Anatomy
where are the fusion of the ilium, ischium, and pubic bone visible
acetabulum
what does the posterior superior iliac spine form
back dimples
The ______ layer of the epidermis is where the we can see the highest rate of cell proliferation.
basale
what are the structural levels of organization?
chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, organ systems, organismal
which bones have a coronoid process
mandible and ulna
what bones form the sternum
manubrium, body, xiphoid process
fibula
smaller lateral bone. articulates with tibia at both ends. it is support for the tibia
what tissue is this
smooth muscle tissue
dark areas on an x ray correspond with
soft tissues
what is a true pelvis
space below the pelvic brim
Layers of integumentary system
Skin: Epidermis, Dermis Hypodermis
What is the false pelvis?
Space above the pelvic brim
what number is pollox
1
How many thoracic vertebrae are there?
12
thoracic vertebrae
12
When do long bones stop growing?
15-23 yrs
how many floating ribs are there
2 (14-15)
how many fused bones form the coccyx
4
coccyx
4 fused
How many lumbar vertebrae are there?
5
lumbar vertebrae
5
how many false ribs are there
5 (8-13)
Sacrum
5 fused
sacrum
5 fused vertebrae
cervical vertebrae
7
how many cervical vertebrae
7
how many true ribs are there
7 (1-7)
Neighboring epithelial cells can be joined together by: Gap junctions Desmosomes All of these can join neighboring epithelial cells Tight junctions
All of these can join neighboring epithelial cells
subclavian groove
Allows for passage of subclavian artery. Found on the superior side of the 1st rib about midway
desmosomes
Anchoring junctions that prevent cells from being pulled apart
The vertebra prominens gets its name because of the same kind of bony projection from Question 1. Which vertebra is also called vertebra prominens?
C7
what does the labrum do
Deepens the hip socket, decreases friction between two bones, add stability
Perichondrium
Dense irregular connective tissue membrane covering cartilage
bones of the orbit
Frontal, zygomatic, sphenoid, ethmoid, lacrimal, maxillae
sacral apex
Inferior portion of the sacrum
tight junctions
Membranes of neighboring cells are pressed together, preventing leakage of extracellular fluid
epiphysial fracture
Separation of the epiphysis of a long bone
sacral promontory
Where the first sacral vertebrae bulges into pelvic cavity
A Computerized Axial Tomography (CAT) scan uses _______________ energy.
X-ray
Looking at an adipocyte from white fat, we can see that the majority of cell is occupied by:
a lipid droplet
axis function
allows head to rotate
Hemidesmosomes
anchor cells to the basement membrane
name the three cranial fossa
anterior, middle, posterior
A "plane" in anatomical terminology is:
any flat surface through which an individual is viewed
Stratified epithelia often contain cells of varying shapes. By convention, we name a stratified epithelium by the shape of the cells on the _______ surface of the stack of cells.
apical
epithelial polarity
apical (free) and basal surfaces (supported by connective tissue)
On a hot Summer day, what type of secretion would a sweat gland from your armpit most likely be secreting?
apocrine
This type of loose connective tissue underlies almost all epithelia in the body, and it surrounds almost all small nerves and vessels.
areolar
Which type of connective tissue is considered "a model" of the general connective tissue structure?
areolar
loose connective types
areolar, adipose, reticular
The anatomical term "axillary" refers to the:
armpit
apocrine sweat glands
armpits, anal, genital areas lead to normal body odor
what is C1
atlas
anterior longitudinal ligament
attaches to the body of the vertebrae and intervertebral discs. prevents hyperextension
posterior longitudinal ligament
attaches to the intervertebral discs. prevents hyperflexion
what is C2
axis
4 major parts of sphenoid bone
body, lesser wings, greater wings, ptergoid process
greenstick fracture
bone breaks incompletely
describe steps of endochondral ossification
bone collar forms around diaphysis. blood vessels invade and convert perichondrium to periosteum. chondrocytes create a strip where they die and calcify. periosteal bud invades and outside cartilage continues to grow. diaphysis elongates and epiphysi calcify
comminuted fracture
bone fragments into three or more pieces
spiral fracture
bone has been twisted apart
compression fracture
bone is crushed
bone appositional growth
bones grow wider
Serosal membranes surround all of the following organs except: the heart the lungs the brain the intestines
brain
cardiac muscle tissue characteristics
branching at the intercalated discs. one nucleus cells
depressed fracture
broken bone portion is pressed inward
heel bone
calcaneus
osseous tissue characteristics
calcified matrix with many collagen fibers
what tissue is this
cardiac muscle tissue
proliferation zone
cartilage cells undergo mitosis
Microvilli and cilia are both extensions of the cell membranes of particular types of epithelial cells. Which one of them actively moves back and forth (for example, to move mucus up the respiratory tract)?
