AH2 Exam 2

A 22-year-old female patient seen in the clinic for a bladder infection describes the following symptoms. Which information is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Urinary urgency b. Left-sided flank pain c. Intermittent hematuria d. Burning with urination

ANS: B Flank pain indicates that the patient may have developed pyelonephritis as a complication of the bladder infection. The other clinical manifestations are consistent with a lower urinary tract infection (UTI). DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1069-1070 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse is titrating the IV fluid infusion rate immediately after a patient has had kidney transplantation. Which parameter will be most important for the nurse to consider? a. Heart rate b. Urine output c. Creatinine clearance d. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level

ANS: B Fluid volume is replaced based on urine output after transplant because the urine output can be as high as a liter an hour. The other data will be monitored but are not the most important determinants of fluid infusion rate.

When a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has an arterial blood pH of 7.30, the nurse will expect an assessment finding of a. persistent skin tenting b. rapid, deep respirations. c. bounding peripheral pulses. d. hot, flushed face and neck.

ANS: B Patients with metabolic acidosis caused by AKI may have Kussmaul respirations as the lungs try to regulate carbon dioxide. Bounding pulses and vasodilation are not associated with metabolic acidosis. Because the patient is likely to have fluid retention, poor skin turgor would not be a finding in AKI.

When a brain-injured patient responds to nail bed pressure with internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms, the nurse reports the response as a. flexion withdrawal. b. localization of pain. c. decorticate posturing. d. decerebrate posturing.

ANS: C Internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms in an unconscious patient is documented as decorticate posturing. Extension of the arms and legs is decerebrate posturing. Because the flexion is generalized, it does not indicate localization of pain or flexion withdrawal

The nurse determines that teaching about management of migraine headaches has been effective when the patient says which of the following? a. "I can take the (Topamax) as soon as a headache starts." b. "A glass of wine might help me relax and prevent a headache." c. "I will lie down someplace dark and quiet when the headaches begin." d. "I should avoid taking aspirin and sumatriptan (Imitrex) at the same time."

ANS: C It is recommended that the patient with a migraine rest in a dark, quiet area. Topiramate (Topamax) is used to prevent migraines and must be taken for several months to determine effectiveness. Aspirin or other nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medications can be taken with the triptans. Alcohol may precipitate migraine headaches

After a patient experienced a brief episode of tinnitus, diplopia, and dysarthria with no residual effects, the nurse anticipates teaching the patient about a. cerebral aneurysm clipping. b. heparin intravenous infusion. c. oral low-dose aspirin therapy. d. tissue plasminogen activator (tPA).

ANS: C The patient's symptoms are consistent with transient ischemic attack (TIA), and drugs that inhibit platelet aggregation are prescribed after a TIA to prevent stroke. Continuous heparin infusion is not routinely used after TIA or with acute ischemic stroke. The patient's symptoms are not consistent with a cerebral aneurysm. tPA is used only for acute ischemic stroke, not for TIA

The nurse obtains information about a hospitalized patient who is receiving chemotherapy for colorectal cancer. Which information about the patient alerts the nurse to discuss a possible change in therapy with the health care provider? a. Poor oral intake b. Frequent loose stools c. Complaints of nausea and vomiting d. Increase in carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

ANS: D An increase in CEA indicates that the chemotherapy is not effective for the patient's cancer and may need to be modified. The other patient findings are common adverse effects of chemotherapy. The nurse may need to address these, but they would not necessarily indicate a need for a change in therapy

The patient is having a gastroduodenostomy (Billroth I operation) for stomach cancer. What long-term complication is occurring when the patient reports generalized weakness, sweating, palpitations, and dizziness 15 to 30 minutes after eating? A) Malnutrition B) Bile reflux gastritis C) Dumping syndrome D) Postprandial hypoglycemia

After a Billroth I operation, dumping syndrome may occur 15 to 30 minutes after eating because of the hypertonic fluid going to the intestine and additional fluid being drawn into the bowel. Malnutrition may occur but does not cause these symptoms. Bile reflux gastritis cannot happen when the stomach has been removed. Postprandial hypoglycemia occurs with similar symptoms, but 2 hours after eating.

The nurse should recognize that the liver performs which functions (select all that apply)? A) Bile storage B) Detoxification C) Protein metabolism D) Steroid metabolism E) Red blood cell (RBC) destruction

B, C, D) The liver performs multiple major functions that aid in the maintenance of homeostasis. These include metabolism of proteins and steroids as well as detoxification of drugs and metabolic waste products. The Kupffer cells of the liver participate in the breakdown of old RBCs. The liver produces bile, but storage occurs in the gall bladder.

The nurse teaches a patient with cancer of the liver about high-protein, high-calorie diet choices. Which snack choice by the patient indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. Lime sherbet b. Blueberry yogurt c. Cream cheese bagel d. Fresh strawberries and bananas

ANS: B Yogurt has high biologic value because of the protein and fat content. Fruit salad does not have high amounts of protein or fat. Lime sherbet is lower in fat and protein than yogurt. Cream cheese is low in protein

The patient tells the nurse she had a history of abdominal pain, so she had a surgery to make an opening into the common bile duct to remove stones. The nurse knows that this surgery is called a A) colectomy B) cholecystectomy C) choledocholithotomy D) choledochojejunostomy

C) A choledocholithotomy is an opening into the common bile duct for the removal of stones. A colectomy is the removal of the colon. The cholecystectomy is the removal of the gallbladder. The choledochojejunostomy is an opening between the common bile duct and the jejunum.

Which clinical manifestations of inflammatory bowel disease are common to both patients with ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn's disease (select all that apply)? A) Restricted to rectum B) Strictures are common. C) Bloody, diarrhea stools D) Cramping abdominal pain E) Lesions penetrate intestine.

C, D) Clinical manifestations of UC and Crohn's disease include bloody diarrhea, cramping abdominal pain, and nutritional disorders. Intestinal lesions associated with UC are usually restricted to the rectum before moving into the colon. Lesions that penetrate the intestine or cause strictures are characteristic of Crohn's disease.

When teaching the patient about the diet for diverticular disease, which foods should the nurse recommend? A) White bread, cheese, and green beans B) Fresh tomatoes, pears, and corn flakes C) Oranges, baked potatoes, and raw carrots D) Dried beans, All Bran (100%) cereal, and raspberries

D) A high fiber diet is recommended for diverticular disease. Dried beans, All Bran (100%) cereal, and raspberries all have higher amounts of fiber than white bread, cheese, green beans, fresh tomatoes, pears, corn flakes, oranges, baked potatoes, and raw carrots.

A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer that is classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "The cancer involves only the cervix." b. "The cancer cells look almost like normal cells." c. "Further testing is needed to determine the spread of the cancer." d. "It is difficult to determine the original site of the cervical cancer."

ANS: A Cancer in situ indicates that the cancer is localized to the cervix and is not invasive at this time. Cell differentiation is not indicated by clinical staging. Because the cancer is in situ, the origin is the cervix. Further testing is not indicated given that the cancer has not spread

A female patient being admitted with pneumonia has a history of neurogenic bladder as a result of a spinal cord injury. Which action will the nurse plan to take first? a. Ask about the usual urinary pattern and any measures used for bladder control. b. Assist the patient to the toilet at scheduled times to help ensure bladder emptying. c. Check the patient for urinary incontinence every 2 hours to maintain skin integrity. d. Use intermittent catheterization on a regular schedule to avoid the risk of infection.

ANS: A Before planning any interventions, the nurse should complete the assessment and determine the patient's normal bladder pattern and the usual measures used by the patient at home. All the other responses may be appropriate, but until the assessment is complete, an individualized plan for the patient cannot be developed. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1052 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse is caring for a patient who has had an ileal conduit for several years. Which nursing action could be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Change the ostomy appliance. b. Choose the appropriate ostomy bag. c. Monitor the appearance of the stoma. d. Assess for possible urinary tract infection (UTI).

ANS: A Changing the ostomy appliance for a stable patient could be done by UAP. Assessments of the site, choosing the appropriate ostomy bag, and assessing for (UTI) symptoms require more education and scope of practice and should be done by the registered nurse (RN).

When planning teaching for a 59-year-old male patient with benign nephrosclerosis the nurse should include instructions regarding a. preventing bleeding with anticoagulants. b. monitoring and recording blood pressure. c. obtaining and documenting daily weights. d. measuring daily intake and output volumes.

ANS: B Hypertension is the major symptom of nephrosclerosis. Measurements of intake and output and daily weights are not necessary unless the patient develops renal insufficiency. Anticoagulants are not used to treat nephrosclerosis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1082 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

To prevent recurrence of uric acid renal calculi, the nurse teaches the patient to avoid eating a. milk and cheese. b. sardines and liver. c. legumes and dried fruit. d. spinach, chocolate, and tea.

ANS: B Organ meats and fish such as sardines increase purine levels and uric acid. Spinach, chocolate, and tomatoes should be avoided in patients who have oxalate stones. Milk, dairy products, legumes, and dried fruits may increase the incidence of calcium-containing stones. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1078 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI) about the use of phenazopyridine (Pyridium)? a. Pyridium may cause photosensitivity b. Pyridium may change the urine color. c. Take the Pyridium for at least 7 days. d. Take Pyridium before sexual intercourse.

ANS: B Patients should be taught that Pyridium will color the urine deep orange. Urinary analgesics should only be needed for a few days until the prescribed antibiotics decrease the bacterial count. Pyridium does not cause photosensitivity. Taking Pyridium before intercourse will not be helpful in reducing the risk for UTI. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1067 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse caring for a patient after cystoscopy plans that the patient a. learns to request narcotics for pain. b. understands to expect blood-tinged urine. c. restricts activity to bed rest for a 4 to 6 hours. d. remains NPO for 8 hours to prevent vomiting.

ANS: B Pink-tinged urine and urinary frequency are expected after cystoscopy. Burning on urination is common, but pain that requires opioids for relief is not expected. A good fluid intake is encouraged after this procedure. Bed rest is not required following cystoscopy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1060 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which finding by the nurse will be most helpful in determining whether a 67-year-old patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia has an upper urinary tract infection (UTI)? a. Bladder distention b. Foul-smelling urine c. Suprapubic discomfort d. Costovertebral tenderness

ANS: D Costovertebral tenderness is characteristic of pyelonephritis. Bladder distention, foul-smelling urine, and suprapubic discomfort are characteristic of lower UTI and are likely to be present if the patient also has an upper UTI. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1070 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

To assess whether there is any improvement in a patient's dysuria, which question will the nurse ask? a. "Do you have to urinate at night?" b. "Do you have blood in your urine?" c. "Do you have to urinate frequently?" d. "Do you have pain when you urinate?"

ANS: D Dysuria is painful urination. The alternate responses are used to assess other urinary tract symptoms: hematuria, nocturia, and frequency. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1056 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological

The nurse assessing the urinary system of a 45-year-old female would use auscultation to a. determine kidney position. b. identify renal artery bruits. c. check for ureteral peristalsis. d. assess for bladder distention.

ANS: B The presence of a bruit may indicate problems such as renal artery tortuosity or abdominal aortic aneurysm. Auscultation would not be helpful in assessing for the other listed urinary tract information. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1055 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse should include which food choice when providing dietary teaching for a patient scheduled to receive external beam radiation for abdominal cancer? a. Fresh fruit salad b. Roasted chicken c. Whole wheat toast d. Cream of potato soup

ANS: B To minimize the diarrhea that is commonly associated with bowel radiation, the patient should avoid foods high in roughage, such as fruits and whole grains. Lactose intolerance may develop secondary to radiation, so dairy products should also be avoided

The nurse assesses a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma who is receiving an infusion of rituximab (Rituxan). Which assessment finding would require the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Shortness of breath b. Temperature 100.2° F (37.9° C) c. Shivering and complaint of chills d. Generalized muscle aches and pains

ANS: A Rituximab (Rituxan) is a monoclonal antibody. Shortness of breath should be investigated rapidly because anaphylaxis is a possible reaction to monoclonal antibody administration. The nurse will need to rapidly take actions such as stopping the infusion, assessing the patient further, and notifying the health care provider. The other findings will also require action by the nurse, but are not indicative of life-threatening complications

The nurse is caring for a 68-year-old hospitalized patient with a decreased glomerular filtration rate who is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which action will be included in the plan of care? a. Monitor the urine output after the procedure. b. Assist with monitored anesthesia care (MAC). c. Give oral contrast solution before the procedure. d. Insert a large size urinary catheter before the IVP.

ANS: A Patients with impaired renal function are at risk for decreased renal function after IVP because the contrast medium used is nephrotoxic, so the nurse should monitor the patient's urine output. MAC sedation and retention catheterization are not required for the procedure. The contrast medium is given IV, not orally. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1048 | 1058 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

What glomerular filtration rate (GFR) would the nurse estimate for a 30-year-old patient with a creatinine clearance result of 60 mL/min? a. 60 mL/min b. 90 mL/min c. 120 mL/min d. 180 mL/min

ANS: A The creatinine clearance approximates the GFR. The other responses are not accurate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1056 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

How will the nurse assess for flank tenderness in a 30-year-old female patient with suspected pyelonephritis? a. Palpate along both sides of the lumbar vertebral column. b. Strike a flat hand covering the costovertebral angle (CVA). c. Push fingers upward into the two lowest intercostal spaces. d. Percuss between the iliac crest and ribs along the midaxillary line.

ANS: B Checking for flank pain is best performed by percussion of the CVA and asking about pain. The other techniques would not assess for flank pain. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1055 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient has elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels. Which bowel preparation order would the nurse question for this patient who is scheduled for a renal arteriogram? a. Fleet enema b. Tap-water enema c. Senna/docusate (Senokot-S) d. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) tablets

ANS: A High-phosphate enemas, such as Fleet enemas, should be avoided in patients with elevated BUN and creatinine because phosphate cannot be excreted by patients with renal failure. The other medications for bowel evacuation are more appropriate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1055 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A hospitalized patient with possible renal insufficiency after coronary artery bypass surgery is scheduled for a creatinine clearance test. Which equipment will the nurse need to obtain? a. Urinary catheter b. Cleaning towelettes c. Large container for urine d. Sterile urine specimen cup

ANS: C Because creatinine clearance testing involves a 24-hour urine specimen, the nurse should obtain a large container for the urine collection. Catheterization, cleaning of the perineum with antiseptic towelettes, and a sterile specimen cup are not needed for this test. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1056 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient admitted to the hospital with pneumonia has a history of functional urinary incontinence. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Demonstrate the use of the Credé maneuver. b. Teach exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor. c. Place a bedside commode close to the patient's bed. d. Use an ultrasound scanner to check postvoiding residuals.

ANS: C Modifications in the environment make it easier to avoid functional incontinence. Checking for residual urine and performing the Credé maneuver are interventions for overflow incontinence. Kegel exercises are useful for stress incontinence. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1088 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse reviews the laboratory results of a patient who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit of 30% b. Platelets of 95,000/µL c. Hemoglobin of 10 g/L d. White blood cell (WBC) count of 2700/µL

ANS: D The low WBC count places the patient at risk for severe infection and is an indication that the chemotherapy dose may need to be lower or that WBC growth factors such as filgrastim (Neupogen) are needed. Although the other laboratory data indicate decreased levels, they do not indicate any immediate life-threatening adverse effects of the chemotherapy

Which medication taken at home by a 47-year-old patient with decreased renal function will be of most concern to the nurse? a. ibuprofen (Motrin) b. warfarin (Coumadin) c. folic acid (vitamin B9) d. penicillin (Bicillin LA)

ANS: A The nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medications (NSAIDs) are nephrotoxic and should be avoided in patients with impaired renal function. The nurse also should ask about reasons the patient is taking the other medications, but the medication of most concern is the ibuprofen. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1052 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which statement by a patient who had a cystoscopy the previous day should be reported immediately to the health care provider? a. "My urine looks pink." b. "My IV site is bruised." c. "My sleep was restless." d. "My temperature is 101."

ANS: D The patient's elevated temperature may indicate a bladder infection, a possible complication of cystoscopy. The health care provider should be notified so that antibiotic therapy can be started. Pink-tinged urine is expected after a cystoscopy. The insomnia and bruising should be discussed further with the patient but do not indicate a need to notify the health care provider. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1060 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

During a routine health examination, a 40-year-old patient tells the nurse about a family history of colon cancer. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Teach the patient about the need for a colonoscopy at age 50. b. Teach the patient how to do home testing for fecal occult blood. c. Obtain more information from the patient about the family history. d. Schedule a sigmoidoscopy to provide baseline data about the patient.

ANS: C The patient may be at increased risk for colon cancer, but the nurse's first action should be further assessment. The other actions may be appropriate, depending on the information that is obtained from the patient with further questioning.

A chemotherapy drug that causes alopecia is prescribed for a patient. Which action should the nurse take to maintain the patient's self-esteem? a. Tell the patient to limit social contacts until regrowth of the hair occurs. b. Encourage the patient to purchase a wig or hat and wear it once hair loss begins. c. Teach the patient to gently wash hair with a mild shampoo to minimize hair loss. d. Inform the patient that hair usually grows back once the chemotherapy is complete.

ANS: B The patient is taught to anticipate hair loss and to be prepared with wigs, scarves, or hats. Limiting social contacts is not appropriate at a time when the patient is likely to need a good social support system. The damage occurs at the hair follicle and will occur regardless of gentle washing or use of a mild shampoo. The information that the hair will grow back is not immediately helpful in maintaining the patient's self-esteem

A 56-year-old female patient is admitted to the hospital with new onset nephrotic syndrome. Which assessment data will the nurse expect? a. Poor skin turgor b. Recent weight gain c. Elevated urine ketones d. Decreased blood pressure

ANS: B The patient with a nephrotic syndrome will have weight gain associated with edema. Hypertension is a clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. Skin turgor is normal because of the edema. Urine protein is high. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1075-1076 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A 34-year-old male patient seen at the primary care clinic complains of feeling continued fullness after voiding and a split, spraying urine stream. The nurse will ask about a history of a. recent kidney trauma. b. gonococcal urethritis. c. recurrent bladder infection. d. benign prostatic hyperplasia.

ANS: B The patient's clinical manifestations are consistent with urethral strictures, a possible complication of gonococcal urethritis. These symptoms are not consistent with benign prostatic hyperplasia, kidney trauma, or bladder infection. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1071 | 1081 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the oncology unit. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. 35-year-old patient who has wet desquamation associated with abdominal radiation b. 42-year-old patient who is sobbing after receiving a new diagnosis of ovarian cancer c. 24-year-old patient who received neck radiation and has blood oozing from the neck d. 56-year-old patient who developed a new pericardial friction rub after chest radiation

ANS: C Because neck bleeding may indicate possible carotid artery rupture in a patient who is receiving radiation to the neck, this patient should be seen first. The diagnoses and clinical manifestations for the other patients are not immediately life threatening

A 32-year-old patient who is employed as a hairdresser and has a 15 pack-year history of cigarette smoking is scheduled for an annual physical examination. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the increased risk for a. renal failure. b. kidney stones. c. pyelonephritis. d. bladder cancer.

ANS: D Exposure to the chemicals involved with working as a hairdresser and in smoking both increase the risk of bladder cancer, and the nurse should assess whether the patient understands this risk. The patient is not at increased risk for renal failure, pyelonephritis, or kidney stones. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1053 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

A patient has been taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for 2 years. Which action will the nurse take when evaluating for adverse effects of the medication? a. Inspect the oral mucosa. b. Listen to the lung sounds. c. Auscultate the bowel tones. d. Check pupil reaction to light.

ANS: A Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, but does not affect bowel tones, lung sounds, or pupil reaction to light

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravesical bladder chemotherapy. The nurse should monitor for which adverse effect? a. Nausea b. Alopecia c. Mucositis d. Hematuria

ANS: D The adverse effects of intravesical chemotherapy are confined to the bladder. The other adverse effects are associated with systemic chemotherapy

A 72-year-old patient was admitted with epigastric pain due to a gastric ulcer. Which patient assessment warrants an urgent change in the nursing plan of care? A) Chest pain relieved with eating or drinking water B) Back pain 3 or 4 hours after eating a meal C) Burning epigastric pain 90 minutes after breakfast D) Rigid abdomen and vomiting following indigestion

A rigid abdomen with vomiting in a patient who has a gastric ulcer indicates a perforation of the ulcer, especially if the manifestations of perforation appear suddenly. Midepigastric pain is relieved by eating, drinking water, or antacids with duodenal ulcers, not gastric ulcers. Back pain 3-4 hours after a meal is more likely to occur with a duodenal ulcer. Burning epigastric pain 1-2 hours after a meal is an expected manifestation of a gastric ulcer related to increased gastric secretions and does not cause an urgent change in the nursing plan of care.

When preparing a patient for a capsule endoscopy study, what should the nurse do? A) Ensure the patient understands the required bowel preparation. B) Have the patient return to the procedure room for removal of the capsule. C) Teach the patient to maintain a clear liquid diet throughout the procedure. D) Explain to the patient that conscious sedation will be used during placement of the capsule.

A) A capsule endoscopy study involves the patient performing a bowel prep to cleanse the bowel before swallowing the capsule. The patient will be on a clear liquid diet for 1 to 2 days before the procedure and will remain NPO for 4 to 6 hours after swallowing the capsule. The capsule is disposable and will pass naturally with the bowel movement, although the monitoring device will need to be removed.

After administering a dose of promethazine (Phenergan) to a patient with nausea and vomiting, the nurse explains that which of the following may be experienced as a common temporary adverse effect of the medication? A) Drowsiness B) Reduced hearing C) Sensation of falling D) Photosensitivity

A) Drowsiness (Although being given to this patient as an antiemetic, promethazine also has sedative and amnesic properties. For this reason, the patient is likely to experience drowsiness as an adverse effect of the medication.)

A patient had a stomach resection for stomach cancer. The nurse should teach the patient about the loss of the hormone that stimulates gastric acid secretion and motility and maintains lower esophageal sphincter tone. Which hormone will be decreased with a gastric resection? A) Gastrin B) Secretin C) Cholecystokinin D) Gastric inhibitory peptide

A) Gastrin is the hormone activated in the stomach (and duodenal mucosa) by stomach distention that stimulates gastric acid secretion and motility and maintains lower esophageal sphincter tone. Secretin inhibits gastric motility and acid secretion and stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate secretion. Cholecystokinin allows increased flow of bile into the duodenum and release of pancreatic digestive enzymes. Gastric inhibitory peptide inhibits gastric acid secretion and motility.

The patient with cirrhosis is being taught self-care. Which statement indicates the patient needs more teaching? A) "If I notice a fast heart rate or irregular beats, this is normal for cirrhosis." B) "I need to take good care of my belly and ankle skin where it is swollen." C) "A scrotal support may be more comfortable when I have scrotal edema." D) "I can use pillows to support my head to help me breathe when I am in bed."

A) If the patient with cirrhosis experiences a fast or irregular heart rate, it may be indicative of hypokalemia and should be reported to the health care provider, as this is not normal for cirrhosis. Edematous tissue is subject to breakdown and needs meticulous skin care. Pillows and a semi-Fowler's or Fowler's position will increase respiratory efficiency. A scrotal support may improve comfort if there is scrotal edema

The wound, ostomy, and continence (WOC) nurse selects the site where the ostomy will be placed. What should be included in the consideration for the site? A) The patient must be able to see the site. B) Outside the rectus muscle area is the best site. C) It is easier to seal the drainage bag to a protruding area. D) The ostomy will need irrigation, so area should not be tender.

A) In selection of the ostomy site, the WOC nurse will want a site visible to the patient so the patient can take care of it, within the rectus muscle to avoid hernias, and on a flat surface to more easily create a good seal with the drainage bag.

The nurse is conducting discharge teaching for a patient with metastatic lung cancer who was admitted with a bowel impaction. Which of the following instructions would be most helpful to prevent further episodes of constipation? A) Maintain a high intake of fluid and fiber in the diet. B) Reduce intake of medications causing constipation. C) Eat several small meals per day to maintain bowel motility. D) Sit upright during meals to increase bowel motility by gravity.

