BAH - Chapter 35 & 36 Musculoskeletal

27. A client's electronic health record notes that the client has hallux valgus. What signs and symptoms should the nurse expect this client to manifest? A. Deviation of a great toe laterally B. Abnormal flexion of the great toe C. An exaggerated arch of the foot D. Fusion of the toe joints

ANS: A Rationale: A deformity in which the great toe deviates laterally and there is a marked prominence of the medial aspect of the first metatarsal-phalangeal joint and exostosis is referred to as hallux valgus (bunion). Hallux valgus does not result in abnormal flexion, abnormalities of the arch, or joint fusion.

35. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who underwent foot surgery. The nurse is collaborating with the occupational therapist and discussing the use of assistive devices. On what variables does the choice of assistive devices primarily depend? A. Client's general condition, balance, and weight-bearing prescription B. Client's general condition, strength, and gender C. Client's motivation, age, and weight-bearing prescription D. Client's occupation, motivation, and age

ANS: A Rationale: Assistive devices (e.g., crutches, walker) may be needed. The choice of the devices depends on the client's general condition and balance, and on the weight-bearing prescription. The client's strength, motivation, and weight restrictions are not what the choice of assistive devices is based on.

19. A nurse is planning the care of an older adult client with osteomalacia. What action should the nurse recommend in order to promote vitamin D synthesis? A. Ensuring adequate exposure to sunlight B. Eating a low-purine diet C. Performing cardiovascular exercise while avoiding weight-bearing exercises D. Taking thyroid supplements as prescribed

ANS: A Rationale: Because sunlight is necessary for synthesizing vitamin D, clients should be encouraged to spend some time in the sun. A low-purine diet is not a relevant action, and thyroid supplements do not directly affect bone function. Action must be taken to prevent fractures, but weight-bearing exercise within safe parameters is not necessarily contraindicated.

28. An older adult woman's current medication regimen includes alendronate. What outcome would indicate successful therapy? A. Increased bone mass B. Resolution of infection C. Relief of bone pain D. Absence of tumor spread

ANS: A Rationale: Bisphosphonates such as alendronate increase bone mass and decrease bone loss by inhibiting osteoclast function. These drugs do not treat infection, pain, or tumors.

6. A client has symptoms of osteoporosis and is being assessed during an annual physical examination. The assessment shows that the client will require further testing related to a possible exacerbation of osteoporosis. The nurse should anticipate which diagnostic test? A. Bone densitometry B. Hip bone radiography C. Computed tomography (CT) D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

ANS: A Rationale: Bone densitometry is considered the most accurate test for osteoporosis and for predicting a fracture. As such, it is more likely to be used than CT, MRI, or x-rays.

37. An older, female client with osteoporosis has been hospitalized. Prior to discharge, when teaching the client, the nurse should include information about which major complication of osteoporosis? A. Bone fracture B. Loss of estrogen C. Negative calcium balance D. Dowager hump

ANS: A Rationale: Bone fracture is a major complication of osteoporosis that results when loss of calcium and phosphate increases the fragility of bones. Estrogen deficiencies result from menopause, not osteoporosis. Calcium and vitamin D supplements may be used to support normal bone metabolism, but a negative calcium balance is not a complication of osteoporosis. Dowager hump results from bone fractures. It develops when repeated vertebral fractures increase spinal curvature.

4. A nurse is caring for a client whose cancer metastasis has resulted in bone pain. What should the nurse expect the client to describe? A. A dull, deep ache that is "boring" in nature B. Soreness or aching that may include cramping C. Sharp, piercing pain that is relieved by immobilization D. Spastic or sharp pain that radiates

ANS: A Rationale: Bone pain is characteristically described as a dull, deep ache that is "boring" in nature, whereas muscular pain is described as soreness or aching and is referred to as "muscle cramps." Fracture pain is sharp and piercing and is relieved by immobilization. Sharp pain may also result from bone infection with muscle spasm or pressure on a sensory nerve.

