trends quiz3/test3
The staff on a nursing unit notes that patient satisfaction varies from month to month. They plot the degree of patient satisfaction each month for 1 year to determine when the periods of greatest dissatisfaction are occurring. The staff uses which type of graph? a. Time plot b. Pareto chart c. Flowchart d. Cause-and-effect diagram
A A run plot, or time plot, graphs data in time order to identify any changes that occur over time.
The surgical team arrives in the operating room and one member states, "Everyone stop. Let's identify the patient and operative site. Now does anyone have any questions or concerns?" This process is known as: a. time-out. b. a critical pathway. c. special cause variation. d. lean methodology.
A A time-out occurs in the operating room to ensure the entire surgical team identifies the patient, operative site, and possible concerns or questions about the procedure.
The nurse who admits making a medication error and immediately files an incident report is demonstrating: a. accountability. b. individuality. c. an injustice. d. values clarification.
A Accountability is an ethical duty that states that one should be answerable legally, morally, ethically, or socially for one's actions.
A state is devastated by a tornado killing many people, destroying communication systems, utility services, homes, and medical facilities. The state requests immediate assistance from the U.S. Congress and from surrounding states. The affected state should first contact the: a. Emergency Management Assistance Compact (EMAC). b. Institute of Medicine (IOM). c. Red Cross. d. Strategic National Stockpile.
A The EMAC is an organization authorized by the U.S. Congress through which a state impacted by a disaster can request and receive assistance from other member states quickly and efficiently.
A nurse is assigned to a unit where 95% of all patients required total care. Most days the assistive personnel are able to complete their assignments and provide high-quality care. A patient returning from a procedure was somehow "skipped" when daily baths were performed and requests that her care now be provided. The nurse discovers the bed is rumpled and damp. The RN joins with some other staff to bathe the patient, change the bed, and help make the patient comfortable. These staff members are demonstrating: a. altruism. b. veracity. c. autonomy. d. whistle-blowing.
A Altruism is concern for the welfare of others, including willingness to help others when they are unable to get their assignments completed to ensure that the patient receives high-quality care.
In the preparedness phase for disasters, the community plans for a possible terrorist attack using anthrax as the weapon of destruction. What treatments and/or preparations would be needed? a. Vaccines and Level B Personal Protection Equipment (PPE) b. Treatment for burns, decontamination, and Level A PPE c. Social distance determination, decontamination for radioactive fallout d. Identify and detect incendiary devices, treatment for burns and propellants
A Anthrax is a biologic weapon and requires Level B protection since it is a known agent and can be carried in wind or surfaces. Timing of treatment is critical and vaccines are available.
During a seminar on ethics, the educator realizes that more information is needed when a participant describes which situation as a violation of the ethical principle of autonomy? a. An older person with advanced stages of Alzheimer's disease is denied the right to ambulate in the hallway. b. A mentally competent adult refuses medical treatment for the autoimmune disease lupus erythematosus, stating that this condition reflects the will of a higher power. c. A mentally competent visitor fell during visiting hours but refused to be examined by the physician on call. d. A mentally competent adult with a broken wrist refuses to be given a local anesthetic prior to a procedure.
A Autonomy is defined as personal freedom, the right to make choices. However, in this case, the patient is not able to be fully informed so they can clearly understand the choices being offered.
A researcher calculated the risk-to-benefit ratio and concluded that no harmful effects were associated with a survey of college sophomores. The researcher was applying the principles of: a. beneficence. b. human dignity. c. justice. d. human rights.
A Beneficence is defined as promoting goodness, kindness, and charity. In ethical terms, beneficence means to provide benefit to others by promoting their good.
During the relief response phase of a disaster resulting from a "dirty bomb": a. treatment for burns and poisoning is provided for victims. b. emergency plans are coordinated between agencies. c. reconstruction of destroyed facilities and homes begins. d. food stores are collected for potential victims.
A During the relief response phase of a disaster, emergency responders provide assistance to victims and stabilize the scene; with a dirty bomb, radioactive material causes burns and poisoning.
Nurses and community officials are working together to ensure that churches and schools have needed supplies to provide shelter for large numbers of individuals in the event of a natural or manmade disaster. These activities represent which phase of a disaster continuum? a. Preparedness b. Relief response c. Recovery d. Crisis intervention
A Every disaster response begins as a local event known as the preparedness phase, which consists of planning, preparedness, prevention, and warning.
A nurse is assigned to a unit other than the one she is normally assigned due to increased census on the alternate unit. She is assigned to care for seven patients and participates in walking rounds where the patient's condition and needs are discussed between oncoming and off- going shifts of the interdisciplinary team. The nurse carefully makes notes of all pending orders and prioritizes needs. The nurse enters the cafeteria later and the notes accidentally fall from her pocket, which contain the above information that contains patient sensitive data. The liabilities arising from this incident would be covered under: a. the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. b. the ANA Scope and Practice Act. c. affirmative duty failing to question order. d. personal liability with floating and cross-training.
A HIPAA protects patient information and ensures confidentiality of data.
When differentiating between slander and libel, the nurse knows that libel: a. results from defamation caused by subjective comments written in the nurse's notes. b. results from negative subjective comments made to those who are not providing care. c. occurs when the nurse verbally describes to the oncoming nurse assigned to the client objective data that place the client in a negative light. d. consists of repeating prejudiced comments made by the primary caregiver to a neighbor at the local supermarket.
