ATBasics 2-17
Where is the transponder located? Aircraft On antenna ATC tower On runway
Aircraft
What is the vertical separation minima between two IFR aircrafts below FL180? 4,000 feet 2,000 feet 500 feet 1,000 feet
1,000 feet
What is the standard minima for nonradar longitudinal separation? 20 minutes or 20 miles 10 minutes or 20 miles 450 knots or 75 miles 450 knots or 10 miles
10 mins of 20 miles
How many statute miles would 100 nautical miles equal? 95 115 130 87
115
How would you designate 2 PM on a 24-hour clock? 1400 0200 1200 2200
1400
A pilot, flight crew, and passengers operating above ________ MSL must be provided supplemental oxygen. 14,000 feet 16,000 feet 15,000 feet 18,000 fee
15,000 feet
What is the width of each time zone established around the Earth? 15º of latitude 15' of latitude 15º of longitude 15' of longitude
15º of longitude
Aircraft that are NOT equipped with the required vertical navigation avionics must be separated by how many feet as they climb or descend through the RVSM altitudes? 1,000 4,000 2,000 500
2,000
What is the general climb rate of CAT III aircraft? 1,000 - 3,000 feet per minute 2,000 - 4,000 feet per minute 1,000 feet or less per minute 1,000 - 2,000 feet per minute
2,000 - 4,000 feet per minute
What is the maximum airspeed when traveling in a VFR corridor through Class B airspace? 250 knots 180 knots 150 knots 200 knots
200 knots
An aircraft encounters a 20 knot crosswind and makes NO heading correction. After 1 hour of flight, how far off course would the aircraft be? 10 NM 10 SM 20 SM 20 NM
20NM
What is the maximum speed authorized by Title 14 CFR for aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL? 200 knots 150 knots 180 knots 250 knots
250 knots
A Warning Area is established beyond ________ NM from the coast of the United States. 3 5 1 12
3
The basic means to transition from instrument flight to visual flight for landing is provided by _________. VASIs lights Runway centerline lights ALSs REILs
ALSs
Which ATC facility provides ATC services to aircraft on IFR flight plans during the en route phase of flight? TRACON FSS ATCT ARTCC
ARTCC
Who maintains separation from other aircraft, terrain, and man-made objects on the ground for IFR aircraft? ATC ATCSCC FSS Pilot
ATC
Who provides an aircraft specific approval for entry onto movement areas on an airport? Pilot Aircraft marshals ATCC ATC
ATC
Who is responsible for the operation of the TM system? ATCSCC Air traffic manager Central altitude reservation facility ARTCC TMU for each area
ATCSCC
How do you convert local Daylight Savings Time to UTC? Add the conversion factor, then add 1 hour Subtract the conversion factor, then add 1 hour Subtract the conversion factor Add the conversion factor, then subtract 1 hour
Add the conversion factor, then subtract 1 hour
What should a pilot keep in mind when maneuvering an aircraft during a crosswind? Reduces the headwind and increases true airspeed Increases the speed and reduces the tailwind Increases the tailwind and affects true airspeed Affects the speed and direction of flight
Affect the speed and direction of flight
What is an authorization by ATC for the purpose of preventing collision between known aircraft and for an aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace? Air traffic clearance Approved separation Flight plan DME
Air traffic clearance
Who is responsible for observing and reporting the conditions of the landing area of an airport? Flight Service Specialist Airport manager/operator Pilot Tower controller
Airport manager/operator
Longitudinal separation is applied between aircraft on _____________. Same course Opposite courses All of the answers Converging courses
All of the answers
Radar separation is applied between an aircraft and which of the following? Another aircraft All of the answers Adjacent airspace Obstructions on the radar display
All of the answers
The organizational structure of each AT facility varies depending upon its _________. Surrounding terrain All of the answers Runways Type of air traffic
All of the answers
Which of the following elements does the ADS-B system rely on to function? Constellation of GPS satellites All of the answers ADS-B transponder Network of ground stations
All of the answers
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding SVFR clearances to fixed-wing aircraft? The pilot must request SVFR clearance SVFR shall only be approved below 10,000 MSL Flight visibility must be at least 1 SM An SVFR flight plan must be filed
An SVFR flight plan must be filed
What effect does an increase in temperature and/or altitude have on the indicated airspeed of an aircraft? An increase in temperature or altitude will have the same effect on indicated airspeed because the air becomes less dense in both cases An increase in the altitude of an aircraft increases the indicated airspeed because air density increases with altitude An increase in altitude will significantly reduce indicated airspeed because the air becomes more dense the higher the altitude An increase in temperature will have no impact on the indicated airspeed of an aircraft since air density remains the same
