Week 5 Hinkle Chapter 61 Prep U

A client weighing 132 lb is brought to the emergency department in status epilepticus. The physician asks the nurse to prepare diazepam 0.25 mg/kg. How many milligrams will be given to this client?

15 Explanation: Step 1: 2.2 lb / 1 kg = 132 lb / X kg 132 lb = 2.2 X 60 kg = X Step 2: 1 kg / 0.25 mg = 60 kg / X mg 15 mg = X

Which value indicates a normal intracranial pressure (ICP)? 5 mm Hg 17 mm Hg 20 mm Hg 27 mm Hg

5 mm Hg Explanation: ICP is usually measured in the lateral ventricles. Pressure measuring 0 to 10 mm Hg is considered normal. The other values are incorrect.

Which signs are manifestations of the Cushing triad? Select all that apply. Bradycardia Hypertension Bradypnea Tachycardia

Bradycardia Hypertension Bradypnea Cushing triad is manifested by bradycardia, hypertension, and bradypnea. Tachycardia is not a component of the triad.

Which is the earliest sign of increasing intracranial pressure? Vomiting Change in level of consciousness Headache Posturing

Change in level of consciousness Explanation: The earliest sign of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) is a change in level of consciousness. Other manifestations of increasing ICP are vomiting, headache, and posturing.

A client with a traumatic brain injury has already displayed early signs of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following would be considered late signs of increasing ICP? Decerebrate posturing and loss of corneal reflex Loss of gag reflex and mental confusion Complaints of headache and lack of pupillary response Mental confusion and pupillary changes

Decerebrate posturing and loss of corneal reflex Explanation: Early indications of increasing ICP include disorientation, restlessness, increased respiratory effort, mental confusion, pupillary changes, weakness on onside of the body or in one extremity, and constant, worsening headache. Later indications of increasing ICP include decreasing level of consciousness until client is comatose, decreased or erratic pulse and respiratory rate, increased blood pressure and temperature, widened pulse pressure, Cheyne-Stokes breathing, projectile vomiting, hemiplegia or decorticate or decerebrate posturing, and loss of brain stem reflexes (pupillary, corneal, gag, and swallowing).

Which posture exhibited by abnormal flexion of the upper extremities and extension of the lower extremities? Decerebrate Decorticate Flaccid Normal

Decorticate Explanation: Decorticate posturing is an abnormal posture associated with severe brain injury, characterized by abnormal flexion of the upper extremities and extension of the lower extremities. Decerebration is an abnormal body posture associated with a severe brain injury, characterized by extreme extension of the upper and lower extremities. Flaccidity occurs when the client has no motor function, is limp, and lacks motor tone.

A patient has been diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. The nurse documents the initial and most common manifestation of: Dysphoria. Facial muscle weakness. Diplopia. Generalized fatigue.

Diplopia. Explanation: The initial manifestation of MG usually involves the ocular muscles. Diplopia (double vision) and ptosis (drooping of the eyelids) are common. The majority of patients also experience weakness of the muscles of the face and throat, generalized weakness, and weakness of the facial muscles.

The nurse is completing an assessment on a client with myasthenia gravis. Which of the following historical recounting provides the most significant evidence regarding when the disorder began? Shortness of breath Sensitivity to bright light Muscle spasms Drooping eyelids

Drooping eyelids Explanation: Ptosis (eyelid drooping) is the most common manifestation of myasthenia gravis. Muscle weakness varies depending on the muscles affected. Shortness of breath and respiratory distress occurs later as the disease progresses. Muscle spasms are more likely in multiple sclerosis. Photophobia is not significant in myasthenia gravis.

A client with a brain tumor is complaining of a headache upon awakening. Which nursing action would the nurse take first? Elevate the head of the bed. Complete a head-to-toe assessment. Administer morning dose of anticonvulsant. Administer Percocet as ordered.

Elevate the head of the bed. Explanation: The first action would be to elevate the head of the bed to promote venous drainage of blood and cerebral spinal fluid (CSF). Then, a neurological assessment would be completed to determine if any other assessment findings are significant of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). The administering of routine ordered drugs is not a priority, and narcotic analgesics would be avoided in clients with ICP issues.

During assessment of a patient who has been taking dilantin for seizure management for 3 years, the nurse notices one of the side effects that should be reported. What is that side effect? Alopecia Gingival hyperplasia Diplopia Ataxia

Gingival hyperplasia Explanation: Side-effects of dilantin include visual problems, hirsutism, gingival hyperplasia, arrhythmias, dysarthria, and nystagmus.

When educating a patient about the use of antiseizure medication, what should the nurse inform the patient is a result of long-term use of the medication in women? Anemia Osteoarthritis Osteoporosis Obesity

Osteoporosis Explanation: Because of bone loss associated with the long-term use of antiseizure medications, patients receiving antiseizure agents should be assessed for low bone mass and osteoporosis. They should be instructed about strategies to reduce their risks of osteoporosis (AANN, 2009).

