A&P Final - DSMs
What fiber is commonly associated with fibrous joints? Collagen Elastic Reticular Keratin
Collagen
Which of these does not directly describe the autonomic nervous system? Responsible for the fight or flight responses Composed of motor neurons Controls heart rate, digestion, and respiratory rate Composed of sensory neurons
Composed of sensory neurons
A patient shows up in the emergency department with the end of the bone protruding through his skin. What type of fracture does he have? Simple fracture Epiphyseal plate fracture Closed fracture Compound fracture
Compound fracture
What kind of conduction occurs when each section of the axolemma has to be depolarized to threshold in sequence along the entire axolemma for a current to spread down the length of the axon? Electrical Saltatory Continuous Chemical
Continuous
If a break occurs in the shaft of a thigh bone, what part of the bone has been broken? Diaphysis Epiphyseal plate Epiphysis Articular cartilage
Diaphysis
Which of the following is a freely movable joint? Amphiarthrosis Diarthrosis Fibrous Synarthrosis
Diarthrosis
Which of the following is a functional joint classification? Diarthrosis Fibrous Cartilaginous Synovial
Diarthrosis
Which cranial nerve is classified as a mixed nerve? Oculomotor Trochlear Facial Abducens
Facial
In what dura mater fold is the superior sagittal sinus located? Falx cerebri Tentorium cerebelli Tentorium cerebri Falx cerebelli
Falx cerebri
Which joint has a deep cuplike depression? Talocrural Femorotibial Tibiofibular Femoroacetabular
Femoroacetabular
Which of the following ligaments does not belong to the coxal joint? Iliofemoral ligament Pubofemoral ligament Fibular collateral ligament Ischiofemoral ligament
Fibular collateral ligament
Where are receptors for acetylcholine located? Motor end plate Axon terminal Triad Sarcomere
Motor end plate
Which of the following mechanisms does not terminate the effects of a neurotransmitter? Reuptake by the presynaptic neuron Diffusion away from the synaptic cleft and uptake by glial cells Degradation by enzymes in the synaptic cleft Movement back to the cell body by retrograde axonal transport
Movement back to the cell body by retrograde axonal transport
The levator ani inserts on the __________. ischial spine coccyx iliac crest sacrum
coccyx
In the knee joint, the medial meniscus is __________. hyaline cartilage elastic cartilage dense regular collagenous connective tissue fibrocartilage
fibrocartilage
The deep grooves in the cerebrum are known as: fissures. sulci. gyri. ventricles.
fissures
Thin, broad bones are classified as __________. irregular bones flat bones short bones long bones
flat bones
Shaking the head to indicate "yes" involves __________. lateral flexion of head and neck rotation of the head flexion and extension of the neck protraction and retraction of head
flexion and extension of the neck
The type of contraction in which length of the muscle fibers does not change is called __________. isotonic concentric isotonic eccentric tetanus isometric
isometric
Bone cells that are found in the endosteum and periosteum and build new bone matrix are called __________. osteogenic cells osteoclasts osteocytes osteoblasts
osteoblasts
A tumor causing an increasing amount of parathyroid-hormone would cause osteoclast activity to increase, making bones more susceptible to fractures. bone mass to increase due to the increased level of calcium. osteoblast activity to increase, making bones significantly harder by depositing excess matrix. calcium ions in the blood to be lower than normal.
osteoclast activity to increase, making bones more susceptible to fractures.
Bone resorption requires the activity of __________. osteocytes chondrocytes osteoclasts osteoblasts
osteoclasts
Bone cells that are surrounded by bone matrix and are located with lacunae are ____. osteoclasts osteogenic cells osteocytes osteoblasts
osteocytes
Which sequence is correct for the of development of mature bone cells? osteogenic cells → osteocytes → osteoblasts → osteoclasts osteogenic cells → osteoblasts → osteocytes osteoclasts → osteoblasts → osteocytes → osteogenic cells osteoblasts → osteoclasts → osteogenic cells → osteocytes
osteogenic cells → osteoblasts → osteocytes
The structural units of mature compact bone are called __________. lacunae osteocytes canaliculi osteons
osteons
Bones that are roughly cubed-shaped are classified as _____ bones. short long flat irregular
short
Which of these muscles is located on the posterior surface of the arm? triceps brachii deltoid latissimus dorsi biceps brachii
triceps brachii
Cranial nerve V is the __________. accessory nerve facial nerve trochlear nerve trigeminal nerve
trigeminal nerve
The function of yellow bone marrow is __________. hematopoiesis acid-base homeostasis mineral storage triglyceride storage
triglyceride storage
Which of the following terms is paired correctly with its description? trochanter - large projection crest - indentation condyle - sharp process fossa - tunnel
trochanter - large projection
Cranial nerve IV is the __________. trigeminal nerve facial nerve trochlear nerve abducens nerve
trochlear nerve
How many synaptic connections from different presynaptic neurons does an average neuron have? 10,000 1,000 100 10
10,000
During bone repair, the bony callus may last up to ________________. 3-4 months 2-3 days 1-2 years 12-24 hours
3-4 months
How many lumbar vertebrae exist in the vertebral column? 7 12 5 33
5
Actin and myosin are both found in the: I-band. H zone. Z-disc. A-band.
A-band.
The first step of the crossbridge cycle begins when: ATP hydrolysis "cocks" the myosin head. the myosin head binds to actin. the power stroke occurs. ATP breaks the attachment of myosin to actin.
ATP hydrolysis "cocks" the myosin head.
Muscles remain in a contracted state during rigor mortis because: ATP is required to release the attached actin and myosin molecules. proteins are beginning to breakdown, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions. sodium ions leak out of the muscle. of increased frequency of stimulation from motor neurons.
ATP is required to release the attached actin and myosin molecules.
Where are voltage-gated channels most abundant? Axon hillock Neurofibrils Axolemma Nissl bodies
Axolemma
What do ligaments connect? Muscles Bone and muscle Bones Cartilage and bone
Bones
The ability to produce language is a function of _________, whereas the ability to understand language is a function of _________. Wernicki's area; Broca's area the primary motor cortex; the premotor cortex Broca's area; Wernicki's area the prefrontal cortex; the primary auditory cortex
Broca's area; Wernicki's area
______ forms bone from within a model of hyaline cartilage. Intramembranous ossification Longitudinal growth Endochondral ossification Appositional growth
Endochondral ossification
Which cartilage attaches the ribs to the sternum? Hyaline Fibrocartilage Areolar cartilage Elastic
Hyaline
How many neurotransmitters operating in the human nervous system have been identified? More than 100 Less than 15 About 50 About 1000
More than 100
Which is a component of the brain stem? Choroid plexus Cerebellum Pons Thalamus
Pons
What is the most metabolically active part of the neuron? Soma Axon Telodendria Neurofibrils
Soma
Which type of fiber has the largest diameter? Type C Type A Type D Type B
Type A
What anchors thin and elastic filaments in place within the myofibril? M line Z-disc A band I band
Z-disc
Which bone does not contain a paranasal sinus? Frontal Sphenoid Zygomatic Ethmoid
Zygomatic
A symphysis is a(n) ______. diarthrosis syndesmosis synarthrosis amphiarthrosis
amphiarthrosis
The main minerals bone stores are ____________________. calcium and phosphorus calcium and sodium potassium and sodium calcium and chlorine
calcium and phosphorus
Calmodulin binds ______ in smooth muscle cells, resulting in contraction of the tissue. calcium ions acetylcholine acetylcholinesterase sodium ions
calcium ions
Bone is considered an important storage reservoir for ________________. phosphate, glycogen, and nonpolar amino acids calcium, phosphate, and lipids steroids, proteins, and complex carbohydrates calcium, complex carbohydrates, and polar amino acids
calcium, phosphate, and lipids
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is formed by __________ and reabsorbed through arachnoid granulations into __________. the cerebral aqueduct; arachnoid villi choroid plexuses; dural sinuses astrocytes; ependymal cells dural sinuses; ependymal cells
choroid plexuses; dural sinuses
Primary ossification centers develop in long bones in the __________. diaphysis epiphyses periosteum articular cartilage
diaphysis
A patient with an injured amygdala might be unable to __________. inhibit inappropriate movements regulate body temperature experience fear regulate breathing
experience fear
What are the three primary brain vesicles that form from the neural tube? mesencephalon, telencephalon, diencephalon brainstem, diencephalon, cerebellum midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain
forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain
When muscle fibers are stimulated so frequently they do not have an opportunity to relax, they are experiencing __________. fused or complete tetanus wave summation unfused or incomplete tetanus twitch
fused or complete tetanus
Which of the following is the most important excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain? GABA dopamine glutamate glycine
glutamate
What part of each metacarpal forms the "knuckle" of your hand? body tail base head
head
Blood cells are made in the red bone marrow of bones, a process known as __________. hematopoiesis bone resorption osteoporosis ossification
hematopoiesis
Conduction speed will be fastest in a __________. large myelinated axon large unmyelinated axon small unmyelinated axon small myelinated axon
large myelinated axon
Which of the following proteins is a component of thick filaments? myosin tropomyosin actin troponin
myosin
The type of action potential propagation in which action potentials are only generated at nodes of Ranvier is called __________. synaptic transmission unmyelinated conduction saltatory conduction continuous conduction
saltatory conduction
The plasma membrane of a muscle cell is known as the __________. sarcolemma myofibril sarcoplasmic reticulum sarcoplasm
sarcolemma
A muscle that dorsiflexes the foot is the __________. tibialis anterior tibialis posterior soleus gastrocnemius
tibialis anterior
Mechanoreceptors detect __________. vibration and deep pressure movement and joint position pain light
vibration and deep pressure
Correctly order the following key steps in the process of endochondral ossification. 1. Chondrocytes die. 2. Osteoblasts build the bone collar on the external surface of the bone. 3. Perichondrium is invaded by blood vessels. 4. In the primary ossification center, osteoblasts replace calcified cartilage with early spongy bone. 5. Perichondrial cells differentiate into osteogenic cells then into osteoblasts. 3, 1, 2, 3, 5 3, 1, 4, 5, 2 3, 5, 2, 1, 4 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
3, 5, 2, 1, 4
How long does bone repair generally take? 6 weeks 2 weeks 12 weeks 4 months
6 weeks
Which of the following is INCORRECT about the numbers of spinal nerves? 5 pairs of lumbar spinal nerves 5 pairs of sacral spinal nerves 7 pairs of cervical spinal nerves 12 pairs of thoracic spinal nerves
7 pairs of cervical spinal nerves
Which statement best describes a bursa? A bursa is composed of hyaline cartilage that provides a smooth surface on which bones articulate. A bursa connects one bone to another bone to strengthen and reinforce articulating bones. A bursa is a synovial fluid-filled structure lined with synovial membrane on its inner surface. A bursa is a structural component of skeletal muscle composed of dense regular collagenous connective tissue.
A bursa is a synovial fluid-filled structure lined with synovial membrane on its inner surface.
What is depolorization?
A positive change from the -70 resting potential. It happens when acetylcholine is released and triggers Na+ and K+ ions to flood in and depolarize the membrane.
Why will a patient that injures a tendon feel pain at the joint? Tendons are fluid-filled sacs that minimize friction and will rupture when injured, causing joint pain. A tendon attaches two bones together at a joint and if damaged, the pain is felt at the joint. A tendon is within the articular capsule of a joint, and when contracted, pain is felt within the joint. A tendon crosses a joint, and when the tendon is pulled taut by the muscle, the pain is felt at the joint.