A) Increased fluid intake and a high-fiber diet reduce the incidence of constipation caused by immobility, medications, and other factors. Fluid and fiber provide bulk that in turn increases peristalsis and bowel motility. Analgesics taken for lung cancer probably cannot be reduced. Other medications may decrease constipation, but it is best to avoid laxatives. Eating several small meals per day and position do not facilitate bowel motility. Defecation is easiest when the person sits on the commode with the knees higher than the hips.

A stroke patient who primarily uses a wheelchair for mobility has diarrhea with fecal incontinence. What should the nurse assess first? A) Fecal impaction B) Perineal hygiene C) Dietary fiber intake D) Antidiarrheal agent use

A) Patients with limited mobility are at risk for fecal impactions due to constipation that may lead to liquid stool leaking around the hardened impacted feces, so assessing for fecal impaction is the priority. Perineal hygiene can be assessed at the same time. Assessing the dietary fiber and fluid intake and antidiarrheal agent use will be assessed and considered next.

A pt with a history of peptic ulcer disease has presented to the emergency department with complaints of severe abdominal pain and a rigid, boardlike abdomen, prompting the health care team to suspect a perforated ulcer. Which of the following actions should the nurse anticipate? A) Providing IV fluids and inserting a nasogastric tube B) Administering oral bicarbonate and testing the patient's gastric pH level C) Performing a fecal occult blood test and administering IV calcium gluconate D) Starting parenteral nutrition and placing the patient in a high-Fowler's position

A) Providing IV fluids and inserting a nasogastric tube A perforated peptic ulcer requires IV replacement of fluid losses and continued gastric aspiration by NG tube. Nothing is given by mouth and gastric pH testing is not a priority. Calcium gluconate is not a medication directly relevant to the patient's suspected diagnosis and parenteral nutrition is not a priority in the short term.

The nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube into a 68-year-old female patient who is nauseated and vomiting. She has an abdominal mass and suspected small intestinal obstruction. The patient asks the nurse why this procedure is necessary. What response by the nurse is most appropriate? A) "The tube will help to drain the stomach contents and prevent further vomiting." B) "The tube will push past the area that is blocked and thus help to stop the vomiting." C) "The tube is just a standard procedure before many types of surgery to the abdomen." D) "The tube will let us measure your stomach contents so that we can plan what type of IV fluid replacement would be best."

A) The NG tube is used to decompress the stomach by draining stomach contents and thereby prevent further vomiting. The NG tube will not push past the blocked area. Potential surgery is not currently indicated. The location of the obstruction will determine the type of fluid to use, not measure the amount of stomach contents.

When evaluating the patient's understanding about the care of the ileostomy, what statement by the patient indicates the patient needs more teaching? A) "I will be able to regulate when I have stools." B) "I will be able to wear the pouch until it leaks." C) "Dried fruit and popcorn must be chewed very well." D) "The drainage from my stoma can damage my skin."

A) The ileostomy is in the ileum and drains liquid stool frequently, unlike the colostomy which has more formed stool the further distal the ostomy is in the colon. The ileostomy pouch is usually worn 4-7 days or until it leaks. It must be changed immediately if it leaks because the drainage is very irritating to the skin. To avoid obstruction, popcorn, dried fruit, coconut, mushrooms, olives, stringy vegetables, food with skin, and meats with casings must be chewed extremely well before swallowing because of the narrow diameter of the ileostomy lumen.

A patient with type 2 diabetes and cirrhosis asks the nurse if it would be okay to take silymarin (milk thistle) to help minimize liver damage. The nurse responds based on knowledge that: A. Milk thistle may affect liver enzymes and thus alter drug metabolism. B. Milk thistle is generally safe in recommended doses for up to 10 years. C. is unclear scientific evidence for the use of milk thistle in treating cirrhosis. D. Milk thistle may elevate the serum glucose levels and is thus contraindicated in diabetes.

A) There is good scientific evidence that there is no real benefit from using milk thistle to protect the liver cells from toxic damage in the treatment of cirrhosis. Milk thistle does affect liver enzymes and thus could alter drug metabolism. Therefore patients will need to be monitored for drug interactions. It is noted to be safe for up to 6 years, not 10 years, and it may lower, not elevate, blood glucose levels.

When administered a dose of metoclopramide (Reglan), a patient complains of nausea. The nurse would teach the patient to report which of the following potential adverse effects? A) Tremors B) Constipation C) Double vision D) Numbness in the fingers and dose

A) Tremors (Extrapyramidal side effects, including tremors and dyskinesias, may occur as a result of metoclopramide (Reglan) administration.)

Two days following a colectomy for an abdominal mass, a patient reports gas pains and abdominal distention. The nurse plans care for the patient based on the knowledge that the symptoms are occurring as a result of A) impaired peristalsis. B) irritation of the bowel. C) nasogastric suctioning. D) inflammation of the incision site.

A) Until peristalsis returns to normal following anesthesia, the patient may experience slowed gastrointestinal motility leading to gas pains and abdominal distention. Irritation of the bowel, nasogastric suctioning, and inflammation of the surgical site do not cause gas pains or abdominal distention.

A 90-year-old healthy man is suffering from dysphagia. The nurse explains what age-related change of the GI tract is the most likely cause of his difficulty? A) Xerostomia B) Esophageal cancer C) Decreased taste buds D) Thinner abdominal wall

A) Xerostomia, decreased volume of saliva, leads to dry oral mucosa and dysphagia. Esophageal cancer is not an age-related change. Decreased taste buds and a thinner abdominal wall do not contribute to difficulty swallowing.

When caring for a patient with a biliary obstruction, the nurse will anticipate administering which of the following vitamin supplements (select all that apply)? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin K E. Vitamin B

A,B,C,D) Biliary obstruction prevents bile from entering the small intestine and thus prevents the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. Vitamins A, D, E, and K are all fat-soluble and thus would need to be supplemented in a patient with biliary obstruction.

When caring for a patient with liver disease, the nurse recognizes the need to prevent bleeding resulting from altered clotting factors and rupture of varices. Which of the following nursing interventions would be appropriate to achieve this outcome (select all that apply)? A. Use smallest gauge possible when giving injections or drawing blood. B. Teach patient to avoid straining at stool, vigorous blowing of nose, and coughing. C. Advise patient to use soft-bristle toothbrush and avoid ingestion of irritating food. D. Apply gentle pressure for the shortest possible time period after performing venipuncture. E. Instruct patient to avoid aspirin and NSAIDs to prevent hemorrhage when varices are present.

A,B,C,E) Using the smallest gauge needle for injections will minimize the risk of bleeding into the tissues. Avoiding straining, nose blowing, and coughing will reduce the risk of hemorrhage at these sites. The use of a soft-bristle toothbrush and avoidance of irritating food will reduce injury to highly vascular mucous membranes. The nurse should apply gentle but prolonged pressure to venipuncture sites to minimize the risk of bleeding. Aspirin and NSAIDs should not be used in patients with liver disease because they interfere with platelet aggregation, thus increasing the risk for bleeding.

The patient with cirrhosis has an increased abdominal girth from ascites. The nurse should know that this fluid gathers in the abdomen for which reasons (select all that apply)? A) There is decreased colloid oncotic pressure from the liver's inability to synthesize albumin. B) Hyperaldosteronism related to damaged hepatocytes increases sodium and fluid retention. C) Portal hypertension pushes proteins from the blood vessels, causing leaking into the peritoneal cavity. D) Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus stimulate thirst, which causes the stimulation to take in fluids orally. E) Overactivity of the enlarged spleen results in increased removal of blood cells from the circulation, which decreases the vascular pressure.

A,B.C) The ascites related to cirrhosis are caused by decreased colloid oncotic pressure from the lack of albumin from liver inability to synthesize it and the portal hypertension that shifts the protein from the blood vessels to the peritoneal cavity, and hyperaldosteronism which increases sodium and fluid retention. The intake of fluids orally and the removal of blood cells by the spleen do not directly contribute to ascites.

A patient who is having an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis has a prescription for methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 160 mg IV. The label on the vial reads: methylprednisolone 125 mg in 2 mL. How many mL will the nurse administer?

ANS: 2.56 With a concentration of 125 mg/2 mL, the nurse will need to administer 2.56 mL to obtain 160 mg of methylprednisolone.

An unconscious patient with a traumatic head injury has a blood pressure of 130/76 mm Hg, and an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg. The nurse will calculate the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) as ____ mm Hg.

ANS: 74 Calculate the CPP: (CPP = mean arterial pressure [MAP] - ICP). MAP = DBP + 1/3 (systolic blood pressure [SBP] - diastolic blood pressure [DBP]). The MAP is 94. The CPP is 74.

A patient in the oliguric phase after an acute kidney injury has had a 250 mL urine output and an emesis of 100 mL in the past 24 hours. What is the patient's fluid restriction for the next 24 hours?

ANS: 950 mL The general rule for calculating fluid restrictions is to add all fluid losses for the previous 24 hours, plus 600 mL for insensible losses: (250 + 100 + 600 = 950 mL).

A 63-year-old patient who began experiencing right arm and leg weakness is admitted to the emergency department. In which order will the nurse implement these actions included in the stroke protocol? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D].) a. Obtain computed tomography (CT) scan without contrast. b. Infuse tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). c. Administer oxygen to keep O2 saturation >95%. d. Use National Institute of Health Stroke Scale to assess patient.

ANS: C, D, A, B The initial actions should be those that help with airway, breathing, and circulation. Baseline neurologic assessments should be done next. A CT scan will be needed to rule out hemorrhagic stroke before tPA can be administered

The day shift nurse at the long-term care facility learns that a patient with dementia experienced sundowning late in the afternoon on the previous two days. Which action should the nurse take? a. Keep blinds open during the daytime hours. b. Provide hourly orientation to time and place. c. Have the patient take a brief mid-morning nap. d. Move the patient to a quieter room late in the afternoon.

ANS: A A likely cause of sundowning is a disruption in circadian rhythms and keeping the patient active and in daylight will help reestablish a more normal circadian pattern. Moving the patient to a different room might increase confusion. Taking a nap will interfere with nighttime sleep. Hourly orientation will not be helpful in a patient with dementia

A 64-year-old patient who has amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is hospitalized with pneumonia. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Assist with active range of motion (ROM). b. Observe for agitation and paranoia. c. Give muscle relaxants as needed to reduce spasms. d. Use simple words and phrases to explain procedures.

ANS: A ALS causes progressive muscle weakness, but assisting the patient to perform active ROM will help maintain strength as long as possible. Psychotic manifestations such as agitation and paranoia are not associated with ALS. Cognitive function is not affected by ALS, and the patient's ability to understand procedures will not be impaired. Muscle relaxants will further increase muscle weakness and depress respirations

A hospitalized 31-year-old patient with a history of cluster headache awakens during the night with a severe stabbing headache. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Start the ordered PRN oxygen at 6 L/min. b. Put a moist hot pack on the patient's neck. c. Give the ordered PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol). d. Notify the patient's health care provider immediately.

ANS: A Acute treatment for cluster headache is administration of 100% oxygen at 6 to 8 L/min. If the patient obtains relief with the oxygen, there is no immediate need to notify the health care provider. Cluster headaches last only 60 to 90 minutes, so oral pain medications have minimal effect. Hot packs are helpful for tension headaches but are not as likely to reduce pain associated with a cluster headache

A 68-year-old male patient is brought to the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after being found unconscious on the bathroom floor by his spouse. Which action will the nurse take first? a. Check oxygen saturation. b. Assess pupil reaction to light. c. Verify Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score. d. Palpate the head for hematoma or bony irregularities.

ANS: A Airway patency and breathing are the most vital functions, and should be assessed first. The neurologic assessments should be accomplished next and additional assessment after that

A patient undergoing external radiation has developed a dry desquamation of the skin in the treatment area. The nurse teaches the patient about management of the skin reaction. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates the teaching was effective? a. "I can buy some aloe vera gel to use on the area." b. "I will expose the treatment area to a sun lamp daily." c. "I can use ice packs to relieve itching in the treatment area." d. "I will scrub the area with warm water to remove the scales."

ANS: A Aloe vera gel and cream may be used on the radiated skin area. Ice and sunlamps may injure the skin. Treatment areas should be cleaned gently to avoid further injury

Which nursing action is of highest priority for a 68-year-old patient with renal calculi who is being admitted to the hospital with gross hematuria and severe colicky left flank pain? a. Administer prescribed analgesics. b. Monitor temperature every 4 hours. c. Encourage increased oral fluid intake. d. Give antiemetics as needed for nausea.

ANS: A Although all of the nursing actions may be used for patients with renal lithiasis, the patient's presentation indicates that management of pain is the highest priority action. If the patient has urinary obstruction, increasing oral fluids may increase the symptoms. There is no evidence of infection or nausea.

The nurse will plan to teach a 27-year-old female who smokes 2 packs of cigarettes daily about the increased risk for a. kidney stones. b. bladder cancer. c. bladder infection. d. interstitial cystitis.

ANS: B Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for bladder cancer. The patient's risk for developing interstitial cystitis, urinary tract infection (UTI), or kidney stones will not be reduced by quitting smoking. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1085-1086 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Which patient is most appropriate for the intensive care unit (ICU) charge nurse to assign to a registered nurse (RN) who has floated from the medical unit? a. A 45-year-old receiving IV antibiotics for meningococcal meningitis b. A 25-year-old admitted with a skull fracture and craniotomy the previous day c. A 55-year-old who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and is receiving hyperventilation therapy d. A 35-year-old with ICP monitoring after a head injury last week

ANS: A An RN who works on a medical unit will be familiar with administration of IV antibiotics and with meningitis. The postcraniotomy patient, patient with an ICP monitor, and the patient on a ventilator should be assigned to an RN familiar with the care of critically ill patients

A patient will need vascular access for hemodialysis. Which statement by the nurse accurately describes an advantage of a fistula over a graft? a. A fistula is much less likely to clot. b. A fistula increases patient mobility. c. A fistula can accommodate larger needles. d. A fistula can be used sooner after surgery.

ANS: A Arteriovenous (AV) fistulas are much less likely to clot than grafts, although it takes longer for them to mature to the point where they can be used for dialysis. The choice of an AV fistula or a graft does not have an impact on needle size or patient mobility.

After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient with myasthenia gravis who is reporting increased muscle weakness b. Patient with a bilateral headache described as "like a band around my head" c. Patient with seizures who is scheduled to receive a dose of phenytoin (Dilantin) d. Patient with Parkinson's disease who has developed cogwheel rigidity of the arms

ANS: A Because increased muscle weakness may indicate the onset of a myasthenic crisis, the nurse should assess this patient first. The other patients should also be assessed, but do not appear to need immediate nursing assessments or actions to prevent life-threatening complications.

A patient is admitted to the emergency department with possible renal trauma after an automobile accident. Which prescribed intervention will the nurse implement first? a. Check blood pressure and heart rate. b. Administer morphine sulfate 4 mg IV. c. Transport to radiology for an intravenous pyelogram. d. Insert a urethral catheter and obtain a urine specimen.

ANS: A Because the kidney is very vascular, the initial action with renal trauma will be assessment for bleeding and shock. The other actions are also important once the patient's cardiovascular status has been determined and stabilized. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application

A female patient who had a stroke 24 hours ago has expressive aphasia. The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of impaired verbal communication. An appropriate nursing intervention to help the patient communicate is to a. ask questions that the patient can answer with "yes" or "no." b. develop a list of words that the patient can read and practice reciting. c. have the patient practice her facial and tongue exercises with a mirror. d. prevent embarrassing the patient by answering for her if she does not respond.

ANS: A Communication will be facilitated and less frustrating to the patient when questions that require a "yes" or "no" response are used. When the language areas of the brain are injured, the patient might not be able to read or recite words, which will frustrate the patient without improving communication. Expressive aphasia is caused by damage to the language areas of the brain, not by the areas that control the motor aspects of speech. The nurse should allow time for the patient to respond

A college athlete is seen in the clinic 6 weeks after a concussion. Which assessment information will the nurse collect to determine whether a patient is developing postconcussion syndrome? a. Short-term memory b. Muscle coordination c. Glasgow Coma Scale d. Pupil reaction to light

ANS: A Decreased short-term memory is one indication of postconcussion syndrome. The other data may be assessed but are not indications of postconcussion syndrome

A 31-year-old woman who has multiple sclerosis (MS) asks the nurse about risks associated with pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is accurate? a. "MS symptoms may be worse after the pregnancy." b. "Women with MS frequently have premature labor." c. "MS is associated with an increased risk for congenital defects." d. "Symptoms of MS are likely to become worse during pregnancy."

ANS: A During the postpartum period, women with MS are at greater risk for exacerbation of symptoms. There is no increased risk for congenital defects in infants born of mothers with MS. Symptoms of MS may improve during pregnancy. Onset of labor is not affected by MS

Which action will the public health nurse take to reduce the incidence of epidemic encephalitis in a community? a. Encourage the use of effective insect repellents during mosquito season. b. Remind patients that most cases of viral encephalitis can be cared for at home. c. Teach about the importance of prophylactic antibiotics after exposure to encephalitis. d. Arrange for screening of school-age children for West Nile virus during the school year.

ANS: A Epidemic encephalitis is usually spread by mosquitoes and ticks. Use of insect repellent is effective in reducing risk. Encephalitis frequently requires that the patient be hospitalized in an intensive care unit during the initial stages. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not used to prevent encephalitis because most encephalitis is viral. West Nile virus is most common in adults over age 50 during the summer and early fall

A patient with carotid atherosclerosis asks the nurse to describe a carotid endarterectomy. Which response by the nurse is accurate? a. "The obstructing plaque is surgically removed from an artery in the neck." b. "The diseased portion of the artery in the brain is replaced with a synthetic graft." c. "A wire is threaded through an artery in the leg to the clots in the carotid artery and the clots are removed." d. "A catheter with a deflated balloon is positioned at the narrow area, and the balloon is inflated to flatten the plaque."

ANS: A In a carotid endarterectomy, the carotid artery is incised and the plaque is removed. The response beginning, "The diseased portion of the artery in the brain is replaced" describes an arterial graft procedure. The answer beginning, "A catheter with a deflated balloon is positioned at the narrow area" describes an angioplasty. The final response beginning, "A wire is threaded through the artery" describes the mechanical embolus removal in cerebral ischemia (MERCI) procedure

A patient in the urology clinic is diagnosed with monilial urethritis. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Teach the patient about the use of antifungal medications. b. Tell the patient to avoid tub baths until the symptoms resolve. c. Instruct the patient to refer recent sexual partners for treatment. d. Teach the patient to avoid nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

ANS: A Monilial urethritis is caused by a fungus and antifungal medications such as nystatin (Mycostatin) or fluconazole (Diflucan) are usually used as treatment. Because monilial urethritis is not sexually transmitted, there is no need to refer sexual partners. Warm baths and NSAIDS may be used to treat symptoms. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1071 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse advises a patient with myasthenia gravis (MG) to a. perform physically demanding activities early in the day. b. anticipate the need for weekly plasmapheresis treatments. c. do frequent weight-bearing exercise to prevent muscle atrophy. d. protect the extremities from injury due to poor sensory perception.

ANS: A Muscles are generally strongest in the morning, and activities involving muscle activity should be scheduled then. Plasmapheresis is not routinely scheduled, but is used for myasthenia crisis or for situations in which corticosteroid therapy must be avoided. There is no decrease in sensation with MG, and muscle atrophy does not occur because although there is muscle weakness, they are still used

A 42-year-old patient who has bacterial meningitis is disoriented and anxious. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Encourage family members to remain at the bedside. b. Apply soft restraints to protect the patient from injury. c. Keep the room well-lighted to improve patient orientation. d. Minimize contact with the patient to decrease sensory input.

ANS: A Patients with meningitis and disorientation will be calmed by the presence of someone familiar at the bedside. Restraints should be avoided because they increase agitation and anxiety. The patient requires frequent assessment for complications. The use of touch and a soothing voice will decrease anxiety for most patients. The patient will have photophobia, so the light should be dim

A 44-year-old patient is unable to void after having an open loop resection and fulguration of the bladder. Which nursing action should be implemented first? a. Assist the patient to soak in a 15-minute sitz bath. b. Insert a straight urethral catheter and drain the bladder. c. Encourage the patient to drink several glasses of water. d. Teach the patient how to do isometric perineal exercises.

ANS: A Sitz baths will relax the perineal muscles and promote voiding. Although the patient should be encouraged to drink fluids and Kegel exercises are helpful in the prevention of incontinence, these activities would not be helpful for a patient experiencing retention. Catheter insertion increases the risk for urinary tract infection (UTI) and should be avoided when possible

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is ordered for a patient with hyperkalemia. Before administering the medication, the nurse should assess the a. bowel sounds. b. blood glucose. c. blood urea nitrogen (BUN). d. level of consciousness (LOC).

ANS: A Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) should not be given to a patient with a paralytic ileus (as indicated by absent bowel sounds) because bowel necrosis can occur. The BUN and creatinine, blood glucose, and LOC would not affect the nurse's decision to give the medication.

Admission vital signs for a brain-injured patient are blood pressure 128/68, pulse 110, and respirations 26. Which set of vital signs, if taken 1 hour after admission, will be of most concern to the nurse? a. Blood pressure 154/68, pulse 56, respirations 12 b. Blood pressure 134/72, pulse 90, respirations 32 c. Blood pressure 148/78, pulse 112, respirations 28 d. Blood pressure 110/70, pulse 120, respirations 30

ANS: A Systolic hypertension with widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and respiratory changes represent Cushing's triad. These findings indicate that the intracranial pressure (ICP) has increased, and brain herniation may be imminent unless immediate action is taken to reduce ICP. The other vital signs may indicate the need for changes in treatment, but they are not indicative of an immediately life-threatening process

A 46-year-old patient tells the nurse about using acetaminophen (Tylenol) several times every day for recurrent bilateral headaches. Which action will the nurse plan to take first? a. Discuss the need to stop taking the acetaminophen. b. Suggest the use of biofeedback for headache control. c. Describe the use of botulism toxin (Botox) for headaches. d. Teach the patient about magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

ANS: A The headache description suggests that the patient is experiencing medication overuse headache. The initial action will be withdrawal of the medication. The other actions may be needed if the headaches persist

A patient reports feeling numbness and tingling of the left arm before experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. The nurse determines that this history is consistent with what type of seizure? a. Focal b. Atonic c. Absence d. Myoclonic

ANS: A The initial symptoms of a focal seizure involve clinical manifestations that are localized to a particular part of the body or brain. Symptoms of an absence seizure are staring and a brief loss of consciousness. In an atonic seizure, the patient loses muscle tone and (typically) falls to the ground. Myoclonic seizures are characterized by a sudden jerk of the body or extremities

A 68-year-old patient who is hospitalized with pneumonia is disoriented and confused 3 days after admission. Which information indicates that the patient is experiencing delirium rather than dementia? a. The patient was oriented and alert when admitted. b. The patient's speech is fragmented and incoherent. c. The patient is oriented to person but disoriented to place and time. d. The patient has a history of increasing confusion over several years.

ANS: A The onset of delirium occurs acutely. The degree of disorientation does not differentiate between delirium and dementia. Increasing confusion for several years is consistent with dementia. Fragmented and incoherent speech may occur with either delirium or dementia

After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient with a urethral stricture who has not voided for 12 hours b. Patient who has cloudy urine after orthotopic bladder reconstruction c. Patient with polycystic kidney disease whose blood pressure is 186/98 mm Hg d. Patient who voided bright red urine immediately after returning from lithotripsy

ANS: A The patient information suggests acute urinary retention, a medical emergency. The nurse will need to assess the patient and consider whether to insert a retention catheter. The other patients will also be assessed, but their findings are consistent with their diagnoses and do not require immediate assessment or possible intervention.

