1000 CCNA QUESTIONS .1A
114 What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels? A. different security settings B. discontinuous frequency ranges C. unique SSIDs D. different transmission speeds
Correct Answer: B
128 Which PoE mode enables powered-devices detection and guarantees power when the device detected? A. auto B. static C. dynamic D. active
Correct Answer: B
48 Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming? A. start of frame delimiter B. Type field C. preamble D. Data field
Correct Answer: C Preamble is a 7 Byte field in the Ethernet frame which helps to receiver to know that it is an actual data (Ethernet Frame) and not some random noise in the transmission medium. It acts like a doorbell telling about the incoming data
112 Which set of 2 4 GHz nonoverlapping wireless channels is standard in the United States? A. channels 1, 6, 11, and 14 B. channels 2, 7, 9, and 11 C. channels 2, 7, and 11 D. channels 1, 6, and 11
Correct Answer: D
124 Which protocol uses the SSL? A. SSH B. HTTPS C. HTTP D. Telnet
Answer B
73 Which networking function occurs on the data plane? A. processing inbound SSH management traffic B. sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets C. facilitates spanning-tree elections D. forwarding remote client/server traffic
Answer: D
102 What is a similarity between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards? A. Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats. B. Both cable types support RJ-45 connectors. C. Both support up to 550 meters between nodes. D. Both cable types support LR connectors.
Correct Answer: A
108 What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking? A. It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture B. It is a pair of core routers that maintain all routing decisions for a campus C. It centralizes the data plane for the network D. It is the card on a core router that maintains all routing decisions for a campus.
Correct Answer: A
119 What is the collapsed layer in collapsed core architectures? A. Core and distribution B. access and WAN C. distribution and access D. core and WAN
Correct Answer: A
121 What is the role of disaggregation in controller-based networking? A. It divides the control-plane and data-plane functions. B. It streamlines traffic handling by assigning individual devices to perform either Layer 2 or Layer 3 functions C. It summarizes the routes between the core and distribution layers of the network topology D. It enables a network topology to quickly adjust from a ring network to a star network
Correct Answer: A
20 What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? A. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually. B. Central AP management requires more complex configurations. C. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method. D. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs.
Correct Answer: A
23 Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform? A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts B. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network C. ensures that NAT is not required to reach the Internet with private range addressing D. enables secure communications to the Internet for all external hosts
Correct Answer: A
43 A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. Which action must be taken to meet the requirement? A. enable Band Select B. enable DTIM C. enable RX-SOP D. enable AAA override
Correct Answer: A
50 Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.) A. Defines the network functions that occur at each layer B. Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network C. Changes in one layer do not impact other layer D. Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach
Correct Answer: A
65 Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture? A. enforcing routing policies B. marking interesting traffic for data policies C. applying security policies D. attaching users to the edge of the network
Correct Answer: A
68 What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency? A. different nonoverlapping channels B. one overlapping channel C. one nonoverlapping channel D. different overlapping channels
Correct Answer: A
72 An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points? A. Client Band Select B. Re-Anchor Roamed Clients C. OEAP Spilt Tunnel D. 11ac MU-MIMO
Correct Answer: A
86 What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection? A. 1.544 Mbps B. 2.048 Mbps C. 34.368 Mbps D. 43.7 Mbp
Correct Answer: A
94 Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined? A. conserve public IPv4 addressing B. support the NAT protocol C. preserve public IPv6 address space D. reduce instances of overlapping IP addresses
Correct Answer: A
97 Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture? A. small and needs to reduce networking costs B. large and must minimize downtime when hardware fails C. large and requires a flexible, scalable network design D. currently small but is expected to grow dramatically in the near future
Correct Answer: A
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints? A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery. B. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets. C. UDP provides reliable message transfer, and TCP is a connectionless protocol. D. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and ACK bits.
Correct Answer: A
58 Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture? A. broadband cable access B. frame-relay packet switching C. dedicated point-to-point leased line D. Integrated Services Digital Network switching
Correct Answer: A Data traveling between corporate sites over the public WAN infrastructure should be protected using VPNs
Which action is taken by switch port enabled for PoE power classification override? A. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and errdisabled. B. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port, a syslog message is generated. C. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked, data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused. D. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power, it assumes the device has failed and disconnects it.