A Libel is defined as comments that are written about a person that are defaming. Nurses may be subject to a charge of libel for subjective comments meant to denigrate the client that are placed in the medical record or in other written materials read by others.
A nurse is caring for a client with malignant hypertension whose blood pressure has increased by 40 mm Hg during the past hour. The nurse goes to lunch and fails to report the change to the physician. The nurse is at risk for being charged with: a. negligence. b. assault. c. defamation of character. d. tort.
A Negligence is defined as failure to act in a reasonable and prudent manner. The most frequent allegations of nursing negligence include failure to ensure client safety, improper treatment, failure to monitor the client and report significant findings, medication errors, and failure to follow the agency's policies and procedures.
A nurse is caring for a client who just consented to an elective abortion. The nurse is unsure of his or her own values as they relate to this issue. The nurse must: a. know his or her own values and how these values relate to beliefs and the philosophy of nursing. b. rid the impurities in his or her value system. c. ignore his or her own values. d. realize that values do not change and that they cannot be influenced by others.
A Nurses must make a deliberate effort to recognize their own values and must learn to consider and respect the values of others. Health care decisions are seldom made independently of other people. Decisions are made with the client, the family, other nurses, and other health care providers.
According to the Quality Chasm report: a. health care providers should be proactive rather than reactive to patient needs. b. common needs rather than individual preferences should be the priority. c. medical information should be confined to the primary care provider. d. specialized providers or case managers should control health care decisions.
A Quality is based on predicting patient needs rather than reacting to needs.
A nurse working in a privately owned hospital is charged with a negligent act after failing to check laboratory reports prior to giving a dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) resulting in the patient's condition becoming critical due to decreased cardiac output and falling leading to a broken hip and concussion. A nurse is brought in who testifies that a professional with the knowledge and skill of an RN should understand that, before administering this drug, potassium level and pulse level is always checked to prevent such an occurrence. The nurse's testimony as to what constitutes reasonable care is based on: a. the legal definition of standard of care. b. the legal definition of the informed consent process. c. the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur. d. governmental immunity.
A Standard of care is the legal criteria against which the nurse's (and physician's) conduct is compared to determine whether a negligent act or malpractice occurred. Nurses are specialists in hospital care who, in the final analysis, hold the well-being—in some instances, the very lives—of patients in their hands.
A team of experienced nurses work together to develop algorithms that are converted into checklists to ensure standardization of commonly performed procedures. The focus of this team is primarily on which Institute of Medicine (IOM) competency? a. Safety b. Timely c. Equitable d. Patient-centered care
A Standardization contributes to safety and improves individual performance of care providers.
A client arrives in active labor and exhibits toxemia with irregular fetal heart tones. The client is an immigrant and is uninsured. Which act would prevent the client from being transferred to another facility? a. Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Law b. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act c. Patient Self-Determination Act d. The Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act
A The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Law is a federal statute that was enacted in 1986 to prohibit the transfer of unstable clients, including women in labor, from one facility to another. This law also prohibits refusal of care for indigent and uninsured clients who seek medical assistance in the emergency department.
A group of local volunteers respond to a tornado. Volunteers have completed an emergency response course and are able to assist with triage of injured citizens. They also participate in local health fairs to teach residents how to react during tornadoes. The responders are members of the: a. Medical Reserve Corps (MRC). b. Metropolitan Medical Response System (MMRS). c. National Disaster Medical System (NDMS). d. Commissioned Corps Readiness Force (CCRF).
A The MRC are local volunteers trained to respond to local emergencies.
Troops from the United States participating in a peace mission in a foreign country were the victims of suicide bombers and many soldiers were evacuated back home to receive specialized medical care. The nation's medical responses will be augmented by: a. the federally coordinated National Disaster Medical System. b. local homeland communities where troops receive care. c. the Medical Reserve Corps, which organizes and utilizes public health, nursing, medical, and other volunteers. d. the National Incident Management System, which guides government, nongovernmental organizations, and the private sector to work seamlessly during disaster situations.
A The National Disaster Medical System supplements care for casualties evacuated back to the United States from overseas and federally declared disasters including national disasters, major transportation accidents, technologic disasters, and acts of terrorism.
A nurse is charged with battery after helping an invalid patient back to bed and not calling for help due to a reduced staffing level. The patient sustained excessive bruising, sore joints, and extended stay. In this case, the: a. patient is the plaintiff. b. nurse can be charged with forcefully restraining the patient without orders. c. nurse is accountable due to the decreased level of staffing. d. charge of invasion of privacy may be withheld.
A The complaining person in a lawsuit is the plaintiff.
Regardless of the term used to describe high-quality health care, the focus of quality is: a. what the consumer needs and wants. b. economical care. c. having the greatest technologic advancement. d. services equally distributed among populations.
A The customer determines quality on the basis of his or her unique perception of high-quality care.
When assessing an ethical issue, the nurse must first: a. ask, "What is the issue?" b. identify all possible alternatives. c. select the best option from a list of alternatives. d. justify the choice of action or inaction.
A The first step in the situational assessment procedure is to find out the technical and scientific facts and assess the human dimension of the situation—the feelings, emotions, attitudes, and opinions. Assessment can be applied to all areas of patient care, including ethics. Trying to understand the full picture of a situation is time consuming and requires examination from many different perspectives, but it is worth the time and effort.