cilia
stratum lucidum
clear layer. only present in thick skin. dead keratinocytes
Reticular fibers in connective tissues are most closely related to:
collagen fibers
hyaline cartilage characteristics
collagen fibers are matrix. formed by chondrocytes
cauda equina
collection of spinal nerves below the end of the spinal cord
characteristics of connective tissue
common origin, degrees of vascularity, extracellular matrix
the pelvic girdle is a __________ bony ring
complete, attaching to sacrum
What type of fracture would most likely happen as a consequence of osteoporosis?
compression
dermis
connective tissue proper with lots of blood vessels and nerves.papillary and dermis
classification of connective tissue
connective tissue proper, cartilage, bone, and blood
what makes a true rib
connects directly to sternum via its own costal cartilage
ligamentum flavum
connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae
what makes it a false rib
connects to another rib costal cartilge
what landmark orients the clavicle
conoid tubercle - points inferioposteriorly
sacral canal
continuation of vertebral canal - contains cauda equina
What are the 4 sutures of the skull?
coronal, sagittal, squamous, lambdoidal
Epithelial tissue
covers outside of the body and lines organs and cavities as lining or glands
what are the two groupings of skull bones
cranial and facial
what are the major body cavities
cranial, vertebral, thoracic, abdominal, pelvic,
cartilage function
cushions by resisting tension
Osteogenesis ___________ as we age.
decreases
stratum basale
deepest layer of epidermis. contains stem, merkel, and melanocytes cells
reticular dermis
dense irregular connective tissue with collagen and elastic fibers. make up cleavage and flexion lines
what tissue is this
dense irregular elastic connective tissue
what tissue is this
dense regular connective tissue
light areas on x ray correspond to
dense tissues
For long bones to grow longer, where is the newly formed bone matrix deposited at?
diaphyses
Which type of microscope provides the lowest magnification?
dissecting
three types of microscopes
dissecting, compound/digital , florescence microscopy
Artifacts are ________ in anatomical images.
distortions
name the cranial bones
frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, ethmoid, mandible, maxillary,
What type of cell-cell connection allows the exchange of small molecules between two neighboring cells?
gap junctions
what type of connection do canaliculi use
gap junctions
fontanelles
gaps of unfused sutures
types of sweat glands
eccrine(non erupting) and apocrine(partial erupting)
Epidermis derives from
ectoderm
epithelial tissue develops from
ectoderm
what tissue is this
elastic cartilage
A carcinoma is any cancer that arises from __________ tissue.
epithelial
describe how an exocrine gland is formed
epithelial cells grow and push into underlying tissue. A cord of epithelial cells forms. The lumen forms; inner cells form the duct and the outer cells produce secretion.
describe how an endocrine gland is formed
epithelial cells grow and push into underlying tissue. a cord of epithelial cells forms. the connecting cells atrophy and are cut off from epithelial surface
endocrine gland
epithelial tissue that releases hormones into blood
The only bone that would not appear on a lateral view of an intact skull would be the:
ethmoid
Which bone(s) form(s) the nasal septum?
ethmoid and vomer
elastic cartilage location
external ear, epiglottis
What are the two main components of tissues?
extracellular matrix, cells
Endocrine glands contain ducts true or false
false
name 2 sexual dimorphisms between male and female pelvises
female: tilted forwards to birth children, wider male: narrow, thicker bones
Compared to a similar volume of epithelial tissue, connective tissue has many ________ cells and much ______ extracellular matrix.
fewer, more
What are the two main components of the extracellular matrix?
fibers and ground substance
What type of cartilage can we find in the pubic symphysis?