An increase in temperature or altitude will have the same effect on indicated airspeed because the air becomes less dense in both cases
Which primary radar component focuses and broadcasts radio energy, then collects the reflected return? Antenna Receiver Transmitter Interrogator
Antenna
An imaginary straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of a cross section of an airfoil is called the _______. Chord line Relative wind Angle of attack Camber
Chord line
In which airspace does a VFR aircraft need to receive a clearance from ATC to enter this airspace? Class A Class D Class C Class B
Class B
Which class of airspace generally extends upward to 10,000 feet MSL? Class D Class C Class A Class B
Class B
VFR aircraft are separated only from IFR aircraft in which airspace? Class B Class D Class C Class E
Class C
Which airspace is generally established from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation and has an operational control tower? Class B Class E Class C Class D
Class C
What airspace does NOT require a transponder? Class B Class A Class D Class C
Class D
What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7340.2? Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by Flight Service Specialists Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by air traffic controllers Provides direction and guidance for operating and managing air traffic facilities
Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA
Which of the following right-of-way rules is NOT correct? Converging aircraft - aircraft on the left has right-of-way Head-on - both aircraft give way to the right Overtaking - aircraft being overtaken has right-of-way Landing - aircraft on final approach has right-of-way
Converging aircraft - aircraft on the left has right-of-way
Which of the following is NOT found under Title 14 CFR? Directions to pilots to promote the safety of flight Curriculum required for ATC certification Actions a pilot must take under various circumstances Rules and regulations for operating aircraft within the United States
Curriculum required for ATC certification
What form of basic navigation uses a predetermined course and is navigated using a compass? Pilotage Pilot planning Satellite navigation Dead reckoning
Dead reckoning
Types of Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) are: FDC, POINTER, and D AIRMET, SIGMET, and MIS PIREP, ALNOT, and INREQ GENOT, RENOT, and SERNOT
FDC, POINTER, and D
The upper vertical limit of Class A airspace is ________. Up to, but not including FL 600 Up to, but not including FL 450 FL 600 FL 450
FL 600
Which ATC facility is primarily responsible for conducting pilot briefings? ATCT FSS ATCSCC ARTCC
FSS
Which air traffic facility has NO direct authority over IFR or VFR traffic? ATCT ARTCC TRACON FSS
FSS
Lighted land airports have rotating beacons that _________. Flash two white and one green Flash white Flash white and green Flash green
Flash white and green
Airmen's information can be disseminated via Aeronautical Charts and ________________. Flight information publications Satellite communications FAA orders Facility directives
Flight information publications
Specified information relating to the intended flight of an aircraft that is filed orally, in writing, or by computer with air traffic control is known as ______________. Pilot-in-command Air traffic clearance Flight plan Positive control
Flight plan
Regarding NOTAMs, which of the following is NOT a responsibility of ALL air traffic personnel? Format and edit NOTAMs Accept all Airmen's information regardless the source, provided the occurrence is no more than three days in the future Accept and disseminate NOTAMs Immediately report any condition considered hazardous to flight
Format and edit NOTAMs
What color are threshold lights? Green Red Yellow White
Green
Which position in the ATC terminal option is normally responsible for issuing control instructions to aircraft and vehicles operating on the airport movement area (other than active runways)? Ground Control Flight Data Local Control Clearance Delivery
Ground Control
What is the prominent identifier of the C172? Turboprop Conventional gear Mid-tail High-wing
High-wing
What additional requirements must a controller have in addition to holding an air traffic control tower operator certificate? Pass a test on weather reporting procedures and use of reports Be of good moral character Hold a facility rating for that tower issued to them Be able to read, write, and understand English
Hold a facility rating for that tower issued to them
Which of the following terms may be used by controllers in lieu of the term "wake turbulence" when issuing a cautionary advisory during ground operations? (Select all that apply) Jet blast Rotor wash Vortex Downwash
Jet blast and Rotor wash
If a pilot adjusts the pitch and yaw, the aircraft is moving along the _____ and ____ axes. Longitudinal; vertical Longitudinal; lateral Lateral; vertical Lateral; horizontal
Lateral; vertical
What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7350.9? Lists location identifiers authorized by FAA Aeronautical information for pilots and controllers Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA Provides direction and guidance for operating and managing air traffic facilities
