Anatomy & Physiology Blood, Ch 14
Red blood cells survive around _____ days. A) 120 B) 240 C) 10 D) 360
A) 120
When red blood cells are worn out, part of their components are recycled while others are disposed. Select the incorrect statement about destruction of red blood cells. A) The greenish pigment, biliverdin, is recycled to the bone marrow. B) Iron is carried to the bone marrow by a protein called transferrin. C) Biliverdin and bilirubin impart color to bile. D) Macrophages in the liver and spleen destroy worn out red blood cells.
A) The greenish pigment, biliverdin, is recycled to the bone marrow.
A drop in osmotic pressure with resulting edema can be caused by a poor diet or liver disease. A) True B) False
A) True
All white blood cells retain their nucleus throughout the life of the cell. A) True B) False
A) True
Bleeding is a symptom of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). A) True B) False
A) True
Excessive amounts of creatinine in the blood could result from muscle or kidney disorders. A) True B) False
A) True
Familial hypercholesterolemia is a genetic condition which is characterized by high plasma LDL and increased risk of heart attack. A) True B) False
A) True
Leukemic cells can be found within the brain or lungs. A) True B) False
A) True
Monocytes become macrophages as they leave the blood and enter the tissue spaces. A) True B) False
A) True
Serum is the liquid portion of the blood that cannot clot. A) True B) False
A) True
Vessel spasm can be an effective method of hemostasis. A) True B) False
A) True
Persons with type A agglutinogen will have anti-B agglutinin in their blood also. A) True B) False
A) True In the ABO blood type system, each person will produce the opposite antibody to the factor they have on their erythrocyte.
Patients with leukemia often suffer clotting abnormalities and internal bleeding. A) True B) False
A) True Leukemia often affects the platelets as well.
Thrombocytopenia or an increased tendency to bleed is a common consequence of leukemia. A) True B) False
A) True One of the causes of death from leukemia is internal hemorrhage caused by a deficiency of platelets caused by the excessive division of leukocytes within a limited area.
Pus contains living as well as dead leukocytes that were summoned to the area by positive chemotaxis. A) True B) False
A) True Pus is a collection of leukocytes that have been attracted to the site of infection or inflammation.
Males have more red blood cells than females. A) True B) False
A) True Testosterone synergizes with EPO to increase the male RBCC.
Pregnancy requires the addition of supplements containing iron to support the increase in vasculature and oxygen demand. A) True B) False
A) True The increase in oxygen demand and 30% increase in blood volume require the synthesis of additional red blood cells.
It is possible to have anemia even when the erythrocyte count is above normal. A) True B) False
A) True Anemia is a functional decrease in the ability of the blood to transport oxygen and may result from decreased numbers or a decrease in the oxygen-carrying-capacity of the hemoglobin; a condition called hypochromic anemia results from an iron deficiency, although the cell count is normal.
A person with eosinophilia, or greater than normal numbers of eosinophils, is most likely suffering from ____________. A) allergies or internal parasites B) anemia C) an autoimmune disease D) diabetes
A) allergies or internal parasites Eosinophils increase with allergies and parasites.
Which type of condition is directly related to bone marrow suppression? A) aplastic anemia B) anemia C) sickle cell anemia D) megaloblastic anemia
A) aplastic anemia Aplastic means "not producing"
Which factor promotes the appearance of the platelet plug? A) collagen B) serotonin C) fibrinogen D) vasodilation
A) collagen
The _____ cells are actively involved with allergies. A) eosinophil B) erythrocyte C) monocyte D) neutrophil
A) eosinophil Eosinophils release chemicals from their granules, such as histamines, that cause the symptoms seen in certain allergic reactions.
Which blood components transport most of the gases? A) erythrocytes B) platelets C) leukocytes D) plasma
A) erythrocytes
Which of these factors will increase the RBC or RCC? A) exercise B) dieting C) low body temperature D) decreased altitudes
A) exercise Periods of exercise, increased body temperature, large meals, and high altitudes all can cause an increase in red blood cell count.