Correct Answer: A PoE monitoring and policing compares the power consumption on ports with the administrative maximum value (either a configured maximum value or the port's default value). If the power consumption on a monitored port exceeds the administrative maximum value, the following actions occur: - A syslog message is issued. - The monitored port is shut down and error-disabled.
Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response? A. management B. protected frame C. action D. control
Correct Answer: A There are three main types of 802.11 frames: the Data Frame, the Management Frame and the Control Frame. Association Response belongs to Management Frame. Association response is sent in response to an association request.
31 What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two.) A. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies B. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail C. The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains D. The core layer maintains wired connections for each host E. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions
Correct Answer: AB
25 Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.) A. 5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels. B. 5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point. C. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels. D. Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point. E. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel.
Correct Answer: AC
67 Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two.) A. Provide uninterrupted forwarding service B. Inspect packets for malicious activity C. Ensure timely data transfer between layers D. Provide direct connectivity for end user devices E. Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network
Correct Answer: AC Reference: https://www.mcmcse.com/cisco/guides/hierarchical_model.shtml
61 Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space? (Choose two.) A. to enable intra-enterprise communication B. to implement NAT C. to connect applications D. to conserve global address space E. to manage routing overhead
Correct Answer: AD
126 What are the two functions of SSIDs? (Choose two.) A. uses the maximum of 32 alphanumeric characters B. controls the speed of the Wi-Fi network C. used exclusively with controller-based Wi-Fi networks D. supports a single access point E. broadcasts by default
Correct Answer: AD The SSID is a unique identifier that wireless networking devices use to establish and maintain wireless connectivity. The SSID can consist of up to 32 alphanumeric, case- sensitive, characters. Wireless clients connect using the SSID for secure communications. The SSID is a unique token that identifies an 802.11 wireless network. It is used by wireless devices to identify a network and to establish and maintain wireless connectivity. An SSID must be configured and assigned to a wireless client device interface before the device can associate with an access point.
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.) A. input errors B. frame C. giants D. CRC E. runts
Correct Answer: AD Whenever the physical transmission has problems, the receiving device might receive a frame whose bits have changed values. These frames do not pass the error detection logic as implemented in the FCS field in the Ethernet trailer. The receiving device discards the frame and counts it as some kind of input error. Cisco switches list this error as a CRC error. Cyclic redundancy check (CRC) is a term related to how the FCS math detects an error. input errors includes runts, giants, no buffer, CRC, frame, overrun, and ignored The counts. show interface s0/0/0 The output below show the interface counters with the command:
51 Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.) A. To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address B. The MAC address is also referred to as the IP address C. The MAC address of a device must be configured in the Cisco IOS CLI by a user with administrative privileges D. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware E. An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90 F. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the network on which the host resides and the second of which uniquely identifies the host on the network
Correct Answer: ADE
46 For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 B. to allow communication with devices on a different network C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
Correct Answer: AE
54 Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.) A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network. B. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network. C. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network. D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address 192.168.2.4. E. It uses the default administrative distance. F. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist.
Correct Answer: AE
56 What are two benefits that the UDP protocol provide for application traffic? (Choose two.) A. UDP traffic has lower overhead than TCP traffic B. UDP provides a built-in recovery mechanism to retransmit lost packets C. The CTL field in the UDP packet header enables a three-way handshake to establish the connection D. UDP maintains the connection state to provide more stable connections than TCP E. The application can use checksums to verify the integrity of application data
Correct Answer: AE
64 What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two.) A. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time B. achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering C. housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering D. runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers E. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests
Correct Answer: AE
110 How do TCP and UDP fit into a query-responsible model? A. TCP avoids using sequencing and UDP avoids using acknowledgments B. TCP establishes a connection prior to sending data, and UDP sends immediately C. TCP encourages out-of-order packet delivery, and UDP prevents re-ordering D. TCP uses error detection for packets, and UDP uses error recovery.
