2021 Private Pilot Test Prep (Ch 4 & 5, ALL & AIR ONLY)
3837. An ATC clearance provides A— priority over all other traffic. B— adequate separation from all traffic. C— authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.
C— authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.
3137. What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700' AGL or below during daylight hours? A-1 mile visibility and clear of clouds B-1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds C-3 miles visbility and clear of clouds
A-1 mile visibility and clear of clouds
3520. (Refer to Figure 26, area 2) In flight and approaching the Bryn (Pvt.) Airstrip the weather minimums are A-1 statue mile visibility B-3 statue miles in all airspace C-no visibility, remain clear of clouds
A-1 statue mile visbility
2004. While on a VFR cross-country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency? A-121.5 MHz B-122.5 MHz C-128.725 MHz
A-121.5 MHz
3098. Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is A-200 knots B-230 knots C-250 knots
A-200 knots
3099. When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is A-200 knots B-230 knots C-250 knots
A-200 knots
3141. VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200' AGL and below 10,000' MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of A-3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace B-5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes C-5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace
A-3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace
3035. If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airman Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only A-30 days after the date of the move B-60 days after the date of the move C-90 days after the date of the move
A-30 days after the date of the move
3023-1. To operate under BasicMed the pilot-in-command must have completed a physical examination by a state-licensed physician within the preceding A-48 months B-24 months C-12 months
A-48 months
3104. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure A-500 feet B-700 feet C-1,000 feet
A-500 feet
3144. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200' AGL, but less than 10,000' MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is A-500 feet B-1,000 feet C-1,500 feet
A-500 feet
3077. A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A-8 hours B-12 hours C-24 hours
A-8 hours
3030. To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three landings and takeoffs in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of all the same type within the preceding A-90 days B-12 calendar months C-24 calendar months
A-90 days
3004. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft? A-Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon B-Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited C-Transport, restricted, provisional
A-Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon
3025. What is the definition of a high performance airplane? A-An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horse power B-An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed-pitch propeller C-An airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 200 knots
A-An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horse power
3093. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? A-Glider B-Airship C-Aircraft refueling other aircraft
A-Glider
3078. Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft? A-In an emergency of if the person is a medical patient under proper care C-Only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot's compartment C-Under no condition
A-In an emergency of if the person is a medical patient under proper care
3079-1. How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division? A-No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action B-No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action C-Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate
A-No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action
3003. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft? A-Normal, utility, acrobatic B-Airplane, rotorcraft, glider C-Landplane, seaplane
A-Normal, utility, acrobatic
3014. Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance? A-Replenishing hydraulic fluid B-Repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams C-Repair of landing gear brace struts
A-Replenishing hydraulic fluid
3067. (Refer to Figure 74.) What minimum pilot certificate is required for a flight departing out of Hayward Executive (area 6)? A-Student Pilot Certificate B-Private Pilot Certificate C-Sport Pilot Certificate
A-Student Pilot Certificate
3092. An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way? A-The airship B-The airplane C-Each pilot should alter course to the right
A-The airship
3041. Each recreational or private pilot is required to have A-a biennial flight review B-an annual flight review C-a semiannual flight review
A-a biennial flight review
3101. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere? A-an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface B-An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure C-An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet
A-an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface
3064. In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may A-not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expanses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees B-act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment C-not be paid in any manner or the operating expanses of a flight
A-not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expanses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees
3083. Flight crew members are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during A-takeoffs and landings B-all flight conditions C-flight in turbulent air
A-takeoffs and landings
3143. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR flight is A— 1 mile. B— 3 miles. C— 5 miles.
A— 1 mile.
