TPR 2 - Questions Missed

Passage 8 - Question 38 Increased levels of which of the following foods would likely be recommended for individuals on a Standard diet, but NOT for individuals on a Paleo diet? I Bananas and squashes II Whole grain breads III Cheese and yogurt A. II only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only

A. (I) Is false, due to the fact that both standard and paleo can eat fruit and vegetables (II) Is true, due to the fact that they are processed food and not found in a paleo diet (III) Is false, and cheese and yogurt are high in fats, so they wouldn't be found in a standard diet

Passage 10 - Question 56 Suppose a parent group accuses a school of maintaining a hidden curriculum that gives boys an advantage in subjects requiring mental rotation, such as geometry. The school makes changes that are later characterized by a local paper as tokenism. Which of the following scenarios is most illustrative of this vignette? A. The school hired one female geometry teacher to join an existing staff of 9 male geometry teachers. B. The school required its geometry teachers to disclose curriculum expectations at the start of the school year. C. The school instituted a reward system to provide incentives to female students to improve their geometry scores. D. The school rewarded geometry teachers who ensured that boys and girls received equal time to ask questions in class.

A. A hidden curriculum refers to a social messengers conveyed in schools that may impact performance of different groups. Thus, by hiring only 1 female to 9 males in a math field show a hidden curriculum that males teach and know math better than women.

Passage 5 - Question 26 Based on the data in Figure 1, which of the following is true regarding the members of groups A and B? A. There was a greater concentration of acetylcholine in the cardiac muscles of the group A members than was the case for the group B members. B. The vagus nerve was active for the group B members, but inactive for the group A members. C. Group A members' sympathetic nervous systems were activated when they re-entered the shopping mall. D. The hypothalamus was stimulated more in group A members than in group B members.

A. Acetylcholine in cardiac muscle is involved with the parasympathetic response in the sense of the rest and digest, therefore, the more acetylcholine present in the heart means there would be a lower heart rate.

Passage 1 - Question 5 The scientists expose their DNA aptamer to histone proteins with and without acetylation of the lysine residues at a pH of 7. When this mixture is placed at the center of an agarose gel and gel electrophoresis is run, the mixture separates into two bands. The DNA aptamer is found to be on the band: A. closer to the positive terminal. B. closer to the negative terminal. C. at the center of the agarose gel. D. cannot be determined with the information provided.

A. Based off the Kd, which is the dissociation constant, so DNA aptamer has a lower Kd which is higher affinity for the histone protein with the lysine residue acetylated. Meaning that the more that is bounded to the histone would increase the negative charge, so it would be more negative overall which would be attracted to the positive terminal. [Was confused by wording]

Question 44 Similarities that exist between protists and bacteria include all of the following except: A. Organelles B. Double-stranded DNA C. Unicellularity D. Flagellar motility

A. Eukaryotes and bacteria share similarities in double-stranded DNA [one is helical and the other is double-stranded], unicellularity, and some protist exhibit amoeboid movement but both exhibit flagellar movement. The difference is that bacteria do not have any membrane bound organelles , while protist do since they are eukaryotes

Passage 4 - Question 19 [Correct, but educated guess] A healthy woman has a respiratory minute volume (the amount of air inhaled and exhaled in one minute) of about 6 L. Suppose the breathing tube she uses has a cross-sectional area of 1 cm2. What is the average flow speed through the tube? A. 1 m/s B. 3.1 m/s C. 100 m/s D. 310 m/s

A. Flow rate is f = Av, so f = 6 L/min x (1m^3 /1000 L) x (1 min / 60 s) = 1 x 10^-4 m^3/s. Then divide the flow rate by the cross sectional area in meters, to find v = f/a = 1 x 10^-4 / 10^-4 = 1 m/s

Question 11 Rank the following bonds in order of increasing polarity: I. C—Cl III. Cl—Cl II. Si—Cl IV. P—Cl A. III < I < IV < II B. III < IV < II < I C. I < II < IV < III D. II < IV < I < III

A. For an item to be polar there must be a difference in electronegativity, and the bigger the difference the more polar the molecule is. This relates to the periodic table trend of electronegativity, and therefore groups farther apart from one another in terms of electronegativity are more polar. So Si-Cl would be the most polar.

Passage 7 - Question 35 Human T-cell lymphotropic virus (HTLV) is very similar to HIV. Which of the following would be true regarding HTLV? I HTLV exhibits a lysogenic life cycle. II HTLV is a retrovirus. III HTLV destroys the antibody-producing cells. A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III

A. HIV exhibits a lysogenic life cycle due to integration into the host's genome. HIV is known as a retrovirus. HIV infects the host's T-cells, but the B-cells are the antibody-producing cells of the body, therefore III is false.

