Unit 2
11) A child diagnosed with a mild traumatic brain injury is being sedated with a mild sedative so that pain and anxiety are minimized. Which nursing interventions are appropriate for this child? Select all that apply. 1. Place a continuous-pulse oximetry monitor on the child. 2. Place the child in a room near the nurse's station. 3. Allow for several visitors to remain at the child's bedside. 4. Use soft restraints if the child becomes confused. 5. Use sedation around the clock to decrease agitation.
Answer: 1, 2 Explanation: 1. When a child is sedated, respiratory status should be monitored with a pulse-oximetry machine. The child should be close to the nurse's station so that frequent monitoring can be done. Several visitors at the bedside would increase the child's anxiety. Soft restraints may increase agitation. Sedation around the clock is not recommended due to the need to evaluate the neurologic system.
16) The nurse educator is teaching a group of nursing students how to perform a respiratory assessment for a newborn in the newborn intensive care unit (NICU) diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Which normal characteristics of the newborn's respiratory system increase the risk for obstruction? Select all that apply. 1. Shorter and narrower airway 2. Higher trachea 3. Bronchial branching at different angles 4. Inadequate smooth muscle bundles 5. Diaphragmatic breather
Answer: 1, 2, 3 Explanation: 1. Normal characteristics of the pediatric respiratory system that increase the risk for obstruction include a shorter and narrower airway, a higher trachea, and a different angle for bronchial branching. Inadequate smooth muscle bundles and being diaphragmatic breathers are characteristics that do not increase the risk of obstruction.
15) The nurse is providing care to an infant who is diagnosed with bronchiolitis. Which breath sounds indicate the infant is experiencing respiratory distress? Select all that apply. 1. Tachypnea 2. Wheezing 3. Grunting 4. Retractions 5. Eupnea
Answer: 1, 2, 3 Explanation: 1. Wheezing and grunting are adventitious respiratory sounds that indicate respiratory distress in the neonate. Tachypnea is the term used to indicate a respiratory rate of greater than 60 breaths per minute in an infant. While this does indicate respiratory distress, tachypnea is not a type of breath sound. Retractions, or the use of accessory muscles, are indicative of respiratory distress in the neonate, but this is not a type of breath sound. Eupnea is the medical term for "normal breathing."
17) The nurse is conducting a nutritional assessment for a toddler client who is diagnosed with failure to thrive (FTT). Which parameters will the nurse include in the assessment process for this toddler and family? Select all that apply. 1. Height 2. Weight 3. Hemoglobin and hematocrit 4. Twenty-four-hour food diary 5. Maternal dietary intake during pregnancy
Answer: 1, 2, 3, 4 Explanation: 1. In order to adequately assess the toddler client's FTT, the nurse would plan to measure height and weight; obtain a hemoglobin and hematocrit; and ask the family for a 24-hour food diary. Information regarding maternal dietary intake during pregnancy is not information that is necessary to assess for a toddler diagnosed with FTT.
19) The nurse is performing an admission assessment on an infant diagnosed with hydrocephalus and a malfunctioning shunt. Which assessment findings should the nurse expect? Select all that apply. 1. Vomiting 2. Fever 3. Irritability 4. Poor appetite 5. Decreased level of consciousness
Answer: 1, 2, 3, 4 Explanation: 1. Signs of shunt malfunction in infants are nonspecific and include irritability, vomiting, poor appetite, disordered sleep, and fever. Older children with shunt malfunction may have a headache, nausea, vomiting, and decreased level of consciousness.
19) The nurse is assessing a school-age client who experienced blunt force trauma to the chest when an airbag deployed following a motor vehicle crash. Which areas of assessment are essential for this client? Select all that apply. 1. Monitor responsiveness and behavior. 2. Monitor SpO2. 3. Auscultate the lungs for crackles, wheezes, decreased breath sounds. 4. Document input and output. 5. Note changes in voice quality or coughing.
Answer: 1, 2, 3, 4 Explanation: 1. The areas of assessment that are essential for this client include: monitoring for responsive and behavior in order to detect hypoxia and the potential for airway obstruction; monitoring SpO2 frequently to identify changes indicating deterioration in condition; auscultating the lungs for crackles, wheezes, decreased breath sound; and noting changes in voice quality or coughing. Documenting input and output is not a priority for this client.
15) Parents of a child who will begin enteral feedings ask the nurse what advantage this type of feeding has over other methods. Which responses by the nurse are the most appropriate? Select all that apply. 1. "Enteral feeding is the closest to natural feeding methods." 2. "The child must be able to absorb nutrients." 3. "Enteral feeding is complex to administer." 4. "Enteral feeding requires a central venous catheter." 5. "Enteral feeding has a high success rate."
Answer: 1, 2, 5 Explanation: 1. Enteral feedings are the closest to natural feeding methods. The child must be able to absorb nutrients. Enteral feeding has a high success rate. It is not complex to administer, and does not require a central venous catheter.