Which of the following drugs may be used after a seizure to maintain a seizure-free state? Valium Phenobarbital Ativan Cerebyx

Phenobarbital Explanation: IV diazepam (Valium), lorazepam (Ativan), or fosphenytoin (Cerebyx) are administered slowly in an attempt to halt seizures immediately. Other medications (phenytoin, phenobarbital) are administered later to maintain a seizure-free state. In general, a single drug is used to control the seizures.

After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, a client is likely to undergo hormone replacement therapy. A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is performed to treat which type of cancer? Esophageal carcinoma Pituitary carcinoma Laryngeal carcinoma Colorectal carcinoma

Pituitary carcinoma Explanation: Pituitary carcinoma most commonly arises in the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis) and must be removed by way of a transsphenoidal approach, using a bivalve speculum and rongeur. Surgery to treat esophageal carcinoma usually is palliative and involves esophagogastrectomy with jejunostomy. Laryngeal carcinoma may necessitate a laryngectomy. To treat colorectal cancer, the surgeon removes the tumor and any adjacent tissues and lymph nodes that contain cancer cells.

A client recovering from a stroke is diagnosed with pseudobulbar affect. Which medication(s) will the nurse prepare teaching on for this client? Select all that apply. Phenytoin Gabapentin Ethosuximide Quinidine sulfate Dextromethorphan hydrobromide

Quinidine sulfate Dextromethorphan hydrobromide Explanation: The condition known as pseudobulbar affect involves inappropriate or exaggerated emotional expression, usually episodes of laughing or crying. It is associated with brain injury such as a stroke. Pharmacology studies have reported effective management with quinidine sulfate and dextromethorphan hydrobromide in clients recovering from a stroke. Quinidine sulfate is classified as an antiarrhythmic drug. Dextromethorphan hydrobromide is classified as the central nervous system agent. When combined with dextromethorphan, quinidine sulfate works by increasing the amount of dextromethorphan in the body. Phenytoin, gabapentin, and ethosuximide are medications classified as anti-epileptic or anticonvulsants and are used to treat a seizure disorders. Gabapentin can also be used to treat nerve pain. Phenytoin, gabapentin, and ethosuximide do not treat the pseudobulbar affect.

Following a generalized seizure in a client, which nursing assessment is a priority for detailing the event? Seizure began at 1300 hours. The client cried out before the seizure began. Seizure was 1 minute in duration including tonic-clonic activity. Sleeping quietly after the seizure

Seizure was 1 minute in duration including tonic-clonic activity. Explanation: Describing the length and the progression of the seizure is a priority nursing responsibility. During this time, the client will experience respiratory spasms, and their skin will appear cyanotic, indicating a period of lack of tissue oxygenation. Noting when the seizure began and presence of an aura are also valuable pieces of information. Postictal behavior should be documented along with vital signs, oxygen saturation, and assessment of tongue and oral cavity.

An osmotic diuretic such as mannitol is given to the client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) to control fever. control shivering. dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema. reduce cellular metabolic demand.

dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema. Explanation: Osmotic diuretics draw water across intact membranes, thereby reducing the volume of brain and extracellular fluid. Antipyretics and a cooling blanket are used to control fever in the client with increased ICP. Chlorpromazine may be prescribed to control shivering in the client with increased ICP. Medications such as barbiturates are given to the client with increased ICP to reduce cellular metabolic demands.

A client with a spinal cord injury and subsequent urine retention receives intermittent catheterization every 4 hours. The average catheterized urine volume has been 550 ml. The nurse should plan to: increase the frequency of the catheterizations. insert an indwelling urinary catheter. place the client on fluid restrictions. use a condom catheter instead of an invasive one.

increase the frequency of the catheterizations. Explanation: As a rule of practice, if intermittent catheterization for urine retention typically yields 500 ml or more, the frequency of catheterization should be increased. Indwelling catheterization is less preferred because of the risk of urinary tract infection and the loss of bladder tone. Fluid restrictions aren't indicated in this case; the problem isn't overhydration, rather it's urine retention. A condom catheter doesn't help empty the bladder of the client with urine retention.

A nurse is working on a neurological unit with a nursing student who asks the difference between primary and secondary headaches. The nurse's correct response will include which of the following statements? "A secondary headache is one for which no organic cause can be identified." "A secondary headache is located in the frontal area." "A secondary headache is associated with an organic cause, such as a brain tumor." "A migraine headache is an example of a secondary headache."

"A secondary headache is associated with an organic cause, such as a brain tumor." Explanation: A secondary headache is a symptom associated with an organic cause, such as a brain tumor or an aneurysm. A primary headache is one for which no organic cause can be identified. These types include migraine, tension, and cluster headaches. Secondary headaches can be located in all areas of the head.

A client with newly diagnosed seizures asks about stigma associated with epilepsy. The nurse will respond with which of the following statements? "In most people, epilepsy is usually synonymous with intellectual disability." "For many people with epilepsy, the disorder is synonymous with mental illness." "Many people with developmental disabilities resulting from neurologic damage also have epilepsy." "Cases of epilepsy are often associated with intellectual level."