Correct Answer: B
111 What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming in an enterprise network? A. a lightweight access point B. a wireless LAN controller C. a firewall D. a LAN switch
Correct Answer: B
113 A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign? A. IPv4-compatible IPv6 address B. unique local address C. link-local address D. aggregatable global address
Correct Answer: B
115 A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply? A. interface vlan 2000 ipv6 address ff00:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64 B. interface vlan 2000 ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64 C. interface vlan 2000 ipv6 address fe80:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64 D. interface vlan 2000 ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa::a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64
Correct Answer: B
37 An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor. One subnet must be used. Which command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently? A. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 B. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0 C. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128 D. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224
Correct Answer: B
45 What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame? A. 00:00:0c:07:ac:01 B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff C. 43:2e:08:00:00:0c D. 00:00:0c:43:2e:08 E. 00:00:0c:ff:ff:ff
Correct Answer: B
52 Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure? A. NAT B. 6 to 4 tunneling C. L2TPv3 D. dual-stack
Correct Answer: B
79 An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines? A. router B. hypervisor C. switch D. straight cable
Correct Answer: B
83 Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request? A. data B. management C. control D. action
Correct Answer: B
92 What are network endpoints? A. support inter-VLAN connectivity B. a threat to the network if they are compromised C. act as routers to connect a user to the service provider network D. enforce policies for campus-wide traffic going to the Internet
Correct Answer: B
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets? A. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data, UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost. B. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking. C. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data; UDP is a connectionoriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery. D. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake.
Correct Answer: B
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet? A. 172.9.0.0/16 B. 172.28.0.0/16 C. 192.0.0.0/8 D. 209.165.201.0/24
Correct Answer: B
60 What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address? A. 00000000 B. 11111100 C. 11111111 D. 11111101
Correct Answer: B A IPv6 Unique Local Address is an IPv6 address in the block FC00::/7, which means that IPv6 Unique Local addresses begin with 7 bits with exact binary pattern as 1111 110 -> Answer B is correct. Note: IPv6 Unique Local Address is the approximate IPv6 counterpart of the IPv4 private address. It is not routable on the global Internet.
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet? A. link-local B. unique local C. multicast D. global unicast
Correct Answer: B A IPv6 Unique Local Address is an IPv6 address in the block FC00::/7. It is the approximate IPv6 counterpart of the IPv4 private address. It is not routable on the global Internet. Note: In the past, Site-local addresses (FEC0::/10) are equivalent to private IP addresses in IPv4 but now they are deprecated. Link-local addresses only used for communications within the local subnet. It is usually created dynamically using a link-local prefix of FE80::/10 and a 64-bit interface identifier (based on 48-bit MAC address)
84 What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP? A. TCP transmits data at a higher rate and ensures packet delivery. UDP retransmits lost data to ensure applications receive the data on the remote end. B. TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery. C. UDP sets up a connection between both devices before transmitting data. TCP uses the three-way handshake to transmit data with a reliable connection. D. UDP is used for multicast and broadcast communication. TCP is used for unicast communication and transmits data at a higher rate with error checking.
Correct Answer: B UDP speeds up transmissions by enabling the transfer of data before an agreement is provided by the receiving party. As a result, UDP is beneficial in time- sensitive communications, including voice over IP (VoIP), domain name system (DNS) lookup, and video or audio playback.
55 What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.) A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses. B. They are less costly than public IP addresses. C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections. D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies. E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: BC
127 Which two characteristics describe the access layer in a three-tier network architecture? (Choose two.) A. serves as the network aggregation point B. physical connection point for a LAN printer C. designed to meet continuous redundant uptime requirements D. layer at which a wireless access point connects to the wired network E. provides a boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 communications
Correct Answer: BD
57 Which two goals reasons to implement private IPv4 addressing on your network? (Choose two.) A. Comply with PCI regulations B. Conserve IPv4 address C. Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers D. Reduce the risk of a network security breach E. Comply with local law
Correct Answer: BD
87 What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.) A. Both support speeds up to 10 Gigabit. B. Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit. C. Both support runs of up to 55 meters. D. Both support runs of up to 100 meters. E. Both operate at a frequency of 500 MHz.
Correct Answer: BD
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.) A. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections B. The glass core component is encased in a cladding C. The data can pass through the cladding D. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber E. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using RJ-45 connections
Correct Answer: BD
116 What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose two.) A. It uniquely identifies a client in a WLAN. B. It is at most 32 characters long C. It uniquely identifies an access point in a WLAN D. It provides secured access to a WLAN. E. It can be hidden or broadcast in a WLAN.
Correct Answer: BE
19 What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two.) A. when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used B. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex C. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again D. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted E. when the cable length limits are exceeded
Correct Answer: BE A late collision is defined as any collision that occurs after the first 512 bits (or 64th byte) of the frame have been transmitted. The usual possible causes are full- duplex/half-duplex mismatch, exceeded Ethernet cable length limits, or defective hardware such as incorrect cabling, non-compliant number of hubs in the network, or a bad NIC. Late collisions should never occur in a properly designed Ethernet network. They usually occur when Ethernet cables are too long or when there are too many repeaters in the network.
