion of somatic symptom disorders c. A tendency not to express feelings d. A lower incidence of psychological problems

a. A tendency not to express feelings a. Idioms of distress are the ways in which members of a cultural group express distress and emotional problems. Asian Americans tend to express emotional problems in an indirect manner, often in the form of physical complaints. It is not that Asian Americans have a higher incidence of Somatoform Disorders (Response 2), but that they merely express emotional difficulties as somatic complaints. In fact, Asian Americans may be misdiagnosed as having Somatoform Disorders. It is also not the case that they have a lower incidence of psychological problems (Response 4), or that they have poor access to medical services (Response 1).

1.) Test-retest reliability would be the most appropriate type of reliability for: a. A test measuring an enduring trait b. A test measuring a state c. A test of intelligence d. An instrument measuring autonomic arousal

a. A test measuring an enduring trait a. Test-retest reliability is appropriate when a test is measuring something that should be stable over time, such as an enduring trait. Results on tests that measure states (Response 2), such as hunger or autonomic arousal (Response 4), should change to reflect the subject's changing state, therefore test-retest would be inappropriate and would underestimate reliability. Test-retest is usually inappropriate for tests of intelligence (Response 3) because of practice effects, i.e., the subject's score on the second administration may be inflated due to the effect of having already attempted all the items.

1.) Negative attitudes toward persons who have a homosexual orientation is known as a. Heterosexism b. Heterosexual prejudice c. Homophobia d. Homosexual bias

a. Heterosexism a. Heterosexism is the belief in the superiority of heterosexuals, and the negative valuing and discriminatory treatment of individuals and groups who are lesbian, gay, or bisexual. Homophobia (Response 3) refers to a fear of gay, lesbian, and bisexual people. Heterosexual prejudice (Response 2) is a reasonable response, but it isn't the term that's favored. Homosexual bias (Response 4) implies a bias that favors homosexuals.

1.) Which of the following women would be most likely to receive the diagnosis of Female Orgasmic Disorder, Situational Type? a. A woman who used to have orgasms has been unable to have them for the past nine months b. A woman has orgasms during sexual activity, except when she is intoxicated c. A woman can have orgasms during sexual activity with a partner, but not while masturbating d. A woman has not been able to have orgasms since she began having conflict with her partner

a. A woman can have orgasms during sexual activity with a partner, but not while masturbating a. There are several subtypes associated with the sexual dysfunctions: lifelong vs. acquired, generalized vs. situational, due to psychological factors or due to combined factors. There is also sexual dysfunction due to a general medical condition, and substance-induced sexual dysfunction. The specifier "situational" indicates that the sexual dysfunction is limited to certain situations, partners, or stimulation. In this question, the woman's orgasmic difficulty is limited to when she masturbates. Response 1 describes Female Orgasmic Disorder, Acquired Type, indicating that the dysfunction has occurred after a period of normal sexual functioning. Response 2 is an example of Substance-Induced Sexual Dysfunction. Response 4 is an example of Female Orgasmic Disorder due to Psychological Factors.

1.) A child with a Learning Disorder is most likely to have a coexisting diagnosis of: a. Tourette's disorder b. Enuresis c. ADHD d. Intellectual disability

a. ADHD a. The DSM-IV notes that many individuals (10% - 25%) with Conduct Disorder, Oppositional Defiant Disorder, ADHD, Major Depressive Disorder, and Dysthymic Disorder, also have a Learning Disorder. It is true that many individuals with Tourette's (Response 1) also have learning disorders, however, because incidence rates of Tourette's are so small (4 - 5 per 10,000), it is much more likely that a child with a Learning Disorder will also have ADHD. Disorders that most commonly coexist with Enuresis (Response 2) include Encopresis, Sleepwalking and Sleep Terror Disorder. Disorders that most commonly occur with Separation Anxiety Disorder (Response 4) are Dysthymic Disorder and Major Depressive Disorder. Separation Anxiety Disorder may also precede Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia.

1.) The psychoanalytic perspective on adolescents focuses most on: a. Issues of omnipotence b. Narcissistic defenses c. Abandonment rage d. Libidinal decathexis

a. Abandonment rage a. Issues of abandonment and rage typically characterize individuals with borderline personality features. Issues of omnipotence (Response 1) and narcissistic defenses (Response 2) would more likely characterize individuals with narcissistic features. Libidinal decathexis (Response 4) is the removal of the investment (cathexis) of emotional energy (libido) from a particular object. For example, pathological narcissism may result from decathexis of libido from the primary caretakers and the reinvestment of libido into the self.

1.) What is the best predictor of performance on the job? a. Ability tests b. Interest tests c. Interviews d. Personality tests

a. Ability tests a. Tests of cognitive ability have been found to be good predictors of job success. Interest tests (Response 2) are not good predictors of job success, but they do correlate with satisfaction. Interviews (Response 3) do not correlate well with successful work performance. Personality tests (Response 4) are not good predictors of job success.

1.) The biggest problem associated with benzodiazepine use is: a. Addiction potential b. Anticholinergic effects c. Agranulocytosis d. Tardive dyskinesia

a. Addiction potential a. Benzodiazepines are antianxiety agents (e.g., Valium, Xanax). The most serious problem associated with benzodiazepine use is addiction potential. Other common side effects include sedation, memory disturbances, and disinhibition, effects similar to those experienced when drinking alcohol. Anticholinergic side effects (Response 2) such as dry mouth, blurry vision, urinary retention, are associated strongly with tricyclic antidepressants and antipsychotics. Agranulocytosis (Response 3), a sudden drop in white blood cell count, is associated with a number of drugs including some antibiotics, some anti-epileptics, and the novel antipsychotic Clozaril (Clozapine). Tardive dyskinesis (Response 4) is most strongly associated with the traditional antipsychotics (e.g., Thorazine, Haldol)

1.) Which of the following best reflects Piaget's concept of accommodation? a. Putting books on a shelf b. Adding a second floor to an existing home c. Developing abstract reasoning skills d. Sorting toys by color

a. Adding a second floor to an existing home a. Accommodation involves adjusting to reality demands by reorganizing, modifying, or expanding existing cognitive structures or schemata. So, accommodation would be most like adding a whole new floor to an existing structure. Assimilation is the process of taking in a new experience and incorporating it into existing cognitive structures (Response 1). Developing abstract reasoning skills occurs during Piaget's stage of formal operations (Response 3). Sorting items by various characteristics (Response 4) is the ability to serialize, an accomplishment of the concrete operational stage.

1.) You are most likely to do a program of tertiary prevention for: a. Individuals with the gene for Tay-Sachs disease b. Adults with autism spectrum disorder c. Mothers with major depressive disorder with peripartum onset d. Teenagers who smoke

a. Adults with autism spectrum disorder a. Tertiary prevention involves the reduction of handicapping associated with a chronic illness. In this case, adults with Autistic Disorder would be helped to maximize their functioning. Individuals with genes for Tay-Sachs (Response 1) could receive genetic counseling in order to prevent the birth of children with the disease; thus, they would be targets of primary prevention. Mothers with postpartum depression (Response 3) have been identified early and could now receive early and intensive intervention; thus, they would be targets of secondary prevention. Teenagers (Response 4), who are likely to have only recently begun to smoke, would also be targets of secondary prevention.

1.) According to the James- Lange theory of emotions, what are peripheral factors? a. Factors in the physical environment b. Bodily sensations c. The opinions of others d. Past emotions

a. Bodily sensations a. According to the James-Lange theory of emotions, we respond to experiences or events (e.g., being held up at gunpoint), with physiological activation first (e.g., a rise in heart rate, perspiration, and dryness of the mouth). Emotions come second, once we interpret the physiological changes. In other words, the person notes, "My heart is racing, I must be afraid." In this theory, "peripheral factors" refer to the bodily sensations and reactions which then lead to the experience of emotions

1.) You have been treating a client in psychotherapy that is also receiving antidepressant medication from a psychiatrist. This client informs you that she believes that her medication is no longer working and that she is going to stop taking it. Your best course of action would be to: a. Encourage her to stay on her medications, and advise her that it is dangerous to stop her medications on her own b. Contact her psychiatrist c. Advise her to discuss this matter with the psychiatrist d. Refer her to another psychiatrist

a. Advise her to discuss this matter with the psychiatrist a. It this situation, it would be most important to recommend to her that she discuss the issue with her psychiatrist. It would be more helpful to have the client discuss this matter with the psychiatrist, rather than the therapist (Response 2). You cannot encourage her to stay on her medications, as this would be outside of your boundaries of competence, and her medications may not be helpful. Even though you may know of the specific dangers associated with abruptly stopping her medications, you would want to have her work closely with her physician (Response 1). Referring her to another psychiatrist (Response 4) would be premature at this point, in that she is not complaining about the psychiatrist, but rather about the medications.

1.) In which of the following cultural groups would you most expect to find sex roles that are egalitarian? a. African American b. Caucasian c. Hispanic American d. Asian American

a. African American a. African Americans would be expected to have the most egalitarian sex roles, perhaps because many African American women have had to work outside the home due to economic necessity. Traditional Hispanic American families (Response 3) are hierarchical and patriarchal, with clearly delineated sex roles. Asian American families (Response 4) are lineal, with clear lines of authority, and are traditionally male dominant. Caucasians (Response 2) families tend to be male dominant as well.

1.) A social work trainee who is treating one of your individual patients in marriage counseling approaches you. He has a release from your patient and would like to collaborate with you. From an ethical and clinical perspective, you should: a. refuse to collaborate because he is a trainee from a different discipline. b. Agree to collaborate c. Address the fact that it is unethical for your patient to be treated by two separate mental health practitioners d. Agree to collaborate with the supervisor of the trainee

a. Agree to collaborate a. It is not necessarily unethical for two mental health practitioners to treat the same patient (Response 3). The requirement is that the psychologist considers the welfare of the client, discusses the issues with the client, consults with the other service providers when appropriate, and proceeds with caution and sensitivity

1.) A personal bias is occurring when: a. an employer evaluates her employees negatively even though some are performing well on the job. b. an employer gives an employee a negative six-month evaluation because the employee has been performing poorly on the job for the past two weeks. c. an employer evaluates an employee's work performance negatively because the employee dresses poorly. d. An employer who dislikes an employee gives him a poor evaluation

a. An employer who dislikes an employee gives him a poor evaluation b. A personal bias, also known as interviewer prejudice, refers to the rater's personal likes, dislikes, and beliefs, which influence how he or she evaluates an employee's work performance. Here, the employer does not like the employee, and as a result, evaluates his work negatively. Response 1 describes a strictness bias, which results in rating all employees negatively. Response 2 refers to the recency effect, which occurs when ratings are based on the employee's most recent performance, and not overall performance during the entire rating period. Response 3 describes the halo effect, which occurs when the rater generalizes from one characteristic of the person, to the entire person.

1.) Speech that is fluent and spontaneous, with good repetition and comprehension but with poor ability to name objects is characteristic of: a. Broca's aphasia b. Conduction aphasia c. Anomic aphasia d. Wernicke's aphasia

a. Anomic aphasia a. These symptoms are characteristic of anomic aphasia, which essentially refers to the loss of ability to name objects. Broca's aphasia (Response 1), which occurs due to damage in the left frontal lobe, results in difficulties with expressive speech, characterized by nonfluent, effortful speech with short phrases and lengthy pauses. In Wernicke's aphasia (Response 4), the person can speak easily (i.e., has normal fluency), but frequently misuses words and misproduces speech sounds (paraphasias), and therefore usually does not make any sense. Comprehension is also impaired. Wernicke's aphasia results from damage to the Wernicke's area in the left temporal lobe. Conduction aphasia (Response 2) is due to a lesion in the connection between expressive and receptive speech areas, and is quite similar to Wernicke's aphasia (intact fluency, paraphasia), with the exception that these persons show well-preserved language comprehension.

1.) Other than Lithium, the class of medications most commonly used to treat bipolar I disorder is: a. Antidepressants b. Anticonvulsants c. Antianxiety medications d. Stimulants

a. Anticonvulsants a. Anticonvulsants such as Tegretol (carbamazepine), Depakote (divalproex), and Depakene (valproic acid) are used to treat Bipolar I Disorder. They are typically used when Lithium has been ineffective or is otherwise contraindicated, for example with liver disorders. Antidepressants (Response 1) are used to treat Major Depressive Disorder, Panic Disorder, and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. Antianxiety medications (Response 3) are not designed for long-term use, and are most suited for short-term sleep or anxiety problems. Stimulants (Response 4) are typically used to treat ADHD in children. They are sometimes used to treat adult ADHD, treatment-resistant depression, treatment-resistant obesity, narcolepsy, and chronic medically debilitating conditions (e.g., AIDS, Cancer).

1.) You and your colleague Bill put in the same amount of effort at work. However, your boss praises you more and gives you more frequent bonuses. According to Adams's Equity Theory, Bill would most likely: a. Do nothing b. Decrease his work effort c. Increase his work effort d. Quit his job

a. Decrease his work effort a. Equity Theory states that people look at the ratio of inputs (work efforts) and outcomes (rewards) and compare them with the ratio of others' inputs and outcomes. A state of inequity is a motivating state. This situation would appear inequitable, in that you and your colleague both put in the same inputs, but you get greater outputs (rewards). To attain balance your colleague Bill would be most likely to decrease his work effort

1.) Recent research on the effectiveness of antidepressant medications (ADMs) and Cognitive therapy (CT) in the treatment of moderate to severe major depressive disorder has found all of the following except: a. Antidepressant medications yielded more improvement than cognitive therapy after 8 weeks b. Antidepressant medications and cognitive therapy yielded comparable results after 16 weeks c. Once treatment was withdrawn, patients that received antidepressant medications had higher relapse rates than those that received cognitive therapy d. Patients that received antidepressant medications and those that received cognitive therapy had comparable rates of change of both cognitive and vegetative symptoms of depression

a. Antidepressant medications yielded more improvement than cognitive therapy after 8 weeks a. This question is asking for the incorrect statement. Although earlier research found antidepressant medications to be superior to cognitive therapy for moderate to severe depression, recent research has found cognitive therapy and antidepressant medications to be equally effective in treating moderate to severe major depressive disorder at 8 weeks (appx 45%-50% of patients are improved) and 16 weeks (appx 58% of patients are improved). Once treatment was withdrawn, 76% of the medication responders and 31% of the cognitive therapy responders relapsed (Response 3). Of note, there was no indication that the different treatments affected different symptom clusters of depression: patients treated with medications and cognitive therapy had similar rates of change of both cognitive and vegetative symptoms of depression (Response 4)

1.) You have been seeing a client in therapy for the past six months. He becomes involved in a legal dispute and you receive a subpoena for his treatment records. The client refuses to sign a release of information. You eventually receive a court order to release his treatment records to the court. At this point, what should you do first? a. Assert privilege and refuse to release the records without your client's permission b. Release the records because the court has ordered you to do so c. Ask the court order to be modified d. Consult with the client' attorney

a. Ask the court order to be modified a. Receiving a court order means that you must submit your treatment records, even if the client refuses to sign a release of information. However, you can request that the court order be modified, if you have reason to believe that the disclosure of treatment information would not be helpful. If the request for modification is refused, then you must release the records (Response 2). Once a court order is received, asserting privilege is no longer an option. Even if your client does not give permission, you must cooperate with a court order (Response 1). Consulting with the client's attorney (Response 4) would not be of benefit at this point.

1.) Which of the following would be most important in assessing current suicide risk? a. Using a suicide screening measure b. Assessing the severity of depression c. Asking the patient about suicidal intent d. Asking the patient about past suicide attempts

a. Asking the patient about suicidal intent a. While all of the responses are important in assessing suicidal risk, assessing current suicidal intent, as well as plan and means, would be the most significant element. A suicide screening measure (Response 1) may provide an overall indicator of suicide, but may not specifically indicate the extent to which the person intends to carry out a suicide attempt. Severity of depression (Response 2) may not be directly related to suicidality, since it is possible for a person to be severely depressed but not suicidal. Asking about past suicide attempts (Response 4), while a good predictor of the likelihood of future attempts, does not assess the likelihood of person committing suicide at the present time.

1.) According to Helms's model of White racial identity, a white person who is continually open to new ways of thinking about racial and cultural variables is most likely in the stage of: a. Contact b. Reintegration c. Immersion/emersion d. Autonomy

a. Autonomy b. Helms posited six stages in the development of White racial identity. In the first stage, contact (Response 1), individuals are fairly ignorant, and don't recognize racism and their own White privilege. In the second stage, disintegration, individuals begin to feel uncomfortable with the advantages of being White, and with the role of Whites in maintaining racism. To cope with this dissonance, many individuals resort to denial of racism and avoidance of people of color. A belief in White superiority, and an acceptance of racism occurs in the third stage, reintegration (Response 2). Self-examination and seeking out of new information occurs in the fourth stage, pseudo-independence. Stage five, immersion/emersion (Response 3), involves an active search to find a more comfortable way to be White. Finally, in stage six, autonomy (Response 4), individuals achieve a positive redefinition of being White that includes an ongoing openness to new information and new ways of thinking about racial and cultural variables.

1.) An ABAB single-subject design involves which of the following sequences of data collection: a. Setting 1, setting 2, setting 1, setting 2 b. Behavior 1, behavior 2, behavior 1, behavior 2 c. Baseline, treatment, baseline, treatment d. Treatment, baseline, treatment, baseline

a. Baseline, treatment, baseline, treatment a. In an ABAB reversal design, the "A phase" represents baseline (or no treatment) and the "B phase" represents treatment. Alternating settings and behaviors (Response 1 and 2) is characteristic of multiple baseline designs, however, multiple baseline designs involve staggering the baselines in different settings or for different behaviors; they do not involve returning to a previous behavior or setting.

1.) According to the APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002), psychologists who seek to practice in forensic settings must: a. Undertake an accredited training program in forensic psychology b. Be recognized by the court c. Become reasonably familiar with the judicial rules governing their roles d. Take reasonable steps to ensure forensic competence

a. Become reasonably familiar with the judicial rules governing their roles a. Although Response 4 sounds plausible, it's too vague. Response 3 directly states the relevant provision of APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002): psychologists who participate in forensic activities should ensure that they are "reasonably familiar with the judicial or administrative rules governing their roles." There is no requirement to complete a training program in forensic psychology (Response 1). To act as an expert witness in a court proceeding, a psychologist must be recognized by the court as an expert witness (Response 2).