Which organ has a primary role in stimulating blood cell formation? A) kidney B) liver C) bone marrow D) spleen
A) kidney
Which leukocytes are the largest in the peripheral blood? A) monocytes B) lymphocytes C) basophils D) neutrophils
A) monocytes
Which components are the source of serotonin which causes smooth muscle cells to contract? A) platelets B) lymphocytes C) monocytes D) basophils
A) platelets
Which condition is characterized by an abnormal increase in red blood cell count? A) polycythemia B) anemia C) leukemia D) porphyria
A) polycythemia
During protein catabolism, _____ is produced as an end product by the liver. A) urea B) uric acid C) creatine D) creatinine
A) urea
Red blood cells live around _____ before they disintegrate. A) one month B) 120 days C) 21 days D) three months
B) 120 days
What is a normal platelet count? A) 1 million per cubic cc B) 200,000 per cubic mm C) 1 million per cubic mm D) 10,000 per cubic mm
B) 200,000 per cubic mm Platelet counts range from 130,000 to 360,000 per cubic mm of blood.
How much of the plasma is protein? A) 10% B) 7% C) 25% D) 92%
B) 7%
Which mineral is essential for coagulation to occur? A) Mg2+ B) Ca2+ C) Na+ D) Fe2+
B) Ca2+ Calcium is a cofactor for several enzymes involved with clotting.
Sickle cell anemia is identified by the presence of abnormally shaped red blood cells. A) True B) False
B) False Sickle cell anemia is a genetic defect in the hemoglobin molecule which will cause the cells to bend and block capillaries under reduced oxygen tension.
Cyanosis is the blue color of white skin caused by the presence of oxyhemoglobin. A) True B) False
B) False Deoxyhemoglobin causes a darker color that appears blue through light skin.
The red color in inflammation is partially explained by the ability of erythrocytes to secrete histamines. A) True B) False
B) False Histamines are released from white blood cells, especially the eosinophil, and cause an increase in capillary permeability
Plasma is about 45% of the total blood volume. A) True B) False
B) False In a healthy person the plasma is slightly more than half the total volume of blood.(55%)
It is more likely to find the smaller red blood cells in a urine specimen than the larger leukocytes. A) True B) False
B) False Leukocytes can enter other body tissues by diapedesis.
All leukocytes usually live from 7 to 21 days. A) True B) False
B) False Most leukocytes remain alive for up to three weeks but the T lymphocytes are known to survive up to ten years.
Lymphocytes contain lysosomes, which actively decompose bacteria they engulf. A) True B) False
B) False Neutrophils and monocytes are the most active phagocytes; lymphocytes do not have the ability to engulf particles but may have lysosomes.
High density lipoproteins have relatively more lipids than proteins. A) True B) False
B) False Since lipids are less dense than proteins, high density lipoprotein combinations will have less protein and more lipids.
Streptokinase and urokinase are used to directly dissolve a thrombus that has moved into the lung. A) True B) False
B) False Technically speaking, these enzymes can activate plasmin which then dissolves the clot; a moving clot is properly termed an embolus.
Damage to tissues initiates the intrinsic phase of clotting. A) True B) False
B) False The extrinsic phase of clotting is initiated by chemicals released from damaged tissue or blood vessel cells.
Which lipoprotein has the highest percentage of cholesterol? A) VLDL B) LDL C) HDL D) chylomicron
B) LDL The low density lipoproteins transport most of the cholesterol to places of deposition such as the walls of coronary arteries.
What is the most significant factor that helps maintain blood osmotic pressure? A) electrolytes B) albumin C) fibrinogen D) globulins
B) albumin
Which plasma proteins help transport lipids in the bloodstream? A) albumins B) alpha and beta globulins C) fibrinogen D) gamma globulins
B) alpha and beta globulins
The _____ cells are the usual sources of heparin. A) eosinophil B) basophil C) lymphocyte D) monocyte
B) basophil The basophils and tissue mast cells are sources of the anti-coagulant heparin.