Passage 5 - Question 26 PLX 4720 and PLX 4032 would be expected to bind with greatest affinity to an enzyme active site containing a large number of which of the following residues? A. V and L B. D and N C. D and K D. K and S

A. In the passage B-raf had a nonpolar binding pocket of the protein, so AA should've been considered to be nonpolar, only Val and Leucine are nonpolar AA given.

Passage 7 - Question 37 In the alkylation step of Experiment 2, the carbon β to the nitrogen acts as: A. a nucleophile due to partial negative charge from resonance. B. a nucleophile due to partial negative charge from induction. C. an electrophile due to SN2-type reaction. D. an electrophile due to an inductive effect.

A. In the second portion of experiment 2, the beta carbon acts a nucleophile to take the methyl group from iodide, due to the partial negative charge from resonance.

Passage 5 - Question 24 Based on the electrophoresis gels run on the patients' blood specimens, which type of hemoglobin is present in Patient 2? I. HbA II. HbS III. HbC A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III

A. Looked at the wrong image to decipher what was in patients 2 blood, and was confused due to the graph being hidden. Looking at image 2 with image 1.b, only HbA and HbS is present.

Passage 4 - Question 20 Which of the following is NOT a result or characteristic of high neuroticism? A. Increased extraversion B. A more reactive sympathetic nervous system C. Increased likelihood of mood disorders D. Prolonged states of negative mood

A. Neuroticism is the trait disposition to experience negative affects, including anger, anxiety, self-consciousness, irritability, emotional instability, and depression. Additionally, neuroticism is apart of OCEAN so is extraversion so this is immediately wrong.

Question 56 Retinal isomerase is used to alter the conformation of retinal. Retinal isomerase is most likely manufactured by: A. dehydration synthesis. B. hydrolytic synthesis. C. oxidation. D. glycosidic anabolism.

A. Retinal isomerase is a protein, a peptide, which is made by the usage of dehydration synthesis

Passage 1 - Question 1 The study on international donations suggests which one of the following forms of bias? A. A sampling bias, which is caused by non-random participant selection methods (e.g., participant self-selection) B. An instruction bias, which is caused by misleading instructions and/or instruction errors (e.g., unclear instructions) C. A response bias, which is caused by discounting results of participants who did not complete the study (e.g., participant withdrawal) D. A publication bias, which is caused by journal selection factors (e.g., reporting predominantly significant results)

A. Sampling Bias: Bias in which a sample is collected in such a way that some members of the intended population have a lower or higher sampling probability than others Thus, the international giving used data from only individuals who made at least one formal donation in the previous year which is sampling bias

Question 28 Based on the table above, which one of the following species is the strongest reducing agent? Ba(s) = -2.91 V Pb(s) + SO4 2- (aq) = -0.36 V Cu(s) = 0.52 V 2 F- = 2.87V (Standard potential for V) A. Ba B. Cu+ C. PbSO4 D. F-

A. The strongest reducing agent is the species that is most easily oxidized. Positive standard potential means E standard > 0, so it's nonspontaneous, while the oxidation of Ba to Ba2+ is spontaneous (E standard = 2.91 V), so it's the strongest reducing agent

Passage 5 - Question 23 A young man develops ophidiophobia, which is a fear of snakes. His fear is maintained because he intentionally avoids any encounters with snakes. Which of the following operant conditioning principles describes how the man is preserving his fear? A. Positive reinforcement B. Negative reinforcement C. Positive punishment D. Negative punishment

B. Avoidance relieves his anxiety from not seeing snakes, which is a rewards/reinforces the man to continually avoid snakes. While a punishment would be a decrease in a behavior

Question 10 According to instrumental learning theory, researchers' attempts to "train" subjects to do something would best increase the subjects' performance during the training phase by providing some sort of reward: A. on a fixed-interval schedule. B. on a variable-ratio schedule. C. for both correct and incorrect attempts. D. every ten minutes.

B. A fixed interval schedule provides reward after a fixed, or unchanging, period has elapsed, this means there is only a gradual increase in the rate of desired response. While a variable ratio schedule is built on a reinforcement that quickly increases rate of desire response.

Passage 1 - Question 6 The tumor suppressor gene p53 contains a number of lysine residues that can be acetylated to stabilize the protein and facilitate its activation. All of the following could be the result of acetylation of p53 EXCEPT: A. activation of DNA repair pathways. B. progression in the cell cycle from G1 to S phase. C. initiation of apoptosis. D. Increasing transcription of the cell cycle inhibitor CDKN128.