17) The nurse educator is describing the pediatric differences associated with the anatomy and physiology of the neurologic system to a group of nursing students. Which statements made by the class indicate appropriate understanding of this topic after the teaching session? Select all that apply. 1. The bones of the cranium are connected by connective tissue to allow for brain growth. 2. The spine of infants is excessively mobile due to immature neck muscles and incompletely developed vertebral bodies. 3. Maturation of the nerves continues until age 10. 4. Myelination is complete at birth, 5. Myelination proceeds in a cephalocaudal direction.
Answer: 1, 2, 5 Explanation: 1. There are several pediatric differences associated with the anatomy and physiology of the neurological system and include: the bones of the cranium are connected by connective tissue to allow for brain growth; the spine of infants is excessively mobile due to immature neck muscles and incompletely developed vertebral bodies; and myelination proceeds in a cephalocaudal direction. Maturation of the nerves continues until the age of 4, not 10. Myelination is incomplete at birth.
17) The nurse educator is preparing an in-service on the basic functions of the gastrointestinal (GI) system. Which statements will the nurse educator include in the in-service? Select all that apply. 1. "The GI system is responsible for the ingestion of fluids and nutrients." 2. "The GI system is responsible for the excretion of fluids and nutrients." 3. "The GI system is responsible for the metabolism of nutrients." 4. "As infants grow, their stomach capacity increases, decreasing the frequency with which they need to be fed." 5. "By the second year of life, digestive processes are still developing."
Answer: 1, 3, 4 Explanation: 1. The GI system is responsible for the ingestion of fluids and nutrients as well as the metabolism of nutrients. As infants grow, their stomach capacity increases, which does decrease the frequency with which they need to be fed. The GI system is responsible for the excretion of waste products. By the second year of life, digestive processes are fairly complete.
7) An infant with tetralogy of Fallot is having a hypercyanotic episode ("tet" spell). Which nursing interventions are appropriate for the nurse to implement for this infant? Select all that apply. 1. Place the child in knee-chest position. 2. Draw blood for a serum hemoglobin. 3. Administer oxygen. 4. Administer morphine and propranolol intravenously as ordered. 5. Administer Benadryl as ordered.
Answer: 1, 3, 4 Explanation: 1. When an infant with tetralogy of Fallot has a hypercyanotic episode, interventions should be geared toward decreasing the pulmonary vascular resistance. Therefore, the nurse would place the infant in knee-chest position (to decrease venous blood return from the lower extremities), and administer oxygen, morphine, and propranolol (to decrease the pulmonary vascular resistance). The nurse would not draw blood until the episode had subsided, because unpleasant procedures are postponed. Benadryl is not appropriate for this child.
19) The family has just been informed by the healthcare provider that their newborn is diagnosed with a congenital heart defect, Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF). The family tells the nurse that the healthcare provider told them that TOF is comprised of several defects, and they ask the nurse what the defects are. What will the nurse tell the family? Select all that apply. 1. Pulmonary stenosis 2. Coarctation of the aorta 3. Right ventricular hypertrophy 4. Ventral septal defect 5. Overriding aorta
Answer: 1, 3, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. Four defects are involved with TOF include: pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, ventral septal defect, and overriding aorta.
17) The nurse is providing care to a school-age client admitted to the emergency department following a motor vehicle crash. The client is exhibiting symptoms of hypovolemic shock. Which nursing interventions are appropriate for this client? Select all that apply. 1. Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit. 2. Monitor liver enzymes. 3. Administer oxygen, as needed. 4. Administer a dextrose solution. 5. Monitor blood glucose.
Answer: 1, 3, 5 Explanation: 1. Nursing care for a client experiencing hypovolemic shock is aimed at monitoring the child's condition and response to clinical therapy. It is appropriate for the nurse to monitor hemoglobin, hematocrit, and blood glucose. The nurse will also administer oxygen. The nurse will administer large volumes of crystalloid fluids (normal saline or lactated Ringer's), not dextrose. It is not necessary to monitor liver enzymes for this client.
7) The parents of a toddler are concerned about their child's finicky eating habits. While counseling the parents, which statements by the nurse are the most appropriate? Select all that apply. 1. "The child is experiencing physiologic anorexia, which is normal for this age group." 2. "A general guideline for food quantity at a meal is one-quarter cup of each food per year of age." 3. "It is more appropriate to assess a toddler's nutritional demands over a 1-week period rather than a 24-hour one." 4. "Nutritious foods should be made available at all times of the day so that she is able to 'graze' whenever she is hungry." 5. "The toddler should drink 16 to 24 ounces of milk daily."
Answer: 1, 3, 5 Explanation: 1. Physiologic anorexia is caused when the extremely high metabolic demands of infancy slow to keep pace with the slower growth of toddlerhood, and it is a very normal finding at this age. It is not unusual for toddlers to have food jags during which they only want one or two food items for that day. So it is more helpful to look at what their intake has been over a week instead of a day. Two to three cups of milk per day are sufficient for a toddler, and more than that can decrease the child's desire for other foods and lead to dietary deficiencies. The correct general guideline for food quantity is one tablespoon of each food per year of age. Food should only be offered at meal and snack times, and children should sit at the table while eating to encourage their socialization skills.