105 Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time? A. global unicast address B. link-local address C. anycast address D. multicast address
Correct Answer: C
106 What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing? A. composed of up to 65,536 available addresses B. issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number C. used without tracking or registration D. traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied
Correct Answer: C
107 What is a function of an endpoint on a network? A. provides wireless services to users in a building B. connects server and client device to a network C. allows users to record data and transmit to a file server D. forwards traffic between VLANs on a network
Correct Answer: C
117 When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handled? A. flooded to all ports except the one from which it originated B. forwarded to the first available port C. sent to the port identified for the known MAC address D. broadcast to all ports
Correct Answer: C
120 What is a characteristic of a SOHO network? A. includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy B. connects each switch to every other switch in the network C. enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection D. provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users
Correct Answer: C
22 What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding? A. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs. B. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in MAC address table. C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port. D. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.
Correct Answer: C
24 Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface? A. explicitly assign a link-local address B. disable the EUI-64 bit process C. enable SLAAC on an interface D. configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network
Correct Answer: C
33 What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated? A. The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value B. The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface C. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted D. The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification
Correct Answer: C
41 Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions? A. 5, 6, 7 B. 1, 2, 3 C. 1, 6, 11 D. 1, 5, 10
Correct Answer: C
42 How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery? A. TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgment, and parity checks, and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only B. TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks, and UDP uses retransmissions only C. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgements, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only D. TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only
Correct Answer: C
63 What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules? A. They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength B. They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module C. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable D. They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode
Correct Answer: C
74 Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP? A. UDP is used when low latency is optimal, and TCP is used when latency is tolerable. B. TCP is used when dropped data is more acceptable, and UDP is used when data is accepted out-of-order. C. TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are acceptable. D. UDP is used when data is highly interactive, and TCP is used when data is time-sensitive.
Correct Answer: C
76 A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied, the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface? A. ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B B. ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::500:a:4F:583B C. ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B D. ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5:a:4F:583B
Correct Answer: C
78 What is a role of access points in an enterprise network? A. integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks B. serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network C. connect wireless devices to a wired network D. support secure user logins to devices on the network
Correct Answer: C
81 In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization? A. The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts. B. The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the Internet for web services. C. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization. D. Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization
Correct Answer: C
A corporate office uses four floors in a building. Floor 1 has 24 users. Floor 2 has 29 users. Floor 3 has 28 users. Floor 4 has 22 users. Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration? A. 192.168.0.0/24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor B. 192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor C. 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor D. 192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor
Correct Answer: C
What identifies the functionality of virtual machines? A. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources. B. Each hypervisor supports a single virtual machine and a single software switch. C. The hypervisor virtualizes physical components including CPU, memory, and storage. D. Virtualized servers run efficiently when physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor.
Correct Answer: C
39 A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received. Which interface counter increments? A. runt B. collision C. late collision D. CRC
Correct Answer: C late collisions today often point to a duplex mismatch.
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received? A. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table. B. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning. C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN. D. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.
Correct Answer: C If the destination MAC address is not in the CAM table (unknown destination MAC address), the switch sends the frame out all other ports that are in the same VLAN as the received frame. This is called flooding. It does not flood the frame out the same port on which the frame was received.
8 In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required? A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them. B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks. C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch. D. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.
Correct Answer: C Spine-leaf architecture is typically deployed as two layers: spines (such as an aggregation layer), and leaves (such as an access layer). Spine-leaf topologies provide high-bandwidth, low-latency, nonblocking server-toserver connectivity. Leaf (aggregation) switches are what provide devices access to the fabric (the network of spine and leaf switches) and are typically deployed at the top of the rack. Generally, devices connect to the leaf switches. Devices can include servers, Layer 4-7 services (firewalls and load balancers), and WAN or Internet routers. Leaf switches do not connect to other leaf switches. In spine-and-leaf architecture, every leaf should connect to every spine in a full mesh. Spine (aggregation) switches are used to connect to all leaf switches and are typically d
80 How does a Cisco Unified Wireless Network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap? A. It allows the administrator to assign the channels on a per-device or per- interface basis. B. It segregates devices from different manufactures onto different channels. C. It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel. D. It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points.