B. Acetylation activates p53 activity, which is a tumor suppressor gene. So this would prevent progression in the cell cycle if there was damaged DNA, so B would be correct. D is wrong as this would inhibit the cell cycle.

Passage 9 - Question 47 Which of the following is the correct name of compound 2? A. (3R,4R)-4-(3-bromo-1-benzothiophen-2-yl)-3,4-dihydroxybutan-2-one B. (3S,4S)-4-(3-bromo-1-benzothiophen-2-yl)-3,4-dihydroxybutan-2-one C. (3R,4S)-4-(3-bromo-1-benzothiophen-2-yl)-3,4-dihydroxybutan-2-one D. (3S,4R)-4-(3-bromo-1-benzothiophen-2-yl)-3,4-dihydroxybutan-2-one

B. Ensure to go over all atoms in proximity, as there is a sulfur attached to C5, meaning that there is a higher priority of sulfur than oxygen due to higher atomic number

Question 16 [Misclicked] The bicarbonate buffering system protects the blood against large pH swings from its normal level at 7.4 and is based in the following equilibria: H2O(l) + CO2(g) H2CO3(aq) H+(aq) + HCO3-(aq) If a subject were to be placed in an environment enriched in CO2, which of the following is a reasonable expectation for his/her blood pH? A. 7.4 B. 7.1 C. 8.6 D. 7.9

B. If there is more CO2 in the environment then the reaction is favored to the product side, therefore my H+ is produced in the environment, this would reduce pH.

Passage 1 - Question 2 There is a posited relationship between social capital and international giving. This might be explained by the fact that: A. wealth can increase one's ability to provide financial support internationally. B. networks can increase one's awareness of international causes. C. education can increase one's understanding of abstract concepts such as human rights. D. spirituality can increase one's connections to others, both domestically and internationally.

B. More in scope, as stated there is a relationship with social capital = networks to international giving which could be related to international causes awareness

Passage 7 - Question 34 Nevirapine is an example of a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. Which of the following is true of nevirapine? A. It is a competitive antagonist of reverse transcriptase. B. It is a noncompetitive antagonist of reverse transcriptase. C. It is an uncompetitive antagonist of reverse transcriptase. D. Its effect on reverse transcriptase can be reversed with increasing concentrations of adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine.

B. Passage stated that the non-nucleoside are allosteric inhibitors. This must be noncompetitive inhibitors of reverse transcriptase

Passage 5 - Question 25 According to the mechanism shown in Figure 1, would the function of the B-Raf kinase domain be eliminated by the substitution of Glu for Asp576? A. No, Glu can bind the divalent metal cation chelated by ATP in step 1. B. No, Glu can activate the nucleophile shown in step C. Yes, Glu is too weak a base to abstract the hydroxyl proton shown in step 1. D. Yes, Glu would destabilize the transition state shown in step 2.

B. The Asp in the reaction acts a nucleophile, so the replacement must be similar in negative charge and the only such replacement would be Glu which will also do a nucleophilic attack in step 2.

Question 28 The Whorfian hypothesis suggests that our perception of the world is based on our availability of language with which to describe it. If a language's only color words were white, black, red, and green, which of the following would a supporter of the Whorfian hypothesis believe? A. There is nothing purple in the environment of the native speakers of this language. B. Native speakers of this language perceive grass and the ocean as being the same color. C. It is evolutionarily important for native speakers of this language to identify the color red (e.g., to avoid poisonous berries). D. Native speakers of this language are most likely colorblind.

B. Whorfian hypothesis states that language drives cognition. Thus, a supporter of this hypothesis would believe that if there are only three words for color in a language, then they would perceive the same color for different objects even if they do truly differentiate in color such as ocean and grass being both green.

Passage 4 - Question 22 In light of the significant group differences described and the data in Table 1, what conclusions can be drawn from this study? A. SES has a greater effect on neuroticism than on coronary heart disease. B. SES and neuroticism have a synergistic effect on coronary heart disease. C. Lower SES individuals have greater coronary heart disease incidence because they face greater life stress. D. Wealthy individuals are less likely to experience neuroticism.

B. With the table the only thing that can be concluded is off neuroticism and coronary heart disease. Nothing more as this would be outside the scope of the question. Synergy = Cooperation, there is a relationship between neuroticism and SES

Question 47 Theorists using the conflict perspective to address questions of health, illness, and medicine are LEAST likely to consider: A. the commodification of health care delivery. B. the presence of disparities in health and health care. C. the power of professionals in patient-provider relationships. D. the dependence of medical institutions on profit.