A nurse is interested in learning the phases of the disaster continuum and realizes it has many similarities to the nursing process. To better understand the phases of a disaster, which is true when comparing the phases of the disaster continuum to the nursing process? a. The preparedness phase of the disaster continuum is consistent with the assessment and planning steps of the nursing process. b. The recovery phase of the disaster continuum is consistent with the planning step of the nursing process. c. The recovery phase of the disaster continuum is consistent with the implementation step of the nursing process. d. The response relief phase of the disaster continuum is consistent with the evaluation step of the nursing process.
A The preparedness phase requires assessing possible needs of the community and planning appropriate interventions and is consistent with the assessment and planning steps of the nursing process.
Health care professionals have been activated to respond to a disaster, and the registered nurse who is coordinating the effort realizes that: (select all that apply) a. in the event of a mass casualty incident, care is prioritized to those who have the greatest chance of surviving. b. communities should use their own resources first to attempt to stabilize and organize the response. c. state assistance occurs any time a disaster occurs, regardless of the community's resources. d. the emergency operating plan developed by one central agency rather than individual facilities should be put into operation. e. strict protocols regarding the use of resources must be followed.
A, B Care is shifted to doing the most good for the most people. Efforts begin at the local level.
An interdisciplinary team is evaluating the hospital's care of patients admitted with a myocardial infarction (heart attack) compared to national standards. The team analyzes the hospital's clinical indicator, which would be: (select all that apply) a. aspirin order within 24 hours of discharge. b. patient teaching related to stopping smoking completed prior to discharge. c. beta blocker administered upon arrival. d. support of employer to modify stress in workplace. e. patient's willingness to adhere to a strict cardiac diet after discharge.
A, B, C Clinical indicators are measurable items that reflect the quality of care provided and demonstrate the degree to which desired clinical outcomes are accomplished. National benchmarks are established according to guidelines related to quality care for patients admitted with heart attack and include: aspirin within 24 hours of admission, angiotensin receptor blocker at discharge, stop smoking instruction given, and beta blocker administered upon arrival and discharge. These are all measurable.
Throughout their careers, nurses are in an ongoing state of acculturation, gaining experience from formal nursing school classes, clinical experiences, and the ethical issues they encounter in their clinical practice. The ideal outcomes of these ongoing experiences with cultural decision making include: (select all that apply) a. increased trustworthiness. b. enhanced ability to take into consideration many aspects of ethical situations. c. confidence to make decisions based on experience and ethical intelligence. d. improved clinical decision making and advocacy for patient autonomy. e. authority to make ethical decisions independently that meet personal moral beliefs.
A, B, C, D The desired outcomes of ethics acculturation across the years are integrity, personal growth, practical wisdom, and effective problem solving on behalf of patients and their families (Weaver et al, 2008). These are the qualities that are characteristics of an ethically sensitive and morally mature person. Trustworthiness is a characteristic of integrity. The ability to take into consideration many aspects of ethical situations is due in part to personal growth and practical wisdom. The confidence to make ethically sensitive decisions comes from experience founded on personal growth and personal wisdom. The ability to be the patient's advocate in ethical decision making is one test of cultural acculturation.
A patient with complicated diabetes is scheduled for a below the knee amputation at 7 AM. The surgical team adheres to the 2012 National Patient Safety Goals by implementing which protocols? (select all that apply) a. The surgical team asks the patient to verify his or her name, type of surgery, and limb to be removed. b. Ask each member of the surgical team to provide a copy of licensure and, if applicable, certification to patient and family. c. The surgical team uses the chart number and name/hospital number to ensure they have the correct patient. d. Mark the procedure site with "X" and again ask the patient to verify correct site. e. After arrival in the operating room, perform a "time-out" for final identification of patient and operative site along with agreement of what procedure is scheduled.
A, C, D, E The 2012 National Patient Safety Goal includes universal precautions to ensure patient safety and prevent sentinel events. Methods to identify patient and surgical procedure are required.
Patients with heart failure have extended lengths of stay and are often readmitted shortly after they have been discharged. To improve quality of care, a type of "road map" that included all elements of care for this disease and that standardized treatment by guiding daily care was implemented. This road map is referred to as a(n): a. benchmark. b. critical pathway. c. algorithm. d. case management.
B A critical pathway determines the best order and timing of interventions provided by health care team members for a particular diagnosis.
A nurse is assisting with the delivery of twins. The first infant is placed on the scale to be weighed. The physician requests an instrument stat. The nurse turns to hand the instrument to the physician, and the infant falls off the scale. When evaluating the incident, the nurse and her manager list contributory factors such as the need for two nurses when multiple births are known, and the location of the scale so far from the delivery field. These nurses are performing a(n): a. standardization of care. b. root cause analysis. c. process variation. d. analysis of a deployment flowchart.
B A root cause analysis is a process by which factors that underlie variation in performance, including the occurrence or possible occurrence of a sentinel event, are identified. The purpose of root cause analysis is to identify improvements that can be implemented to prevent future occurrences.
A nurse is removing a saturated dressing from an abdominal incision and must cut the tape to remove the dressing. The nurse accidentally cuts the sutures holding the incision, and evisceration occurs. In quality improvement, this incident is best identified as a: a. root cause. b. sentinel event. c. variation in performance. d. causal factor.
B A sentinel event is an unexpected occurrence that could result in serious physical or psychological injury to the patient, including the possibility of returning to surgery and a prolonged length of stay.
A nurse is preparing to administer a medication by using the vastus lateralis site and is unfamiliar with the process. A step-by-step reference that shows how to complete the process is called a: a. deployment flowchart. b. top-down flowchart. c. Pareto chart. d. control plot.
