AAMC Independent Flashcard GM
Anomie
Social Anomie - breakdown of social bonds between an individual and community. "Associated with functionalist theoretical paradigm in sociology. The concept of anomie describes the alienation that individuals feel when social norms and social bonds are weak. Without attachment to society, people will experience purposelessness, and aimlessness. Periods of rapid social change are often associated with anomie."
Neural Plasticity
Neural Plasticity - changes in brain size/ and involves function of environmental influences
The physical properties for two proteins are shown. Based on the information in the table, which technique would be best suited to separate the two proteins from one another? _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A Isoelectric focusing B Native PAGE C SDS-PAGE under nonreducing conditions D SDS-PAGE under reducing conditions
Only SDS-PAGE under reducing conditions would show two bands for Protein 1 at distinctly different molecular weights than the single band for Protein 2.
role exit
Role Exit: Also called Social Role Exit. When an individual stops engaging in a role previously central to their identity and the process of establishing a new identity. o Example: When an individual retires from a long career and must transition from the role of worker with deadlines and responsibilities to a leisurely life or when an individual becomes a parent and has to change their lifestyle
Socioeconomic Status
Socioeconomic Status: defined as consisting of income (or wealth), educational attainment, and/or occupational status • Socioeconomic Gradient: Refers to the negative coorelation between socioeconomic status and p
Specific activity is a measure of: _ A the total units of an enzyme in a solution. B the amount of substrate converted to product in one minute. C the enzyme units per milligram of total protein in a solution. D the concentration of enzyme that results in a particular rate of catalysis.
The answer is C because the activity is a measure of the amount of enzyme per milligram of total protein. This provides a measure of the purity of an enzymatic mixture.
+ve vs _ve punishment
Positive punishment = Positive punishment means something is added to decrease tendency something will occur again. Ex. giving a speeding ticket (adding) to decrease behavior of speeding (behavior). o Negative punishment = something taken away in effort to decrease tendency it'll occur again. Ex. taking away your license.
median vs mean
- Median is not affected by extreme values (outliers) - Mean is affected by outliers
How many molecules of NADH are produced from six molecules of glucose that undergo glycolysis? _ A 3 B 6 C 12 D 18
The answer is C because each cycle of glycolysis produces two NADH molecules and requires an input of one glucose molecule.
Out group vs ingroup
"In" group - the one we are connected with. "US". Stronger interactions with those in the in-group than those in the out-group. Interactions are more common and more influential as well within In-group. o "Out" group - "THEM". Group we're not associated with, "group of people who we do not feel connected too" o In-Group favouritism - we favour/friendly to people in our own group, but those in out-group we are neutral - we don't give them favours we do to our in-group. o Out-group derogation - we are super friendly to our in group, but not friendly to out group - we discriminate. Happens if we feel that the out group is threatening to or undermine in group's success.
Ethnicity vs. Race
- **Race:** Socially defined category based on physical differences between people. - Racial formation theory studies how social, economic, and political forces shape racial identities. - Historical factors can lead to racial differences, even when physical traits aren't distinct. - **Ethnicity:** - Socially defined by shared language, religion, nationality, and culture. - More fluid than race, definitions can change over time. - **Minorities and Discrimination:** - Ethnic minorities can assimilate into the majority after generations. - Discrimination is unjust treatment due to categorization; often driven by prejudice. -
- Culture Assimilation:
-assimilation (where minority group is absorbed into the majority). - Culture Assimilation: Cultural assimilation is interpenetration and fusion of ethnic minorities into the dominant culture
Which sociological theory best explains the existence of cross-cultural differences in how mental health disorders are classified? _ A Functionalism B Exchange theory C Social constructionism D Conflict theory
. Social constructionism presumes that ideas (such as knowledge about health and disease) are created through historical processes that are socially defined and culturally distinct. Thus, variation in mental illness classification across societies with different cultures suggests that such disorders are socially constructed. The reference to cultural differences and classification in the question indicates an explanation derived from social constructionism.
actor-observer bias
Actor-Observer Bias: we are victims of, but others are wilful actors. (same thing as saying: circumstance (we attribute out personal behavior but others behavior on internal factors)
When an element undergoes β decay, a nuclear neutron is converted to a nuclear proton as the nucleus emits an electron. What happens to the atomic number and atomic mass of an element that undergoes β decay? _ A The atomic number increases, but the atomic mass stays approximately the same. B The atomic number stays the same, but the atomic mass decreases. C Both the atomic number and the atomic mass decrease. D The atomic number decreases, but the atomic mass stays approximately the same.
: A An electron has a negative charge and very little mass compared with the charge and mass of nucleons. If an electron is emitted by a nucleus to balance the charge, the nucleus must gain one positive charge (a proton); thus, the atomic number (number of protons in nucleus) increases by one. However, the atomic mass is nearly unchanged because an electron has only 0.05% of a proton's mass. Thus, A is the best answer.
Validity vs Reliability vs Generalizability
Analyzing Tests: Quality Criteria Validity: Measures if test measures what it claims. High validity: items linked to test's focus. Poor validity: test doesn't measure as intended. Standardized: Same questions for all, scored consistently. Often for large-scale tests. Reliability: Consistency in examinee performance. High reliability: consistent conclusions. Poor reliability: varying scores. Fairness: Bias-free, suitable for all qualified examinees. No disadvantage based on factors. Generalizability: Applying results to populations or theories. Requires representative study sample. Requirements for Generalizability: Consider context and influences on results. Example: Swedish study on exercise for male workers with back pain. Tested exercise approaches, quicker return-to-work with program. Please note that this is a condensed version and may not include all the details from the original text.
A study uses the receipt of government assistance to indicate socioeconomic status. Which of the following reflects the main methodological issue that is raised by using this measure? _ A Validity B Reliability C Generalizability D Reproducibilit
Answer Key: A Socioeconomic status is typically defined as consisting of income (or wealth), educational attainment, and/or occupational status. Validity refers to the extent to which a measure reflects the phenomenon being studied. Although receiving government assistance (such as unemployment benefits or other forms of social welfare) could be a possible proxy indicator for income, it does not provide a direct measure of income. Thus, government assistance as a measure of socioeconomic status raises the issue of validity, since there are other available measures that would more directly assess the construct.
Approximately how many moles of Al3+ are reduced when 0.1 faraday of charge passes through a cell during the production of Al? (Note: Assume there is excess Al3+ available and that Al3+ is reduced to Al metal only.) _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A 0.033 mol B 0.050 mol C 0.067 mol D 0.10 mol
Answer Key: A A faraday is equal to one mole of electric charge. Because each aluminum ion gains 3 electrons, 0.1 faraday of charge will reduce 0.1/3 moles of aluminum, or 0.033 moles of aluminum.