C. Commodification = Treating something as valuable. The patient-provider relationship is more symbolic interactionism than conflict due to a more micro scale analysis

Question 12 The sound level of a sound wave that is striking an eardrum is increased from 35 dB to 55 dB. By what factor has the intensity of the sound increased? A. 2 B. 20 C. 100 D. 200

C. In the decibel level, the intensity increases by a factor of 10, so for the decibel level to increase by two units of 10 (55 - 35 = 20 = 10+10), so sound intensity increased by 10^2 = 100

Question 43 The tertiary structure of proteins is partially due to disulfide bonds between cysteine residues. These bonds can be broken by treatment with a mild reducing agent as shown below: Which one of the following could be such a reagent? A. CrO3 B. H2SO4 C. NaBH4 D. CH3CH2OH

C. NaBH4 is a reducing agent since it has a hydrogen present in the form of hydride. CrO3 is a good oxidizing agent.

Passage 6 - Question 34 Neuraminidase is an enzyme which selectively cleaves sialic acid derivatives at their point of attachment to a protein. Which finding, when combined with the data from Experiment 1, is most likely to lead researchers to conclude that GD1a is NOT the main mediator of HAd37 entry into HCE cells? A. When treated with neuraminidase, HAd37 viruses do not exhibit decreased infectivity against HCE cells. B. When treated with neuraminidase, HCE cells are still infected by HAd37 at the same levels as in the anti-GD1a treatment. C. When treated with neuraminidase, HCE cells are still infected by HAd37 at the same levels as untreated cells. D. When treated with neuraminidase, decreased binding of anti-GD1a to HCE cells is observed.

C. Neuraminidase, which when applied to cells, remove sialic acid derivatives such as GDA1 from the surface of the cell. So the prove that it's not the main mediator it must have the same affection rate as an unaffected cell, then GDA1 means little to HAd37 entry.

Passage 10 - Question 54 According to the results in Figure 1, what is the relationship between turnover number and viscosity, and what is the likely cause of the rate-limiting step in the CBL-GSH conjugation reaction, respectively? A. Direct; physical event B. Direct; chemical event C. Inverse; physical event D. Inverse; chemical event

C. Passage states the slope of one is indicative of a physical event being rate-limiting, and the slope is close to unity so it must be a physical event. And the 1/k compared to n is an inverse relationship.

Passage 9 - Question 48 In gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), gastric secretions exit the stomach via the lower esophageal sphincter and come in contact with the lower part of the esophagus. How would this affect the esophageal epithelium? (I) Increased proliferation of the stratified squamous epithelium (II) Conversion to columnar epithelium similar to that in the stomach (III) Introduction of bicarbonate-secreting cells A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I, II, and III

C. (I) True: As the stratified squamous epithelium cell line will begin to corrode so this will cause an increase in proliferation of these cells (II) True: Overtime the stratified squamous epithelium cells will be broken down due to the exposure of strong acids, thus the production of columnar epithelium will prevail since its high resistance to these acids (III) False, this is produced in the small intestine to breakdown HCl

Question 30 Which of the following is NOT a component of Baddeley's model of working memory? A. Episodic buffer B. Long-term memory C. Multi-store model D. Phonological loop

C. Baddeley's model of working memory focused on episodic buffer, long-term memory and phonological loop. The multi-store model was made by Atkinson and Schiffrin.

Passage 7 - Question 37 Which of the following can be inferred from the data shown in Figure 1? A. Response quality and serial position are positively correlated. B. The passage of time compromises an individual's response quality. C. The subjects in the study generated a list of possible moves in a meaningful sequence based on the quality of the move. D. Response quality and number of options are negatively correlated.

C. C simple explains the whole table to what is shown. D is wrong due to the fact that number of options are not included in the table, only the serial position of option in list.

Passage 1 - Question 2 Which of the following best justifies the use of DNA, as opposed to RNA, for generating aptamers? A. DNA is double-stranded. B. RNA is single-stranded. C. DNA lacks a 2' hydroxyl group. D. RNA contains uracil instead of thymine.

C. Due to the fact that DNA lacks the 2'hydroxl group leads RNA to self-cleavage, which makes DNA much more stable. Uracil and thymine are almost identical except for the additional methyl group on thymine which doesn't really make it much more stable the uracil.

