Anatomy Final Exam Review Mastering Chapters 1-9

transverse plane

A cross section is the same as a __________.

grey

A decrease in the production of melanin in a hair results in hair that is __________.

comminuted

A fracture in which the bone fragments into three or more pieces is a __________ fracture.

foramen

A round or oval opening through a bone is a __________.

the PCL, fibular collateral ligament, and lateral meniscus

A severe medial blow to the knee usually tears __________.

an endocrine gland.

A structure that secretes hormones into the blood is

T11 or T12

A thoracic vertebra without a transverse costal facet must be __________.

one of the cervical vertebra c3-c7

A vertebra that has a bifid spinous process, transverse processes with foramina, superior facets directed superoposteriorly, and a small vertebral body is __________.

long bones

Achondroplasia most significantly affects__________.

they have the most free radicals of any organelle they provide the instructions for protein synthesis they are thought to have arisen from bacteria they are enclosed by two membranes they contain maternally inherited DNA they generate ATP * they provide the instructions for protein synthesis

All of the following are true of mitochondria EXCEPT __________.

the interosseous membrane between the radius and ulna

An example of a syndesmosis that is amphiarthrotic, allowing a large amount of movement, is __________.

mole

An increase in melanin that is located in the basal layer of the epidermis and the upper dermis is a __________.

the neck

As you examine the femur, where would you guess the most frequent fracture site from osteoporosis occurs?

during the second year of life

At which approximate age does the anterior fontanelle close?

connective

Bone and cartilage are examples of tissues in this category.

nerve cells

Cells that gather information and control body functions are __________.

dynein

Ciliary movement is generated when adjacent doublets grip one another with side arms made of __________.

acetabulum

Congenital dislocation of the hip is a common birth defect in which the __________ fails to form completely or the ligaments of the hip joint are loose.

areolar connective tissue and reticular connective tissue

Connective tissue proper includes which of the following tissue types?

the foot is lifted so its superior surface approaches the shin

During dorsiflexion, __________.

collagen fibers predominate

Fibrocartilage is distinguished from other types of cartilage by the following characteristic.

True

Fibrosis involves the proliferation of a fibrous connective tissue called scar tissue. true or false

angular

Flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction are all examples of __________ movement.

according to the shape of the cells in their apical layer

How are stratified epithelia named?

proximal phalanx of digit 4

Identify the bone indicated by the arrow.

13.5%

If a woman was burned on her entire anterior right upper limb and her entire anterior right lower limb, approximately what percentage of her body was burned?

coronal; transverse

If you wanted to see a section through both lungs at the same time, you could make a cut in the __________ or the __________ plane.

respiratory structures

In the thoracic region, the __________ form(s) from the inner tube of the body.

surviving chondrocytes secrete more extracellular matrix

In what way does healing of cartilage occur in adults (a person who has stopped growing)?

anaphase

In which phase of mitosis do spindle fibers, moved by motor proteins, pull chromosomes toward opposite poles?

Increased blood flow to the area

Inflamed tissue is often warm to the touch because of

day 28

Limb buds emerge in the human embryo about

carrying a large loaf in front

Lordosis may result from __________.

thin, tapered transverse processes; spinous process is blunt, rectangular and posterior-facing

Lumbar vertebrae have which series of characteristics?

ABCD(E)

Melanoma is recognized clinically by the __________ rule.

mesenchyme cells

Osteoblasts originate from what type of precursor cells?

deep surface of the wall of the abdominal cavity

Parietal peritoneum covers the __________.

most types of white blood cells ingesting bacteria, viruses, and other foreign substances

Phagocytosis is exemplified by __________.

diaphysis

Primary ossification centers occur in the __________ of long bones.

epithelial

Pseudostratified columnar is one of the tissues of this category.

true

Ribs 1-7 attach to the sternum directly by costal cartilage and are called __________ ribs.

sternoclavicular joint and carpometacarpal joint 1

Saddle joints are located in which joints?

short

Sesamoid bones are examples of __________ bones.