Which cells are the rarest leukocytes? A) monocytes B) basophils C) eosinophils D) lymphocytes
B) basophils basophils account <1% of the differential white cell count
The ability called _____ explains how a white blood cell could be found in the urine. A) phagocytosis B) diapedesis C) ameboid movement D) infection
B) diapedesis The ability to move through narrow openings and leave the circulation is diapedesis; the movement is ameboid and may be in response to an inflammation or infection.
Which is the last molecule to appear in a clotting reaction? A) fibrinogen B) fibrin C) thrombin D) prothrombin
B) fibrin Fibrin is the active molecule that forms the network of fibrin threads in the clot that will entrap cells forming a blood clot.
Which of the following does NOT belong with the others? A) heme B) globin C) bilirubin D) biliverdin
B) globin The term globin refers to the protein in the hemoglobin which can readily be recycled; the heme will be degraded to bilirubin and biliverdin, which are bile pigments, which must be eliminated.
The percentage of blood cells in whole blood is called _____. A) plasma B) hematocrit C) erythrocytes D) serum
B) hematocrit Hematocrit represents about 45% of the total blood volume and is also referred to as the HCT or packed cell volume (PCV).
The precursor of all lines of blood cells is the _______________. A) myeloblast B) hemocytoblast C) proerythroblast D) progranulocyte
B) hemocytoblast The hemocytoblast is a totipotent blood stem cell.
Which of the following is not a site of red blood cell production in the fetus? A) bone marrow B) kidney C) liver D) spleen
B) kidney
An acute infection would show up in a blood count as ______________. A) leukopenia B) leukocytosis C) too few helper T cells D) thrombocytopenia
B) leukocytosis Infection causes increased numbers of leukocytes.
Which organ has the greatest role in synthesizing most blood nutrients? A) intestine B) liver C) stomach D) skeletal muscle
B) liver
Which of these cell types should NOT be grouped with the others? A) neutrophil B) lymphocyte C) eosinophil D) basophil
B) lymphocyte A lymphocyte is an agranulocyte, the others are granulocytes.
Which leukocyte does NOT have phagocytic properties? A) monocyte B) lymphocyte C) neutrophil D) polymorphonuclear leukocyte
B) lymphocyte Most leukocytes, especially the neutrophil, are phagocytic but the lymphocyte does not have phagocytic abilities, but functions to secrete chemicals such as antibodies.
Which of these did NOT develop from a myeloblast? A) basophil B) monocyte C) eosinophil D) neutrophil
B) monocyte
Which of the following is an agranulocyte? A) neutrophil B) monocyte C) basophil D) eosinophil
B) monocyte The cells called agranulocytes do not have the typical granules found in cells such as neutrophils; they are the monocytes and lymphocytes.
The largest cells in the blood that leave the bloodstream to become macrophages are the _______________. A) eosinophils B) monocytes C) basophils D) neutrophils
B) monocytes Monocytes become macrophages and dendritic cells.
Which of the following directly defines the transportation of oxygen? A) hemoglobin B) oxyhemoglobin C) reduced hemoglobin D) red cell count
B) oxyhemoglobin Oxyhemoglobin is saturated.
Which condition is caused by a deficiency of vitamin B12? A) aplastic anemia B) pernicious anemia C) hemolytic anemia D) hemorrhagic anemia
B) pernicious anemia
Which of the following does NOT belong with the others? A) erythrocyte B) serum C) leukocyte D) platelet
B) serum The others are formed elements, and thus the "solutes" of blood. Serum is the "solvent".
What converts fibrinogen to fibrin? A) prothrombin B) thrombin C) calcium D) thromboplastin
B) thrombin Thrombin acts as an enzyme to cleave fibrinogen into active fibrin molecules.