Passage 6 - Question 30 During strenuous exercise, aerobic metabolism often converts to anaerobic metabolism with the consequent buildup of lactate. Which of the following will result? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis

C. Lactate generates by a metabolic function, this means that it cannot be a respiration/breathing rate function. The reason for it being an acidosis is due to lactate being ionized/deprotonated, so by adding more acids will make the lactate protonated.

Question 58 Glucose-6-phosophate dehydrogenase (G6PDH) deficiency is an inheritable metabolic disorder that can result in the destruction of red blood cells, and in severe cases, can lead to kidney and liver failure. Which of the following best describes the reason why G6PDH deficiency can result in premature red blood cell destruction? A. G6PDH deficiency results in a buildup of glucose-6-phosphate, increasing the solute concentration in the intracellular environment, causing the cell to swell and lyse. B. G6PDH deficient cells are recognized as abnormal and are targeted for destruction by macrophages. C. G6PDH deficiency results in a deficiency of NADPH, which results in increased damage from reactive oxygen species and causes premature cell death. D. G6PDH deficiency results in an increased intracellular pH, which denatures proteins and triggers apoptosis.

C. NAPDH is a primary molecule used in decreasing damage by reactive oxygen species. Thus a deficiency of this will result in increased damage which will lead to premature cell death

Passage 1 - Question 1 What single change to the experimental system would reduce the electric field strength necessary to maintain the oil drop in static equilibrium? Question 1 Answer Choices A. Increasing the density of the oil B. Decreasing the distance between the plates C. Decreasing the mass of the drop Correct Answer D. Decreasing the charge magnitude on the drop

C. Particle is in static equilibrium with the F = mg, where F is qE so qE = mg, meaning that the electric field is E = mg/q. Additionally E = V/d, so the electric field could be written to equal voltage, so that that mgd/q = V. Since that's the case, to reduce the electric field is to increase the charge magnitude, or decrease either mass or gravity.

Passage 9 - Question 48 This study factored in perceptions of support as well as actual support. If both factors were found to be equally valuable in increasing the odds of survival, we might consider this outcome the most analogous to: A. a bimodal distribution. B. a type II error. C. the placebo effect. D. confirmation bias.

C. Placebo effect describes when the control group in a study receives a fake drug or treatment and experience/report changes or improvement. Confirmation bias is that one actively looks for results that fits one belief, this wouldn't be true here since the study didn't actively try to find results to find their belief.

Passage 7 - Question 38 If the students had used propylamine in Experiment 2 in place of piperidine, what functional group would they synthesize in Step 1? A. Enamine B. Amide C. Imine D. Lactam

C. Propylamine is a primary amine, so an imine would form which is a double bound to a nitrogen instead. [Need to review imine vs enamine]

Question 27 [Correct but educated guess] The following measurements were obtained by an investigator who observed a light ray that propagated across a boundary between air and Material X: speed of light in air = 3.0 × 108 m/s frequency of light in air = 5.0 × 1014 Hz angle of incidence = 30.0° angle of refraction = 23.5° density of Material X = 5.0 g/cm3 At what speed does light propagate through Material X? (Note: sin 23.5° = 0.4) A. 1.4 × 108 m/s B. 1.7 × 108 m/s C. 2.4 × 108 m/s D. 3.7 × 108 m/s

C. Snell's law = n1sin(theta1) = n2sin(theta2) velocity = c/n (1)sin(30) = n2sin(23.5) 1/2 = n2(0.4) n2 = 5/4 velocity = 3 x 10^8 / 5/4 velocity = 12/5 x 10^8 velocity = 2.4 x 10^8

Passage 10 - Question 53 Which of the following, if true, does NOT challenge the assertion that males' mental rotation advantage is purely biological in nature? A. There is no significant relationship between performance and endogenous levels of male sex hormones. B. There is a positive correlation between degree of men's confidence and performance. C. There is no significant difference on geometry test scores between girls taught by a female teacher and those taught by a male teacher. D. There is a negative correlation between girls' level of internalization of negative stereotypes and performance.

C. The question is stating that the males mental rotation advantage is strictly biological, so a female role model proficient in mental rotation would also not affect the trend, since its not teaching but rather a biological component. Therefore, that statement that doesn't challenge it is C.

Passage 2 - Question 8 Brown fat will increase energy expenditure in the form of heat better than any other adipose tissue in the body. In brown fat, leptin indirectly activates uncoupling protein 1 (UCP-1) located in the inner mitochondrial membrane. UCP-1 activation will dissipate the proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane and STOP which of the following reactions in mitochondria? A. Electron transport chain B. Krebs cycle C. Oxidative phosphorylation D. NAD+ reduction

C. UCP-1 dissipates the proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane, which means it can only affect either ETC or oxidative phosphorylation, and the best answer would be oxidative phosphorylation as there is no hydrogen gradient to from ATP by ATP synthase.