7

Skin is our largest organ, accounting for about __________ percent of total body weight.

are types of cartilaginous joints

Symphyses and synchondroses __________.

superior

The __________ border of the scapula is its shortest border.

peritoneal

The __________ cavity surrounds the viscera in the abdominopelvic cavity.

acetabulum

The __________ is the region of fusion of the ilium, ischium, and pubis.

sternoclavicular

The __________ joint is the only bony articulation of the pectoral girdle to the axial skeleton.

papillary

The __________ layer of the dermis includes dermal papillae.

sacrotuberous

The __________ ligament connects the sacrum to each ischial tuberosity.

head

The __________ of a rib articulates with the superior and inferior costal facets on the bodies of most vertebrae.

axial

The __________ region of the body consists of the head and trunk.

popliteal

The area of the lower limb that refers to the posterior side of the knee is the __________ region.

torsion

The arrangement of the fibers and minerals in an osteon function to resist ________.

the dens of the axis plus the atlas

The articulation of which structures enables the head to be shaken from side to side (that is, to indicate "no")?

parietal

The bulk of the cranial vault is formed by the __________ bone(s).

secondary

The cervical and lumbar curvatures of the spine are the __________ curvatures.

helps stabilize the ankle joint

The fibula ______.

secretion and absorption

The functions of simple cuboidal epithelial tissue include which of the following?

right upper

The gallbladder and a portion of the transverse colon lie in the __________ quadrant.

cartilaginous

The general structural type of joint between intervertebral discs is __________.

dehydration

The immediate threat to life from serious burns is __________.

vertebral arch

The laminae and pedicles together form the __________.

Organism, organ system, organ, tissue, cellular, chemical

The levels of structural organization in order of decreasing complexity are __________.

squamous

The longest sutures of the skull include the coronal, sagittal, lambdoid, and __________ sutures.

surgical neck

The most frequently broken part of the humerus is the __________.

nuceloplasm

The nuclear envelope encloses a jelly-like fluid called __________ in which the chromatin and nucleoli are suspended.

distal

The olecranal region is __________ to the acromial region.

is a specialized part of the rough Er

The outer membrane of the nuclear envelope __________.

cutaneous

The plexus of blood vessels that nourishes the deeper dermis and the hypodermis is the __________ plexus.

stretching

The primary role of transitional epithelial tissue is __________.

ipsilateral

The right nostril and right ear are __________.

liver, stomach, and transverse colon

The right upper quadrant contains all or portions of which of the following organs?

produce steroid hormones and aid in drug detoxification

The role of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is to __________.

to prevent molecules from passing between cells

The role of tight junctions is __________.

greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus

The sites of attachment for muscles of the rotator cuff are the __________.

separates the supraspinous and infraspinous fossae and ends in the acromion

The spine of the scapula __________.

medial

The sternal region is __________ to the axillary region.

keratinized

The type of stratified squamous epithelial tissue that forms the epidermis is __________.

epiphyseal and greenstick

The types of fractures that are common in children are __________.

xiphisternal joint

The xiphoid process fuses with the body of the sternum at the __________.

contains an additional layer (stratum) has a ticker stratum granulosum and stratum corneum than thin skin

Thick skin __________.

endoderm

This develops into the lining of the gastrointestinal tract.

throclea of the humerus

To which surface does the trochlear notch of the ulna articulate?

Right upper quadrant and left upper quadrant

Use the illustration to identify the abdominal quadrants in which the stomach is located.

annulus fibrosis of intervertebral discs and menisci of the knee

What are two locations in the body where fibrocartilage is located?

On day 6, the trophoblast layer erodes inward until the entire blastocyst is imbedded in the uterine wall. This process takes close to 1 week.

What happens during the process of implantation?

A quick way to determine how much of the skin's surface has been burned.

What is the "Rule of Nines"?

surfaces that form joints

What is the function of the bone markings illustrated on this rib: head and facets?

increased flexibility

What is the function of the curvatures of the vertebral column?

it secretes synovial fluid

What is the function of the synovial membrane of a synovial joint?

It resists outward expansion when cartilage is subjected to pressure and functions in growth and repair of cartilage.

What is the importance of the perichondrium that surrounds cartilage?