During routine hemodialysis, the 68-year-old patient complains of nausea and dizziness. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Slow down the rate of dialysis. b. Check patient's blood pressure (BP). c. Review the hematocrit (Hct) level. d. Give prescribed PRN antiemetic drugs.

ANS: B The patient's complaints of nausea and dizziness suggest hypotension, so the initial action should be to check the BP. The other actions may also be appropriate based on the blood pressure obtained

The nurse observes a patient ambulating in the hospital hall when the patient's arms and legs suddenly jerk and the patient falls to the floor. The nurse will first a. assess the patient for a possible head injury. b. give the scheduled dose of divalproex (Depakote). c. document the timing and description of the seizure. d. notify the patient's health care provider about the seizure.

ANS: A The patient who has had a myoclonic seizure and fall is at risk for head injury and should first be evaluated and treated for this possible complication. Documentation of the seizure, notification of the seizure, and administration of antiseizure medications are also appropriate actions, but the initial action should be assessment for injury

A 40-year-old patient has a ruptured cerebral aneurysm and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Which intervention will be included in the care plan? a. Apply intermittent pneumatic compression stockings. b. Assist to dangle on edge of bed and assess for dizziness. c. Encourage patient to cough and deep breathe every 4 hours. d. Insert an oropharyngeal airway to prevent airway obstruction.

ANS: A The patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage usually has minimal activity to prevent cerebral vasospasm or further bleeding and is at risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE). Activities such as coughing and sitting up that might increase intracranial pressure (ICP) or decrease cerebral blood flow are avoided. Because there is no indication that the patient is unconscious, an oropharyngeal airway is inappropriate

For a patient who had a right hemisphere stroke the nurse establishes a nursing diagnosis of a. risk for injury related to denial of deficits and impulsiveness. b. impaired physical mobility related to right-sided hemiplegia. c. impaired verbal communication related to speech-language deficits. d. ineffective coping related to depression and distress about disability.

ANS: A The patient with right-sided brain damage typically denies any deficits and has poor impulse control, leading to risk for injury when the patient attempts activities such as transferring from a bed to a chair. Right-sided brain damage causes left hemiplegia. Left-sided brain damage typically causes language deficits. Left-sided brain damage is associated with depression and distress about the disability

A 72-year-old patient with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is admitted with acute urinary retention and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. Which prescribed therapy should the nurse implement first? a. Insert urethral catheter. b. Obtain renal ultrasound. c. Draw a complete blood count. d. Infuse normal saline at 50 mL/hour.

ANS: A The patient's elevation in BUN is most likely associated with hydronephrosis caused by the acute urinary retention, so the insertion of a retention catheter is the first action to prevent ongoing postrenal failure for this patient. The other actions also are appropriate, but should be implemented after the retention catheter.

A male patient who has possible cerebral edema has a serum sodium level of 116 mEq/L (116 mmol/L) and a decreasing level of consciousness (LOC). He is now complaining of a headache. Which prescribed interventions should the nurse implement first? a. Administer IV 5% hypertonic saline. b. Draw blood for arterial blood gases (ABGs). c. Send patient for computed tomography (CT). d. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg orally.

ANS: A The patient's low sodium indicates that hyponatremia may be causing the cerebral edema. The nurse's first action should be to correct the low sodium level. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) will have minimal effect on the headache because it is caused by cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Drawing ABGs and obtaining a CT scan may provide some useful information, but the low sodium level may lead to seizures unless it is addressed quickly

When caring for a patient with a left arm arteriovenous fistula, which action will the nurse include in the plan of care to maintain the patency of the fistula? a. Auscultate for a bruit at the fistula site. b. Assess the quality of the left radial pulse. c. Compare blood pressures in the left and right arms. d. Irrigate the fistula site with saline every 8 to 12 hours.

ANS: A The presence of a thrill and bruit indicates adequate blood flow through the fistula. Pulse rate and quality are not good indicators of fistula patency. Blood pressures should never be obtained on the arm with a fistula. Irrigation of the fistula might damage the fistula, and typically only dialysis staff would access the fistula.

When admitting a 42-year-old patient with a possible brain injury after a car accident to the emergency department (ED), the nurse obtains the following information. Which finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient takes warfarin (Coumadin) daily. b. The patient's blood pressure is 162/94 mm Hg. c. The patient is unable to remember the accident. d. The patient complains of a severe dull headache.

ANS: A The use of anticoagulants increases the risk for intracranial hemorrhage and should be immediately reported. The other information would not be unusual in a patient with a head injury who had just arrived in the ED

After receiving change-of-shift report on the following four patients, which patient should the nurse see first? a. A 60-year-old patient with right-sided weakness who has an infusion of tPA prescribed b. A 50-year-old patient who has atrial fibrillation and a new order for warfarin (Coumadin) c. A 40-year-old patient who experienced a transient ischemic attack yesterday who has a dose of aspirin due d. A 30-year-old patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage 2 days ago who has nimodipine (Nimotop) scheduled

ANS: A tPA needs to be infused within the first few hours after stroke symptoms start in order to be effective in minimizing brain injury. The other medications should also be given as quickly as possible, but timing of the medications is not as critical

A patient with Parkinson's disease is admitted to the hospital for treatment of pneumonia. Which nursing interventions will be included in the plan of care (select all that apply)? a. Use an elevated toilet seat. b. Cut patient's food into small pieces. c. Provide high-protein foods at each meal. d. Place an armchair at the patient's bedside. e. Observe for sudden exacerbation of symptoms.

ANS: A, B, D Because the patient with Parkinson's has difficulty chewing, food should be cut into small pieces. An armchair should be used when the patient is seated so that the patient can use the arms to assist with getting up from the chair. An elevated toilet seat will facilitate getting on and off the toilet. High-protein foods will decrease the effectiveness of L-dopa. Parkinson's is a steadily progressive disease without acute exacerbations.

Which information will be included when the nurse is teaching self-management to a patient who is receiving peritoneal dialysis (select all that apply)? a. Avoid commercial salt substitutes. b. Drink 1500 to 2000 mL of fluids daily. c. Take phosphate-binders with each meal. d. Choose high-protein foods for most meals. e. Have several servings of dairy products daily.

ANS: A, C, D Patients who are receiving peritoneal dialysis should have a high-protein diet. Phosphate binders are taken with meals to help control serum phosphate and calcium levels. Commercial salt substitutes are high in potassium and should be avoided. Fluid intake is limited in patients requiring dialysis. Dairy products are high in phosphate and usually are limited.

A 27-year-old patient who has been treated for status epilepticus in the emergency department will be transferred to the medical nursing unit. Which equipment should the nurse have available in the patient's assigned room (select all that apply)? a. Side-rail pads b. Tongue blade c. Oxygen mask d. Suction tubing e. Urinary catheter f. Nasogastric tube

ANS: A, C, D The patient is at risk for further seizures, and oxygen and suctioning may be needed after any seizures to clear the airway and maximize oxygenation. The bed's side rails should be padded to minimize the risk for patient injury during a seizure. Use of tongue blades during a seizure is contraindicated. Insertion of a nasogastric (NG) tube is not indicated because the airway problem is not caused by vomiting or abdominal distention. A urinary catheter is not required unless there is urinary retention

The nurse at the clinic is interviewing a 64-year-old woman who is 5 feet, 3 inches tall and weighs 125 pounds (57 kg). The patient has not seen a health care provider for 20 years. She walks 5 miles most days and has a glass of wine 2 or 3 times a week. Which topics will the nurse plan to include in patient teaching about cancer screening and decreasing cancer risk (select all that apply)? a. Pap testing b. Tobacco use c. Sunscreen use d. Mammography e. Colorectal screening

ANS: A, C, D, E The patient's age, gender, and history indicate a need for screening and/or teaching about colorectal cancer, mammography, Pap smears, and sunscreen. The patient does not use excessive alcohol or tobacco, she is physically active, and her body weight is healthy

A 38-year-old patient who had a kidney transplant 8 years ago is receiving the immunosuppressants tacrolimus (Prograf), cyclosporine (Sandimmune), and prednisone (Deltasone). Which assessment data will be of most concern to the nurse? a. The blood glucose is 144 mg/dL. b. There is a nontender axillary lump. c. The patient's skin is thin and fragile. d. The patient's blood pressure is 150/92.

ANS: B A nontender lump suggests a malignancy such as a lymphoma, which could occur as a result of chronic immunosuppressive therapy. The elevated glucose, skin change, and hypertension are possible side effects of the prednisone and should be addressed, but they are not as great a concern as the possibility of a malignancy.

Which action will the emergency department nurse anticipate for a patient diagnosed with a concussion who did not lose consciousness? a. Coordinate the transfer of the patient to the operating room. b. Provide discharge instructions about monitoring neurologic status. c. Transport the patient to radiology for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). d. Arrange to admit the patient to the neurologic unit for 24 hours of observation.

ANS: B A patient with a minor head trauma is usually discharged with instructions about neurologic monitoring and the need to return if neurologic status deteriorates. MRI, hospital admission, or surgery are not usually indicated in a patient with a concussion

It is most important that the nurse ask a patient admitted with acute glomerulonephritis about a. history of kidney stones. b. recent sore throat and fever. c. history of high blood pressure. d. frequency of bladder infections.

ANS: B Acute glomerulonephritis frequently occurs after a streptococcal infection such as strep throat. It is not caused by kidney stones, hypertension, or urinary tract infection (UTI). DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1074 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Before administration of captopril (Capoten) to a patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse will check the patient's a. glucose. b. potassium. c. creatinine. d. phosphate.

ANS: B Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are frequently used in patients with CKD because they delay the progression of the CKD, but they cause potassium retention. Therefore careful monitoring of potassium levels is needed in patients who are at risk for hyperkalemia. The other laboratory values would also be monitored in patients with CKD but would not affect whether the captopril was given or not.

The nurse is administering a mental status examination to a 48-year-old patient who has hypertension. The nurse suspects depression when the patient responds to the nurse's questions with a. "Is that right?" b. "I don't know." c. "Wait, let me think about that." d. "Who are those people over there?"

ANS: B Answers such as "I don't know" are more typical of depression than dementia. The response "Who are those people over there?" is more typical of the distraction seen in a patient with delirium. The remaining two answers are more typical of a patient with mild to moderate dementia.

A 42-year-old patient admitted with acute kidney injury due to dehydration has oliguria, anemia, and hyperkalemia. Which prescribed actions should the nurse take first? a. Insert a urinary retention catheter. b. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor. c. Administer epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit). d. Give sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).

ANS: B Because hyperkalemia can cause fatal cardiac dysrhythmias, the initial action should be to monitor the cardiac rhythm. Kayexalate and Epogen will take time to correct the hyperkalemia and anemia. The catheter allows monitoring of the urine output but does not correct the cause of the renal failure.

After endotracheal suctioning, the nurse notes that the intracranial pressure for a patient with a traumatic head injury has increased from 14 to 17 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the increase in intracranial pressure. b. Ensure that the patient's neck is in neutral position. c. Notify the health care provider about the change in pressure. d. Increase the rate of the prescribed propofol (Diprivan) infusion.

ANS: B Because suctioning will cause a transient increase in intracranial pressure, the nurse should initially check for other factors that might be contributing to the increase and observe the patient for a few minutes. Documentation is needed, but this is not the first action. There is no need to notify the health care provider about this expected reaction to suctioning. Propofol is used to control patient anxiety or agitation. There is no indication that anxiety has contributed to the increase in intracranial pressure

To assess for functional deficits, which question will the nurse ask a patient who has been admitted for treatment of a benign occipital lobe tumor? a. "Do you have difficulty in hearing?" b. "Are you experiencing visual problems?" c. "Are you having any trouble with your balance?" d. "Have you developed any weakness on one side?"

ANS: B Because the occipital lobe is responsible for visual reception, the patient with a tumor in this area is likely to have problems with vision. The other questions will be better for assessing function of the temporal lobe, cerebellum, and frontal lobe

Which nursing action will be most effective in ensuring daily medication compliance for a patient with mild dementia? a. Setting the medications up monthly in a medication box b. Having the patient's family member administer the medication c. Posting reminders to take the medications in the patient's house d. Calling the patient weekly with a reminder to take the medication

ANS: B Because the patient with mild dementia will have difficulty with learning new skills and forgetfulness, the most appropriate nursing action is to have someone else administer the drug. The other nursing actions will not be as effective in ensuring that the patient takes the medications

A 58-year-old male patient who weighs 242 lb (110 kg) undergoes a nephrectomy for massive kidney trauma due to a motor vehicle crash. Which postoperative assessment finding is most important to communicate to the surgeon? a. Blood pressure is 102/58. b. Urine output is 20 mL/hr for 2 hours. c. Incisional pain level is reported as 9/10. d. Crackles are heard at bilateral lung bases.

ANS: B Because the urine output should be at least 0.5 mL/kg/hr, a 40 mL output for 2 hours indicates that the patient may have decreased renal perfusion because of bleeding, inadequate fluid intake, or obstruction at the suture site. The blood pressure requires ongoing monitoring but does not indicate inadequate perfusion at this time. The patient should cough and deep breathe, but the crackles do not indicate a need for an immediate change in therapy. The incisional pain should be addressed, but this is not as potentially life threatening as decreased renal perfusion. In addition, the nurse can medicate the patient for pain.

Which information will the nurse monitor in order to determine the effectiveness of prescribed calcium carbonate (Caltrate) for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)? a. Blood pressure b. Phosphate level c. Neurologic status d. Creatinine clearance

ANS: B Calcium carbonate is prescribed to bind phosphorus and prevent mineral and bone disease in patients with CKD. The other data will not be helpful in evaluating the effectiveness of calcium carbonate.

A patient admitted with a diffuse axonal injury has a systemic blood pressure (BP) of 106/52 mm Hg and an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 14 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the BP and ICP in the patient's record. b. Report the BP and ICP to the health care provider. c. Elevate the head of the patient's bed to 60 degrees. d. Continue to monitor the patient's vital signs and ICP.

ANS: B Calculate the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP): (CPP = mean arterial pressure [MAP] - ICP). MAP = DBP + 1/3 (systolic blood pressure [SBP] - diastolic blood pressure [DBP]). Therefore the (MAP) is 70 and the CPP is 56 mm Hg, which is below the normal of 60 to 100 mm Hg and approaching the level of ischemia and neuronal death. Immediate changes in the patient's therapy such as fluid infusion or vasopressor administration are needed to improve the cerebral perfusion pressure. Adjustments in the head elevation should only be done after consulting with the health care provider. Continued monitoring and documentation will also be done, but they are not the first actions that the nurse should take

A 20-year-old male patient is admitted with a head injury after a collision while playing football. After noting that the patient has developed clear nasal drainage, which action should the nurse take? a. Have the patient gently blow the nose. b. Check the drainage for glucose content. c. Teach the patient that rhinorrhea is expected after a head injury. d. Obtain a specimen of the fluid to send for culture and sensitivity.

ANS: B Clear nasal drainage in a patient with a head injury suggests a dural tear and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. If the drainage is CSF, it will test positive for glucose. Fluid leaking from the nose will have normal nasal flora, so culture and sensitivity will not be useful. Blowing the nose is avoided to prevent CSF leakage

A female patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving peritoneal dialysis with 2 L inflows. Which information should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. The patient has an outflow volume of 1800 mL. b. The patient's peritoneal effluent appears cloudy. c. The patient has abdominal pain during the inflow phase. d. The patient's abdomen appears bloated after the inflow.

ANS: B Cloudy appearing peritoneal effluent is a sign of peritonitis and should be reported immediately so that treatment with antibiotics can be started. The other problems can be addressed through nursing interventions such as slowing the inflow and repositioning the patient.

Several weeks after a stroke, a 50-year-old male patient has impaired awareness of bladder fullness, resulting in urinary incontinence. Which nursing intervention will be best to include in the initial plan for an effective bladder training program? a. Limit fluid intake to 1200 mL daily to reduce urine volume. b. Assist the patient onto the bedside commode every 2 hours. c. Perform intermittent catheterization after each voiding to check for residual urine. d. Use an external "condom" catheter to protect the skin and prevent embarrassment.

ANS: B Developing a regular voiding schedule will prevent incontinence and may increase patient awareness of a full bladder. A 1200 mL fluid restriction may lead to dehydration. Intermittent catheterization and use of a condom catheter are appropriate in the acute phase of stroke, but should not be considered solutions for long-term management because of the risks for urinary tract infection (UTI) and skin breakdown

A patient has arrived for a scheduled hemodialysis session. Which nursing action is most appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a dialysis technician? a. Teach the patient about fluid restrictions. b. Check blood pressure before starting dialysis. c. Assess for causes of an increase in predialysis weight. d. Determine the ultrafiltration rate for the hemodialysis.

ANS: B Dialysis technicians are educated in monitoring for blood pressure. Assessment, adjustment of the appropriate ultrafiltration rate, and patient teaching require the education and scope of practice of an RN.

Which information in a patient's history indicates to the nurse that the patient is not an appropriate candidate for kidney transplantation? a. The patient has type 1 diabetes. b. The patient has metastatic lung cancer. c. The patient has a history of chronic hepatitis C infection. d. The patient is infected with the human immunodeficiency virus.

ANS: B Disseminated malignancies are a contraindication to transplantation. The conditions of the other patients are not contraindications for kidney transplant.

Which statement by a 40-year-old patient who is being discharged from the emergency department (ED) after a concussion indicates a need for intervention by the nurse? a. "I will return if I feel dizzy or nauseated." b. "I am going to drive home and go to bed." c. "I do not even remember being in an accident." d. "I can take acetaminophen (Tylenol) for my headache."

ANS: B Following a head injury, the patient should avoid driving and operating heavy machinery. Retrograde amnesia is common after a concussion. The patient can take acetaminophen for headache and should return if symptoms of increased intracranial pressure such as dizziness or nausea occur.

A patient in the clinic reports a recent episode of dysphasia and left-sided weakness at home that resolved after 2 hours. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about a. alteplase (tPA). b. aspirin (Ecotrin). c. warfarin (Coumadin). d. nimodipine (Nimotop).

ANS: B Following a transient ischemic attack (TIA), patients typically are started on medications such as aspirin to inhibit platelet function and decrease stroke risk. tPA is used for acute ischemic stroke. Coumadin is usually used for patients with atrial fibrillation. Nimodipine is used to prevent cerebral vasospasm after a subarachnoid hemorrhage

After evacuation of an epidural hematoma, a patient's intracranial pressure (ICP) is being monitored with an intraventricular catheter. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Pulse 102 beats/min b. Temperature 101.6° F c. Intracranial pressure 15 mm Hg d. Mean arterial pressure 90 mm Hg

ANS: B Infection is a serious consideration with ICP monitoring, especially with intraventricular catheters. The temperature indicates the need for antibiotics or removal of the monitor. The ICP, arterial pressure, and apical pulse are all borderline high but require only ongoing monitoring at this time

The home health registered nurse (RN) is planning care for a patient with a seizure disorder related to a recent head injury. Which nursing action can be delegated to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Make referrals to appropriate community agencies. b. Place medications in the home medication organizer. c. Teach the patient and family how to manage seizures. d. Assess for use of medications that may precipitate seizures.

ANS: B LPN/LVN education includes administration of medications. The other activities require RN education and scope of practice

The nurse in the dialysis clinic is reviewing the home medications of a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which medication reported by the patient indicates that patient teaching is required? a. Multivitamin with iron b. Magnesium hydroxide c. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) d. Calcium phosphate (PhosLo)

ANS: B Magnesium is excreted by the kidneys, and patients with CKD should not use over-the-counter products containing magnesium. The other medications are appropriate for a patient with CKD.

Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with primary restless legs syndrome (RLS) who is having difficulty sleeping? a. Teach about the use of antihistamines to improve sleep. b. Suggest that the patient exercise regularly during the day. c. Make a referral to a massage therapist for deep massage of the legs. d. Assure the patient that the problem is transient and likely to resolve.

ANS: B Nondrug interventions such as getting regular exercise are initially suggested to improve sleep quality in patients with RLS. Antihistamines may aggravate RLS. Massage does not alleviate RLS symptoms and RLS is likely to progress in most patients

A 56-year-old patient in the outpatient clinic is diagnosed with mild cognitive impairment (MCI).Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Suggest a move into an assisted living facility. b. Schedule the patient for more frequent appointments. c. Ask family members to supervise the patient's daily activities. d. Discuss the preventive use of acetylcholinesterase medications.

ANS: B Ongoing monitoring is recommended for patients with MCI. MCI does not interfere with activities of daily living, acetylcholinesterase drugs are not used for MCI, and an assisted living facility is not indicated for MCI.

A patient who has severe Alzheimer's disease (AD) is being admitted to the hospital for surgery. Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Encourage the patient to discuss events from the past. b. Maintain a consistent daily routine for the patient's care. c. Reorient the patient to the date and time every 2 to 3 hours. d. Provide the patient with current newspapers and magazines.

ANS: B Providing a consistent routine will decrease anxiety and confusion for the patient. Reorientation to time and place will not be helpful to the patient with severe AD, and the patient will not be able to read. The patient with severe AD will probably not be able to remember events from the past

The nurse is admitting a patient with a basal skull fracture. The nurse notes ecchymoses around both eyes and clear drainage from the patient's nose. Which admission order should the nurse question? a. Keep the head of bed elevated. b. Insert nasogastric tube to low suction. c. Turn patient side to side every 2 hours d. Apply cold packs intermittently to face.

ANS: B Rhinorrhea may indicate a dural tear with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. Insertion of a nasogastric tube will increase the risk for infections such as meningitis. Turning the patient, elevating the head, and applying cold packs are appropriate orders

A 73-year-old patient with Parkinson's disease has a nursing diagnosis of impaired physical mobility related to bradykinesia. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Instruct the patient in activities that can be done while lying or sitting. b. Suggest that the patient rock from side to side to initiate leg movement. c. Have the patient take small steps in a straight line directly in front of the feet. d. Teach the patient to keep the feet in contact with the floor and slide them forward.

ANS: B Rocking the body from side to side stimulates balance and improves mobility. The patient will be encouraged to continue exercising because this will maintain functional abilities. Maintaining a wide base of support will help with balance. The patient should lift the feet and avoid a shuffling gait

Family members of a patient who has a traumatic brain injury ask the nurse about the purpose of the ventriculostomy system being used for intracranial pressure monitoring. Which response by the nurse is best? a. "This type of monitoring system is complex and it is managed by skilled staff." b. "The monitoring system helps show whether blood flow to the brain is adequate." c. "The ventriculostomy monitoring system helps check for alterations in cerebral perfusion pressure." d. "This monitoring system has multiple benefits including facilitation of cerebrospinal fluid drainage."

ANS: B Short and simple explanations should be given initially to patients and family members. The other explanations are either too complicated to be easily understood or may increase the family members' anxiety

The nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned after having left carotid artery angioplasty and stenting. Which assessment information is of most concern to the nurse? a. The pulse rate is 102 beats/min. b. The patient has difficulty speaking. c. The blood pressure is 144/86 mm Hg. d. There are fine crackles at the lung bases.

ANS: B Small emboli can occur during carotid artery angioplasty and stenting, and the aphasia indicates a possible stroke during the procedure. Slightly elevated pulse rate and blood pressure are not unusual because of anxiety associated with the procedure. Fine crackles at the lung bases may indicate atelectasis caused by immobility during the procedure. The nurse should have the patient take some deep breaths

Which action will help the nurse determine whether a new patient's confusion is caused by dementia or delirium? a. Administer the Mini-Mental Status Exam. b. Use the Confusion Assessment Method tool. c. Determine whether there is a family history of dementia. d. Obtain a list of the medications that the patient usually takes.

ANS: B The Confusion Assessment Method tool has been extensively tested in assessing delirium. The other actions will be helpful in determining cognitive function or risk factors for dementia or delirium, but they will not be useful in differentiating between dementia and delirium.