A tendon crosses a joint, and when the tendon is pulled taut by the muscle, the pain is felt at the joint.
Which of the following best describes actin filaments? A thin filament made of two intertwining strands whose subunits bind together like beads on a string A thick filament that looks like two golf clubs twisted together A long, ropelike regulatory protein that spirals around another protein, covering its active sites A small, globular regulatory protein that holds another protein in place
A thin filament made of two intertwining strands whose subunits bind together like beads on a string
Which of the following events will not occur within the sarcomeres of a contracting muscle fiber? A-bands get smaller I-bands get smaller H zone gets smaller Z-discs get closer together
A-bands get smaller
In the absence of ATP in the muscle, which of the following is most likely to occur? A. Some myosin heads will remain attached to actin molecules, but are unable to perform a power stroke. B. The crossbridge cycle will be much slower. C. All myosin heads will continuously be in the "cocked" position. D. The crossbridge cycle will continue as normal, because ATP is not necessary for muscle contraction.
A. Some myosin heads will remain attached to actin molecules, but are unable to perform a power stroke.
The end-plate potential is: A. a depolarization caused by sodium ion movement into the cytosol. B. a depolarization caused by sodium ion movement into the extracellular fluid. C. a repolarization caused by sodium ion movement into the cytosol. D. a repolarization caused by sodium ion movement into the extracellular fluid.
A. a depolarization caused by sodium ion movement into the cytosol
What is the period during an action potential when a nerve fiber cannot be stimulated to produce an additional action potential no matter how strong the stimulus? Absolute refractory period Repolarization period Relative refractory period Propagated refractory period
Absolute refractory period
Which of the following neurotransmitters is not a type of catecholamine? Acetylcholine Dopamine Epinephrine Norepinephrine
Acetylcholine
Which of the following substances is released from synaptic knobs in order to initiate a skeletal muscle contraction? Acetylcholine Acetylcholinesterase Calcium ions Myoglobin
Acetylcholine
What type of neuron carries information toward the central nervous system (CNS)? Interneuron Motor Efferent Afferent
Afferent
What is the function of a bursa? Reduces friction Reinforces joints Provides cushioning All of the above
All of the above
Damage of proprioceptors or sensory neurons that communicate with the cerebellum will cause which of the following? One may not know where their body part or limbs are relative to space. All the answer choices are correct Can affect balance There may be a lack of coordination while walking.
All the answer choices are correct
Where are the cell bodies of lower motor neurons located? Dorsal horn of spinal gray matter Brainstem Anterior horn of spinal gray matter Motor area of cerebral cortex
Anterior horn of spinal gray matter
What type of bone growth do you think a 40-year-old male experiences? Appositional growth Endochondral ossification Longitudinal growth Lengthwise growth
Appositional growth
Which of the following structures persists for life? Articular cartilage Epiphyseal plate Primary bone Primary ossification center
Articular cartilage
Which of the following events does not occur when the action potential is propagated along the axon? As potassium ion channels activate, an action potential is triggered and spreads positive charges down the axon. The current continues to move down the axon, and the process repeats. The next section of the axolemma depolarizes to threshold and fires an action potential as the previous section of the axolemma repolarizes. The axolemma depolarizes to threshold as a result of local potentials.
As potassium ion channels activate, an action potential is triggered and spreads positive charges down the axon.
What type of fiber carries information from the frontal lobe of the right cerebral hemisphere to the occipital lobe of the same cerebral hemisphere? Association fibers Corpus callosum Projection fibers Commissural fibers
Association fibers
Which of the following neuroglia would be more likely to form a brain tumor because of their ability to rapidly divide following brain injury? Astrocyte Oligodendrocyte Ependymal cell Schwann cell
Astrocyte
Which neuroglial cells help form the blood-brain barrier? Astrocytes Oligodendrocytes Satellite cells Ependymal cells
Astrocytes
Which of the following terms does not refer to a structural type of synapse? Axosomatic Axoaxonic Axodendritic Axolemma
Axolemma
What neuron structure does not contain protein-making organelles? Axon Dendrites Cell body Neurofibrils
Axon
What specific part of the neuron communicates with a target cell and serves as the secretory region of the cell? Myelin sheath Dendrites Axon terminals (synaptic knobs) Cell body
Axon terminals (synaptic knobs)
Which of the following descriptions best characterizes a converging circuit? Axon terminals from multiple input neurons join onto a single postsynaptic neuron. One neuron communicates with multiple parts of the brain. One axon of an input neuron branches to make contact with multiple postsynaptic neurons. An increasing number of neurons are excited down the pathway of the circuit.
Axon terminals from multiple input neurons join onto a single postsynaptic neuron.
Where are synaptic vesicles located in a neuron? Axon of the presynaptic neuron Dendrites of the postsynaptic neuron Axon terminals of the presynaptic neuron Dendrites of the presynaptic neuron
Axon terminals of the presynaptic neuron
Which of the following structures can generate an action potential? Axons Dendrites Myelin Cell bodies
Axons
When the sarcomere contracts and shortens__________. A. the zones of overlap become smaller B. the A band stays the same C. the I-band becomes larger D. the Z-disks move further apart
B. the A band stays the same
What part of the brain modifies the activity of upper motor neurons to produce voluntary movements and inhibit involuntary ones? Basal nuclei Premotor cortex Cerebellum Primary motor cortex
Basal nuclei
What do skeletal muscle contractions share in common with smooth muscle contractions? Both types of contractions generate little force or a weak force. Both types of contractions do not require calcium ions for a contraction to occur. Both types of contractions consume very little ATP. Both types of contractions result from thick and thin filaments sliding past one another.
Both types of contractions result from thick and thin filaments sliding past one another.
What is not part of the cerebrum? Parietal lobe Frontal lobe Brainstem Insula
Brainstem
Which region of the cerebral cortex controls motor speech? Precentral gyrus Broca's area Postcentral gyrus Wernicke's area
Broca's area
Which of the following effects is NOT one of the characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system action on its target cells? Bronchoconstriction Dilation of the pupil Vasoconstriction Increase in heart rate
Bronchoconstriction
How do painkillers relieve pain? By blocking the transmission and perception of the pain stimuli in the thalamus By blocking the transmission and perception of the pain stimuli in the brainstem By blocking the source of the painful stimuli By blocking the transmission and perception of the pain stimuli in the cerebrum
By blocking the transmission and perception of the pain stimuli in the brainstem
Which of the following steps of the crossbridge cycle occurs immediately before the power stroke? A. Myosin heads detach from actin. B. Calcium ions bind to myosin. C. A crossbridge forms. D. ATP hydrolysis "cocks" the myosin head.
C. A crossbridge forms.
Which hormone, produced by the thyroid gland, works opposite to parathyroid hormone (PTH)? Estrogen Calcitonin Calcitriol Testosterone
Calcitonin
What ion triggers synaptic vesicles to release neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft? Calcium Sodium Magnesium Chlorine
Calcium
What is the superior portion of the cranial cavity called? Cranium Orbit Calvaria Coronal
Calvaria
Which canals connect lacunae together? Perforating (Volkmann's) canals Haversian canals Canaliculi Central canals
Canaliculi
______ allow for the passage of oxygen, nutrients, and small substances to and from osteocytes trapped within lacunae. Central canal Lamellae Osteon Canaliculi
Canaliculi
Which of the following bones is not a tarsal bone? Navicular Cuboid Calcaneus Capitate
Capitate
Which of the following structures is not part of the limbic system? Caudate nucleus Cingulate gyri Hippocampus Amygdala
Caudate nucleus
What must be intact for a neuron to regenerate in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)? Cell body Axon Oligodendrocytes Astrocytes
Cell body
Where is the arbor vitae located? Medulla oblongata Diencephalon Cerebellum Brain stem
Cerebellum
Which is not a component of a typical reflex arc? Motor neuron Cerebral cortex Effector Integration center Receptor
Cerebral cortex
Influx of which of the following ions can cause an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) to be produced? Chloride ions Sodium ions Potassium ions Calcium ions
Chloride ions
What structure produces cerebrospinal fluid? Cerebral aqueduct Thalamus Choroid plexus Hypothalamus
Choroid plexus
Which tracts originate from the cell bodies of upper motor neurons, synapse on interneurons that communicate with cranial nerve nuclei at various levels of the brainstem, and do not decussate and enter the spinal cord? Corticospinal tracts Spinocerebellar tracts Spinothalamic tracts Corticonuclear tracts
Corticonuclear tracts
What part of the spinal cord carries motor information from the brain? Posterior column Spinocerebellar tract Anterolateral system Corticospinal tract
Corticospinal tract
Which of the following tracts does NOT carry sensory stimuli? Corticospinal tracts Spinocerebellar tracts Posterior columns Anterolateral system
Corticospinal tracts
Stimulation of acetylcholine (ACh) receptors by ACh will primarily result in: A. potassium ions entering the muscle fiber. B. chloride ions entering the muscle fiber. C. ACh entering the muscle fiber. D. sodium ions entering the muscle fiber.
D. sodium ions entering the muscle fiber.
Which of the following effects does not occur when neuromodulators bind to metabotropic receptors? Degenerate synaptic vesicles Increasing or decreasing neurotransmitter release from a presynaptic neuron Affecting the sensitivity of the postsynaptic membrane Altering gene transcription
Degenerate synaptic vesicles
Which sequence of structures correctly indicates the direction in which an electrical signal is carried in a typical multipolar neuron? Dendrites, cell body, and axon Axon, cell body, and dendrites Dendrites, axon, and cell body Cell body, axon, and dendrites
Dendrites, cell body, and axon
What side effects would you expect from damage to the cerebellum? Difficulty interpreting visual input. Difficulty initiating movement. Difficulty storing memories. Difficulty controlling ongoing and fine movement.
Difficulty controlling ongoing and fine movement.