B A top-down flowchart shows the sequence of steps in a job or process such as medication administration.
A family requests that no additional heroic measures be instituted for their terminally ill mother who has advance directives in place. The nurse respects this decision in keeping with the principle of: a. accountability. b. autonomy. c. nonmaleficence. d. veracity.
B Autonomy is the principle of respect for the individual person. Within the concept of autonomy, people are free to form their own judgments and perform whatever actions they choose. They are self- determining agents who are entitled to decide their own destiny.
The disaster medical assistance team works quickly to contain contaminants from a chemical plant explosion. Afterward, personnel undergo a special process to remove harmful chemicals from equipment and supplies. This removal process is known as: a. containment. b. decontamination. c. triage. d. scene assessment.
B Decontamination is the physical process of removing harmful substances from personnel, equipment, and supplies.
Three illegal immigrants with no health insurance or money sustained life-threatening injuries during an automobile accident. Two of these individuals had head trauma and lacerated internal organs. The decision was made to provide extended care in the trauma center after emergency surgery was performed to save their lives. The third individual received only minor injuries, which were treated in the emergency department. The care of the two critical clients was based on the ethical principle of: a. utilitarianism. b. deontology. c. autonomy. d. veracity.
B Deontology is an approach that is rooted in the assumption that humans are rational and act out of principles that are consistent and objective and that compel them to do what is right. Deontological theory claims that a decision is right only if it conforms to an overriding moral duty and wrong only if it violates that moral duty.
When the client is unable to make medical decisions for himself or herself, authorization that allows another person to make these decisions is called: a. living will. b. durable power of attorney. c. informed consent. d. immunity.
B Durable power of attorney involves preselection by the client of a person who has been authorized legally to make health care decisions once the client becomes incompetent to do so. Several states have enacted a Uniform Durable Power of Attorney Act, which sanctions a durable power of attorney for health care.
The Metropolitan Medical Response System (MMRS): a. is totally financed by the federal government national disaster fund. b. consists of responders who have obtained specialized training and equipment to deal with mass casualty events. c. has a storehouse of medications and antidotes to be used during response in times of national emergencies. d. arranges for patient admissions to federal hospitals.
B The MMRS responds to disaster with trained individuals who have expertise in this type of situation and who have the equipment required to be effective.
During a community health fair the disaster medical assistance team (DMAT) informs participants that every community must be ready to provide disaster care. A participant asks, "In a disaster, the local community cannot possibly be effective, so why not have a plan to call federal agencies immediately to provide relief?" The correct response by the DMAT is: a. "Unless known terrorist activities involving mass destruction occur, the federal government does not become involved." b. "The community is essentially the 'first responder' to any disaster." c. "The preparedness phase of a disaster is the responsibility of the community, the relief response phase is assigned to state agencies, and the recovery phase is the responsibility of federal agencies." d. "Unless local health care facilities are incapacitated, state and federal agencies will withhold assistance."
B Each disaster begins locally, and each community responds first and receives assistance from state and federal agencies when local resources are not adequate for the situation.
The emergency response team responded to a terrorist attack where hundreds of people died following symptoms of chest tightness, palpations, seizures, and finally paralysis. A colorless odorless liquid known as Sarin (GB) was the agent, which is primarily inhaled with limited exposure through the skin. The concentration of Sarin has not been measured. What level is the minimum level of personal protection and safety equipment (PPE) that would be needed? a. A b. B c. C d. D
B Level B requires a high level of respiratory protection, but less skin protection, providing a chemical splash-resistant suit with hood and self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA). It provides maximum respiratory protection but less skin protection than level A equipment.
Although a hospital reversed all charges when a client was the victim of wrong site surgery, the court awarded the client $1.5 million. The client was able to return to work in 6 weeks and had no permanent damages. This monetary compensation is termed: a. res ipsa loquitur. b. punitive damages. c. vicarious liability. d. immunity.
B Punitive damages are monetary compensation to an injured client that is greater than amount of loss.
Nurses working on an orthopedic unit use personal digital assistants (PDAs) to review medications prior to administration to reduce potential drug interactions. Software is also installed that provides video clips of common procedures performed by nurses. Nurses on this unit are best demonstrating which QSEN competencies? a. Patient-centered care b. Informatics c. Teamwork d. Quality improvement
B Technology (PDA) is used to aid decision making and reduce errors.
A nonprofit organization that distributes to governmental agencies, the public, business, and health care professionals knowledge related to health care for the purpose of improving health is the: a. Institute for Safe Medication Practices. b. Institute of Medicine. c. National Committee for Quality Assurance. d. The Joint Commission.
B The Institute of Medicine is a nonprofit organization whose mission is to advance and disseminate to the government, the corporate sector, the professions, and the public scientific information that will improve human health.
Following a terrorist attack, victims are exhibiting posttraumatic stress syndrome, and care providers are exhibiting compassion fatigue. Which federal response system should be initiated? a. Strategic National Stockpile b. Metropolitan Medical Response System (MMRS) c. Commissioned Corps Readiness Force d. National Disaster Medical System
B The MMRS is concerned with deploying trained responders who are able to provide mental health care for victims and health care providers.
A community in the New Madrid fault zone experiences an earthquake resulting in injuries from propelled objects and abrasions for many victims. The local supply of antibiotics is quickly exhausted. Local authorities would contact the: a. Commissioned Corps Readiness Force. b. Strategic National Stockpile. c. Department of Homeland Security. d. local Young Men's Christian Association (YMCA).