Which of the following is least essential for erythrocyte development? A) vitamin B12 B) vitamin B6 C) folic acid D) gastric intrinsic factor
B) vitamin B6
What is the most common component in the plasma? A) sodium chloride B) water C) protein D) platelets
B) water
Which of the following indicates a normal white blood cell count? A) 1 million per mm3 B) 15,000 per cm3 C) 10,000 per mm3 D) 3,000 per mm3
C) 10,000 per mm3 A normal WBCC is 5 to 10 thousand cells per cubic mm.
Each red cell contains about _____% of its volume as the pigment hemoglobin. A) 5 B) 10 C) 33 D) 66
C) 33 About one-third of the volume of an erythrocyte is hemoglobin.
Which is the rarest ABO blood type? A) A B) B C) AB D) O
C) AB O is the most common
Select the statement about red blood cells that is incorrect. A) Mature red blood cells lack nuclei. B) Red blood cells contain hemoglobin. C) Deoxyhemoglobin is saturated with oxygen. D) Red blood cells lack mitochondria.
C) Deoxyhemoglobin is saturated with oxygen. Deoxy means oxygen is removed.
What is the most common cancerous condition in children? A) myeloid leukemia B) lymphoid leukemia C) acute lymphoid leukemia D) chronic lymphoid leukemia
C) acute lymphoid leukemia
Which is the most abundant of the plasma proteins? A) alpha globulin B) beta globulin C) albumin D) fibrinogen
C) albumin Albumin is about 3.5-5.5g per 100 ml of plasma and is the most common protein; the globulins represent around 2.5-3.5 g.
Choose the correct order for the steps of hemostasis. A) blood coagulation, platelet plug formation, blood vessel spasm B) platelet plug formation, blood coagulation, blood vessel spasm C) blood vessel spasm, platelet plug formation, blood coagulation D) blood vessel spasm, blood coagulation, platelet plug formation
C) blood vessel spasm, platelet plug formation, blood coagulation First vessel response, then cellular response, and finally a protein response.
Which cell has no nucleus when it is mature? A) platelet B) neutrophil C) erythrocyte D) lymphocyte
C) erythrocyte The red blood cells gradually lose their nuclei as they leave the bone marrow and are released into the circulation.
The condition called _____ is evidenced by a DIFF over 10,000 per cubic mm of whole blood. A) leukemia B) polycythemia C) leukocytosis D) leukopenia
C) leukocytosis Leukocytosis is a higher than normal differential white blood cell count but leukemic cells are abnormal cancer cells; a deficiency of white cells is called leukopenia.
Which cells release antibodies into the circulation? A) monocytes B) neutrophils C) lymphocytes D) basophils
C) lymphocytes The B-lymphocytes will respond to a foreign antigen by producing chemical antibodies which are intended to inactivate the invader.
The type of white blood cell that is often the first to arrive at the site of infection is a granulocyte and contains granules that stains light purple is a _______________. A) basophil B) eosinophil C) neutrophil D) monocyte
C) neutrophil The most numerous and most active granulocytes are the neutrophils.
Which white blood cells are the most common? A) leukocytes B) monocytes C) neutrophils D) lymphocytes
C) neutrophils Neutrophils account for around 54-62% of the white cell count; leukocyte is a general term for any white blood cell.
Which of these can dissolve a blood clot? A) heparin B) plasminogen C) plasmin D) PDGF
C) plasmin Plasminogen is converted to its active form plasmin which dissolves clots; heparin can prevent a clot from forming but cannot dissolve it; PDGF is platelet-derived growth factor.
Megakaryocytes will differentiate into _____. A) monocytes B) lymphocytes C) platelets D) eosinophils
C) platelets Platelets or thrombocytes are produced by the fragmentation of stem bone marrow cells called megakaryocytes.
Which components of whole blood account for clotting? A) erythrocytes B) eosinophils C) platelets D) neutrophils
C) platelets The platelets release chemicals (factors) that can initiate the clotting of blood.