11. A client tells the nurse that they haves pain and numbness in the thumb, first finger, and second finger of the right hand. The nurse discovers that the client is employed as an auto mechanic, and that the pain is increased while working. This may indicate that the client has what health problem? A. Carpel tunnel syndrome B. Tendonitis C. Impingement syndrome D. Dupuytren contracture

ANS: A Rationale: Carpel tunnel syndrome may be manifested by numbness, pain, paresthesia, and weakness along the median nerve. Tendonitis is inflammation of muscle tendons. Impingement syndrome is a general term that describes all lesions that involve the rotator cuff of the shoulder. Dupuytren contracture is a slowly progressive contracture of the palmar fascia.

37. A client has been experiencing an unexplained decline in knee function and has consequently been scheduled for arthrography. The nurse should teach the client about what process? A. Injection of a contrast agent into the knee joint prior to ROM exercises B. Aspiration of synovial fluid for serologic testing C. Injection of corticosteroids into the client's knee joint to facilitate ROM D. Replacement of the client's synovial fluid with a synthetic substitute

ANS: A Rationale: During arthrography, a radiopaque contrast agent or air is injected into the joint cavity to visualize the joint structures such as the ligaments, cartilage, tendons, and joint capsule. The joint is put through its range of motion to distribute the contrast agent while a series of x-rays are obtained. Synovial fluid is not aspirated or replaced and corticosteroids are not given.

33. A nurse is caring for a client who has just had an arthroscopy as an outpatient and is getting ready to go home. The nurse should teach the client to monitor closely for what postprocedure complication? A. Fever B. Crepitus C. Fasciculations D. Synovial fluid leakage

ANS: A Rationale: Following arthroscopy, the client and family are informed of complications to watch for, including fever. Synovial fluid leakage is unlikely and crepitus would not develop as a postprocedure complication. Fasciculations are muscle twitches and do not involve joint integrity or function.

3. A nurse is providing care for a client whose pattern of laboratory testing reveals long-standing hypocalcemia. Which other laboratory result is most consistent with this finding? A. An elevated parathyroid hormone level B. An increased calcitonin level C. An elevated potassium level D. A decreased vitamin D level

ANS: A Rationale: In the response to low calcium levels in the blood, increased levels of parathyroid hormone prompt the mobilization of calcium and the demineralization of bone. Increased calcitonin levels would exacerbate hypocalcemia. Vitamin D levels do not increase in response to low calcium levels. Potassium levels would likely be unaffected.

12. A client has just had an arthroscopy performed to assess a knee injury. What nursing intervention should the nurse perform following this procedure? A. Wrap the joint in a compression dressing. B. Perform passive range of motion exercises. C. Maintain the knee in flexion for up to 30 minutes. D. Apply heat to the knee.

ANS: A Rationale: Interventions to perform following an arthroscopy include wrapping the joint in a compression dressing, extending and elevating the joint, and applying ice or cold packs. Passive ROM exercises, static flexion, and heat are not indicated.

12. A nurse is assessing a client who reports a throbbing, burning sensation in the right foot. The client states that the pain is worst during the day but notes that the pain is relieved with rest. The nurse should recognize the signs and symptoms of what health problem? A. Morton neuroma B. Pes cavus C. Hallux valgus D. Onychocryptosis

ANS: A Rationale: Morton neuroma is a swelling of the third (lateral) branch of the median plantar nerve, which causes a throbbing, burning pain, usually relieved with rest. Pes cavus refers to a foot with an abnormally high arch and a fixed equinus deformity of the forefoot. Hallux valgus (bunion) is a deformity in which the great toe deviates laterally and there is a marked prominence of the medial aspect of the first metatarsal-phalangeal joint and exostosis. Onychocryptosis (ingrown toenail) occurs when the free edge of a nail plate penetrates the surrounding skin, laterally or anteriorly.

26. Diagnostic tests show that a client's bone density has decreased over the past several years. The client asks the nurse which factors contribute to bone density decreasing. Which response by the nurse would be best? A. "For many people, a lack of proper nutrition can cause a loss of bone density." B. "Progressive loss of bone density is mostly related to your genes." C. "Stress is known to have many unhealthy effects, including reduced bone density." D. "Bone density decreases with age, but scientists are not exactly sure why this is the case."

ANS: A Rationale: Nutrition has a profound effect on bone density, especially later life. Genetics are also an important factor, but nutrition has a more pronounced effect. The pathophysiology of bone density is well understood and psychosocial stress has a minimal effect.