1.) On a regular basis, Brad enthusiastically compliments his coworker Jane on her appearance. Jane tells Brad that she feels uncomfortable with his compliments, and Brad stops complimenting her. Which of the following statements is most accurate? a. Brad's behavior constitutes sexual harassment because it made Jane feel uncomfortable b. Brad's behavior does not constitute sexual harassment because he stopped complimenting Jane c. Brad's behavior constitutes sexual harassment because complimenting coworkers on their appearance is inappropriate and not work related d. Brad's behavior may or may not constitute sexual harassment, depending on his intention

a. Brad's behavior does not constitute sexual harassment because he stopped complimenting Jane a. The Ethics Code defines sexual harassment as sexual behavior which is either unwelcome, offensive, or creates a hostile workplace environment, and that the psychologist knows or is told this, or, is so severe that any reasonable person would recognize it as abusive. Brad's behavior would not be considered severe or abusive. An example of abusive behavior is a supervisor requiring an employee to perform sexual favors to avoid being fired. In addition, Brad's behavior would not be considered sexual harassment because he stopped as soon as he was told that it was unwelcome. If instead he had persisted despite Jane's complaints, then his behavior would likely constitute sexual harassment. The issue of intent is not the most relevant issue in harassment (Response 4).

1.) A research is attempting to look at the relationship between variables of income and educational level and the variables of racial bias and racist behavior. What statistic should be used to analyze this study? a. Canonical R b. Multiple R c. Factor analysis d. Discriminant analysis

a. Canonical R a. This is a very difficult, advanced statistic question. The research question in this scenario is one of the relationship. Canonical R, Multiple R, and discriminant analysis are all tests or relationship/prediction, while factor analysis is a test of structure or fit (Ruling out Response 3). In this scenario, there are two predictor variables (income and education) and two criterion/outcome variables (racial bias and racial behavior). Canonical correlation is the appropriate statistic for a relationship with more than one predictor and more than one criterion. Multiple R (Response 2) looks at the relationship between multiple predictor variables but only one criterion variable. Discriminant analysis (Response 4) is used to predict group membership, based on multiple predictors (e.g., whether someone is likely to pass or not pass the EPPP based on hours studied, score on PsychPrep Test E, etc). A factor analysis (Response 3) is used to look at the underlying structure among a set of variables (e.g., what factors underlie the subtests of the WAIS-IV).

1.) A young girl has difficulty understanding that her mother is also the daughter of her grandmother. According to Piaget, this child is demonstrating: a. An inability to conserve b. Assimilation c. Centrism d. Irreversibility

a. Centrism a. Centrism refers to the preoperational child's inability to focus on more than one aspect of a problem at a time. The young child can't understand that the same person may play more than one role in the family, for example mother and daughter. The combination of centrism and irreversibility (Response 4) contributes to the preoperational child's inability to conserve (Response 1). For example, if you show a three year old water in a tall skinny glass, and pour the water into a short fat glass, she will tend to focus on only one dimension (how high the water is in the glass) and state that there is less water in the second glass. She will also exhibit irreversibility, the inability to mentally undo the operation (e.g., imagine the water being poured back from the short fat glass into the tall skinny glass. Assimilation (Response 2) is the process of taking in a new experience and incorporating it into an already existing cognitive structure.

1.) Systemic family therapy involves a. The use of genograms to illustrate the nature of relationships among family members b. Circular questions to clarify family members' attributions of the presenting problems c. An exploration of transferences and projections that occur between the family members d. An examination of boundaries and subsystems

a. Circular questions to clarify family members' attributions of the presenting problems a. Circular questions (Response 2) are used in Systemic Family Therapy espoused by the Milan group (e.g., Selvini-Palazzoli). Genograms (Response 1) are used in Bowenian Family Systems Therapy. Object relational family therapy is a specific branch of family therapy that examines the transferences and projections between couples or family members (Response 3). An examination of boundaries and subsystems (Response 4) is characteristic of Minuchin's Structural Family Therapy.

1.) Which of the following findings supports the dopamine hypothesis? a. Akathisia is the most common side effect of the traditional antipsychotics b. Cocaine intoxication may result in auditory, visual, or tactile hallucinations c. The novel antipsychotic drugs do not exert their primary effect on dopamine d. Patients with Parkinson's disease show a deficiency in dopamine

a. Cocaine intoxication may result in auditory, visual, or tactile hallucinations a. According to the dopamine hypothesis, Schizophrenia results from an excess of the neurotransmitter dopamine. Cocaine increases the availability of both serotonin and dopamine. Thus, the presence of hallucinations in Cocaine Intoxication provides support for the link between excess dopamine and psychosis. Response 1 is a true statement, however it does not specifically support the Dopamine Hypothesis. Akathisia refers to dysphoria, restlessness and agitation. The fact that the novel antipsychotics do not exert their primary effect on dopamine (Response 3) is one of the strongest pieces of evidence against the dopamine hypothesis. Response 4 is also a true statement, but the dopamine hypothesis is about Schizophrenia, not Parkinson's Disease.

1.) The most significant stumbling block in the clinical assessment of anorexia nervosa is the tendency for the person with anorexia nervosa to: a. Be a poor historian b. Deny having a problem c. Have cognitive impairment secondary to anorexia nervosa d. Have a comorbid mental disorder

a. Deny having a problem a. The most significant barrier in the clinical assessment of anorexia nervosa is that many patients with anorexia nervosa deny having a problem (Response 2, correct answer). The DSM-5 suggests that due to the denial and lack of insight, a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa may be difficult to establish in the absence of collateral information obtained from family members or other outside sources about the degree of weight loss and other aspects of the disorder. Due to high levels of denial, persons with anorexia may be poor historians (Response 1), however, this is not necessarily the case. There is no significant cognitive impairment associated with anorexia (Ruling out response 3). Anorexia nervosa is commonly comorbid with other disorders such as bipolar, depression, and anxiety disorders; alcohol use disorder and other substance use disorders may also be comorbid (Response 4). However, the presence of a comorbid disorder is likely to increase the changes that the person with anorexia nervosa will seek treatment and obtain and accurate diagnosis.

1.) According to Gerald Patterson's Model of Aggression, a child is most likely to evidence conduct problems at a young age if: a. Coercive and other aggressive behaviors are used by their parents b. Parents adopt a consistently strict approach to parenting c. The child does not receive high levels of empathy and mutual positive affectivity d. Parents use physical discipline (e.g., spanking)

a. Coercive and other aggressive behaviors are used by their parents a. According to Patterson's Coercion Model of Aggression, three steps lead to delinquency: I) Children learn to be aggressive by observing coercive and antisocial behavior in the parents. Such parents respond to a child's noncompliance with increasingly coercive and aggressive behaviors. Poor parenting practices then unwittingly reinforce coercive behavior on the part of the child. A cycle of escalating coerciveness ensues. The child's coercive behavior leads to conduct problems. II) The child with conduct problems experiences academic failure and peer rejection. III) The child then experiences a depressed mood and is more likely to join a deviant peer group. Inconsistency in parenting is most linked with conduct problems, not consistently strict parenting (Response 2). In fact, parents may alternate between a permissive and explosive parenting style. Physical discipline (Response 4) was not singled out as the cause of aggressiveness in children, although inappropriate and inconsistent physical discipline can certainly play a part in the cycle of coercive behavior. The factors of empathy and mutual positive affectivity (Response 3) are highlighted in the Kochanska's work on the development of conscience in children.

1.) Which kind of therapist would be least likely to involve dreamwork in treatment? a. Classical psychoanalytic b. Cognitive behavioral c. Gestalt d. Jungian

a. Cognitive behavioral a. Classical analysts (Response 1) do work with their client's dreams, and focus on interpreting and helping the client understand both the manifest (surface) and latent (underlying) meaning of dreams. Gestalt therapists (Response 3) have their clients take on the role of all the elements of the dream (e.g., asking the client to become the lion that is chasing him in the dream). Jungian analysts (Response 4) work with dreams and see them as containing elements of both the personal and collective unconscious. Cognitive-behavioral therapists (Response 2) generally do not work with dreams in treatment. They rely on techniques that are more cognitive (e.g., looking at automatic thinking or irrational beliefs) and behavioral (e.g., relaxation, guided imagery, positive reinforcement).

1.) Research indicates that which of the following is the most successful treatment for insomnia? a. Cognitive behavioral therapy b. Relaxation therapy c. Stimulus control d. Sleep restriction therapy

a. Cognitive behavioral therapy a. This is a difficult question because all of the answers listed are effective treatmetns for insomnia. However, cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia (CBT-I) includes relaxation therapy, stimulus control, and sleep restriction, as well as cognitive treatment aimed at modifying maladaptive sleep-related beliefs or managing intrusive thoughts preventing sleep. Relaxation therapy (Response 2) includes such interventions as mediation and muscle relaxation or dimming of the lights and playing soothing music prior to going to bed. Stimulus control (Response 3) involves limiting the activities one does in bed; stimulus control seeks to re-associate the bedroom with sleep rather than other activities t hat may be stimulating (e.g., working in bed). Sleep restriction therapy (Response 4) involves spending less time awake in bed, tossing and turning, by first determining the number of hours one typically sleeps each night (e.g., five hours), and the time one needs to get up. The person then goes to bed at the time that would optimize amount of time in bed spent sleeping. For example, a person who typically sleeps five hours a night, and has to wake up at 6 am, would initially go to bed at 1am. Time in bed is gradually lengthened based on the ability to stay asleep for longer periods of time

1.) All of the following are associated with the limbic system except: a. Cognitive learning b. Emotion c. Satiety d. Memory

a. Cognitive learning a. The limbic system broadly includes the hippocampus, hypothalamus, amygdala, septum, and parts of the thalamus. The functions most commonly associated with the limbic system are emotions (Response 2) and memory (Response 4). The hypothalamus also regulates hunger and satiety (Response 3). Cognitive learning is not associated with the limbic system, but rather with the frontal lobes.

1.) What has research shown to be the most effective ingredient of group therapy? a. Group leader's style b. Therapist's orientation c. Cohesiveness d. Universality

a. Cohesiveness a. Cohesiveness, defined as the attractiveness of the group for its members, is considered to be one of the most critical factors in group therapy. Cohesiveness in group therapy is analogous to therapeutic rapport in individual therapy. Universality (Response 4), while also an important factor, is less significant than cohesiveness. Group leader's style (Response 1) and therapist's orientation (Response 3) are not typically considered to be curative factors in group therapy.

1.) According to the theories of Piaget and Kohlberg, in which stage of cognitive and moral development is an eight-year-old child most likely to be? a. Concrete operational, good boy/good girl b. Preoperational, instrumental hedonism c. Concrete operational, instrumental hedonism d. Preoperational, good boy/ good girl

a. Concrete operational, instrumental hedonism a. A healthy eight-year-old would be in Piaget's concrete operational stage (ages 7 - 11), and Kohlberg's preconventional morality stage (ages 4 - 10), in the substage of punishment-obedience or instrumental hedonism. Piaget's preoperational stage (Responses 2 and 4) covers the ages of 2 - 7, and Kohlberg's good boy/good girl orientation of conventional morality (Responses 1 and 4) applies to ages 10 and above.

1.) A significant finding from Abramson and Alloy's depression research is that: a. Depressed persons tend to suffer from an illusion of control b. Depressed persons tend to have unrealistically negative assessments of their ability to control an outcome c. Depressed persons tend to have a more realistic assessment of their ability to control an outcome than do persons with normal mood d. Depressed persons and persons with normal mood do not differ in their assessment of their ability to control an outcome, when the situation is emotionally neutral

a. Depressed persons tend to have a more realistic assessment of their ability to control an outcome than do persons with normal mood a. Although we are accustomed to thinking of depressed persons as unrealistically pessimistic, the research of Abramson and Alloy demonstrated that depressed persons are sometimes more realistic in their appraisals than are persons with normal mood (Response 2). Specifically, non-depressed persons have unrealistically positive assessments of their ability to control outcomes, a phenomenon termed "illusion of control" by the researchers (Response 1). The difference in accuracy of appraisal found by Abramson and Alloy was not dependent upon whether the situation was emotionally neutral (Response 4).

1.) According to Prochaska and DiClemente's Stages of Change Model, a patient is most likely to experience ambivalence about change during the stage of: a. Pre-contemplation b. Contemplation c. Preparation d. Action

a. Contemplation a. According to Prochaska and DiClemente's Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change, people progress through a series of stages in making changes in their behavior. This model has been used in the treatment of addictive behaviors such as smoking and drinking, eating disorders and weight management, as well as for promoting health related behaviors. The five stages of change are precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance. In precontemplation (Response 1), the person is in denial of any problems, and has no intention to change his behavior at the present time. In contemplation (Response 2), the person becomes aware that a problem exists, and feels ambivalent about change. While the person is contemplating, or thinking about, making changes, he has not taken action and has not yet made a commitment to change. In preparation (Response 3), the person is more committed to making changes. The person has created a detailed plan for change, and perceives greater benefits than barriers to change. In action (Response 4), the person is modifying her or his behavior and experiences in order to overcome the problem. This is the stage that involves the most overt behavioral changes. In maintenance, the last stage, the person takes steps to prevent relapse and maintain the gains made during the previous stage of action.

1.) Dr. B sees a client for a first session of outpatient psychotherapy. The client reports a severe history of trauma, current dissociative symptoms suggestive of Dissociative Identity Disorder, and serious suicidal intent. Dr. B specializes in the treatment of depressive disorders and has no experience with severe trauma and dissociation. The most ethical course of action for Dr. B is to a. Continue to see the client until the suicidal emergency has passed, unless he is able to secure more appropriate services for the client. b. Continue to see the client until the suicidal emergency has passed; otherwise he is guilty of patient abandonment. c. Refer the client immediately, because he lacks the necessary training and experience to ensure competence. d. Continue to see the client

a. Continue to see the client until the suicidal emergency has passed, unless he is able to secure more appropriate services for the client. a. The ethical issues being balanced here are competence and emergency treatment. The client is currently in an emergency situation, due to suicidal intent. At the same time, Dr. B is not fully competent to treat the client's symptoms. APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002) permits psychologists to provide emergency services even when they are not fully competent in order to ensure that patients receive necessary treatment (ruling out Response 3). Psychologists must then terminate services as soon as the emergency has passed or more appropriate services have been secured. It is not patient abandonment (Response 2) to decline to see a patient in an emergency if the psychologist is able to appropriately secure more fitting services for the patient elsewhere. Because Dr. B does not have the necessary competence for the patient's long-term issues, he could not see the patient indefinitely, as is implied by Response 4.

1.) Interpersonal therapy (Klerman et. al.) was developed in the 1970s, building on the interpersonal theories of Sullivan and Meyer. Interpersonal therapy focuses on: a. Social and cultural factors in personality development b. Quality of early attachment c. Current relationships d. Analysis of transference

a. Current relationships a. Interpersonal Therapy (IPT) is a 16-session time-limited therapy model that links interpersonal problems with presenting problems. It has been most widely applied to the treatment of nonpsychotic depression. Interpersonal Therapy is a here-and-now treatment, in which the focus is not on past interpersonal relationships (Response 2) or childhood conflicts, but rather on current relationships. One of four interpersonal problem areas is typically the focus of treatment: grief, role dispute, role transition, or interpersonal deficits. Although interpersonal therapy does foster a positive transference relationship, the transference relationship is not interpreted, nor are other traditional psychodynamic techniques utilized (Response 4). While Sullivan, a neo-Freudian, did focus on social and cultural factors in personality development (Response 1), these factors are not the focus in IPT.

1.) For every five minutes that a hyperactive child does not speak out of turn, his teacher gives him a "green ticket." At the end of each hour, the child gets a minute of play time for every green ticket he has earned. This method of behavior modification is best described as: a. Token economy b. Higher-order conditioning c. DRO d. Shaping

a. DRO a. DRO (differential reinforcement of other behaviors) occurs when a subject is reinforced for every interval of time (e.g., five minutes) in which the target undesirable behavior does not occur. In this scenario, the reinforcement is a green ticket that is exchanged for play time. This situation may resemble a token economy (Response 1), but a token economy is a much more involved system which includes reinforcement and punishment for a wide variety of behaviors, and tokens which can be exchanged for a wide variety of rewards. Shaping (Response 4) involves successive reinforcement for behaviors that gradually approximate the desired outcome behavior. All of these concepts come from the domain of operant conditioning. Higher order conditioning (Response 2) is a classical conditioning concept and involves pairing a conditioned stimulus with another neutral stimulus that is typically unrelated to the first conditioned stimulus.

1.) Brad and Dave decide to go to a play, which Brad is required to see for his English literature class. The play turns out to be poorly written and performed. According to the predictions of cognitive dissonance theory, which of the following statements is most likely to be true? a. Dave will report liking the play more than Brad b. Brad will report liking the play more than Dave c. Both Brad and Dave will report liking the play to the same extent d. The extent to which Brad will report liking the play will depend on how much of his grade is based upon seeing the play

a. Dave will report liking the play more than Brad a. This scenario is an example of cognitive dissonance resulting from insufficient justification. According to the predictions of cognitive dissonance theory, Dave will report liking the play more than Brad. Since Dave had no external incentive to see the bad play, he will experience greater pressure to justify his attendance. Therefore, he will be more likely to say that the play was worth seeing. Brad, on the other hand, can justify his attendance simply because he was required to see play.

1.) Cerebrovascular damage is most likely to lead to: a. Mania b. Depression c. Anxiety d. Psychosis

a. Depression a. Cerebrovascular damage, damage associated with stroke, sometimes leads to a specific kind of depression called post-stroke depression. It occurs in up to 30%-40% of patients who sustain a stroke. Post-stroke depression has a somewhat different clinical presentation than functional depression (depression not precipitated by clearly organic factors) including more psychomotor retardation, less guilt feelings, and less insight. Post-stroke depression also tends to be more chronic and treatment-resistant than functional depression

1.) All of the following contain elements of operant conditioning except: a. Desensitization b. Law of effect c. Biofeedback d. Premack Principle

a. Desensitization a. Operant conditioning involves the use of consequences (reinforcers or punishers) to control (e.g., increase or decrease) behavior. Thorndike's Law of Effect (Response 2) specifically states that behaviors followed by reinforcers are more likely to be repeated. Biofeedback (Response 3) entails operant conditioning of the normally involuntary functions of the autonomic nervous system. In biofeedback, the patient is taught to regulate certain physiological functions, and is given visual or auditory feedback (typically reinforcement) about the status of these functions, with the goal of affecting physical symptoms. The Premack Principle (Response 4) involves using a behavior that occurs frequently as a reinforcer for a behavior that occurs infrequently. Desensitization (Response 1) is an application of classical conditioning. Desensitization is based on the principle of reciprocal inhibition, and involves bringing about a response that is incompatible with a response previously learned through association.

1.) Empirical criterion-keying is a means for: a. Empirically confirming that a subject's response on a test are valid b. Developing a scoring key in terms of external standards c. Interpreting a test score in terms of predicted performance on an external criteria d. Establishing criterion-related validity

a. Developing a scoring key in terms of external standards a. Empirical criterion keying involves developing a scoring key in terms of external standards (Response 2, correct answer). The original MMPI is the most well known example of test development based on empirical criterion keying. The items for the various scales of the MMPI were selected based on their ability to discriminate between normal individuals and individual with clinical diagnoses (e.g., schizophrenia). When empirical criterion-keying is used, it is important to establish criterion-related validity (Response 4); "keying," however, refers to scoring and not the establishment of validity. Response 3 is an example of criterion-referenced interpretation. Response 1 most closely relates to the validity scales (e.g., L, F, and K on the MMPI) designed to assess test-taking approach.