Which action will the nurse plan to take for a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) who has urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder? a. Decrease the patient's evening fluid intake. b. Teach the patient how to use the Credé method. c. Suggest the use of adult incontinence briefs for nighttime only. d. Assist the patient to the commode every 2 hours during the day.

ANS: B The Credé method can be used to improve bladder emptying. Decreasing fluid intake will not improve bladder emptying and may increase risk for urinary tract infection (UTI) and dehydration. The use of incontinence briefs and frequent toileting will not improve bladder emptying

A 48-year-old patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which order for the patient will the nurse question? a. NPO for 6 hours before procedure b. Ibuprofen (Advil) 400 mg PO PRN for pain c. Dulcolax suppository 4 hours before procedure d. Normal saline 500 mL IV infused before procedure

ANS: B The contrast dye used in IVPs is potentially nephrotoxic, and concurrent use of other nephrotoxic medications such as the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be avoided. The suppository and NPO status are necessary to ensure adequate visualization during the IVP. IV fluids are used to ensure adequate hydration, which helps reduce the risk for contrast-induced renal failure

The nurse is assessing a patient 4 hours after a kidney transplant. Which information is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The urine output is 900 to 1100 mL/hr. b. The patient's central venous pressure (CVP) is decreased. c. The patient has a level 7 (0 to 10 point scale) incisional pain. d. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels are elevated.

ANS: B The decrease in CVP suggests hypovolemia, which must be rapidly corrected to prevent renal hypoperfusion and acute tubular necrosis. The other information is not unusual in a patient after a transplant.

When a 74-year-old patient is seen in the health clinic with new development of a stooped posture, shuffling gait, and pill rolling-type tremor, the nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about a. oral corticosteroids. b. antiparkinsonian drugs. c. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). d. electroencephalogram (EEG) testing.

ANS: B The diagnosis of Parkinson's is made when two of the three characteristic manifestations of tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia are present. The confirmation of the diagnosis is made on the basis of improvement when antiparkinsonian drugs are administered. This patient has symptoms of tremor and bradykinesia. The next anticipated step will be treatment with medications. MRI and EEG are not useful in diagnosing Parkinson's disease, and corticosteroid therapy is not used to treat it

The nurse admitting a patient who has a right frontal lobe tumor would expect the patient may have a. expressive aphasia. b. impaired judgment. c. right-sided weakness. d. difficulty swallowing.

ANS: B The frontal lobe controls intellectual activities such as judgment. Speech is controlled in the parietal lobe. Weakness and hemiplegia occur on the contralateral side from the tumor. Swallowing is controlled by the brainstem.

A 62-year-old female patient has been hospitalized for 8 days with acute kidney injury (AKI) caused by dehydration. Which information will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. The creatinine level is 3.0 mg/dL. b. Urine output over an 8-hour period is 2500 mL. c. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is 67 mg/dL. d. The glomerular filtration rate is <30 mL/min/1.73m2.

ANS: B The high urine output indicates a need to increase fluid intake to prevent hypovolemia. The other information is typical of AKI and will not require a change in therapy.

Which finding for a patient who has a head injury should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. Intracranial pressure is 16 mm Hg when patient is turned. b. Pale yellow urine output is 1200 mL over the last 2 hours. c. LICOX brain tissue oxygenation catheter shows PbtO2 of 38 mm Hg. d. Ventriculostomy drained 40 mL of cerebrospinal fluid in the last 2 hours.

ANS: B The high urine output indicates that diabetes insipidus may be developing, and interventions to prevent dehydration need to be rapidly implemented. The other data do not indicate a need for any change in therapy

A 25-year-old male patient has been admitted with a severe crushing injury after an industrial accident. Which laboratory result will be most important to report to the health care provider? a. Serum creatinine level 2.1 mg/dL b. Serum potassium level 6.5 mEq/L c. White blood cell count 11,500/µL d. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 56 mg/dL

ANS: B The hyperkalemia associated with crushing injuries may cause cardiac arrest and should be treated immediately. The nurse also will report the other laboratory values, but abnormalities in these are not immediately life threatening.

An unconscious 39-year-old male patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with a head injury. The patient's spouse and teenage children stay at the patient's side and ask many questions about the treatment being given. What action is best for the nurse to take? a. Ask the family to stay in the waiting room until the initial assessment is completed. b. Allow the family to stay with the patient and briefly explain all procedures to them. c. Refer the family members to the hospital counseling service to deal with their anxiety. d. Call the family's pastor or spiritual advisor to take them to the chapel while care is given.

ANS: B The need for information about the diagnosis and care is very high in family members of acutely ill patients. The nurse should allow the family to observe care and explain the procedures unless they interfere with emergent care needs. A pastor or counseling service can offer some support, but research supports information as being more effective. Asking the family to stay in the waiting room will increase their anxiety

A high school teacher who has just been diagnosed with epilepsy after having a generalized tonic-clonic seizure tells the nurse, "I cannot teach anymore, it will be too upsetting if I have a seizure at work." Which response by the nurse is best? a. "You might benefit from some psychologic counseling." b. "Epilepsy usually can be well controlled with medications." c. "You will want to contact the Epilepsy Foundation for assistance." d. "The Department of Vocational Rehabilitation can help with work retraining."

ANS: B The nurse should inform the patient that most patients with seizure disorders are controlled with medication. The other information may be necessary if the seizures persist after treatment with antiseizure medications is implemented

A 74-year-old who is progressing to stage 5 chronic kidney disease asks the nurse, "Do you think I should go on dialysis? Which initial response by the nurse is best? a. "It depends on which type of dialysis you are considering." b. "Tell me more about what you are thinking regarding dialysis." c. "You are the only one who can make the decision about dialysis." d. "Many people your age use dialysis and have a good quality of life."

ANS: B The nurse should initially clarify the patient's concerns and questions about dialysis. The patient is the one responsible for the decision and many people using dialysis do have good quality of life, but these responses block further assessment of the patient's concerns. Referring to which type of dialysis the patient might use only indirectly responds to the patient's question

A 46-year-old patient with a head injury opens the eyes to verbal stimulation, curses when stimulated, and does not respond to a verbal command to move but attempts to push away a painful stimulus. The nurse records the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale score as a. 9. b. 11. c. 13. d. 15.

ANS: B The patient has a score of 3 for eye opening, 3 for best verbal response, and 5 for best motor response

Which intervention will be included in the plan of care for a male patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) who has a temporary vascular access catheter in the left femoral vein? a. Start continuous pulse oximetry. b. Restrict physical activity to bed rest. c. Restrict the patient's oral protein intake. d. Discontinue the urethral retention catheter.

ANS: B The patient with a femoral vein catheter must be on bed rest to prevent trauma to the vein. Protein intake is likely to be increased when the patient is receiving dialysis. The retention catheter is likely to remain in place because accurate measurement of output will be needed. There is no indication that the patient needs continuous pulse oximetry.

A patient with possible viral meningitis is admitted to the nursing unit after lumbar puncture was performed in the emergency department. Which action prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Elevate the head of the bed 20 degrees. b. Restrict oral fluids to 1000 mL daily. c. Administer ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 1 g IV every 12 hours. d. Give ibuprofen (Motrin) 400 mg every 6 hours as needed for headache.

ANS: B The patient with meningitis has increased fluid needs, so oral fluids should be encouraged. The other actions are appropriate. Slight elevation of the head of the bed will decrease headache without causing leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the lumbar puncture site. Antibiotics should be administered until bacterial meningitis is ruled out by the cerebrospinal fluid analysis

Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with moderate dementia who had an appendectomy 2 days ago? a. Provide complete personal hygiene care for the patient. b. Remind the patient frequently about being in the hospital. c. Reposition the patient frequently to avoid skin breakdown. d. Place suction at the bedside to decrease the risk for aspiration.

ANS: B The patient with moderate dementia will have problems with short- and long-term memory and will need reminding about the hospitalization. The other interventions would be used for a patient with severe dementia, who would have difficulty with swallowing, self-care, and immobility.

Following a thymectomy, a 62-year-old male patient with myasthenia gravis receives the usual dose of pyridostigmine (Mestinon). An hour later, the patient complains of nausea and severe abdominal cramps. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Auscultate the patient's bowel sounds. b. Notify the patient's health care provider. c. Administer the prescribed PRN antiemetic drug. d. Give the scheduled dose of prednisone (Deltasone).

ANS: B The patient's history and symptoms indicate a possible cholinergic crisis. The health care provider should be notified immediately, and it is likely that atropine will be prescribed. The other actions will be appropriate if the patient is not experiencing a cholinergic crisis

A hospitalized patient complains of a bilateral headache, 4/10 on the pain scale, that radiates from the base of the skull. Which prescribed PRN medications should the nurse administer initially? a. Lorazepam (Ativan) b. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) c. Morphine sulfate (Roxanol) d. Butalbital and aspirin (Fiorinal)

ANS: B The patient's symptoms are consistent with a tension headache, and initial therapy usually involves a nonopioid analgesic such as acetaminophen, which is sometimes combined with a sedative or muscle relaxant. Lorazepam may be used in conjunction with acetaminophen but would not be appropriate as the initial monotherapy. Morphine sulfate and butalbital and aspirin would be more appropriate for a headache that did not respond to a nonopioid analgesic

ANS: B Patients with metabolic acidosis caused by AKI may have Kussmaul respirations as the lungs try to regulate carbon dioxide. Bounding pulses and vasodilation are not associated with metabolic acidosis. Because the patient is likely to have fluid retention, poor skin turgor would not be a finding in AKI.

ANS: B The primary goal of treatment for acute kidney injury (AKI) is to eliminate the cause and provide supportive care while the kidneys recover. Because this patient's heart failure is causing AKI, the care will be directed toward treatment of the heart failure. For renal failure caused by hypertension, hypovolemia, or nephrotoxins, the other responses would be correct.

A 23-year-old patient who is suspected of having an epidural hematoma is admitted to the emergency department. Which action will the nurse plan to take? a. Administer IV furosemide (Lasix). b. Prepare the patient for craniotomy. c. Initiate high-dose barbiturate therapy. d. Type and crossmatch for blood transfusion.

ANS: B The principal treatment for epidural hematoma is rapid surgery to remove the hematoma and prevent herniation. If intracranial pressure (ICP) is elevated after surgery, furosemide or high-dose barbiturate therapy may be needed, but these will not be of benefit unless the hematoma is removed. Minimal blood loss occurs with head injuries, and transfusion is usually not necessary

Which action will the nurse anticipate taking for an otherwise healthy 50-year-old who has just been diagnosed with Stage 1 renal cell carcinoma? a. Prepare patient for a renal biopsy. b. Provide preoperative teaching about nephrectomy. c. Teach the patient about chemotherapy medications. d. Schedule for a follow-up appointment in 3 months.

ANS: B The treatment of choice in patients with localized renal tumors who have no co-morbid conditions is partial or total nephrectomy. A renal biopsy will not be needed in a patient who has already been diagnosed with renal cancer. Chemotherapy is used for metastatic renal cancer. Because renal cell cancer frequently metastasizes, treatment will be started as soon as possible after the diagnosis

The health care provider is considering the use of sumatriptan (Imitrex) for a 54-year-old male patient with migraine headaches. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient drinks 1 to 2 cups of coffee daily. b. The patient had a recent acute myocardial infarction. c. The patient has had migraine headaches for 30 years. d. The patient has taken topiramate (Topamax) for 2 months.

ANS: B The triptans cause coronary artery vasoconstriction and should be avoided in patients with coronary artery disease. The other information will be reported to the health care provider, but none of it indicates that sumatriptan would be an inappropriate treatment

Which information about the patient who has had a subarachnoid hemorrhage is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient complains of having a stiff neck. b. The patient's blood pressure (BP) is 90/50 mm Hg. c. The patient reports a severe and unrelenting headache. d. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) report shows red blood cells (RBCs).

ANS: B To prevent cerebral vasospasm and maintain cerebral perfusion, blood pressure needs to be maintained at a level higher than 90 mm Hg systolic after a subarachnoid hemorrhage. A low BP or drop in BP indicates a need to administer fluids and/or vasopressors to increase the BP. An ongoing headache, RBCs in the CSF, and a stiff neck are all typical clinical manifestations of a subarachnoid hemorrhage and do not need to be rapidly communicated to the health care provider

The nurse will assess a 67-year-old patient who is experiencing a cluster headache for a. nuchal rigidity. b. unilateral ptosis. c. projectile vomiting. d. throbbing, bilateral facial pain.

ANS: B Unilateral eye edema, tearing, and ptosis are characteristic of cluster headaches. Nuchal rigidity suggests meningeal irritation, such as occurs with meningitis. Although nausea and vomiting may occur with migraine headaches, projectile vomiting is more consistent with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Unilateral sharp, stabbing pain, rather than throbbing pain, is characteristic of cluster headaches.

When obtaining a health history and physical assessment for a 36-year-old female patient with possible multiple sclerosis (MS), the nurse should a. assess for the presence of chest pain. b. inquire about urinary tract problems. c. inspect the skin for rashes or discoloration. d. ask the patient about any increase in libido.

ANS: B Urinary tract problems with incontinence or retention are common symptoms of MS. Chest pain and skin rashes are not symptoms of MS. A decrease in libido is common with MS.

Which nursing actions could the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) who is part of the team caring for a patient with Alzheimer's disease (select all that apply)? a. Develop a plan to minimize difficult behavior. b. Administer the prescribed memantine (Namenda). c. Remove potential safety hazards from the patient's environment. d. Refer the patient and caregivers to appropriate community resources. e. Help the patient and caregivers choose memory enhancement methods. f. Evaluate the effectiveness of the prescribed enteral feedings on patient nutrition.

ANS: B, C LPN/LVN education and scope of practice includes medication administration and monitoring for environmental safety in stable patients. Planning of interventions such as ways to manage behavior or improve memory, referrals, and evaluation of the effectiveness of interventions require registered nurse (RN)-level education and scope of practice.

The spouse of a 67-year-old male patient with early stage Alzheimer's disease (AD) tells the nurse, "I am exhausted from worrying all the time. I don't know what to do." Which actions are best for the nurse to take next (select all that apply)? a. Suggest that a long-term care facility be considered. b. Offer ideas for ways to distract or redirect the patient. c. Teach the spouse about adult day care as a possible respite. d. Suggest that the spouse consult with the physician for antianxiety drugs. e. Ask the spouse what she knows and has considered about dementia care options.

ANS: B, C, E The stress of being a caregiver can be managed with a multicomponent approach. This includes respite care, learning ways to manage challenging behaviors, and further assessment of what the spouse may already have considered for care options. The patient is in the early stages and does not need long-term placement. Antianxiety medications may be appropriate, but other measures should be tried first

A patient has been diagnosed with urinary tract calculi that are high in uric acid. Which foods will the nurse teach the patient to avoid (select all that apply)? a. Milk b. Liver c. Spinach d. Chicken e. Cabbage f. Chocolate

ANS: B, D Meats contain purines, which are metabolized to uric acid. The other foods might be restricted in patients who have calcium or oxalate stones. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1080 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse teaches a patient who is scheduled for a prostate needle biopsy about the procedure. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that teaching was effective? a. "The biopsy will remove the cancer in my prostate gland." b. "The biopsy will determine how much longer I have to live." c. "The biopsy will help decide the treatment for my enlarged prostate." d. "The biopsy will indicate whether the cancer has spread to other organs."

ANS: C A biopsy is used to determine whether the prostate enlargement is benign or malignant, and determines the type of treatment that will be needed. A biopsy does not give information about metastasis, life expectancy, or the impact of cancer on the patient's life

A 68-year-old patient is being admitted with a possible stroke. Which information from the assessment indicates that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before giving the prescribed aspirin? a. The patient has dysphasia. b. The patient has atrial fibrillation. c. The patient reports that symptoms began with a severe headache. d. The patient has a history of brief episodes of right-sided hemiplegia.

ANS: C A sudden onset headache is typical of a subarachnoid hemorrhage, and aspirin is contraindicated. Atrial fibrillation, dysphasia, and transient ischemic attack (TIA) are not contraindications to aspirin use, so the nurse can administer the aspirin.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been experiencing stroke symptoms for 60 minutes. Which action can the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Assess the patient's gag and cough reflexes. b. Determine when the stroke symptoms began. c. Administer the prescribed short-acting insulin. d. Infuse the prescribed IV metoprolol (Lopressor).

ANS: C Administration of subcutaneous medications is included in LPN/LVN education and scope of practice. The other actions require more education and scope of practice and should be done by the registered nurse (RN).

The pt who is admitted with a diagnosis of diverticulitis and a history of irritable bowel disease and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has received a dose of Mylanta 30 ml PO. The nurse would evaluate its effectiveness by questioning the patient as to whether which of the following sxs has been resolved? A) Diarrhea B) Heartburn C) Constipation D) Lower abdominal pain

B) Heartburn (Mylanta is an antacid that contains both aluminum and magnesium. It is indicated for the relief of GI discomfort, such as with heartburn associated with GERD.)

Which assessment finding may indicate that a patient is experiencing adverse effects to a corticosteroid prescribed after kidney transplantation? a. Postural hypotension b. Recurrent tachycardia c. Knee and hip joint pain d. Increased serum creatinine

ANS: C Aseptic necrosis of the weight-bearing joints can occur when patients take corticosteroids over a prolonged period. Increased creatinine level, orthostatic dizziness, and tachycardia are not caused by corticosteroid use.

A 72-year-old patient who has a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA) has an order for aspirin 160 mg daily. When the nurse is administering medications, the patient says, "I don't need the aspirin today. I don't have a fever." Which action should the nurse take? a. Document that the aspirin was refused by the patient. b. Tell the patient that the aspirin is used to prevent a fever. c. Explain that the aspirin is ordered to decrease stroke risk. d. Call the health care provider to clarify the medication order.

ANS: C Aspirin is ordered to prevent stroke in patients who have experienced TIAs. Documentation of the patient's refusal to take the medication is an inadequate response by the nurse. There is no need to clarify the order with the health care provider. The aspirin is not ordered to prevent aches and pains.

When administering a mental status examination to a patient with delirium, the nurse should a. wait until the patient is well-rested. b. administer an anxiolytic medication. c. choose a place without distracting stimuli. d. reorient the patient during the examination.

ANS: C Because overstimulation by environmental factors can distract the patient from the task of answering the nurse's questions, these stimuli should be avoided. The nurse will not wait to give the examination because action to correct the delirium should occur as soon as possible. Reorienting the patient is not appropriate during the examination. Antianxiety medications may increase the patient's delirium

Which assessment is most important for the nurse to make regarding a patient with myasthenia gravis? a. Pupil size b. Grip strength c. Respiratory effort d. Level of consciousness

ANS: C Because respiratory insufficiency may be life threatening, it will be most important to monitor respiratory function. The other data also will be assessed but are not as critical

When administering the Mini-Cog exam to a patient with possible Alzheimer's disease, which action will the nurse take? a. Check the patient's orientation to time and date. b. Obtain a list of the patient's prescribed medications. c. Ask the person to use a clock drawing to indicate a specific time. d. Determine the patient's ability to recognize a common object such as a pen.

ANS: C In the Mini-Cog, patients illustrate a specific time stated by the examiner by drawing the time on a clock face. The other actions may be included in assessment for Alzheimer's disease, but are not part of the Mini-Cog exam

While the nurse is transporting a patient on a stretcher to the radiology department, the patient begins having a tonic-clonic seizure. Which action should the nurse take? a. Insert an oral airway during the seizure to maintain a patent airway. b. Restrain the patient's arms and legs to prevent injury during the seizure. c. Time and observe and record the details of the seizure and postictal state. d. Avoid touching the patient to prevent further nervous system stimulation.

ANS: C Because the diagnosis and treatment of seizures frequently are based on the description of the seizure, recording the length and details of the seizure is important. Insertion of an oral airway and restraining the patient during the seizure are contraindicated. The nurse may need to move the patient to decrease the risk of injury during the seizure

The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to impaired self-feeding ability for a left-handed patient with left-sided hemiplegia. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care? a. Provide a wide variety of food choices. b. Provide oral care before and after meals. c. Assist the patient to eat with the right hand. d. Teach the patient the "chin-tuck" technique.

ANS: C Because the nursing diagnosis indicates that the patient's imbalanced nutrition is related to the left-sided hemiplegia, the appropriate interventions will focus on teaching the patient to use the right hand for self-feeding. The other interventions are appropriate for patients with other etiologies for the imbalanced nutrition.

A 49-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) is to begin treatment with glatiramer acetate (Copaxone). Which information will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Recommendation to drink at least 4 L of fluid daily b. Need to avoid driving or operating heavy machinery c. How to draw up and administer injections of the medication d. Use of contraceptive methods other than oral contraceptives

ANS: C Copaxone is administered by self-injection. Oral contraceptives are an appropriate choice for birth control. There is no need to avoid driving or drink large fluid volumes when taking glatiramer

Which information about a patient with Goodpasture syndrome requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Blood urea nitrogen level is 70 mg/dL. b. Urine output over the last 2 hours is 30 mL. c. Audible crackles bilaterally over the posterior chest to the midscapular level. d. Elevated level of antiglomerular basement membrane (anti-GBM) antibodies.

ANS: C Crackles heard to a high level indicate a need for rapid actions such as assessment of oxygen saturation, reporting the findings to the health care provider, initiating oxygen therapy, and dialysis. The other findings will also be reported, but are typical of Goodpasture syndrome and do not require immediate nursing action.

When caring for a patient with a new right-sided homonymous hemianopsia resulting from a stroke, which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Apply an eye patch to the right eye. b. Approach the patient from the right side. c. Place objects needed on the patient's left side. d. Teach the patient that the left visual deficit will resolve.

ANS: C During the acute period, the nurse should place objects on the patient's unaffected side. Because there is a visual defect in the right half of each eye, an eye patch is not appropriate. The patient should be approached from the left side. The visual deficit may not resolve, although the patient can learn to compensate for the defect

A patient has increased intracranial pressure and a ventriculostomy after a head injury. Which action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who regularly work in the intensive care unit? a. Document intracranial pressure every hour. b. Turn and reposition the patient every 2 hours. c. Check capillary blood glucose level every 6 hours. d. Monitor cerebrospinal fluid color and volume hourly.

ANS: C Experienced UAP can obtain capillary blood glucose levels when they have been trained and evaluated in the skill. Monitoring and documentation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) color and intracranial pressure (ICP) require registered nurse (RN)-level education and scope of practice. Although repositioning patients is frequently delegated to UAP, repositioning a patient with a ventriculostomy is complex and should be supervised by the RN.

A 37-year-old female patient is hospitalized with acute kidney injury (AKI). Which information will be most useful to the nurse in evaluating improvement in kidney function? a. Urine volume b. Creatinine level c. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) d. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level

ANS: C GFR is the preferred method for evaluating kidney function. BUN levels can fluctuate based on factors such as fluid volume status and protein intake. Urine output can be normal or high in patients with AKI and does not accurately reflect kidney function. Creatinine alone is not an accurate reflection of renal function.

A 40-year-old patient is diagnosed with early Huntington's disease (HD). When teaching the patient, spouse, and children about this disorder, the nurse will provide information about the a. use of levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet) to help reduce HD symptoms. b. prophylactic antibiotics to decrease the risk for aspiration pneumonia. c. option of genetic testing for the patient's children to determine their own HD risks. d. lifestyle changes of improved nutrition and exercise that delay disease progression.

ANS: C Genetic testing is available to determine whether an asymptomatic individual has the HD gene. The patient and family should be informed of the benefits and problems associated with genetic testing. Sinemet will increase symptoms of HD because HD involves an increase in dopamine. Antibiotic therapy will not reduce the risk for aspiration. There are no effective treatments or lifestyle changes that delay the progression of symptoms in HD.