The Big Five personality model consists of which five traits? A. Awareness, cognitive ability, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism B. Openness, cognitive ability, extraversion, altruism, and neuroticism C. Openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism D. Awareness, conscientiousness, extraversion, altruism, and neuroticism

C. [OCEAN] O: Openness C: Conscientiousness E: Extraversion A: Agreeableness N: Neuroticism

Passage 7 - Question 36 Atazanavir is an example of a protease inhibitor. It causes all the following events in cells that take it up EXCEPT: A. cessation of HIV replication. B. fewer helper T-lymphocytes being killed. C. direct inhibition of the enzyme that incorporates the viral DNA into the host's DNA. D. lack of gp120 and gp41.

C. [Passage stated question] "viral proteins are made and then cleaved into smaller, functional proteins—such as glycoprotein (gp) 120 and 41—by the viral enzyme protease." Therefore, cessation of HIV replication and lack of gp120 and gp41 are immediately recognized by the inhibition of protease. This means that fewer HIV particles would be present, so less helper T-lymphocytes would be killed, so B is true, which leaves C as false. Additionally, this is caused by the enzyme integrase which takes foreign viral DNA into the host's genome

Passage 8 - Question 39 Which of the following experimental findings would best confirm that a patient's type II diabetes was caused by a genetic defect and not a poor diet? A. Elevated patient blood glucose levels three hours after consumption of a concentrated glucose solution B. Discovery of an antibody in the patient's bloodstream that marks pancreatic beta cells for destruction C. Isolation of one of the patient's insulin receptors reveals a lysine-histidine substitution in the insulin-recognition site D. Detection of a virus that selectively targets and lyses insulin receptor expressing cells

C. [Read answer choices more closely] A substitution is a genetic defect and not normally found due to a presence of poor diet, thus this would be the best answer. B. Shows the presence of type I diabetes and not type II diabetes, even though type I diabetes is a genetic defect.

Passage 6 - Question 31 A scientist wants to test the heritability of sexual attractiveness in college-age females. This could be best accomplished by: A. using monozygotic twin studies to measure the percentage of sexual attractiveness caused by genes. B. using dizygotic twin studies to measure the percentage of sexual attractiveness caused by genes. C. using dizygotic twin studies to measure the percentage of variation in sexual attractiveness attributable to genetics. D. using monozygotic twin studies to measure the percentage of variation in sexual attractiveness attributable to genetics.

D. Monozygotic twin have the same gene. Heritability is defined as the proportion of observable differences in phenotype attributable to genetic cause. So testing those of the same genes for phenotypical change would answer this question.

Passage 3 - Question 13 The ratio of products to reactants at equilibrium for Reaction 1 will change with a change in the: A. concentration of ATP. B. ΔG°. C. pressure. D. temperature.

D. The only thing that can change an equilibrium constant is temperature

Passage 3 - Question 16 An individual suffers from a traumatic brain injury that causes severe damage to his right occipital lobe. How will he perform on the task described in the passage when a shape is presented in his right visual field? A. He will not be aware of the stimulus, nor will he be able to name it. B. He will not be aware of the stimulus, but he will often be able to name it. C. He will be aware of the stimulus, but he will not be able to name it. D. He will be aware of the stimulus and will be able to name it.

D. The right visual field is processed by the left occipital lobe, which is undamaged. Therefore he should be able to be aware and name it since there is no damage present in this area.

Passage 3 - Question 17 Hypothetically, if Reaction I was found to be spontaneous at standard state and higher temperatures, but nonspontaneous at low temperatures, the reaction must result in: A. decreasing entropy and decreasing enthalpy. B. decreasing entropy and increasing enthalpy. C. increasing entropy and decreasing enthalpy. D. increasing entropy and increasing enthalpy.

D. (Misread answer) But G = H - T(S), so for nonspontaneous the gibbs free energy must be positive, so enthalpy should be increasing, and temperature is decreasing so it should negate a positive entropy, so entropy should also be increasing.

Passage 1 - Question 5 Which of the following would be a reasonable explanation for the discrepancies in cortisol patterns between the Black and Hispanic High CSS groups? A. A smaller percentage of Hispanic participants experienced a high degree of stress than did Black participants. B. Blacks' physiological response to stress is more effective than that of Hispanics. C. Pregnancy hormones improve HPA axis functioning. D. Social support systems are stronger in Hispanic communities than in Black communities.