Correct Answer: C https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/technotes/8- 3/b_RRM_White_Paper/dca.html
10 Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface? A. ipv6 address dhcp B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64 C. ipv6 address autoconfig D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local
Correct Answer: C ipv6 address autoconfig command causes the device to perform IPv6 stateless The address auto-configuration to discover prefixes on the link and then to add the EUI-64 based addresses to the interface. Addresses are configured depending on the prefixes received in Router Advertisement (RA) messages. The device will listen for RA messages which are transmitted periodically from the router (DHCP Server). This RA message allows a host to create a global IPv6 address from: - Its interface identifier (EUI-64 address) - Link Prefix (obtained via RA) Note: Global address is the combination of Link Prefix and EUI-64 address
59 Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.) A. asychronous routing B. single-homed branches C. dual-homed branches D. static routing E. dynamic routing
Correct Answer: CE
70 What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.) A. acts as a central point for association and authentication servers B. selects the best route between networks on a WAN C. moves packets within a VLAN D. moves packets between different VLANs E. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet
Correct Answer: CE
100 What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing? A. to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization B. on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources C. on the public-facing interface of a firewall D. on hosts that communicate only with other internal hosts
Correct Answer: D
104 Which function forwards frames to ports that have a matching destination MAC address? A. frame flooding B. frame filtering C. frame pushing D. frame switching
Correct Answer: D
122 What is a function performed by a web server? A. send and retrieve email from client devices B. securely store files for FTP access C. authenticate and authorize a user's identity D. provide an application that is transmitted over HTTP
Correct Answer: D
125 Why is UDP more suitable than TCP for applications that require low latency such as VoIP? A. UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets: TCP drops packets under heavy load B. UDP uses sequencing data for packets to arrive in order TCP offers the capability to receive packets in random order C. TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery: UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets D. TCP sends an acknowledgement for every packet received: UDP operates without acknowledgments
Correct Answer: D
14 An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria? A. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252 B. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248 C. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248 D. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 209.165.201.2 225.255.255.252
Correct Answer: D
28 How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC? A. The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop B. The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC C. The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC
Correct Answer: D
29 Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address? A. 2000::/3 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/10 D. FF00::/12
Correct Answer: D
32 Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public addresses? A. multicast B. unique local C. link-local D. global unicast
Correct Answer: D
36 What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture? A. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth. B. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports. C. It provides variable latency. D. Each device is separated by the same number of hops.
Correct Answer: D
49 You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically. Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this? A. ip default-gateway B. ip route C. ip default-network D. ip address dhcp E. ip address dynamic
Correct Answer: D
66 What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device? A. to transmit wireless traffic between hosts B. to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet C. to forward traffic within the same broadcast domain D. to pass traffic between different networks
Correct Answer: D
69 A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software that is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend? A. infrastructure-as-a-service B. platform-as-a-service C. business process as service to support different types of service D. software-as-a-service
Correct Answer: D
88 What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology? A. onsite network services are provided with physical Layer 2 and Layer 3 components B. wireless connections provide the sole access method to services C. physical workstations are configured to share resources D. services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment
Correct Answer: D
89 Which network action occurs within the data plane? A. reply to an incoming ICMP echo request B. make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC C. run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP) D. compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table
Correct Answer: D
98 A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001:0EB8:00C1:2200:0001:0000:0000:0331/64. To simplify the configuration, the administrator has decided to compress the address. Which IP address must the administrator configure? A. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64 B. ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64 C. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64 D. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64
Correct Answer: D
What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate? A. Layer 2 switch B. LAN controller C. load balancer D. firewall
Correct Answer: D
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP? A. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol. B. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol. C. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol. D. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
Correct Answer: D
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address? A. 2000::/3 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/10 D. FF00::/8
Correct Answer: D
11 When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two.) A. 2000::/3 B. 2002::5 C. FC00::/7 D. FF02::1 E. FF02::2
Correct Answer: DE When an interface is configured with IPv6 address, it automatically joins the all nodes (FF02::1) and solicitednode (FF02::1:FFxx:xxxx) multicast groups. The all- node group is used to communicate with all interfaces on the local link, and the solicited-nodes multicast group is required for link-layer address resolution. Routers also join a third multicast group, the all-routers group (FF02::2).