1.) According to Tiedeman and O'Hara, successful career development is based upon: a. A combination of eight life roles b. Knowledge of oneself and knowledge of the working world c. Differentiation and integration d. Modeling and reinforcement

a. Differentiation and integration a. Tiedeman and O'Hara's theory of career development focuses on the processes of differentiation and integration. Differentiation refers to making distinctions about the different aspects of oneself (e.g., characteristics one possesses) and the environment (e.g., seeing various aspects of a particular job instead of just one factor). Integration refers to unifying these different aspects, and results in making better decisions, setting more refined goals, and developing more useful plans. According to Donald Super, career is viewed as a combination of eight life roles some of which include son/daughter, worker, leisurite, and spouse/friend (Response 1). Holland's vocational theory focuses on knowledge of oneself and knowledge of the working world (Response 2). Holland has proposed that individuals and job traits can be matched, and close matches correlate with job success and satisfaction. Krumboltz's social learning theory of career decision making posits that people choose careers based on what has been learned through modeling and reinforcement (Response 4).

1.) Men who have viewed pornographic films in which women have been raped tend to: a. Display more empathy toward the rape victim b. Display less empathy toward the rape victim c. Not have a demonstrable change in attitude toward the rape victim d. Become increasingly upset if exposed to these films repeatedly over time

a. Display less empathy toward the rape victim a. Research on the attitudes of men viewing pornography that depicts violence toward women have found that men who view these films display decreased empathy toward the victims of r ape in particular as well as toward women in general (Response 2). Specifically, subjects in studies who viewed violent pornographic films rated the rape victim as significantly more worthless, rated her injury as significantly less severe, and assigned greater blame to her for being raped, as compared with subjects who had not viewed the violent pornographic films. Repeated viewing of these films resulted in desensitization to their violent material (ruling out Response 4) and subjects reported feeling less guilt and accountability at the prospect of themselves committing the violent actions seen in the films

1.) As the director of a small community clinic, you are in the process of hiring a psychologist for a vacant position. You speak to the previous supervisor of one of the top applicants and learn that the applicant has a claim of sexual harassment filed against him. Given this information, you should: a. Not hire him since he is likely to commit sexual harassment again b. Not hire him since sexual harassment constitutes unethical conduct c. Hire him if he is otherwise qualified, because not hiring him may be a form of reverse discrimination d. Disregard the issue of harassment in your hiring decision

a. Disregard the issue of harassment in your hiring decision b. According to the Ethics Code, one may not discriminate against someone solely because there exists a pending or unresolved complaint of sexual harassment (ruling out Responses 1 and 2). You are not obligated, however, to hire the applicant (Response 3). The best course of action would be to disregard the claim of harassment in your hiring decision. Of course, if the applicant has been found guilty of harassment, you can and should consider this information in your hiring decision.

1.) In terms of memory, chunking is most associated with: a. Recall b. Mnemonics c. Rehearsal d. Encoding

a. Encoding b. Encoding refers to translating incoming information into a mental representation that can be stored in memory. Information can be encoded according to its sound (acoustic code), what it looks like (visual code), or what it means (semantic code). Chunking involves grouping items into meaningful units; therefore chunking can be thought of as a process that facilitates encoding. Recall (Response 1) involves the retrieval of information from memory. Mnemonics (Response 2) is a term for various memory enhancing strategies, such as the method of loci. Rehearsal (Response 3) is the repetition of material, which helps with storage of memories in long-term memory.

1.) A woman brings her husband to the emergency room. She reports that he has suddenly forgotten his name and other personal information. She further reports that he has no known history of mental illness. The most likely diagnosis in this case would be: a. Posttraumatic stress disorder b. Somatic symptom disorder c. Factitious disorder d. Dissociative amnesia

a. Dissociative amnesia b. The sudden onset of the forgetting of personal information is characteristic of Dissociative Amnesia. The amnesia sometimes found in Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (Response 1) is generally restricted to aspects of the traumatic event. Although amnesia is sometimes one of the pseudoneurological symptoms involved in Somatization Disorder (Response 2), Somatization Disorder requires a presentation with multiple physical complaints beginning before thirty years of age. If the patient is consciously faking the symptoms of amnesia in the absence of any secondary gain, he might qualify for Factitious Disorder (Response 3). However, no information to support this diagnosis is provided in the question.

1.) You are a psychologist contracted to provide evaluation and treatment services for an Employee Assistance Program. Recently you evaluated a man who was referred to you by his employer. In the course of your evaluation, you determine that this man has problems with drinking and controlling his temper. You receive a phone call from his employer who wants information about your evaluation. How should you address this situation? a. Do not release any information to protect the man's confidentiality b. Do not release any information unless you have a signed release of information c. Inform the supervisor that the man came for his evaluation and whether he agreed to attend appropriate treatment d. Inform the supervisor that the man came for his evaluation, and the nature of the man's problems

a. Do not release any information unless you have a signed release of information a. When a supervisor refers a supervisee to an Employee Assistance Program, the treating therapist must divulge some information to the supervisor, such as whether the patient came for the evaluation and whether he has agreed to comply with the proposed treatment plan. Compliance with treatment may be made a requirement of continued employment. Of course, at the outset of the evaluation, the patient must be informed of this limitation of confidentiality and informed consent to treatment must be obtained. A release of information is not needed to reveal information about attendance, but would be required for disclosing specific aspects of this man's problem and his treatment (Response 4).

1.) Johnny, a third grader, is given both an IQ and an achievement test. On the IQ test he scores at the 50th percentile rank, while on the achievement test he scores at the 25th percentile rank. This suggests that Johnny likely: a. Has a specific learning disorder b. Does not have a specific learning disorder c. Is white d. Is an ethnic minority student

a. Does not have a specific learning disorder a. According to the DSM-5, a specific learning disorder is diagnosed when there are difficulties learning and using academic skills, and the affected academic skills are substantially below those expected for the person's age. The criteria for substantially below are achievement test scores that are at least 1.5 standard deviations (SD) below the population mean for age (below the 7th percentile), not better accounted for by intellectual disabilities. Given that Johnny's achievement test score is at the 25th percentile rank, he likely does not have a specific learning disorder (Response 2, correct answer). No information is provided that would enable you to deduce whether Johnny is White (Response 3) or an ethnic minority student (Response 4)

1.) Which of the following statements best describes how persons of low socioeconomic status fare in treatment? a. Treatment effectiveness for clients with low SES is better overall than for clients with high SES, when therapy lasts six months or longer. b. Treatment effectiveness for clients with low SES is lower overall than for clients with high SES, regardless of treatment duration and therapist experience. c. Differences in treatment outcome between clients with low SES and high SES can be attributed mainly to ethnicity. d. Drop out rates for clients with low SES tend to be greater than for clients with high SES, regardless of ethnicity.

a. Drop out rates for clients with low SES tend to be greater than for clients with high SES, regardless of ethnicity. b. Individuals of lower SES and education have higher drop out rates in psychotherapy. When individuals of lower SES remain in therapy, however, they derive as much benefit as those of higher SES (ruling out Responses 1 and 2). Some research suggests that differences in treatment outcome that have been typically attributed to ethnic diversity are actually better accounted for by SES (ruling out Response 3).

1.) According to motivational theories, the term "expectancy" refers to a person's belief that: a. Performance is expected to result in receiving the desired rewards b. The rewards that will be obtained are expected to be of value c. Effort will result in successful performance d. Moderate to difficult goals are more desirable

a. Effort will result in successful performance a. According to Valence, Instrumentality, Expectancy (VIE) Theory, all three factors play a significant role in motivation. Expectancy refers to expectancy for success (Response 3). Instrumentality refers to the belief that successful performance will result in rewards (Response 1), and valence refers to the value attached to the rewards (Response 2). Moderate to difficult goals (Response 4) are thought to be an important motivational factor in Locke's goal setting theory, but do not directly relate to expectancy theory.

1.) According to Locke's goal setting theory, of the following factors, which one is least crucial for goal achievement? a. Employee participating in goal setting b. Feedback regarding performance c. Specific goals d. Moderately difficult goals

a. Employee participating in goal setting a. According to Locke's Goal Setting theory, several factors are important with regard to goal achievement or performance: goals should be specific rather than global (Response 3), goals should be of intermediate to high level of difficulty (Response 4), and workers should receive feedback on their performance (Response 2). Additionally, Locke proposes that worker's beliefs that the goals are attainable, and workers' acceptance of and commitment to the goals are critical for goal achievement. While participation in goal setting (Response 1) may result in better performance than when goals are assigned, participation in goal setting, in and of itself, has limited impact on goal achievement

1.) Which of the following are the most likely side effects of Ritalin (methylphenidate)? a. Tremors and weight gain b. Sedation and dry mouth c. Headaches and decreased appetite d. Insomnia and pressured speech

a. Headaches and decreased appetite a. The most common side effects of Ritalin include loss of appetite, insomnia, headaches, and gastrointestinal distress (stomach aches or nausea). Sedation and dry mouth (Response 2) are included among the possible side effects of Ritalin. Tremors and weight gain (Response 1) are common side effects of Lithium. Pressured speech is not associated with use of Ritalin (Response 4).

1.) Which of the following statements is most accurate in terms of the role of environmental stressors in Bipolar I disorder? a. Environmental stressors are more likely to trigger the first or second episodes of the illness than later episodes b. Environmental stressors are less likely to trigger the first or second episodes of the illness than later episodes c. Environmental stressors tend to trigger most episodes of the illness d. Environmental stressors do not play a significant role in triggering the episodes of this illness

a. Environmental stressors are more likely to trigger the first or second episodes of the illness than later episodes a. Environmental stresses have been found to be more instrumental in triggering the first or second episodes of Bipolar Disorder than later episodes.

1.) A person is able to recall in great detail her wedding day, which occurred over 30 years ago. This is due to: a. Episodic memory b. Semantic memory c. Implicit memory d. Explicit memory

a. Episodic memory a. Explicit memory (Response 4) or declarative memory involves conscious recollection of information or experience. Episodic memory and semantic memory are two subtypes of explicit memory. Episodic memory refers to the capacity to recall autobiographical events, and when and where a specific event occurred (Response 1). Semantic memory (Response 2) refers to memory of facts and how they relate to each other. Implicit memory (Response 3) or procedural memory refers to the recollection of skills and physical operations automatically and without conscious awareness.

1.) The practice of hiring a marketing service to promote a psychologist is considered: a. Ethical b. Unethical c. Ethical, as long as the psychologist takes responsibility for ensuring the accuracy and fairness of all marketing practices d. Ethical, as long as marketing practices are non-exploitative

a. Ethical, as long as the psychologist takes responsibility for ensuring the accuracy and fairness of all marketing practices a. It is ethical for a psychologist to hire a marketing service. When using a marketing service, the psychologist must retain responsibility for the marketing practices and in particular, ensure that the practices are fair and always accurate. Although marketing practices should be non-exploitative (Response 4), this is but one of several important considerations.

1.) While a Latina client is waiting for you in the lobby of a clinic, she overhears a psychologist speaking to the secretary. She tells you in session that the psychologist said, "...and he's probably one of those damn illegals anyway." Your client is extremely upset but refuses to report the incident. Your best course of action would be to: a. Further encourage the client to report the incident b. Report the incident to the clinic director c. Raise this issue with the psychologist directly d. Explore further with the client

a. Explore further with the client b. The ethics code states that when a psychologist knows of an ethical violation by a colleague, the psychologist should speak directly to the colleague, assuming an informal resolution seems appropriate and confidentiality will not be violated. In this situation, raising the issue with the colleague (Response 3) may violate confidentiality, since the psychologist heard about the alleged misconduct from the client. Encouraging the client to report the incident (Response 1) may not be appropriate since the client is refusing to make a report. Reporting the incident to the clinic director (Response 2) would also violate confidentiality. Clinically, of course, it would be very important to explore further with the client to help her deal with her strong, though understandable, reaction.

1.) A child without serious psychopathology is having tantrums at school. The teacher has tried comforting and reasoning with the child but the tantrums are getting worse. You would most likely recommend that the teacher use a strategy based on a. Extinction b. Positive punishment c. Social learning theory d. Classical conditioning

a. Extinction a. In this situation it appears that comforting and reasoning with the child is serving as reinforcement for the tantrums, and as a result the tantrums are worsening. Operant extinction (Response 1) involves withholding reinforcement to reduce a problematic target behavior. Positive punishment (Response 2) is also designed to reduce a problematic target behavior, however, positive punishment (e.g., yelling or slapping) would be an inappropriate intervention in this situation. Strategies based on social learning theory (Response 3) would typically include modeling. Watching a model (e.g., a classmate who is calm) is unlikely to reduce the frequency of the child's tantrums. An intervention based on classical conditioning (Response 4), such as systematic desensitization or flooding, would not be effective in this scenario.

1.) Dr. Spook hypothesizes that "fear" involves three components: physical arousal, cognitive appraisal of danger, and suggestibility. He designs a self-report questionnaire that yields a quantitative measure of degree of fear. He includes questions addressing physical arousal, cognitive appraisal of danger, and suggestibility. To confirm his hypothesis, he should use which of the following statistics? a. Discriminant analysis b. Path analysis c. Factor analysis d. Analysis of variance

a. Factor analysis a. Dr. Spook's hypothesis is about the underlying structure of fear. Specifically, he hypothesizes three underlying components: physical arousal, cognitive appraisal of danger, and suggestibility. Factor analysis is a test of structure and would therefore be appropriate here. Other tests of structure include principle components analysis and cluster analysis. Discriminant analysis (Response 1) is used to predict group membership. Path analysis (Response 2) involves the application of correlational techniques to test models of causality. Analysis of variance (Response 4) looks at differences between two or more groups of subjects.

1.) In current psychoanalytic thinking, countertransference may be: a. Helpful to understand the transference b. Used to confront the patient c. The focus of an open discussion with the patient d. An indication that the analyst requires further psychoanalysis him or herself

a. Helpful to understand the transference a. Current psychoanalytic theories use the analyst's experience (i.e., counter-transference) as information about what the patient might be feeling (i.e., the transference). Historically, countertransference tended to be seen as an indication of neurosis in the analyst (Response 4), but that view is rarely held today. Most analysts use little self-disclosure so it is unlikely that countertransference would become the topic for an open discussion with the patient (Response 3) or for confrontation (Response 2).

1.) A research might choose to raise the cutoff to reduce the number of: a. False positives b. False negatives c. True positives d. True negatives

a. False positives a. This question is a bit tricky because it does not specify whether the "cutoff" being referred to is the criterion cutoff or the predictor cutoff. In the real world, the criterion cutoff is often impossible to change (e.g., pregnant/not pregnant, drop out/stay in school). The question therefore is referring to the predictor cutoff. Raising the predictor cutoff means that it is harder to qualify as a "positive." When the number of scores identified as "positive" are reduced, there will be both fewer false positives and fewer true positives. It is very unlikely that the researcher is intending to decrease true positives (Response 3), since true positives are desirable. An example may make things clearer: A test to predict work success uses a predictor cutoff of 75 and is administered to 100 subjects. Fifty subjects get above 75 and are labeled "positives," i.e., they are predicted to be successful in the work place. Of these 50, only 30 are actually evaluated as successful by their supervisors (i.e., the criterion). Thus there are 30 true positives and 20 false positives. If the cutoff were raised to 85, only 25 subjects would be labeled "positives." Of these, perhaps 20 would end up being successful. Thus there would be 20 true positives and 5 false positives. The number of false positives would be reduced by 15.

1.) Which of the following schedules of reinforcement is least resistant to extinction? a. Fixed interval b. Variable interval c. Fixed ratio d. Variable ratio

a. Fixed interval a. A schedule with a low resistance to extinction will easily and readily extinguish when reinforcement is withheld. The fixed interval schedule of reinforcement is the least resistant to extinction, followed by the variable interval schedule (Response 2) and then the fixed ratio schedule (Response 3). The variable ratio schedule (Response 4) offers the greatest resistance to extinction, which means that when reinforcement is withheld, responses will continue for a longer period as compared with all the other schedules of reinforcement.

1.) A consultant is hired to design a program for a subset of highly gifted children at an elite private school. After she designs the program, the school accepts it, and she then proceeds with implementation. She periodically meets with the teachers, parents, and students to get a sense of how the program is working and what changes or modifications may be needed. The consultant's work can best be described as a: a. Consultee-centered case consultation b. Consultee-centered administrative consultation c. Summative evaluation d. Formative evaluation

a. Formative evaluation b. The consultant's work is focusing on the evaluation of a program she designed. Her work involves a formative evaluation because she is evaluating the program on an on-going basis as it is being implemented. By contrast, a summative evaluation (Response 4) involves program evaluation that occurs only at the end of the program. Consultee-centered case consultation (Response 1) focuses on helping a consultee on some general clinical issues (e.g., dealing with borderline patients), and consultee-centered administrative consultation (Response 2) focuses on helping consultees overcome problems that limit programmatic change.

1.) Alcohol is thought to exert its effects primariy on: a. Dopamine b. Norepinephrine c. GABA d. Acetylcholine

a. GABA a. This is a difficult question! Alcohol increases the effects of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA in the brain (Response 3, correct answer), which accounts for the slurred speech, unsteady gait, and possible stupor that can accompany alcohol intoxication. At the same time, alcohol inhibits the excitatory neurotransmitter glutamate, leading to further physiological slowdown. In addition, alcohol increases dopamine (Response 1) in the brain's reward center. While all psychoactive substances (including alcohol) increases dopamine, the primary effect of alcohol is on the neurotransmitter GABA

1.) Theories of gender role development assume that certain processes occur at different times in development. Most theories propose that the sequence of acquisition is: a. Gender identity, gender roles, gender constancy b. Gender identity, gender constancy, gender roles c. Gender roles, gender identity, gender constancy d. Gender roles, gender constancy, gender identity

a. Gender roles, gender identity, gender constancy a. The sequences of acquisition in gender role development is gender roles, gender identity, and gender constancy. Sex is determined at conception. Gender roles refer to the societal expectations for appropriate male or female behavior, which begin to develop virtually from birth and continue to develop throughout life. Gender identity refers to the individual's self-perception as a male or a female. Gender identity is achieved by the age of three years, at the latest. Gender constancy is the recognition that gender does not change with dress or behavior. Gender constancy is attained by age five or six.

1.) Which disorder has historically had the lowest level of diagnostic interrater reliability? a. PTSD b. Generalized Anxiety Disorder c. Borderline Personality Disorder d. ADHD

a. Generalized Anxiety Disorder a. Interrater reliability refers to the amount of agreement among individuals who rate or score a variable; it is a measure of the level of consensus among raters (commonly determined by the kappa coefficient). Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) has historically had low rates of interrater reliability compared with other anxiety disorders and other mental disorders. This may be due to a number of factors: symptoms for GAD tend to overlap significantly with symptoms from other anxiety disorders; anxiety tends to correlate highly with depression; and it can be difficult to differentiate "normal anxiety" from pathological worries.