fibrocartilage
what tissue is this
fibrocartilage
function/location of loose connective tissue proper reticular
form stroma that support other cell types. found in lymphoid organs (lymph nodes, bone marrow, and spleen)
location and function of transitional epithelium
found in the bladder. very stretchy so the cells are fully flattened when the organ is stretched
areolar loose connective tissue proper
gel matrix with all three fiber types, fibroblasts, macrophages, mast cells, and white blood cells
what does a thoracic vertebra look like
giraffe
stratum granulosum
grainy layer. flattened dying keratinocytes
appositional growth
grow bigger on edges - added by chondroblasts
interstitial growth
grow from within - chondrocytes divide to add more
"Manus" is the anatomical terms for the:
hand
central canal
haversian canal carries artery vein and nerve
The mediastinum of the body contains the:
heart
bone repair process
hematoma forms. fibrocartilaginous callus forms, bony callus forms, bone remodeling occurs
dense elastic connective tissue proper characteristics
high proportion of elastic fibers (looks scrunchy)
dense elastic connective tissue proper functions/locations
high recoil ability following stretching. found in large arteries!!! and within walls of bronchial tubes
stratum corneum
horny. made of dead keratinocytes and highly connected by desmosomes
The deltoid muscle attaches to the:
humerus
costal cartilage is made of
hyaline cartilage
endochondral ossification
hyaline cartilage turns to bones of limbs, vertebral column, ribcage, and facial bones
cartilage types
hyaline, elastic, fibrocartilage
sacral hiatus
inferior opening of the sacral canal
pelvic outlet
inferior opening of the true pelvis
endosteum
inner layer of connective tissue in bone
what are all but 2 vertebrae separated by?
intervertebral discs
fibrocartilage locations
intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis, discs of knee joint
dense irregular connective tissue characteristics
irregular arranged collagen fibers. fibroblast is major cell type. very strong because of many planes of fibers
orient the fibula with a landmark
malleolus is lateral
When we sit, our weight is now mostly supported by the:
ischium
nail
keratinized layers of epidermis
in anatomical position, where is the radius in the arm
lateral side
which side of the bone has more collagen?
lateral side
stratified cuboidal epithelium
layers of cuboidal cells. found in large ducts (sweat, mammary, salivary) and used for protection
why is the repair of cartilage more unlikely as we leave the womb?
less blood supply, chondroblasts have matured, damaged cartilage is mostly replaced with fibrocartilage
What is the fovea capitis?
ligament that attaches acetabulum to head of femur
All of the following vertebral structures are anterior to the spinal cord except the: vertebral bodies anterior longitudinal ligament intervertebral disks ligamentum flavum posterior longitudinal ligament
ligamentum flavum
lunule
little moon
nail bed
living layers of epidermis
skeletal muscle characteristics
long, cylindrical, multiple nucleus cells; obvious striations
Adipose tissue is a type of ________ connective tissue.
loose
connective tissue proper classifications
loose connective and dense connective
what is this tissue
loose connective tissue proper reticular
CAT scan
lots of X rays integrated into a 3D image
which part of the vertebral column is convex
lumbar
eccrine sweat glands
main function is cooling
elastic cartilage functions/locations
maintain structure shape found in ear and epiglottis
what are the 5 sinuses of the skull
mastoid, sphenoidal, ethmoid, nasal, maxillary
calcification zone
matrix becomes calcified, cartilage cells die and matrix deteriorates
functions of the integumentary system (4)
mechanical protection, waterproofing, UV protection, temp regulation, excretion
tibia
medial bone that participates in knee and ankle movements
which arch is responsible for the missing area of a footprint
medial longitudinal arch
three arches of the foot
medial longitudinal arch, transverse arch, lateral longitudinal arch
hair shaft layers
medulla, cortex, cuticle
parietal serosa
membrane faces the body wall
visceral serosa
membrane that faces the organs
what is the fetal skeleton made of
mesenchyme and hyaline cartilage
intramembranous ossification
mesenchyme turns to the flat bones of skull, mandible, and clavicles
where does the dermis originate from
mesoderm
where is connective tissue derived from
mesoderm - mesenchyme
PET scan
method of imaging using positron emissions
dens
modified body of C1 that is what the skull rotates on
what does a lumbar vertebra look like
moose
Compared to epithelial tissue, an equal volume of connective tissue would have:
more blood cells
elastic cartilage characteristics
more elastic fibers in the matrix
hyaline cartilage forms
most of the fetal skeleton
smooth muscle tissue function/locations
movement of substances along passageways. found along digestive system and in walls of hollow organs
What type(s) of tissue originate(s) from mesenchyme?