Vitamin D is required for the uptake of calcium from the diet, and thus is important to healthy bones.

What is the importance of vitamin D synthesis in the epidermis?

it allows organs to slide with little friction against each other and against the cavity walls

What is the purpose of the serous fluid that is located between visceral and parietal serosa?

It assesses cell size before DNA synthesis.

What is the role of checkpoint 1 in the cell cycle?

secrete mucin

What is the role of goblet cells in pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelial tissue of the upper respiratory tract?

it provides the largest number of cells needed as building blocks for the embryo

What is the significance of the early cell division called cleavage?

mitosis occurs in both layers

What is true of both the stratum germinativum and stratum spinosum?

synthesis of DNA in preparation for cell division

What occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle?

coronoid

When the forearm is flexed, the __________ fossa of the humerus articulates with the coronoid process of the ulna.

the coxal bones

Which bones are the components of the pelvic girdle?

clavicle articulating with the sternum

Which bony articulation attaches the upper limb to the axial skeleton?

all types of cartilages consists of 60-80% water

Which characteristic is a similarity among all types of cartilage?

microtubules

Which cytoskeletal element forms the mitotic spindle?

a child falling

Which history is least consistent with the diagnosis of nursemaid's elbow (radial head subluxation)?

thyroid hormone

Which hormone modulates the effects of growth hormone to ensure that the skeleton remains proportional?

Ovaries

Which listed organ is included in both the reproductive system and the endocrine system?

specialized contacts

Which of the following are characteristics of epithelia in general?

it acts as a receptor to bind specific molecules arriving from outside the cell

Which of the following is a function of the plasma membrane?

attacks and eliminates specific foreign molecules

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the inflammatory response?

Directional terminology refers to the body in this position

Which of the following is true regarding the anatomical position?

between the sternum and rib 1

Which of the following locations is a cartilaginous joint?

The female pelvis has a wider pelvic inlet and a broader pubic angle than the male pelvis.

Which of the following statements describes an important distinction between a male and a female pelvis?

Appendix

Which of the following structures is located COMPLETELY in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen?

ligamentum flavum

Which of the vertebral ligaments contains elastic connective tissue, thus adding to the resilience of the vertebral column?

golgi apparatus

Which organelle works with the rough ER to package and ship new proteins to appropriate sites within the cell or for sectioning out of the cell?

nail matrix

Which part of the nail is the active growing area?

8-12

Which ribs are considered false ribs?

diaphragm

Which structure separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity?

synovial

Which type of joint predominates in the upper limb?

Adequate levels of folate are associated with preventing neural tube deficits.

Why are pregnant women encouraged to consume 400 mcg of folic acid (folate) daily?

they have no anterior attachment

Why are the inferior two pairs of ribs considered floating ribs?

The heavy boots used in skiing transfer twisting forces to the shaft of the tibia and fibula.

Why would skiing be less likely to cause an ankle fracture than playing basketball or football?

Lanugo

__________ are the fine hairs covering the fetus during month 5 of development.

felxion

__________ is bending that decreases the angle between bones.

pronation

__________ is the movement allowed at the proximal radioulnar joint in which the forearm is rotated so the palm faces posteriorly.

mitosis

__________ is the series of events during which replicated DNA of the original cell is parceled out into two new cells.

opposition

__________ is the special movement that allows humans to grasp objects by touching the thumb to the tips of other fingers.

cholesterol

__________ is the substance that makes the plasma membrane more rigid and less permeable to water and water-soluble molecules.

ventral body cavity

composed of thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities

the bladder, rectum, and reproductive organs

the pelvic cavity contains

at conception

the prenatal period begins

soles of the feet turn medially and toes point inferiorly

what is clubfoot

temporal lobe

what region of the brain is located in the middle cranial fossa?

posterior rotation of the sternoclavicular joint

when you abduct your arm, movement at the sternoclavicular joint includes __________.

melanocyte

which cell produced pigments responsible for skin color

lamella

A __________ is a layer of bone matrix in which the collagen fibers and mineral crystals align and run in a single direction.

third

A burn that consumes the entire thickness of the skin and appears white, red, or black is a __________-degree burn.