In a nearsighted individual, the image of a distant object is focused: _ A in front of the retina, requiring diverging lens correction. B in front of the retina, requiring converging lens correction. C behind the retina, requiring diverging lens correction. D behind the retina, requiring converging lens correction.
Answer Key: A A nearsighted (myopic) person can focus on nearby objects but cannot clearly see objects far away. The nearsighted eye has a focal length that is shorter than it should be, so the rays from a distant object form a sharp image in front of the retina. This condition is corrected by glasses with a diverging lens. Choice A is the correct answer.
A 15.0-eV photon collides with and ionizes a hydrogen atom. If the atom was originally in the ground state (ionization potential =13.6 eV), what is the kinetic energy of the ejected electron? _ A 1.4 eV B 13.6 eV C 15.0 eV D 28.6 eV
Answer Key: A Conservation of energy requires that the 15.0 eV photon energy first provides the ionization energy to unbind the electron, and then allows any excess energy to become the electron's kinetic energy. The kinetic energy in this case is 15.0 eV - 13.6 eV = 1.4 eV. Thus the correct answer is A.
A wound that penetrates the rib cage and lets air into the right pleural cavity stops air flow into the right lung because the: _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A lung cannot be expanded. B rib cage cannot be expanded. C diaphragm cannot be lowered. D air dries and stiffens the lung.
Answer Key: A Non-forced inspiration occurs when the diaphragm and muscles between the ribs (intercostal muscles) contract. The ribs attached at the sternum and spine lift in what is called a "bucket-handle" motion and the diaphragm flattens. These motions increase the volume of the thoracic cavity. Between the lung and the thoracic wall is a space, the pleural cavity. As the volume of the thoracic cavity increases, atmospheric pressure presses against the inside of the flexible, elastic lung tissue forcing it to conform to the thoracic wall. Air thus enters the lung as it expands with the thorax. If the thoracic wall is pierced (causing what is known as a sucking chest wound), air enters the pleural cavity. The air pressure inside and outside the lung balance causing the lung to elastically collapse and preventing air intake. The rib cage can still expand (so choice B is incorrect), the diaphragm can still contract (so choice C is incorrect), but the lung cannot be expanded in response, so the correct response is A. Choice D is incorrect because the effect is immediate and it would take some time for the lung to dry and stiffen, if indeed that would happen at all.
The normal path of sperm movement from the male testis to the point of fertilization in the female is: _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A epididymis, vas deferens, urethra, vagina, cervix, uterus, fallopian tube. B epididymis, vas deferens, ureter, cervix, uterus, fallopian tube. C epididymis, vas deferens, urethra, vagina, uterus, ovary. D interstitial cells, epididymis, vas deferens, vagina, uterus, ovary.
Answer Key: A The question asks the examinee to identify the correct order of structures through which sperm cells travel from the male testis to the point of fertilization in the female. As sperm cells leave the testis they travel through the epididymis to the vas deferens and into the urethra. The sperm then enter the female's vagina, travel through the cervix and uterus, and enter the fallopian tube, where fertilization most commonly takes place. Of the options listed, only A correctly identifies both the structures and the order. Thus, A is the best answer
An object is placed upright on the axis of a thin convex lens at a distance of four focal lengths (4f) from the center of the lens. An inverted image appears at a distance of 4/3f on the other side of the lens. What is the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object? _ A 1/3 B 3/4 C 4/3 D 3/1
Answer Key: A The ratio of object to image distance equals the ratio of object to image height. The ratio of image to object height is found by rearranging the ratios to give (4f/3)/4f = 1/3. The image is demagnified by a factor of 3. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.
A rat receives food for pressing a lever on a variable ratio schedule. Which pattern of responding is most likely to be observed? _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A Relatively high response rate with predictable pauses after reinforcement B Relatively high response rate with no predictable pauses C Relatively low response rate with a predictable increase in responding right before reinforcement D Fluctuating response rate with a predictable increase in responding right after reinforcement
Answer Key: B This is a Psychology question that falls under content category "Attitude and behavior change." The answer to this question is B because a variable ratio schedule leads to high response rates with no predictable pauses.
Which of the following procedures would be LEAST likely to prevent bacterial synthesis of the superantigen protein? _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A Adding tRNA nucleotides that can bind to mRNA and bacterial ribosomes B Adding a repressor protein that binds to the operator site of the bacterial superantigen gene C Adding a specific complementary nucleic acid sequence that can bind to mRNA transcribed from the superantigen gene D Adding a stop codon within the bacterial superantigen gene
Answer Key: A The stem asks students to identify the procedure that would be LEAST likely to prevent synthesis of the superantigen. Foils B (binding of the operator), C (binding of the mRNA), and D (insertion of a stop codon) would all be effective ways to prevent synthesis of the superantigen. Adding tRNA nucleotides would be unlikely to prevent synthesis of the antigen. Therefore, the key is A.
An electrolytic cell is designed to produce pure copper from CuSO4. An increase in which of the following cell conditions will most effectively increase the rate at which pure copper is produced? _ A The concentration of SO42+(aq) B The current of electricity C The size of the cathode D The size of the anode
Answer Key: B An electrolytic cell drives a non-spontaneous reaction using electrical energy. In the electrolytic cell, electrons are driven in through the cathode and drawn out through the anode. The rate at which this occurs is the current. By increasing the current, electrons are forced in faster, increasing the rate of reduction, and are withdrawn faster thus increasing the rate of oxidation. Answer choice B is the best answer.
In the circuit shown above, the current in the 2-ohm resistance is 2 A. What is the current in the 3-ohm resistance? A 2 A B 3 A C 4 A D 6 A
Answer Key: B Currents in parallel resistors are inversely proportional to their individual resistances because they have the same voltage drop across them (Ohm's law). Since the 2 ohm resistor in the diagram has 2 A, the parallel 4 ohm resistor has 1 A through it. These currents add to 3 A as they combine to pass through the 3 ohm resistor (Kirchhoff's junction rule).
Which of the following structures is derived from the same germ cell layer as the heart? _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A Eye B Bone C Spinal cord D Liver
Answer Key: B In gastrulation, the three cell regions, or germ layers, are formed in the embryo. From the outer layer (ectoderm) come cells of the nervous system and epidermis, from the inner layer (endoderm) come cells of the lining of the digestive tube and associated organs, and from the middle layer (mesoderm) come the blood cells, connective tissues (bones, muscles, and tendons), and several organs (kidney, heart, gonads). Thus, the eye and spinal cord are formed from ectoderm, the liver is formed from endoderm, and the heart and bone are formed from mesoderm.
Which of the following hormones is LEAST directly regulated by the anterior pituitary? _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A Cortisone B Epinephrine C Progesterone D Thyroxin
Answer Key: B The correct answer is option B, epinephrine. Epinephrine is secreted by the adrenal medulla and its secretion is controlled by the autonomic nervous system. Secretion of the other three hormones is regulated by secretion of anterior pituitary hormones. Cortisone secretion is regulated by adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), progesterone by luteinizing hormone (LH), and thyroxin by thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH).