A 55-year-old patient with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) is scheduled to receive a prescribed dose of epoetin alfa (Procrit). Which information should the nurse report to the health care provider before giving the medication? a. Creatinine 1.6 mg/dL b. Oxygen saturation 89% c. Hemoglobin level 13 g/dL d. Blood pressure 98/56 mm Hg

ANS: C High hemoglobin levels are associated with a higher rate of thromboembolic events and increased risk of death from serious cardiovascular events (heart attack, heart failure, stroke) when erythropoietin (EPO) is administered to a target hemoglobin of >12 g/dL. Hemoglobin levels higher than 12 g/dL indicate a need for a decrease in epoetin alfa dose. The other information also will be reported to the health care provider but will not affect whether the medication is administered.

Which stroke risk factor for a 48-year-old male patient in the clinic is most important for the nurse to address? a. The patient is 25 pounds above the ideal weight. b. The patient drinks a glass of red wine with dinner daily. c. The patient's usual blood pressure (BP) is 170/94 mm Hg. d. The patient works at a desk and relaxes by watching television.

ANS: C Hypertension is the single most important modifiable risk factor. People who drink more than 1 (for women) or 2 (for men) alcoholic beverages a day may increase risk for hypertension. Physical inactivity and obesity contribute to stroke risk but not as much as hypertension

Before administration of calcium carbonate (Caltrate) to a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse should check laboratory results for a. potassium level. b. total cholesterol. c. serum phosphate. d. serum creatinine.

ANS: C If serum phosphate is elevated, the calcium and phosphate can cause soft tissue calcification. The calcium carbonate should not be given until the phosphate level is lowered. Total cholesterol, creatinine, and potassium values do not affect whether calcium carbonate should be administered.

A 54-year-old patient admitted with diabetes mellitus, malnutrition, osteomyelitis, and alcohol abuse has a serum amylase level of 280 U/L and a serum lipase level of 310 U/L. To which of the following diagnoses does the nurse attribute these findings? A. Malnutrition B. Osteomyelitis C. Alcohol abuse D. Diabetes mellitus

C) The patient with alcohol abuse could develop pancreatitis as a complication, which would increase the serum amylase (normal 30-122 U/L) and serum lipase (normal 31-186 U/L) levels as shown.

The nurse's initial action for a patient with moderate dementia who develops increased restlessness and agitation should be to a. reorient the patient to time, place, and person. b. administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan). c. assess for factors that might be causing discomfort. d. assign unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to stay in the patient's room.

ANS: C Increased motor activity in a patient with dementia is frequently the patient's only way of responding to factors like pain, so the nurse's initial action should be to assess the patient for any precipitating factors. Administration of sedative drugs may be indicated, but this should not be done until assessment for precipitating factors has been completed and any of these factors have been addressed. Reorientation is unlikely to be helpful for the patient with moderate dementia. Assigning UAP to stay with the patient may also be necessary, but any physical changes that may be causing the agitation should be addressed first

A 68-year-old patient is diagnosed with moderate dementia after multiple strokes. During assessment of the patient, the nurse would expect to find a. excessive nighttime sleepiness. b. difficulty eating and swallowing. c. loss of recent and long-term memory. d. fluctuating ability to perform simple tasks.

ANS: C Loss of both recent and long-term memory is characteristic of moderate dementia. Patients with dementia have frequent nighttime awakening. Dementia is progressive, and the patient's ability to perform tasks would not have periods of improvement. Difficulty eating and swallowing is characteristic of severe dementia.

The nurse has administered prescribed IV mannitol (Osmitrol) to an unconscious patient. Which parameter should the nurse monitor to determine the medication's effectiveness? a. Blood pressure b. Oxygen saturation c. Intracranial pressure d. Hemoglobin and hematocrit

ANS: C Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic and will reduce cerebral edema and intracranial pressure. It may initially reduce hematocrit and increase blood pressure, but these are not the best parameters for evaluation of the effectiveness of the drug. Oxygen saturation will not directly improve as a result of mannitol administration

A 64-year-old male patient who has had progressive chronic kidney disease (CKD) for several years has just begun regular hemodialysis. Which information about diet will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Increased calories are needed because glucose is lost during hemodialysis. b. Unlimited fluids are allowed because retained fluid is removed during dialysis. c. More protein is allowed because urea and creatinine are removed by dialysis. d. Dietary potassium is not restricted because the level is normalized by dialysis.

ANS: C Once the patient is started on dialysis and nitrogenous wastes are removed, more protein in the diet is encouraged. Fluids are still restricted to avoid excessive weight gain and complications such as shortness of breath. Glucose is not lost during hemodialysis. Sodium and potassium intake continues to be restricted to avoid the complications associated with high levels of these electrolytes.

A licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) is caring for a patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease. Which observation by the RN requires an intervention? a. The LPN/LVN administers the erythropoietin subcutaneously. b. The LPN/LVN assists the patient to ambulate out in the hallway. c. The LPN/LVN administers the iron supplement and phosphate binder with lunch. d. The LPN/LVN carries a tray containing low-protein foods into the patient's room.

ANS: C Oral phosphate binders should not be given at the same time as iron because they prevent the iron from being absorbed. The phosphate binder should be given with a meal and the iron given at a different time. The other actions by the LPN/LVN are appropriate for a patient with renal insufficiency.

Which action by a 70-year-old patient who is using peritoneal dialysis (PD) indicates that the nurse should provide more teaching about PD? a. The patient leaves the catheter exit site without a dressing. b. The patient plans 30 to 60 minutes for a dialysate exchange. c. The patient cleans the catheter while taking a bath each day. d. The patient slows the inflow rate when experiencing abdominal pain.

ANS: C Patients are encouraged to take showers rather than baths to avoid infections at the catheter insertion side. The other patient actions indicate good understanding of peritoneal dialysis.

A 71-year-old patient with Alzheimer's disease (AD) who is being admitted to a long-term care facility has had several episodes of wandering away from home. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Reorient the patient several times daily. b. Have the family bring in familiar items. c. Place the patient in a room close to the nurses' station. d. Ask the patient why the wandering episodes have occurred.

ANS: C Patients at risk for problems with safety require close supervision. Placing the patient near the nurse's station will allow nursing staff to observe the patient more closely. The use of "why" questions can be frustrating for patients with AD because they are unable to understand clearly or verbalize the reason for wandering behaviors. Because of the patient's short-term memory loss, reorientation will not help prevent wandering behavior. Because the patient had wandering behavior at home, familiar objects will not prevent wandering

Which menu choice by the patient who is receiving hemodialysis indicates that the nurse's teaching has been successful? a. Split-pea soup, English muffin, and nonfat milk b. Oatmeal with cream, half a banana, and herbal tea c. Poached eggs, whole-wheat toast, and apple juice d. Cheese sandwich, tomato soup, and cranberry juice

ANS: C Poached eggs would provide high-quality protein, and apple juice is low in potassium. Cheese is high in salt and phosphate, and tomato soup would be high in potassium. Split-pea soup is high in potassium, and dairy products are high in phosphate. Bananas are high in potassium, and the cream would be high in phosphate.

The charge nurse observes an inexperienced staff nurse caring for a patient who has had a craniotomy for resection of a brain tumor. Which action by the inexperienced nurse requires the charge nurse to intervene? a. The staff nurse assesses neurologic status every hour. b. The staff nurse elevates the head of the bed to 30 degrees. c. The staff nurse suctions the patient routinely every 2 hours. d. The staff nurse administers an analgesic before turning the patient.

ANS: C Suctioning increases intracranial pressure, and should only be done when the patient's respiratory condition indicates it is needed. The other actions by the staff nurse are appropriate

A 63-year-old male patient had a cystectomy with an ileal conduit yesterday. Which new assessment data is most important for the nurse to communicate to the physician? a. Cloudy appearing urine b. Hypotonic bowel sounds c. Heart rate 102 beats/minute d. Continuous stoma drainage

ANS: C Tachycardia may indicate infection, hemorrhage, or hypovolemia, which are all serious complications of this surgery. The urine from an ileal conduit normally contains mucus and is cloudy. Hypotonic bowel sounds are expected after bowel surgery. Continuous drainage of urine from the stoma is normal

The public health nurse is planning a program to decrease the incidence of meningitis in adolescents and young adults. Which action is most important? a. Encourage adolescents and young adults to avoid crowds in the winter. b. Vaccinate 11- and 12-year-old children against Haemophilus influenzae. c. Immunize adolescents and college freshman against Neisseria meningitides. d. Emphasize the importance of hand washing to prevent the spread of infection.

ANS: C The Neisseria meningitides vaccination is recommended for children ages 11 and 12, unvaccinated teens entering high school, and college freshmen. Hand washing may help decrease the spread of bacteria, but it is not as effective as immunization. Vaccination with Haemophilus influenzae is for infants and toddlers. Because adolescents and young adults are in school or the workplace, avoiding crowds is not realistic

Which information about a 30-year-old patient who is hospitalized after a traumatic brain injury requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Intracranial pressure of 15 mm Hg b. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) drainage of 25 mL/hour c. Pressure of oxygen in brain tissue (PbtO2) is 14 mm Hg d. Cardiac monitor shows sinus tachycardia at 128 beats/minute

ANS: C The PbtO2 should be 20 to 40 mm Hg. Lower levels indicate brain ischemia. An intracranial pressure (ICP) of 15 mm Hg is at the upper limit of normal. CSF is produced at a rate of 20 to 30 mL/hour. The reason for the sinus tachycardia should be investigated, but the elevated heart rate is not as concerning as the decrease in PbtO2

ANS: B The primary goal of treatment for acute kidney injury (AKI) is to eliminate the cause and provide supportive care while the kidneys recover. Because this patient's heart failure is causing AKI, the care will be directed toward treatment of the heart failure. For renal failure caused by hypertension, hypovolemia, or nephrotoxins, the other responses would be correct.

ANS: C The calcium gluconate helps prevent dysrhythmias that might be caused by the hyperkalemia. The nurse will monitor the other data as well, but these will not be helpful in determining the effectiveness of the calcium gluconate.

The nurse observes unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking the following actions when caring for a female patient with a urethral catheter. Which action requires that the nurse intervene? a. Taping the catheter to the skin on the patient's upper inner thigh b. Cleaning around the patient's urinary meatus with soap and water c. Disconnecting the catheter from the drainage tube to obtain a specimen d. Using an alcohol-based gel hand cleaner before performing catheter care

ANS: C The catheter should not be disconnected from the drainage tube because this increases the risk for urinary tract infection (UTI). The other actions are appropriate and do not require any intervention.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a head injury and fractured right arm after being assaulted. Which assessment information requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. The apical pulse is slightly irregular. b. The patient complains of a headache. c. The patient is more difficult to arouse. d. The blood pressure (BP) increases to 140/62 mm Hg.

ANS: C The change in level of consciousness (LOC) is an indicator of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and suggests that action by the nurse is needed to prevent complications. The change in BP should be monitored but is not an indicator of a need for immediate nursing action. Headache and a slightly irregular apical pulse are not unusual in a patient after a head injury

A patient is being evaluated for Alzheimer's disease (AD). The nurse explains to the patient's adult children that a. the most important risk factor for AD is a family history of the disorder. b. new drugs have been shown to reverse AD dramatically in some patients. c. a diagnosis of AD is made only after other causes of dementia are ruled out. d. the presence of brain atrophy detected by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) will confirm the diagnosis of AD.

ANS: C The diagnosis of AD is usually one of exclusion. Age is the most important risk factor for development of AD. Drugs may slow the deterioration but do not reverse the effects of AD. Brain atrophy is a common finding in AD, but it can occur in other diseases as well and does not confirm a diagnosis of AD

A 47-year-old patient will attempt oral feedings for the first time since having a stroke. The nurse should assess the gag reflex and then a. order a varied pureed diet. b. assess the patient's appetite. c. assist the patient into a chair. d. offer the patient a sip of juice.

ANS: C The patient should be as upright as possible before attempting feeding to make swallowing easier and decrease aspiration risk. To assess swallowing ability, the nurse should initially offer water or ice to the patient. Pureed diets are not recommended because the texture is too smooth. The patient may have a poor appetite, but the oral feeding should be attempted regardless

Which assessment of a 62-year-old patient who has just had an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) requires immediate action by the nurse? a. The heart rate is 58 beats/minute. b. The patient complains of a dry mouth. c. The respiratory rate is 38 breaths/minute. d. The urine output is 400 mL after 2 hours.

ANS: C The increased respiratory rate indicates that the patient may be experiencing an allergic reaction to the contrast medium used during the procedure. The nurse should immediately assess the patient's oxygen saturation and breath sounds. The other data are not unusual findings following an IVP. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1058 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has longer QRS intervals on the electrocardiogram (ECG) than were noted on the previous shift. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the patient's health care provider. b. Document the QRS interval measurement. c. Check the medical record for most recent potassium level. d. Check the chart for the patient's current creatinine level.

ANS: C The increasing QRS interval is suggestive of hyperkalemia, so the nurse should check the most recent potassium and then notify the patient's health care provider. The BUN and creatinine will be elevated in a patient with AKI, but they would not directly affect the electrocardiogram (ECG). Documentation of the QRS interval is also appropriate, but interventions to decrease the potassium level are needed to prevent life-threatening dysrhythmias.

A male patient who has right-sided weakness after a stroke is making progress in learning to use the left hand for feeding and other activities. The nurse observes that when the patient's wife is visiting, she feeds and dresses him. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the patient? a. Interrupted family processes related to effects of illness of a family member b. Situational low self-esteem related to increasing dependence on spouse for care c. Disabled family coping related to inadequate understanding by patient's spouse d. Impaired nutrition: less than body requirements related to hemiplegia and aphasia

ANS: C The information supports the diagnosis of disabled family coping because the wife does not understand the rehabilitation program. There are no data supporting low self-esteem, and the patient is attempting independence. The data do not support an interruption in family processes because this may be a typical pattern for the couple. There is no indication that the patient has impaired nutrition

A 22-year-old patient seen at the health clinic with a severe migraine headache tells the nurse about having other similar headaches recently. Which initial action should the nurse take? a. Teach about the use of triptan drugs. b. Refer the patient for stress counseling. c. Ask the patient to keep a headache diary. d. Suggest the use of muscle-relaxation techniques.

ANS: C The initial nursing action should be further assessment of the precipitating causes of the headaches, quality, and location of pain, etc. Stress reduction, muscle relaxation, and the triptan drugs may be helpful, but more assessment is needed first

A 70-year-old female patient with left-sided hemiparesis arrives by ambulance to the emergency department. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Monitor the blood pressure. b. Send the patient for a computed tomography (CT) scan. c. Check the respiratory rate and effort. d. Assess the Glasgow Coma Scale score.

ANS: C The initial nursing action should be to assess the airway and take any needed actions to ensure a patent airway. The other activities should take place quickly after the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) are completed

A 32-year-old patient with a history of polycystic kidney disease is admitted to the surgical unit after having shoulder surgery. Which of the routine postoperative orders is most important for the nurse to discuss with the health care provider? a. Infuse 5% dextrose in normal saline at 75 mL/hr. b. Order regular diet after patient is awake and alert. c. Give ketorolac (Toradol) 10 mg PO PRN for pain. d. Draw blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine in 2 hours.

ANS: C The nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be avoided in patients with decreased renal function because nephrotoxicity is a potential adverse effect. The other orders do not need any clarification or change.

Which statement by a 62-year-old patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD) indicates that the nurse's teaching about management of CKD has been effective? a. "I need to get most of my protein from low-fat dairy products." b. "I will increase my intake of fruits and vegetables to 5 per day." c. "I will measure my urinary output each day to help calculate the amount I can drink." d. "I need to take erythropoietin to boost my immune system and help prevent infection."

ANS: C The patient with end-stage kidney disease is taught to measure urine output as a means of determining an appropriate oral fluid intake. Erythropoietin is given to increase the red blood cell count and will not offer any benefit for immune function. Dairy products are restricted because of the high phosphate level. Many fruits and vegetables are high in potassium and should be restricted in the patient with CKD.

A 41-year-old patient who is unconscious has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion related to cerebral tissue swelling. Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. b. Position the patient with knees and hips flexed. c. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees. d. Cluster nursing interventions to provide rest periods.

ANS: C The patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) should be maintained in the head-up position to help reduce ICP. Extreme flexion of the hips and knees increases abdominal pressure, which increases ICP. Because the stimulation associated with nursing interventions increases ICP, clustering interventions will progressively elevate ICP. Coughing increases intrathoracic pressure and ICP

After the insertion of an arteriovenous graft (AVG) in the right forearm, a 54-year-old patient complains of pain and coldness of the right fingers. Which action should the nurse take? a. Teach the patient about normal AVG function. b. Remind the patient to take a daily low-dose aspirin tablet. c. Report the patient's symptoms to the health care provider. d. Elevate the patient's arm on pillows to above the heart level.

ANS: C The patient's complaints suggest the development of distal ischemia (steal syndrome) and may require revision of the AVG. Elevation of the arm above the heart will further decrease perfusion. Pain and coolness are not normal after AVG insertion. Aspirin therapy is not used to maintain grafts.

Which hospitalized patient will the nurse assign to the room closest to the nurses' station? a. Patient with Alzheimer's disease who has long-term memory deficit b. Patient with vascular dementia who takes medications for depression c. Patient with new-onset confusion, restlessness, and irritability after surgery d. Patient with dementia who has an abnormal Mini-Mental State Examination

ANS: C This patient's history and clinical manifestations are consistent with delirium. The patient is at risk for safety problems and should be placed near the nurses' station for ongoing observation. The other patients have chronic symptoms that are consistent with their diagnoses but are not at immediate risk for safety issues.

During the change of shift report a nurse is told that a patient has an occluded left posterior cerebral artery. The nurse will anticipate that the patient may have a. dysphasia. b. confusion. c. visual deficits. d. poor judgment.

ANS: C Visual disturbances are expected with posterior cerebral artery occlusion. Aphasia occurs with middle cerebral artery involvement. Cognitive deficits and changes in judgment are more typical of anterior cerebral artery occlusion

A patient with diabetes who has bacterial pneumonia is being treated with IV gentamicin (Garamycin) 60 mg IV BID. The nurse will monitor for adverse effects of the medication by evaluating the patient's a. blood glucose. b. urine osmolality. c. serum creatinine. d. serum potassium.

ANS: C When a patient at risk for chronic kidney disease (CKD) receives a potentially nephrotoxic medication, it is important to monitor renal function with BUN and creatinine levels. The other laboratory values would not be useful in assessing for the adverse effects of the gentamicin.

A patient with a large stomach tumor that is attached to the liver is scheduled to have a debulking procedure. Which information should the nurse teach the patient about the outcome of this procedure? a. Pain will be relieved by cutting sensory nerves in the stomach. b. Relief of pressure in the stomach will promote better nutrition. c. Tumor growth will be controlled by the removal of malignant tissue. d. Tumor size will decrease and this will improve the effects of other therapy.

ANS: D A debulking surgery reduces the size of the tumor and makes radiation and chemotherapy more effective. Debulking surgeries do not control tumor growth. The tumor is debulked because it is attached to the liver, a vital organ (not to relieve pressure on the stomach). Debulking does not sever the sensory nerves, although pain may be lessened by the reduction in pressure on the abdominal organs

The nurse teaches a 64-year-old woman to prevent the recurrence of renal calculi by a. using a filter to strain all urine. b. avoiding dietary sources of calcium. c. choosing diuretic fluids such as coffee. d. drinking 2000 to 3000 mL of fluid a day.

ANS: D A fluid intake of 2000 to 3000 mL daily is recommended to help flush out minerals before stones can form. Avoidance of calcium is not usually recommended for patients with renal calculi. Coffee tends to increase stone recurrence. There is no need for a patient to strain all urine routinely after a stone has passed, and this will not prevent stones. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1081 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

After change-of-shift report on the Alzheimer's disease/dementia unit, which patient will the nurse assess first? a. Patient who has not had a bowel movement for 5 days b. Patient who has a stage II pressure ulcer on the coccyx c. Patient who is refusing to take the prescribed medications d. Patient who developed a new cough after eating breakfast

ANS: D A new cough after a meal in a patient with dementia suggests possible aspiration and the patient should be assessed immediately. The other patients also require assessment and intervention, but not as urgently as a patient with possible aspiration or pneumonia

A patient being admitted with bacterial meningitis has a temperature of 102.5° F (39.2° C) and a severe headache. Which order for collaborative intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Administer ceftizoxime (Cefizox) 1 g IV. b. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg PO. c. Use a cooling blanket to lower temperature. d. Swab the nasopharyngeal mucosa for cultures.

ANS: D Antibiotic therapy should be instituted rapidly in bacterial meningitis, but cultures must be done before antibiotics are started. As soon as the cultures are done, the antibiotic should be started. Hypothermia therapy and acetaminophen administration are appropriate but can be started after the other actions are implemented

Which medication taken by a patient with restless legs syndrome should the nurse discuss with the patient? a. Multivitamin (Stresstabs) b. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) c. Ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) d. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

ANS: D Antihistamines can aggravate restless legs syndrome. The other medications will not contribute to restless legs syndrome

A patient admitted with possible stroke has been aphasic for 3 hours and his current blood pressure (BP) is 174/94 mm Hg. Which order by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Keep head of bed elevated at least 30 degrees. b. Infuse normal saline intravenously at 75 mL/hr. c. Administer tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) per protocol. d. Administer a labetalol (Normodyne) drip to keep BP less than 140/90 mm Hg.

ANS: D Because elevated BP may be a protective response to maintain cerebral perfusion, antihypertensive therapy is recommended only if mean arterial pressure (MAP) is >130 mm Hg or systolic pressure is >220 mm Hg. Fluid intake should be 1500 to 2000 mL daily to maintain cerebral blood flow. The head of the bed should be elevated to at least 30 degrees, unless the patient has symptoms of poor tissue perfusion. tPA may be administered if the patient meets the other criteria for tPA use.

When teaching about clopidogrel (Plavix), the nurse will tell the patient with cerebral atherosclerosis a. to monitor and record the blood pressure daily. b. that Plavix will dissolve clots in the cerebral arteries. c. that Plavix will reduce cerebral artery plaque formation. d. to call the health care provider if stools are bloody or tarry.

ANS: D Clopidogrel (Plavix) inhibits platelet function and increases the risk for gastrointestinal bleeding, so patients should be advised to notify the health care provider about any signs of bleeding. The medication does not lower blood pressure, decrease plaque formation, or dissolve clots

Which information about a 60-year-old patient with MS indicates that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before giving the prescribed dose of dalfampridine (Ampyra)? a. The patient has relapsing-remitting MS. b. The patient walks a mile a day for exercise. c. The patient complains of pain with neck flexion. d. The patient has an increased serum creatinine level.

ANS: D Dalfampridine should not be given to patients with impaired renal function. The other information will not impact whether the dalfampridine should be administered

A 76-year-old patient is being treated with carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet) for Parkinson's disease. Which information is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Shuffling gait b. Tremor at rest c. Cogwheel rigidity of limbs d. Uncontrolled head movement

ANS: D Dyskinesia is an adverse effect of the Sinemet, indicating a need for a change in medication or decrease in dose. The other findings are typical with Parkinson's disease.

A 62-year-old patient who has Parkinson's disease is taking bromocriptine (Parlodel). Which information obtained by the nurse may indicate a need for a decrease in the dose? a. The patient has a chronic dry cough. b. The patient has four loose stools in a day. c. The patient develops a deep vein thrombosis. d. The patient's blood pressure is 92/52 mm Hg.

ANS: D Hypotension is an adverse effect of bromocriptine, and the nurse should check with the health care provider before giving the medication. Diarrhea, cough, and deep vein thrombosis are not associated with bromocriptine use

Which information about a 72-year-old patient who has a new prescription for phenytoin (Dilantin) indicates that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before administration of the medication? a. Patient has generalized tonic-clonic seizures. b. Patient experiences an aura before seizures. c. Patient's most recent blood pressure is 156/92 mm Hg. d. Patient has minor elevations in the liver function tests.