5) A nurse is talking to the mother of an exclusively breastfed African American 3-month-old infant who was born in late fall. Which supplement will the nurse recommend for this infant? 1. Iron 2. Vitamin D 3. Fluoride 4. Calcium
Answer: 2 Explanation: 1. An infant's iron stores are usually adequate until about 4 to 6 months of age. The infant should be receiving sufficient amounts of calcium from breast milk, and fluoride supplementation, if needed, does not begin until the child is approximately 6 months old. This infant will have limited exposure to sunlight and thus vitamin D because of the infant's dark skin and decreased sun exposure in the fall and winter months.
8) A newborn is diagnosed with Hirschsprung disease. Which clinical manifestations found on assessment support this newborn's diagnosis? 1. Acute diarrhea; dehydration 2. Failure to pass meconium; abdominal distension 3. Currant jelly; gelatinous stools; pain 4. Projectile vomiting; altered electrolytes
Answer: 2 Explanation: 1. Hirschsprung disease is the absence of autonomic parasympathetic ganglion cells in the colon that prevent peristalsis at that portion of the intestine. In newborns, the symptoms include failure to pass meconium and abdominal distension. Acute diarrhea and dehydration are symptoms characteristic of gastroenteritis. Currant jelly, gelatinous stools, and pain are symptoms of intussusception, and projectile vomiting and altered electrolytes are symptoms of pyloric stenosis.
13) A school-age client experiences a near-drowning episode and is admitted to the pediatric intensive-care unit (PICU). The parents express guilt over the near drowning of their child. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? 1. "You will need to watch the child more closely." 2. "Tell me more about your feelings related to the accident." 3. "The child will be fine, so don't worry." 4. "Why did you let the child almost drown?"
Answer: 2 Explanation: 1. In near-drowning cases, the nurse should be nonjudgmental and provide a forum for parents to express guilt. Telling the parents to watch the child more closely or asking them why they let the child almost drown is judgmental. Saying the child will be fine may not be true. The nurse should reassure the parents that the child is receiving all possible medical treatment.
8) The nurse is providing nutritional guidance to the parents of a toddler. Which comment by the parent would prompt the nurse to provide additional education? 1. "I should not give my child raw oysters." 2. "It is safe to leave my meat red in the center as long as there are no juices running." 3. "We always wash our hands well before any food preparation." 4. "We use separate utensils for preparing raw meat and preparing fruits, vegetables, and other foods."
Answer: 2 Explanation: 1. Meats should be cooked thoroughly before eating. Meat that is red in the center, with or without running juices, is insufficiently cooked and increases the risk of food-borne illness. Washing hands and using separate utensils help to prevent infection with food-borne pathogens. Raw oysters should be avoided.
6) The nurse is teaching the parents of a group of cardiac patients. Which teaching guideline will the nurse include for any child who has undergone cardiac surgery? 1. The child should be restricted from most play activities. 2. The child should be evaluated to determine if prophylactic antibiotics for dental, oral, or upper-respiratory-tract procedures are necessary. 3. The child should not receive routine immunizations. 4. The child can be expected to have a fever for several weeks following the surgery.
Answer: 2 Explanation: 1. Parents should be taught that the child may need prophylactic antibiotics for some dental procedures, according to the American Heart Association, to prevent endocarditis. The child should live a normal and active life following repair of a cardiac defect. Immunizations should be provided according to the schedule, and any unexplained fever should be reported.
7) A child is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. The child's oximetry reading is 88 percent upon admission to the pediatric floor. Which is the priority nursing intervention for this child? 1. Obtain a blood sample to send to the lab for electrolyte analysis. 2. Begin oxygen per nasal cannula. 3. Medicate for pain. 4. Begin administration of intravenous fluids.
Answer: 2 Explanation: 1. Pulse oximetry reading should be 92 or greater. Oxygen by nasal cannula should be started initially. Medicating for pain, administering IV fluids, and sending lab specimens can be done once the child's oxygenation status has been addressed.
18) The nurse is providing care to an infant in the emergency department. Upon assessment, the infant is noted to have to be experiencing tachypnea, wheezing, retractions, and nasal flaring. The infant is irritability and the parents state the infant has had poor fluid intake for two days. Pulse ox reading is currently at 85 percent on room air. The infant's blood gas is pending. Which diagnosis does the nurse anticipate for this infant? 1. Bronchitis 2. Bronchiolitis 3. Pneumonia 4. Active pulmonary tuberculosis
Answer: 2 Explanation: 1. The nurse anticipates the infant will be diagnosed with bronchiolitis. Symptoms of bronchiolitis include mild respiratory symptoms that progress to tachypnea, wheezing, retractions, nasal flaring, irritability, poor fluid intake, hypoxia, cyanosis, and decreased mental status. Symptoms of bronchitis include a dry hacking cough, increases in severity at night, painful chest and ribs. Symptoms of pneumonia include initial rhinitis and cough, followed by fever, crackles, wheezes, dyspnea, tachypnea, restlessness, diminished breath sounds. Symptoms of active pulmonary tuberculosis include persistent cough, decreased appetite, weight loss or failure to gain weight, low-grade fever, night sweats, chills, enlarged lymph nodes.