A gas that occupies 10 L at 1 atm and 25oC will occupy what volume at 500 atm and 25oC? _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A Exactly 0.020 L B Somewhat more than 0.02 L because of the space occupied by the individual gas molecules C Somewhat more than 0.02 L because of the repulsions between the individual gas molecules D Somewhat more than 0.02 L because of the increased number of collisions with the sides of the container
Answer Key: B The ideal gas law makes the assumption that molecules have no volume. This assumption is adequate when the gas is at 1 atm, but when the pressure is increased to 500 atm the volume of the gas molecules is no longer negligible.
Consider an organism that has three pairs of chromosomes, AaBbCc, in its diploid cells. How many genotypically different kinds of haploid cells can it produce? _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A 4 B 8 C 16 D 32
Answer Key: B The number of different possible gametes that can be formed by diploid organisms as a result of independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis can be calculated using the formula 2n where n is the haploid number of chromosomes. In this case, the haploid number is 3, making the number of different haploid cells 23, or 8. Thus, B is the best answer.
If chromosomal duplication before tetrad formation occurred twice during spermatogenesis, while the other steps of meiosis proceeded normally, which of the following would result from a single spermatocyte? _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A One tetraploid sperm B Four diploid sperm C Four haploid sperm D Eight haploid sperm
Answer Key: B The question asks the examinee to predict the result if chromosomal duplication occurred twice before tetrad formation and all other steps in spermatogenesis occurred normally. If all other steps occur normally, then four sperm would be produced. Because replication occurred twice instead of once prior to tetrad formation, each sperm would have twice the normal amount of DNA. As a result, four diploid sperm would be produced instead of four haploid sperm. A, C, and D are incorrect because they describe results that contain an incorrect number of sperm or ploidy number for the sperm produced. Thus, B is the best answer.
The following reaction occurs spontaneously.Cd(s) + 2 H+(aq) → Cd2+(aq) + H2(g) Which of the following has the highest electron affinity? _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A Cd(s) B H+(aq) C Cd2+(aq) D H2(g)
Answer Key: B The reaction equation shows the reduction of H+ by Cd. Because the H+ accepts the electron readily from Cd, it can be determined that H+ has the highest electron affinity.
A battery in a circuit has an electromotive force given by ℰ and an internal resistance of r. The battery provides a current i to the circuit. What is the terminal voltage of the battery? _ A ℰ B ℰ - ir C ℰ + ir D ℰ + i2r
Answer Key: B The terminal voltage is the voltage provided to the external components of the circuit. The battery voltage ℰ will be reduced by the voltage required to overcome the internal resistance, so V = ℰ - ir. Thus, B is the best answer.
Synthesis of antibody proteins in eukaryotic cells is associated with what organelle? _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A Nucleus B Mitochondrion C Endoplasmic reticulum D Golgi apparatus
Answer Key: C As secreted proteins, antibodies are translated by ribosomes attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum. Thus, C is the best answer.
With which of the above metals can copper form a galvanic cell in which copper is reduced? _ A With silver only B With lead only C With lead and zinc D With silver and zinc
Answer Key: C In order for an oxidation-reduction reaction to proceed spontaneously, the cell potential Ecell° for the net reaction must be positive. The cell potential Ecell° can be found by subtracting the standard reduction potential Ered° for the substance being oxidized from that of the substance being reduced. The question asks which metals can reduce copper ions. This means that the metals in question are oxidized. The difference in standard reduction potentials Ecell° from the table is positive for lead and zinc but negative for silver. Thus, the correct answer is C.
An object with 15 grams mass is immersed in benzene and suffers an apparent loss of mass of 5 grams. What is the approximate specific gravity of the object? (Data: Specific gravity of benzene = 0.7.) _ A 1.4 B 1.8 C 2.1 D 3.0
Answer Key: C The buoyant force on an object immersed in a fluid is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object (Archimedes' principle). There were 5 g of liquid displaced; thus, the ratio of object mass to fluid mass is 15/5 = 3. The specific gravity of the object (mass per unit volume compared with water) is three times the specific gravity of benzene (3 x 0.7 = 2.1) because the volumes of object and displaced liquid are equal.
Which of the following valence electron configurations corresponds to an atom in an excited state? _ A 1s22s2 B 2s22p1 C 3s23d1 D 4s23d2
Answer Key: C The ground state electron configuration of an atom is generally written as follows: 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s2... with the orbital energetics following the (n + l) rule. When an electron is excited, it "jumps" to a higher energy subshell. Since the 3d subshell (n + l = 5) differs by more than one unit of (n + l) from the 3s subshell (n + l = 3) it is clear that the electron in the 3d subshell is in an "excited" state. Thus, C is the best answer.
The mineral component of human bone is a salt that consists primarily of all of the following EXCEPT: _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A calcium. B phosphate. C potassium. D hydroxyl groups.
Answer Key: C The inorganic component of bone consists of submicroscopic deposits of calcium phosphate similar to hydroxyapatite (Ca10[PO4]6[OH]2), so it would be expected to contain calcium, phosphate and hydroxyl groups. Therefore, the correct answer states that the component not found in the salt is potassium, answer choice C.
Suppose that in a randomly mating population of mammals, 160 of its 1,000 members exhibit a specific recessive trait that does not affect viability of the individual. How many individuals in this population are heterozygous carriers of the gene that causes this trait? _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A 160 B 400 C 480 D 600
Answer Key: C The number of individuals carrying the described trait is 480. The gene frequency of the recessive trait, q, can be ascertained by taking the square root of 16/100 or 0.4. Given this frequency, the frequency of p must be 1.0 - 0.4 = 0.6. According to the Hardy-Weinberg law, the frequency of carriers is thus given by 2 pq or 2 X .4 X .6 = .48 or 48%. 48% of 1000 = 480. Thus, answer choice C is the correct answer. reddit: q2 = .16 ---> q = .4 p = 1- q = 1-.4 = .6 Heterozygotes: 2pq = 2(.6)(.4) = .48 = 480 members are heterozygous
In which of the following does sound travel most rapidly? _ A Air (0°C) B Water (10°C) C Iron (20°C) D Sound travels at approximately the same speed in all of the above.
Answer Key: C The speed of sound is greatest by far in a solid because of the strong intermolecular bonds and close proximity of the molecules. Because the temperatures are close to each other (and even favor iron slightly), iron will have the highest sound speed. Thus, C is the best answer.