muscle, connective, blood
Epithelial tissue contains which one of the following?
nerves
nervous tissue cell types
neurons and neuroglia
ossification zone
new bone forms
papillary dermis
nipple like. areolar connective tissue beneath epidermis
smooth muscle characteristics
no striations. single nucleus in layered cells. involuntary
location and function of pseudostratified columnar
non-ciliated in sperm ducts. ciliated lines trachea and upper respiratory tract. function is secreting and moving mucus
hypertrophic zone
older cartilage cells enlarge
muscle tissue types
skeletal, cardiac, smooth
the nucleus pulposus is the
only remaining part of the notochord
is the pectoral girdle open or closed
open - incomplete bony ring attached to sternum
5 major paired openings of sphenoid bone
optic canal, superior orbital fissure, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum
The foramen rotundum is just lateral to the _________.
optic foramen (optic canal)
what tissue is this
osseous
describe intramembranous ossification
ossification centers develop in mesenchyme and turn into osteoblasts. osteoid is secreted and calcified. woven bone and periosteum form. compact bone replaces woven bone and red marrow develops
orient epiphysial plate growth
ossification zone always is closest to diaphysis
__________ are responsible for bone deposition
osteoblasts
__________ are responsible for bone resorption
osteoclasts
what are inside lacunae
osteocytes
types of bone cells
osteocytes, osteoblasts, osteoclasts
2 layers of periosteum
outer fibrous layer and inner osteogenic layer
2 layers of dermis
papillary and reticular
dense regular connective tissue proper characteristics
parallel collagen fibers. major cell type is fibroblast
what is the largest sesamoid bone in the body
patella
name the three serous cavities
pleural (lungs), pericardial (heart), peritoneal (GI tract)
characteristics of epithelial tissue
polarity, specialized contacts, supported by connective tissue, avascular but innervated, regeneration
ground substance
portion of extracellular matrix, made of interstitial fluid, cell adhesion proteins, and proteoglycans
nervous tissue characteristics
presence of neurons
Where does bone remodeling occur?
primarily from endosteum
sebaceous glands
produce sebum as holocrine (bursting) glands
What are the 4 zones of the epiphyseal plate?
proliferation zone, hypertrophic zone, calcification zone, ossification zone
cardiac muscle tissue function and locations
propels blood into circulation as it contracts. involuntary control. found in the walls of the heart
gap junctions
provide cytoplasmic channels between adjacent cells
what does the ligamentum teres do
provides stability to the femoral head
connective tissue
provides support and protection for entire body
dense connective tissue types
regular, irregular, elastic
location and functions of loose connective tissue proper adipose
reserve nutrient storage, insulation, supports and protects organs. found in hypodermis around kidneys, eyes, in abdomen, and breasts.
loose connective tissue proper reticular
reticular fibers in a loose ground substance
lamellae
rings around osteon
what are the most common carpals to break?
scaphoid and pisiform
which bones have a coracoid process
scapula
ventral sacral foramina
series of openings that face anteriorly
serous cavities of the body are lined with
serous membranes
what type of bone is the pisiform
sesamoid
stratified columnar epithelium
several layers of columnar cells. function is protection and secretion. found only in male urethra
stratified squamous epithelium function and location
several layers of squamous cells. protects underlying tissue in high traffic areas. found in many linings such as skin, vagina, and mouth.
costal groove
sharp inferior edge
Sesamoid bones can also be classified as:
short
what does a cervical vertebra look like
sid the sloth
2 main types of fractures
simple and compound
goblet cells location
simple columnar epithelium
pseudostratified columnar epithelium
simple columnar epithelium that appears stratified. nuclei lay at different angles above basement membrane
layers of epithelial tissue
simple, stratified
simple cuboidal epithelium
single layer of cube shaped cells. secretion and absorption. found in kidney tubules, ovary surface, ducts/secretory portions of small glands
simple squamous epithelium function and locations
single layer of flattened cells. allow materials to diffuse and filtrate where protection isn't important. Located in kidneys, alveoli, lymphatic vessels
simple columnar epithelium
single layer of tall cells with oval nuclei. often contain goblet cells. often ciliated or have microvilli. absorption and secretion are main functions. found in digestive tract (non-ciliated) and in bronchi and uterus (ciliated)
stratum spinosum
spiny layer. has keratinocytes in mitosis
shapes of epithelial tissue
squamous, cuboidal, columnar
Our feet support us through all kinds of rough terrains! The skin covering the plantar surface of your feet is most likely made up of _______ epithelium.