1.) According to Piaget, a young, egocentric child that thinks rigidly about morality and cannot imagine more than one way of looking at a moral issue is in the stage of: a. Heteronomous morality b. Autonomous morality c. Preconventional morality d. Conventional morality

a. Heteronomous morality a. According to Piaget's theory of moral development, heteronomous morality (Response 1) is seen in children aged 5 -10, and is characterized by a belief that rules are decided upon by authority figures, cannot be changed, and must be followed without question. The transition to autonomous morality (Response 2) occurs at about age ten. In this stage, children realize that rules are flexible, are agreed upon by others, and can be changed if necessary. Kohlberg's preconventional morality (Response 3) occurs between the ages of 4 - 10, and emphasizes compliance with rules to avoid punishment and get rewards. At this stage, moral judgment is self-centered, and people act out of self-interest. Kohlberg's conventional morality (Response 4) is typically reached after age 10. Conventional morality involves an emphasis on conforming to rules to get approval from others. At this stage standards of those in authority have been internalized, and people want to be considered "good." Moral reasoning advances from being self-centered to other-centered.

1.) You receive a phone call from your client's employer who wants to give you some information that he feels may be important to the case. He also notes that he has a few questions for you about your client. Your client has not signed a release of information. In this situation, it would be most appropriate to: a. Let him knjow that because you do not have a release of information from your client, you may listen to what the employer has to say but you may not give him any information b. Let him know that without a release you may neither listen to what he has to say, nor reveal any information c. Suggest that he request that his employee (your client) sign a release d. Give him no indication as to whether or not you are seeing his employee (your client)

a. Give him no indication as to whether or not you are seeing his employee (your client) b. Keep in mind that all information in a therapist-client relationship is confidential, including the fact that the client is in treatment. Responses 1, 2, and 3 all involve a breach of confidentiality, because you would be letting the boss know that his employee is in treatment. There is some controversy regarding how to handle third party calls when there has not been a signed release of information. Some clinicians inform the caller that they cannot say whether or not they are treating the client, but that they will listen to whatever the caller has to say. Other clinicians argue that this policy indirectly lets the caller know that the clinician is seeing the client, because the clinician would not listen otherwise.

1.) What is the most important aspect of the current model of learned helplessness? a. The focus on the negative view of the future b. The focus on the negative view of the self c. The depressive attributional style d. Global, stable, internal attributions of failure experiences

a. Global, stable, internal attributions of failure experiences b. Learned helplessness results from attributions of negative events to global, internal, and stable characteristics. Such attributions increase the likelihood of experiencing depression, helplessness, and hopelessness. Negative views of the future (Response 1) and of the self (Response 2) are characteristic of Beck's depressive triad (the other element is a negative view of the world). A depressive attributional style (Response 3) is too general a response and does not specifically address the elements that contribute to learned helplessness.

1.) In terms of decision-making: a. Individuals as a rule make better decision than groups b. Homogenous groups make better decision than heterogeneous groups, due to less conflict among group members c. Groups make better decisions than individuals working alone when the issue at hand has several different aspects d. Decisions made by individuals working alone are more creative than those made by groups

a. Groups make better decisions than individuals working alone when the issue at hand has several different aspects a. Groups make better decisions than individuals when the problem has multiple parts that are susceptible to division of labor. Response 1 is too general and not always accurate. Heterogeneous groups make better decisions than homogeneous groups (Response 2), since homogenous groups, especially when cohesive, tend to generate less creative solutions and be more susceptible to such phenomena as groupthink and response polarization. Because of the risky shift phenomenon, group decisions can be more creative and innovative than decisions made by individuals working alone (Response 4). This is the opposite of what occurs with brainstorming, in which people brainstorming alone tend to come up with more and better solutions than people brainstorming in a group.

1.) Symptoms of withdrawal from Valium can include: a. Hallucinations and seizures b. Insomnia, nightmares, and gastrointestinal distress c. Nausea and vomiting, muscle aches, and dysphoric mood d. Dysphoric mood and fatigue

a. Hallucinations and seizures a. Valium is a benzodiazepine. Sudden withdrawal from a benzodiazepine is very serious and can be fatal. Patients should never abruptly stop using a benzodiazepine, but should only gradually taper use under a doctor's direction. Stage one symptoms of benzodiazepine withdrawal include tremors, sweats, agitation, and increased autonomic reactions. Stage two includes hallucinations and panic. Stage three includes single or multiple grand mal seizures. Insomnia, nightmares, and gastrointestinal distress (Response 2) are symptoms of withdrawal from antipsychotic medications. Nausea and vomiting, muscle aches, and dysphoric mood (Response 3) are symptoms of withdrawal from opioids (narcotics, such as heroin). Dysphoria and fatigue (Response 4) are symptoms of withdrawal from cocaine or amphetamines (stimulants).

1.) You are writing your dissertation on PTSD in victims of gunshot violence. Your dissertation advisor is writing a book on PTSD and asks you if she may quote from your literature review for one of her book chapters, which you agree to. Your advisor: a. May have acted unethically because the difference in status between you and your advisor creates a power differential, raising the possibility that your consent may have been coerced b. Has acted ethically as long as she appropriately cites your work c. Has acted unethically because she should have offered you authorship d. Has acted ethically because she secured your permission to quote from your literature review

a. Has acted ethically as long as she appropriately cites your work a. Given that your dissertation is still unpublished, an important first step is for your dissertation advisor your consent to quote from your literature review; however, obtaining permission does not relieve your advisor from her responsibility to appropriately cite your work (ruling our Response 4). Section 8.11 of the APA Ethics Code states that, "Psychologists do not present portions of another's work or data as their own." In terms of publication credit, you are not entitled to authorship unless your advisor's textbook is substantially based on your work. In this situation it appears that she is only quoting from your literature review in one chapter (ruling out Response 3). The issue of a power differential between you and your advisor (Response 1) would be most relevant in a situation in which the advisor had something to gain while you had something to lose. Typically, having one's work cited in a book is a positive event in one's professional career

1.) A group of people attend a lecture on the benefits of exercise and healthy eating. In order to increase the likelihood that the audience members will comply with the suggestions made, the lecturer should: a. Provide highly anxiety-provoking information about the negative consequences of poor eating b. Have speakers who present their personal success stories with regard to changes they made in diet and exercise c. Have very fit and healthy-looking speakers promote the ideas presented d. Have audience members discuss their fitness goals and how they plan to achieve them

a. Have audience members discuss their fitness goals and how they plan to achieve them b. To respond correctly to this question, you needed to keep in mind that the question was asking about changes in behavior rather than changes in belief (e.g., persuasion). Research has demonstrated that a public statement, such as discussing one's fitness goals in a group, tends to increase the likelihood of behavior change.

1.) In which of the following situations would the Pearson r fail to accurately reflect the relationship between income of time spent shopping? a. Time spent shopping increases as income increases b. Time spent shopping is the same along the entire distribution of income scores c. Time spent shopping is inversely related to income d. High income and low income people spend less time shopping than middle income people

a. High income and low income people spend less time shopping than middle income people b. One of the requirements for the use of a Pearson r correlation coefficient is a linear relationship between two continuous (i.e., interval/ratio) variables. When plotted graphically, a linear relationship is a straight line. Responses 1, 2, and 3 all depict linear relationships and are therefore appropriate for the Pearson r. In Response 1, there is a direct or positive linear relationship, meaning both variables move in the same direction (as income increases, time spent shopping increases). In Response 3 there is an inverse or negative correlation, meaning that the two variables move in different directions (as income increases, time spent shopping decreases). Response 2 describes a correlation of 0, which occurs when there is no relationship between the two variables (income level is unrelated to time spent shopping). In Response 4 there is a curvilinear relationship between the two variables, which would be graphed as an inverted U. Initially, increases in income are related to increases in time spent shopping, and then at a certain point, increases in income are related to decreases in time spent shopping. Using the Pearson r with curvilinear relationship data underestimate the strength of the relationship. The appropriate correlation coefficient for curvilinear data is Eta

1.) According to Erikson, successful negotiation of the psychosocial stage of trust versus mistrust, will result in which of the following strengths? a. Hope b. Love c. Competence d. Wisdom

a. Hope a. According to Erikson's model of the life cycle, there are eight psychosocial crises or developmental tasks that we each face. These tasks extend into old age. He proposed that successful negotiation of each task results in specific strengths. Hope (Response 1) is associated with trust versus mistrust (first year of life). Love (Response 2) is the strength associated with intimacy versus isolation (ages 18 - 35). Competence (Response 3) is associated with industry versus inferiority (ages 6 - 12), and wisdom (Response 4) is the strength associated with integrity versus despair (age 60+).

1.) Ellen Berscheid's research into relationships focuses on: a. How features of a relationship's exterior influence relationship satisfaction b. The impact a relationship can have on the physical and social environment c. How early parental relationships shape material and other intimate relationships The importance of a strong friendship bond in successful marriages

a. How features of a relationship's exterior influence relationship satisfaction a. Ellen Berscheid has conducted extensive research in the area of close interpersonal relationships. She has studied problems associated with relationship satisfaction and stability, as well as emotional experiences within relationships, especially related to love and sexuality. Berscheid contends that people underestimate the effect of external factors (the physical and social environment) on relationship satisfaction. This is the opposite of Response 2. The influence of early parental relationships on later relationships (Response 3) is characteristic of Object Relations Theory. John Gottman emphasizes the importance of friendship in successful marriages (Response 4).

1.) In his theory on the relationship between language and thought, Piaget asserted: a. There is an innate language-specific device that allows the cognitively developing brain to make sense of speech sounds b. Language strongly influences thinking, particularly in the stage of formal operations c. How language is used varies, and is determined by stage-related cognitive structures available The complexity of the language learned in early childhood influences the complexity of later thinking

a. How language is used varies, and is determined by stage-related cognitive structures available a. While you may not have heard of Piaget's theory as it applies to the relationship between language and thought, you might have arrived at the correct response by reasoning and the process of elimination. The use of language does vary as children mature cognitive structures develop. For example, most five-year-olds cannot create poetry, not because they are deficient in language skills but because they lack the cognitive, abstract reasoning skills (e.g., to understand metaphor). The concept of an innate language-specific device (Response 1) is part of Chomsky's nativist view of language acquisition; he terms the device "language acquisition device," or LAD. The idea that language influences thinking (Response 2) is the basic premise of the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis, according to which speakers of different languages actually think differently. Piaget does not believe that complexity of later thinking (e.g., whether someone attains formal operations) depends on the complexity of early language (Response 4).

1.) MAO inhibitors are most dangerous because of the risk they pose for: a. Hypotension b. Hypertensive crisis c. Seizures d. Edema

a. Hypertensive crisis a. MAO inhibitors are potentially dangerous because taking them along with foods high in tyramine (e.g., alcohol, aged cheese) or in combination with a variety of prescription medications (e.g., sympathomimetic drugs used to treat certain heart conditions) can induce a hypertensive crisis. A hypertensive emergency is characterized by symptoms of severe headache, stiff neck, palpitations, sweating, nausea, and vomiting and can eventually lead to multiple organ failure. MAO inhibitors can also result in milder side effects such as hypotension (Response 1) and edema or swelling (Response 4) that may still require medical attention. MAO inhibitors are not typically associated with seizures (ruling out Response 3)

1.) Which of the following structures is most directly involved in the secretion of sex hormones? a. Thalamus b. Hypothalamus c. Parathyroid d. Thyroid

a. Hypothalamus a. The hypothalamus regulates the secretion of cyclic sex hormones (i.e., the menstrual cycle), as well as influencing the gonads (ovaries and testes), which in turn release estrogen and testosterone. The thalamus (Response 1) acts as the relay station for all senses except olfaction. The parathyroid gland (Response 3) regulates the secretion of calcitonin, which plays a role in calcium retention. The thyroid gland (Response 4) controls metabolism through secretion of the hormone thyroxin.

1.) A leader expects subordinates to comply with his requests because he is the boss. In this situation, the basis of leadership is: a. Reward power b. Legitimate power c. Informational power d. Referent power

a. Legitimate power a. In this situation, leadership is based on legitimate power, the power that comes from one's position in the organization. Reward power (Response 1) is based on the power to reward others. Informational power (Response 3) is based on the leader having special information that others do not possess. Referent power (Response 4) is based on identification with, and liking of the leader

1.) According to Erikson, a child who is transitioning from elementary to junior high school is most likely beginning to deal with the psychosocial task of: a. Autonomy b. Identity c. Industry d. Intimacy

a. Identity a. This child is likely to be in early adolescence, and Erikson describes the psychosocial challenge of adolescence (12 - 18 years) as identity versus role confusion. If all has gone well, a child entering junior high will already have mastered the stage of industry versus inferiority (Response 3), which occurs when a child is between six and twelve years of age. The stage of autonomy (Response 1) versus shame and doubt occurs when the child is between the ages of one and three. Intimacy (Response 4) versus isolation is the challenge of young adulthood (18 - 35 years).

1.) According to Troiden's model of gay and lesbian identity development, during which stage is an individual most likely to have negative attitudes about being homosexual while nevertheless acknowledging membership in this group? a. Sensitization b. Identity confusion c. Identity assumption d. Commitment

a. Identity assumption a. Troiden's model of gay and lesbian development has four stages. In the first stage, sensitization (Response 1), the pre-pubescent individual feels different from peers and ultimately internalizes a negative self-concept. This sense of differentness is related more to gender (i.e., feeling different from other boys or girls) than to sexuality. The second stage, identity confusion (Response 2), occurs around age 18. In this stage there is a growing recognition of homosexual feelings and impulses, and at the same time, feelings of exclusion in the world. Thus significant conflict is experienced, and to cope, some individuals resort to denial, avoidance, or repair (an attempt to become heterosexual). The main task of the third stage, identity assumption (Response 3), is to manage social stigma. During this stage, which occurs around ages 19 - 22, there is typically a reduction in social isolation and increased contact with other gays and lesbians. A variety of strategies can be employed in this stage, including immersion in the gay and lesbian community to the exclusion of most heterosexual contacts, or, as in this question, acknowledging homosexual identity while nevertheless having negative attitudes about it. Stage four, commitment, which occurs around ages 22 - 23, involves an integration of homosexual identity. People in this stage are more open about their sexual orientation, better able to make same-sex commitments, and are generally happier.

1.) At your country club you run into a client who terminate therapy over two years ago. The client reports she found therapy extremely helpful and that she has just completed her graduate studies. Which of the following statements is most accurate? a. If you decide to pursue a romantic relationship, it may be unethical b. If you invite her to play golf, it would be unethical c. If you solicit a testimonial from her, it would be unethical d. If you attend her graduate it may be unethical

a. If you decide to pursue a romantic relationship, it may be unethical a. According to the APA Ethics Code it is usually, but now always, unethical to pursue a romantic relationship with a former client. Standard 10.08b notes, "Psychologists do not engage in sexual intimacies with former clients/ patients even after a two-year interval except in the most unusual circumstances." A psychologist who does have a sexual relationship with a former client bears the burden of demonstrating no exploitation in light of numerous factors including: (1) the amount of time that has passed since termination, which should be at least two years; (2) the nature, duration, and intensity of the therapy; (3) the circumstances of termination; (4) the client's personal history; (5) the client's current mental status; (6) the likelihood of adverse impact on the client; and (7) any statements or actions you may have made during the therapy suggesting the possibility of a future relationship. If any of these factors are at issue (e.g., treatment involved a lengthy psychoanalysis), pursuing a romantic or sexual relationship may be unethical (Response 1). It is not clearly unethical to invite a former client to play golf (ruling out Response 2). The Ethics Code allows solicitation of testimonials from former clients, provided they are not vulnerable to undue influence (ruling out Response 3). It is not unusual for therapists to be invited to take part in major life transitions of clients. In cases in which the event is large, thus preserving the client's confidentiality (such as a graduation), it would not be unethical to attend

1.) Brief psychotherapy is to crisis intervention as: a. Improve is to restore b. Deep is to superficial c. Non-directive is to directive d. Longer is to shorter

a. Improve is to restore a. The goal of crisis intervention is to return or restore the patient to his premorbid level of functioning, as well as to prevent long-term problems from developing as a result of the crisis. Brief psychotherapy, like standard psychotherapy, aims to improve the patient's overall functioning. Both crisis intervention and brief psychotherapy tend to be much shorter than traditional psychotherapy (Response 4) and both can make use of non-directive and directive styles (Response 3).

1.) According to the American Psychological Association's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct, a psychologist should provide feedback after an evaluation and assessment: a. When requested to do so by the patient b. Unless it would not be in the best interest of the patient c. In all cases, unless precluded by legal or organizational reasons d. In all cases

a. In all cases, unless precluded by legal or organizational reasons a. In general practice, a psychologist should always provide information before an evaluation and feedback afterwards (Response 4) and not only when the patient requests feedback (Response 1). Nevertheless, the Ethics Code recognizes that there are some situations that preclude such disclosure, such as assessments for job placement, court-ordered assessments, etc. Feedback can always be tailored in such a manner that it is presented in the best interest of the patient (Response 2).

1.) The effects of the compressed work week include: a. Increased satisfaction and performance b. Increased satisfaction, but no significant change in performance c. Increased performance, but no significant change in satisfaction d. No significant change in satisfaction or performance

a. Increased satisfaction, but no significant change in performance The compressed work week, or the four day work week, has been found to increase satisfaction among workers. The effects on performance or productivity have been mixed. Generally, there is an initial positive effect, which wears off over time. The compressed work week also results in decreased anxiety and turnover

1.) Theories about the need for stimulation, sometimes described as the arousal motive, suggest that: a. Understimulation is preferable to overstimulation b. Overstimulation is preferable to understimulation c. Moderate levels of stimulation are optimum d. The need for stimulation is acquired over time

a. Moderate levels of stimulation are optimum a. Theories of arousal propose that behavioral efficiency, of peak performance, is usually attained at moderate levels of arousal. Performance is improved as people move from deep sleep to increased alertness, however, t here is a point at which people become too aroused and performance declines. Sometimes called the Yerkes-Dodson law, the relationship between performance and arousal is curvilinear; it is graphically depicted as an inverted U shape. The need for stimulation begins at birth (Response 4) and is not gradually acquired over time.