In a particular species of plant, tall vine depends on a dominant gene (T), and a pink flower is the result of the heterozygous condition of the genes for red and white flowers (Rr). What fraction of the offspring from the cross of a tall, pink plant (heterozygous for height) with a short, pink plant would be expected to be pink AND tall? _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A 3/4 B 1/2 C 3/8 D 1/4
Answer Key: D Based on the given information, the tall pink plant would have the genotype TtRr and could form the following gametes: TR, Tr, tR, and tr. The short pink plant would have the genotype ttRr and could form the following gametes: tR and tr. The possible genotypes of the offspring are displayed in the following Punnett square. Of these, 1/4 would be both pink (Rr) and tall (TT or Tt). Thus, D is the best answer.
Which pair of formulas represents the empirical and molecular formulas, respectively, of caffeine? _ A CHNO and C8H10N2O2 B C4H5N2O and C4H5N2O C C8H10N4O2 and C8H10N4O2 D C4H5N2O and C8H10N4O2
Answer Key: D Counting the numbers of atoms of different elements in the structure of caffeine gives the molecular formula, C8H10N4O2. The empirical formula of a compound is the simplest whole-number ratio of the moles of the elements in the compound. Dividing the molecular formula of caffeine by 2 gives the empirical formula, C4H5N2O. Thus, D is the best answer.
Which of the following statements best characterizes a material that is a good insulator but a poor conductor? _ A The material contains no electrons. B The magnitude of the electric field inside the material is always equal to zero. C The atoms in the material can easily move from one lattice site to another. D Electrons in the material cannot easily move from one atom to another.
Answer Key: D In insulators, the valence electrons are tightly bound to their atoms, and it takes a great amount of energy to free them from their atomic energy levels. Thus, D is the best answer.
When a light wave and a sound wave pass from air to glass, what changes occur in their speeds? _ A Both speed up. B Both slow down. C Light speeds up; sound slows down. D Light slows down; sound speeds up
Answer Key: D Light slows down because the index of refraction in the glass is greater than in the air. The index is a measure of the ratio of the velocity in air to the velocity in the medium. For sound the speed becomes greater because the speed of sound in a solid is much greater than in air (the glass has stiff rigid bonds which gives rise to a speed more than 10 times greater than in air).
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) acts to decrease urine output by increasing the water permeability of the walls of: _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A the glomerulus. B Bowman's capsule. C the loop of Henle. D the distal tubule and collecting duct.
Answer Key: D Passage of fluid from the blood through the walls of the glomerulus is a passive process and depends mostly on the hydrostatic pressure of the blood in the glomerular capillaries, so answer A is incorrect. The walls of Bowman's capsule do not take part in urine processing, so answer B is incorrect. ADH does not exert its effects on the loop of Henle so C is incorrect. ADH acts on the distal tubule and collecting duct to increase water permeability by the insertion of aquaporins in the plasma membrane. This increases water reabsorption, which reduces urine output, so D is correct.
The fundamental, resonant wavelength of a pipe open at both ends that is 1 m long and 0.1 m in diameter is: _ A 0.1 m. B 0.2 m. C 1.0 m. D 2.0 m.
Answer Key: D Pipes and tubes have their resonant wavelengths when standing waves develop. An open pipe has its fundamental, resonant wavelength at twice the length of the pipe. Both ends have displacement antinodes (maximum amplitudes) with a node in the middle of the pipe. Thus, the pipe is half a wavelength long. The resonant wavelength is independent of the diameter of the pipe. reddit: The explanation is basically qualitatively explaining the equation you listed. How I think of it is we start with an antinode and end with an antinode. At the fundamental frequency this will be half a wavelength with a node in the middle. The harmonics above will have additional nodes resulting in a smaller wavelength. I recommend sticking to the equations, they will never serve you wrong and you can determine this stuff using the wavelength/frequency equations if need be.
When a weak acid (HA) is titrated with sodium hydroxide in the presence of an indicator (HIn), the pH at which a color change is observed depends on the: _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A final concentration of HA. B final concentration of HIn. C initial concentration of HA. D pKa of HIn.
Answer Key: D The indicator will change color over a specific pH range. The range at which the color change takes place depends on the point at which HIn is converted to In-, and this depends on the pKa of the indicator which is answer D.
HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a retrovirus, an RNA virus that can insert itself into the human genome. This virus can reproduce in host cells because it contains: _ A enzymes that destroy T cells. B viral DNA that is compatible with human DNA. C core proteins rather than DNA. D reverse transcriptase.
Answer Key: D The question states that HIV is a retrovirus. For the virus to reproduce itself in host cells, its RNA must be converted to DNA, which requires the enzyme reverse transcriptase. Therefore, the key is D.
A researcher interested in actor-observer bias asks a group of viewer participants to watch a target participant work on a series of puzzles. Which two variables is the researcher most likely to compare in this study? _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A The viewers' memory for the puzzles and the target's memory for the puzzles B The viewers' estimate of the difficulty of the puzzles and the target's estimate of the difficulty of the puzzles C The viewers' likelihood of accurately remembering the target's performance and the target's likelihood of accurately remembering his or her own performance D The viewers' likelihood of attributing the target's performance to intellect and the target's likelihood of attributing his or her own success to intellect
Answer Key: D This is a Psychology question that falls under content category "Social thinking." The answer is D because actor-observer bias refers to the actor's tendency to explain his/her own behavior by situational factors whereas the observer tends to explain the actor's behavior by internal stable traits. Thus, an appropriate measure would be to assess whether the actor and the observer attribute the actor's behavior to a relatively stable trait such as intellect. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires applying the definition of actor-observer bias to predicting the researcher's variables.
aversive conditioning
Aversive Conditioning: Aversive conditioning is usually used to stop a particular behavior. The process involves pairing a habit a person wishes to break, such as smoking or bed-wetting, with an unpleasant stimulus such as electric shock or nausea. If I wanted to stop Shanikwa from smoking I could shock her every time she smokes. The shock is the UCS and the pain is the UCR. Once the smoking becomes associated with the electric shock (acquisition), Shanikwa will experience pain when she smokes, even without the shock. Thus the smoking will become the CS and the pain the CR (but only if the shock is no longer given).
Comparative Study/Research
Comparative Study/Research: Comparative research According to D.E Sanga (2004) Cooperative research is a research methodology in the social sciences that aims to make comparisons across different countries or cultures. A major problem in comparative research is that the data sets in different countries may not use the same categories, or define categories differently (for example by using different definitions ofpoverty). • The Flynn effect is an observation regarding the growth of IQ from one generation to the next
Culture Assimilation:
Culture Assimilation: Cultural assimilation is interpenetration and fusion of ethnic minorities into the dominant culture.