5) The nurse is caring for a pediatric client in Bryant skin traction. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client? 1. Remove the adhesive traction straps daily to prevent skin breakdown. 2. Check the traction frequently to ensure that proper alignment is maintained. 3. Place the child in a prone position to maintain good alignment. 4. Move the child as infrequently as possible to maintain traction.
Answer: 2 Explanation: 1. The traction apparatus should be checked frequently to ensure that proper alignment is maintained. The adhesive straps should not be removed. The child should be placed in a supine position, and frequent repositioning is necessary to prevent complications of immobility.
16) A child is ready for discharge after surgery for a myelomeningocele repair. Before discharge, the nurse works with the parents to establish a catheterization schedule to prevent urinary tract infection. With what frequency should the nurse instruct the parents to catheterize the child? 1. Every 1 to 2 hours 2. Every 3 to 4 hours 3. Every 6 to 8 hours 4. Every 10 to 12 hours
Answer: 2 Explanation: 1. To decrease the incidence of bladder or urinary tract infections, catheterization should occur every 3 to 4 hours.
16) The nurse is providing care to an adolescent child who is at risk for developing adult-onset cardiovascular disease. Which teaching points will decrease the adolescent's risk? Select all that apply. 1. Encourage a decrease in smoking. 2. Limit fat intake to 20 to 35 percent of intake. 3. Encourage participation in vigorous exercise for at least 30 minutes. 4. Maintain a normal weight. 5. Include high-fat dairy products in the daily diet.
Answer: 2, 3, 4 Explanation: 1. Teaching points that will decrease the adolescent's risk of developing adult-onset cardiovascular disease include: limiting fat intake to 20 to 35 percent of total daily intake; encouraging the participation in vigorous exercise at least 30 minutes each day; and maintaining a normal weight. The adolescent and family members should be encouraged to stop smoking, not just to decrease smoking. The family should be educated to include low-fat dairy products in the daily diet.
18) The child and family come to the clinic requesting information about causes of cardiac defects. The father has high incidence of cardiac defects in his family, and the child is frequently cyanotic around the lips. What causes should the nurse tell the family about? Select all that apply. 1. Decreased maternal age 2. Chromosomal abnormalities 3. Fetal exposure to maternal drugs 4. Maternal viral infections 5. Maternal metabolic disorders
Answer: 2, 3, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. Cardiac defects may result from fetal exposure to maternal drugs, increased maternal age, chromosomal abnormalities, maternal viral infections, maternal metabolic disorders, and multifactorial genetic factors.
15) The nurse is preparing to discharge an infant with a congenital heart defect. The infant will be cared for at home by the parents until surgery. Which items will the nurse include in the discharge teaching for this infant and family? Select all that apply. 1. Allow the infant to feed for 60 minutes. 2. Hold the infant at a 45-degree angle. 3. Encourage frequent hand hygiene. 4. Notify the health care provider for fever. 5. Pump the breasts and feed with a bottle if weight gain is an issue.
Answer: 2, 3, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. Children are often managed at home until surgery. The parents should hold the infant at a 45-degree angle to decrease tachypnea. The parents should also encourage frequent hand hygiene to decrease the risk of infection. It is important to notify the health care provider for a fever, as the infant will be at risk for dehydration and digoxin toxicity. If the mother is breastfeeding and the infant is losing weight, the mother should be encouraged to pump the milk and feed the infant from a bottle, but each feeding should be limited to 30 minutes. Tube feedings may be needed for this infant to conserve calories expenditure.
14) A nurse is assessing a child after an open reduction of a fractured femur. Which assessment findings would indicate that the child is experiencing compartment syndrome? Select all that apply. 1. Pink, warm extremity 2. Pain not relieved by pain medication 3. Dorsalis pedis pulse present 4. Prolonged capillary-refill time with paresthesia 5. Skin appears tense.
Answer: 2, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. The major serious complication post-fracture reduction is compartment syndrome. A prolonged capillary-refill time with loss of paresthesia, pain not relieved by medication, and skin that appears tense are signs of compartment syndrome. Pink, warm extremity; pain relieved by medication; and a present dorsalis pedis pulse would all be normal findings post-fracture reduction.
9) Which athletic activity can the nurse recommend for a school-age client with pulmonary-artery hypertension? 1. Cross-country running 2. Soccer 3. Golf 4. Basketball
Answer: 3 Explanation: 1. A child with pulmonary-artery hypertension should have exercise tailored to avoid dyspnea. Golf would require less exertion than soccer, basketball, or cross-country running.
7) A child with myelomeningocele, corrected at birth, is now 5 years old. Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for a child with corrected spina bifida at this age? 1. Risk for Altered Nutrition 2. Risk for Impaired Tissue Perfusion-Cranial 3. Risk for Altered Urinary Elimination 4. Risk for Altered Comfort
Answer: 3 Explanation: 1. A child with spina bifida will continue to have a risk for altered urinary elimination because the bowel and bladder sphincter controls are affected. Urinary retention is a problem, so bladder interventions are initiated early to prevent kidney damage. Risk for Altered Nutrition, Impaired Tissue Perfusion, and Altered Comfort are not problems once surgery has been performed to close the defect.