B The Strategic National Stockpile provides antibiotics, antidotes, and medical and surgical items when local and state supplies have been exhausted.
A nurse at a school notices that several students have "blisters" on their bodies. Further investigation reveals that a terrorist incident has occurred, causing smallpox. If the chemical, biologic, radiologic, nuclear, and explosive (CBRNE) agent categories are used, this incident would be classified as: a. chemical. b. biologic. c. radiologic. d. nuclear.
B The biologic category refers to diseases such as plague or smallpox.
Each month data on admission assessments that are based on the following standard are entered: "All patients will be assessed by an RN within 2 hours of admission." The target goal for this standard is 97% compliance. Data are displayed on a graph that shows number and time of admission assessments and compliance variation limits. This pictorial representation is: a. Pareto chart. b. control chart. c. deployment chart. d. top-down flowchart.
B The control chart is a run chart that has a centerline and added statistical control limits that help to detect specific types of change needed to improve a process.
A nurse learns of a mass casualty disaster following a known terrorist attack. On arriving at the scene, the nurse knows that: a. the response of local hospitals will be dictated by the federal government. b. the same ground rules practiced in other settings and during smaller crises will be applicable. c. the least experienced nurses will be assigned to triage low-risk victims and victims who have no chance of survival. d. multiple incident commanders ensure a quick, effective response.
B The fundamentals of nursing applied to other settings and situations can be used in a disaster.
Which statement regarding informed consent is correct? Informed consent: a. is mandated by federal but not state law. b. must reveal expected benefits. c. requires concealing any known risks. d. allows the RN to communicate information needed so that informed consent can be provided.
B The information that constitutes informed consent for the client includes the nature of the therapy or procedure, expected benefits and outcomes of the therapy or procedure, potential risks of the therapy or procedure, alternative therapies to the intended procedure and their risks and benefits, and risks of not having the procedure.
A 13-year-old female is brought to the family planning clinic by her enraged father, who has just learned that she is pregnant. The pregnant client states, "I want to have this baby and give it up for adoption." However, the father is adamant that she will disgrace the family and demands that the health care providers tell his daughter that she has a physical condition that would prohibit her from carrying this baby to a viable stage. The nurse realizes that this is a conflict that involves the ethical principle of: a. deontology. b. veracity. c. autonomy. d. beneficence.
B Veracity is telling the truth in personal communication as a moral and ethical requirement.
An older adult client is comatose and had one electroencephalogram that indicated no activity. The daughter is very distraught and notices her mother's hand moves when she is talking to her. The daughter asks the nurse, "Is mother responding to my voice?" The nurse, attempting to console the daughter, knows the movement was involuntary but states, "It does appear she did." The nurse is violating which principle of ethics? a. Autonomy b. Veracity c. Utilitarianism d. Deontology
B Veracity is the principle of telling the truth in a given situation.
In which case does the nurse act as "whistle-blower"? a. One staff member on the unit covers for another nurse, who leaves the premises to purchase illegal substances and signals her friend when she must return. b. The nurse reports that another nurse is taking medications out of stock medicine for herself or himself. c. A nurse informs respiratory therapy that a patient is now due a treatment. d. The nurse delegating care to unlicensed assistive personnel makes rounds to ensure all care was rendered properly.
B Whistle-blowing is the reporting of acts or situations that violate the principle of beneficence such as a chemical impairment, negligence, abusiveness, incompetence, or cruelty.
The Health Care Reform Act provides insurance for all U.S. citizens and legal residents presenting far-reaching ethical considerations related to diverse individual patient health care beliefs for those delivering nursing care. Nurses must consider their civil rights under the rights of conscience and how new health care agendas such as the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA) could affect their practice in situations that may conflict with their own belief system. Today's practicing nurse must: a. remember it is one's professional duty to render patient-centered care—even when it is in direct conflict with the nurse's own beliefs—or be held liable for withholding treatment. b. consider whether the right to act according to one's inner beliefs will continue to be permissible when federal health insurance becomes fully enacted. c. discuss with the patient and family different options in hopes they will accept the nurse's health care beliefs. d. suggest to the hospital administration that they not accept federal funding to prevent controversial health practices.
B With federal funding, many controversial health care services will be covered and provided as part of patient care when desired by the patient; therefore, whether a nurse has autonomy to refuse to provide care may not be as clear even when one might request another patient.
A patient asks, "What is an advance directive?" The nurse explains that examples of advance directives are: (select all that apply) a. preserving cord blood for possible future needs of a child. b. providing instructions that life-sustaining medical procedures should be withheld in the event of a terminal situation. c. giving someone the legal right to act on one's behalf when one becomes incapacitated. d. completing hospital admission paperwork before being admitted to the hospital.
B, C Advance directives document an individual's desires regarding end-of-life care. These wishes are generally stated through the execution of a formal document known as the living will. Right-to-die statutes vary from state to state; therefore, nurses must become familiar with their state-specific statute.
When teaching community preparedness for a community group, the nurse explains that components of the National Disaster Medical System (NDMS) provide for: (select all that apply) a. a nationwide bomb disposal squad team for the rapid removal of explosive devices. b. teams of health care providers who are experts and have specialized supplies and equipment. c. structures for patient evacuation from the disaster area to an unaffected area. d. arrangements for hospitalization in federal and volunteer nonfederal acute care hospitals. e. providing mental health care for the community, for victims, and for health care providers.