____ is the internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones. Perforating fibers Red marrow Diploë Endosteum
Diploë
Which of the following somatic sensations is not carried by the anterolateral system? Discriminative touch Pain Temperature Nondiscriminative touch
Discriminative touch
Which of the following wraps and surrounds an individual skeletal muscle fiber? Sarcoplasmic reticulum Perimysium Endomysium Epimysium
Endomysium
Which of the following characteristics is not associated with Schwann cells? Contains a neurolemma Myelination begins during the early fetal period Envelop parts of several axons with multiple processes Encircle only a portion of a single axon
Envelop parts of several axons with multiple processes
What is the ciliated neuroglial cell that functions to circulate cerebrospinal fluid? Ependymal cells Microglia Oligodendrocytes Astrocytes
Ependymal cells E circulators
For certain surgical procedures, a local anesthetic is injected into which of the following areas within the spinal cord? Epidural space Subdural space Subarachnoid space Central canal
Epidural space
What information is received by the primary vestibular cortex? Vision Equilibrium Hearing Taste
Equilibrium
Which of the following events is most likely to trigger an action potential? Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) Opening of potassium ion channels Inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) Hyperpolarization
Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)
What are the three primary brain vesicles that form from the neural tube? Forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain Mesencephalon, telencephalon, diencephalon Brainstem, diencephalon, cerebellum Midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata
Forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain
What bone marking is a depression in which another structure fits? Process Tubercle Fossa Condyle
Fossa
Which of the following areas of white matter is not located within the cerebral hemispheres? Funiculi Commissural fibers Association fibers Projection fibers
Funiculi
Which of the following neurotransmitters is always inhibitory? dopamine acetylcholine glutamate GABA
GABA
What are clusters of cell bodies within the peripheral nervous system (PNS) called? Ganglia Tracts Nerves Nuclei
Ganglia
Which of the following features is not a structural component of chemical synapses? Gap junction Neurotransmitter receptors Synaptic vesicles Synaptic cleft
Gap junction
What is considered to be the most important excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain? Glutamate GABA Glycine Neuropeptide Y
Glutamate
Which of the following pairs of neurotransmitters are strictly inhibitory? Substance P and Neuropeptide Y Glutamate and GABA Glycine and GABA Substance P and Glycine
Glycine and GABA
Which of the following sequences correctly lists the order of events that occur during fracture healing? Hematoma forms -> hard callus forms -> soft callus forms -> remodeling occurs Hematoma forms -> soft callus forms -> hard callus forms -> remodeling occurs Remodeling occurs -> hematoma forms -> soft callus forms -> hard callus forms Soft callus forms -> hematoma forms -> remodeling occurs -> hard callus forms
Hematoma forms -> soft callus forms -> hard callus forms -> remodeling occurs
Which of the following characteristics makes myelin such an excellent insulator for axons? High lipid content High protein content Low lipid content Low protein content
High lipid content
Which of the following is the most stable multiaxial ball-and-socket joint? Shoulder joint Knee joint Hip joint Elbow joint
Hip joint
Which cartilage forms the epiphyseal plate? Fibrocartilage Elastic Areolar cartilage Hyaline
Hyaline
What tissue serves as the model for bones formed during endochondral ossification? Hyaline cartilage Spongy bone Compact bone Fibrocartilage
Hyaline cartilage
What change in membrane potential is caused when glycine and GABA stimulate the opening of chloride ion channels? Depolarization Hyperpolarization Repolarization Polarization
Hyperpolarization
Which of the following cranial nerves has no sensory function? Hypoglossal nerve Optic nerve Olfactory nerve Vestibulocochlear nerve
Hypoglossal nerve
What provides a link between the nervous system and the endocrine system? Thalamus Cerebellum Hypothalamus Pons
Hypothalamus
What type of contraction requires the greatest amount of tension? Isotonic eccentric contraction Isotonic concentric contraction Isometric contraction Miometric contraction
Isotonic eccentric contraction
Which of the following effects is one characteristic of the effects of the parasympathetic NS? Relaxation of digestive tract smooth muscle and contraction of sphincters Dilation of the pupils Increased salivary and digestive secretions Increased secretion from sweat glands
Increased salivary and digestive secretions
Whose bone marrow is mostly red? Young adults Infants Middle-aged adults Elderly
Infants
Which of the following terms is not associated with a general type of function found in the nervous system? Motor Sensory Internode Integrative
Internode
Which of the following actions is not a function of the spinal cord? Interprets stimuli Receives stimuli Proceses stimuli Sends stimuli
Interprets stimuli
Which of the following statements about bone remodeling is false? It occurs in response to stress and tension on a bone. It occurs only at the articular surface. It occurs throughout life. It only occurs if there is low blood calcium levels.
It occurs only at the articular surface.
Which of the following causes the hyperpolarization phase of an action potential? K+ outflow via voltage-gated potassium ion channels Na+ outflow via voltage-gated sodium ion channels K+ influx via voltage-gated potassium ion channels Na+ influx via voltage-gated sodium ion channels
K+ outflow via voltage-gated potassium ion channels
Which joint consists of two separate articulations, one of which includes a sesamoid bone? Shoulder Elbow Knee Hip
Knee
Which is the function of Broca's area of the brain? Spatial awareness and attention Interprets incoming somatic sensory stimuli Plans and executes movements Language production
Language production
Which of the following should not cross the blood-brain barrier with ease? Large, polar molecules Carbon dioxide Glucose Lipid-based molecules
Large, polar molecules
Which of the following classifications is NOT one of the structural classes of joints? Ligamentous Synovial Fibrous Cartilaginous
Ligamentous
Which type of channel opens in response to a chemical binding to a receptor on the channel? Mechanically gated Ligand-gated Leak Voltage-gated
Ligand-gated
What functional brain system participates in memory, learning, emotion, and behavior? Limbic system Medial lemniscal system Anterolateral system Peripheral nervous system
Limbic system
Which body region would have the most sensory receptors and in turn have more space dedicated to them in the primary somatosensory cortex? Lips and tongue Foot and toes Shoulder and arm Neck and trunk
Lips and tongue
What best describes cartilaginous joints? Little, if any, motion Free range of motion Joint cavity Presence of synovial fluid in the joint cavity
Little, if any, motion
Which of the following organs does not directly regulate blood calcium concentration in response to parathyroid hormone (PTH)? Liver Small intestines Kidneys Bones
Liver
Which bone is an unpaired facial bone? Mandible Maxillary Palatine Lacrimal
Mandible
Where do the fibers of the corticospinal tracts decussate? Medulla Midbrain Anterior horn Pons
Medulla
Which types of mechanoreceptors allow one to read Braille (raised dots that enable a blind person to read text)? Pacinian Corpuscles Free nerve ending Merkel fibers Meissner (Tactile) corpuscles
Merkel fibers
Which of the following events does NOT happen during endochondral ossification? Mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts. Osteoclasts form a medullary cavity. Secondary ossification centers develop. Osteoblasts replace the calcified cartilage with early spongy bone.
Mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts.
Which of the following events happens during intramembranous ossification? Secondary ossification centers develop in the epiphyses. Mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts. Chondroblasts differentiate into osteoblasts. Osteoclasts form a medullary cavity.
Mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts.
What type of neurotransmitter receptors elicit much slower changes in the membrane potential of the postsynaptic neuron, but the effects are typically longer lasting and more varied? Chemical receptors Ionotropic receptors Metabotropic receptors Electrical receptors
Metabotropic receptors
Which joint is a condylar joint? Frontonasal Carpometacarpal Metacarpophalangeal Sacroiliac
Metacarpophalangeal
Why is the resting membrane potential negatively charged? Both sodium and potassium ions constantly move into the cell. More potassium ions move into the neuron than leak out. More potassium ions leak out of the neuron than move in. More sodium ions leak out of the neuron than move in.
More potassium ions leak out of the neuron than move in.
Latrotoxin, produced by the poisonous black widow spider, increases the release of acetylcholine. How do muscle cells respond? Muscle cells will experience a longer latent period when excess acetylcholine exists. Muscle cells will twitch irregularly when excess acetylcholine exists. Muscle cells will experience fused or complete tetanus when excess acetylcholine exists. Muscle cells will become paralyzed when excess acetylcholine exists.
Muscle cells will experience fused or complete tetanus when excess acetylcholine exists.
What forms the white matter of the spinal cord? Myelinated dendrites Unmyelinated axons Unmyelinated cell bodies Myelinated axons
Myelinated axons
Another name for a muscle cell is a ______. Myocyte Osteocyte Adipocyte Erythrocyte
Myocyte
Which statement best describes the function of myoglobin? Myoglobin hydrolyzes ATP. Myoglobin is a source of ATP for muscles. Myoglobin stores oxygen in muscle cells. Myoglobin catabolizes glycogen.
Myoglobin stores oxygen in muscle cells.
The Na+/K+ pump moves __________. ATP into the cell Na+ out of and K+ into the cell Na+ into and K+ out of the cell Na+ and K+ out of the cell
Na+ out of and K+ into the cell
What is the process of putting together all the excitatory and inhibitory stimuli that determine whether a neuron will or will not fire an action potential? Neural integration Temporal summation Spatial summation Synaptic transmission
Neural integration
What structure contains the bulk of the Schwann cell's cytoplasm and organelles? Neurolemma Nodes of Ranvier Myelin Internode
Neurolemma
Dark-staining clusters of RER and ribosomes in neurons are called __________. neurofibrils Nissl bodies nodes of Ranvier dendrites
Nissl bodies
Which neurotransmitter is widely used by the autonomic nervous system (ANS), where it influences functions such as heart rate, blood pressure, and digestion? Glutamate Epinephrine Norepinephrine Dopamine
Norepinephrine
Which lobe is situated posteriorly in each cerebral hemisphere? Occipital Temporal Parietal Frontal
Occipital
Which special sense does not travel through the thalamus at any point in its transmission? Vision Gustation Hearing Olfaction
Olfaction
What cell type forms the myelin sheath in the central nervous system (CNS)? Oligodendrocytes Astrocytes Microglia Ependymal Cells
Oligodendrocytes Oligarks for myelin protection
Which type of cell forms the medullary cavity in a fetal bone and removes excess bone at a fracture site? Osteoclast Osteoblast Osteocyte Osteogenic cells
Osteoclast
Through which ATP-generating mechanism can long-lasting muscle contractions be sustained? Oxidative catabolism Glycolysis Anaerobic catabolism Creatine phosphate reaction
Oxidative catabolism
Which process takes place in the mitochondria and is used to fuel the synthesis of ATP? Creatine phosphate reaction Anaerobic catabolism Oxidative catabolism Glycolysis
Oxidative catabolism
Which of the following steps is last in a reflex arc? CNS integrates stimulus. PNS detects and delivers stimulus to CNS. CNS delivers motor response from PNS to effectors. PNS delivers motor response from CNS to effectors.
PNS delivers motor response from CNS to effectors.
Sensory transduction occurs in __________. lower motor neurons CNS interneurons upper motor neurons PNS sensory neurons
PNS sensory neurons
Which of the following divisions of the nervous system is often called the "rest and digest" division of the nervous system? Somatic motor division Sympathetic nervous system Parasympathetic nervous system Visceral sensory division
Parasympathetic nervous system
Which of the following hormones inhibits bone growth? Parathyroid hormone Estrogen Growth hormone Testosterone
Parathyroid hormone
What hormone promotes an increase in the activity of osteoclasts? Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Testosterone Calcitonin Estrogen
Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
_______ run perpendicular to the osteons. Trabeculae Lamellae Perforating canals Central canals
Perforating canals
What component of the diencephalon secretes the hormone melatonin? Pituitary gland Thalamus Amygdala Pineal gland
Pineal gland
Name the six types of synovial joints. Suture, pivot, symphysis, condylar, saddle, and ball-and-socket Plane, pivot, hinge, suture, gomphosis, and ball-and-socket Plane, pivot, synchondrosis, condylar, saddle, and ball-and-socket Plane, pivot, hinge, condylar, saddle, and ball-and-socket
Plane, pivot, hinge, condylar, saddle, and ball-and-socket
Which of the following factors promotes bone resorption? Compression Tension Pressure Calcium-rich diet
Pressure
Which of the following terms refers to the neuron that delivers a message to a target cell? Neurotransmitter Postsynaptic Presynaptic Synaptic transmission
Presynaptic
Which of the following is not a major difference between primary and secondary bone? Primary bone has irregularly arranged collagen bundles, while secondary has regularly arranged ones. Primary bone is not as strong as secondary bone. Primary bone does not have fully formed lamellae while secondary bone does. Primary bone has large amounts of inorganic matrix, while secondary doesn't.
Primary bone has large amounts of inorganic matrix, while secondary doesn't.