D. Asked for explanation so rule out A for no explanation but it is true. The correct answer is due to the fact that social system can help diffuse complication in stress.

Passage 3 - Question 15 Which of the following could explain why a patient is blind in his left eye? A. His right V1 is irreparably damaged. B. His left optic tract is severed. C. His right optic tract is severed. D. His left optic nerve is severed.

D. Blindness in the left eye is different than blindness in left visual field. Blindness in left eye is only due to damage to that eye in particular such as in the left optic nerve for the left eye.

Passage 7 - Question 36 Competing reactions in Experiment 1 are responsible for the product mixture. All of the following reactions contribute to the product mixture EXCEPT: A. deprotonation. B. aldol reaction. C. nucleophilic substitution. D. hydride shift.

D. Deprotonation can happen at both the 3-pentanone and the 2-methyl-3-pentanone. Aldol condensation can also occur between the enolates formed by the deprotonation. Nucleophilic substitution can occur with the reaction with the methyl iodide. Hydride shift will not and cannot happen from the formation of an enolate, only a carbocation intermediate

Passage 1 - Question 4 What best explains the variation among the values of the floating voltage for the different droplets? A. As the diameter of the droplets changes, the drag force each experiences as it falls changes proportionately. B. Larger volume droplets require greater voltage to achieve static equilibrium. C. Smaller droplets have greater density, which in turn affects the voltage needed to keep them afloat. D. The charge of the droplets differs because the amount of ionization due to the x-rays is random.

D. For this the density for all spherical oil drops was 920 kg/m^3, meaning that C was wrong as density never changed. B was wrong as the table provided voltage was inversely related to the volume. A was wrong as the droplet was in static equilibrium, meaning there could be no drag. D was correct as the only true variation was found by the amount of excitation by x-rays.

Question 42 [Got Correct] It was observed under the microscope that a small section of bone consisted of concentric rings of fibrous material surrounding an open circular region. The bone section was identified as an osteon. The circular region is expected to contain: A. mature osteocytes. B. maturing chondrocytes. C. large blood cell precursors. D. blood vessels.

D. Osteon is the basic unit of structure [usually compact bone] - Concentric rings surround the central circular region which will contain blood or lymph vessels - Bone is the site of marrow in which blood precursors are found [However, this is found in spongy bone not compact bone] - Chondrocytes are found in cartilage - Osteocytes can be found in small spaces along channels branching away from the central channel [Regulate local mineral deposition and chemistry at the bone matrix level]

Passage 4 - Question 20 The results of the experiment indicate that: A. the rate of GTP hydrolysis by ARFGAP1 is positively correlated with vesicular curvature. B. the rate of GTP hydrolysis by ARFGAP1 is negatively correlated with vesicular curvature. C. the rate of the reaction induced by ARFGAP1 is positively correlated with vesicular curvature. D. the rate of the reaction induced by ARFGAP1 is negatively correlated with vesicular curvature

D. Stated in the passage was that LUV volume, which was the large unilamellar vesicles, was positively correlated with pore size. Then it was stated that when there was an increase in vesicular volume there was a decrease of local curvature. So in the experiment as more GTP was hydrolyzed, the more volume went into the vesicle, which meant more curvature decreased. This is a negative correlation with curvature and GTP hydrolysis, but the ARFGAP1 activates the GTPase activity of ARF1, but it's not directly responsible for hydrolysis. [Hard question]

Passage 9 - Question 51 Which of the intermolecular bonding interactions described above is the least rigid (the least difficult to displace from its equilibrium length)? A. Hydrogen bond in 1 B. Stacking interaction in 1 C. Halogen-carbonyl bond in 2 D. bond in 3

D. The amount of energy that is required to move a bond is dependent on the curve of the graph, a very narrow dip or sharp peak requires a lot of energy to displace a bond, therefore a more broad curve indicates that an application of a little energy can change the bond a good deal

Passage 5 - Question 24 A woman spoke to a behaviorist about the development of her pteromerhanophobia, which is a fear of flying. She stated that when she was a young child she would start crying when she heard loud noises. Accordingly, every time that she was in a plane she began to cry from the roar of the engines. Soon any time that she saw a plane she felt immense fear. Which of the following is the conditioned stimulus that led to her specific phobia? A. Loud noises B. Crying C. Engines D. Planes

D. The conditioned stimulus is paired with the unconditioned stimulus repeatedly and, over time, can elicit a conditioned response. A conditioned response must be learned while an unconditioned response takes place with no learning. She learnt her fear from planes as a conditioned stimulus to the planes.