"Many people with developmental disabilities resulting from neurologic damage also have epilepsy." Explanation: Many people who have developmental disabilities because of serious neurologic damage also have epilepsy. Epilepsy is not associated with intellectual level. It is not synonymous with intellectual disability or mental illness.

A 30-year-old was diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Which statement by the client would indicate a need for more teaching from the nurse? "I will have progressive muscle weakness." "I will lose strength in my arms." "My children are at greater risk to develop this disease." "I need to remain active for as long as possible."

"My children are at greater risk to develop this disease." Explanation: There is no known cause for ALS, and no reason to suspect genetic inheritance. ALS usually begins with muscle weakness of the arms and progresses. The client is encouraged to remain active for as long as possible to prevent respiratory complications.

A nurse is providing education about migraine headaches to a community group. The cause of migraines has not been clearly demonstrated, but is related to vascular disturbances. A member of the group asks about familial tendencies. The nurse's correct reply will be which of the following? "There is a very weak familial tendency." "No familial tendency has been demonstrated." "There is a strong familial tendency." "Only secondary migraine headaches show a familial tendency."

"There is a strong familial tendency." Explanation: Migraine headaches have a strong familial tendency. Migraines are primary headaches, not secondary headaches.

Cerebral edema peaks at which time point after intracranial surgery? 12 hours 24 hours 48 hours 72 hours

24 hours Explanation: Cerebral edema tends to peak 24 to 36 hours after surgery.

A nurse assesses the patient's LOC using the Glasgow Coma Scale. What score indicates severe impairment of neurologic function? 3 6 9 12

3 Explanation: LOC, a sensitive indicator of neurologic function, is assessed based on the criteria in the Glasgow Coma Scale: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response (Barlow, 2012). The patient's responses are rated on a scale from 3 to 15. A score of 3 indicates severe impairment of neurologic function, brain death, or pharmacologic inhibition of the neurologic response. A score of 15 indicates that the patient is fully responsive (see Chapter 68).

The nurse is caring for an 82-year-old client diagnosed with cranial arteritis. What is the priority nursing intervention? Administer corticosteroids as ordered. Assess for weight loss. Document signs and symptoms of inflammation. Give acetaminophen per orders.

Administer corticosteroids as ordered. Explanation: Cranial arteritis is caused by inflammation, which can lead to visual impairment or rupture of the vessel. Administering the corticosteroid as ordered can decrease the chance of losing vision or vessel rupture. The client should receive an analgesic (acetaminophen) for the pain, but the corticosteroid should help decrease the pain and prevent complications. The nurse should assess for weight loss, but that can be determined after the medication is administered. Signs and symptoms of inflammation should be documented by the nurse after measures have been taken to decrease complications.

A client is returning to the medical unit after surgery and has a history of migraines. Which intervention would the nurse prioritize for the overall treatment of this client? Elevate the head of the bed 90 degrees and provide task lighting in a quiet enviroment. Administer hydromorphone and/or sumatriptan medications for relief. Maintain a clear liquid diet and administer intravenous fluids for hydration. Obtain a scheduled order for ondansetron or trimethobenzamide.

Administer hydromorphone and/or sumatriptan medications for relief. Explanation: Migraine is a complex of symptoms characterized by periodic and recurrent attacks of severe headache lasting from hours to days in adults.When migraines or other types of headaches have been diagnosed, the goal of nursing management is pain relief. Administration of hydromorphone (opiate) medication provides pain relief. This medication has a dual benefit by also providing relief from any surgical pain. Triptans (sumatriptan) are considered the first-line treatment of the management of moderate to severe migraine pain. It is reasonable to try nonpharmaceutical interventions first, but the use of medications should not be delayed. Non-pharmaceutical interventions include providing comfort measures such as a quiet dark environment, elevation of the head to 30 degrees, and symptomatic treatment such as administration of antiemetic medication. Antiemetic (ondansetron or trimethobenzamide) medications are not typically scheduled nor given as a prevention or anticipated measure except with ergotamine preparations. Hydration has been linked to migraines by some research but is not the first priority when treating migraines.

The nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with a severe exacerbation of myasthenia gravis. When administering medications to this client, what is a priority nursing action? Assess client's reaction to new medication schedule. Administer medications at exact intervals ordered. Document medication given and dose. Give client plenty of fluids with medications.

Administer medications at exact intervals ordered. Explanation: The nurse must administer medications at the exact intervals ordered to maintain therapeutic blood levels and prevent symptoms from returning. Assessing the client's reaction, documenting medication and dose, and giving the client plenty of fluids are not the priority nursing action for this client.

A nurse is caring for a client with a brain tumor and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which intervention should the nurse include in the care plan to reduce ICP? Encourage coughing and deep breathing. Position the client with the head turned toward the side of the brain tumor. Administer stool softeners. Provide sensory stimulation.