Where is the sensation of touch first processed? Prefrontal cortex Somatosensory association cortex, or S2 Primary somatosensory cortex, or S1 Primary motor cortex
Primary somatosensory cortex, or S1
Which term describes rotation of the forearm and hand medially resulting in the palm of the hand facing posteriorly? Supination Protraction Pronation Circumduction
Pronation
Which of the following types of cells are responsible for sensing touch, stretch, joint position, pain, and temperature? Biopolar neurons Multipolar neurons Pseudounipolar neurons Neuroglial cells
Pseudounipolar neurons
During which stage of sleep is it impossible for someone to sleepwalk? REM sleep Stage I sleep Stage III sleep Stage IV sleep
REM sleep
What is the response of the presynaptic neuron after acetylcholinesterase (AChE) acts? Reabsorbs choline Reabsorbs acetic acid Reabsorbs acetylcholine Reabsorbs coenzyme A
Reabsorbs choline
Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of the hypothalamus? Control secretions from the pituitary gland Regulate thirst and hunger Regulate movement Regulate body temperature
Regulate movement
Which of the following joints is unique to the thumb? Pivot joint Saddle joint Ball and socket joint Gliding joint
Saddle joint
What is the functional contractile unit of the myofibril? Sarcomere Sarcolemma A band I band
Sarcomere
What neuroglial cells surround and support the cell bodies of neurons and have intertwined processes that link them with other parts of the neuron? Satellite cells Schwann cells Ependymal cells Microglia
Satellite cells
What structure found in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) promotes regeneration of a damaged axon? Schwann cell Oligodendrocyte Astrocyte Ependymal cells
Schwann cell
The cells that form the regeneration tube during neural regeneration are called __________. satellite cells Schwann cells oligodendrocytes Wallerian cells
Schwann cells
What structure on the sphenoid bone houses the pituitary gland? Internal acoustic meatus Sella turcica Crista galli Cribriform plate
Sella turcica
Which joint is associated with the rotator cuff, a group of muscles and their tendons? Shoulder Elbow Knee Hip
Shoulder
Which of the following effectors is controlled by the somatic motor division? Cardiac muscle Glands Skeletal muscle Smooth muscle
Skeletal muscle
Predict the effects of damage to the lower motor neuron. The lower motor neuron will not be able to stimulate the upper motor neuron. Upper motor neurons would directly send impulses to the skeletal muscles. There would be increased levels of acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft between lower motor neuron and skeletal muscle fiber. Skeletal muscle atrophy may occur.
Skeletal muscle atrophy may occur.
What cranial bone articulates with all other cranial bones? Ethmoid bone Frontal bone Sphenoid bone Occipital bone
Sphenoid bone
Which division of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) carries signals from bones, joints, skin, and organs of vision to the central nervous system (CNS)? Somatic motor Visceral sensory Visceral motor Somatic sensory
Somatic sensory
Damage to which division of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) would be life-threatening? Somatosensory division Parasympathetic division Sympathetic division Somatic motor division
Somatosensory division
Which joint is a synchondrosis? Intervertebral Interphalangeal Intertarsal Sternocostal
Sternocostal
Which neuropeptide neurotransmitter is released from fibers transmitting sensory information about pain and temperature? Substance P Endorphin Neuropeptide Y Opioids
Substance P
Which brain nucleus serves as the body's 'master clock'? Suprachiastmatic nucleus Basal nucleus Lentiform nucleus Caudate nucleus
Suprachiastmatic nucleus
Which of the following characteristics is the fundamental process for most functions of the nervous system? Myelination Synaptic transmission Saltatory conduction Continuous conduction
Synaptic transmission
Which of the following best represents the functional classifications of joints ranked from least movable to most movable? Synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis Synarthrosis, diarthrosis, amphiarthrosis Amphiarthrosis, synarthrosis, diarthrosis Diarthrosis, synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis
Synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis
Which of the following is not a subclass of a fibrous joint? Suture Synchondrosis Syndesmosis Gomphosis
Synchondrosis
Which of the following joints is cartilaginous? Gomphosis Synchondrosis Syndesmosis Suture
Synchondrosis
What part of the joint cavity lubricates the joint, supplies nutrients, removes metabolic wastes, and absorbs shock? Synovial fluid Ligament Articular cartilage Adipose tissue
Synovial fluid
Which of the following general somatic senses is not considered a mechanical sense? Pain Touch Temperature Joint position
Temperature
Which of the following events occurs when EPSPs arrive rapidly at a single synapse? Temporal summation Spatial summation Hyperpolarization Inhibition of the impulse
Temporal summation
Which of the following features is not part of the synovial joint? Synovial fluid Tendon sheath Articular cartilage Articular capsule
Tendon sheath
Which of the following statements best describes tendon sheaths? Tendon sheaths help anchor the tendon to the muscle. Tendon sheaths protect long tendons as they course over and around synovial joints. Tendon sheaths connect one bone to another to strengthen and reinforce articulating bones. Tendon sheaths are lined with dense irregular connective tissue.
Tendon sheaths protect long tendons as they course over and around synovial joints.
What causes the release of myosin heads from actin filaments after the power stroke? The release of calcium ions The binding of calcium to troponin The removal of calcium ions by active transport The binding of ATP molecules to the myosin heads
The binding of ATP molecules to the myosin heads
Which of the following is the last step in bone fracture repair? The bone callus is remodeled and primary bone is replaced with secondary bone. A hematoma forms. A soft callus forms. Osteoblasts build a bone callus.
The bone callus is remodeled and primary bone is replaced with secondary bone.
Craniostenosis is the premature fusion of one or more skull sutures in an infant. Predict what problem may arise if the skull sutures prematurely ossify during infancy. The bones of the skull may be deformed and brain development can be restricted when skull sutures prematurely close. The bones of the skull will be more flexible than normal when skull sutures prematurely close. The bones of the skull will be more susceptible to fractures when skull sutures prematurely close. There will be no change in the growth of bones of the cranium when skull sutures prematurely close.
The bones of the skull may be deformed and brain development can be restricted when skull sutures prematurely close.
Which of the following neurotransmitters is responsible for stimulation of skeletal muscle and in the ANS? norepinephrine acetylcholine neuropeptide Y epinephrine
acetylcholine
What is repolarization?
The membrane is going back to -70 from a positive potential. When K+ rushes out of the membrane and re-establishes resting membrane potential.
What do neurotransmitters that bind ionotropic receptors directly control? The movement of ions into or out of the postsynaptic neuron The activation of G-proteins inside the postsynaptic neuron The formation of a second messenger inside the postsynaptic neuron The production of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (or cAMP)
The movement of ions into or out of the postsynaptic neuron
The pufferfish produces a deadly poison known as tetrodotoxin. Tetrodotoxin blocks the voltage-gated sodium ion channels, preventing sodium ions from entering the sarcolemma. If you consumed pufferfish that was not prepared correctly, in turn digesting tetrodotoxin, what effect would it have on your muscle fibers? The poison would cause action potentials to occur at a much faster rate along the sarcolemma. The poison does not have any effect on humans. The poison would prevent action potentials from occurring along the sarcolemma. The poison would prevent the motor-end plate potential from occurring at the neuromuscular junction
The poison would prevent action potentials from occurring along the sarcolemma.
The neurotransmitter used in a neuromuscular junction is: acetylcholine (ACh). norepinephrine. dopamine. adrenalin.
acetylcholine (ACh).
Which of the following scenarios can increase the likelihood that a certain neuron will reach threshold and have an action potential? Spatial summation of opening ligand-gated K+ ion channels and causing efflux of K+ ions until it reaches the threshold. There is a temporal summation that causes a continuous influx of chloride anions which causes the cell to depolarize. There are equal amounts of EPSP's via spatial summation as there is temporal summation. There are equal and consistent amounts of EPSP's as there are IPSP's in a given amount of time on a postsynaptic neuron.
There are equal amounts of EPSP's via spatial summation as there is temporal summation.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of cartilaginous joints? These joints allow little to no motion. These joints contain dense regular collagenous connective tissue. These joints do not have a joint cavity. Articulating bones are held together by cartilage.
These joints contain dense regular collagenous connective tissue.
Calcium ions bind to which regulatory protein? Tropomyosin Titan Dystrophin Troponin
Troponin
Which type of fiber has the slowest conduction speed? Type C Type A Type B Type D
Type C
The fastest muscle contraction would be produced by which of the following fiber types? Type I fibers Type IIx fibers Type IIc fibers
Type IIx
Which of the following factors is not associated with local potentials? Decremental in nature Useful for long distances Also called graded potentials Reversible
Useful for long distances
Which cranial nerve extends into the ventral body cavity and innervates many of the visceral organs? Saphenous Vagus Trigeminal Accessory
Vagus
What channels open in response to changes in membrane potential? Voltage-gated Mechanically gated Leak Ligand-gated
Voltage-gated
Which type of channels would you expect to find primarily at the axonal terminals? Ligand-gated ion channels Voltage-gated calcium ion channels Potassium leak channels Voltage-gated sodium channels
Voltage-gated calcium ion channels
Within the epiphyseal plate, which zone houses actively dividing cartilage cells in their lacunae? Zone of proliferation Zone of hypertrophy Zone of reserve cartilage Zone of ossification
Zone of proliferation
The cauda equina is: a bundle of spinal roots. the end of the spinal cord. where cerebrospinal fluid is located. the lumbar enlargement.
a bundle of spinal roots.
All the following structures are part of a synovial joint except: a bursa. articular cartilage. synovial fluid. a joint cavity.
a bursa.
Decreased parasympathetic stimulation could cause __________. a slow heart rate a dry mouth bronchodilation frequent urination
a dry mouth
In order to keep a resting membrane potential, the active transport of the sodium and potassium pump must function to keep: a high concentration of sodium outside the cell and a high concentration of potassium inside the cytosol. a low concentration of sodium outside the cell and a low concentration of potassium inside the cytosol. a low concentration of potassium outside the cell and a high concentration of sodium inside the cytosol. a high concentration of potassium outside and a low concentration of sodium inside.
a high concentration of sodium outside the cell and a high concentration of potassium inside the cytosol.
A bundle of axons in the PNS is called __________. a tract a spinal cord a nerve a ganglion
a nerve
A network of neurons that perform a common function is called __________. neuroglia a neuronal pool a nerve a neurofibril
a neuronal pool
Synovial fluid can be found in all the following structures except: a symphysis a bursa a tendon sheath between phalanges
a symphysis
The parasympathetic neurotransmitter at target organs is __________. norepinephrine epinephrine acetylcholine dopamine
acetylcholine
What happens when troponin and tropomyosin block the active sites of actin? a. The muscle relaxes. b. The muscle contraction increases tension. c. The muscle produces a weak contraction. d. The muscle contraction reaches peak tension.
a. The muscle relaxes.
A group of skeletal muscle fibers together with the surrounding perimysium form a(n): a. fascicle. b. myofibril. c. endomysium. d. ligament.
a. fascicle.
Which of the following extends the elbow? a. triceps brachii b. biceps brachii c. sartoriusrectus d. femoris
a. triceps brachii
When you raise your hand to answer a question in class, which synovial joint movement allowed this to occur? elevation adduction circumduction abduction
abduction
Cholinergic synapses use the neurotransmitter __________. serotonin norepinephrine acetylcholine epinephrine
acetylcholine
What part of the scapula articulates with the clavicle? glenoid cavity infraspinous fossa coracoid process acromion
acromion
During muscle contraction, myosin crossbridges bind to active sites on __________. tropomyosin T-tubules actin filaments troponin
actin filaments
During muscle contraction, myosin crossbridges bind to active sites on __________. tropomyosin troponin actin filaments T-tubules
actin filaments
The most important part of the brain in terms of our immediate survival is the: brainstem. cerebrum. diencephalon. cerebellum.
brainstem.