Lists location identifiers authorized by FAA
What are supplements? Documents that give temporary direction or announcement Temporary documents issued to consolidate several documents into one Local document that provides internal guidance and/or instruction and is issued by someone other than the originator Documents that transmit additions, deletions, or modifications to orders
Local document that provides internal guidance and/or instruction and is issued by someone other than the originator
Which type of speed is expressed as a decimal and represents a ratio of true airspeed to the speed of sound? TAS GS MACH IAS
MACH
According to the definition of wake turbulence, which of the following is NOT a phenomenon affecting flight safety? Jet blast Propeller wash Rotor wash Mach buffet
Mach buffet
What must ATC do prior to authorizing pilot-applied visual separation? Issue traffic and weather advisories and issue control instructions to the lead aircraft Issue control instructions as necessary to ensure continued separation occurs between the both aircraft Maintain communication with at least one of the aircraft involved and ensure there is an ability to communicate with the other aircraft Maintain radar surveillance and ensure there is an ability to communicate with the other aircraft
Maintain communication with at least one of the aircraft involved and ensure there is an ability to communicate with the other aircraft
What are the key recognition features of the B737? Two jet engines under each wing, low-wing One jet engine under each wing, "T" tail One jet engine under each wing, low-wing One jet engine in tail
One jet engine under each wing, low-wing
"Presidential aircraft have priority over Flight Check aircraft" is an example of a(n) ________. Duty priority Additional services Operational priority Procedural preference
Operational priority
When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.65 and JO 7210.3, the word "may" means that the procedure is ________. Recommended Optional Mandatory Approved
Optional
What does a radar display depict? Altitude of aircraft Type of aircraft Position of objects Beacon code
Position of objects
Which radar system transmits from a site, is reflected by an object, and then is received back at the site for processing and display at an ATC facility? Primary and secondary Secondary radar Primary radar ADS-B
Primary radar
An aircraft on an IFR flight plan is in VFR conditions when a two-way radio failure occurs. The pilot shall ________. Squawk code 7500 Proceed to nearest airport and execute an IFR approach Return IFR to point of departure Proceed VFR and land as soon as practicable
Proceed VFR and land as soon as practicable
What is the basic purpose of the autorotation maneuver in a helicopter? Allow hovering flight in a strong wind Maintain a constant altitude Conserve fuel during cruise flight Provide a controlled landing when the engine is not supplying power
Provide a controlled landing when the engine is not supplying power
Which is the only en route sector team member whose duties do NOT include accepting handoffs? Radar Radar Coordinator Radar Flight Data Radar Associate
Radar Flight Data
What is used to determine the angle of attack? Flight path and relative wind Flight path and upper camber Chord line and the ground Relative wind and chord line
Relative wind and chord line
Which of the following would NOT be a type of data depicted on a radar display? Boundaries Runway lighting Airports Obstructions
Runway lighting
What runway marking extends the full-length runway pavement area? Runway side stripes Dashed centerlines Dash side stripes Runway centerlines
Runway side stripes
Airspace of defined dimensions, confined activities, and limitations on nonusers is identified as ______________ airspace. Special Use Class E Controlled Class G
Special Use
What must ATC ensure before clearing an aircraft for takeoff after previously arriving aircraft has landed? Takeoff roll does not begin until preceding aircraft has taxied off the runway Arriving aircraft has passed the halfway point of runway Distances between aircraft can be determined by suitable landmark Both aircraft have established communication by tower
Takeoff roll does not begin until preceding aircraft has taxied off the runway
How does atmospheric density affect an aircraft during takeoff on a hot summer day? Takeoff roll will be shorter and engine output will be decreased Rate of climb will be quicker and engine output will be increased Rate of climb will be shorter and takeoff will be shorter Takeoff roll will be longer and rate of climb will be slower
Takeoff roll will be longer and rate of climb will be slower
According to their location, ATO facilities are assigned to one of ______. Four FAA headquarters divisions Eleven FAA primary offices Nine regions Three service areas
Three service areas
What is the approximate distance of the outward vortices generated from a helicopter in a slow hover taxi or stationary hover? Two times the diameter of the rotor Three times the diameter of the rotor Two times the wingspan of approaching aircraft Three times the wingspan of approaching aircraft