3172. An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding A-120 days B-180 days C-365 days
B-180 days
3100. When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed is authorized A-180 knots B-200 knots C-250 knows
B-200 knots
3023-3. To maintain BasicMed privileges you are required to complete the comprehensive medical examination checklist (CMEC) every A-48 months B-24 months C-12 months
B-24 months
3097. Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000' MSL? A-200 knots B-250 knots C-288 knots
B-250 knots
3138. What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL A-1 mile B-3 miles C-4 miles
B-3 miles
3142. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200' AGL, but less than 10,000' MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is A-1 mile B-3 miles C-5 miles
B-3 miles
3157. Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000' AGL on a magnetic course of 185°? A-4,000 feet B-4,500 feet C-5,000 feet
B-4,500 feet
3023-2. For private pilot operations under BasicMed, the pilot-in-command is allowed to fly with no more than A-6 passengers B-5 passengers C-5 occupants
B-5 passengers
3139. The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000' MSL is A-remain clear of clouds B-500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally C-500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally
B-500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally
3024. The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft? A-Aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the Administrator B-Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds C-Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights
B-Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds
3001. With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft? A-Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon B-Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air C-Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea
B-Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air
3089. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic? A-A balloon B-An aircraft in distress C-An aircraft on final approach to land
B-An aircraft in distress
3103. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area? A-An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface B-An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure C-An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet
B-An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure
3039. A Third-Class medical Certificate was issued to a 19-year old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Recreational or Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on A-August 10, 2 years later B-August 31, 5 years later C-August 31, 2 years later
B-August 31, 5 years later
3080. Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight? A-Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries B-Becomes familiar with all available information concerning the flight C-Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures
B-Becomes familiar with all available information concerning the flight
3131. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane? A-Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions B-Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed C-Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
B-Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed
3110. What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority? A-Take no special action since you are pilot-in-command B-File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief or the appropriate ATC facility if requested C-File a report to the FAA Administrator, as soon as possible
B-File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief or the appropriate ATC facility if requested
3066. What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight? A-If the passengers paid all operating expenses B-If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight C-There is no exception
B-If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight
3087. Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when A-Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings B-Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only C-Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight
B-Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only
3002. With respect to the certification of airmen, which are classes of aircraft? A-Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than aur B-Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea C-Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon
B-Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea
3090. What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on? A-The faster aircraft shall give way B-The aircraft on the left shall give way C-Each aircraft shall give way to the right
B-The aircraft on the left shall give way
3085. With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts? A-The pilot-in-command must instruct the passengers to keep their safety belts fastened for the entire flight B-The pilot-in-command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoffs, and landing C-The pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passengers' use of safety belts
B-The pilot-in-command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoffs, and landing
3096. A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way? A-The motorboat B-The seaplane C-Both should alter course to the right
B-The seaplane
3173. With certain exceptions when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute? A-When door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers B-When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more C-when intentionally banking in excess of 30 degrees
B-When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more
3154. No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the A-flight can be conducted 500 feet below the clouds B-airplane is equipped for instrument flight C-flight visibility is at least 3 miles
B-airplane is equipped for instrument flight
3182. Completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by A-the relicensing date on the registration Certificate B-an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records C-an inspection sticker placed on the instrument panel that lists the annual inspection completion date
B-an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records
3108. When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is A-when the clearance states "at pilot's discretion" B-an emergency C-of the clearance contains a restriction
B-an emergency
3150. A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is A-less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet B-at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds C-at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds
B-at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds
3013-2. What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance? A-14 CFR Part 91.403 B-14 CFR Part 43.7 C-14 CFR Part 61.113
B-14 CFR Part 43.7
3620-2. (Refer to Figure 22, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate at night over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are A— 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud. B— 3 miles and clear of clouds. C— 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
A— 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
3033. The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot-in-command at night must be done during the time period from A-sunset to sunrise B-1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise C-the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight
B-1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise
3140. During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200' AGL, but less than 10,000' MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is A-500 feet B-1,000 feet C-1,500 feet
B-1,000 feet
3149. The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are A-500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visbility B-1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visbility C-clear of clouds and 2 miles visbility
B-1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visbility
3036. A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of A-100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time in any aircraft, that the pilot is using to tow a glider B-100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow the glider C-200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider
B-100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow the glider
3072. If an in-flight emergency required immediate action, the pilot-in-command may A-deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administer within 24 hours B-deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency C-not deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the administrator
B-deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency
3158. Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousands plus 500' altitude while on a A-magnetic heading of 0 degrees through 179 degrees B-magnetic course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees C- true course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees
B-magnetic course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees
3179. Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificates A-beneath the floor of Class B airspace B-over a densely populated area or in a congested airway C-from the primary airport within Class D airspace
B-over a densely populated area or in a congested airway
3013-3. Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for service? A: Student or Recreational pilot. B: Private or Commercial pilot. C: None of the above.
B: Private or Commercial pilot.