10) The nurse is instructing a parent of a newborn on the foods that are to be started based on age. The nurse instructs the parent that the first food given to a newborn is rice cereal. What statement by the parent suggests appropriate understanding of the next food that can be introduced? 1. "Chicken can be given next." 2. "Eggs can be given next." 3. "Fruits should be given next." 4. "Whole milk should be started."
Answer: 3 Explanation: 1. Chicken is not given until 8 to 10 months, eggs are not given until 12 months, whole milk is given at 12 months. Fruits are given after rice cereal.
1) The nurse is planning postoperative care for an infant after a cleft-lip repair. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this infant? 1. Prone positioning 2. Suctioning with a Yankauer device 3. Supine or side-lying positioning 4. Avoidance of soft elbow restraints
Answer: 3 Explanation: 1. Integrity of the suture line is essential for postoperative care of cleft-lip repair. The infant should be placed in a supine or side-lying position to avoid rubbing the suture line on the bedding. The prone position should be avoided. A Yankauer suction device is made of hard plastic and, if used, could cause trauma to the suture line. Suctioning should be done with a small, soft suction catheter. Soft elbow restraints may be used to prevent the infant from touching the incisional area.
13) Parents of a child admitted with respiratory distress are concerned because the child won't lie down and wants to sit in a chair leaning forward. Which response by the nurse is the most appropriate? 1. "This helps the child feel in control of his situation." 2. "The child needs to be encouraged to lie flat in bed." 3. "This position helps keep the airway open." 4. "This confirms the child has asthma."
Answer: 3 Explanation: 1. Leaning forward helps keep the airway open. The child is not in control just because he is leaning forward. Lying flat in bed will increase the respiratory distress. This position does not confirm asthma.
5) The nurse is providing instruction to the parents of an infant with a colostomy. Which statement by the parents indicates appropriate understanding of the teaching session? 1. "We will change the colostomy bag with each wet diaper." 2. "We will use adhesive enhancers when we change the bag." 3. "We will watch for skin irritation around the stoma." 4. "We will expect a moderate amount of bleeding after cleansing the area around the stoma."
Answer: 3 Explanation: 1. Skin irritation around the stoma should be assessed; it may indicate leakage. Physical or chemical skin irritation may occur if the appliance is changed too frequently or with each wet diaper. Adhesive enhancers should be avoided on the skin of newborns. Their skin layers are thin, and removal of the appliance can strip off the skin. Also, adhesive contains latex, and its constant use is not advised due to risk of latex allergy development. Bleeding is usually attributable to excessive cleaning.
2) A child has been admitted to the hospital unit in congestive heart failure (CHF). Which symptom would the nurse anticipate upon assessment of the child? 1. Weight loss 2. Bradycardia 3. Tachycardia 4. Increased blood pressure
Answer: 3 Explanation: 1. Tachycardia is a sign of congestive heart failure because the heart attempts to improve cardiac output by beating faster. Bradycardia is a serious sign and can indicate impending cardiac arrest. Blood pressure does not increase in CHF, and the weight, instead of decreasing, increases because of retention of fluids.
4) The nurse is teaching family members how to care for their infant in a Pavlik harness to treat congenital developmental dysplasia of the hip. Which statement will the nurse include in the teaching session? 1. "Apply lotion or powder to minimize skin irritation." 2. "Put clothing over the harness for maximum effectiveness of the device." 3. "Check at least 2 or 3 times a day for red areas under the straps." 4. "Place a diaper over the harness, preferably using a thin, superabsorbent, disposable diaper."
Answer: 3 Explanation: 1. The brace should be checked 2 or 3 times for red areas under the straps. Lotion or powder can contribute to skin breakdown. A light layer of clothing should be under the brace, not over. The diaper should also be under the brace.
6) Which nursing intervention is most appropriate when caring for an infant with a myelomeningocele in the preoperative stage? 1. Placing infant supine to decrease pressure on the sac 2. Appling a heat lamp to facilitate drying and toughening of the sac 3. Measuring head circumference every shift to identify developing hydrocephalus 4. Appling a diaper to prevent contamination of the sac
Answer: 3 Explanation: 1. The infant should be monitored for developing hydrocephalus, so the head circumference should be monitored daily. The infant will be placed prone, not supine, and the defect will be protected from trauma or infection. Therefore, applying heat and a diaper around the defect would not be recommended. A sterile saline dressing may be used to cover the sac to maintain integrity.
4) The mother of a toddler is concerned because her child does not seem interested in eating. The child is drinking 5 to 6 cups of whole milk per day and one cup of fruit juice. When the weight-to-height percentile is calculated, the child is in the 90th to 95th percentile. What is the best advice the nurse can provide to the mother? 1. Eliminate the fruit juice from the child's diet. 2. Offer healthy snacks, presented in a creative manner, and let the child choose what he wants to eat without pressure from the parents. 3. Change from whole milk to 2 percent milk and decrease milk consumption to three to four cups per day and the fruit juice to a half cup per day, offering water if the child is still thirsty in between. 4. Make sure that the child is getting adequate opportunities for exercise, as this will increase his appetite and help lower the child's weight-to-height percentile.