The socioeconomic gradient in health is best demonstrated by a negative correlation between which variables? _ A Age at arrival as an immigrant and exposure to chronic stressors B The level of economic development and life expectancy at birth C The percentage of people living in urban areas and the obesity rate D Educational attainment and risk factors for cardiovascular disease
D because it presents a relationship between variables that exemplifies the socioeconomic gradient in health. The socioeconomic gradient refers to the negative correlation between socioeconomic status and health risks (or a positive correlation between socioeconomic status and positive health outcomes, such as life expectancy). The correct answer refers to a situation in which greater educational attainment would be associated with fewer risk factors for disease (and lower educational attainment would be associated with more risk factors).
dramaturgical approach
Sure, here's a summarized version of the Dramaturgical Approach: - **Dramaturgical Approach:** This approach uses the metaphor of theater to understand social interactions. People are assumed to act in accordance with the expectations of their "audience." - **Erving Goffman:** He studied people's interactions and identified that individuals plan their conduct, control how they're seen, and often act differently in public versus private. - **Front Stage:** This is the public area of our lives, where interactions occur. People manipulate their behavior to present a certain image, even if it's not entirely true. It's like "putting on a front for an audience." - **Back Stage:** This is the private area of our lives, where we can be ourselves without the need to maintain a particular image. It's the part of life that's hidden from public view. - **Crossing Over:** In the age of social media, some individuals blend their backstage lives into their front stage personas, attempting to make a good impression by sharing carefully curated content. - **Example:** Imagine someone who claims to love baseball in front of their friends (front stage) even though they don't really enjoy it. In their private life (backstage), they might be into cooking shows, preparing nice meals, and hanging out with their cat. - **Impression Management:** People engage in "impression management" by presenting themselves in a way that aligns with their desired image. This concept is central to the dramaturgical approach. The Dramaturgical Approach suggests that human behavior in social settings can be understood through the lens of theater, where individuals play different roles and manage their impressions to meet social expectations.
n + 1 rule
The "n + 1" rule is a concept used in electron configuration to explain the order in which electrons are filled into different energy levels (shells) around an atom's nucleus. This rule helps in understanding the sequence of filling atomic orbitals based on their energy levels. In the context of the "n + 1" rule: - "n" represents the principal quantum number, which indicates the energy level or shell of an electron. - "n + 1" represents the energy level of the next shell or subshell to be filled. The rule states that as electrons are added to an atom in its ground state, they tend to fill the orbitals of the lower energy levels (lower values of "n") before they start filling the orbitals of the next energy level ("n + 1"). This principle follows the Aufbau principle, which states that electrons fill the lowest energy orbitals available before moving to higher energy orbitals. It's important to note that the "n + 1" rule is a simplification and doesn't account for all the complexities of electron behavior in atoms, such as electron-electron repulsions and variations in subshell energies. For example, consider the electron configuration of carbon (atomic number 6): 1s² 2s² 2p² The "n + 1" rule can be observed in this configuration. The 1s orbital is filled first, then the 2s orbital (n = 2), and finally, the 2p orbitals (n = 2 + 1 = 3). While the "n + 1" rule is a helpful guideline for understanding electron configuration patterns, it's important to refer to the actual periodic table and take into account other factors that can influence electron filling order, such as the relative energies of different subshells and electron-electron repulsions within a given subshell.
Uracil is produced from cytosine as a result of a conversion of: _ A an amine group to a carbonyl group. B a carbonyl group to an amine group. C an amine group to a methyl group. D a carbonyl group to a methyl group.
The answer is A because in the deamination of cytosine, the amine group of cytosine is replaced with a carbonyl group, resulting in the structure of uracil.
Which amino acid has the highest isoelectric focusing point? _ A Arg B Lys C Asn D Gln
The answer is A because the isoelectric point of an amino acid is the highest for basic amino acids, and arginine and lysine are both basic amino acids. However, arginine has a higher isoelectric point because it is more basic
Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) transfers a phosphate group to ADP in a spontaneous reaction, and ATP transfers a phosphate group to glucose in a spontaneous reaction, both under standard conditions. Based on this information, what is the relationship between the absolute values of the standard free energies of hydrolysis of PEP, ATP, and glucose 6-phosphate (G6P)? _ A PEP > ATP > G6P B G6P > ATP > PEP C ATP > G6P > PEP D PEP > G6P > ATP
The answer is A because the molecule with the most negative standard free energy of hydrolysis is also the molecule that is able to spontaneously transfer a phosphate group to create phosphorylated compounds of lower free energy. Therefore, if ATP can spontaneously transfer phosphate to glucose and PEP can spontaneously transfer phosphate to ADP, then PEP has the most negative standard free energy of hydrolysis followed by ATP. The absolute value of the most negative number is the largest value.
A graph of the hydropathy index versus residue number of a membrane protein is shown. According to the graph, how many transmembrane regions does this protein most likely contain? A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4
The answer is B because a positive hydropathy index means the amino acids are hydrophobic, and therefore more likely to reside within a plasma membrane. The graph shows two distinct stretches of hydrophobic residues.\\ reddit: Simply put, it doesn't matter how many times the graph intersects the x-axis (in this case, 4 times); it only matters how many regions are above that axis (2). So, this protein contains 2 hydrophobic (transmembrane) regions, and is not a 4-pass protein
Which protein has the highest affinity for its ligand? _ A Protein 1 B Protein 2 C Protein 3 D Protein 4
The answer is B because the protein with the lowest binding dissociation constant has the highest affinity for its ligand. The dissociation constant represents the ligand concentration that is necessary to achieve 50% binding.
Researchers collected the following data for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction. What is the approximate numerical value of the slope of the Lineweaver-Burk plot of these kinetic data? _ A 0.01 B 0.05 C 10 D 50
The answer is B because the slope of a Lineweaver-Burk plot is equivalent to KM/Vmax. From the data it is apparent that the Vmax is 200 μM/min, and the KM is therefore the substrate concentration at a V0 of 100 μM/min, or 10 μM. The numerical value of the slope is then 10/200 or 0.05. Km/Vmax
A heterotrimeric protein consists of three subunits with molecular weights of 10 kDa, 40 kDa, and 100 kDa. The protein is denatured with 3 M urea and subjected to size-exclusion chromatography. Which solute is the last compound to elute from the column? _ A The 10-kDa subunit B The 40-kDa subunit C The 100-kDa subunit D The urea
The answer is D because a size-exclusion column allows larger molecules to pass more freely through the column matrix and hinders the passage of smaller molecules. Urea is this smallest solute and would be the last to elute. Remember 1 amino acid is 110 da
Which event is LEAST likely to occur during apoptosis? _ A Cytochrome c release from the mitochondria B Cell shrinkage and blebbing C Caspase activation D Damage to nearby cells caused by lysis
The answer is D because damage to nearby cells caused by lysis is a characteristic of necrosis, not apoptosis
A patient with Korsakoff syndrome is very guarded toward the therapist and is reluctant to answer the therapist's questions. At subsequent appointments, the patient indicates not recognizing the therapist but is less guarded and more willing to answer questions. This suggests that the patient: _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A has no explicit memory of meeting the therapist but does have an implicit memory of the meeting. B has no episodic memory of meeting the therapist but does have a semantic memory of the meeting. C has no short-term memory of meeting the therapist but does have a long-term memory of the meeting. D has no sensory memory of meeting the therapist but does have a procedural memory of the meeting.