3146. For VFR flight operations above 10,000' MSL and more than 1,200' AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is A-1,000 feet B-2,000 feet C-1 mile
C-1 mile
(3621.3) (Refer to Figure 78.) What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day A-3 statue miles visbility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 feet above the clouds and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds B-0 statue miles, clear of clouds C-1 statue mile, clear of clouds
C-1 statue mile, clear of clouds
3029. If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1850, the latest time passengers may be carried is A-1829 B-1859 C-1929
C-1929
3136. During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200' AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is A-1,000 feet B-1,500 feet C-2,000 feet
C-2,000 feet
3028. To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding A-6 calendar months B-12 calendar months C-24 calendar months
C-24 calendar months
3191. No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding A-6 calendar months B-12 calendar months C-24 calendar months
C-24 calendar months
3145. The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000' MSL and more than 1,200' AGL in controlled airspace is A-1 mile B-3 miles C-5 miles
C-5 miles
3156. Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175°? The terrain is less than 1,000'? A-4,500 feet B-5,000 feet C-5,500 feet
C-5,500 feet
3102. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas? A-An altitude of 1,000 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure B-An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet of the aircraft C-An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft
C-An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft
3016. What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft? A-Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current flight review B-A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience C-An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required
C-An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate
3017. When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft? A-When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery B-Only when passengers are carried C-Anytime when acting as pilot-in-command or as a required crewmember
C-Anytime when acting as pilot-in-command or as a required crewmember
3040. If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required? A-August 8, 2 years later B-August 31, next year C-August 31, 2 years later
C-August 31, 2 years later
3094. What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course? A-The airplane pilot should give way to the left B-The glider pilot should give way to the right C-Both pilots should give way to the right
C-Both pilots should give way to the right
3132. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane? A-Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions B-Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed C-Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
C-Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
3108-1. As Pilot in Command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance? A-When operating in Class A airspace at night B-If an ATC clearance is not understood and in VFR conditions C-In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidence system resolution advisory
C-In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidence system resolution advisory
3022. For private pilot operations, a Second-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 42-year old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on A-July 15, 2 years later B-July 31, 1 year later C-July 31, 2 years later
C-July 31, 2 years later
3185. An aircraft's annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than A-July 1, next year B-July 13, next year C-July 31, next year
C-July 31, next year
3021. A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 51-year old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on A-May 3, 1 year later B-May 31, 1 year later C-May 31, 2 years later
C-May 31, 2 years later
3155. Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135°? A-Even thousandths B-Even thousandths plus 500 feet C-Odd thousandths plus 500 feet
C-Odd thousandths plus 500 feet
3159. In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight? A-Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual B-Radio operator's permit, and repair and alteration forms C-Operating limitations and Registration Certificate
C-Operating limitations and Registration Certificate
3084. Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crew members are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened A-Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing. B-Safety belts during takeoff and landings; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route C-Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing
C-Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing
3192. Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. the next inspection will be due no later than A-September 30, 2015 B-September 1,2016 C-September 30,2016
C-September 30,2016
3153. What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night? A-The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace B-The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder C-The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped
C-The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped
3073. When must a pilot who deviated from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator? A-Within 7 days B-Within 10 days C-Upon request
C-Upon request
3081. Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include A-the designation of an alternate airport B-a study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use C-an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned
C-an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned
3037. To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 24 months A-at least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft B-at least three flights in a powdered glider C-at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot
C-at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot
3095. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft A-that has the other to its right B-that is the least maneuverable C-at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another
C-at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another
3082. In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to A-review traffic control light signal procedures B-check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT.) C-determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data
C-determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data
3148. No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the A-flight visbility at that airport is at least 1 mile B-ground visbility at that airport is at least 1 mile C-ground visbility at that airport is at least 3 miles
C-ground visbility at that airport is at least 3 miles
3019. Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any A-authorized representative of the Department of Transportation B-person in a position of authority C-local law enforement officer
C-local law enforcement officer
3032. The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane A-may be touch and go or full stop B-much be touch and go C-must be to a full stop
C-must be to a full stop
3026. Before a person holding a Private Pilot Certificate may act as pilot-in-command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have A-passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector B-an endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot-in-command C-received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook
C-received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook
3005. The definition of nighttime is A-sunset to sunrise B-1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise C-the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight
C-the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight
3621-2. (Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown after departing and climbing out of Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are A— 3 miles and clear of clouds. B— 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. C— 1 mile and clear of clouds.
C— 1 mile and clear of clouds.
3621-1. (Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are A— 1 mile and clear of clouds. B— 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. C— 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
C— 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.