ANS: D Many older patients (especially with compromised liver function) may not be able to metabolize phenytoin. The health care provider may need to choose another antiseizure medication. Phenytoin is an appropriate medication for patients with tonic-clonic seizures, with or without an aura. Hypertension is not a contraindication for phenytoin therapy.

A patient has been admitted with meningococcal meningitis. Which observation by the nurse requires action? a. The bedrails at the head and foot of the bed are both elevated. b. The patient receives a regular diet from the dietary department. c. The lights in the patient's room are turned off and the blinds are shut. d. Unlicensed assistive personnel enter the patient's room without a mask.

ANS: D Meningococcal meningitis is spread by respiratory secretions, so it is important to maintain respiratory isolation as well as standard precautions. Because the patient may be confused and weak, bedrails should be elevated at both the foot and head of the bed. Low light levels in the room decrease pain caused by photophobia. Nutrition is an important aspect of care in a patient with meningitis

A patient complains of leg cramps during hemodialysis. The nurse should first a. massage the patient's legs. b. reposition the patient supine. c. give acetaminophen (Tylenol). d. infuse a bolus of normal saline.

ANS: D Muscle cramps during dialysis are caused by rapid removal of sodium and water. Treatment includes infusion of normal saline. The other actions do not address the reason for the cramps.

The nurse is caring for a patient who was admitted the previous day with a basilar skull fracture after a motor vehicle crash. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Complaint of severe headache b. Large contusion behind left ear c. Bilateral periorbital ecchymosis d. Temperature of 101.4° F (38.6° C)

ANS: D Patients who have basilar skull fractures are at risk for meningitis, so the elevated temperature should be reported to the health care provider. The other findings are typical of a patient with a basilar skull fracture

A 58-year-old patient with a left-brain stroke suddenly bursts into tears when family members visit. The nurse should a. use a calm voice to ask the patient to stop the crying behavior. b. explain to the family that depression is normal following a stroke. c. have the family members leave the patient alone for a few minutes. d. teach the family that emotional outbursts are common after strokes.

ANS: D Patients who have left-sided brain stroke are prone to emotional outbursts that are not necessarily related to the emotional state of the patient. Depression after a stroke is common, but the suddenness of the patient's outburst suggests that depression is not the major cause of the behavior. The family should stay with the patient. The crying is not within the patient's control and asking the patient to stop will lead to embarrassment

Nurses in change-of-shift report are discussing the care of a patient with a stroke who has progressively increasing weakness and decreasing level of consciousness (LOC). Which nursing diagnosis do they determine has the highest priority for the patient? a. Impaired physical mobility related to weakness b. Disturbed sensory perception related to brain injury c. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to immobility d. Risk for aspiration related to inability to protect airway

ANS: D Protection of the airway is the priority of nursing care for a patient having an acute stroke. The other diagnoses are also appropriate, but interventions to prevent aspiration are the priority at this time

After having a craniectomy and left anterior fossae incision, a 64-year-old patient has a nursing diagnosis of impaired physical mobility related to decreased level of consciousness and weakness. An appropriate nursing intervention is to a. cluster nursing activities to allow longer rest periods. b. turn and reposition the patient side to side every 2 hours. c. position the bed flat and log roll to reposition the patient. d. perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises every 4 hours.

ANS: D ROM exercises will help prevent the complications of immobility. Patients with anterior craniotomies are positioned with the head elevated. The patient with a craniectomy should not be turned to the operative side. When the patient is weak, clustering nursing activities may lead to more fatigue and weakness

A patient with left-sided weakness that started 60 minutes earlier is admitted to the emergency department and diagnostic tests are ordered. Which test should be done first? a. Complete blood count (CBC) b. Chest radiograph (Chest x-ray) c. 12-Lead electrocardiogram (ECG) d. Noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan

ANS: D Rapid screening with a noncontrast CT scan is needed before administration of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), which must be given within 4.5 hours of the onset of clinical manifestations of the stroke. The sooner the tPA is given, the less brain injury. The other diagnostic tests give information about possible causes of the stroke and do not need to be completed as urgently as the CT scan

A 73-year-old patient with a stroke experiences facial drooping on the right side and right-sided arm and leg paralysis. When admitting the patient, which clinical manifestation will the nurse expect to find? a. Impulsive behavior b. Right-sided neglect c. Hyperactive left-sided tendon reflexes d. Difficulty comprehending instructions

ANS: D Right-sided paralysis indicates a left-brain stroke, which will lead to difficulty with comprehension and use of language. The left-side reflexes are likely to be intact. Impulsive behavior and neglect are more likely with a right-side stroke

When assessing a 53-year-old patient with bacterial meningitis, the nurse obtains the following data. Which finding should be reported immediately to the health care provider? a. The patient exhibits nuchal rigidity. b. The patient has a positive Kernig's sign. c. The patient's temperature is 101° F (38.3° C). d. The patient's blood pressure is 88/42 mm Hg.

ANS: D Shock is a serious complication of meningitis, and the patient's low blood pressure indicates the need for interventions such as fluids or vasopressors. Nuchal rigidity and a positive Kernig's sign are expected with bacterial meningitis. The nurse should intervene to lower the temperature, but this is not as life threatening as the hypotension

Which nursing diagnosis is of highest priority for a patient with Parkinson's disease who is unable to move the facial muscles? a. Activity intolerance b. Self-care deficit: toileting c. Ineffective self-health management d. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements

ANS: D The data about the patient indicate that poor nutrition will be a concern because of decreased swallowing. The other diagnoses may also be appropriate for a patient with Parkinson's disease, but the data do not indicate that they are current problems for this patient

After the emergency department nurse has received a status report on the following patients who have been admitted with head injuries, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 20-year-old patient whose cranial x-ray shows a linear skull fracture b. A 30-year-old patient who has an initial Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 c. A 40-year-old patient who lost consciousness for a few seconds after a fall d. A 50-year-old patient whose right pupil is 10 mm and unresponsive to light

ANS: D The dilated and nonresponsive pupil may indicate an intracerebral hemorrhage and increased intracranial pressure. The other patients are not at immediate risk for complications such as herniation

After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient who is scheduled for the drain phase of a peritoneal dialysis exchange b. Patient with stage 4 chronic kidney disease who has an elevated phosphate level c. Patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease who has a potassium level of 3.4 mEq/L d. Patient who has just returned from having hemodialysis and has a heart rate of 124/min

ANS: D The patient who is tachycardic after hemodialysis may be bleeding or excessively hypovolemic and should be assessed immediately for these complications. The other patients also need assessments or interventions but are not at risk for life-threatening complications.

A 56-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department with hemiparesis and dysarthria that started 2 hours previously, and health records show a history of several transient ischemic attacks (TIAs). The nurse anticipates preparing the patient for a. surgical endarterectomy. b. transluminal angioplasty. c. intravenous heparin administration. d. tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) infusion.

ANS: D The patient's history and clinical manifestations suggest an acute ischemic stroke and a patient who is seen within 4.5 hours of stroke onset is likely to receive tPA (after screening with a CT scan). Heparin administration in the emergency phase is not indicated. Emergent carotid transluminal angioplasty or endarterectomy is not indicated for the patient who is having an acute ischemic stroke

The nurse is concerned about a postoperative patient's risk for injury during an episode of delirium. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to a. secure the patient in bed using a soft chest restraint. b. ask the health care provider to order an antipsychotic drug. c. instruct family members to remain with the patient and prevent injury. d. assign unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to stay with the patient and offer reorientation.

ANS: D The priority goal is to protect the patient from harm. Having a UAP stay with the patient will ensure the patient's safety. Visits by family members are helpful in reorienting the patient, but families should not be responsible for protecting patients from injury. Antipsychotic medications may be ordered, but only if other measures are not effective because these medications have many side effects. Restraints are not recommended because they can increase the patient's agitation and disorientation

A patient in the emergency department with sudden-onset right-sided weakness is diagnosed with an intracerebral hemorrhage. Which information about the patient is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient's speech is difficult to understand. b. The patient's blood pressure is 144/90 mm Hg. c. The patient takes a diuretic because of a history of hypertension. d. The patient has atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin (Coumadin).

ANS: D The use of warfarin probably contributed to the intracerebral bleeding and remains a risk factor for further bleeding. Administration of vitamin K is needed to reverse the effects of the warfarin, especially if the patient is to have surgery to correct the bleeding. The history of hypertension is a risk factor for the patient but has no immediate effect on the patient's care. The BP of 144/90 indicates the need for ongoing monitoring but not for any immediate change in therapy. Slurred speech is consistent with a left-sided stroke, and no change in therapy is indicated

A 72-year-old female patient is brought to the clinic by the patient's spouse, who reports that she is unable to solve common problems around the house. To obtain information about the patient's current mental status, which question should the nurse ask the patient? a. "Are you sad?" b. "How is your self-image?" c. "Where were you were born?" d. "What did you eat for breakfast?"

ANS: D This question tests the patient's short-term memory, which is decreased in the mild stage of Alzheimer's disease or dementia. Asking the patient about her birthplace tests for remote memory, which is intact in the early stages. Questions about the patient's emotions and self-image are helpful in assessing emotional status, but they are not as helpful in assessing mental state

Which prescribed intervention will the nurse implement first for a patient in the emergency department who is experiencing continuous tonic-clonic seizures? a. Give phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg IV. b. Monitor level of consciousness (LOC). c. Obtain computed tomography (CT) scan. d. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 4 mg IV.

ANS: D To prevent ongoing seizures, the nurse should administer rapidly acting antiseizure medications such as the benzodiazepines. A CT scan is appropriate, but prevention of any seizure activity during the CT scan is necessary. Phenytoin will also be administered, but it is not rapidly acting. Patients who are experiencing tonic-clonic seizures are nonresponsive, although the nurse should assess LOC after the seizure.

When providing discharge teaching for the patient after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, what information should the nurse include? A) A lower-fat diet may be better tolerated for several weeks. B) Do not return to work or normal activities for 3 weeks. C) Bile-colored drainage will probably drain from the incision. D) Keep the bandages on and the puncture site dry until it heals.

Although the usual diet can be resumed, a low-fat diet is usually better tolerated for several weeks following surgery. Normal activities can be gradually resumed as the patient tolerates. Bile-colored drainage or pus, redness, swelling, severe pain, and fever may all indicate infection. The bandage may be removed the day after surgery, and the patient can shower.

The results of a patients recent endoscopy indicate the presence of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which of the following teaching points should the nurse provide to the pt in light of his new diagnosis? A) "You'll need to drink at least two to three glasses of milk daily." B) "It would likely be beneficial for you to eliminate drinking alcohol." C) "Many people find that a minced or pureed diet eases their sxs of PUD." D) "Your medications should allow you to maintain your present diet while minimizing symptoms."

B) "It would likely be beneficial for you to eliminate drinking alcohol." Although there is no specific recommended dietary modification for PUD, most patients find it necessary to make some sort of dietary modifications to minimize symptoms. Milk may exacerbate PUD and alcohol is best avoided because it can delay healing.

The nurse is planning care for a 68-year-old patient with an abdominal mass and suspected bowel obstruction. Which factor in the patient's history increases the patient's risk for colorectal cancer? A) Osteoarthritis B) History of colorectal polyps C) History of lactose intolerance D) Use of herbs as dietary supplements

B) A history of colorectal polyps places this patient at risk for colorectal cancer. This tissue can degenerate over time and become malignant. Osteoarthritis, lactose intolerance, and the use of herbs do not pose additional risk to the patient.

A 61-year-old patient with suspected bowel obstruction had a nasogastric tube inserted at 4:00 AM. The nurse shares in the morning report that the day shift staff should check the tube for patency at what times? A) 7:00 AM, 10:00 AM, and 1:00 PM B) 8:00 AM, 12:00 PM, and 4:00 PM C) 9:00 AM and 3:00 PM D) 9:00 AM, 12:00 PM, and 3:00 PM

B) A nasogastric tube should be checked for patency routinely at 4-hour intervals. Thus if the tube were inserted at 4:00 AM, it would be due to be checked at 8:00 AM, 12:00 PM, and 4:00 PM.

A patient is seeking emergency care after choking on a piece of steak. The nursing assessment reveals a history of alcoholism, cigarette smoking, and hemoptysis. Which diagnostic study is most likely to be performed on this patient? A) Barium swallow B) Endoscopic biopsy C) Capsule endoscopy D) Endoscopic ultrasonography

B) Because of this patient's history of excessive alcohol intake, smoking, hemoptysis, and the current choking episode, cancer may be present. A biopsy is necessary to make a definitive diagnosis of carcinoma, so an endoscope will be used to obtain a biopsy and observe other abnormalities as well. A barium swallow may show narrowing of the esophagus, but it is more diagnostic for achalasia. An endoscopic ultrasonography may be used to stage esophageal cancer. Capsule endoscopy can show alterations in the esophagus but is more often used for small intestine problems. A barium swallow, capsule endoscopy, and endoscopic ultrasonography cannot provide a definitive diagnosis for cancer when it is suspected.

A patient who is given a bisacodyl (Dulcolax) suppository asks the nurse how long it will take to work. The nurse replies that the patient will probably need to use the bedpan or commode within which time frame after administration? A) 2-5 minutes B) 15-60 minutes C) 2-4 hours D) 6-8 hours

B) Bisacodyl suppositories usually are effective within 15 to 60 minutes of administration, so the nurse should plan accordingly to assist the patient to use the bedpan or commode.

The nurse is caring for a patient treated with intravenous fluid therapy for severe vomiting. As the pt recovers and begins to tolerate oral intake, the N understands that which of the following food choices would be most appropriate? A) Ice tea B) Dry toast C) Warm broth D) Plain hamburger

B) Dry toast (Dry toast or crackers may alleviate the feeling of nausea and prevent further vomiting. Extremely hot or cold liquids and fatty foods are generally not well tolerated.)

The patient with sudden pain in the left upper quadrant radiating to the back and vomiting was diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. What intervention(s) should the nurse expect to include in the patient's plan of care? A) Immediately start enteral feeding to prevent malnutrition. B) Insert an NG and maintain NPO status to allow pancreas to rest. C) Initiate early prophylactic antibiotic therapy to prevent infection. D) Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours for pain relief.

B) Initial treatment with acute pancreatitis will include an NG tube if there is vomiting and being NPO to decrease pancreatic enzyme stimulation and allow the pancreas to rest and heal. Fluid will be administered to treat or prevent shock. The pain will be treated with IV morphine because of the NPO status. Enteral feedings will only be used for the patient with severe acute pancreatitis in whom oral intake is not resumed. Antibiotic therapy is only needed with acute necrotizing pancreatitis and signs of infection.

The nurse should administer a prn dose of magnesium hydroxide (MOM) after noting which of the following while reviewing a patient's medical record? A) Abdominal pain and bloating B) No bowel movement for 3 days C) A decrease in appetite by 50% over 24 hours D) Muscle tremors and other signs of hypomagnesemia

B) MOM is an osmotic laxative that produces a soft, semisolid stool usually within 15 minutes to 3 hours. This medication would benefit the patient who has not had a bowel movement for 3 days. MOM would not be given for abdominal pain and bloating, decreased appetite, or signs of hypomagnesemia.

The patient with right upper quadrant abdominal pain has an abdominal ultrasound that reveals cholelithiasis. What should the nurse expect to do for this patient? A) Prevent all oral intake. B) Control abdominal pain. C) Provide enteral feedings. D) Avoid dietary cholesterol.

B) Patients with cholelithiasis can have severe pain, so controlling pain is important until the problem can be treated. NPO status may be needed if the patient will have surgery but will not be used for all patients with cholelithiasis. Enteral feedings should not be needed, and avoiding dietary cholesterol is not used to treat cholelithiasis.

A colectomy is scheduled for a 38-year-old woman with ulcerative colitis. The nurse should plan to include what prescribed measure in the preoperative preparation of this patient? A) Instruction on irrigating a colostomy B) Administration of a cleansing enema C) A high-fiber diet the day before surgery D) Administration of IV antibiotics for bowel preparation

B) Preoperative preparation for bowel surgery typically includes bowel cleansing with antibiotics, such as oral neomycin and cleansing enemas, including Fleet enemas. Instructions to irrigate the colostomy will be done postoperatively. Oral antibiotics are given preoperatively, and an IV antibiotic may be used in the OR. A clear liquid diet will be used the day before surgery with the bowel cleansing.

The patient had a car accident and was "scared to death." The patient is now reporting constipation. What affecting the gastrointestinal (GI) tract does the nurse know could be contributing to the constipation? A) The patient is too nervous to eat or drink, so there is no stool. B) The sympathetic nervous system was activated, so the GI tract was slowed. C) The parasympathetic nervous system is now functioning to slow the GI tract. D) The circulation in the GI system has been increased, so less waste is removed.

B) The constipation is most likely related to the sympathetic nervous system activation from the stress related to the accident. SNS activation can decrease peristalsis. Even without oral intake for a short time, stool will be formed. The parasympathetic system stimulates peristalsis. The circulation to the GI system is decreased with stress.

Inspection of an older patient's mouth reveals the presence of white, curd-like lesions on the patient's tongue. What is the most likely etiology for this abnormal assessment finding? A) Herpesvirus B) Candida albicans C) Vitamin deficiency D) Irritation from ill-fitting dentures

B) White, curd-like lesions surrounded by erythematous mucosa are associated with oral candidiasis. Herpesvirus causes benign vesicular lesions in the mouth. Vitamin deficiencies may cause a reddened, ulcerated, swollen tongue. Irritation from ill-fitting dentures will cause friable, edematous, painful, bleeding gingivae.

A patient with cholelithiasis needs to have the gallbladder removed. Which patient assessment is a contraindication for a cholecystectomy? A) Low-grade fever of 100° F and dehydration B) Abscess in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen C) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 54 seconds D) Multiple obstructions in the cystic and common bile duct

C) An aPTT of 54 seconds is above normal and indicates insufficient clotting ability. If the patient had surgery, significant bleeding complications postoperatively are very likely. Fluids can be given to eliminate the dehydration; the abscess can be assessed, and the obstructions in the cystic and common bile duct would be relieved with the cholecystectomy.

When assessing a patient's abdomen, what would be most appropriate for the nurse to do? A) Palpate the abdomen before auscultation. B) Percuss the abdomen before auscultation. C) Auscultate the abdomen before palpation. D) Perform deep palpation before light palpation.

C) During examination of the abdomen, auscultation is done before percussion and palpation because these latter procedures may alter the bowel sounds.

A female patient has a sliding hiatal hernia. What nursing interventions will prevent the symptoms of heartburn and dyspepsia that she is experiencing? A) Keep the patient NPO. B) Put the bed in the Trendelenberg position. C) Have the patient eat 4 to 6 smaller meals each day. D) Give various antacids to determine which one works for the patient.

C) Eating smaller meals during the day will decrease the gastric pressure and the symptoms of hiatal hernia. Keeping the patient NPO or in a Trendelenberg position are not safe or realistic for a long period of time for any patient. Varying antacids will only be done with the care provider's prescription, so this is not a nursing intervention.

The health care team is assessing a male patient for acute pancreatitis after he presented to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. Which laboratory value is the best diagnostic indicator of acute pancreatitis? A) Gastric pH B) Blood glucose C) Serum amylase D) Serum potassium

C) Elevated serum amylase levels indicate early pancreatic dysfunction and are used to diagnose acute pancreatitis. Serum lipase levels stay elevated longer than serum amylase in acute pancreatitis. Blood glucose, gastric pH, and potassium levels are not direct indicators of acute pancreatic dysfunction.

The nurse determines that a pnt has experienced the beneficial effects of medication therapy with famotidine (Pepcid) when which of the following symptoms is relieved? A) Nausea B) Belching C) Epigastric pain D) Difficulty swallowing

C) Epigastric pain Famotidine is an H2-receptor antagonist that inhibits parietal cell output of HCl acid and minimizes damage to gastric mucosa related to hyperacidity, thus relieving epigastric pain.

The condition of a patient who has cirrhosis of the liver has deteriorated. Which diagnostic study would help determine if the patient has developed liver cancer? A) Serum α-fetoprotein level B) Ventilation/perfusion scan C) Hepatic structure ultrasound D) Abdominal girth measurement

C) Hepatic structure ultrasound, CT, and MRI are used to screen and diagnose liver cancer. Serum α-fetoprotein level may be elevated with liver cancer or other liver problems. Ventilation/perfusion scans do not diagnose liver cancer. Abdominal girth measurement would not differentiate between cirrhosis and liver cancer

A patient who is scheduled for surgery with general anesthesia in 1 hour is observed with a moist, but empty water glass in his hand. Which assessment finding may indicate that the patient drank a glass of water? A) Flat abdomen without movement upon inspection B) Tenderness at left upper quadrant upon palpation C) Easily heard, loud gurgling in the right upper quadrant D) High-pitched, hollow sounds in the left upper quadrant

C) If the patient drank water on an empty stomach, gurgling can be assessed without a stethoscope or assessed with auscultation. High-pitched, hollow sounds are tympanic and indicate an empty cavity. A flat abdomen and tenderness do not indicate that the patient drank a glass of water.

Following administration of a dose of metoclopramide (Reglan) to the patient, the nurse determines that the medication has been effective when what is noted? A) Decreased blood pressure B) Absence of muscle tremors C) Relief of nausea and vomiting D) No further episodes of diarrhea

C) Metoclopramide is classified as a prokinetic and antiemetic medication. If it is effective, the patient's nausea and vomiting should resolve. Metoclopramide does not affect blood pressure, muscle tremors, or diarrhea.

The patient receiving chemotherapy rings the call bell and reports an onset of nausea. The nurse should prepare a prn dose of which of the following medications? A) Morphine sulfate B) Zolpidem (Ambien) C) Ondansetron (Zofran) D) Dexamethasone (Decadron)

C) Ondansetron (Zofran) (Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist antiemetic that is especially effective in reducing cancer chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.)

When caring for the patient with heart failure, the nurse knows that which gastrointestinal process is most dependent on cardiac output and may affect the patient's nutritional status? A) Ingestion B) Digestion C) Absorption D) Elimination

C) Substances that interface with the absorptive surfaces of the GI tract (primarily in the small intestine) diffuse across the intestinal membranes into intestinal capillaries and are then carried to other parts of the body for use in energy production. The cardiac output provides the blood flow for this absorption of nutrients to occur.

The patient is having an esophagoenterostomy with anastomosis of a segment of the colon to replace the resected portion. What initial postoperative care should the nurse expect when this patient returns to the nursing unit? A) Turn, deep breathe, cough, and use spirometer every 4 hours. B) Maintain an upright position for at least 2 hours after eating. C) NG will have bloody drainage, and it should not be repositioned. D) Keep in a supine position to prevent movement of the anastomosis.

C) The patient will have bloody drainage from the NG tube for 8 to 12 hours, and it should not be repositioned or reinserted without contacting the surgeon. Turning and deep breathing will be done every 2 hours, and the spirometer will be used more often than every 4 hours. Coughing would put too much pressure in the area and should not be done. Because the patient will have the NG tube, the patient will not be eating yet. The patient should be kept in a semi-Fowler's or Fowler's position, not supine, to prevent reflux and aspiration of secretions.

Following bowel resection, a patient has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction, but complains of nausea and abdominal distention. The nurse irrigates the tube as necessary as ordered, but the irrigating fluid does not return. What should be the priority action by the nurse? A) Notify the physician. B) Auscultate for bowel sounds. C) Reposition the tube and check for placement. D) Remove the tube and replace it with a new one.

C) The tube may be resting against the stomach wall. The first action by the nurse (since this is intestinal surgery and not gastric surgery) is to reposition the tube and check it again for placement. The physician does not need to be notified unless the tube function cannot be restored by the nurse. The patient does not have bowel sounds, which is why the NG tube is in place. The NG tube would not be removed and replaced unless it was no longer in the stomach or the obstruction of the tube could not be relieved.