Passage 4 - Question 18 [Correct, but educated guess] Which one of the following expressions is equal to the pressure difference between Point c and Point d? A. ρgasgv B. ρgasgy C. ρliquidgv D. ρliquidgy

D. The difference of c and d are found between static fluid, so the only measure that truly should be cared about is the difference between the heights of the two points and the density of the liquid.

Passage 3 - Question 11 [ Got Correct] The investigators transfected neuronal cells plated in small culture dishes and 48 hours later measured the levels of Aβ peptide. Which of the following procedures should be implemented to measure the levels of Aβ? A. Place the culture dishes under a microscope and directly count the amount of Aβ B. Harvest the cells, break down the cell membrane, and measure the levels of cellular Aβ using a specific antibody. C. Harvest the cells, break down the cell membrane, and measure the levels of cellular Aβ using PCR. D. Harvest the condition media from the dishes and use an ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) coated with anti-Aβ peptide to measure the levels of Aβ released.

D. The reason is due to the fact that ELISA is the preferred method for secreted proteins found in the media, blood or extracellular space, so harvesting media can be used with an ELISA coated anti-AB to measure the level of AB

Passage 5 - Question 23 Based upon the data reported in Table 1, researchers chose one compound for further testing as a potential B-Raf inhibitor. Which compound was most likely to have been chosen? A. PLX 4720 (10^-7) B. PLX 4032 (10^-4) C. PLX 2021 (10^-5) D. PLX 3479 (10^-8)

D. The substance that binds most strongly will have the smallest value for Kd, therefore D would've been chosen.

Passage 6 - Question 31 The trimerization of adenovirus protein fiber monomers is an example of what type of protein structure? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Quaternary

D. Trimerization as a compound means that there is three proteins to make one protein complex, so this is quaternary structure

Passage 2 - Question 5 What impact do the results shown in Figure 1 have on the hypothesis that leptin resistance secondary to obesity reduces all effects of leptin? A. Supports the hypothesis due to the increase in neural activity with injection of leptin in obese mice B. Weakens the hypothesis due to the increase in neural activity with injection of leptin in obese mice C. Weakens the hypothesis due to the lack of impact of leptin on renal sympathetic nerve activity D. Neither supports nor weakens the hypothesis due to the differential effect of hormones on differing tissues

D. While the passage states that there was "no significant difference in RSNA activity was detected between lean and obese mice", however, leptin is a hormone that is expected to affect target tissues differently, so by the question starting "all effects" means we are still unsure of the correct support, so D would be the best choice.

Passage 8 - Question 41 Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the fact that 222Rn is a greater biohazard than the other elements in the 238U decay series? A. It is the alpha emitter with the shortest half-life. B. It is the alpha emitter with the longest half-life. C. It has the greatest mass number in the series. D. It is a gas.

D. [Said in passage, daughter products, the inert gas poses a much more substantial risk] Being a gas, radon can easily seep from the ground into homes, where it's inhaled and can lodge into the lungs. While it's inert but the alpha particles released upon decay is very damaging.

Question 28 During times of starvation: A. triacylglyceride stores in adipocytes are anabolized by lipase. B. fatty acids are broken down via oxidation, hydration and cleavage reactions, to generate NADPH, and to oxidize FADH2. C. glycerol is converted to DHAP, a glycolysis intermediate, which is then used to generate lactate and ethanol via fermentation. D. fatty acids are transported in the blood via binding to blood proteins like albumin, then are broken down via β-oxidation in target tissues.

D. [Knowledge Based] During starvation, sugars, proteins, and fat storages are degraded to provide energy. Fat storages are catabolized by lipase (A). Which the glycerol backbone is converted to DHAP, which is a glycolysis intermediate that is converted to pyruvate and put through the Kreb cycle. Fatty acids are however, transported in the blood due to binding to albumin. Once at target tissues, its activated, shuttled into the mitochondria and broken down by Beta-oxidation which generate acetyl-CoA and NADH and FADH2

Passage 1 - Question 3 Which one of the following graphs best illustrates the relationship between a, an oil drop's acceleration perpendicular to the plates, and E, the strength of the electric field between the plates? [Answers are graphs]

Starts negative and is a linear graph. The reason for this is due to the fact that Fnet = qE - mg. To find acceleration all we do is insert ma = qE - mg, such that a = (q/n)E - g, which is equal to a linear line.