Receptors that bind norepinephrine and epinephrine are known as __________. nicotinic cholinergic muscarinic adrenergic
adrenergic
Joints that have just slight movement are functionally classified as ______. amphiarthroses diarthroses synarthroses synchondrosis
amphiarthroses
A joint that allows only a small amount of movement is called a(n) __________. synarthrosis diarthrosis amphiarthrosis metarthrosis
amphiarthrosis
A syndesmosis is a(n) _______. diarthrosis synchondrosis amphiarthrosis suture
amphiarthrosis
A joint cavity consists of _______________________________. an articular cartilage, an articular capsule, and synovial fluid an articular capsule, an epiphyseal plate, and synovial membrane a synchondrosis, an articular ligament, and synovial fluid an articular cartilage, a suture, and a gomphosis
an articular cartilage, an articular capsule, and synovial fluid
Local depolarization of the motor end plate is called: an end-plate potential. an action potential. a resting membrane potential. a local potential.
an end-plate potential.
If oxygen is not available, the muscle fiber will produce ATP by __________. using fatty acids for energy anaerobic catabolism synthesis of creatine phosphate oxidative catabolism
anaerobic catabolism
Flexion and extension are types of __________. angular movements rotational movements special movements gliding movements
angular movements
The ___ ligament in the knee joint prevents hyperextension. anterior cruciate posterior cruciate lateral collateral medial collateral
anterior cruciate
Skeletal muscles are innervated by neurons that have cell bodies located in the _________ of the spinal cord gray matter posterior horn lateral horn anterior horn dorsal horn
anterior horn
As a result of males producing more testosterone at puberty, __________. appositional bone growth increases osteoblasts increase the rate of bone resorption intramembranous ossification increases osteoclasts increase the rate of bone deposition
appositional bone growth increases
The cerebellar cortex is extensively folded causing the white matter to resemble tree branches and thus is called the: choroid plexus. globus pallidus. arbor vitae. cerebellar peduncles.
arbor vitae.
Thick filaments: are composed primarily of the protein myosin. are composed primarily of the protein actin. are attached to the Z-discs. contain the regulatory proteins tropomyosin and troponin.
are composed primarily of the protein myosin.
Synovial joints are entirely encased in dense fibrous connective tissue that extends from the periosteum of one bone to another. This structure is called the _____. articular capsule synovial membrane articular cartilage synovial fluid
articular capsule
Exposed bone surfaces within a joint cavity are lined with _______. fibrous membrane synovial membrane articular cartilage intrinsic ligaments
articular cartilage
In bones that have ceased to grow in length, the only cartilage that remains is the ____ on the epiphyses of bones. epiphyseal plate fibrocartilage articular cartilage elastic cartilage
articular cartilage
In response to physical inactivity, we expect to see muscles __________. atrophy hypertrophy increase the diameter of the muscle fiber increase numbers of myofibrils
atrophy
What is found between the preganglionic neuron and postganglionic neuron of a visceral reflex arc? spinal cord central nervous system (CNS) target cell autonomic ganglion
autonomic ganglion
Involuntary control of smooth and cardiac muscles and glands is provided by the __________. autonomic nervous system somatic motor division visceral sensory division afferent division
autonomic nervous system
A drug that inhibits the release of norepinephrine will have the greatest affect on __________. preganglionic neurons skeletal muscle cells autonomic target cells somatic motor neurons
autonomic target cells
The conducting region of the neuron is the __________. axon terminals (synaptic knobs) dendrites cell body axon
axon
Which of the following does NOT belong to the axial skeleton? a. skull b. pectoral girdle c. thoracic cage d. vertebral column
b. pectoral girdle
Most sensory neurons such as the ones found in the special sense organs are structurally classified as ____________ neurons. pseudounipolar multipolar unipolar bipolar
bipolar
During sympathetic nervous system activity, what is NOT an effect of norepinephrine? glucose is broken down from glycogen lipids are broken down from adipocytes the pancreas releases a hormone called glucagon blood glucose levels decrease
blood glucose levels decrease
An example of an organ under predominantly sympathetic tone is __________. bronchioles blood vessels hearts mall intestines
blood vessels
The canal that runs through the core of each osteon is the site of _______________. blood vessels and nerve fibers osteoclasts and osteoblasts cartilage and interstitial lamellae lacuna and trabeculae
blood vessels and nerve fibers
Which of the following would not be a physiological variable under the control of the reticular formation? body temperature rhythm of ventilation gastrointestinal activity heart rate
body temperature
In a lever system, the lever is the __________. joint muscle bone weight of a body part
bone
The anterior cruciate ligament anchors the tibia bone to a __________. ligament muscle bone bursa
bone
The hormone calcitonin causes an increase in __________. blood calcium bone deposition vitamin D synthesis osteoclast activity
bone deposition
For a person who starts running for exercise, __________. bone deposition is not related to bone resorption bone deposition is less than bone resorption bone deposition equals bone resorption bone deposition exceeds bone resorption
bone deposition exceeds bone resorption
The axillary, radial, median, and ulnar nerves are associated with the __________. cervical plexus lumbar plexus brachial plexus sacral plexus
brachial plexus
The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata are all part of the __________. diencephalon brainstem cerebrum cerebellum
brainstem
An EPSP will __________. hyperpolarize the neuron take the neuron further away from threshold cause an action potential to be generated bring the neuron closer to threshold
bring the neuron closer to threshold
When blood calcium levels rise above normal, osteoclast activity is inhibited by the hormone ___. vitamin D parathyroid hormone testosterone calcitonin
calcitonin
Bone growth and remodeling depends on adequate intake of __________. calcium, vitamin C, and vitamin K sodium, calcium, and vitamin E calcium, magnesium, and vitamin B vitamin A, vitamin C, and chlorine
calcium, vitamin C, and vitamin K
Compared to Type I fibers, Type II fibers __________. can maintain longer periods of contraction, and therefore have more endurance can generate faster, more powerful contraction shave more mitochondria are more "red" in appearance.
can generate faster, more powerful contraction
Unlike autonomic motor neurons, somatic motor neurons __________. release ACh at their target cells synapse with their target cells inside ganglia stimulate cardiac muscle, smooth muscle and glands can only stimulate their target cells and not inhibit them
can only stimulate their target cells and not inhibit them
What does the vagus nerve (CN X) innervate? sweat glands cardiac muscle cells adipocytes blood vessels
cardiac muscle cells
The hole in the spinal cord through which CSF flows is the __________. vertebral foramen central canal intervertebral foramen anterior median fissure
central canal
Bundles of axons known as tracts are part of the __________. central nervous system (CNS) peripheral nervous system (PNS) ganglion myelin sheath
central nervous system (CNS)
Integrative functions are carried out by the: central nervous system. peripheral nervous system. autonomic nervous system. the central, peripheral, and autonomic nervous systems all perform integrative functions.
central nervous system.
An individual with damage to the ________ will have difficulty in continuing a movement in a smooth, fluid, balanced fashion after it has been initiated. cerebellum basal nuclei thalamus pons
cerebellum
Motor error, or the difference between the intended movement and the actual movement that is taking place, is regulated by the: cerebellum. midbrain. prefrontal cortex. corticospinal tract.
cerebellum.
The third ventricle of the brain drains into the fourth ventricle via the: interventricular foramen. central canal. cerebral aqueduct. choroid plexus.
cerebral aqueduct.
The _____________ is responsible for the interpretation of sensory stimuli and the formation of perceptions. Sensory stimuli are interpreted and perceptions are formed in the __________. sensory neurons of the PNS spinal cord thalamus cerebral cortex
cerebral cortex
Our conscious processes, such as planning movement, interpreting incoming sensory stimuli, and complex higher functions, are all functions of the: thalamus. pons. cerebral cortex (neocortex). cerebellum.
cerebral cortex (neocortex).
During development of the nervous system, the telencephalon will become the: diencephalon. midbrain. cerebral hemispheres. the cerebellum.
cerebral hemispheres.
During a boxing match, Sammy was hit on the side of the neck. He stopped breathing temporarily due to damage to the __________. cervical plexus sacral plexus brachial plexus lumbar plexus
cervical plexus
The majority of synapses in the nervous system are __________. chemical electrical voltage mechanical
chemical
The presence of a synaptic cleft between cells is characteristic of __________. chemical synapse electrical synapse both chemical and electrical synapses neither chemical nor electrical synapses
chemical synapse
A ____ fracture results when the bone is shattered into multiple fragments. comminuted greenstick spiral compression
comminuted
A ___ joint allows flexion/extension, adduction/abduction, and circumduction, but not rotation. condylar plane hinge pivot
condylar
The rounded end of a bone that is used for articulation is called a __________. fossa tubercle process condyle
condyle
Action potential propagation in unmyelinated axons happens via: continuous conduction synaptic transmission saltatory conduction local potentials
continuous conduction
Muscle ______ is simply a succession of crossbridge cycles and the resulting production of force. contraction tone fatigue unit
contraction
Which of the following is NOT one of the roles of the parasympathetic nervous system? increases digestive functions stimulating urination controls the diameter of blood vessels maintains resting heart rate
controls the diameter of blood vessels
The primary motor cortex of the right cerebral hemisphere __________. controls the motor activity on the left side of the body receives and processes sensory input integrates senses from multiple different sources controls the motor activity on the right side of the body
controls the motor activity on the left side of the body
The inferior end of the spinal cord is the __________. conus medullaris cauda equina posterior median sulcus filum terminale
conus medullaris
The end of the spinal cord is known as the: posterior median sulcus. anterior median fissure. conus medullaris. cauda equina.
conus medullaris.
All of the following are ascending tracts of the spinal white matter except: corticospinal tracts. spinocerebellar tracts. fasciculus gracilis. spinothalamic tracts.
corticospinal tracts.
ATP is rapidly consumed when muscle contraction begins but is regenerated almost immediately by ______________. acetycholine calcium ions creatine phosphate myoglobin
creatine phosphate
The binding of a myosin head to an actin molecule is termed a __________. crossbridge power stroke triad synaptic cleft
crossbridge
Which of the following complements the flexion (withdrawal) reflex? Golgi tendon reflex crossed-extension reflex gag reflex stretch reflex
crossed-extension reflex
Which of the following is NOT a carpal bone? pisiform lunate triquetrum cuboid
cuboid
The shoulder and hip joints are similar because they are both: a. hinge joints. b. uniaxial joints. c. biaxial joints. d. ball-and-socket joints.
d. ball-and-socket joints.