Administer stool softeners. Explanation: Stool softeners reduce the risk of straining during a bowel movement, which can increase ICP by raising intrathoracic pressure and interfering with venous return. Coughing also increases ICP. Keeping the head in a midline position and avoiding extreme neck flexion prevents obstruction of venous outflow from the brain. Sensory stimulation and noxious stimuli can increase ICP.

A client is transferred to the intensive care unit after evacuation of a subdural hematoma. Which nursing intervention reduces the client's risk of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? Encouraging oral fluid intake Suctioning the client once each shift Elevating the head of the bed 90 degrees Administering a stool softener as ordered

Administering a stool softener as ordered Explanation: To prevent the client from straining at stool, which may cause a Valsalva maneuver that increases ICP, the nurse should institute a regular bowel program that includes use of a stool softener. For a client at risk for increased ICP, the nurse should prevent, not encourage, oral fluid intake and should elevate the head of the bed only 30 degrees. Suctioning, indicated for a client with lung congestion, isn't necessary for this client.

The school nurse notes a 6-year-old running across the playground with friends. The child stops in mid-stride, freezing for a few seconds. Then the child resumes his progress across the playground. The school nurse suspects what in this child? An absence seizure A complex seizure A partial seizure A tonic-clonic seizure

An absence seizure Explanation: Absence seizures, formerly referred to as petit mal seizures, are more common in children. They are characterized by a brief loss of consciousness, during which physical activity ceases. The person stares blankly; the eyelids flutter; the lips move; and slight movement of the head, arms, and legs occurs. These seizures typically last for a few seconds, and the person seldom falls to the ground. Because of their brief duration and relative lack of prominent movements, these seizures often go unnoticed. People with absence seizures can have them many times a day. Partial, or focal, seizures begin in a specific area of the cerebral cortex. A generalized seizure involves the whole brain.

Which medication classification is used preoperatively to decrease the risk of postoperative seizures? Diuretics Corticosteroids Anticonvulsants Antianxiety

Anticonvulsants Explanation: Anticonvulsants are used to decrease the risk of postoperative seizures following cranial surgery. Diuretics, corticosteroids, and antianxiety medications may be used for the client with increased intracranial pressure.

The nurse is aware that burr holes may be used in neurosurgical procedures. Which of the following is a reason why a neurosurgeon may choose to create a burr hole in a patient? Visualization of a hemorrhage Aspiration of a brain abscess Access for intravenous (IV) fluids To assess visual acuity

Aspiration of a brain abscess Explanation: Burr holes may be used in neurosurgical procedures to make a bone flap in the skull, to aspirate a brain abscess, or to evacuate a hematoma.

A client is diagnosed with a brain tumor. As the nurse assists the client from the bed to a chair, the client begins having a generalized seizure. Which action should the nurse take first? Initiate the code team response. Put a padded tongue blade into the client's mouth and restrain his extremities. Record the type of seizure and the time that it occurred. Assist the client to the floor, in a side-lying position, and protect him with linens.

Assist the client to the floor, in a side-lying position, and protect him with linens. Explanation: The nurse should protect the client from injury by assisting him to the floor, in a side-lying position, and protect him from harm by padding the floor with bed linens. Initiating a response from the code team isn't necessary because seizures are self-limiting. As long as the client's airway is protected, his cardiopulmonary status isn't affected. The nurse shouldn't force anything into the client's mouth during a seizure; doing so may cause injury. Documenting seizure activity is important, but it doesn't take priority over client safety.

Which positions is used to help reduce intracranial pressure (ICP)? Avoiding flexion of the neck with use of a cervical collar Keeping the head flat, avoiding the use of a pillow Rotating the neck to the far right with neck support Extreme hip flexion, with the hip supported by pillows

Avoiding flexion of the neck with use of a cervical collar Explanation: Use of a cervical collar promotes venous drainage and prevents jugular vein distortion, which can increase ICP. Slight elevation of the head is maintained to aid in venous drainage unless otherwise prescribed. Extreme rotation of the neck is avoided because compression or distortion of the jugular veins increases ICP. Extreme hip flexion is avoided because this position causes an increase in intra-abdominal pressure and intrathoracic pressure, which can produce a rise in ICP.

While making initial rounds after coming on shift, the nurse finds a client thrashing about in bed with a severe headache. The client tells the nurse the pain is behind the right eye, which is red and tearing. What type of headache would the nurse suspect this client of having? Migraine Tension Cluster Sinus

Cluster Explanation: A person with a cluster headache has pain on one side of the head, usually behind the eye, accompanied by nasal congestion, rhinorrhea (watery discharge from the nose), and tearing and redness of the eye. The pain is so severe that the person is not likely to lie still; instead, the person may pace or thrash about. The symptoms in the scenario do not describe the other types of headaches listed.