Answer: 3 Explanation: 1. Toddlers require a maximum of about 1 L of milk per day. This toddler is consuming most of his or her calories from the milk and thus is not hungry. The high fat content of the milk and the high sugar content of the fruit juice are also contributing to the child's higher weight-to-height percentile. Decreasing the amount and fat content of the milk and decreasing the intake of fruit juice will decrease calories and thus make the child hungry for other foods. The other advice is also appropriate but did not address the problem of excessive milk consumption.
5) A nurse is conducting a postoperative assessment on an infant who has just had a ventriculoperitoneal shunt placed for hydrocephalus. Which assessment finding would indicate a malfunction in the shunt? 1. Incisional pain 2. Movement of all extremities 3. Negative Brudzinski sign 4. Bulging fontanel
Answer: 4 Explanation: 1. A bulging fontanel would be an abnormal finding and could indicate that the shunt is malfunctioning. Incisional pain, movement of all extremities, and negative Brudzinski sign are all normal findings after a ventriculoperitoneal shunt has been placed.
3) A toddler is started on digoxin (Lanoxin) for cardiac failure. Which is the initial symptom the nurse would assess if the child develops digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity? 1. Lowered blood pressure 2. Tinnitus 3. Ataxia 4. A change in heart rhythm
Answer: 4 Explanation: 1. An early sign of digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity is a change in heart rhythm. Digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity does not cause lowered blood pressure, tinnitus (ringing in the ears), or ataxia (unsteady gait).
3) The nurse is evaluating an infant's tolerance of feedings after a pyloromyotomy. Which finding indicates that the infant is not tolerating the feeding? 1. Need for frequent burping 2. Irritability during feeding 3. The passing of gas 4. Emesis after two feedings
Answer: 4 Explanation: 1. An infant is not tolerating feedings after a pyloromyotomy if emesis is present. Frequent burping, irritability, and the passing of gas would be expected findings following a pyloromyotomy and would indicate tolerance of the feeding.
11) The mother of an infant born prematurely at 32 weeks expresses the desire to breastfeed her child. The nurse correctly responds with which statement when the mother asks how long she should breastfeed her baby? 1. "Until the child begins solid foods." 2. "Many breastfeed for 2 years." 3. "It is recommended that mothers of preterm infants breastfeed at least a month." 4. "Breast milk should be the only food for the first 6 months."
Answer: 4 Explanation: 1. Breast milk should be the only food for the first 6 months, and should continue until 12 months even after solid foods are introduced.
13) The nurse finds that an infant has stronger pulses in the upper extremities than in the lower extremities, and higher blood pressure readings in the arms than in the legs. Which assessment will the nurse perform next on this infant? 1. Pedal pulses 2. Pulse oximetry level 3. Hemoglobin and hematocrit values 4. Blood pressure of the four extremities
Answer: 4 Explanation: 1. Coarctation of the aorta can present with stronger pulses in the upper extremities than in the lower extremities and higher blood pressure readings in the arms than in the legs because of obstruction of circulation to the lower extremities. Blood pressure values of the four limbs should be the next assessment data collected. Pedal pulses, pulse oximetry, and labs themselves will not provide the data needed.
5) A nurse is assessing a neonate. Which assessment finding indicates that the neonate's respiratory status is worsening? 1. Acrocyanosis 2. Arterial CO2 of 40 3. Periorbital edema 4. Grunting respirations with nasal flaring
Answer: 4 Explanation: 1. Grunting respirations with nasal flaring indicates respiratory status is becoming worse. Acrocyanosis (cyanosis of the extremities) is a normal finding in a neonate. CO2 of 40 is within a normal range. Periorbital edema does not necessarily mean deterioration in respiratory status.
2) A nurse delegates the task of neonatal vital-sign assessment to a nurse technician. Which instruction will the nurse give to the technician prior to assign care? 1. Report any neonate using abdominal muscles to breathe. 2. Report any neonate with apnea for 10 seconds. 3. Count respirations for 15 seconds and multiply by 4 to get the rate for 1 minute. 4. Report any neonate with a breathing pause that lasts 20 seconds or longer.
Answer: 4 Explanation: 1. The abnormal assessment finding for vital signs that the nurse should instruct a nurse technician to report is any breathing pause by a neonate lasting longer than 20 seconds. This can indicate apnea and could lead to an apparent life-threatening event (ALTE). A breathing pause of 10 seconds or less is called periodic breathing and is a normal pattern for a neonate. Respirations should be counted for 1 minute, not 15 seconds. It is normal for neonates to use abdominal muscles for breathing.
15) A school-age client is recovering after abdominal surgery. The nurse is planning care for the return of bowel function. Which intervention should be included in the client's plan of care? 1. Fowler's position 3 times per day for 30 minutes each time 2. Assist the child in choosing a low-fat diet. 3. Commode at bedside 4. Ambulate 3 to 4 times a day.
Answer: 4 Explanation: 1. The best data that indicate return of bowel sounds are flatus and passage of stool. Ambulation is the primary intervention to assist with both. A Fowler's position, bedside commode, and a low-fat diet will not assist with bowel function.