Who is at risk for developing a fatal Rh incompatibility? A) any Rh+ fetus B) second Rh- fetus of Rh+ mother C) second Rh+ fetus of Rh- mother D) Rh- mother
C) second Rh+ fetus of Rh- mother The Rh antibodies are only produced following prior exposure, and an Rh-mother will not produce antibodies to her Rh+ fetus unless blood is mixed; during labor when blood is mixed, the mother will produce antibodies and will develop a response to any subsequent Rh+ fetuses, causing possible Erythroblastosis fetalis.
Which chemical initiates the extrinsic phase of clotting? A) fibrin B) fibrinogen C) thromboplastin D) prothrombin
C) thromboplastin Thromboplastin is released from injured cells and complexes with calcium to begin the first clotting cascade reactions.
Sedentary people with elevated triglyceride levels who continue to eat fatty foods are likely to have high levels of ____________ in their bloodstream. A) high-density lipoprotein (HDL) B) low-density lipoprotein (LDL) C) very-low density lipoprotein (VLDL) D) chylomicrons
C) very-low density lipoprotein (VLDL) Triglycerides aggregate to form VLDL.
Which dietary component(s) is/are needed for DNA synthesis, and thus greatly influence the production of red blood cells? A) calcium B) iron C) vitamin B12 and folic acid D) protein
C) vitamin B12 and folic acid
Which of these is a procoagulant? A) heparin B) antithrombin C) vitamin K D) prostacyclin
C) vitamin K Vitamin K is necessary for the synthesis of prothrombin, the others are anti-coagulants.
Which of these has the highest proportion of protein? A) chylomicron B) VLDL C) LDL D) HDL
D) HDL The high density lipoproteins (HDL) contain high concentrations of protein and lesser amounts of lipid.
Which of the following is a probable cause of leukocytosis? A) mumps B) chickenpox C) influenza D) appendicitis
D) appendicitis
Which of these is mainly comprised of triglycerides? A) HDL B) LDL C) VLDL D) chylomicron
D) chylomicron
Which blood cell can be described as being a biconcave disc? A) platelet B) neutrophil C) eosinophil D) erythrocyte
D) erythrocyte A RBC becomes biconcave when it loses its nucleus.
Which molecules are the sources of most antibodies? A) alpha globulin B) beta globulin C) albumin D) gamma globulin
D) gamma globulin
Which of these is the earliest of this cell line? A) reticulocyte B) erythrocyte C) erythroblast D) hemocytoblast
D) hemocytoblast
The type of anemia that is fairly common and caused by insufficient dietary iron is ______________. A) aplastic anemia B) pernicious anemia C) hemolytic anemia D) iron deficiency anemia
D) iron deficiency anemia Iron is a scarce element in most foods and is commonly deficient. It is necessary for hemoglobin production.
Which of the following is a young platelet? A) progranulocyte B) basophilic band cell C) monoblast D) megakaryoblast
D) megakaryoblast
Which cells are also called polymorphonuclear leukocytes? A) monocytes B) basophils C) lymphocytes D) neutrophils
D) neutrophils Mature neutrophils have a complex nucleus that appears to have many segments to it.
The buffy coat evidenced by separating blood cells is comprised of _____. A) erythrocytes B) platelets C) white cells D) platelets and leukocytes
D) platelets and leukocytes The buffy coat contains the white blood cells and platelets suspended between the red blood cells and plasma.
Which of the following is NOT always present in the blood? A) prothrombin B) fibrinogen C) calcium D) thrombin
D) thrombin
Which clotting factor is released from damaged tissue, and initiates a chain of clotting events? A) prothrombin B) thrombin C) fibrin D) tissue thromboplastin
D) tissue thromboplastin Tissue thromboplastin initiates the extrinsic clotting cascade. The other substances are near the end of the cascade.
The functions of the blood include: (Check all that apply.) correct transportation correct heat distribution production of hormones correct maintenance of interstitial fluid composition
NOT include production of hormones