Three times the diameter of the rotor
Which of the following is NOT a principal airfoil that produces lift on an aircraft? Horizontal tail surfaces Wing Thrust Propeller
Thrust
What DME equipment on the ground is required to respond to the aircraft interrogator? VOR Transmitter Receiver Transponder
Transponder
What type of landing gear consists of a nose gear located forward of the aircraft's center of gravity, and a main left and right landing gear located aft of the aircraft's center of gravity? Tricycle Retractable Fixed Conventional
Tricycle
How would a pilot proceed in a standard holding pattern below 14,000 feet MSL? Turn right and maintain DME leg Turn left and maintain DME leg Turn right and maintain 1-minute leg Turn left and maintain 1-minute leg
Turn right and maintain 1-minute leg
What is included in the NAS? U.S. navigation facilities and all associated personnel and components Only ATC employees who assist in operations of getting aircraft from one location to another Every person employed with FAA Every employee of FAA and DOT
U.S. navigation facilities and all associated personnel and components
A secondary form of lift is a(n) ________ generated by air striking the underside of the airfoil and being deflected ________. Downward force; upward Upward force; over the wing Upward force; downward Pressure differential; over the wing
Upward force; downward
What are the circular patterns created by wake turbulence? (Select all that apply) Vortex circulation Vortex generation Wake vortex Wingtip vortices
Wake vortex and wingtip vortices
What force in flight counteracts lift? Pressure Thrust Weight Relative wind
Weight
When is nonradar separation used in preference to radar separation? When an operational advantage will be gained When controller is not radar qualified When secondary radar is out of service When the aircraft is not transponder equipped
When an operational advantage will be gained
The ability of an aircraft to counteract the effects of the roll (counter control) is based on which of the following? (Select all that apply) Difference in weight distribution Current speed aircraft is traveling Wingspan of the aircraft Counter control capability of the aircraft
Wingspan of the aircraft and Counter control capability of the aircraft
What occurs with pitot tube icing? Increased weight occurs on instruments Airspeed indicator becomes unreliable Airspeed drops Complex engine failure can occur
airspeed indicator becomes unreliable
Who is subject to Title 14 CFR Part 91, General Operating and Flight Rules? Foreign aircraft only All aircraft Air taxi only Scheduled aircraft only
all aircraft
How can a flight plan be filed? All of the answers With an FSS or ATC facility Verbally or in writing Electronically via a computer
all of the answers
Which of the following make it possible for pilots to navigate with precision to almost any position? Refined cockpit instruments Advanced navigational radio receivers All of the answers Global satellite positioning systems
all of the answers
A _____ wing allows a stronger vortex to be generated because, without flaps, the wing has a smaller area and wing loading is greater per square foot. Clean-configured Delta High Low
clean-configured
Which of the following is NOT the function of the Clearance Delivery position in the tower? Processing and forwarding flight plan information Operating communication equipment Issuing clearances and ensuring accuracy of readback Compiling statistical data
compiling statistical data
Parallels and meridians are divided into ______, minutes, and seconds. Hours Degrees Circles Days
degrees
What term denotes a magnetic compass error that is caused by materials that hold magnetic properties within the aircraft? Isogonic lines Pilotage Variation Deviation
deviation
The _______________ is an imaginary circle equidistant from the poles of the Earth. Parallels of latitude International dateline Equator Prime Meridian
equator
The effectiveness of the VOR depends upon proper use and adjustment of both _______ and _______ equipment. Transponder; ground Marker beacons; bearing Ground; airborne Airborne; bearing
ground; airborne
The component of the ILS that gives lateral course guidance to the runway is the ________. Glideslope DME Localizer Marker beacon
localizer
When a VFR flight plan has been activated, the pilot in command must notify an FSS or ATC facility of the cancellation __________. On arrival On approach On departure En route
on arrival
Which of these is a characteristic of a CAT II aircraft? Propeller-driven Weigh over 12,500 pounds Includes all helicopters Single-engine
propeller-driven
What weight class is an aircraft of 41,000 pounds or less maximum certificated takeoff weight? Heavy Super Large Small
small
The upper limit of Class G airspace is ____________. The base of the overlying airspace 1200 MSL The base of Class E airspace 1200 AGL
the base of the overlying airspace
The lower limit of Class B airspace is ________. 1,200 feet AGL 1,500 feet AGL The Earth's surface 1,200 feet MSL
the earth's surface