4) The nurse is checking peripheral perfusion to a child's extremity following a cardiac catheterization. Which assessment finding indicates adequate peripheral circulation to the affected extremity? 1. A capillary refill of greater than three seconds 2. A palpable dorsalis pedis pulse but a weak posterior tibial pulse 3. A decrease in sensation with a weakened dorsalis pedis pulse 4. A capillary refill of less than three seconds with palpable warmth
Answer: 4 Explanation: 1. The nurse checks the extremity to determine adequacy of circulation following a cardiac catheterization. An extremity that is warm with capillary refill of less than three seconds has adequate circulation. Other indicators of adequate circulation include palpable pedal (dorsalis and posterior tibial) pulses, adequate sensation, and pinkness of skin color. If the capillary refill is over three seconds; if any of the pedal pulses are absent and/or weakened; or if the extremity is cool, cyanotic, or lacking sensation, circulation may not be adequate.
12) A child with asthma will be receiving an oral dose of prednisone. The order reads prednisone 2 mg/kg per day. The child weighs 50 lbs. The child will receive ________ milligrams daily. (Round the answer.) Round the answer to the nearest whole number.
Answer: 45.5 = 46 Explanation: 22.7 × 2 = 45.5 (46)
3) The nurse in the newborn nursery is performing the admission assessment on a neonate. Which assessment finding indicates the neonate may have congenital hip dysplasia? 1. Asymmetry of the gluteal and thigh fat folds 2. Trendelenburg sign 3. Telescoping of the affected limb 4. Lordosis
Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. A sign of congenital hip dysplasia in the infant would be asymmetry of the gluteal and thigh fat folds. Trendelenburg sign and telescoping of the affected limb are signs that present in an older child with congenital hip dysplasia. Lordosis does not occur with hip dysplasia.
6) Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for an infant with acute bronchiolitis due to respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)? 1. Activity Intolerance 2. Decreased Cardiac Output 3. Pain, Acute 4. Tissue Perfusion, Ineffective (peripheral)
Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Activity intolerance is a problem because of the imbalance between oxygen supply and demand. Cardiac output is not compromised during an acute phase of bronchiolitis. Pain is not usually associated with acute bronchiolitis. Tissue perfusion (peripheral) is not affected by this respiratory-disease process.
5) The nurse admits a child with a ventricular septal defect (VSD) to the unit. Which nursing diagnosis for this child is the most appropriate? 1. Impaired Gas Exchange Related to Pulmonary Congestion Secondary to the Increased Pulmonary Blood Flow 2. Deficient Fluid Volume Related to Hyperthermia Secondary to the Congenital Heart Defect 3. Acute Pain Related to the Effects of a Congenital Heart Defect 4. Hypothermia Related to Decreased Metabolic State
Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Because of the increased pulmonary congestion, Impaired Gas Exchange would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis. Ventricular septal defects do not cause pain, fever, or deficient fluid volume.
12) The nurse is performing the initial assessment of a child newly diagnosed Kawasaki disease. Which symptoms would the nurse expect to assess with this child? 1. Dry, swollen, fissured lips 2. Nonpalpable lymph nodes 3. Conjunctivitis with exudates 4. Cyanosis of the hands and feet
Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Dry, swollen, fissured lips are symptoms of Kawasaki disease. Lymph nodes can be palpable, conjunctivitis is present but without exudates, and hands and feet are typically erythematous.
2) While teaching the parents of a newborn about infant care and feeding, which instruction by the nurse is the most appropriate? 1. Delay supplemental foods until the infant is 4 to 6 months old. 2. Delay supplemental foods until the infant reaches 15 pounds or greater. 3. Begin diluted fruit juice at 2 months of age, but wait 3 to 5 days before trying a new food. 4. Add rice cereal to the nighttime feeding if the infant is having difficulty sleeping after 2 months of age.
Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Four to six months is the optimal age to begin supplemental feedings because earlier feeding of nonformula foods is not needed by the infant and does not promote sleep. Earlier feeding of nonformula foods, regardless of the infant's weight, is more likely to cause the development of food allergies. Also, early feeding is not well tolerated by infants because the necessary tongue control is not well developed and they lack the digestive enzymes to take in and metabolize many food products.
6) The nurse is teaching the parents of a 4-month-old infant about good feeding habits. The nurse emphasizes the importance of holding the baby during feeding and not letting the infant go to sleep with the bottle. Which disorder is associated with propped feedings and going to sleep with the bottle? 1. Otitis media 2. Aspiration 3. Malocclusion problems 4. Sleeping disorders
Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. It has been shown in numerous studies that allowing an infant to fall asleep with a bottle in his or her mouth causes pooling of the formula in the mouth, which increases the risk of both dental caries and otitis media. There has been limited data to date showing a positive correlation between bottle propping and increased risk of aspiration, malocclusions, and sleeping disorders.