The muscle action potential travels deep into the interior of the cell via the: a. myofibrils b. sarcoplasm c. T-tubules d. terminal cisternae e. none of these
d. terminal cisternae
The memory of facts and events that can consciously be recalled is known as __________ memory. nondeclarative procedural immediate declarative
declarative
It is in the medulla oblongata that corticospinal tracts ______, meaning that the motor fibers originating from the right cerebral cortex descend through the left side of the spinal cord, and vice versa. decussate commence unite merge
decussate
Which of the following is one of the mechanisms for termination of synaptic transmission? reuptake of neurotransmitter into the postsynaptic cell storage of neurotransmitter in vesicles release of neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft degradation of neurotransmitter by enzyme
degradation of neurotransmitter by enzyme
The short, branched cytoplasmic extensions that allow neurons to receive input signals are called __________. axons somata dendrites synapses
dendrites
The influx of positive charges makes the membrane potential more positive and is known as __________. depolarization polarization repolarization hyperpolarization
depolarization
If a stimulus opens ligand-gated sodium ion channels, the neuron will __________. hyperpolarize depolarize repolarize remain at its resting membrane potential
depolarize
Which of the following must occur first in a reflex arc? detection by receptor and delivery of stimulus delivery of motor response to effector transmission from the primary motor cortex integration in the central nervous system (CNS)
detection by receptor and delivery of stimulus
The main central shaft of a long bone is called the ______. diaphysis epiphysis periosteum medullary cavity
diaphysis
Synovial joints are __________. amphiarthroses syndesmoses cartilaginous joints diarthroses
diarthroses
A freely moveable joint is classified as a __________. diarthrosis synarthrosis amphiarthrosis gomphosis
diarthrosis
All the following structural classifications apply to joints except: diarthrosis fibrous cartilaginous synovial
diarthrosis
What movement decreases the angle between the foot and tibia as the toes are pulled up toward the head? plantar flexion pronation inversion dorsiflexion
dorsiflexion
Most organs are innervated from both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, referred to as __________. dual innervation antagonism sympathetic tone parasympathetic tone
dual innervation
The periosteal and meningeal layers of the dura mater are fused together in all regions except: epidural space. subdural space. dural sinuses. arachnoid villi.
dural sinuses.
In the sliding filament theory, what happens immediately after the power stroke? a. calcium ions are pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum b. the cross-bridge is re-energized and re-positioned by the hydrolysis of ATP c. myosin binds to actin d. a calcium influx triggers the exposure of binding sites on actin e. ATP binds to the cross-bridge and the cross-bridge detaches from the actin
e. ATP binds to the cross-bridge and the cross-bridge detaches from the actin
The innermost surface of bone has a lining known as the _____. endosteum periosteum perforating fibers articular cartilage
endosteum
All the following events occur during intramembranous ossification except: enlargement of the medullary cavity. osteoblasts develop in the primary ossification center. osteoblasts lay down trabeculae of early spongy bone. osteoblasts in the periosteum lay down early compact bone.
enlargement of the medullary cavity.
When the cartilage at the epiphyseal plate stops dividing, the bony structure that forms is known as the _____. osteon epiphyseal line trabeculae diaphysis
epiphyseal line
Damage to the _________ in a long bone of a young person might cause the bone not to lengthen properly. epiphyseal plate epiphyseal line articular cartilage periosteum
epiphyseal plate
The secondary ossification center in a long bone is located at the ____. diaphysis metaphysis periosteum epiphysis
epiphysis
During the recovery period after exercise, we breathe deeper and faster. This increased rate of respiration is known as __________. muscle fatigue oxidative catabolism excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC) lactic acid buildup
excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)
The order in which the three phases of muscle contraction occur is: excitation phase, excitation-contraction coupling, contraction phase. excitation-contraction coupling, excitation phase, contraction phase. contraction phase, excitation-contraction coupling, excitation phase. excitation phase, contraction phase, excitation-contraction coupling.
excitation phase, excitation-contraction coupling, contraction phase.
The transmission of a signal from the motor neuron to the sarcolemma of a muscle fiber occurs during the: excitation phase. excitation-contraction coupling. contraction phase. muscle relaxation.
excitation phase.
What does the gluteus maximus do? abducts and medially rotates the thigh flexes, abducts, and laterally rotates the thigh extends, abducts, and laterally rotates the thigh extends the knee and flexes the thigh
extends, abducts, and laterally rotates the thigh
Which of the following is a function of astrocytes? act as phagocytes secrete and circulate cerebrospinal fluid facilitate the formation of the blood-brain barrier myelinate CNS axons
facilitate the formation of the blood-brain barrier
A bundle of axons within a nerve is called a __________. fascicle endoneurium ganglion ramus
fascicle
All of the following bones are formed by intramembranous ossification except the temporal bone. maxilla. femur. clavicle.
femur.
Which cranial nerve is generally thought of as a mixed nerve? accessory nerve (XI) glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) hypoglossal nerve (XII) vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)
glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
A pathway of ATP production that results in the formation of lactic acid is __________. anabolism oxidative catabolism glycolytic catabolism aerobic catabolism
glycolytic catabolism
While observing a cross section of the spinal cord under the microscope, you notice a butterfly-shaped area on the inside. You would identify this as the __________. central canal spinal meninges gray matter white matter
gray matter
Appositional growth produces __________. growth in width growth in length intramembranous ossification endochondral ossification
growth in width
An elevated ridge on the surface of the cerebrum is known as a __________. gyrus fissure sulcus furrow
gyrus
The palatine bone contributes to the structure of the __________. paranasal sinus cheekbone hard palate soft palate
hard palate
Postganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system __________. stimulate skeletal muscle have cell bodies located within autonomic ganglia stimulate preganglionic neurons are afferent
have cell bodies located within autonomic ganglia
All of the following components are associated with the organic matrix except collagen. hydroxyapatite. proteoglycans. glycosaminoglycans.
hydroxyapatite.
The relative refractory period is caused by: hyperpolarization inactivation of voltage-gated Na ion channels inactivation of voltage-gated K ion channels depolarization to threshold
hyperpolarization
A series of measurements with a voltmeter show a neuron's membrane potential becoming more negative, from -70 mV to -85 mV. This neuron is experiencing a __________. hyperpolarization phase depolarization phase repolarization phase polarization phase
hyperpolarization phase
Our "biological clock," which controls sleep and wake cycles, is located in the __________. cerebral cortex hypothalamus substantia nigra hippocampus
hypothalamus
The _________ regulates homeostasis, the autonomic nervous system, the endocrine system, and the sleep/wake cycle. amygdala midbrain hypothalamus hippocampus
hypothalamus
The two brain structures concerned directly with maintenance of homeostasis include certain nuclei in the brainstem and the _____. hypothalamus cerebellum basal nuclei limbic system
hypothalamus
Which part of the coxal bone articulates with the sacrum? ischium pubis ilium both ischium and pubis
ilium
Which of the following is not one of the effects of growth hormone on bones? stimulation of osteoblasts in the periosteum increase in the activity of osteogenic cells increase in the rate of mitosis of chondrocytes in the epiphyseal plate increase in the activity of osteoclast
increase in the activity of osteoclast
Ephedrine is a protein extracted from a Chinese plant that acts similarly to epinephrine and acts on the same receptors. Ephedrine can cause __________. increased digestive functions constriction of the pupil bronchoconstriction increased heart rate
increased heart rate
Increasing mechanical stress will cause bone to become stronger by ________________. increasing production of collagen fibers by osteocytes increasing deposition of mineral salts increasing activity of osteoclasts increasing endochondral ossification
increasing deposition of mineral salts
A critical function of the basal nuclei is to: inhibit voluntary movement. initiate involuntary movement. inhibit inappropriate movement. monitor ongoing movement.
inhibit inappropriate movement.
If the _____ is destroyed, bone would become flexible and unable to resist compression. osteoid periosteum inorganic matrix organic matrix
inorganic matrix
Neurons that relay information within the CNS and are the location of information processing are called __________. motor neurons efferent neurons interneurons sensory neurons
interneurons
The majority of neurons are functionally classified as _________ neurons. motor sensory interneurons efferent
interneurons
A patient has widespread damage to his right cerebral hemisphere. His wife believes he will be fine because his left hemisphere is undamaged. The doctors inform them that they should expect, among other things, difficulty with: maintaining ongoing movement and inability to sense stimuli or command muscles from the right side of his body positive emotions such as happiness and pleasure and the inability to identify an object with its proper name producing speech and the ability to understand the spoken language interpretation of emotional aspects of language and the inability to sense stimuli or command muscles from the left side of his body
interpretation of emotional aspects of language and the inability to sense stimuli or command muscles from the left side of his body
Bone remodeling involves all of the following factors except: osteoblasts and osteoclasts. replacement of old bone tissue with new bone tissue. intramembranous and endochondral ossification. bone resorption and bone deposition.
intramembranous and endochondral ossification.
Flat bones such as the bones of the skull form via __________. appositional growth intramembranous ossification bone resorption endochondral ossification
intramembranous ossification
The skull and clavicle form through ________________. intramembranous ossification endochondral ossification longitudinal growth appositional growth
intramembranous ossification
Ligaments that are found within the articular capsule are known as _____. intrinsic ligaments extrinsic ligaments articular ligaments collateral ligaments
intrinsic ligaments
Spongy bone differs from compact bone because spongy bone is composed of trabeculae that are oriented along lines of stress. is composed of many osteons. does not contain osteocytes in lacunae. is found in the diaphysis of long bones, whereas compact bone is found mainly in the epiphyses of long bones.
is composed of trabeculae that are oriented along lines of stress.
A muscle contraction in which a muscle develops tension and the muscle shortens (as in lifting an object) is termed a(n) ___ contraction. isotonic eccentric isometric tetanus isotonic concentric
isotonic concentric
Which type of contraction causes a skeletal muscle to shorten? isomorphic contraction isotonic eccentric contraction isotonic concentric contraction isometric contraction
isotonic concentric contraction
The type of contraction that causes a skeletal muscle to lengthen is called __________. isometric contraction isotonic concentric contraction isotonic eccentric contraction miometric contraction
isotonic eccentric contraction
The largest, most complex diarthrosis in the body is the _____________. knee joint elbow joint shoulder joint hip joint
knee joint
Certain functions of the brain appear to be lateralized, meaning the brain divides certain tasks between the two hemispheres to make use of the limited space. One such lateralization that is linked to the left hemisphere is: facial recognition. negative emotions. language-related recognition. attention.
language-related recognition.
What organ is served by the parasympathetic sacral nerves? last portion of the large intestine heart lungs esophagus
last portion of the large intestine
The amount of time it takes for an action potential to spread through the sarcolemma is known as the: latent period. contraction period. relaxation period. refractory period.
latent period.
The axons of neurons that transmit tactile discriminative touch and proprioceptive stimuli from the trunk, neck and upper limbs are known as: medial fasciculus gracilis. spinothalamic tracts. lateral fasciculus cuneatus. medial lemniscus.
lateral fasciculus cuneatus.