1.) How much time do infants spend in REM sleep relative to older adults? a. Infants spend less than 25% of sleep time in REM sleep while older adults spend about 40% of sleep time in REM sleep b. Infants spend about 40% of sleep time in REM sleep, while older adults spend less than 25% of sleep time in REM sleep c. Infants spend about 50% of sleep time in REM sleep while older adults spend less than 15% of sleep time in REM sleep d. Infants spend less than 15% of sleep time in REM sleep while older adults spend about 50% of sleep time in REM sleep

a. Infants spend about 50% of sleep time in REM sleep while older adults spend less than 15% of sleep time in REM sleep a. As people age they need less sleep per night overall. It is also true that as people age they spend a much smaller percentage of total sleep time in the REM (rapid eye movement) stage of sleep. Infants spend 50% of their sleep time in REM sleep, adults spend about 20% of their sleep time in REM sleep, and older adults spend less than 15% of their sleep time in REM sleep

1.) Your supervisee tells you in confidence that her previous therapist sexually exploited her. What would be the best course of action in this situation? a. Report the therapist to the ethics board, since this is not a situation involving client-therapist confidentiality b. Inform her of her options and encourage her to report her therapist to the ethics board c. Encourage her to confront her previous therapist on his unethical conduct d. Discuss the issue with the previous therapist yourself

a. Inform her of her options and encourage her to report her therapist to the ethics board a. Your first step would be to help the supervisee recognize this behavior as illegal, unethical, and potentially damaging. In addition, you should inform her of the available options of recourse (e.g., licensing board complaints, ethics board complaints, criminal prosecution, and civil suits). It is true that maintaining confidentiality is not mandatory in this example because the information was not gained in the context of a therapist-patient relationship and that you may ultimately choose to report the violation (Response 1), but your first step should be a discussion with the supervisee. Sexually exploited patients are not generally encouraged to confront the therapist themselves because of the potential for further damage and exploitation (Response 3). Sexual exploitation is not considered an offense appropriate for an informal resolution (Response 4).

1.) After a car accident, a patient presents with complaints of significant memory deficits. This patient is most likely to be malingering if testing reveals: a. Intact verbal memory, deficits in non-verbal memory b. More significant problems with retrograde amnesia than anterograde amnesia c. Intact attention d. More significant problems with recent memory than remote memory

a. Intact attention a. A head injury severe enough to cause problems with memory would also cause problems in attention. The other choices are all plausible, and don't suggest malingering.

1.) Your client's son who just turned two years old does speak, however, he does not yet put two meaningful words together to form a sentence. Your client's son most likely: a. Has a mild language disorder b. Is fine, and is developing normally c. Is mildly anxious or depressed d. Has a speech sound disorder

a. Is fine, and is developing normally a. The average baby/toddler says his or her first word between 10 and 14 months. During the stage of holophrasic speech (typically 12 -18 months) babies use a single word or even a syllable to express a complete thought. The next step in language development, telegraphic speech, typically occurs between 18 and 24 months. Telegraphic speech involves putting two or more words together to form sentences. Since your client's son has just turned two, and does speak, at this point there would be no immediate cause for concern. He is likely just a bit slower in terms of developing speaking skills (Response 2, correct answer). A language disorder (Response 1) involves difficulty acquiring and using language due to deficits in comprehension or production including: limited vocabulary, limited sentence structure, and impairments in discourse. Speech sound disorder (Response 4) involves difficulty with phonology and articulation that interferes with intelligibility or prevents verbal communication. Examples include errors in sound production and use, including substituting one sound for another or omitting sounds such as final consonants. The presenting issues relates only to language development; there are no other complaints, nor any suggestion of anxiety or depression (ruling out Response 3)

1.) What has research demonstrated about early physical maturity? a. It is beneficial for girls b. It is beneficial for boys c. It is beneficial for both girls and boys d. Results have generally been inconclusive

a. It is beneficial for boys a. Boys who physically mature early tend to enjoy a more positive psychological adjustment overall with better scholastic performance, better self-image, and greater popularity. For girls, early physical maturation has mixed effects: higher academic achievement and independence but lower self-esteem, body image, and more conflicts with parents.

1.) Anosagnosia refers to: a. The inability to recognize objects b. The inability to recognize faces c. Difficulty identifying visual patterns d. Lack of awareness of one's deficits

a. Lack of awareness of one's deficits b. Anosagnosia is defined as the lack of awareness of a disability, or the lack of awareness of the nature of one's illness. For example, a person who has suffered a stroke may deny that he has cognitive problems, or a person with Wernicke's aphasia may attribute his problems to another cause, such as a learning disorder. Agnosia refers to difficulties in recognizing objects (Response 1). Prosopagnosia is the inability to recognize familiar faces (Response 2).

1.) The patient's right to keep therapy information from being disclosed during a court proceeding is termed: a. Confidentiality b. Legal privilege c. Clinical privilege d. Privacy

a. Legal privilege a. Privilege, or testimonial privilege, is the patient's right to keep confidential communications from being disclosed in a legal proceeding. Confidentiality (Response 1) is a broader legal and ethical term and refers to the patient's right to have communications kept within the bounds of the patient-therapist relationship, not to be revealed to a third party (anyone outside the therapy relationship). Clinical privileging (Response 3) refers to the process through which individuals are credentialed within institutions to provide specific patient care services. The right to privacy (Response 4), found in the U. S. Constitution, is the right that prevents others, especially the government, from interfering with our lives.

1.) Aggression in animals, such as a dog charging and barking at strangers, may be controlled through stimulation of the: a. Frontal lobe b. Cerebellum c. Limbic system d. Basal ganglia

a. Limbic system a. The limbic system includes a group of interconnected structures involved with emotional behavior, particularly aggression. Two significant structures in the limbic system are the amygdala and septum. Specifically, stimulation of the amygdala tends to increase aggression, while stimulation of the septum tends to moderate aggression. This is the opposite of what happens when these structures are lesioned or removed (lesions of the amygdala result in placidity, while lesions of the septum result in septal rage). The frontal lobes (Response 1) control planning and initiative, abstract thinking, judgment, and higher mental functions. The cerebellum (Response 2) is responsible for maintaining smooth movement and coordinating motor activity. The cerebellum also controls the automatic adjustments of posture that result in our ability to maintain balance. The basal ganglia are involved in the initiation and control of movement (Response 4). The movement symptoms of Parkinson's disease, for example, result from loss of cells in the basal ganglia, and more specifically from the substantia nigra.

1.) A person states that she is depressed and anxious because of the current political and economic climate. According to Bronfenbrenner, the environmental influence on this woman is the a. Microsystem b. Mesosystem c. Exosystem d. Macrosystem

a. Macrosystem b. Bronfenbrenner's ecological approach delineates five levels of environmental influence: the microsystem, the mesosystem, the exosystem, the macrosystem, and the chronosystem. The microsystem (Response 1) consists of the bi-directional relationships one has with different environments that are influential on a day-to-day basis, such as the home, school, work and neighborhood. The mesosystem (Response 2) looks at the interlocking influence of all these environments or microsystems. The exosystem (Response 3) describes the relationship between several settings, with one or more of them indirectly affecting the person. The macrosystem (Response 4) includes the influences of the culture, such as the dominant belief system, the economy, etc. The chronosystem addresses the role of the passage of time in the person's life.

1.) Which of the following best describes the cause of family dysfunction according to structural family therapy? a. Deficits in the ability of family members to communicate their needs and an inappropriate system of rewards and exchanges b. Malfunctions in the hierarchy of the family with the symptom serving as a message c. Formation of subsystems where closeness of two members excludes appropriate involvement of a third member d. Malfunctioning arrangements in the family hierarchy with problematic patterns of intimacy

a. Malfunctioning arrangements in the family hierarchy with problematic patterns of intimacy b. According to structural family therapy, pathology results from structural imbalance such as a malfunctioning hierarchical arrangement with poor boundaries that may be too rigid (disengaged) or too diffuse (enmeshed), or a maladaptive reaction to changing requirements. In this response, problematic patterns of intimacy refer to interactions that are marked by disengagement or enmeshment. Response 2 better describes strategic family therapy. Strategic family therapy is a combination of Minuchin's structural approach and the communications approach, and posits that pathology results from a malfunctioning hierarchy. Symptoms are seen as a mode of communication in relationships. Response 3 describes an emotional triangle, which is a component of Bowenian therapy. Response 1 describes behavioral/social learning family therapy.

1.) What is the key difference between Maslow's theory and ERG theory? a. Maslow's theory focuses on five needs arranged in a hierarchy, and ERG theory focuses on content and context needs. b. Maslow's theory does not specifically address the role of money with regard to satisfaction, while ERG theory proposes that money becomes an important issue when it is instrumental in obtaining desired rewards. c. Maslow's theory has received some research support, while ERG theory has yet to be validated in the work place. d. Maslow's theory proposes that people focus on unmet needs, while ERG theory posits that satisfying a need can make it stronger.

a. Maslow's theory proposes that people focus on unmet needs, while ERG theory posits that satisfying a need can make it stronger. b. Maslow's theory proposes that there are five needs arranged in a hierarchy, including physiological, safety, belonging and love (social), esteem, and self-actualization. Maslow proposed that once a need is met, the person focuses on the need that is just above it in the hierarchy. Alderfer's ERG theory proposes three basic needs: Existence, Relatedness, and Growth (ERG). Unlike Maslow, this theory posits that all needs can influence people at the same time, and that satisfying a need may make the need even stronger. Context and content needs (Response 1) are components of Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory: job context refers to hygiene factors, and job content refers to motivators. The first part of Response 2 is correct (i.e., Maslow's theory does not specifically address the relationship of money to satisfaction), but the second part is not correct (i.e., ERG theory does not propose that money is important because of its instrumentality). Maslow's theory has received little research support and is judged to have low scientific validity and applicability, but ERG theory has had greater empirical support (Response 3).

1.) Which of the following best exemplifies response polarization? a. People in a group make decisions that are riskier than the decisions they would make on their own b. Members of a group hold ideas that are extreme which may or may not be similar to one another c. Members of a group tend to hold ideas that are alike and extreme in direction d. Members of a cohesive group all hold very similar views.

a. Members of a group tend to hold ideas that are alike and extreme in direction a. Response polarization (also known as group polarization) refers to the tendency of people in groups to hold extreme views. In response polarization, extreme views may be either very conservative or very liberal (e.g., people in a group may become more pro-life or more pro-choice). Response polarization addresses the group's thinking as a whole, and the member's views tend to all be in a similar direction (Response 2). Response 1 describes risky shift. Response 4 describes groupthink.

1.) A researcher is attempting to correlate job satisfaction with income. He finds that although there is a positive correlation, it is stronger for older workers than younger workers. In this example, age is acting as a: a. Suppressor variable b. Discrete variable c. Moderator variable d. Continuous variable

a. Moderator variable a. A moderator variable moderates (changes, influences) the strength of a correlation. In this example, age moderates the degree of correlation between income and job satisfaction. A suppressor variable (Response 1) suppresses (obscures, reduces) a correlation that is actually present. For example, a researcher is attempting to correlate mathematical reasoning ability with grades in math. Some of the college student subjects come to the test intoxicated and some do not. Obviously, the intoxicated students will not do as well on the exam regardless of their actual mathematical ability; the results may therefore not show a clear correlation between mathematical reasoning and grades. In this example, degree of intoxication would be acting as a suppressor variable. A continuous variable (Response 4) refers to any variable that is interval or ratio. A discrete variable (Response 2) is the opposite of a continuous variable, and refers to categorical data, such as nominal and ordinal.

1.) "The sequential introduction of treatment" most closely describes which of the following research designs? a. ABAB b. Multiple baseline c. Time series d. Counterbalanced

a. Multiple baseline a. In the multiple baseline design, treatment is applied sequentially or consecutively across subjects, situations, or behaviors. Although expensive and time-consuming, it can eliminate problems associated with other single subject designs, such as the threat of history, the failure to return to baseline, and ethical concerns about the withdrawal of treatment. ABAB (Response 1) is a single subject design in which first there is a baseline period, then treatment is introduced, then removed, and then reintroduced. Classically, time series (Response 3) refers to an experiment in which several observations are followed by one treatment, which is then followed by several more observations. The term "time series" is often used, however, to refer to single subject designs in general. Counterbalancing (Response 4) is required when several different types of treatment are given to subjects in sequence. It helps to control for carryover effects, or the confounding effects of one treatment on a future treatment. For example, it may be that cognitive-behavioral treatment is only effective after medication has been used, or that one type of medication is ineffective if a different type has been used first. In counterbalancing, the sequence of treatments is varied in the different experimental groups. The Latin Square is the most sophisticated counterbalanced design.

1.) Cataplexy is included in the diagnostic criteria for: a. Breathing-related sleep disorder b. Nightmare disorder c. NREM sleep arousal disorder, sleep terror type d. Narcolepsy

a. Narcolepsy b. Cataplexy refers to brief episodes of sudden, bilateral loss of muscle tone, most often in association with intense emotion. It is included in the diagnostic criteria for Narcolepsy, along with irresistible attacks of refreshing sleep and recurrent intrusions of REM sleep. Breathing-Related Sleep Disorder (Response 1) involves sleep disruption due to a breathing condition such as apnea (temporary suspension of respiration). Circadian Rhythm Sleep Disorder (Response 2) results from a mismatch between the sleep-wake schedule required by the person's environment and his own circadian sleep-wake pattern. Sleep Terror Disorder (Response 3) involves abrupt awakening, intense fear and signs of autonomic arousal, unresponsiveness to efforts of others to comfort the person, and amnesia for the episode. Episodes of sleep terror typically occur during the first third of the night, during Stage 4 sleep.

1.) The Tension Reduction Hypothesis of alcohol use focuses on: a. Sensitization and habituation b. Tolerance and withdrawal c. Negative reinforcement d. Reciprocal inhibition

a. Negative reinforcement a. In the 1950's, Conger proposed the Tension Reduction Hypothesis of alcohol use. According to Conger, people drink because they feel unpleasant tension, and drinking allows people to avoid or reduce unpleasant stress. Thus, drinking operates on the principle of negative reinforcement: an aversive stimulus is removed, bringing the individual into a more desirable subjective state and making it more likely that the individual will drink again. Habituation involves the suppression of a response when a stimulus is repeatedly presented, while sensitization involves a heightened response to a stimulus (Response 1). Tolerance and withdrawal (Response 2) are among the criteria for Substance Dependence. Tolerance refers to the need for increasing amounts of a substance to achieve intoxication. Withdrawal refers to the physical and mental changes that occur when an individual who has used a substance heavily stops using it. Reciprocal inhibition is a concept from classical conditioning (Response 4). Reciprocal inhibition is the notion that two incompatible responses cannot be experienced at the same time; the stronger response will inhibit the weaker response (e.g., fear will inhibit pleasure).

1.) What does Beck's Cognitive Theory posit about negative thinking in depressed people? a. Negative thinking occurs automatically but within conscious awareness b. Negative thinking occurs automatically and sometimes without awareness c. Negative thinking occurs outside of conscious awareness d. Beck's theory does not specify whether negative thoughts occur within or outside of conscious awareness

a. Negative thinking occurs automatically and sometimes without awareness a. According to Beck, the negative thinking that characterizes people with depression, typically occurs automatically, and sometimes without awareness, ruling out Response 1. On the other hand, it is not the case that automatic thinking only occurs outside of conscious awareness (Response 3). Beck does address the issue of conscious awareness (ruling out Response 4).

1.) A smoker who is trying to quit experiences significant physical withdrawal and associated unpleasant symptoms. After two days, the smoker gives up on his effort to quit, and returns to smoking. In this scenario, smoking is being: a. Positively reinforced b. Negatively reinforced c. Positively punished d. Negatively punished

a. Negatively reinforced a. To respond to this question, and others of this nature, you must first identify the target behavior, note whether it is increasing or decreasing, and note what happens after the person engages in the target behavior. In this scenario, the target behavior is smoking. When the smoker returns to smoking, the behavior increases; thus it is being reinforced. By smoking the person gets immediate relief, in that he no longer has to suffer the unpleasant withdrawal symptoms. The term "negative" is used to describe the removal of the unpleasant symptoms.

1.) Which of the following may occur during NREM sleep? a. Increased heart rate b. Night terrors c. Loss of muscle tone d. Increased blood pressure

a. Night terrors a. Increased heart rate (Response 1), increased blood pressure (Response 4), and loss of muscle tone (Response 3) are all associated with REM sleep. In NREM sleep, respiration and heart rate decrease, and muscle tone is maintained. Night terrors occur during NREM sleep (stage 4 sleep). HINT: If you had no idea when you saw this question you might have eliminated Responses 1 and 4, because these two are both signs of sympathetic arousal and would tend to go together. They can't both be right!

1.) According to the APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002), multiple relationships are: a. Inherently unethical b. Not necessarily unethical c. Generally avoided d. Ethical in most circumstances

a. Not necessarily unethical a. The 2002 Ethics Code states that "multiple relationships that would not reasonably be expected to cause impairment or risk exploitation or harm are not unethical."

1.) Of the following, which age group has the lowest rates of utilization of mental health services? a. Children b. Young adults (18-29) c. Middle adults (30-64) d. Older Adults (65 and older)

a. Older Adults (65 and older) b. Research indicates that older adults are significantly less likely to make use of mental health services. Overall, older adults are less likely than younger adults or middle-aged adults to meet diagnostic criteria for a mental disorder. Additionally, older adults who do meet criteria for mental disorders tend not to perceive as much of a need for mental health care and thus are less likely to seek treatment

1.) A researcher is studying the effects of restrictive dieting on binge eating. Subjects are divided into three groups: a control group, a sensible diet group, and a highly restrictive diet group. Binge eating is measured on a numerical scale of 0 to 75. The researcher finds, contrary to expectations, that restrictive dieters do not differ from sensible dieters in terms of severity of binge eating. However, both types of dieters do differ from the control group in terms of binge eating at a statistically significant level. What type of statistic must have been used to arrive at these results? a. Analysis of covariance (ANCOVA) b. One-Way ANOVA c. Factorial ANOVA d. Multiple analysis of variance (MANOVA)

a. One-Way ANOVA a. This is an example of a question that is confusing due to the extraneous information included. To determine what type of ANOVA is used, the key question involves the number of independent and dependent variables. This study is investigating the effect of type of diet on binge eating. Thus, there is one independent variable (type of diet) and one dependent variable (extent of binge eating). There are three groups or three levels of the one independent variable (i.e., control group, sensible diet, highly restrictive diet). Because there is only one IV, and one DV, and no mention of a covariate, a one-way ANOVA would be used. ANCOVAs (Response 1) are used when a researcher is attempting to control for or partial out a confounding variable, for example, the effects of type of diet on binge eating while controlling for degree of anxiety. A factorial ANOVA (Response 3) would be appropriate if there were two or more IVs. An example would be a study investigating the effects of type of diet and gender (i.e., two IVs) on binge eating. MANOVAs (Response 4) are appropriate when there is more than one DV, for example, the effects of type of diet on binge eating and self-esteem. Another potentially confusing aspect of this question is that its discussion of how the three groups differ from each other might have led you to believe interaction effects were being discussed and that the answer must therefore be a factorial ANOVA. The question is very wordy; it is describing the differences between the three groups that would have been uncovered through the use of post-hoc tests.