B, C, D The NDMS provides specially trained teams of people along with equipment designed for disaster relief. The NDMS is responsible for removing patients from unsafe to safe areas. The NDMS coordinates efforts to evacuate victims to federal or nonfederal volunteer hospitals that can care for disaster victims.
A nurse learns in orientation that an incident report does not "blame" anyone but concisely documents the events leading up to an occurrence. Which events would warrant completion of an incident report? (select all that apply) a. The client is crying and distraught when he learns of a diagnosis of cancer. b. An intravenous antibiotic given preoperatively does not infuse because of a faulty pump. c. The nurse is unable to carry out orders written by the specialist because of illegibility. d. A client falls while in the shower, although she was told not to get up alone. e. The registered nurse is not available to complete the preoperative checklist.
B, C, D, E Nurses are legally bound to report critical incidents to their nurse managers, agency administration, and risk manager through a formal intra-agency document generally titled the "incident report." Circumstances under which an incident report should be filed include malfunction or failure of medical equipment.
Which types of abuse are the nurse required to report or be subject to fines and imprisonment for not reporting? (select all that apply) a. Animal b. Child c. Alcohol d. Infant e. Emotional
B, D State laws have been created as a result of the 1973 Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment Act. These laws dictate that health professionals must report infant and child abuse and specified communicable diseases. Failure by the nurse to comply can result in fines and/or imprisonment.
A nurse educator is explaining to licensed staff that health care is no longer safe and describes The Quality and Safety for Nursing (QSEN) recommended competencies for educating nursing professionals. These include: (select all that apply) a. advanced health assessment techniques. b. patient-centered care. c. prescriptive pharmacology content. d. quality improvement. e. safety.
B, D, E Patient-centered care is a recommended competency, along with teamwork and collaboration, evidence- based practice, and informatics. Quality improvement is a recommended competency, along with patient- centered care, teamwork and collaboration, evidence-based practice, and informatics. Safety is a recommended competency, along with patient-centered care, teamwork and collaboration, evidence-based practice, and informatics.
A nurse is informed that the Federal Bureau of Investigation has determined that a bomb has been detected and is in the possession of a known terrorist group. The government buildings in the local community are the target. This situation is termed a(n): a. all-hazards approach. b. biologic event. c. credible threat. d. natural disaster.
C A credible threat is a situation in which the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) determines that a terrorist threat is probable and verifies the involvement of a weapon of mass destruction in the developing terrorist incident.
Nurses, physicians, and social workers finalize the plan of care and coordinate discharge for a homeless person who will need wound care and follow up over the next 4 weeks. Each member contributes based on his or her area of expertise but also recognize other members' strengths. Which of the QSEN competencies are being demonstrated? a. Quality improvement b. Evidence-based practice c. Teamwork and collaboration d. Patient-centered care
C An interdisciplinary team is working to prevent hand-off errors on discharge.
Which of the following occurrences would be classified as a sentinel event? a. A postpartum patient who elects to breastfeed only twice daily develops mastitis. b. A newly diagnosed diabetic patient self-injects insulin in the abdominal area rather than the upper thigh as instructed by the patient educator. c. A nurse assisting with the delivery of twins places the "Twin 1" name tag on the second-born twin, causing the first-born twin to undergo surgery that was scheduled for the other twin. d. A nurse administers 3 units of regular insulin rather than 3 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously, resulting in a drop in the patient's serum glucose from 160 to 100 mg.
C Any procedure performed on a wrong person or organ constitutes a sentinel event.
A client is in extreme pain after he was involved in a motor vehicle accident, and morphine has been ordered every hour for pain. The nurse injects saline into the client's IV line and takes the morphine for herself. The nurse is violating which principle of ethics? a. Autonomy b. Utilitarianism c. Beneficence d. Dilemmas
C Beneficence is providing benefit to others by promoting their good. In general terms, to be beneficent is to promote goodness, kindness, and charity. By taking the client's pain medication and substituting saline, the nurse did harm, not good, for this client.
Institute for Healthcare Improvement (IHI) proposed a process for quality improvement with steps known as "PDCA." When explaining the steps to a group of nurses interested in improving the process of medication reconciliation for heart failure patients with high rates of recidivism, the instructor states: a. P stands for process. Following a top-down flowchart provides the steps for reviewing patient medications taken at home compared to those prescribed during hospitalization. b. D stand for deviation, which is an alteration in the expected drugs ordered. c. C is for check if the process for change worked. Was there an improvement in accurate reconciliation? And what was learned? A stands for algorithm, which includes all steps of the process. d. A stands for algorithm, which includes all steps of the process.
C C stands for check if the change improved the process and what was learned.
A physician shares with the patient's family that, while a central line was being inserted, the patient's lungs were inadvertently punctured, which required oxygen administration. The physician also explains that a chest x-ray indicated the lung remained intact and no additional treatment was required. The physician's role in this instance is based on the legal principle of: a. comparative negligence. b. gross negligence. c. disclosure. d. the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA).
C Disclosure is a process in which the patient's primary provider (physician or advanced practice nurse) gives the patient, and when applicable, family members, complete information about unanticipated adverse outcomes of treatment and care.
A nursing student planning to apply for licensure knows that being charged with which offense would result in a minor criminal offense? a. Solicitation of illegal drugs b. Stealing a car c. Failing to report elder abuse d. Billing Medicare for services not rendered
C Failing to report elder abuse can lead to penalty of fine or imprisonment.