A client is admitted to an acute care facility after an episode of status epilepticus. After the client is stabilized, which factor is most beneficial in determining the potential cause of the episode? The type of anticonvulsant prescribed to manage the epileptic condition Recent stress level Recent weight gain and loss Compliance with the prescribed medication regimen

Compliance with the prescribed medication regimen Explanation: The most common cause of status epilepticus is sudden withdraw of anticonvulsant therapy. The type of medication prescribed, the client's stress level, and weight change don't contribute to this condition.

The critical care nurse is caring for a client with bacterial meningitis. The client has developed cerebral vasculitis and increased ICP. What neurologic sequelae might this client develop? Damage to the optic nerve Damage to the vagal nerve Damage to the olfactory nerve Damage to the facial nerve

Damage to the optic nerve Explanation: Neurologic sequelae in survivors include damage to the cranial nerves that facilitate vision and hearing. Sequelae to meningitis do not include damage to the vagal nerve, the olfactory nerve or the facial nerve.

A client undergoes a craniotomy with supratentorial surgery to remove a brain tumor. On the first postoperative day, the nurse notes the absence of a bone flap at the operative site. How should the nurse position the client's head? Flat Turned onto the operative side Elevated no more than 10 degrees Elevated 30 degrees

Elevated 30 degrees Explanation: After supratentorial surgery, the nurse should elevate the client's head 30 degrees to promote venous outflow through the jugular veins. The nurse would keep the client's head flat after infratentorial, not supratentorial, surgery. However, after supratentorial surgery to remove a chronic subdural hematoma, the neurosurgeon may order the nurse to keep the client's head flat; typically, the client with such a hematoma is older and has a less expandable brain. A client without a bone flap can't be positioned with the head turned onto the operative side because doing so may injure brain tissue. Elevating the head 10 degrees or less wouldn't promote venous outflow through the jugular veins.

A client with a traumatic brain injury has developed increased intracranial pressure resulting in diabetes insipidus. While assessing the client, the nurse expects which of the following findings? Excessive urine output and decreased urine osmolality Oliguria and decreased urine osmolality Oliguria and serum hyperosmolarity Excessive urine output and serum hypo-osmolarity

Excessive urine output and decreased urine osmolality Explanation: Diabetes insipidus is the result of decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). The client has excessive urine output, decreased urine osmolality, and serum hyperosmolarity.

The nurse is caring for a client with an inoperable brain tumor. What teaching is important for the nurse to do with these clients? Optimizing nutrition Managing muscle weakness Explaining hospice care and services Offering family support groups

Explaining hospice care and services Explanation: The nurse explains hospice care and services to clients with brain tumors that no longer are at a stage where they can be cured. Managing muscle weakness and offering family support groups are important but explaining hospice is the best answer. Optimizing nutrition at this point is not a priority.

A client experiences loss of consciousness, tongue biting, and incontinence, along with tonic and clonic phases of seizure activity. The nurse should document this episode as which type of seizure? Jacksonian Absence Generalized Sensory

Generalized Explanation: A generalized seizure causes generalized electrical abnormality in the brain. The client typically falls to the ground, losing consciousness. The body stiffens (tonic phase) and then alternates between episodes of muscle spasm and relaxation (clonic phase). Tongue biting, incontinence, labored breathing, apnea, and cyanosis may also occur. A Jacksonian seizure begins as a localized motor seizure. The client experiences a stiffening or jerking in one extremity, accompanied by a tingling sensation in the same area. Absence seizures occur most commonly in children. They usually begin with a brief change in the level of consciousness, signaled by blinking or rolling of the eyes, a blank stare, and slight mouth movements. Symptoms of a sensory seizure include hallucinations, flashing lights, tingling sensations, vertigo, déjà vu, and smelling a foul odor

A client is demonstrating an altered level of consciousness from a traumatic brain injury. Which assessment will the nurse use as a sensitive indicator of neurologic function? Cerebellar function Glasgow Coma Scale Cranial nerve function Mental status evaluation

Glasgow Coma Scale Explanation: An altered level of consciousness (LOC) is present when the client is not oriented, does not follow commands, or needs persistent stimuli to achieve a state of alertness. LOC is gauged on a continuum, with a normal state of alertness and full cognition (consciousness) on one end and coma on the other end. LOC, a sensitive indicator of neurologic function, is assessed based on the criteria in the Glasgow Coma Scale: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. Cerebellar function, cranial nerve function, and mental status evaluation are all elements of the neurologic assessment.

Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, a nurse should assess a client for which condition? Hypocortisolism Hypoglycemia Hyperglycemia Hypercalcemia

Hypocortisolism Explanation: Although steroids should be given during surgery to prevent hypocortisolism, the nurse should assess the client for it. Abrupt withdrawal of endogenous cortisol may lead to severe adrenal insufficiency. Signs of hypocortisolism include vomiting, increased weakness, dehydration, and hypotension. After the corticotropin-secreting tumor is removed, the client shouldn't be at risk for hyperglycemia. Calcium imbalance and hypoglycemia shouldn't occur in this situation.