The answer to this question is A because the patient does not remember the therapist explicitly, but the change in his behavior indicates that he has an implicit memory of therapist, which likely results in him becoming less guarded.
Based on Piaget's theory of cognitive development, an 8-year-old child's cognition is likely to be characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A symbolic thinking. B hypothetical reasoning. C egocentrism. D conservation of mass.
The answer to this question is B because according to Piaget, an 8-year-old is in the concrete operational stage and cannot engage in hypothetical reasoning, which is not mastered until the formal operational stage. All of the other options describe skills that are mastered by the concrete operational stage.
Which statement best distinguishes ethnocentrism from cultural relativism? _ A Ethnocentrism refers to in-group favoritism, whereas cultural relativism recognizes an out-group bias. B Ethnocentrism assumes universal norms, whereas cultural relativism describes awareness of diversity. C Ethnocentrism emphasizes social interaction, whereas cultural relativism focuses on social institutions. D Ethnocentrism addresses discriminatory actions, whereas cultural relativism targets prejudicial beliefs.
The answer to this question is B because it most closely aligns with the distinction between ethnocentrism and cultural relativism. Ethnocentrism refers to using one's own cultural standards, such as norms and values, to make judgments about another culture. Cultural relativism, on the other hand, refers to an awareness of differences across cultures in norms, values, and other elements of culture.
An individual experiences shortness of breath and panic in confined spaces. To overcome this reaction, the individual decides to spend time in a confined space until the shortness of breath and panic response are eliminated. The patient is using which method to eliminate the symptoms? _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A Extinction of an operantly conditioned response B Extinction of a classically conditioned response C Counter conditioning D Aversive conditioning
The answer to this question is B because phobic responses are usually acquired through classical conditioning. Exposing oneself to the conditioned stimulus (in this case, the confined space) until the conditioned phobia is no longer elicited is consistent with the extinction of a classically conditioned response.
A researcher is interested in assessing the size of a patient's brain ventricles. Which method(s) is(are) appropriate for this purpose? I. An EEGII. A CAT scanIII. A PET scan _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A I only B II only C I and III only D II and III only
The answer to this question is B because the researcher is interested in the structure of the brain, which can be studied through a CAT scan. I
Regular breathing and regular, slow brain waves are most consistent with which stage of sleep? _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A NREM1 B NREM2 C NREM3 D REM
The answer to this question is C because regular breathing and heart rate and slow brain waves are most consistent with deep sleep, NREM3.
Which statement best reflects how sociologists differentiate the concepts of ethnicity and race? _ A Ethnicity is both dynamic and self-chosen, whereas race is immutable. B Ethnicity addresses shared attitudes, whereas race addresses collective norms. C Ethnicity is tied to a geographic region, whereas race is tied to an identity. D Ethnicity classifies by culture, whereas race classifies by physical characteristics.
The answer to this question is D because it best reflects the sociological distinction between race and ethnicity. Sociologists consider ethnicity to be categorizations of people based on culture and ancestry. Sociologists consider race to be categorizations of people based on perceived physical characteristics. Both concepts are understood in sociology as complex, social categories that change over time, rather than simply biological features of human beings.
A patient experiences a debilitating depressive episode after the loss of a job. A psychologist suggests that the patient had a genetic predisposition to depression and that unemployment acted as a trigger. The psychologist is using which approach to explain the patient's depression? _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A Rogers's humanistic theory B Beck's cognitive theory C The opponent process model D The diathesis-stress model
The answer to this question is D because the diathesis-stress model integrates the influence of biological predispositions and the environment.
Which concept refers to feelings of social disconnection that result from weak communal bonds and rapidly changing norms? _ A Anomie B Obedience C Out-group D Role exit
The answer to this question is option A. Associated with the functionalist theoretical paradigm in sociology, the concept of anomie describes the alienation that individuals feel when social norms and social bonds are weak. Without attachment to society, people will experience purposelessness and aimlessness. Periods of rapid social change are often associated with anomie.
A study is conducted in which researchers observe how physicians deal with role strain when treating patients with terminal illnesses. This study is best described as following which type of research design? _ A Ethnographic B Comparative C Experimental D Cross-sectional
The answer to this question is option A. The question describes the observation of role strain (stress experienced from contradictory demands of the same social role) in physicians treating patients with terminal illnesses. This scenario refers to ethnographic research, which involves observing social interactions in real social settings. Studying the experience of role strain through observation can increase our understanding of how physicians cope with the challenging demands of extending life with interventions while accepting the reality of death.
Which prediction related to adolescent behavior is most consistent with labeling theory? _ A Adolescents will frequently conform to the attitudes of their peers. B Adolescents will be stigmatized regardless of their individual behaviors. C Adolescents' risky behaviors will be due to immature cognitive abilities. D Adolescents' attitudes will generally be inconsistent with their behaviors.
The answer to this question is option B because it best applies labeling theory to the example of adolescent behavior. Labeling theory is a perspective on deviance that suggests labels get applied to certain groups or individuals regardless of specific behavior. Adolescents are often subject to stigmatizing labels, leading to perceptions that may not match behavior. Labeling theory calls attention to the power that stereotypes can have in determining how individuals are perceived
Which hypothesis is LEAST compatible with the life course approach to health? _ A Interventions that improve childhood health will have effects that last into adulthood. B Occupational status will be correlated with income and cultural capital in adulthood. C Children will imitate parents' behavior, forming patterns that persist into adulthood. D Exposure to chronic stressors in adolescence will predict disease risk in adulthood.
The answer to this question is option B because the life course approach refers to a research perspective that considers how experiences from earlier in life affect outcomes later in life. Indicators of a life course approach are apparent in all of the options, except for the correct answer. The other response options suggest analysis across different stages of live (over the life course), and some options also suggest unique attributes of specific life stages. However, the correct answer is narrower in comparison, as it only addresses the association between occupation, income, and cultural capital during adulthood. There is no clear influence across life stages in the correct answer.