The patient with chronic gastritis is being put on a combination of medications to eradicate H. pylori. Which drugs does the nurse know will probably be used for this patient? A) Antibiotic(s), antacid, and corticosteroid B) Antibiotic(s), aspirin, and antiulcer/protectant C) Antibiotic(s), proton pump inhibitor, and bismuth D) Antibiotic(s) and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

C) To eradicate H. pylori, a combination of antibiotics, a proton pump inhibitor, and possibly bismuth (for quadruple therapy) will be used. Corticosteroids, aspirin, and NSAIDs are drugs that can cause gastritis and do not affect H. pylori.

The patient with a history of lung cancer and hepatitis C has developed liver failure and is considering liver transplantation. After the comprehensive evaluation, the nurse knows that which factor discovered may be a contraindication for liver transplantation? A) Has completed a college education B) Has been able to stop smoking cigarettes C) Has well-controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus D) The chest x-ray showed another lung cancer lesion.

D) Contraindications for liver transplant include severe extrahepatic disease, advanced hepatocellular carcinoma or other cancer, ongoing drug and/or alcohol abuse, and the inability to comprehend or comply with the rigorous post-transplant course.

When planning care for a patient with cirrhosis, the nurse will give highest priority to which of the following nursing diagnoses? A. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements B. Impaired skin integrity related to edema, ascites, and pruritus C. Excess fluid volume related to portal hypertension and hyperaldosteronism D. Ineffective breathing pattern related to pressure on diaphragm and reduced lung volume

D) Although all of these nursing diagnoses are appropriate and important in the care of a patient with cirrhosis, airway and breathing are always the highest priorities.

The nurse is performing a focused abdominal assessment of a patient who has been recently admitted. In order to palpate the patient's liver, where should the nurse palpate the patient's abdomen? A) Left lower quadrant B) Left upper quadrant C) Right lower quadrant D) Right upper quadrant

D) Although the left lobe of the liver is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, the bulk of the liver is located in the right upper quadrant.

The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of bisacodyl (Dulcolax). In explaining the medication to the patient, the nurse would state that it acts in which of the following ways? A) Increases bulk in the stool B) Lubricates the intestinal tract to soften feces C) Increases fluid retention in the intestinal tract D) Increases peristalsis by stimulating nerves in the colon wall

D) Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that aids in producing a bowel movement by irritating the colon wall and stimulating enteric nerves. It is available in oral and suppository forms. Fiber and bulk forming drugs increase bulk in the stool; water and stool softeners soften feces, and saline and osmotic solutions cause fluid retention in the intestinal tract.

The nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of docusate sodium (Colace) when the patient complains of an episode of loose stool and does not want to take the medication. Which of the following is the appropriate action by the nurse? A) Write an incident report about this untoward event. B) Attempt to have the family convince the patient to take the ordered dose. C) Withhold the medication at this time and try to administer it later in the day. D) Chart the dose as not given on the medical record and explain in the nursing progress notes.

D) Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that aids in producing a bowel movement by irritating the colon wall and stimulating enteric nerves. It is available in oral and suppository forms. Fiber and bulk forming drugs increase bulk in the stool; water and stool softeners soften feces, and saline and osmotic solutions cause fluid retention in the intestinal tract.

What should the nurse instruct the patient to do to best enhance the effectiveness of a daily dose of docusate sodium (Colace)? A) Take a dose of mineral oil at the same time. B) Add extra salt to food on at least one meal tray. C) Ensure dietary intake of 10 g of fiber each day. D) Take each dose with a full glass of water or other liquid.

D) Docusate lowers the surface tension of stool, permitting water and fats to penetrate and soften the stool for easier passage. The patient should take the dose with a full glass of water and should increase overall fluid intake, if able, to enhance effectiveness of the medication. Dietary fiber intake should be a minimum of 20 g daily to prevent constipation. Mineral oil and extra salt are not recommended.

The nurse is caring for a 68-year-old patient admitted with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The patient has an abdominal mass, and a bowel obstruction is suspected. The nurse auscultating the abdomen listens for which type of bowel sounds that are consistent with the patient's clinical picture? A) Low-pitched and rumbling above the area of obstruction B) High-pitched and hypoactive below the area of obstruction C) Low-pitched and hyperactive below the area of obstruction D) High-pitched and hyperactive above the area of obstruction

D) Early in intestinal obstruction, the patient's bowel sounds are hyperactive and high-pitched, sometimes referred to as "tinkling" above the level of the obstruction. This occurs because peristaltic action increases to "push past" the area of obstruction. As the obstruction becomes complete, bowel sounds decrease and finally become absent.

The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient with a colostomy. The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of famotidine (Pepcid) when the patient asks why the medication was ordered since the patient does not have a history of heartburn or gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). What response by the nurse would be the most appropriate? A) "This will prevent air from accumulating in the stomach, causing gas pains." B) "This will prevent the heartburn that occurs as a side effect of general anesthesia." C) "The stress of surgery is likely to cause stomach bleeding if you do not receive it." D) "This will reduce the amount of HCl in the stomach until the nasogastric tube is removed and you can eat a regular diet again."

D) Famotidine is an H2-receptor antagonist that inhibits gastric HCl secretion and thus minimizes damage to gastric mucosa while the patient is not eating a regular diet after surgery. Famotidine does not prevent air from accumulating in the stomach or stop the stomach from bleeding. Heartburn is not a side effect of general anesthesia.

The health care provider orders lactulose for a patient with hepatic encephalopathy. The nurse will monitor for effectiveness of this medication for this patient by assessing which of the following? A. Relief of constipation B. Relief of abdominal pain C. Decreased liver enzymes D. Decreased ammonia levels

D) Hepatic encephalopathy is a complication of liver disease and is associated with elevated serum ammonia levels. Lactulose traps ammonia in the intestinal tract. Its laxative effect then expels the ammonia from the colon, resulting in decreased serum ammonia levels and correction of hepatic encephalopathy.

The family of a patient newly diagnosed with hepatitis A asks the nurse what they can do to prevent becoming ill themselves. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate? A. "The hepatitis vaccine will provide immunity from this exposure and future exposures." B. "I am afraid there is nothing you can do since the patient was infectious before admission." C. "You will need to be tested first to make sure you don't have the virus before we can treat you." D. "An injection of immunoglobulin will need to be given to prevent or minimize the effects from this exposure."

D) Immunoglobulin provides temporary (1-2 months) passive immunity and is effective for preventing hepatitis A if given within 2 weeks after exposure. It may not prevent infection in all persons, but it will at least modify the illness to a subclinical infection. The hepatitis vaccine is only used for preexposure prophylaxis

The nurse would question the use of which cathartic agent in a patient with renal insufficiency? A) Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) B) Lubiprostone (Amitiza) C) Cascara sagrada (Senekot) D) Magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia)

D) Milk of Magnesia may cause hypermagnesemia in patients with renal insufficiency. The nurse should question this order with the health care provider. Bisacodyl, lubiprostone, and cascara sagrada are safe to use in patients with renal insufficiency as long as the patient is not currently dehydrated.

A pt reports having dry mouth and asks for some liquid to drink. The nurse reasons that this symptom can most likely be attributed to a common adverse effect of which of the following medications? A) Digoxin (Lanoxin) B) Cefotetan (Cefotan) C) Famotidine (Pepcid) D) Promethazine (Phenergan)

D) Promethazine (Phenergan) A common adverse effect of promethazine, an antihistamine antiemetic agent, is dry mouth; another is blurred vision.

A patient who has hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) in the serum is being discharged with pain medication after knee surgery. Which medication order should the nurse question because it is most likely to cause hepatic complications? A) Tramadol (Ultram) B) Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) C) Oxycodone with aspirin (Percodan) D) Hydrocodone with acetaminophen (Vicodin)

D) The analgesic with acetaminophen should be questioned because this patient is a chronic carrier of hepatitis B and is likely to have impaired liver function. Acetaminophen is not suitable for this patient because it is converted to a toxic metabolite in the liver after absorption, increasing the risk of hepatocellular damage.

The patient with suspected pancreatic cancer is having many diagnostic studies done. Which one can be used to establish the diagnosis of pancreatic adenocarcinoma and for monitoring the response to treatment? A) Spiral CT scan B) A PET/CT scan C) Abdominal ultrasound D) Cancer-associated antigen 19-9

D) The cancer-associated antigen 19-9 (CA 19-9) is the tumor marker used for the diagnosis of pancreatic adenocarcinoma and for monitoring the response to treatment. Although a spiral CT scan may be the initial study done and provides information on metastasis and vascular involvement, this test and the PET/CT scan or abdominal ultrasound do not provide additional information.

When teaching the patient with acute hepatitis C (HCV), the patient demonstrates understanding when the patient makes which statement? A) "I will use care when kissing my wife to prevent giving it to her." B) "I will need to take adofevir (Hepsera) to prevent chronic HCV." C) "Now that I have had HCV, I will have immunity and not get it again." D) "I will need to be checked for chronic HCV and other liver problems."

D) The majority of patients who acquire HCV usually develop chronic infection, which may lead to cirrhosis or liver cancer. HCV is not transmitted via saliva, but percutaneously and via high-risk sexual activity exposure. The treatment for acute viral hepatitis focuses on resting the body and adequate nutrition for liver regeneration. Adofevir (Hepsera) is taken for severe hepatitis B (HBV) with liver failure. Chronic HCV is treated with pegylated interferon with ribavirin. Immunity with HCV does not occur as it does with HAV and HBV, so the patient may be reinfected with another type of HCV.

The nurse asks a 68-year-old patient scheduled for colectomy to sign the operative permit as directed in the physician's preoperative orders. The patient states that the physician has not really explained very well what is involved in the surgical procedure. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse? A) Ask family members whether they have discussed the surgical procedure with the physician. B) Have the patient sign the form and state the physician will visit to explain the procedure before surgery. C) Explain the planned surgical procedure as well as possible and have the patient sign the consent form. D) Delay the patient's signature on the consent and notify the physician about the conversation with the patient.

D) The patient should not be asked to sign a consent form unless the procedure has been explained to the satisfaction of the patient. The nurse should notify the physician, who has the responsibility for obtaining consent.

The nurse is teaching a group of high school students about the prevention of food poisoning. Which comment by the student shows understanding of foodborne illness protection? A) "We like to mix up the ingredients so the flavors will melt before we cook our beef stew." B) "For a snack, I like to eat raw cookie dough from the package instead of baking the cookies." C) "We only have one cutting board, so we cut up our chicken and salad vegetables at the same time." D) "When they gave me a pink hamburger I sent it back and asked for a new bun and clean plate."

D) The student who did not accept the pink hamburger and asked for a new bun and clean plate understood that the pink meat may not have reached 160° and could be contaminated with bacteria. Mixing ingredients and leaving them long enough for the flavors to melt, eating raw cookie dough from a refrigerated package, and only using one cutting board without washing it with hot soapy water between the chicken and salad vegetables could all lead to food poisoning from contamination.

The ED nurse has inspected, auscultated, and palpated the abdomen with no obvious abnormalities, except pain. When the nurse palpates the abdomen for rebound tenderness, there is severe pain. The nurse should know that this could indicate what problem? A) Hepatic cirrhosis B) Hypersplenomegaly C) Gall bladder distention D) Peritoneal inflammation

D) When palpating for rebound tenderness, the problem area of the abdomen will produce pain and severe muscle spasm when there is peritoneal inflammation. Hepatic cirrhosis, hypersplenomegaly, and gall bladder distention do not manifest with rebound tenderness.

The nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of docusate sodium (Colace) when the patient reports an episode of loose stool and does not want to take the medication. What is the appropriate action by the nurse? A) Write an incident report about this untoward event. B) Attempt to have the family convince the patient to take the ordered dose. C) Withhold the medication at this time and try to administer it later in the day. D) Chart the dose as not given on the medical record and explain in the nursing progress notes.

D) Whenever a patient refuses medication, the dose should be charted as not given with an explanation of the reason documented in the nursing progress notes. In this instance, the refusal indicates good judgment by the patient, and the patient should not be encouraged to take it today.

The nurse teaches a postmenopausal patient with stage III breast cancer about the expected outcomes of cancer treatment. Which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "After cancer has not recurred for 5 years, it is considered cured." b. "The cancer will be cured if the entire tumor is surgically removed." c. "Cancer is never considered cured, but the tumor can be controlled with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation." d. "I will need to have follow-up examinations for many years after I have treatment before I can be considered cured."

ANS: D The risk of recurrence varies by the type of cancer. Some cancers are considered cured after a shorter time span or after surgery, but stage III breast cancer will require additional therapies and ongoing follow-up

Which action should the nurse take when caring for a patient who is receiving chemotherapy and complains of problems with concentration? a. Teach the patient to rest the brain by avoiding new activities. b. Teach that "chemo-brain" is a short-term effect of chemotherapy. c. Report patient symptoms immediately to the health care provider. d. Suggest use of a daily planner and encourage adequate rest and sleep.

ANS: D Use of tools to enhance memory and concentration such as a daily planner and adequate rest are helpful for patients who develop "chemo-brain" while receiving chemotherapy. Patients should be encouraged to exercise the brain through new activities. Chemo-brain may be short- or long-term. There is no urgent need to report common chemotherapy side effects to the provider

The nurse determines that instruction regarding prevention of future urinary tract infections (UTIs) has been effective for a 22-year-old female patient with cystitis when the patient states which of the following? a. "I can use vaginal antiseptic sprays to reduce bacteria." b. "I will drink a quart of water or other fluids every day." c. "I will wash with soap and water before sexual intercourse." d. "I will empty my bladder every 3 to 4 hours during the day."

ANS: D Voiding every 3 to 4 hours is recommended to prevent UTIs. Use of vaginal sprays is discouraged. The bladder should be emptied before and after intercourse, but cleaning with soap and water is not necessary. A quart of fluids is insufficient to provide adequate urine output to decrease risk for UTI. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1069 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

The nurse is caring for a patient with colon cancer who is scheduled for external radiation therapy to the abdomen. Which information obtained by the nurse would indicate a need for patient teaching? a. The patient swims a mile 3 days a week. b. The patient snacks frequently during the day. c. The patient showers everyday with a mild soap. d. The patient has a history of dental caries with amalgam fillings.

ANS: A The patient is instructed to avoid swimming in salt water or chlorinated pools during the treatment period. The patient does not need to change habits of eating frequently or showering with a mild soap. A history of dental caries will not impact the patient who is scheduled for abdominal radiation.

A 76-year-old with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is agitated and confused, with a markedly distended bladder. Which intervention prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Insert a urinary retention catheter. b. Schedule an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). c. Draw blood for a serum creatinine level. d. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 0.5 mg PO.

ANS: A The patient's history and clinical manifestations are consistent with acute urinary retention, and the priority action is to relieve the retention by catheterization. The BUN and creatinine measurements can be obtained after the catheter is inserted. The patient's agitation may resolve once the bladder distention is corrected, and sedative drugs should be used cautiously in older patients. The IVP is an appropriate test but does not need to be done urgently.

A widowed mother of four school-age children is hospitalized with metastatic ovarian cancer. The patient is crying and tells the nurse that she does not know what will happen to her children when she dies. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Why don't we talk about the options you have for the care of your children?" b. "I'm sure you have friends that will take the children when you can't care for them." c. "For now you need to concentrate on getting well and not worrying about your children." d. "Many patients with cancer live for a long time, so there is still time to plan for your children."

ANS: A This response expresses the nurse's willingness to listen and recognizes the patient's concern. The responses beginning "Many patients with cancer live for a long time" and "For now you need to concentrate on getting well" close off discussion of the topic and indicate that the nurse is uncomfortable with the topic. In addition, the patient with metastatic ovarian cancer may not have a long time to plan. Although it is possible that the patient's friends will take the children, more assessment information is needed before making plans

When caring for a patient who is pancytopenic, which action by unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) indicates a need for the nurse to intervene? a. The UAP assists the patient to use dental floss after eating. b. The UAP adds baking soda to the patient's saline oral rinses. c. The UAP puts fluoride toothpaste on the patient's toothbrush. d. The UAP has the patient rinse after meals with a saline solution.

ANS: A Use of dental floss is avoided in patients with pancytopenia because of the risk for infection and bleeding. The other actions are appropriate for oral care of a pancytopenic patient

Interleukin-2 (IL-2) is used as adjuvant therapy for a patient with metastatic renal cell carcinoma. Which information should the nurse include when explaining the purpose of this therapy to the patient? a. IL-2 enhances the immunologic response to tumor cells. b. IL-2 stimulates malignant cells in the resting phase to enter mitosis. c. IL-2 prevents the bone marrow depression caused by chemotherapy. d. IL-2 protects normal cells from the harmful effects of chemotherapy.

ANS: A IL-2 enhances the ability of the patient's own immune response to suppress tumor cells. IL-2 does not protect normal cells from damage caused by chemotherapy, stimulate malignant cells to enter mitosis, or prevent bone marrow depression

Which assessment data reported by a 28-year-old male patient is consistent with a lower urinary tract infection (UTI)? a. Poor urine output b. Bilateral flank pain c. Nausea and vomiting d. Burning on urination

ANS: D Pain with urination is a common symptom of a lower UTI. Urine output does not decrease, but frequency may be experienced. Flank pain and nausea are associated with an upper UTI. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1066 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A 58-year-old male patient who is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome has ascites and 4+ leg edema. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority for the patient? a. Activity intolerance related to rapidly increased weight b. Excess fluid volume related to low serum protein levels c. Disturbed body image related to peripheral edema and ascites d. Altered nutrition: less than required related to protein restriction

ANS: B The patient has massive edema, so the priority problem at this time is the excess fluid volume. The other nursing diagnoses are also appropriate, but the focus of nursing care should be resolution of the edema and ascites.

A patient develops neutropenia after receiving chemotherapy. Which information about ways to prevent infection will the nurse include in the teaching plan (select all that apply)? a. Cook food thoroughly before eating. b. Choose low fiber, low residue foods. c. Avoid public transportation such as buses. d. Use rectal suppositories if needed for constipation. e. Talk to the oncologist before having any dental work done.

ANS: A, C, E Eating only cooked food and avoiding public transportation will decrease infection risk. A high-fiber diet is recommended for neutropenic patients to decrease constipation. Because bacteria may enter the circulation during dental work or oral surgery, the patient may need to postpone dental work or take antibiotics

When assessing a patient with a urinary tract infection, indicate on the accompanying figure where the nurse will percuss to assess for possible pyelonephritis. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

ANS: B Costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness with percussion suggests pyelonephritis or polycystic kidney disease. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1054-1055 OBJ: Special Questions: Alternate item format: Hot spot TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

The nurse supervises the care of a patient with a temporary radioactive cervical implant. Which action by unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), if observed by the nurse, would require an intervention? a. The UAP flushes the toilet once after emptying the patient's bedpan. b. The UAP stands by the patient's bed for 30 minutes talking with the patient. c. The UAP places the patient's bedding in the laundry container in the hallway. d. The UAP gives the patient an alcohol-containing mouthwash to use for oral care.

ANS: B Because patients with temporary implants emit radioactivity while the implants are in place, exposure to the patient is limited. Laundry and urine/feces do not have any radioactivity and do not require special precautions. Cervical radiation will not affect the oral mucosa, and alcohol-based mouthwash is not contraindicated

The home health nurse cares for a patient who has been receiving interferon therapy for treatment of cancer. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further assessment? a. "I have frequent muscle aches and pains." b. "I rarely have the energy to get out of bed." c. "I experience chills after I inject the interferon." d. "I take acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours."

ANS: B Fatigue can be a dose-limiting toxicity for use of biologic therapies. Flulike symptoms, such as muscle aches and chills, are common side effects with interferon use. Patients are advised to use acetaminophen every 4 hours

A hospitalized patient who has received chemotherapy for leukemia develops neutropenia. Which observation by the nurse would indicate a need for further teaching? a. The patient ambulates several times a day in the room. b. The patient's visitors bring in some fresh peaches from home. c. The patient cleans with a warm washcloth after having a stool. d. The patient uses soap and shampoo to shower every other day.

ANS: B Fresh, thinned-skin fruits are not permitted in a neutropenic diet because of the risk of bacteria being present. The patient should ambulate in the room rather than the hospital hallway to avoid exposure to other patients or visitors. Because overuse of soap can dry the skin and increase infection risk, showering every other day is acceptable. Careful cleaning after having a bowel movement will help prevent skin breakdown and infection

A patient gives the nurse health information before a scheduled intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which item has the most immediate implications for the patient's care? a. The patient has not had food or drink for 8 hours. b. The patient lists allergies to shellfish and penicillin. c. The patient complains of costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness. d. The patient used a bisacodyl (Dulcolax) tablet the previous night.

ANS: B Iodine-based contrast dye is used during IVP and for many computed tomography (CT) scans. The nurse will need to notify the health care provider before the procedures so that the patient can receive medications such as antihistamines or corticosteroids before the procedures are started. The other information is also important to note and document but does not have immediate implications for the patient's care during the procedures. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1058 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient who is being treated for stage IV lung cancer tells the nurse about new-onset back pain. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Give the patient the prescribed PRN opioid. b. Assess for sensation and strength in the legs. c. Notify the health care provider about the symptoms. d. Teach the patient how to use relaxation to reduce pain.

ANS: B Spinal cord compression, an oncologic emergency, can occur with invasion of tumor into the epidural space. The nurse will need to assess the patient further for symptoms such as decreased leg sensation and strength and then notify the health care provider. Administration of opioids or use of relaxation may be appropriate but only after the nurse has assessed for possible spinal cord compression

The nurse administers an IV vesicant chemotherapeutic agent to a patient. Which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Infuse the medication over a short period of time. b. Stop the infusion if swelling is observed at the site. c. Administer the chemotherapy through a small-bore catheter. d. Hold the medication unless a central venous line is available.

ANS: B Swelling at the site may indicate extravasation, and the IV should be stopped immediately. The medication generally should be given slowly to avoid irritation of the vein. The size of the catheter is not as important as administration of vesicants into a running IV line to allow dilution of the chemotherapeutic drug. These medications can be given through peripheral lines, although central vascular access devices (CVADs) are preferred

The nurse completing a physical assessment for a newly admitted male patient is unable to feel either kidney on palpation. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Obtain a urine specimen to check for hematuria. b. Document the information on the assessment form. c. Ask the patient about any history of recent sore throat. d. Ask the health care provider about scheduling a renal ultrasound.

ANS: B The kidneys are protected by the abdominal organs, ribs, and muscles of the back, and may not be palpable under normal circumstances, so no action except to document the assessment information is needed. Asking about a recent sore throat, checking for hematuria, or obtaining a renal ultrasound may be appropriate when assessing for renal problems for some patients, but there is nothing in the question stem to indicate that they are appropriate for this patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1055 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which assessment finding for a patient who has just been admitted with acute pyelonephritis is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Complaint of flank pain b. Blood pressure 90/48 mm Hg c. Cloudy and foul-smelling urine d. Temperature 100.1° F (57.8° C)

ANS: B The low blood pressure indicates that urosepsis and septic shock may be occurring and should be immediately reported. The other findings are typical of pyelonephritis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1069 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A 79-year-old man has been admitted with benign prostatic hyperplasia. What is most appropriate to include in the nursing plan of care? a. Limit fluid intake to no more than 1000 mL/day. b. Leave a light on in the bathroom during the night. c. Ask the patient to use a urinal so that urine can be measured. d. Pad the patient's bed to accommodate overflow incontinence.

ANS: B The patient's age and diagnosis indicate a likelihood of nocturia, so leaving the light on in the bathroom is appropriate. Fluids should be encouraged because dehydration is more common in older patients. The information in the question does not indicate that measurement of the patient's output is necessary or that the patient has overflow incontinence. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1050-1051 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient who had surgery for creation of an ileal conduit 3 days ago will not look at the stoma and requests that only the ostomy nurse specialist does the stoma care. The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of a. anxiety related to effects of procedure on lifestyle. b. disturbed body image related to change in function. c. readiness for enhanced coping related to need for information. d. self-care deficit, toileting, related to denial of altered body function.