The _____ contains the cell bodies of neurons responsible for motor control of the viscera via the autonomic nervous system. posterior horn anterior horn lateral horn gray commissure
lateral horn
Which muscle works as an antagonist to orbicularis oculi? levator palpebrae superioris corrugator supercilii risorius zygomaticus minor
levator palpebrae superioris
The endothelial cells of blood capillaries in the brain __________. limit endocytosis and exocytosis are permeable to large, polar molecules such as protein shave very few tight junctions are not permeable to carbon dioxide and oxygen
limit endocytosis and exocytosis
What best describes cartilaginous joints? free range of motion little, if any, motion presence of synovial fluid in the joint cavity joint cavity
little, if any, motion
The immediate result of acetylcholine binding to receptors on the motor end plate is _________. the sarcolemma remains at its resting membrane potential local depolarization of the sarcolemma local repolarization of the sarcolemma the axon propagates an action potential
local depolarization of the sarcolemma
Multipolar neurons that innervate skeletal muscle fibers are called __________. interneurons upper motor neurons sensory neurons lower motor neurons
lower motor neurons
Which of the following is NOT a function of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? increase the buoyancy of the brain maintain high intracranial pressure remove wastes from brain tissue protect the brain
maintain high intracranial pressure
What type of sensory receptors are muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs? nociceptor chemoreceptors mechanoreceptor thermoreceptor
mechanoreceptor
What is NOT part of the diencephalon? epithalamus hypothalamus medulla oblongata thalamus
medulla oblongata
What is NOT part of the diencephalon? epithalamus thalamus medulla oblongata hypothalamus
medulla oblongata
What is NOT a function of the reticular formation? modulation of pain transmission memory sleep maintaining wakefulness
memory
The small phagocytic cells that engulf debris and pathogens in the CNS are the __________. ependymal cells oligodendrocytes satellite cells microglia
microglia
The folded region of sarcolemma found at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ) is called the _________. axon terminal sarcoplasmic reticulum motor end plate transverse tubule
motor end plate
A single motor neuron together with all the skeletal muscle fibers it innervates is called a _____. motor unit recruitment muscle tone fused tetanus
motor unit
The most common type of neuron in the human body is __________. multipolar unipolar pseudounipolar bipolar
multipolar
Larry's muscles weakened while he played tennis for hours on a hot summer afternoon. This inability to maintain intensity is defined as __________. muscle fatigue hypotonia hypertonia atrophy
muscle fatigue
A fascicle (or fasciculus) is a bundle of: muscle fibers. myofibrils. myofilaments. sarcomere.
muscle fibers.
The sarcoplasm of muscle cells contain cylindrical organelles called _____, which make up 50-80% of its volume. myofibrils nuclei mitochondria sarcoplasmic reticulum
myofibrils
The majority of the cerebral cortex is: neocortex. fiber tracts. white matter. cerebellum.
neocortex.
A plexus is a __________. network of spinal nerves cluster of cell bodies of neurons in the PNS cluster of axons in the PNS section of skin supplied by nerves from a single spinal root
network of spinal nerves
The synapse of a motor neuron with a muscle fiber is known as the __________. neuromuscular junction motor end plate synaptic cleft synaptic bulb
neuromuscular junction
The same __________ can have different effects depending on the properties of the __________. neurotransmitter; receptor hormone; neurotransmitter receptor; neurotransmitter substrate; enzyme
neurotransmitter; receptor
Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by __________. proprioceptors chemoreceptors nociceptors photoreceptors
nociceptors
The major neurotransmitter at sympathetic target organs is __________. acetylcholine epinephrine norepinephrine adrenaline
norepinephrine
Where does the motor portion of the facial nerve (VIII) originate? tongue nuclei in the pons and medulla cerebral cortex midbrain
nuclei in the pons and medulla
Hyperpolarization
occurs after repolarization. during hyperpolarization the action potentials are inhibited. membrane potential becomes more negative than -70
The thalamus serves as a direct gateway into the cerebral cortex for all special sensory stimuli except for: hearing. taste. vision. olfaction.
olfaction.
When trying to increase exercise performance, an athlete consumes large amounts of creatine phosphate. This supplement will provide... only a few seconds of energy because it metabolizes rapidly, even in excess. hours of energy because it is part of the aerobic catabolism pathway. Creatine phosphate is not involved in energy production. approximately an hour of extended energy before glycolytic catabolism takes over.
only a few seconds of energy because it metabolizes rapidly, even in excess.
During saltatory conduction, action potentials are generated __________. only at nodes of Ranvier of myelinated axons along the entire length of the unmyelinated axon regardless of whether threshold is reached when the entire axolemma is depolarized
only at nodes of Ranvier of myelinated axons
The perception of _____ involves not only areas S1 and S2 of the cortex but also the basal nuclei, the hypothalamus, parts of the limbic system, and the prefrontal cortex. pain touch vision hearing
pain
Which of the following hormones does NOT cause bone growth? parathyroid hormone growth hormone testosterone estrogen
parathyroid hormone
The central sulcus separates the: parietal and temporal lobes. frontal and temporal lobes. parietal and occipital lobes. parietal and frontal lobes.
parietal and frontal lobes.
The area of the cortex responsible for visual-spatial functions and awareness is the __________. prefrontal cortex primary somatosensory cortex temporal association cortex parietal association cortex
parietal association cortex
While playing Frisbee with your friends, you are able to track it in the air when it is your turn to catch it because of your: temporal association cortex. prefrontal cortex. parietal association cortex. auditory association cortex.
parietal association cortex.
Where are autonomic ganglia located? brain spinal cord central nervous system (CNS) peripheral nervous system (PNS)
peripheral nervous system (PNS)
The innermost, delicate meninx that follows the gyri and sulci of the brain is known as the: periosteal dura mater. meningeal dura mater. pia mater. arachnoid mater.
pia mater.
Shaking your head "no" while talking to a small child is the result of a _____ joint between the axis and the atlas. hinge saddle condylar pivot
pivot
The least mobile synovial joint, which is comprised of two bones whose flat surfaces articulate with each other, is called a __________. saddle joint condylar joint plane joint ball-and-socket joint
plane joint
Which type of synovial joint is the simplest and least mobile? plane joint ball-and-socket joint hinge joint saddle joint
plane joint
Motor areas of the cerebral cortex, the basal nuclei, the cerebellum, and the spinal cord are all involved with: perceiving different sensory stimuli. storing long-term declarative memories. planning and coordinating voluntary movement. spatial awareness.
planning and coordinating voluntary movement.
John experienced a cut that severs the tendon that attaches the insertion of the gastrocnemius muscle. As a result of this injury, what action is difficult for him to perform? inversion of the foot plantar flexion dorsiflexion eversion of the foot
plantar flexion
If you stand on tiptoes to reach something on a top shelf, you are performing ______________ at the ankle. plantarflexion dorsiflexion inversion eversion
plantarflexion
Heidi sustained damage to her spinal cord in a car accident. She has no difficulty moving her arm, but has lost some sensation in her arm. What part of her spinal cord must have been injured? posterior horn of spinal gray matter corticospinal tract of spinal white matter anterior horn of spinal gray matter lateral horn of spinal gray matter
posterior horn of spinal gray matter
The tracts of the anterolateral system decussate in the _______, whereas the tracts of the posterior columns decussate in the _________. posterior horn; medulla medulla; posterior horn anterior horn; medulla medulla; anterior horn
posterior horn; medulla
Somatic sensory neuron cell bodies are located in the _____________. posterior root ganglion anterior root posterior column anterolateral system
posterior root ganglion
Neurons that transmit efferent signals between the CNS and autonomic ganglia are called __________. sensory neurons preganglionic neurons postganglionic neurons interneurons
preganglionic neurons
Action potentials do not stay in one place, they are _____ throughout the entire sarcolemma like ripples in a pond. depolarized repolarized propagated hyperpolarized
propagated
Receptors that detect the movement and position of a joint or body part are called __________. proprioceptors thermoreceptors nociceptors chemoreceptors
proprioceptors
The insertion of the biceps brachii muscle is the __________. olecranon process of ulna greater tubercle of humerus radial tuberosity deltoid tuberosity of humerus
radial tuberosity
Cognition is best described as __________. recognizing, processing, planning, and responding to stimuli encoding and storing learned information in our neural circuitry a reversible and normal suspension of consciousness the ability to comprehend and produce words
recognizing, processing, planning, and responding to stimuli
Cognition is best described as: recognizing, processing, planning, and responding to stimuli. encoding and storing learned information in our neural circuitry. the ability to comprehend and produce words. a reversible and normal suspension of consciousness.
recognizing, processing, planning, and responding to stimuli.
The persistent increased rate of breathing following exercise and the time needed to return to the pre-exercise state is known as (the) _____. latent period muscle fatigue recovery period endurance training
recovery period
The hypothalamus functions in: secreting a hormone called melatonin. regulating the autonomic nervous system. sending information to the cerebral cortex. coordinating movement.
regulating the autonomic nervous system.
Muscle ______ occurs when ACh release is stopped, the remaining ACh in the synaptic cleft is broken down, and the calcium ion concentration in the cytosol returns to its resting levels. relaxation contraction depolarization repolarization
relaxation
During an action potential, the loss of potassium ions from the cell results in: repolarization. depolarization. conductivity. propagation.
repolarization
The _____ contains cytosol and all of the organelles in the muscle cell. sarcoplasm sarcolemma sarcoplasmic reticulum myofibril
sarcoplasm
Compact bone forms concentric rings that make it extremely hard and strong to resists forces in many directions and protects the spongy bone. resist stress and protect the inner spongy bone. resists linear compression and twisting and builds a framework for bone marrow. resist forces from many directions and builds a framework for bone marrow.
resist stress and protect the inner spongy bone.
Activities that involve the use of free weights is a type of: resistance training. endurance training. atrophy. muscular fatigue.
resistance training.
Autonomic centers are located in the __________. thalamus cerebral cortex amygdala reticular formation
reticular formation
In ______, the bone turns around itself. rotation circumduction abduction retraction
rotation
What movement would you expect to see in a pivot joint? rotation flexion abduction opposition
rotation
Which of the following movements does NOT take place at a saddle joint? flexion and extension circumduction rotation abduction and adduction
rotation
The functional unit of contraction, where muscle tension is produced, is the ____. sarcomere motor unit myofibril myofilament
sarcomere
During excitation-contraction coupling, calcium is released from the _________. T-tubules vesicles in the axon terminal sarcoplasmic reticulum motor end plate
sarcoplasmic reticulum
The storage and release of calcium ions is the key function of the __________. sarcoplasmic reticulum sarcolemma sarcoplasm mitochondrion
sarcoplasmic reticulum
An injury to the spinal cord is not possible below the __________. second lumbar vertebra fourth cervical vertebra second thoracic vertebra ninth thoracic vertebra
second lumbar vertebra
The action of rising up on your toes is an example of a __________. first-class lever second-class lever third-class lever fourth-class lever
second-class lever
The type of bone that has fully formed lamellae with regularly arranged collagen bundles and a higher percentage of inorganic matrix is classified as __________. secondary bone periosteum endosteum primary bone
secondary bone
From medial to lateral, what are the muscles of the hamstring group? semimembranosus, semitendinosus, biceps femoris biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris semitendinosus, biceps femoris, semimembranosus
semimembranosus, semitendinosus, biceps femoris
Bones located within a tendon are classified as _____ bones. sesamoid long irregular flat
sesamoid
You've looked for your keys for the past 10 minutes in several different places. The ability to keep track of the places you've already looked is stored in __________. short-term (working) memory immediate memory long-term potentiation (LTP) long-term memory
short-term (working) memory
The most freely movable joint in the human body is the ________ joint. shoulder knee elbow hip
shoulder
The glenoid cavity is the socket of the __________. hip joints shoulder joint elbow joint knee joint
shoulder joint
The predominant type of smooth muscle in the body found in nearly all hollow organs is the ______. single-unit smooth muscle multi-unit smooth muscle fast-twitch fibers slow-twitch fibers
single-unit smooth muscle
The autonomic nervous system does not carry signals to __________. skeletal muscle smooth muscle cardiac muscle glands
skeletal muscle
Which of the following is not a function of the limbic system? learning emotion sleep/wake cycle memory
sleep/wake cycle
Fibers with low myosin ATPase activity found in muscles that require slow sustained contractions, are known as _____. slow-twitch fibers fast-twitch fibers type IIa fibers type IIx fibers
slow-twitch fibers
Afferent signals from external stimuli are carried by the __________. somatic sensory division somatic motor division visceral motor division visceral sensory division
somatic sensory division
Which division detects stimuli of the general senses and special senses? visceral motor division (autonomic nervous system) somatic sensory division visceral sensory division somatic motor division
somatic sensory division
Epidural anesthesia is injected into the __________. space between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater space between the meningeal dura mater and the periosteal dura maters pace between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater space between the meningeal dura mater and the bone of the vertebral foramen
space between the meningeal dura mater and the bone of the vertebral foramen
Simultaneous stimulation from multiple presynaptic neurons will result in __________. temporal summation temporal multiplication spatial summation spatial multiplication
spatial summation
Type I fibers lack __________. myoglobin mitochondria a blood supply speed
speed
All of the following tracts of the spinal white matter are descending except: spinocerebellar tracts. corticospinal tracts. reticulospinal tracts. vestibulospinal tracts.
spinocerebellar tracts.