A physician orders a drug for a patient with a known allergy resulting in anaphylactic shock. The nurse: a. realizes that disclosure of the error will result in more severe ramifications for the agency than if the negligence is discovered by the patient or family. b. should disclose the occurrence before speaking with the physician who ordered the drug or with hospital management. c. recognizes disclosure as an essential component of the national patient safety movement. d. should report the occurrence to the patient's insurance company to decrease patient costs.
C The National Quality Forum identified the process of disclosure as a key element of the national patient safety movement.
All hospitals receiving Medicare and Medicaid funds must ask clients whether they have a living will or a durable power of attorney. This act is known as the: a. Emergency Treatment and Active Labor Law. b. Americans with Disabilities Act. c. Uniform Health Care Decisions Act. d. doctrine of res ipsa loquitur.
C The Uniform Health Care Decisions Act of 1993 is a federal statute that was established to support individuals in expressing their preferences about medical treatment and making decisions about end-of- life care.
On a nursing unit all assigned breaks including lunch/dinner breaks are assigned at the beginning of the shift. A nurse caring for a patient with anemia and heart failure prepares to hang a unit of packed red blood cells and realizes her break is in 5 minutes. She decides it is not necessary to have another nurse check the blood against the patient's information since the patient's blood type is O+ which she incorrectly remembered to be the universal donor. She hangs the blood, noting the patient is "reading and vital signs normal." She leaves the floor for her break and does not report leaving or ask anyone to perform required vital signs. Upon returning she meets a family friend who is visiting and time "just flies." She returns to the patient's room after admitting a new patient. The patient is hypotensive and color is cyanotic and anxious. She reports the findings to the charge nurse, who then contacts the physician. A blood reaction occurrence is noted. The nurse providing care is charged: a. with comparative negligence. b. with a preventable adverse event. c. with criminal negligence. d. under the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur.
C In this case, criminal negligence charges would be based on "reckless and wanton" disregard for the safety, well-being, or life of an individual; behavior that demonstrates a complete disregard for another, such that death is likely in the transfusion reaction. Type "O" is the universal donor rather than universal recipient; however, regardless of blood type, policy and procedures for assessing vital signs and patient status during blood transfusion must be followed.
A nurse who is infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) while working in the operating room seeks revenge by deliberately placing clients at risk by not adhering to universal precautions. This nurse is violating the ethical principle of: a. veracity. b. beneficence. c. nonmaleficence. d. autonomy.
C Nonmaleficence means to abstain from injuring others and to help others further their own well-being by removing harm and eliminating threats. The nurse is definitely violating this principle through her actions.
Ethics applied to nursing can best be defined as: a. doing what is best for the client. b. making good decisions about care. c. care based on what should be done in keeping with the values of the client. d. rules for providing competent care that is based on scientific principles.
C Nursing ethics is a system of principles intended to guide the actions of the nurse in his or her relationships with clients, clients' family members, other health care providers, policymakers, and society as a whole. A nurse must make an attempt to understand what values are inherent in the situation.
The number of IV site infections has more than doubled on a nursing unit. The staff determine common causes include the site is cleaned using inconsistent methods, dressing frequently becomes wet when patient showers, IV tubing is not changed every 48 hours per protocol, and inadequate hand washing of RN prior to insertion. A bar graph demonstrates the frequency in descending order, with 80% of infections being attributed to inadequate hand washing. The quality tool used is a: a. cause-and-effect diagram. b. run chart. c. Pareto chart. d. flowchart.
C Pareto charts are bar graphs that show causes contributing to a problem in descending order so the leading cause is easily recognized.
The crisis communication officer may first inform the public or health care facility of a disaster or an act of terrorism. This representative has the responsibility to: a. contain the facts to within the administration group. b. incite the public to quickly take cover and obtain emergency supplies. c. provide understandable and straightforward facts about the event within the facility and possibly to the news media. d. inform the public that no information can be released until it has been confirmed by state and federal agencies.
C The crisis communication officer is the first contact for patients, families, and employees within the facility or news media, so they may better understand the situation and know how to react and protect themselves.
A patient is ordered a low-protein, low-calorie diet but the patient's family brings fish, lentils, and unleavened bread for a meal to observe a cultural practice. The nurse works with the dietitian to adjust the next few meals to accommodate for this variance. This situation would represent: a. a sentinel event. b. an adverse event. c. patient-centered care. d. the communication technique of "call-out."
C The nurse and dietitian are respecting patient values, preferences, and expressed needs.
A client states, "I am leaving. No one here knows what they are doing." The nurse completing the Against Medical Advice form must: a. defer notifying the provider until the client has had ample time to leave. b. state in medical terms the risks of leaving. c. inform the client that leaving could result in complications and impairment. d. detain the person with the use of soft restraints until security arrives.
C The nurse must articulate to the client the dangers associated with leaving the facility if the primary provider is not present. The nurse's notes on this form should reflect the specific advice given to the client, which should include the fact that leaving the facility could aggravate the current condition and complicate future care, result in permanent physical or mental impairment or disability, or result in complications that can cause death.
In attempting to decide which services should be offered to a community, the public health nurse decides to implement hypertension screening and treatment because most of the residents are hypertensive. This decision is based on the principle of: a. veracity. b. values. c. utilitarianism. d. autonomy.
C Utilitarianism is an approach that is rooted in the assumption that an action or practice is right if it leads to the greatest possible balance of good consequences or to the least possible balance of bad consequences. On the basis of this principle, an attempt is made to determine which actions will lead to the greatest ratio of benefit to harm for all persons involved in the situation.