A survey finds that immigrants report fewer symptoms of depression and anxiety than individuals from the same racial/ethnic group who were born in the United States. Which correlation best describes this finding? _ A A positive correlation between socioeconomic status and assimilation B A negative correlation between assimilation and health status C A positive correlation between culture shock and socioeconomic status D A negative correlation between health status and culture shock
The answer to this question is option B because the question suggests that assimilation is influencing health status. In particular, assimilation was found to result in worse health outcomes, as represented in the hypothetical survey comparison in the question. Because greater levels of assimilation are associated with worse mental health, it represents a negative correlation. reddit: New immigrants typically have better health, and as they assimilate health status decreases. Those born in the US in similar racial/ethnic groups can be thought of as being fully assimilated immigrants and therefore worse health than their new counterparts. When the question stem says immigrants it is implied as new immigrants, although it would be nice if they discretely made that distinction.
A theory based on which concept would best explain how economic development leads to changes in a society's fertility and mortality rates? _ A Social reproduction B Demographic transition C Cultural diffusion D Social stratification
The answer to this question is option B. Demographic transition refers to a theory of economic development and population change. The theory suggests that economic changes, specifically industrialization, affect the relationship between the fertility and mortality rates in a society. Population growth occurs rapidly because the mortality rate falls before the fertility rate does. Over time, the fertility rate also falls, thus stabilizing a lower rate of population growth.
Which concept describes the self-concept as a product of social interaction, emerging out of the way an individual perceives others to view him or her? _ A The front stage self B The back stage self C The looking-glass self D The self-fulfilling prophecy
The answer to this question is option C, because the question provides the main features of the concept of the looking-glass self. In line with the symbolic interactionist paradigm in sociology, the looking-glass self suggests that the self-concept is more than just the product of self-reflection. Instead, the way in which people see themselves is based on how they believe others perceive them during social interactions.
Which statement best explains why income distributions are usually reported using the median rather than with other measures of central tendency? _ A For data on high income levels, the median is easier to calculate than the mean or the mode. B As a measure of income, the median is more valid and reliable than the mean or the mode. C Income data often includes outliers, and the median can summarize skewed distributions. D Income data often has missing values, and the median does not require every data point.
The answer to this question is option C. Income is often reported using the median to reduce the influence of outliers (most often, this is due to high income data points that would skew the mean and thus not provide the best representation of the income distribution). The other response options make reference to income data, but do not provide a more direct or justifiable reason that explains why income data is most often summarized using the median.
An individual arrives late at a meeting. Which explanation for being tardy is consistent with self-serving bias? The individual will attribute being late to: _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A an uncontrollable personality trait. B a situational variable. C a controllable personality trait. D a stable variable.
nswer Key: B This is a Psychology question that falls under content category "Social thinking." The answer to this question is B because individuals experiencing self-serving bias attribute their own negative behaviors to situational variables. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires knowing the definition of self-serving bias.
Social stigma is most commonly associated with: _ A an unrecognized prejudice. B a failure to cope with stress. C an attribute that is devalued. D a discriminatory reaction.
The answer to this question is option C. Social stigma is derived from the symbolic interactionist perspective in sociology and calls attention to how certain individuals or groups face social disapproval. Often, the social disapproval is associated with a behavior, identity, or other attribute that is considered deviant by others. reddit: Social stigma is more along the lines of prejudice, not discrimination. Stigmas and prejudices are attitudes and beliefs about certain groups or types of people, whereas discrimination is actions that are harmful to those groups (grading them more harshly on a test, for example) GPT: The phrase "unrecognized prejudice" might refer to the hidden biases or implicit attitudes that individuals may have without realizing it. While this can contribute to the perpetuation of stigma, social stigma itself is a broader concept that encompasses not only unrecognized prejudices but also overt negative attitudes, behaviors, and the social consequences faced by individuals with stigmatized attributes.
A researcher designs a study that involves interviewing cancer survivors about their experiences with support groups, along with other forms of social support, during treatment. In order for the study to be considered ethical, the researcher needs to: _ A explain the study's research contribution to all of the participants. B provide ample financial compensation for the participants' time. C ensure that each participant is asked the exact same questions. D allow the participants to withdraw from the study at any time.
The answer to this question is option D because ethical research requires that all participants voluntarily participate in the study. At any point, participants should be able to freely withdraw their participation, and their data can then no longer be used. Although the other options are sometimes part of a research protocol, none but the correct option identifies a requirement for ethical research. Ethical Research: requires that all participants voluntarily participate in the study. At any point, participants should be able to freely withdraw their participation and their data can then no longer be used.
Which observation best demonstrates the proposition that gender is socially constructed? _ A On average, females begin pubertal development at an earlier age than males. B On average, adult males have higher levels of testosterone than adult females. C On average, females have a higher prevalence of osteoporosis than males. D On average, males have a higher rate of unintentional injury than females.
The answer to this question is option D. Of the options, the correct answer is most directly related to the presumption that social and cultural factors affect differential health outcomes between males and females. Unintentional injury often occurs from behaviors that are patterned according to gender norms. For example, males are more likely than females to engage in risk-taking activities that can lead to injuries. This difference is rooted in social and cultural factors more so than in purely biological causes. The remaining options, although having a social element, are each more strongly based in biological differences between males and females.
cultural diffusion
The expansion and adoption of a cultural element, from its place of origin to a wider area. Diffusion is the spread of an invention or discovery or ideas from one place to another. Spread of ideas such as Capitalism, democracy and religious beliefs have brought change in human relationships around the world. o Spread of music, phone technology, computer hardware/software have made a difference in how people connect with others across the globe
Which combination of lipid type and temperature results in the most disordered membrane? _ A Lipids with saturated acyl chains at low temperature B Lipids with saturated acyl chains at high temperature C Lipids with unsaturated acyl chains at low temperature D Lipids with unsaturated acyl chains at high temperature
The key is D because lipids with unsaturated acyl chains do not pack well against one another, increasing the level of disorder. Increased temperature also increases the level of disorder in the membrane because there is more movement at higher temperatures. reddit: Unsaturated chains have double bonds that can be cis. If they are cis they create kinks inside what would be a normal straight chain. The kinks bend the chain and because of this, they can't sit super flush with each other. High temperatures cause more movement, which also adds to the randomness of the structure. unsaturated = kinked. imagine trying to stack cardboard boxes that are bent in many random directions vs stacking cardboard boxes that are all folded in the same way/can flatten against one another. this would be the difference between unsaturated FA and saturated FA. Saturated fats are the majority of animal based fats, these are solid at room temp (butter, steak fat). Unsaturated fats come from plants and are liquid at room temperature (olive oil). Solids<Liquid<Gas for disorder, solid is tightly packed molecules vs liquid which is spread out. Therefore, an unsaturated fat would be more disordered cause it's a liquid. Heat provides kinetic energy, leading to more disorder due to the molecules moving faster in the current state.