The nurse is caring for a patient postoperatively after intracranial surgery for the treatment of a subdural hematoma. The nurse observes an increase in the patient's blood pressure from the baseline and a decrease in the heart rate from 86 to 54. The patient has crackles in the bases of the lungs. What does the nurse suspect is occurring? Increased ICP Exacerbation of uncontrolled hypertension Infection Increase in cerebral perfusion pressure

Increased ICP Explanation: Increased ICP and bleeding are life threatening to the patient who has undergone intracranial surgery. An increase in blood pressure and decrease in pulse with respiratory failure may indicate increased ICP.

A client with epilepsy is having a seizure. What intervention should the nurse do after the seizure? Keep the client on one side. Place a cooling blanket beneath the client. Help the client sit up. Pry the client's mouth open to allow a patent airway.

Keep the client on one side. Explanation: The nurse will need to keep the client on one side to prevent aspiration. Make sure the airway is patent. On awakening, reorient the client to the environment. If the client is confused or wandering, guide the client gently to a bed or chair. If the client becomes agitated after a seizure (postictal), stay a distance away, but close enough to prevent injury until the client is fully aware. The client does not need a cooling blanket after a seizure. The client's temperature should not be elevated from the seizure. The nurse should not pry the client's mouth open after a seizure so that the airway remains open.

A client is exhibiting signs of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). Which intravenous solution (IV) would the nurse anticipate hanging? Dextrose 5% in water (D5W) Half-normal saline (0.45% NSS) One-third normal saline (0.33% NSS) Lactated Ringer's

Lactated Ringer's Explanation: With increasing ICP, isotonic normal saline, lactated Ringer's, or hypertonic (3%) saline solutions are used to decrease swelling in the brain cells. D5W, 0.45% NSS, and 0.33% NSS are all hypotonic solutions that will move more fluid into the cells, worsening the ICP.

A nurse is preparing to administer an antiseizure medication to a client. Which of the following is an appropriate antiseizure medication? Lamictal Lamisil Labetalol Lomotil

Lamictal Explanation: Lamictal is an antiseizure medication. Its packaging was recently changed in an attempt to reduce medication errors, because this medication has been confused with Lamisil (an antifungal), labetalol (an antihypertensive), and Lomotil (an antidiarrheal).

A client is brought to the emergency department with multiple fractures. Which assessment finding would be most significant in determining the client has also suffered a closed head injury with rising intracranial pressure? Blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg Lethargy Nausea Periorbital edema

Lethargy Explanation: Decreasing level of consciousness is one of the earliest signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Without a baseline for the blood pressure, it is difficult to determine whether this is a significant change for this client. Vomiting (usually without forewarning of nausea) when associated with a head injury suggests increasing ICP. Periorbital edema is more suggestive of fluid overload than ICP.

What does the nurse recognize as the earliest sign of serious impairment of brain circulation related to increasing ICP? A bounding pulse Bradycardia Hypertension Lethargy and stupor

Lethargy and stupor Explanation: As ICP increases, the patient becomes stuporous, reacting only to loud or painful stimuli. At this stage, serious impairment of brain circulation is probably taking place, and immediate intervention is required.

The nurse is called to attend to a patient having a seizure in the waiting area. What nursing care is provided for a patient who is experiencing a convulsive seizure? Select all that apply. Loosening constrictive clothing Opening the patient's jaw and inserting a mouth gag Positioning the patient on his or her side with head flexed forward Providing for privacy Restraining the patient to avoid self injury

Loosening constrictive clothing Positioning the patient on his or her side with head flexed forward Providing for privacy Explanation: During a patient's seizure, the nurse should do the following. Loosen constrictive clothing. If possible, place the patient on one side with head flexed forward, which allows the tongue to fall forward and facilitates drainage of saliva and mucus. If suction is available, use it if necessary to clear secretions. Provide privacy, and protect the patient from curious onlookers. (The patient who has an aura [warning of an impending seizure] may have time to seek a safe, private place.) The nurse should not attempt to pry open jaws that are clenched in a spasm or attempt to insert anything. Broken teeth and injury to the lips and tongue may result from such an action. No attempt should be made to restrain the patient during the seizure, because muscular contractions are strong and restraint can produce injury.

A client with a traumatic brain injury is showing early signs of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). While planning care for this client, what would be the priority expected outcome? Attains desired fluid balance Displays no signs or symptoms of infection Maintains a patent airway Demonstrates optimal cerebral tissue perfusion

Maintains a patent airway Explanation: Maintenance of a patent airway is always a first priority. Loss of airway is a possible complication of increasing ICP, as well as aspiration from vomiting.

A client is about to be discharged after undergoing surgery for the treatment of a brain tumor and has a referral in place for medical and radiation oncology. Which component(s) should be included in the discharge teaching for this client? Select all that apply. Medication regimen Appointments for chemotherapy or radiotherapy Adverse effects of chemotherapy or radiation and techniques for managing them Nutritional support Electromyography

Medication regimen Appointments for chemotherapy or radiotherapy Adverse effects of chemotherapy or radiation and techniques for managing them Nutritional support The nurse should include the medication regimen, appointments for chemotherapy and radiotherapy, adverse effects of chemotherapy or radiation and techniques for managing them, and nutritional support as components of the discharge teaching for this client. Electromyography is used in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) to validate weakness in the affected muscles and should not be included for the client being discharged after surgery for a brain tumor.