1.) Which of the following learning theory principles is the basis for time out? a. Classical conditioning b. Operant conditioning c. Social learning theory d. Self-control theory

a. Operant conditioning a. Time out is based on operant conditioning, and is a form of negative punishment. Time out is punishment because its effect is to decrease undesirable behavior. After the undesirable behavior is emitted (e.g., hitting one's sibling), the opportunity for reinforcement (e.g., by being with the family) is removed. Classical conditioning (Response 1) is based on pairing and unpairing. Social learning theory (Response 3) involves modeling of adaptive behavior. Rehm's self-control theory of depression (Response 4) states that depression results from low rates of self-reinforcement and high rates of self-punishment.

1.) Recent studies have successfully used brain imaging to see the plaques and tangles of Alzheimer's disease. Which technique has been used to perform this procedure? a. MRI scans b. PET scans c. EEG Recordings d. CT scans

a. PET scans a. A team at UCLA has invented a chemical that binds to the brain's plaques and tangles, thus revealing plaques and tangles early in the Alzheimer's disease process. This innovative brain scanning technology uses Positron Emission Topography (PET) scanning. Alzheimer's disease plaques and tangles do not show up on MRI or CT scans, or on EEG recordings

1.) A mother and her ten-year-old son witnessed a shooting spree at the local post office three months ago. Since that time the child has been feeling agitated and has had difficulty falling asleep most nights. In addition, he has been having intrusive recollections of the event, and at times seems unresponsive to his environment. Most likely, he is experiencing symptoms of: a. Acute stress disorder b. PTSD c. Trauma and stressor related disorder d. Adjustment disorder with anxious mood

a. PTSD a. These symptoms meet the criteria for PTSD, which involves reexperiencing of the trauma, avoidance of stimuli associated with the trauma or a sense of numbness, and increased arousal after exposure to a traumatic event. In Acute Stress Disorder (Response 1), the symptoms must occur within four weeks of the traumatic event and last no more than four weeks. In this scenario, the child has been experiencing symptoms for three months. Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) is a type of Anxiety Disorder (Response 3), therefore Anxiety Disorder is too general of a response. An Adjustment Disorder (Response 4) is not diagnosed when the criteria for a more severe diagnosis are met.

1.) Kochanska and associates have found that the development of conscience in young children is related to: a. Gender b. Intelligence c. Cognitive development d. Parenting style and the child's temperament

a. Parenting style and the child's temperament b. Kochanska and associates have demonstrated that the development of conscience in young children is related to early temperament as well as parenting styles. Specifically, Kochanska found that the development of conscience in later childhood was positively correlated with high inhibitory control and low impulsivity in early childhood. The development of conscience has also been linked to a parenting style that involves mutual positive affect between mother and child, low power assertion by the mother, and maternal empathy. Piaget asserted that moral development is linked to cognitive development (Response 3). Gender (Response 1) and intelligence (Response 2) have not been identified as significant variables associated with the development of conscience.

1.) During a neurological examination, a patient exhibits the following difficulties: when told to lift objects with her left hand, she repeatedly picks them up with her right hand; when told to touch her nose, she exhibits great difficulty in doing so. These symptoms are most suggestive of a lesion in the: a. Frontal lobe b. Temporal lobe c. Parietal lobe d. Occipital lobe

a. Parietal lobe a. This patient is presenting with left-right confusion (picking up paper with the wrong hand) and problems with proprioception (an inability to touch her nose). These are symptoms of parietal lobe damage. Damage to the frontal lobe (Response 1) may result in disturbances in personality, planning and initiative, abstract thinking, judgment and higher mental functions. Damage to the temporal lobe (Response 2) may result in problems with hearing, memory, emotional behavior, or receptive speech. Damage to the occipital lobe (Response 4) might cause visual impairment.

1.) According to Rosenstock's Health Belief Model, health behaviors are most closely linked to: a. Attributional style b. Operant conditioning c. Social learning d. Perception

a. Perception b. The Health Belief Model focuses on how perceptions of vulnerability and beliefs about illness influence health behaviors (e.g., diet, exercise, inoculations). The Health Belief Model is multicausal. It proposes that health behaviors result from the joint influence of psychosocial factors (e.g., demographic variables, peer pressure), perceived susceptibility to disease and perceived seriousness of the disease, and perceived benefits of preventative action versus perceived barriers to preventative action.

1.) Which of the following adjectives correctly describe the Thematic Apperception Test? a. Personality and objective b. Diagnostic and subjective c. Personality and projective d. Ipsative and projective

a. Personality and projective a. The Thematic Apperception Test was developed by Henry Murray to give information about subjects' personality functioning. It involves presenting subjects with ambiguous pictures of interpersonal situations and asking them to construct a story. It is thus a projective test.

1.) Your 70-year-old client was recently diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease (AD). AD is associated with which neurological feature? a. Plaques and tangles b. Brain infarcts c. Degeneration in the hippocampus and the substantia nigra d. Lewy bodies

a. Plaques and tangles a. Alzheimer's disease (AD) is characterized by senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles (Response 1), which are abnormal structures in the brain believed to damage and even kill neurons. While everyone has some plaques and tangles, the brains of AD patients show many more plaques and tangles; in fact, the degree of their presence is correlated with the severity of the illness. Brain infarcts (Response 2) are small strokes occurring in the brain that, over time, contribute to the development of major or minor neurocognitive disorder due to vascular disease. While degeneration of the hippocampus is associated with memory loss, degeneration of the substantial nigra (Response 3) is associated with the movement problems found in Parkinson's disease. The presence of Lewy bodies (Response 40 is a hallmark of major or minor neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies (DLB), characterized by insidious onset and gradual progression of impairment with several of the following: fluctuating cognition with variations in attention/alertness, visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, REM sleep behavior disorder, and severe neuroleptic sensitivity

1.) Which type of employees would be most likely to have a low turnover rate? a. Highly productive male workers b. Female workers on an assembly line c. Poorly paid under- 40 tenured professors d. Salespersons with low job satisfaction

a. Poorly paid under- 40 tenured professors a. The factors that correlate most highly with turnover are satisfaction, length of time on the job, and expressed interest to stay; all of these correlations are in the negative direction. Even though the professors are poorly paid (Response 3), the fact that they are tenured means that they are less likely to leave their jobs. There is no relationship between productivity and turnover (Response 1). Assembly line workers (Response 2) tend to be less satisfied with their jobs, and therefore would have a higher turnover rate. Dissatisfied salespeople would also be likely to leave their jobs.

1.) For many years, a man has received relief from headaches by taking aspirin. Recently, he finds that his stomach becomes very upset when he takes the aspirin. His doctor informs him that he is developing an ulcer as a result of his aspirin use. His behavior is currently under the control of: a. Positive reinforcement b. Negative reinforcement c. Positive punishment d. Negative punishment

a. Positive punishment a. Previously, the man's aspirin taking behavior was negatively reinforced (Response 2), in that after the behavior (taking the aspirin) he experienced the removal of his headache (negative). As a result the behavior increased over time (it was reinforced). At present, his aspirin taking behavior results in positive punishment. After taking aspirin, pain is added (positive). Most likely this will cause his aspirin taking behavior to decrease over time (punishment).

1.) A brain-injured patient sets a timer to remind himself to pick up his son from school. When the timer goes off, he does not remember why he set it. This patient is exhibiting a problem in: a. Prospective memory b. Procedural memory c. Episodic memory d. Semantic memory

a. Prospective memory a. Prospective memory involves remembering that one had planned to do something at a particular time. Problems with prospective memory may involve failure to remember the purpose of a cue like a timer (as in this question) or failure to remember what one had planned to do at a particular time (e.g., take a walk at four o'clock in the afternoon). Procedural memory (Response 2), also known as implicit or nondeclarative memory, involves the recollection of skills, physical operations, and procedures that are remembered automatically without conscious awareness. An example is riding a bicycle. Declarative or explicit memory involves conscious recollection of information or experience, and includes two subtypes: episodic memory (Response 3), which is memory for autobiographical events; and semantic memory (Response 4), which is memory for the meaning of words and facts.

1.) A patient's score on scale F of the MMPI-2 is not elevated. This suggests that: a. The patient is not responding in a particularly defensive manner b. The patient is not endorsing many infrequently endorsed items c. The patient may be faking bad d. The patient is not demonstrating a high level of disclosure

a. The patient is not endorsing many infrequently endorsed items a. The F scale on the MMPI-2 is one of three validity scales. It is comprised of items that are infrequently endorsed. When it is elevated, it is indicative of emotional turmoil, potential malingering (Response 3), mental confusion, or a cry for help. The K scale measures defensiveness. A low score on the validity scale K would indicate that the patient is not responding in a defensive manner (Response 1). A high K indicates guardedness (Response 4).

1.) The Buckley Amendment (1974): a. Guaranteed every child a fair and adequate education b. Protected the privacy of student records c. Mandated the "least restrictive environment" for children with special needs d. Permitted minors to have abortions without parental consent

a. Protected the privacy of student records a. The Buckley Amendment refers to the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act of 1974, which protects the privacy of student records in higher education institutions. It includes provisions granting the right of access to one's own records as well as limiting the disclosure of the records. The Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965 was federal legislation guaranteeing a high-quality education for all individuals and a fair and equal opportunity to obtain that education (Response 1). "The least restrictive environment" (Response 3) is the principle that guides the placement of special needs children in educational placements.

1.) A woman avoids littering on public streets because it is against the law and she does not want to receive a fine. Her reasoning reflects which stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning? a. Law and order b. Punishment obedience c. Instrumental hedonism d. Good boy/ good girl

a. Punishment obedience a. The punishment-obedience orientation is characterized by compliance with rules to avoid punishment, and is a substage of preconventional morality. In this question, the woman does not litter because she does not want to be punished (receive a fine). Instrumental hedonism (Response 3) is also a substage of preconventional morality, in which moral reasoning is based on obtaining rewards or positive consequences. The good boy/good girl orientation (Response 4), which is a substage of conventional morality, focuses on conforming to rules to obtain approval from others. The law and order orientation (Response 1), also a substage of conventional morality, involves conforming to established rules and laws. It does not emphasize the avoidance of punishment, but rather doing one's duty.

1.) An advocacy consultant is most likely to: a. Tell a knowledge to do something specific b. Increase a client's knowledge base c. Push for social justice and reform d. Attend a hearing with a client

a. Push for social justice and reform a. An advocacy consultant focuses on social and legal reform in order to improve the well being of a particular disenfranchised group. Telling a client to do something specific (Response 1) is characteristic of a behavioral consultation, which focuses on promoting specific behavioral change in clients or client systems. Increasing a client's knowledge base (Response 2) may be an aspect of advocacy consultation, but this response does not include the emphasis on social change. Attending a hearing with a client (Response 4) is characteristic of a mental health advocate. A mental health advocate represents the patient in hearings that are conducted in order to determine whether the patient should continue to be held on an involuntary basis in an inpatient facility.

1.) Criterion contamination occurs when: a. Raters of the criterion measure know subjects' scores on the predictor measure b. Criterion measures are highly intercorrelated c. The criterion measure reflects rating biases d. The criterion measure has poor reliability

a. Raters of the criterion measure know subjects' scores on the predictor measure a. Criterion contamination occurs when raters of the criterion measure know subjects' scores on the predictors. It often results in inflated criterion-related validity coefficients. For example, a teacher knows his students' IQ scores (the predictor) when he assigns the students their semester grades (criterion). This knowledge may influence the teacher's perceptions of the students, such that higher grades are given to students with higher IQs. If this occurs, the correlation between IQ and grades will be artificially high.

1.) To assess the non-verbal intelligence of a child, the most appropriate test would be: a. The Stroop Color Interference Test b. Raven's Progressive Matrices c. The Stanford-Binet d. The bender-gestalt

a. Raven's Progressive Matrices a. Raven's Progressive Matrices consists of a series of abstract patterns with one piece missing. The test requires the person to pick out the missing piece using a multiple choice format. Raven's Progressive Matrices is thought to be one of the best non-verbal tests of intelligence. The Stroop Color Interference Test (Response 1) is used to assess frontal lobe defects. The Stanford-Binet (Response 3) is a verbal test of intelligence that is especially useful for assessing giftedness and mental retardation in children. The Bender-Gestalt is a screening instrument used to evaluate visual-motor functioning, visual-perceptual skills, and neurological impairment. It is also sometimes used as a projective test of personality.

1.) A method for increasing persuasiveness that involves telling the person to do the opposite of what the request entails is known as: a. Reactance b. Foot-in-the-door phenomenon c. Door-in-the-face approach d. The sleeper effect

a. Reactance a. Reactance is defined as doing the opposite of what one is told to do. Reactance occurs when people feel pressured and they then increase their resistance to the message. For example, Person A might deliberately pressure Person B to do something, in the hope that Person B will react to the pressure by doing the exact opposite, which is secretly what Person A wanted all along. The foot-in-the-door phenomenon (Response 2) occurs when compliance with an initially small request increases the probability that a second larger request will be complied with. This phenomenon may explain the behavior of subjects in Milgram's obedience studies, who initially gave low levels of shock and then increased them over time. In the door-in-the-face technique (Response 3), a person rejects an initial request that is large and somewhat unreasonable. The person is then presented with a smaller and more reasonable request and does comply. This is a common technique used when people try to solicit funds. For example, after you refuse a request to contribute one hundred dollars, you are asked to contribute ten dollars. In persuasion, the sleeper effect (Response 4) refers to the phenomenon that people eventually forget the source of a communication, yet they still remember the message.

1.) In the American Psychological Association's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002), pro bono services are: a. Mandated b. Not addressed c. Discouraged d. Recommended

a. Recommended b. According to the American Psychological Association's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct psychologists are encouraged to contribute a portion of their time for little or no financial advantage.

1.) A researcher opts to run a MANOVA rather than separate ANOVAs. The primary advantage of doing this would be to: a. Save time b. Be able to look at interaction effects c. Increase power d. Reduce the chance of Type I error

a. Reduce the chance of Type I error b. Keep in mind that Type I error is additive: the more tests you run, the more likely you are to make a Type I error. Three separate ANOVAs, each with alpha set at .05, would yield an overall experiment-wise level of alpha of .15. In contrast, using one MANOVA with alpha set at .05 would result in an experiment-wise level of alpha of just .05. You may recognize that the rationale for using one MANOVA rather than separate ANOVAs parallels the rationale for using an ANOVA rather than multiple t-tests. Had the question been asking about the advantage of running a two-way (factorial) ANOVA over separate one-way ANOVAs, the correct response would have been that it allows for analysis of interaction effects (Response 2). It also turns out that running a MANOVA compared to separate ANOVAs is less powerful. In other words, with a MANOVA you are less likely to find significance compared to running separate ANOVAs (the opposite of Response 3).

1.) According to Herzberg, job enrichment and enlargement would affect workers by: a. Reducing boredom b. Increasing self-efficacy c. Minimizing burnout d. Increasing loyalty to the company

a. Reducing boredom a. A key goal of both job enlargement and job enrichment is to reduce the sense of boredom that comes from doing repetitive, monotonous work. Self-efficacy (Response 2), a concept associated with Bandura, refers to the belief that we possess the skills and abilities to be successful in a given situation. Burnout (Response 3) results from unmanaged and unrelieved work stress. Strategies for increasing company loyalty (Response 4) are associated with Japanese management approaches.

1.) A 40-year-old patient, whom you had been treating for three years, commits suicide. His mother asks you to release his records so that she can better understand his death and get some closure. How should you respond? a. Release the records to her because she is next of kin b. Refuse to release the records to her unless he signed a release of information prior to his death c. Release the records only when they are requested by her attorney d. Refuse to release the records and maintain his confidentiality

a. Refuse to release the records and maintain his confidentiality b. Even after a client's death, confidentiality must be maintained. Being next of kin (Response 1) does not make one privy to a relative's therapy records. A release of information signed prior to the patient's death (Response 2) is insufficient to allow the release of records in this situation. Releases should specify the purpose of releasing information, which is usually to improve or coordinate treatment. An attorney's request (Response 3) is not grounds for releasing confidential patient information.

1.) You treated a couple last year in marital therapy, and occasionally in family therapy. You receive a phone call from the wife, who tells you that she is divorcing her husband because he has been physically abusive to both her and her daughter. She requests that you testify on her behalf, in order to help her obtain full custody of her daughter. How should you respond to this request? a. Agree to testify in order to protect the welfare of your client and her daughter b. Agree to testify as long as you are competent in testifying in custody evaluations c. Agree to testify if you can remain objective in your testimony d. Refuse to testify in order to protect the husband's interest

a. Refuse to testify in order to protect the husband's interest b. It would be unethical for you to testify on behalf of the wife, and against the husband, since they were both your clients in marital therapy. Even though the child's welfare may be at stake (Response 1), you cannot make recommendations in favor of the mother; it would be necessary for an objective third party to conduct an evaluation of the family in order to make recommendations for custody arrangements (Responses 2 & 3).

1.) All of the following statements are true except: a. Validity refers to the extent to which a test is measuring what it was intended to measure b. Reliability is the extent to which results can be reproduced c. Reliability does not necessarily limit validity d. Reliability does not necessarily ensure validity

a. Reliability does not necessarily limit validity a. The statement that is incorrect is "reliability does not necessarily limit validity." Reliability does set a ceiling on validity, such that a test that is unreliable can never be valid. However, a test can be perfectly reliable and have no validity whatsoever, so that having reliability doesn't ensure validity (Response 4). Response 1 is an accurate definition of validity, and Response 2 is an accurate definition of reliability.

1.) When you are depressed, you are most likely to: a. Remember best those times when you were depressed in the past b. Remember best those times when you were not depressed in the past c. Remember all memories equally well d. Experience difficulty remembering past events

a. Remember best those times when you were depressed in the past a. This question addresses the concept of mood-congruent memory. When people are in a particular mood, they are better able to remember material that they've learned and experiences that they've had when they were in the same mood in the past. In other words, a depressed individual is more likely to remember past experiences of being depressed. Remembering happy memories when a person is depressed (Response 2) is just the opposite of what would be expected. Although memory deficits can be present during depression (Response 4), the deficits typically involve recent memory not remote memory. In addition, not all depressed individuals experience memory problems, whereas the phenomenon of mood-congruent memory is generally universal.