11) The mother of a child with a heart defect is questioning the nurse about the child's diuretic. When teaching the mother about the medication, what should the emphasis from the nurse? 1. Close monitoring of output 2. The digitalization process 3. The possibility that pulses in the child might be weak 4. The child's increased appetite
Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. It is important to monitor the output of the child on a diuretic to determine effectiveness of the drug. Digitalization pulses are not associated with diuretics. The child will usually have a decreased appetite.
7) The nurse is administering several medications to an infant with neurologic impairment and delay. Which medication is a proton pump inhibitor that is administered for gastroesophageal reflux? 1. Omeprazole 2. Ranitidine 3. Phenytoin 4. Glycopyrrolate
Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Omeprazole is the proton pump inhibitor that blocks the action of acid-producing cells and is used to treat gastroesophageal reflux. Ranitidine causes the stomach to produce less acid and may be used to treat gastroesophageal reflux, but it is a histamine-2 receptor blocker. Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant used to treat seizures, and glycopyrrolate is an anticholinergic agent used to inhibit excessive salivation.
14) A 3-day-old preterm infant is diagnosed with necrotizing enterocolitis. The nurse plans care around the frequent radiographs. How frequently should the nurse anticipate that the radiology staff will bring the portable machine to the nursery? 1. Every 6 hours 2. Every 12 hours 3. Every 24 hours 4. Every 48 hours
Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Radiographs are done every 6 hours to evaluate for perforation.
11) A neonate is fed 20 mL of formula every three hours by orogastric lavage. At the beginning of this feeding, the nurse aspirates 15 mL of gastric residual. Which action by the nurse is the most appropriate? 1. Withhold the feeding and notify the healthcare provider. 2. Replace the residual and continue with the full feeding. 3. Replace the residual but only give 5 mL of the feeding. 4. Withhold the feeding and check the residual in three hours.
Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Residual of more than half the amount of feeding indicates a feeding intolerance and could be a sign of necrotizing enterocolitis. Early detection of enterocolitis is essential, and aggressive management is required. Therefore, the healthcare provider should be notified of this finding. The amount of residual is too much to replace and continue with the feeding, and waiting for 3 hours to recheck the residual could delay treatment of a serious condition.
3) During a 4-month-old's well-child check, the nurse discusses introduction of solid foods into the infant's diet and concerns for foods commonly associated with food allergies. Due to allergies, which foods will the nurse instruction the parents to avoid until after 1 year of age? 1. Strawberries, eggs, and wheat 2. Peas, tomatoes, and spinach 3. Carrots, beets, and spinach 4. Squash, pork, and tomatoes
Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Strawberries, eggs, and wheat, along with corn, fish, and nut products, are all foods that have commonly been associated with food allergies. Carrots, beets, and spinach contain nitrates and should not be given before the age of 4 months. Squash, peas, and tomatoes are acceptable to try after an infant is 4 to 6 months old but should be given one at a time and 3 to 5 days after starting a new food. Pork can be tried after the infant is 8 to 10 months old, as meats are harder to digest and have a high protein load.
14) The nurse is admitting an infant diagnosed with supraventricular tachycardia. Which intervention is the priority for this infant? 1. Apply ice to the face. 2. Perform Valsalva's maneuver. 3. Administer a beta blocker. 4. Prepare for cardioversion.
Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Supraventricular tachycardia episodes are initially treated with vagal maneuvers to slow the heart rate when the infant is stable. In stable infants, the application of ice or iced saline solution to the face can reduce the heart rate. The infant is not capable of performing Valsalva's maneuver. Calcium channel blockers, not beta blockers, are the drugs of choice. Cardioversion is used in an urgent situation, but is not typically the initial treatment.
3) A lumbar puncture is performed on an infant suspected of having meningitis. Which finding does the nurse expect in the cerebral spinal fluid if the infant has meningitis? 1. Elevated WBC count 2. Elevated RBC count 3. Normal glucose 4. Decreased WBC count
Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. The lumbar puncture is done to obtain cerebral spinal fluid (CSF). Elevated WBC count is seen with bacterial meningitis. The RBC count is not elevated, and the glucose is decreased in meningitis.
1) A child is showing signs of acute respiratory distress. Which position will the nurse place this child? 1. Upright 2. Side-lying 3. Flat 4. In semi-Fowler's
Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Upright is correct because it allows for optimal chest expansion. Side-lying, flat, and semi-Fowler's (head up slightly) do not allow for as optimal chest expansion as the upright position.
2) An infant is born with an esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula. Which preoperative nursing diagnosis is the priority for this infant? 1. Risk for Aspiration Related to Regurgitation 2. Acute Pain Related to Esophageal Defect 3. Ineffective Infant Feeding Pattern Related to Uncoordinated Suck and Swallow 4. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion: Gastrointestinal, Related to Decreased Circulation
Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. With the most common type of esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula, the upper segment of the esophagus ends in a blind pouch and a fistula connects the lower segment to the trachea. Preoperatively, there is a risk of aspiration of gastric secretions from the stomach into the trachea because of the fistula that connects the lower segment of the esophagus to the trachea. Pain is not usually experienced preoperatively with this condition. The infant is always kept NPO (nothing by mouth) preoperatively, so ineffective feeding pattern would not apply. Tissue perfusion is not a problem with this condition.