long-term potentiation (LTP)
an increase in a synapse's firing potential after brief, rapid stimulation. Believed to be a neural basis for learning and memory.-- quizlet Long Term Potentiation and Synaptic Plasticity • Brain doesn't grow new cells to store memories - connections between neurons strengthen. Called long-term potentiation (LTP), one example of synaptic plasticity. • Neurons communicate using electrochemical signals - through synapse. Pre-synaptic neurons release neurotransmitters on post-synaptic neurons, allowing Na+ and Ca2+ to flow in. o Neural transmission will flow from the presynaptic to the postsynaptic neuron. • Different in charge between outside and inside is the potential. • With repeated stimulation, the same pre-synaptic neuron stimulation converts into greater post-synaptic neuron potential- stronger synapse, and when it lasts long time it is called long-term potentiation. This is how learning occurs! • In LTP, the same presynaptic stimulation will elicit a stronger and stronger response in the postsynaptic neuron. This mechanism is what allows for facilitated recollection. o In this mechanism, equal levels of presynaptic stimulation result in greater postsynaptic potential o The greater the postsynaptic potential, the more ion channels will open in the neuron. This will result in a stronger neural respons
According to the psychodynamic theory, conflict between the superego and the id leads to unconscious conflict. The ego attempts to reduce this conflict through the use of defense mechanisms. Based on this description, the unconscious conflict functions as: _ Jack Westin Advanced Solution will be added here. A a need. B negative reinforcement. C a drive. D negative punishment.
nswer Key: C This is a Psychology question that falls under content category "Individual influences on behavior." The answer to this question is C because a drive is an internal state that the individual acts to reduce, which is consistent with the definition of unconscious conflict in the stem.
counter conditioning
o Counter conditioning is very similar to extinction seen in classical conditioning. It is the process of getting rid of an unwanted response. But in counter conditioning the unwanted response does not just disappear, it is replaced by a new, wanted response. "The conditioned stimulus is presented with the unconditioned stimulus". This also can be thought of as stimulus substitution. The weaker stimulus will be replaced by the stronger stimulus. When counter conditioning is successful, the process can not just be explained by simply substitution of a stimulus. It usually is explained by things such as conditioned inhibition, habituation, or extinction. o It is a common treatment for aggression, fears, and phobias. The use of counter conditioning is widely used for treatment in humans as well as animals. The most common goal is to decrease or increase the want or desire to the stimulus. One of the most widely used types of counter conditioning is systematic desensitization. Extinction occurs in both operant and classical conditioning. • Phobic responses are acquired through classical conditioning.
hydroxyapatite
o In higher concentrations in the presence of phosphorus, will cause calcium phosphate to precipitate from solution ▪ hydroxyapatite, the principle mineral of bone
The energy, E, of a hydrogen atom with its electron in the nth shell of a hydrogen atom is given by E = -C/n2 where n = 1,2,3, . . . and C is a positive constant. If an electron goes from the n = 2 shell to the n = 3 shell: _ A a photon is emitted. B an electron is emitted. C an electron is absorbed. D the energy of the atom is increased.
reddit love: An electron lowering its energy state, and therefore the atom, is what triggers photon emission. When an electron is exited to a higher state, it requires energy (photon = energy). In no way can a photon be emitted. When an electron moves to a lower energy state, it will emit a photon as it is losing energy and that energy has to be translated in some capacity. Hope this helps.... Pretty much just remember that all photons carry energy Answer Key: D According to the relation given in the passage, the energy of an electron in orbit n = 3 is less negative or greater than the energy in orbit n = 2. Thus energy is required to make the transition from n = 2 to n = 3 and the atom gains energy. Answer D states precisely this and only D is consistent with this result.
Which of the following substances is most likely to be more soluble in 1.0 M HCl than in 1.0 M NaOH? _ A AgCl B Pb(OH)2 C CaF2 D HI
reddit: Ok! So like dissolves in like is a property of solutes and solvents. Water is polar so it dissolves salts. This is an acid base problem. Both HCl and NaOH are polar, so like and like won't help here. You rightly narrowed down to the strong base and acid though. Simply put, D is wrong because there's Acid in the water already. To dissolve HI, you turn HI -> H + I. But in HCl solution, there's already H in the water. As we know from (pardon my spelling) Lechatlier's Principle, this means there's a push back. Meanwhile, if you add Pb(OH)2, not only is there no push back, but the OH reacts with the H to form H20, actively reducing the amount on the product end. This means you'll have an easier time dissolving B in acid (making it the correct answer) while D dissolves in base chat gpt: Acids typically dissolve best in bases or alkaline solutions. When an acid dissolves in a base, it undergoes a chemical reaction called neutralization, where the acidic and basic properties are balanced, resulting in the formation of water and a salt. .AAMC: Answer Key: B When an ionic substance dissolves, it dissociates into its constituent ions. The solubility of any substance whose anion is basic will be increased in solutions of low pH, as the basic anion reacts with the H+ in solution and is drawn out of the equilibrium. As the basic anion is consumed, the dissolution reaction is driven to the right by Le Chatelier's principle. Of the substances given as choices, Pb(OH)2 has the most basic anion, OH-. Thus it is most likely to show increased solubility in an HCl solution. Answer choice B is the best choice.
role conflict vs role strain
strain: one role places a burden on you conflict: multiple roles are in opposition Role strain - when you can't carry out all obligations of a status, tensions within one status. Causes individual to be pulled many directions by one status, ex. a student has to write two papers, five reading assignments, give a speech, two lab reports in one week. • Role conflict - conflict/tension between two or more different statuses, unlike role strain. The different statuses compete for someone's time. Ex. someone who's is a parent, friend, husband, and worker. Ex; as a husband he has an anniversary and a friend is calling for their monthly get-together. OR ex. Paper due for school and son is injured and at hospital. Or ex. as a worker has to go to work and as a husband wife wants him to clean the garage.
status quo
the existing state of affairs sta·tus quo the existing state of affairs, especially regarding social or political issues:
• Labeling Theory
• Labeling Theory - a behavior is deviant if people have judged the behavior and labelled it as deviant. Depends on what's acceptable in that society. o Ex. steroids can be labelled as deviant. Not labeled as right or wrong, it is possible that in some situations steroids are necessary. In professional sports - steroid use can be labeled as wrong or unfair and can be considered deviant and subject to critic by others. Deviance is determined by the team members, sporting league, or greater society label. § "Perspective on deviance that suggests labels get applied to certain groups or individuals regardless of specific behavior. Adolescents are often subject to stigmatizing labels, leading to perceptions that may not match behavior. Labelling theory calls attention to the power that sterotypes can have in determining how individuals are perceived.
Life Course Theory
• Life Course Theory - aging is a social, psychological, and biological process that begins from time you born till time you die. a holistic perspective that calls attention to developmental processes and other experiences across a person's life o Biological process change as people live longer = affect social process . o Age-based expectations no longer apply as they used to as people live longer. (ex. 80 year old on ski slope or getting a master's degree). o "life course approach refers to a research perspective that considers how experiences from earlier in life affect outcomes later in life."