1.) Which of the following situations would primary memory be necessary? a. Remembering your best friend's phone number? b. Remembering your 21st birthday celebration c. Remembering the measurements of your dining room table as you write the length, width, and height down on a scratch pad d. Remembering how to ride a bicycle in spire of the fact that you have not ridden one for over 20 years

a. Remembering the measurements of your dining room table as you write the length, width, and height down on a scratch pad a. Primary memory is a subtype of short-term memory, the memory that simply holds seven plus or minus two bits of information for up to 30 seconds. Remembering the measurements of the table until you write them down, would make use of primary, short-term memory (the memory would be held for less than 30 seconds). Working memory is another subtype of short-term memory; working memory involves holding and manipulating the information (e.g., repeating four digits backwards). The remaining choices rely on long-term memory. Remembering your best friend's phone number (Response 1) involves semantic memory, a subtype of declarative memory. Memory for specific events, such as your 21st birthday celebration (Response 2) relies on episodic memory, also a subtype of declarative memory. Memory for physical processes (e.g., riding a bicycle) depends upon procedural memory

1.) Discomfort in interpersonal relationships, and odd or eccentric appearance and behavior are symptoms of: a. Schizoid personality disorder b. Avoidant personality disorder c. Schizotypal personality disorder d. Paranoid personality disorder

a. Schizotypal personality disorder a. Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by deficits in interpersonal functioning marked by discomfort with, and reduced capacity for close relationships, as well as by peculiarities in cognition, ideation, appearance, and behavior. Schizoid personality disorder (Response 1) involves detachment from social relationships, and a restricted range of emotions. While persons with schizotypal personality disorder feel discomfort in interpersonal relationships, those with schizoid personality disorder are indifferent to interpersonal relationships. Avoidant personality disorder (Response 2) is characterized by a pattern of social discomfort and inhibition, fear and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation, and feelings of inadequacy. This disorder does not typically involve odd or eccentric appearance and behavior. Paranoid personality disorder (Response 4) involves a pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others, and a tendency to interpret the actions of others as deliberately demeaning, threatening, or malevolent.

1.) Forty subjects volunteer for your research. The first twenty who arrive are assigned to treatment A, and the remaining twenty are assigned to treatment B. The greatest threat in this situation is: a. Selection b. Regression c. Maturation d. History

a. Selection a. All the threats listed are possible threats to internal validity (i.e., was it the treatment or something else that caused the results). In this case, the most significant concern is selection, which involves non-random assignment. In this example, the people who come earlier may be more motivated than those who come later. Thus, differences in outcome may be due to motivation rather than differences in treatment effect. Regression (Response 2) is a concern in pre-post research with a single group when subjects are initially extreme on the outcome measure (either very high or low). Maturation (Response 3) refers to changes that occur within the subjects over time, and history (Response 4) refers to specific incidents that intervene between measuring points (inside or outside of the experimental situation). Both maturation and history are generally a concern when there is no control group, which is not the case here

1.) A child who is able to arrange rocks from smallest to largest is exhibiting: a. Classification b. Decalage c. Seriation d. Reversibility

a. Seriation a. Seriation refers to the ability to arrange things in a series based on a particular characteristic, such as size. Classification (Response 1) is incorrect, in that the child is not classifying the rocks (e.g., does a rock belong to the category of animal or mineral), but rather is putting them in order. Decalage (Response 2) refers to unevenness in growth. For example, a child who is intellectually precocious may be emotionally less mature. Reversibility (Response 4) refers to the ability to understand that some processes can be reversed.

1.) Which of the following neurotransmitters has been most implicated in Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder? a. Norepinephrine b. Serotonin c. Dopamine d. Acetylcholine

a. Serotonin a. Serotonin (Response 2) is the neurotransmitter that has been consistently implicated in obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). You might have arrived at this answer by applying your knowledge of medications used in the treatment of OCD; the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are most commonly prescribed. There is also research that suggests that both dopamine (Response 3) and glutamate are dysregulated in OCD. Norepinephrine (Response 1) is implicated in depression and mania (Response 1), with low levels of norepinephrine associated with depression and high levels associated with mania. Dopamine (Response 3) is implicated in Schizophrenia. Acetylcholine (Response 4) is involved in memory and voluntary movement.

1.) Which of the following accounts for the largest percentage of money paid out in malpractice claims? a. Non-sexual multiple relationships b. Sex with former or current psychotherapy clients c. Breaches of confidentiality d. Practicing outside the area of competence

a. Sex with former or current psychotherapy clients a. Not surprisingly, the largest cause for money paid out in malpractice claims is for psychotherapists who have had sex with current or former clients.

1.) Seizures that involve half of the body are most likely to be: a. Simple partial b. Tonic-clonic c. Petit mal d. Grand mal

a. Simple partial a. There are two broad categories of seizures: partial and generalized. Partial seizures include simple partial and complex partial seizures; generalized seizures include grand mal (tonic clonic) and petit mal (absence) seizures. In simple partial seizures there are electrical abnormalities in a focal area of the brain only. The size of the affected area can be as small as the thumb, and as large as half the body (Response 1). The patient usually remains conscious during the seizure and can later describe it in detail. Complex partial seizures usually begin with a few minutes of disorientation (the aura), followed by staggering, purposeless movements, and aimless wandering. Consciousness is frequently impaired. In contrast with partial seizures, generalized seizures occur when electrical abnormalities exist throughout the brain. Grand mal seizures (Response 4), also known as tonic-clonic seizures (Response 2), are dramatic seizures that involve convulsions throughout the body. Petit mal (absence seizures) begin with a brief change in level of consciousness, followed by blinking or rolling of the eyes, a blank stare, and slight mouth movements (Response 3), which do not usually include unusual movements.

1.) Documentation relating to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) must be maintained for: a. One year b. Three years c. Six years d. Twelve years

a. Six years a. HIPAA requires that all documentation be kept for six years from when it was created or when it was last in effect. For example, HIPAA explicitly states that patients have the right to receive an accounting of all the disclosures of their protected health information for the past six years. This accounting must include information about the date of the disclosure, the party to whom the information was disclosed, and a description of what was disclosed and for what purpose.

1.) According to the classic aging pattern, on the WAIS-III one would expect an elderly person to show a. The verbal subtests b. The performance subtests c. Verbal and performance subtests d. Neither verbal nor performance subtests

a. The performance subtests a. The classic aging pattern involves increases with age in crystallized intelligence (knowledge gained through experience), while fluid intelligence (organization of information and novel problem-solving) peaks in adolescence and early adulthood, and declines thereafter. The verbal subtests on the WAIS-III measure crystallized intelligence, which would be expected to remain stable, or increase gradually with age. The performance subtests on the WAIS-III measure fluid intelligence, which would be expected to decline with age.

1.) Mr. Veeray Nervous requests behavior therapy. He reports that he's terrified of public speaking. In response to your questions, he admits that he has had numerous panic attacks when he has attempted to speak publicly. Your most likely diagnosis would be: a. Agoraphobia b. Specific phobia, situational c. Social anxiety disorder d. Panic disorder

a. Social anxiety disorder a. Social Phobia is diagnosed when there is fear of one or more social or performance situations. In this case, the fear is of public speaking. A patient with a Social Phobia commonly, though not necessarily, will experience Panic Attacks when exposed to the feared situation. In contrast, Panic Disorder (Response 4) can only be diagnosed when panic attacks are unexpected and cannot be accounted for solely by a Social Phobia. In this example, they occur only when the patient attempts public speaking. Similarly, Specific Phobia (Response 2) cannot be diagnosed if symptoms are better accounted for by a Social Phobia. Agoraphobia (Response 1) involves fear of being in places where escape might be difficult or where help would be unavailable should panic-like symptoms occur.

1.) Schacter's study, which found that misery loves miserable company, provides support for which of the following? a. Self-perception theory b. Social comparison theory c. Cognitive dissonance theory d. Self-serving bias

a. Social comparison theory a. Social comparison theory states that we compare ourselves to others in order to evaluate our behavior. In Schacter's experiment, people were led to believe that they were about to receive either painful or non-painful shock. Those who believed that they would receive painful shock were high anxiety subjects, and chose to affiliate with one another. Schacter therefore asserted that social comparison was the chief reason people were drawn to one another in this experiment. Self-perception theory (Response 1) states that people infer their attitudes from watching their own behavior and the context in which the behaviors occurred. Another of Schacter's experiments (involving injection of epinephrine) supports self-perception theory. Cognitive dissonance theory (Response 3) proposes that people change their attitudes to reduce the negative arousal they experience when they become aware of inconsistency in their cognitions. The self-serving bias (Response 4) is one hypothesis of attribution theory. It proposes that in explaining our own behavior, we tend to attribute our successes to internal or personal factors and our failures to external or situational factors.

1.) Babies who are able to crawl often look at their mothers as they are crawling. This exemplifies: a. Separation anxiety b. Stranger anxiety c. Social referencing d. Rapprochement

a. Social referencing a. This question refers to social referencing. Social referencing becomes common at about one year of age, when the infant uses cues from another person, such as the mother, to deal with affective uncertainty (e.g., whether a situation is dangerous or exciting). In stranger anxiety (Response 2) the infant is increasingly aware and wary of the unfamiliar. In separation anxiety (Response 1) the child fears separation from the caretaker. During rapprochement (Response 4), which occurs at about 16 to 24 months of age, the infant vacillates between going to the mother and moving away from her.

1.) A therapy group is currently experiencing dissension among the members, and the members do not seem to be able to resolve their conflict appropriately, despite the group leader's interventions. According to Yalom, this is characteristic of which stage in group therapy? a. Stage one, because the group members do not seem to share issues in common b. Stage two, because it involves attempts at dominance c. Stage three, because conflict and dissension seems to have become a group norm d. Stage four, because the group is attempting to establish an identity separate from the group leader's influence

a. Stage two, because it involves attempts at dominance a. Yalom describes three stages in group therapy. The situation here is characteristic of the second stage, which involves conflict, rebellion, and attempts at dominance. Stage one (Response 1) involves attempts to get oriented and hesitant participation. In this stage, the content and communication style is stereotyped and restricted, the group discusses topics of little significance, there is a search for commonalities, and a lot of giving and seeking of advice. Stage three (Response 3) involves the development of cohesiveness and meaningful resolution of conflict. This group appears to be lacking cohesiveness. There is no stage four (Response 4) in Yalom's theory of group therapy.

1.) In. terms of language, code switching refers to: a. The ability for bilingual people to go back and forth from one language to another b. The ability for very young children to recover language function when the dominant hemisphere has been damaged c. The tendency for young children to use one or two words to express entire sentences d. The idea that speakers of different languages think differently because of differences in language structure

a. The ability for bilingual people to go back and forth from one language to another a. Code switching refers to the ability of bilingual people to switch from one language to another. The ability of children (up to age 7 or 8) to recover language function when the dominant hemisphere has been damaged (Response 2) is an example of brain plasticity. The use of one word to convey a whole idea is termed holophrasic speech, and it is present typically between 12-18 months. The use of two words to express an entire idea is termed telegraphic speech, and it typically emerges between 18 and 24 months (Response 3). The Saphir-Whorf hypothesis posits that speakers of different languages actually think differently because of differences in language structure (Response 4)

1.) Treatment interventions for enuresis include the bell and pad approach and the use of the tricyclic antidepressant Tofranil (imipramine). Currently: a. The bell and pad is preferred over Tofranil (imipramine) because it is easier to use b. The bell and pad is preferred because there is a higher rate of relapse associated with Tofranil (imipramine) c. The bell and pad is preferred because of potential adverse side effects of Tofranil (imipramine) d. Research suggests that both approaches are equally effective and that the choice of which to use should therefore be based on personal preferences

a. The bell and pad is preferred because there is a higher rate of relapse associated with Tofranil (imipramine) a. While Tofranil (imipramine) may bring about successful resolution of the problem more quickly than the bell and pad method, there are also higher relapse rates associated with it. The enuretic child who takes Tofranil (imipramine) does not learn any behavioral control over the problem, and thus, when treatment is terminated, the problem commonly comes back. By contrast, the bell and pad method involves active learning (through operant conditioning), and is associated with lower rates of relapse. Taking a pill is actually much easier than the bell and pad technique (ruling out Response 1). The concern with Tofranil (imipramine) is not for its adverse side effects (Response 3). In fact, the reason for taking Tofranil (imipramine) is because of its anticholinergic side effects that include urinary retention

1.) You are treating a client for persistent depressive disorder. In the course of treatment your client reports a fear of elevators. He tells you that he would like to deal with this fear on his own. What would you recommend to this client? a. The client should ride an elevator for a short period of time initially, and increase his time in the elevator each day over the course of several days b. The client should research the safety of elevators to reduce his fear c. The client should ride an elevator for an extended period of time each day over the course of several days d. The client should ride an elevator as often as possible each day over the course of several days

a. The client should ride an elevator for an extended period of time each day over the course of several days a. Generally, exposure-based therapies are considered the treatment of choice for specific phobias. In-vivo exposure usually yields the strongest results, with massed exposure (e.g., over an extended period of time) resulting in more robust clinical improvements. Prolonged exposure to a feared stimulus serves to decrease the anxiety associated with that stimulus through extinction. This client, seeking help for a specific phobia should be advised to ride in an elevator for an extended period of time, regardless of his initial anxiety, in order to reduce his fear (Response 3). Gradually increasing exposure over time (Response 1) and numerous exposures of short duration (Response 4) are generally most as effective in reducing anxiety. Researching the safety of elevators (Response 2) describes psychoeducation, in which a person attempts to counter an irrational fear with factual knowledge. Psychoeducation may be helpful, but typically it is not as effective as exposure-based treatments

1.) Which part of the brain is responsible for interpreting the expression of positive and negative emotions? a. The frontal lobes b. The temporal lobes c. The right hemisphere d. The left hemisphere

a. The frontal lobes a. A difficult question! Subjects asked to determine the emotional valence (whether emotions were positive or negative) of facial expressions showed activity in their frontal lobes (Response 1). Research has found that the different hemispheres of the brain process different valences of emotion, with the left hemisphere (Response 4) processing positive emotions and the right hemisphere (Response 3) processing negative emotions. The temporal lobes (Response 2) are involved in hearing, emotional behavior, memory, and processing language (left temporal lobe)

1.) Which area of the brain plays the most central role in impulse control? a. The occipital lobes b. The parietal lobes c. The temporal lobes d. The frontal lobes

a. The frontal lobes b. The frontal lobes play a central role in planning, impulse control, and socially appropriate behavior. In a now classic case, Phineas Gage, a 19th century construction worker, was involved in a freak accident in which a steel rod was propelled into his cheek, through his frontal area, and out the top of his skull. While nothing appeared immediately wrong with him, over days and weeks significant changes were observed in his personality. While previously a gentle man, he became quick to anger and unpredictable. He used profane and vulgar language for the first time and frequently made inappropriate comments. He also seemed unable to make coherent plans. The occipital lobes (Response 1) are the visual processing center. The parietal lobes (Response 2) are responsible for integrating sensory and spatial information. The temporal lobes (Response 3) play a crucial role in auditory processing, memory (the hippocampus), and emotion

1.) A psychology intern who is two weeks shy of finishing his pre-doctoral internship is featured in the local newspaper for his volunteer work with homeless persons. The newspaper mistakenly identifies him as a psychologist, even though he had informed the reporter of his status as an intern. Which of the following statements is most accurate with regard to this situation? a. The newspaper is responsible for this error and the intern does not have to take steps to correct it b. The intern is responsible for correcting the error c. The intern does not have to correct this error since he is almost finished with his internship d. The intern does not have to correct this error since he was merely featured in an article and did not hire the newspaper to promote his work

a. The intern is responsible for correcting the error a. According to the APA Ethics Code, psychologists must try to prevent others (e.g., employers) from making any deceptive statements and correct them when possible. Even though the newspaper made this error, it is the intern's responsibility to take steps to correct it, which rules out Response 1. The intern is obligated to avoid deceptive statements regardless of whether he was featured in an article or hired the paper to promote his work (Response 4). As long as he was an intern at the time the article was written, he has the responsibility to correct the paper (ruling out Response 3).

1.) Which of the following increases the probability that material encoded in short-term memory will be committed to long-term memory? a. The material is chunked b. The material is rehearsed c. The material is novel d. The material is complex

a. The material is rehearsed a. Information will be most likely to be transferred to long-term memory when it is rehearsed. Chunking (Response 1), which involves grouping individual bits of information, is a helpful strategy to extend the capacity of short-term memory (seven plus or minus two items). Novel material (Response 3) requires rehearsal in order to be committed to long-term memory, unless the information is so striking or dramatic that it will be easily remembered. Information that is complex (Response 4) will certainly need to be rehearsed in order to be remembered.

1.) Caroline is a third grade teacher. She knows which students come from working class families, and which students have parents who are middle class and professionals. According to the Rosenthal effect, one would expect that: a. The working class children will perform better than the middle class children during third grade b. The middle class children will perform better than the working class children during third grade c. Both the middle class and working class children will perform at levels that are lower than other third grade classrooms d. Both the middle class and working class children will perform at levels that are higher than other third grade classrooms

a. The middle class children will perform better than the working class children during third grade a. Rosenthal and colleagues found that teachers' expectations affected how students performed. Here, the teacher would most likely expect the students from middle class and professional families to outperform the children from working class families. These expectations would then affect how these students actually do perform in class.

1.) After attending a political rally, a man decides to support a proposition that will be on an upcoming ballot. The man says that he came to this decision because the main speaker was "a real expert, a guy who really knew what he was talking about." According to the elaboration likelihood model, the man's decision was based on: a. The peripheral route b. The central route c. The overjustification hypothesis d. Cognitive dissonance

a. The peripheral route a. According to the elaboration likelihood model of persuasion, people become persuaded through either the peripheral or the central route. The peripheral route to persuasion involves a focus on aspects that are not central to the message, but rather are peripheral to it, such as the speaker's appearance, attractiveness, eloquence, and expertise. In contrast, the central route (Response 2) involves message elaboration, in which the person pays attention to the core message and thinks deeply about the relevant information. Central attitude change is relatively enduring, and tends to predict behavior. The overjustification hypothesis (Response 3) suggests that people lose interest in previously desirable activities after performing them for external reward. Cognitive Dissonance Theory (Response 4) proposes that people change their attitudes to reduce the negative arousal they experience when they become aware of inconsistency in their cognitions.

1.) Which of the following statements is accurate in terms of continuous exposure to stress over time? a. The person will be negatively affected b. The person typically will habituate to stress over time c. The person typically will habituate to stress over time and may even learn to respond more adaptively to the stressors d. The person's response to continuous stress over time is moderated by the individual's coping capacities and life circumstances

a. The person will be negatively affected a. Continuous exposure to stress is always detrimental in that it wears down a person's resources. Hans Selye developed a model of response to stress called the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS). GAS consists of three stages: Alarm, Resistance, and Exhaustion. During the Alarm stage the body mobilizes resources (e.g., adrenaline is produced) to cope with stress. This may lead to the immune system being depressed, making a person susceptible to disease. Symptoms may include headache, fatigue, or diarrhea. During the Resistance Stage, the person is initially more resistant to disease. In essence, the immune system is in overdrive, fighting to keep up with demands and expectations. During the Exhaustion Phase, in response to chronic stress, the body's resources are exhausted and stress hormones are depleted. Unless a way of lessening the stress is found there can be serious loss of health, collapse, and in extreme cases even death

1.) Which of the following statements is true regarding the development of motor skills in infants? a. The sequence of development of motor skills proceeds in a unique fashion for each person b. The development of motor skills is contingent on environmental factors c. The sequence of development of motor skills proceeds in a predetermined fashion d. The development of motor skills is solely determined by inborn biological mechanisms

a. The sequence of development of motor skills proceeds in a predetermined fashion a. Motor skills, such as sitting, crawling, and walking, tend to proceed in a predetermined fashion. For example, an infant develops the ability to sit up before she crawls and walks. Response 1, therefore, is not accurate. Environmental factors make a fairly small contribution to the development of motor skills (ruling out Response 2), but they can play some role (ruling out Response 4).