An organization's emergency preparedness task force meets to discuss how it should react in case of a terrorist attack and develops a disaster evacuation plan that details how each department will assist individuals in reaching safety. This type of diagram is referred to as a: a. Pareto chart. b. control chart. c. top-down flowchart. d. deployment chart.
D A deployment flowchart would show the detailed steps involved in the process and the people or departments that are to be involved at each step to assist individuals in reaching safety.
During the night, a patient fell in the bathroom and sustained a hip injury. The patient was very upset because of being unable to attend a granddaughter's wedding in 2 days. The team looked at the process and determined that the patient had been medicated with a narcotic, had urinary urgency so had not taken the time to put on shoes, failed to turn on the light because the door to the hall let in some light, and stumbled over a towel that had been placed to collect water leaks caused by construction that was in progress to replace damaged sinks. Which factor was a special cause variation?
D A special cause variation is an uncommon variation that is unstable and unpredictable, is not under statistical control, and is related to a clearly identified single source, which in this scenario is the construction project.
When can a nurse detain a client by using restraints? a. Staffing resources are insufficient to monitor a patient with hemiplegia. b. The client is confused. c. The family requests the restraints to prevent the client from leaving the facility. d. There are current physician orders following a medical evaluation.
D A written physician's order that is timed and dated is required for the use of restraints. Renewal of orders must be accompanied by evidence of medical evaluation and nursing reassessment.
A client and her husband used in vitro fertilization to become pregnant. The unused sperm was frozen so the couple could have more children later. The husband is killed while in combat, and the client journals her choices and the possible ramifications. She comes to the fertility clinic after looking at the situation from many perspectives and after considering many alternatives. She asks that the sperm be destroyed because her husband's faith prohibited remarrying, and allowing another person to use the sperm would conflict with her late husband's beliefs. The nurse realizes that: a. the client is in the second step of ethical decision making and that the client's value system is influencing her choices of alternative actions. b. a logical line of reasoning has led to validation of the decision to destroy the husband's sperm. c. the client has not been able to navigate the complicated issues inherent in this situation. d. a rational decision was reached that was based on reflection and on the value systems of the wife and the husband.
D After completing all steps in the situation assessment procedure, the client is now ready to justify her selection. In this phase, the person will specify reasons for the action, will clearly present the ethical basis for these reasons, will understand the shortcomings of the justification, and will anticipate objections to the justification.
Nurses caring for the victims of a mass casualty incident: a. determine the common terminology to be used by hospitals and participating agencies. b. take charge of communicating with the news media. c. determine whether there is a credible threat of a terrorist attack. d. give priority for care to those with the greatest chance of survival rather than those most critically ill.
D Care is shifted from categorizing patients at low, intermediate, and critical risk to using resources to serve those with the greatest likelihood of survival.
A nurse who functions in the role of team leader can be held negligent for matters involving: a. inadequate training. b. lack of development of proper policies and procedures. c. failure to discipline unsafe workers. d. delegation of client care tasks.
D Delegation of client care tasks falls within the role of the team leader, and inappropriate delegation of client care tasks could result in negligence. Team leaders, charge nurses, and managers are held to the standard of care of the reasonably prudent nurse employed in that role.
Which of the following statements concerning the Institute of Medicine (IOM) competencies is correct? a. Each competency is mutually exclusive. b. The competencies focus on individual efforts to reduce errors. c. Physicians lead the team to achieve each competency. d. The competencies address both individual and system approaches to transform care.
D Errors and increased health care costs result from both the actions of health care workers and the nature of the system in which they deliver care.
A group of nurses is presenting the importance of high-quality care during a system- wide meeting of medical-surgical nurses. They point out a finding of the Quality Chasm that: a. being insured has little effect on a person's longevity and the quality of care received. b. lobbyists for the drug companies are able to gain permission for the use of new drugs within 1 year of their discovery. c. although a greater number of lawsuits stem from medication errors, more people actually die from human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and acquired immunodeficiency disease syndrome (AIDS). d. medication-related errors place a tremendous financial burden on the U.S. health care system.
D Medication-related errors for hospitalized patients cost roughly $2 billion annually.
The physician who insists on providing treatment in spite of the client's wishes because he "knows best" is reflecting: a. autonomy. b. beneficence. c. justice. d. paternalism.
D Paternalism is an action and an attitude wherein the provider tries to act on behalf of the client and believes that his or her actions are justified because of a commitment to act in the best interest of the client. Paternalism is a reflection of the "father knows best" way of thinking.
A nurse who is conducting a staff in-service on the phases of a disaster continuum teaches participants that, during the impact/response stage, activities focus on: a. community awareness in anticipation of a terrorist attack or natural disaster. b. determining the effectiveness of the disaster medical assistance team (DMAT). c. the use of an all-hazards approach. d. initiating response activities.
D Response activities during the relief response phase consist of immediate actions to save lives and meet basic human needs.
A nurse is caring for a client who just suffered a stroke and is medicated for pain. The nurse completes the following interventions: places the client on the examining table, completes a thorough history and physical, covers the client with a sheet, places the call button within reach, and goes out in the hall to speak with the client's physician. The client tries to get up to speak with his family and falls, sustaining a hematoma on the head and a broken hip. The nurse's actions reflect: a. invasion of privacy. b. libel. c. slander. d. negligence.
D The nurse is failing to ensure client safety after medication administration; this is defined as negligence.