ANS: B The patient's unwillingness to look at the stoma or participate in care indicates that disturbed body image is the best diagnosis. No data suggest that the impact on lifestyle is a concern for the patient. The patient does not appear to be ready for enhanced coping. The patient's insistence that only the ostomy nurse care for the stoma indicates that denial is not present. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1098 TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

A female patient with a suspected urinary tract infection (UTI) is to provide a clean-catch urine specimen for culture and sensitivity testing. To obtain the specimen, the nurse will a. have the patient empty the bladder completely, then obtain the next urine specimen that the patient is able to void. b. teach the patient to clean the urethral area, void a small amount into the toilet, and then void into a sterile specimen cup. c. insert a short sterile "mini" catheter attached to a collecting container into the urethra and bladder to obtain the specimen. d. clean the area around the meatus with a povidone-iodine (Betadine) swab, and then have the patient void into a sterile container.

ANS: B This answer describes the technique for obtaining a clean-catch specimen. The answer beginning, "insert a short, small, 'mini' catheter attached to a collecting container" describes a technique that would result in a sterile specimen, but a health care provider's order for a catheterized specimen would be required. Using Betadine before obtaining the specimen is not necessary, and might result in suppressing the growth of some bacteria. The technique described in the answer beginning "have the patient empty the bladder completely" would not result in a sterile specimen. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1057 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient with Hodgkin's lymphoma who is undergoing external radiation therapy tells the nurse, "I am so tired I can hardly get out of bed in the morning." Which intervention should the nurse add to the plan of care? a. Minimize activity until the treatment is completed. b. Establish time to take a short walk almost every day. c. Consult with a psychiatrist for treatment of depression. d. Arrange for delivery of a hospital bed to the patient's home.

ANS: B Walking programs are used to keep the patient active without excessive fatigue. Having a hospital bed does not necessarily address the fatigue. The better option is to stay as active as possible while combating fatigue. Fatigue is expected during treatment and is not an indication of depression. Minimizing activity may lead to weakness and other complications of immobility

A male patient in the clinic provides a urine sample that is red-orange in color. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the patient's health care provider. b. Teach correct midstream urine collection. c. Ask the patient about current medications. d. Question the patient about urinary tract infection (UTI) risk factors.

ANS: C A red-orange color in the urine is normal with some over-the-counter (OTC) medications such as phenazopyridine (Pyridium). The color would not be expected with urinary tract infection, is not a sign that poor technique was used in obtaining the specimen, and does not need to be communicated to the health care provider until further assessment is done. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1052 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Following rectal surgery, a patient voids about 50 mL of urine every 30 to 60 minutes for the first 4 hours. Which nursing action is most appropriate? a. Monitor the patient's intake and output over night. b. Have the patient drink small amounts of fluid frequently. c. Use an ultrasound scanner to check the postvoiding residual volume. d. Reassure the patient that this is normal after rectal surgery because of anesthesia.

ANS: C An ultrasound scanner can be used to check for residual urine after the patient voids. Because the patient's history and clinical manifestations are consistent with overflow incontinence, it is not appropriate to have the patient drink small amounts. Although overflow incontinence is not unusual after surgery, the nurse should intervene to correct the physiologic problem, not just reassure the patient. The patient may develop reflux into the renal pelvis and discomfort from a full bladder if the nurse waits to address the problem for several hours. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1088 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A 28-year-old male patient is diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease. Which information is most appropriate for the nurse to include in teaching at this time? a. Complications of renal transplantation b. Methods for treating severe chronic pain c. Discussion of options for genetic counseling d. Differences between hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis

ANS: C Because a 28-year-old patient may be considering having children, the nurse should include information about genetic counseling when teaching the patient. The well-managed patient will not need to choose between hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis or know about the effects of transplantation for many years. There is no indication that the patient has chronic pain. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1083 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Nursing staff on a hospital unit are reviewing rates of hospital-acquired infections (HAI) of the urinary tract. Which nursing action will be most helpful in decreasing the risk for HAI in patients admitted to the hospital? a. Encouraging adequate oral fluid intake b. Testing urine with a dipstick daily for nitrites c. Avoiding unnecessary urinary catheterizations d. Providing frequent perineal hygiene to patients

ANS: C Because catheterization bypasses many of the protective mechanisms that prevent urinary tract infection (UTI), avoidance of catheterization is the most effective means of reducing HAI. The other actions will also be helpful, but are not as useful as decreasing urinary catheter use. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1068 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse assesses a patient who is receiving interleukin-2. Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. Generalized muscle aches b. Complaints of nausea and anorexia c. Oral temperature of 100.6° F (38.1° C) d. Crackles heard at the lower scapular border

ANS: D Capillary leak syndrome and acute pulmonary edema are possible toxic effects of interleukin-2. The patient may need oxygen and the nurse should rapidly notify the health care provider. The other findings are common side effects of interleukin-2.

A 46-year-old female patient returns to the clinic with recurrent dysuria after being treated with trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) for 3 days. Which action will the nurse plan to take? a. Teach the patient to take the prescribed Bactrim for 3 more days. b. Remind the patient about the need to drink 1000 mL of fluids daily. c. Obtain a midstream urine specimen for culture and sensitivity testing. d. Suggest that the patient use acetaminophen (Tylenol) to treat the symptoms.

ANS: C Because uncomplicated urinary tract infections (UTIs) are usually successfully treated with 3 days of antibiotic therapy, this patient will need a urine culture and sensitivity to determine appropriate antibiotic therapy. Acetaminophen would not be as effective as other over-the-counter (OTC) medications such as phenazopyridine (Pyridium) in treating dysuria. The fluid intake should be increased to at least 1800 mL/day. Because the UTI has persisted after treatment with Bactrim, the patient is likely to need a different antibiotic. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1067 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which information from a patient who had a transurethral resection with fulguration for bladder cancer 3 days ago is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient is voiding every 4 hours. b. The patient is using opioids for pain. c. The patient has seen clots in the urine. d. The patient is anxious about the cancer.

ANS: C Clots in the urine are not expected and require further follow-up. Voiding every 4 hours, use of opioids for pain, and anxiety are typical after this procedure. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1086 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse will anticipate teaching a patient with nephrotic syndrome who develops flank pain about treatment with a. antibiotics. b. antifungals. c. anticoagulants. d. antihypertensives.

ANS: C Flank pain in a patient with nephrotic syndrome suggests a renal vein thrombosis, and anticoagulation is needed. Antibiotics are used to treat a patient with flank pain caused by pyelonephritis. Fungal pyelonephritis is uncommon and is treated with antifungals. Antihypertensives are used if the patient has high blood pressure. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1082 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient who has severe pain associated with terminal pancreatic cancer is being cared for at home by family members. Which finding by the nurse indicates that teaching regarding pain management has been effective? a. The patient uses the ordered opioid pain medication whenever the pain is greater than 5 (0 to 10 scale). b. The patient agrees to take the medications by the IV route in order to improve analgesic effectiveness. c. The patient takes opioids around the clock on a regular schedule and uses additional doses when breakthrough pain occurs. d. The patient states that nonopioid analgesics may be used when the maximal dose of the opioid is reached without adequate pain relief.

ANS: C For chronic cancer pain, analgesics should be taken on a scheduled basis, with additional doses as needed for breakthrough pain. Taking the medications only when pain reaches a certain level does not provide effective pain control. Although nonopioid analgesics also may be used, there is no maximum dose of opioid. Opioids are given until pain control is achieved. The IV route is not more effective than the oral route, and usually the oral route is preferred

The nurse determines that further instruction is needed for a patient with interstitial cystitis when the patient says which of the following? a. "I should stop having coffee and orange juice for breakfast." b. "I will buy calcium glycerophosphate (Prelief) at the pharmacy." c. "I will start taking high potency multiple vitamins every morning." d. "I should call the doctor about increased bladder pain or odorous urine."

ANS: C High-potency multiple vitamins may irritate the bladder and increase symptoms. The other patient statements indicate good understanding of the teaching. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1072 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient passing bloody urine is scheduled for a cystoscopy with cystogram. Which description of the procedure by the nurse is accurate? a. "Your doctor will place a catheter into an artery in your groin and inject a dye that will visualize the blood supply to the kidneys." b. "Your doctor will insert a lighted tube into the bladder, and little catheters will be inserted through the tube into your kidney." c. "Your doctor will insert a lighted tube into the bladder through your urethra, inspect the bladder, and instill a dye that will outline your bladder on x-ray." d. "Your doctor will inject a radioactive solution into a vein in your arm and the distribution of the isotope in your kidneys and bladder will be checked."

ANS: C In a cystoscope and cystogram procedure, a cystoscope is inserted into the bladder for direct visualization, and then contrast solution is injected through the scope so that x-rays can be taken. The response beginning, "Your doctor will place a catheter" describes a renal arteriogram procedure. The response beginning, "Your doctor will inject a radioactive solution" describes a nuclear scan. The response beginning, "Your doctor will insert a lighted tube into the bladder, and little catheters will be inserted" describes a retrograde pyelogram. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1059 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with stage I cancer of the colon. When assessing the need for psychologic support, which question by the nurse will provide the most information? a. "How long ago were you diagnosed with this cancer?" b. "Do you have any concerns about body image changes?" c. "Can you tell me what has been helpful to you in the past when coping with stressful events?" d. "Are you familiar with the stages of emotional adjustment to a diagnosis like cancer of the colon?"

ANS: C Information about how the patient has coped with past stressful situations helps the nurse determine usual coping mechanisms and their effectiveness. The length of time since the diagnosis will not provide much information about the patient's need for support. The patient's knowledge of typical stages in adjustment to a critical diagnosis does not provide insight into patient needs for assistance. Because surgical interventions for stage I cancer of the colon may not cause any body image changes, this question is not appropriate at this time

When a patient's urine dipstick test indicates a small amount of protein, the nurse's next action should be to a. send a urine specimen to the laboratory to test for ketones. b. obtain a clean-catch urine for culture and sensitivity testing. c. inquire about which medications the patient is currently taking. d. ask the patient about any family history of chronic renal failure.

ANS: C Normally the urinalysis will show zero to trace amounts of protein, but some medications may give false-positive readings. The other actions by the nurse may be appropriate, but checking for medications that may affect the dipstick accuracy should be done first. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1057 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The home health nurse teaches a patient with a neurogenic bladder how to use intermittent catheterization for bladder emptying. Which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "I will buy seven new catheters weekly and use a new one every day." b. "I will use a sterile catheter and gloves for each time I self-catheterize." c. "I will clean the catheter carefully before and after each catheterization." d. "I will need to take prophylactic antibiotics to prevent any urinary tract infections."

ANS: C Patients who are at home can use a clean technique for intermittent self-catheterization and change the catheter every 7 days. There is no need to use a new catheter every day, to use sterile catheters, or to take prophylactic antibiotics. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1094 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

External-beam radiation is planned for a patient with cervical cancer. What instructions should the nurse give to the patient to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation? a. Test all stools for the presence of blood. b. Maintain a high-residue, high-fiber diet. c. Clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement. d. Inspect the mouth and throat daily for the appearance of thrush.

ANS: C Radiation to the abdomen will affect organs in the radiation path, such as the bowel, and cause frequent diarrhea. Careful cleaning of this area will help decrease the risk for skin breakdown and infection. Stools are likely to have occult blood from the inflammation associated with radiation, so routine testing of stools for blood is not indicated. Radiation to the abdomen will not cause stomatitis. A low-residue diet is recommended to avoid irritation of the bowel when patients receive abdominal radiation.

The nurse is caring for a patient with left-sided lung cancer. Which finding would be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit 32% b. Pain with deep inspiration c. Serum sodium 126 mEq/L d. Decreased breath sounds on left side

ANS: C Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (and the resulting hyponatremia) is an oncologic metabolic emergency and will require rapid treatment in order to prevent complications such as seizures and coma. The other findings also require intervention, but are common in patients with lung cancer and not immediately life threatening

The nurse is caring for a patient who smokes 2 packs/day. To reduce the patient's risk of lung cancer, which action by the nurse is best? a. Teach the patient about the seven warning signs of cancer. b. Plan to monitor the patient's carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level. c. Discuss the risks associated with cigarettes during every patient encounter. d. Teach the patient about the use of annual chest x-rays for lung cancer screening.

ANS: C Teaching about the risks associated with cigarette smoking is recommended at every patient encounter because cigarette smoking is associated with multiple health problems. A tumor must be at least 0.5 cm large before it is detectable by current screening methods and may already have metastasized by that time. Oncofetal antigens such as CEA may be used to monitor therapy or detect tumor reoccurrence, but are not helpful in screening for cancer. The seven warning signs of cancer are actually associated with fairly advanced disease

After change-of-shift report on the oncology unit, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient who has a platelet count of 82,000/µL after chemotherapy b. Patient who has xerostomia after receiving head and neck radiation c. Patient who is neutropenic and has a temperature of 100.5° F (38.1° C) d. Patient who is worried about getting the prescribed long-acting opioid on time

ANS: C Temperature elevation is an emergency in neutropenic patients because of the risk for rapid progression to severe infections and sepsis. The other patients also require assessments or interventions, but do not need to be assessed as urgently. Patients with thrombocytopenia do not have spontaneous bleeding until the platelets are 20,000/µL. Xerostomia does not require immediate intervention. Although breakthrough pain needs to be addressed rapidly, the patient does not appear to have breakthrough pain

A 68-year-old male patient who has bladder cancer had a cystectomy with creation of an Indiana pouch. Which topic will be included in patient teaching? a. Application of ostomy appliances b. Barrier products for skin protection c. Catheterization technique and schedule d. Analgesic use before emptying the pouch

ANS: C The Indiana pouch enables the patient to self-catheterize every 4 to 6 hours. There is no need for an ostomy device or barrier products. Catheterization of the pouch is not painful. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1097 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

After a ureterolithotomy, a female patient has a left ureteral catheter and a urethral catheter in place. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Provide teaching about home care for both catheters. b. Apply continuous steady tension to the ureteral catheter. c. Call the health care provider if the ureteral catheter output drops suddenly. d. Clamp the ureteral catheter off when output from the urethral catheter stops.

ANS: C The health care provider should be notified if the ureteral catheter output decreases because obstruction of this catheter may result in an increase in pressure in the renal pelvis. Tension on the ureteral catheter should be avoided in order to prevent catheter displacement. To avoid pressure in the renal pelvis, the catheter is not clamped. Because the patient is not usually discharged with a ureteral catheter in place, patient teaching about both catheters is not needed. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1093-1095 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which information from a patient's urinalysis requires that the nurse notify the health care provider? a. pH 6.2 b. Trace protein c. WBC 20 to 26/hpf d. Specific gravity 1.021

ANS: C The increased number of white blood cells (WBCs) indicates the presence of urinary tract infection or inflammation. The other findings are normal. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1062 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient who is scheduled for a right breast biopsy asks the nurse the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. Which answer by the nurse is correct? a. "Benign tumors do not cause damage to other tissues." b. "Benign tumors are likely to recur in the same location." c. "Malignant tumors may spread to other tissues or organs." d. "Malignant cells reproduce more rapidly than normal cells."

ANS: C The major difference between benign and malignant tumors is that malignant tumors invade adjacent tissues and spread to distant tissues and benign tumors never metastasize. The other statements are inaccurate. Both types of tumors may cause damage to adjacent tissues. Malignant cells do not reproduce more rapidly than normal cells. Benign tumors do not usually recur

During the teaching session for a patient who has a new diagnosis of acute leukemia the patient is restless and is looking away, never making eye contact. After teaching about the complications associated with chemotherapy, the patient asks the nurse to repeat all of the information. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the patient? a. Risk for ineffective adherence to treatment related to denial of need for chemotherapy b. Acute confusion related to infiltration of leukemia cells into the central nervous system c. Risk for ineffective health maintenance related to anxiety about new leukemia diagnosis d. Deficient knowledge: chemotherapy related to a lack of interest in learning about treatment

ANS: C The patient who has a new cancer diagnosis is likely to have high anxiety, which may impact learning and require that the nurse repeat and reinforce information. The patient's history of a recent diagnosis suggests that infiltration of the leukemia is not a likely cause of the confusion. The patient asks for the information to be repeated, indicating that lack of interest in learning and denial are not etiologic factors

When preparing a female patient with bladder cancer for intravesical chemotherapy, the nurse will teach about a. premedicating to prevent nausea. b. obtaining wigs and scarves to wear. c. emptying the bladder before the medication. d. maintaining oral care during the treatments.

ANS: C The patient will be asked to empty the bladder before instillation of the chemotherapy. Systemic side effects are not usually experienced with intravesical chemotherapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1086 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient with cancer has a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to altered taste sensation. Which nursing action is most appropriate? a. Add strained baby meats to foods such as casseroles. b. Teach the patient about foods that are high in nutrition. c. Avoid giving the patient foods that are strongly disliked. d. Add extra spice to enhance the flavor of foods that are served.

ANS: C The patient will eat more if disliked foods are avoided and foods that the patient likes are included instead. Additional spice is not usually an effective way to enhance taste. Adding baby meats to foods will increase calorie and protein levels, but does not address the issue of taste. The patient's poor intake is not caused by a lack of information about nutrition

A patient with metastatic cancer of the colon experiences severe vomiting following each administration of chemotherapy. Which action, if taken by the nurse, is most appropriate? a. Have the patient eat large meals when nausea is not present. b. Offer dry crackers and carbonated fluids during chemotherapy. c. Administer prescribed antiemetics 1 hour before the treatments. d. Give the patient two ounces of a citrus fruit beverage during treatments.

ANS: C Treatment with antiemetics before chemotherapy may help prevent nausea. The patient should eat small, frequent meals. Offering food and beverages during chemotherapy is likely to cause nausea. The acidity of citrus fruits may be further irritating to the stomach

Which nursing action is essential for a patient immediately after a renal biopsy? a. Check blood glucose to assess for hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. b. Insert a urinary catheter and test urine for gross or microscopic hematuria. c. Monitor the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine to assess renal function. d. Apply a pressure dressing and keep the patient on the affected side for 30 minutes.

ANS: D A pressure dressing is applied and the patient is kept on the affected side for 30 to 60 minutes to put pressure on the biopsy side and decrease the risk for bleeding. The blood glucose and BUN/creatinine will not be affected by the biopsy. Although monitoring for hematuria is needed, there is no need for catheterization. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1061 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which finding for a patient admitted with glomerulonephritis indicates to the nurse that treatment has been effective? a. The patient denies pain with voiding. b. The urine dipstick is negative for nitrites. c. The antistreptolysin-O (ASO) titer is decreased. d. The periorbital and peripheral edema is resolved.

ANS: D Because edema is a common clinical manifestation of glomerulonephritis, resolution of the edema indicates that the prescribed therapies have been effective. Nitrites will be negative and the patient will not experience dysuria because the patient does not have a urinary tract infection. Antibodies to streptococcus will persist after a streptococcal infection. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1074 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which assessment finding is most important to report to the health care provider regarding a patient who has had left-sided extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy? a. Blood in urine b. Left flank bruising c. Left flank discomfort d. Decreased urine output

ANS: D Because lithotripsy breaks the stone into small sand, which could cause obstruction, it is important to report a drop in urine output. Left flank pain, bruising, and hematuria are common after lithotripsy.

A patient has been assigned the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to painful oral ulcers. Which nursing action will be most effective in improving oral intake? a. Offer the patient frequent small snacks between meals. b. Assist the patient to choose favorite foods from the menu. c. Provide teaching about the importance of nutritional intake. d. Apply the ordered anesthetic gel to oral lesions before meals.

ANS: D Because the etiology of the patient's poor nutrition is the painful oral ulcers, the best intervention is to apply anesthetic gel to the lesions before the patient eats. The other actions might be helpful for other patients with impaired nutrition, but would not be as helpful for this patient

A 68-year-old female patient admitted to the hospital with dehydration is confused and incontinent of urine. Which nursing action will be best to include in the plan of care? a. Restrict fluids between meals and after the evening meal. b. Apply absorbent incontinent pads liberally over the bed linens. c. Insert an indwelling catheter until the symptoms have resolved. d. Assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours during the day.

ANS: D In older or confused patients, incontinence may be avoided by using scheduled toileting times. Indwelling catheters increase the risk for urinary tract infection (UTI). Incontinent pads increase the risk for skin breakdown. Restricting fluids is not appropriate in a patient with dehydration. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1089 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A 55-year-old woman admitted for shoulder surgery asks the nurse for a perineal pad, stating that laughing or coughing causes leakage of urine. Which intervention is most appropriate to include in the care plan? a. Assist the patient to the bathroom q3hr. b. Place a commode at the patient's bedside. c. Demonstrate how to perform the Credé maneuver. d. Teach the patient how to perform Kegel exercises.

ANS: D Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles will help reduce stress incontinence. The Credé maneuver is used to help empty the bladder for patients with overflow incontinence. Placing the commode close to the bedside and assisting the patient to the bathroom are helpful for functional incontinence. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1089 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

When working in the urology/nephrology clinic, which patient could the nurse delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Patient who is scheduled for a renal biopsy after a recent kidney transplant b. Patient who will need monitoring for several hours after a renal arteriogram c. Patient who requires teaching about possible post-cystoscopy complications d. Patient who will have catheterization to check for residual urine after voiding

ANS: D LPN/LVN education includes common procedures such as catheterization of stable patients. The other patients require more complex assessments and/or patient teaching that are included in registered nurse (RN) education and scope of practice. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 15-16 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation; Multiple Patients TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

An older adult patient who has colorectal cancer is receiving IV fluids at 175 mL/hour in conjunction with the prescribed chemotherapy. Which finding by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Patient complains of severe fatigue. b. Patient needs to void every hour during the day. c. Patient takes only 50% of meals and refuses snacks. d. Patient has audible crackles to the midline posterior chest.

ANS: D Rapid fluid infusions may cause heart failure, especially in older patients. The other findings are common in patients who have cancer and/or are receiving chemotherapy

A patient who has ovarian cancer is crying and tells the nurse, "My husband rarely visits. He just doesn't care." The husband indicates to the nurse that he never knows what to say to help his wife. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the nurse to add to the plan of care? a. Compromised family coping related to disruption in lifestyle b. Impaired home maintenance related to perceived role changes c. Risk for caregiver role strain related to burdens of caregiving responsibilities d. Dysfunctional family processes related to effect of illness on family members

ANS: D The data indicate that this diagnosis is most appropriate because poor communication among the family members is affecting family processes. No data suggest a change in lifestyle or its role as an etiology. The data do not support impairment in home maintenance or a burden caused by caregiving responsibilities

A patient with leukemia is considering whether to have hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). The nurse will include which information in the patient's teaching plan? a. Transplant of the donated cells is painful because of the nerves in the tissue lining the bone. b. Donor bone marrow cells are transplanted through an incision into the sternum or hip bone. c. The transplant procedure takes place in a sterile operating room to minimize the risk for infection. d. Hospitalization will be required for several weeks after the stem cell transplant procedure is performed.

ANS: D The patient requires strict protective isolation to prevent infection for 2 to 4 weeks after HSCT while waiting for the transplanted marrow to start producing cells. The transplanted cells are infused through an IV line, so the transplant is not painful, nor is an operating room or incision required

A patient receiving head and neck radiation for larynx cancer has ulcerations over the oral mucosa and tongue and thick, ropey saliva. Which instructions should the nurse give to this patient? a. Remove food debris from the teeth and oral mucosa with a stiff toothbrush. b. Use cotton-tipped applicators dipped in hydrogen peroxide to clean the teeth. c. Gargle and rinse the mouth several times a day with an antiseptic mouthwash. d. Rinse the mouth before and after each meal and at bedtime with a saline solution.

ANS: D The patient should rinse the mouth with a saline solution frequently. A soft toothbrush is used for oral care. Hydrogen peroxide may damage tissues. Antiseptic mouthwashes may irritate the oral mucosa and are not recommended