A nurse is continually monitoring a client with a traumatic brain injury for signs of increasing intracranial pressure. The cranial vault contains brain tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid; an increase in any of the components causes a change in the volume of the others. This hypothesis is called which of the following? Monro-Kellie Cushing's Dawn phenomenon Hashimoto's disease

Monro-Kellie Explanation: The Monro-Kellie hypothesis states that, because of the limited space for expansion in the skull, an increase in any one of its components causes a change in the volume of the others. Cushing's response is seen when cerebral blood flow decreases significantly. Systolic blood pressure increases, pulse pressure widens, and heart rate slows. The Dawn phenomenon is related to high blood glucose levels in the morning in clients with diabetes. Hashimoto's disease is related to the thyroid gland.

A nurse is assessing a patient's urinary output as an indicator of diabetes insipidus. The nurse knows that an hourly output of what volume over 2 hours may be a positive indicator? 50 to 100 mL/h 100 to 150 mL/h 150 to 200 mL/h More than 200 mL/h

More than 200 mL/h Explanation: For patients undergoing dehydrating procedures, vital signs, including blood pressure, must be monitored to assess fluid volume status. An indwelling urinary catheter is inserted to permit assessment of renal function and fluid status. During the acute phase, urine output is monitored hourly. An output greater than 200 mL per hour for 2 consecutive hours may indicate the onset of diabetes insipidus (Hickey, 2009).

A client with neurological infection develops cerebral edema from syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which is an important nursing action for this client? Maintaining adequate hydration Administering prescribed antipyretics Restricting fluid intake and hydration Hyperoxygenation before and after tracheal suctioning

Restricting fluid intake and hydration Explanation: Fluid restriction may be necessary if the client develops cerebral edema and hypervolemia from SIADH. Antipyretics are administered to clients who develop hyperthermia. In addition, it is important to maintain adequate hydration in such clients. A client with neurological infection should be given tracheal suctioning and hyperoxygenation only when respiratory distress develops.

A client is receiving hypothermic treatment for uncontrolled fever related to increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention? Capillary refill of 2 seconds Shivering Cool, dry skin Urine output of 100 mL/hr

Shivering Explanation: Shivering can increase intracranial pressure by increasing vasoconstriction and circulating catecholamines. Shivering also increases oxygen consumption. A capillary refill of 2 seconds, urine output of 100mL/hr, and cool, dry skin are expected findings.

After a seizure, the nurse should place the patient in which of the following positions to prevent complications? High Fowler's, to prevent aspiration Side-lying, to facilitate drainage of oral secretions Supine, to rest the muscles of the extremities Semi-Fowler's, to promote breathing

Side-lying, to facilitate drainage of oral secretions Explanation: To prevent complications, the patient is placed in the side-lying position to facilitate drainage of oral secretions, and suctioning is performed, if needed, to maintain a patent airway and prevent aspiration.

A client is having a tonic-clonic seizure. What should the nurse do first? Elevate the head of the bed. Restrain the client's arms and legs. Place a tongue blade in the client's mouth. Take measures to prevent injury.

Take measures to prevent injury. Explanation: Protecting the client from injury is the immediate priority during a seizure. Elevating the head of the bed would have no effect on the client's condition or safety. Restraining the client's arms and legs could cause injury. Placing a tongue blade or other object in the client's mouth could damage the teeth.

A client with increased intracranial pressure has a cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) of 40 mm Hg. How should the nurse interpret the CPP value? The CPP is high. The CPP is low. The CPP is within normal limits. The CPP reading is inaccurate.

The CPP is low. Explanation: The normal CPP is 70 to 100 mm Hg. Therefore, a CPP of 40 mm Hg is low. Changes in intracranial pressure (ICP) are closely linked with cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP). The CPP is calculated by subtracting the ICP from the mean arterial pressure (MAP). Patients with a CPP of less than 50 mm Hg experience irreversible neurologic damage.

A client falls to the floor in a generalized seizure with tonic-clonic movements. Which is the first action taken by the nurse? Insert an airway or bite block. Manually restrain the extremities. Turn client to side-lying position. Monitor vital signs.

Turn client to side-lying position. Explanation: When a client begins to convulse, the highest priority is to maintain airway. This can best be accomplished by turning client to side-lying position, which allows saliva and emesis to drain from the mouth. Turning the client also allows the tongue to fall forward opening the airway. More damage can occur if a bite block is inserted after the seizure has begun. Manually restraining extremities is not recommended. Attempting to take blood pressure is not recommended and pulse rate and respirations during the event will not be beneficial. Monitor vital signs during the postictal phase.