1.) An observer watches a student attempt a series of 30 difficult multiple-choice questions. The student is successful on 15 of the questions. The observer is most likely to consider the student capable if: a. The successes and failures are fairly evenly distributed b. The successes come mostly at the beginning of the series c. The successes come mostly near the end of the series d. The student is female rather than male

a. The successes come mostly at the beginning of the series a. This scenario describes the primacy effect, which is consistently found in studies of impression formation. The primacy effect is the tendency for initial information to carry more weight than information received later.

1.) Which of the following statements is not accurate about feminist therapy? a. The position of women in society is believed to underlie psychological problems b. The therapist establishes a special bond with the patient in order to foster independence and autonomy c. The therapeutic relationship is egalitarian d. The therapist serves as a model for fostering autonomy in the patient

a. The therapist establishes a special bond with the patient in order to foster independence and autonomy a. The question is asking which statement is not accurate about feminist therapy. Feminist therapists view sexism as an underlying cause of psychological problems and do not focus on "pathology" as such (Response 1). They strive for an egalitarian relationship (Response 3). Therapists make appropriate self-disclosure about personal experiences of overcoming oppression and striving for autonomy, and therefore serve as role models for patients (Response 4). Feminist therapists do not attempt to create a special bond with their clients, which could have the negative effect of fostering dependence. Response 2 is therefore an inaccurate statement.

1.) A woman develops amnesia after a life-threatening car accident. Which of the following would suggest her amnesia is psychogenic and not physiological? a. The woman cannot remember the events that occurred immediately before the accident or the accident itself b. The woman cannot recall events that took place after the accident c. The woman has amnesia for events leading up to and following the accident d. The woman cannot recall certain aspects of her life

a. The woman cannot recall certain aspects of her life b. Amnesia that stems from psychological causes (dissociative amnesia) typically involves an inability to recall important personal or biographical information (Response 4, correct answer). The other responses all describe common physiological patterns of memory loss following head trauma. The most common presentation involves failure to remember events leading up to and including the traumatic injury, called retrograde amnesia (Response 1). This is presumed to occur because the process of memory consolidation is disrupted by the head trauma. Also common is the inability to acquire new memories, or anterograde amnesia (Response 2). Some head injuries result in both retrograde and anterograde amnesia (Response 3)

1.) According to research on social loafing, in which of the following situations would you expect the lowest levels of performance from a worker? a. The worker is performing a difficult task by himself b. The worker is performing an easy task by himself c. The worker is performing a difficult task in a small group d. The worker is performing an easy t ask in a large group

a. The worker is performing an easy t ask in a large group b. Social loafing refers to the tendency to work less hard on a task when one is a part of a group as opposed to when one is working alone. Generally, the larger the group, the greater is the tendency for social loafing to occur. This is because people perceive their individual efforts as anonymous and thus not subject to individual evaluation. Task difficulty is not addressed in the social loafing research, but is significant in social facilitation and social inhibition. Social facilitation is the tendency for people to do better on overlearned and easy tasks in the presence of a group (e.g., racing bicycles); social inhibition is the tendency for people to do worse on complex or novel tasks in the presence of a group of people.

1.) Which of the following statements regarding job satisfaction is least accurate? a. Job satisfaction increases with age b. A substantial proportion of job satisfaction is due to innate factors c. There is a direct relationship between job satisfaction and physical and mental health problems d. There are no differences between the sexes in terms of job satisfaction

a. There is a direct relationship between job satisfaction and physical and mental health problems a. The question is asking for the least accurate statement. The relationship between satisfaction and physical and mental problems is considered to be inverse, not direct, meaning that the more satisfied workers are, the fewer physical and mental health problems they have. In general, job satisfaction increases with age (Response 1), regardless of type of work. Interestingly, 30% - 40% of job satisfaction may be related to genetic factors (Response 2). No clear patterns of difference have been found in job satisfaction based on gender (Response 4).

1.) Researchers correlate the scores of mothers on the WAIS-III with the scores of their children on the WISC-IV. A positive correlation of .45 is found. The best interpretation of this finding is that: a. There is an association between the IQ scores b. It is partly the mother's genes that cause the IQ of the child to be what it is c. Since different tests were used to determine the IQs of the mothers and their children, the results most likely underestimate the true correlation d. Since IQ tests in childhood are not good predictors of IQ as adults, the results most likely underestimate the true correlation

a. There is an association between the IQ scores a. This question is basically just asking for a definition of "positively correlated." Association is another term for correlation. Correlations are never enough to establish causality (Response 2). Although infant intelligence tests do not correlate well with intelligence test scores in childhood or adulthood, tests of intelligence in childhood (e.g., the WISC-IV) do correlate well with IQ scores in adulthood (Responses 3 and 4).

1.) The Tarasoff rulings of California have affected the laws in many states regarding: a. Child abuse b. Informed consent c. Danger to self d. Threats against a third party

a. Threats against a third party b. The Tarasoff vs. Regents of California ruling established the psychologist's "duty to warn." When a patient makes a threat in the presence of a psychologist and the threat is toward an identifiable person, the psychologist is required to take reasonable steps to protect the intended victim. These reasonable steps typically include warning the victim directly, whenever possible, as well as notifying the police.

1.) Which of the following statements about transformational and transactional leaders is most accurate? a. Transactional leaders use intellectual stimulation in order to influence subordinates b. Transactional leaders appeal to inspiration and emotion as a means of promoting subordinates' performance c. Transformational leaders influence subordinates through focusing on their unique needs, goals, and abilities d. Transformational leaders focus on daily exchanges between employees as a means of maintaining levels of performance

a. Transformational leaders influence subordinates through focusing on their unique needs, goals, and abilities a. Transformational leaders utilize individualized consideration in order to broaden and elevate the goals of the subordinates. In other words, they consider the needs and capabilities of each individual in order to increase performance goals. They also use intellectual stimulation (Response 1), charisma, and inspiration. Transactional leaders are the more traditional leaders who influence subordinates through daily exchanges (Response 4) that are fairly emotionless (Response 2).

1.) Which of the following tests is appropriate for examining experimental outcome that is non-linear? a. Eta b. Multiple regression c. Pearson r d. Trend analysis

a. Trend analysis b. Trend analysis is used to analyze non-linear experimental data. For example, if the dose of medication is the IV (e.g., 5 mg, 10 mg, 15 mg, 20 mg) and symptoms of depression is the DV, you might find that increasing the dose by 5 mg at small dosages decreases depressive symptoms slightly, increasing the dose by 5 mg at moderate dosages decreases depressive symptoms significantly, and increasing the dose by 5 mg at high dosages doesn't decrease depressive symptoms at all. If you hadn't heard of trend analysis, you might have been able to answer this question through a process of elimination. Eta and Pearson r (Responses 1 & 3) are correlational tests, and cannot be used when research is looking at differences between groups. Multiple regression (Response 2) is a test of prediction.

1.) A psychologist specializes in providing crisis intervention. As he is driving to his private practice one day, he witnesses a three-car accident on the freeway. When he pulls over to offer help, he notices that a man who was not physically hurt in the accident seems to be emotionally distressed. He gives the man his business card, informs him of his expertise in crisis-intervention, and suggests that the man make an appointment with him. This psychologist's action is: a. Ethical, because he is reaching out to someone who may need his help b. Ethical, because he is an expert in crisis-intervention c. Ethically dubious, because it is unclear if he has expertise in critical incident debriefing, which is what the man may need d. Unethical, because of the man's vulnerability

a. Unethical, because of the man's vulnerability b. The psychologist's action is unethical. He is making an in-person solicitation. According to the Ethics Code, in-person solicitation is prohibited when people are vulnerable to undue influence, which the accident victim appears to be. If the man is in need of help (Response 1), the psychologist may ethically offer free crisis intervention on the spot, and then refer the patient for appropriate treatment. The psychologist's expertise (Responses 2 and 3) is irrelevant in this situation. Note that critical incident debriefing (Response 3) has not been shown to be the treatment of choice for trauma, and may in some cases be harmful.

1.) A patient believes that he receives special messages from the radio regarding the whereabouts of his wife. What type of delusional disorder does he have? a. Erotomanic type b. Grandiose type c. Unspecified type d. Persecutory type

a. Unspecified type a. In this case, the patient is having delusions of reference. Because the content of the delusions do not fit into any of the specific subtypes of Delusional Disorder, he would receive the diagnosis of Unspecified Type. Grandiose Type (Response 2) applies when the delusion involves a belief of having some great talent or a special relationship with a prominent person. Persecutory Type (Response 4) applies when the person believes he is being conspired against, cheated, harassed, etc. Erotomanic delusions (Response 1) involve the belief that someone, usually of higher status, is in love with the patient.

1.) You are a therapist in private practice. A new patient begins to phone you occasionally between sessions for non-emergency reasons. Sometimes, you take his calls and help him problem-solve about the situation that is bothering him. Other times you set limits with him, explaining that he can wait until the next session to talk to you. Which of the following schedules of reinforcement is maintaining his behavior? a. Variable interval b. Variable ratio c. Fixed interval d. Fixed ratio

a. Variable ratio a. His behavior is being reinforced on a ratio schedule because reinforcement (talking to him) is contingent on occurrence of behavior (number of phone calls), and not the passage of time. It is a variable ratio schedule because the number of phone calls between reinforcement changes. If you talked to him every third time he called, he would be on a fixed ratio schedule (Response 4). If you talked to him every 3 days, he would be on a fixed interval schedule (Response 3). If you were to vary the number of days between phone calls (4 days, 2 days, etc.), he would be on a variable interval schedule (Response 1).

1.) Adverse impact generally constitutes discrimination, but a test that adversely affects hiring or promotion may still be used: a. When the percentage of minorities hired or promoted is at least 4/5 of the percentage of non-minorities hired or promoted b. When the test is valid, job related, and no alternatives are available c. During times of economic hardship, such as periods of high rates of inflation and unemployment d. When the test has an extremely high rate of accurately predicting success on the criterion

a. When the test is valid, job related, and no alternatives are available a. The EEOC (Equal Employment Opportunity Commission) guidelines state that a test that adversely affects selection constitutes discrimination unless the test has been validated, has utility, and there are no alternatives available. The EEOC does not make exceptions during times of economic hardship (Response 3), nor when a test has an extremely high criterion-related validity coefficient (Response 4). If you chose Response 1, you most likely misread the question as asking when a test could normally be used (i.e., when there is no adverse impact). The question, however, was asking under what circumstances you could use a test even though adverse impact has, in fact, occurred.

1.) According to family therapist Nancy Boyd-Franklin, therapists working with African American families should: a. conceptualize family problems as stemming from the socio-political climate of racism, rather than from the psychopathology of individual members. b. address issues of acculturation. c. rebalance hierarchies that are too matriarchal. d. consider meetings outside of the traditional office setting to include members of clients' support systems.

a. consider meetings outside of the traditional office setting to include members of clients' support systems. b. Nancy Boyd-Franklin has developed a multi-systems approach to working with African American and other minority families. She encourages meetings outside of the consultation room and actively involving the different systems that influence clients, such as the school, the church, and the extended family. Although she recognizes and deals with issues of racism (Response 1), she specifically discourages a "victim mentality," in which all problems are seen as stemming from racism. Issues of acculturation (Response 2) are not an emphasis in her approach. It is a myth that African American families are matriarchal (Response 3); research demonstrates that there is more sex role flexibility in African American families as compared with Caucasian families.

1.) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is best treated by: a. teaching patients progressive muscle relaxation and having them relax as they imagine a graded series of anxiety-provoking situations. b. asking patients to signal when they have an obsessive thought and immediately providing electric shock. c. providing patients with meaningful rewards for each segment of time in which they do not engage in obsessions or compulsions. d. having patients imagine the stimuli that provoke obsessions and compulsions and then stopping patients from engaging in the obsessions and compulsions or from leaving the situation.

a. having patients imagine the stimuli that provoke obsessions and compulsions and then stopping patients from engaging in the obsessions and compulsions or from leaving the situation. b. To answer this question correctly, you must know that Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is best treated through flooding and you must also be able to identify the behavioral techniques that are described in the responses. Response 4 describes the technique of flooding. Response 1 describes systematic desensitization, which used to be the treatment of choice for Specific Phobias; however, exposure-based treatments (e.g., flooding) are now considered to be more effective. Response 2 describes punishment and Response 3 describes DRO, or differential reinforcement of other behaviors. Neither of these latter two techniques is typically used to treat anxiety disorders

1.) All of the following reflect research findings on the effects of overcrowding except a. physiological arousal occurs, and the extent of arousal may depend on the person's appraisal of controllability of the situation b. frequency of illness increases as density increases. c. overcrowding increases withdrawal d. high density frequently produces negative mood states in males and females

a. high density frequently produces negative mood states in males and females b. An interesting finding in the research on overcrowding is that high density frequently produces negative moods in men, while women experience negative moods more frequently in low-density situations. This finding suggests that men and women are probably socialized differently. All the other responses are true: appraisal of controllability (Response 1) appears significant in reactions to crowding; frequency of illness does increase as density increases (Response 2), although the illnesses are not severe; and crowding does lead to withdrawal, evidenced by lower levels of eye contact and increases in interpersonal distance

1.) You are a psychologist in a small town. You have begun to notice that you run into current and previous patients in the course of your day. In this situation, the best course of action would be to: a. contact previous patients and discuss with them how they would like you to handle the situation. b. maintain a professional stance. c. bring up this issue in therapy with current clients to clarify in what way the situation should be handled. d. address the issue as patients or former patients bring it up.

a. maintain a professional stance. a. Your best course of action would be to maintain a professional stance, and when you run into your clients, generally not acknowledge your relationship with them (as this could be a breach of confidentiality). Of course it would be wise to address the issue as patients bring it up (Response 4) but this is not the best general course of action. Typically, you would not need to contact former patients or bring it up with current patients (Responses 1 and 3).

1.) A graduate student recently started seeing patients at a practicum placement. She is working under the supervision of a licensed psychologist. According to the APA Ethics Code a. she must tell her patients she is being supervised b. she must tell patients that she is being supervised and must give them her supervisor's name c. she must tell her patients in writing that she is being supervised and must provide her supervisor's name. d. she does not need to tell her patients that she is being supervised since she is working in a training clinic.

a. she must tell patients that she is being supervised and must give them her supervisor's name a. The Ethics Code states that when a therapist is a student intern, the patient must be informed of that fact. Additionally, the patient must be given the name of the supervisor who has legal responsibility for the case. The Ethics Code does not stipulate that patients need to be notified in writing (Response 3). In some states (e.g., California), there is a requirement that this information be provided in writing, however, the question was asking about the requirements of the Ethics Code, not state law.

1.) A man is presented with a list of nine words to remember. Five minutes after presentation, he is asked to recall the words. You would expect that: a. the man may remember all the items because a person can hold seven plus or minus two items in short-term memory. b. the man will remember items from the beginning of the list better than from the middle and end of the list. c. the man will remember items from the end of the list better than from the beginning and middle of the list. d. the man will remember items from the beginning of the list and from the end of the list best

a. the man will remember items from the beginning of the list better than from the middle and end of the list. a. Research looking at memory of word lists has found that on delayed recall, words at the beginning of the list are remembered best, while those in the middle and at the end of the list are remembered to an equivalent degree (primacy effect). On immediate recall, people remember words at the beginning and at the end of the list better than those in the middle (Response 4), a finding termed the serial position effect. Even though five minutes seems like a short time, long-term memory is actually being assessed here, not short-term memory (Response 1). There is no situation in which people remember the items at the end of the list better than those in the beginning (Response 3).

1.) The underlying principle hypothesized to be at work in the clinical intervention of flooding is that: a. the subject is made to experience two incompatible responses so the original undesirable response eventually gets extinguished. b. the subject is repeatedly exposed to the unconditional stimulus until it no longer automatically elicits the problematic response. c. the problematic response is repeatedly emitted while withholding the original reinforcement, thus leading to the gradual reduction of the response. d. the subject is repeatedly exposed to the stimulus that elicits the problematic response while at the same time the subject is not permitted to emit the problematic response, thus leading to extinction.

a. the subject is repeatedly exposed to the stimulus that elicits the problematic response while at the same time the subject is not permitted to emit the problematic response, thus leading to extinction. a. Flooding with response prevention, which is based on classical extinction, involves presenting the fear producing stimulus (conditioned stimulus) while preventing the person from emitting the problematic response, which is fleeing from the stimulus. The subject is confronted with the conditioned stimulus for a sufficient duration until it no longer elicits fear. Response 1 is an application of the theory of reciprocal inhibition, which proposes that two incompatible responses cannot be emitted at the same time. Response 2 is an example of habituation, which is the process of getting used to an unconditioned stimulus (e.g., the sound of traffic heard from your bedroom window) until the automatic response (waking up) no longer occurs. Response 3 describes the process of operant extinction, in which reinforcement is withheld for a behavior that had previously been reinforced.

1.) According to the DSM-5. It may be difficult to establish the diagnosis of ADHD before age 4 because: a. The symptoms of the disorder typically do not appear before age 4 b. Before age 4, most children exhibit distractibility c. the variation in development until age five makes it difficult to distinguish between behaviors considered normal for a particular stage of development and the symptoms of ADHD. d. symptoms of the disorder do not cause functional impairment, a requirement for the diagnosis, until the child attends school.

a. the variation in development until age five makes it difficult to distinguish between behaviors considered normal for a particular stage of development and the symptoms of ADHD. a. There is much variation in behavior and development prior to age four, which makes it harder to distinguish ADHD from behaviors that are normal for that stage of development. The symptoms of the disorder can appear as early as toddlerhood (ruling out Response 1). While young children may exhibit distractibility (Response 2), their attention can typically be held in a number of situations. Functional impairment can be evidenced before a child attends school (ruling out Response 4).

1.) What happens to privilege in a court-ordered evaluation? a. The client holds privilege b. The psychologist conducting the evaluation holds privilege c. The court holds privilege d. there is no privilege

a. there is no privilege b. Privilege is defined as the client's right to keep confidential information out of court. In a court-ordered evaluation, there simply is no privilege. Any and all information may be shared with the court. The client must be informed in advance of the limits of confidentiality (in this case, that there is no confidentiality) and of the uses to which the information may be put (e.g., to determine competence, to determine insanity). It is inaccurate to say that in this instance the court holds privilege (ruling out Response 3). In essence, court-ordered evaluations present an exception to privilege (i.e., privilege no longer exists)