stratified
epidermis tissue type
stratified squamous epithelium
transitional epithelium
stratified squamous that appear in rounded shapes
layers of epidermis
stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale
Which layer of the epidermis would you not expect to see in a histology slide of the skin of a person's brachial region?
stratum lucidum
bone grows along __________
stress lines
what anatomical landmark orients the ulna?
styloid process is inferiomedial
what anatomical landmark orients the radius
styloid process is on the inferiolateral side
sacral base
superior of sacrum
osseous function and location
support and protection. bones
osteons
support pillars
hyaline cartilage function/locations
supports and reinforces/high stress tolerance. found on the ends of long bones (arterial cartilage) costal cartilage, nose, and trachea
atlas function
supports the head - in control of up and down movement of head
The correct anatomical term to refer to the calf region is:
sural
where does the humerus tend to break?
surgical neck
dense regular connective tissue proper function.locations
tendons and ligaments. very strong when pulled in one direction
what is the pelvis
the fusion of ilium (2), ischium (2), pubic bone (2)
pelvic inlet
the largest diameter within the pelvic brim
The apical surface of an epithelial cell lining the trachea faces:
the lumen of the trachea (where the air is)
orient the tibia with a landmark
the malleolus is medial
in anatomical position, where is the ulna in the arm?
the medal side
what is the pelvic brim
the opening through which a baby is birthed that makes a line
sacral ala
the sides/wings of the sacrum
The extracellular matrix of most types of connective tissues is produced by:
the tissue's young cells
What do hair, nails and the skin have in common?
they all have keratin
What is true about Sharpey's fibers?
they help attach periosteum to the bone
fibrocartilage characteristics
thick collagen fibers but matrix is less firm than hyaline
which part of the vertebral column in concave
thoracic
Imaging techniques
transmission electron microscopy, scanning electron microscopy (3D)
nervous tissue function and locations
transmit electrical signals to send and receive messages. found in brain, spinal cord, and nerves
which arch is responsible for superior curve of foot
transverse arch
what do cervical vertebrae have that makes them unique from other vertebrae
transverse process
All exocrine glands produce products that are secreted onto the body surface or into some body cavity. true or false
true
true or false The anatomy of each bone in the human skeleton reflects the stresses most commonly placed on it.
true
what are the attributes of being a vertebrate? Name at least 4
tube within a tube bilateral symmetry dorsal hollow nerve cord notochord segmentation pharyngeal pouches
what are the bones of the nasal cavity
turbinates: anterior nasal conchae (ethmoid), middle nasal conchae (ethmoid), inferior nasal conchae (it's own bone) Nasal Septum: perpendicular plate (ethmoid), vomer (separate bone)
Sonography (Ultrasound)
use of sound waves to produce images
MRI
uses magnetic fields and radio waves to produce images that show types of soft tissue
Periosteum
vascular connective tissue that cover bone
adipose loose connective adipose
very little extracellular matrix. nucleus of cells pushed against each other
perforating canals
volkmans canals run perpendicular
skeletal tissue function and locations
voluntary movement and control. found in skeletal muscles
loose connective tissue proper adipose
what is this tissue
dense irregular connective tissue
what tissue is this
hyaline cartilage
what tissue is this
loose connective tissue proper - areolar
what tissue is this
nervous tissue
what tissue is this
skeletal muscle tissue
what tissue is this
function and location of dense irregular connective tissue proper
withstand high tension and structural strength. found in dermis and joints
location and function of areolar loose connective tissue proper
wraps and cushions organs. found under epithelial tissue and packages organs
facial bones
zygomatic, nasal, lacrimal, palatine, vomer, inferior nasal conche, hyoid
when does ossification occur
~8 weeks