A patient had a small pituitary adenoma removed by the transsphenoidal approach and has developed diabetes insipidus. What pharmacologic therapy will the nurse be administering to this patient to control symptoms? Mannitol Furosemide (Lasix) Vasopressin Phenobarbital

Vasopressin Explanation: Manipulation of the posterior pituitary gland during surgery may produce transient diabetes insipidus of several days' duration (Hickey, 2009). It is treated with vasopressin but occasionally persists.

A nurse is caring for a client with a history of severe migraines. The client has a medical history that includes asthma, gastroesophageal reflux disease, and three pregnancies. Which medication does the nurse anticipate the physician will order for the client's migraines? Verapamil (Calan) Metoprolol (Lopressor) Amiodarone (Cordarone) Carvedilol (Coreg)

Verapamil (Calan) Explanation: Calcium channel blockers, such as verapamil, and beta-adrenergic blockers, such as metoprolol, are commonly used to treat migraines because they help control cerebral blood vessel dilation. Calcium channel blockers, however, are ordered for clients who may not be able to tolerate beta-adrenergic blockers, such as those with asthma. Amiodarone and carvedilol aren't used to treat migraines.

A client is sitting in a chair and begins having a tonic-clonic seizure. The most appropriate nursing response is to: hold the client's arm still to keep him from hitting anything. carefully move the client to a flat surface and turn him on his side. allow the client to remain in the chair but move all objects out of his way. place an oral airway in the client's mouth to maintain an open airway.

carefully move the client to a flat surface and turn him on his side. Explanation: When caring for a client experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse should help the client to a flat non-elevated surface and then position him on his side to ensure that he doesn't aspirate and to protect him from injury. These steps help reduce the risk of injury from falling or hitting surrounding objects and help establish an open airway. The client shouldn't be restrained during the seizure. Also, nothing should be placed in his mouth; anything in the mouth could impair ventilation and damage the inside of the mouth.

A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia. Which activity is altered as a result of this diagnosis? chewing swallowing smelling tasting

chewing Explanation: Trigeminal neuralgia is a painful condition that involves the fifth (V) cranial nerve (the trigeminal nerve) and is important to chewing.

When the nurse observes that the client has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists and plantar flexion of the feet, the nurse records the client's posture as normal. flaccid. decorticate. decerebrate.

decerebrate. Explanation: Decerebrate posturing is the result of lesions at the midbrain and is more ominous than decorticate posturing. The client's head and neck arch backward, and the muscles are rigid. In decorticate posturing, which results from damage to the nerve pathway between the brain and spinal cord and is also very serious, the client has flexion and internal rotation of the arms and wrists, as well as extension, internal rotation, and plantar flexion of the feet.

The initial sign of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) includes decreased level of consciousness. herniation. vomiting. sore throat.

decreased level of consciousness. Explanation: The initial signs of increasing ICP include decreased level of consciousness and focal motor deficits. If ICP is not controlled, the uncus of the temporal lobe may be herniated through the tentorium, causing pressure on the brain stem. Vomiting and sore throat are not initial signs of increasing ICP.

A client with increased intracranial pressure has a cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) of 40 mm Hg. This CPP reading is considered high. low. within normal limits. inaccurate.

low. Explanation: Normal cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is 70 to 100 mm Hg. A CPP of 40 mm Hg is low.

To meet the sensory needs of a client with viral meningitis, the nurse should: minimize exposure to bright lights and noise. promote an active range of motion. increase environmental stimuli. avoid physical contact between the client and family members.

minimize exposure to bright lights and noise. Explanation: Photophobia and hypersensitivity to environmental stimuli are the common clinical manifestations of meningeal irritation and infection. Therefore, the nurse should provide a calm environment with less stressful stimuli. Physical activity may worsen symptoms; therefore, physical activity should be reduced. Family members do not need to be avoided. People diagnosed with viral meningitis should be instructed to thoroughly wash hands frequently.

For a client with suspected increased intracranial pressure (ICP), an appropriate respiratory goal is to: prevent respiratory alkalosis. lower arterial pH. promote carbon dioxide elimination. maintain partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) above 80 mm Hg.

promote carbon dioxide elimination. Explanation: The goal of treatment for ICP is to prevent acidemia by eliminating carbon dioxide because an acid environment in the brain causes cerebral vessels to dilate and therefore increases ICP. Preventing respiratory alkalosis and lowering arterial pH may bring about acidosis, an undesirable condition in this client. It isn't necessary to maintain a PaO2 as high as 80 mm Hg; 60 mm Hg will adequately oxygenate most clients.

A client is treated for increased intracranial pressure (ICP). It is important for the client to avoid hypothermia because hypothermia can cause death. shivering in hypothermia can increase ICP. hypothermia is indicative of severe meningitis. hypothermia is indicative of malaria.

shivering in hypothermia can increase ICP. Explanation: The nurse should avoid hypothermia in a client with increased ICP because hypothermia causes shivering. Shivering, in turn, can increase intracranial pressure. Hypothermia in a client with ICP does not indicate malaria or meningitis and is not likely to cause death.