All the following functions are associated with synovial fluid except: stability. lubrication. shock absorption. metabolic functions.
stability
The deepest stage of sleep is experienced during: stage III. stage I. stage IV. stage VI.
stage IV.
The patellar reflex is a type of __________. stretch reflex withdrawal reflex cranial reflex Golgi tendon reflex
stretch reflex
Which of the following is NOT a muscle involved in the movement of the tongue to manipulate food while chewing and pushing the bolus of food into the throat? styloglossus stylohyoid genioglossus hyglossus
stylohyoid
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) circulates through the __________. subarachnoid space pia mater blood-brain barrier dura mater
subarachnoid space
A synarthrosis that forms between adjacent bones of the skull is called a __________. suture syndesmosis symphysis synchondrosis
suture
Which of the following is/are classified as fibrous joints? diarthroses sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses synchondroses and symphyses synovial joints
sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses
Which of the following is/are classified as fibrous joints? diarthroses synovial joints synchondroses and symphyses sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses
sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses
Which of the following is NOT an organ innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system? sweat glands digestive glands lacrimal glands salivary glands
sweat glands sweat bc you don't sweat while resting/digesting
Which of the following is called the "fight or flight" division of the nervous system? somatic motor division sympathetic nervous system parasympathetic nervous system visceral sensory division
sympathetic nervous system
What two systems are interfaced by the adrenal medulla? somatic nervous system and autonomic nervous system parasympathetic nervous system and sympathetic nervous system sympathetic nervous system and endocrine system parasympathetic nervous system and endocrine system
sympathetic nervous system and endocrine system
Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that act as adrenergic antagonists. Beta-blockers will have an effect at __________. sympathetic ganglia parasympathetic ganglia sympathetic target organs parasympathetic target organs
sympathetic target organs
What is responsible for keeping blood vessels partially constricted at all times? somatic control parasympathetic tone sympathetic tone cerebral cortex control
sympathetic tone
The type of joint found between the bodies of adjacent vertebrae is classified as a _____. symphysis syndesmosis synchondrosis synarthrosis
symphysis
Two types of cartilaginous joints are _______________________. symphysis and synchondrosis sutures and syndesmosis symphysis and gomphosis synovial and synchondrosis
symphysis and synchondrosis
The narrow space between the axon terminal and the muscle fiber is known as the: synaptic cleft. synaptic vesicle. neurotransmitter. motor end plate.
synaptic cleft.
Functionally, how are cartilaginous joints classified? fibrous or synovial synarthroses or diarthroses synarthroses or amphiarthroses amphiarthroses or diarthroses
synarthroses or amphiarthroses
Once the cranial bones reach skeletal maturity, they are joined by: diarthroses to protect the underlying brain. syndesmoses to protect the underlying brain. synarthroses to protect the underlying brain. amphiarthroses to protect the underlying brain
synarthroses to protect the underlying brain.
Which of the following best represents the functional classifications of joints ranked from least movable to most movable? amphiarthrosis, synarthrosis, diarthrosis diarthrosis, synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis synarthrosis, diarthrosis, amphiarthrosis synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis
synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis SAD
An epiphyseal plate is an example of a __________. gomphosis syndesmosis symphysis synchondrosis
synchondrosis
The most moveable fibrous joints are the __________. symphyses sutures syndesmoses gomphoses
syndesmoses
Joints that are diarthroses and have a cavity are classified as ______ joints. synovial fibrous cartilaginous symphysis
synovial
Which of the following is NOT a functional joint classification? amphiarthrosis synarthrosis diarthrosis synovial
synovial
The distal end of the fibula articulates with the __________. cuboid navicular talus calcaneus
talus
Gustatory stimuli are stimuli pertaining to: smell. sight. taste. balance.
taste
The descending motor tracts that allow for reflexive movement of the head and eyes are the: tectospinal tracts. vestibulospinal tracts. reticulospinal tracts. spinocerebellar tracts.
tectospinal tracts.
The neurons responsible for hearing, language, memory, and emotions can be found in the __________ lobe. parietal temporal frontal occipital
temporal
When a second EPSP arrives at a single synapse before the effects of the first have disappeared, what results? spatial summation hyperpolarization temporal summation inhibition of the impulse
temporal summation
The structure that connects muscle to bone is called a __________. bursa tendon ligament meniscus
tendon
Nearly all stimuli destined for the cerebral cortex must first pass through the ________. hypothalamus brainstem corpus callosum thalamus
thalamus
Second-order neurons will synapse with third-order neurons located in the: posterior horn. anterior horn. thalamus. cerebral cortex.
thalamus.
When the sarcomere contracts and shortens, __________. the A band stays the same the zones of overlap become smaller the Z-disks move further apart the I-band becomes larger
the A band stays the same
Neuronal pools are located within ___________ ganglia. the CNS. the PNS. nerves.
the CNS.
When a skeletal muscle fiber contracts, __________. the H zone narrows while the I bands widen the A bands shorten while the I bands lengthen the H zone and I bands narrow Z discs move farther apart while the A bands shorten
the H zone and I bands narrow
Out of the numerous factors that influence bone growth and remodeling, ______ do (does) not. vitamins the amount of fibrocartilage available minerals available hormones
the amount of fibrocartilage available
Which of the following steps of the contraction cycle triggers ATP hydrolysis? The myosin head detaches from actin. the binding of ATP to the myosin head the myosin head binds to actin power stroke
the binding of ATP to the myosin head
Astrocytes and tight junctions create a barrier to viruses and bacteria known as __________. meninges dural sinuses the blood-brain barrier choroid plexues
the blood-brain barrier
In a first-class lever, __________. the fulcrum is on one side and is closer to the applied force than to the load the fulcrum is on one side and is closer to the load than to the applied force the fulcrum is located between the load and the force there is no fulcrum
the fulcrum is located between the load and the force
A disease that affects the production of collagen found in gomphoses would lead to: the vertebrae compressing and not being able to resist tension. the long bones to cease in growing. the skull being unsuitable to protect the brain. the inability of teeth to withstand the pressure of chewing.
the inability of teeth to withstand the pressure of chewing.
The unhappy triad is an injury involving _________________________. the medial collateral ligament, the medial meniscus, and the anterior cruciate ligament the lateral collateral ligament, the medial collateral ligament, and the patellar ligament the posterior cruciate ligament and the medial and lateral menisci the medial meniscus and the anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments
the medial collateral ligament, the medial meniscus, and the anterior cruciate ligament MMA
The cerebellum functions in __________. learning, memory, and personality biological rhythms homeostatic functions such as breathing and heart rate the planning and coordination of movement
the planning and coordination of movement
The neurotransmitter orexin plays a role in __________. the promotion of sleepiness the regulation of metabolism the promotion of wakefulness body temperature regulation
the promotion of wakefulness
All the following structures are associated with the shoulder joint except: the rotator cuff. the radioulnar ligament. the coracohumeral ligament. the glenohumeral ligament.
the radioulnar ligament.
During testing of a young girl, a doctor found an elevated level of estrogen caused by a tumor. He informed the parents to expect the young girl to have significant growth throughout her teenage years due to a delayed closing of her epiphyseal plates. the young girl to have stunted growth until the tumor was removed and then above average growth height. the young girl to have normal growth of her bones with no side effects. the young girl to show significant growth in a very short period but her overall height to be less than average.
the young girl to show significant growth in a very short period but her overall height to be less than average.
Which muscle is an antagonist to the gastrocnemius muscle? soleus plantaris tibialis anterior extensor digitorum longus
tibialis anterior
Spongy bone is made up of a branching framework called ____. osteons trabeculae lamellar bone central canals
trabeculae
Bundles of white matter in the cerebrum are known as __________. ganglia nerves nuclei tracts
tracts
Myofilaments are bundles of hundreds to thousands of the following types of proteins except: transport proteins contractile proteins regulatory proteins structural proteins
transport proteins
Inward extensions of the sarcolemma that dive deeply into the muscle fiber and surround each myofibril are known as _____. transverse tubules (T-tubules) terminal cisternae sarcoplasmic reticulum myofilaments
transverse tubules (T-tubules)
The type of contraction represented by a single stimulus/contraction/relaxation sequence is a(n) __________. unfused tetanus twitch fused tetanus wave summation
twitch
Resting membrane potential is maintained by the Na+/K+ ATPase, which brings __________. three potassium ions into the cytosol and three sodium ions into the extracellular fluid two potassium ions into the cytosol and two sodium ions into the extracellular fluid two potassium ions into the cytosol and three sodium ions into the extracellular fluid three potassium ions into the cytosol and two sodium ions into the extracellular fluid
two potassium ions into the cytosol and three sodium ions into the extracellular fluid
Wave summation, in which the muscle can only partially relax between contractions, will lead to __________. latent period twitch unfused tetanus fused tetanus
unfused tetanus
Due to an accident, Lori's sacral nerves are severed. What do you expect to be affected by this injury? production of saliva heart and lungs blood pressure and heart rate urinary bladder and the last portion of the large intestine
urinary bladder and the last portion of the large intestine
Which of the following descending tracts of the spinal cord is important for the maintenance of posture and balance? vestibulospinal tract spinothalamic tract spinocerebellar tract tectospinal tract
vestibulospinal tract
The sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system are divisions of the __________. visceral motor division (autonomic nervous system) somatic sensory division visceral sensory division somatic motor division
visceral motor division (autonomic nervous system)
An action potential releases neurotransmitter from a neuron by opening which of the following channels? voltage-gated Na+ channels voltage-gated K+ channels chemically gated Ca2+ channels voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
When a muscle fiber is relaxed, calcium ions would be: within lateral sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. bound to tropomyosin. stored in transverse tubules. bound to troponin.
within lateral sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
All of the following factors will affect osteoblast and osteoclast activity except: yellow bone marrow. mechanical stress. blood calcium level. calcitonin and parathyroid hormone levels.
yellow bone marrow.
Severe anemia may trigger an adaptive conversion of _________________. spongy bone to compact bone yellow marrow to red marrow red marrow to yellow marrow compact bone to spongy bone
yellow marrow to red marrow
The stacked chondrocytes undergo rapid cell division within the: zone of hypertrophy. zone of calcification. zone of ossification. zone of proliferation.
zone of proliferation.
What type of motor neuron stimulates skeletal muscle fibers to contract by the excitation-contraction mechanism? interneuron α-motor neuron γ-motor neuron upper motor neuron
α-motor neuron