21. A 10-year-old client is growing at a rate appropriate for the client's age. Which cells are responsible for the secretion of bone matrix, which eventually results in bone growth? A. Osteoblasts B. Osteocytes C. Osteoclasts D. Lamellae

ANS: A Rationale: Osteoblasts function in bone formation by secreting bone matrix. Osteocytes are mature bone cells, and osteoclasts are multinuclear cells involved in dissolving and resorbing bone. Lamellae are circles of mineralized bone matrix.

40. A nurse is caring for a 78-year-old client with a history of osteoarthritis (OA). When planning the client's care, what goal should the nurse prioritize? A. The client will express satisfaction with the ability to perform ADLs. B. The client will recover from OA within 6 months. C. The client will adhere to the prescribed plan of care. D. The client will deny signs or symptoms of OA.

ANS: A Rationale: Pain management and optimal functional ability are major goals of nursing interventions for OA. Cure is not a possibility, and it is unrealistic to expect a complete absence of signs and symptoms. Adherence to the plan of care is highly beneficial, but this is not the priority goal of care; adherence is of little benefit if the regimen has no effect on the client's functional status.

20. A client presents to a clinic reporting a leg ulcer that isn't healing; subsequent diagnostic testing suggests osteomyelitis. The nurse is aware that the most common pathogen to cause osteomyelitis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Proteus. C. Pseudomonas. D. Escherichia coli.

ANS: A Rationale: S. aureus causes more than half of all bone infections. Proteus, Pseudomonas, and E. coli are also causes, but to a lesser extent.

6. A nurse is teaching a client with osteomalacia about the role of diet. What would be the best choice for breakfast for a client with osteomalacia? A. Cereal with milk, a scrambled egg, and grapefruit B. Poached eggs with sausage and toast C. Waffles with fresh strawberries and powdered sugar D. A bagel topped with butter and jam with a side dish of grapes

ANS: A Rationale: The best meal option is the one that contains the highest dietary sources of calcium and vitamin D. The best selection among those listed is cereal with milk, and eggs, as these foods contain calcium and vitamin D in a higher quantity over the other menu options.

25. A 32-year-old client comes to the clinic reporting shoulder tenderness, pain, and limited movement. Upon assessment the nurse finds edema. An MRI shows hemorrhage of the rotator cuff tendons and the client is diagnosed with impingement syndrome. What action should the nurse recommend in order to promote healing? A. Support the affected arm on pillows at night. B. Take prescribed corticosteroids as prescribed. C. Put the shoulder through its full range of motion three times daily. D. Keep the affected arm in a sling for 2 to 4 weeks.

ANS: A Rationale: The client should support the affected arm on pillows while sleeping to keep from turning onto the shoulder. Corticosteroids are not commonly prescribed and a sling is not normally necessary. ROM exercises are indicated, but putting the arm through its full ROM may cause damage during the healing process.

24. A nurse is collaborating with the physical therapist to plan the care of a client with osteomyelitis. What principle should guide the management of activity and mobility in this client? A. Stress on the weakened bone must be avoided. B. Increased heart rate enhances perfusion and bone healing. C. Bed rest results in improved outcomes in clients with osteomyelitis. D. Maintenance of baseline ADLs is the primary goal during osteomyelitis treatment.

ANS: A Rationale: The client with osteomyelitis has bone that is weakened by the infective process and must be protected by avoidance of stress on the bone. This risk guides the choice of activity in a client with osteomyelitis. Bed rest is not normally indicated. Maintenance of prediagnosis ADLs may be an unrealistic short-term goal for many clients

1. A nurse on the orthopedic unit is assessing a client's peroneal nerve. The nurse should perform this assessment by doing what action? A. Pricking the skin between the great and second toe B. Stroking the skin on the sole of the client's foot C. Pinching the skin between the thumb and index finger D. Stroking the distal fat pad of the small finger

ANS: A Rationale: The nurse will evaluate the sensation of the peroneal nerve by pricking the skin centered between the great and second toe. None of the other listed actions elicits the function of one of the peripheral nerves.

1. A nurse is caring for an adult client diagnosed with a back strain. What health education should the nurse provide to this client? A. Avoid lifting more than one-third of body weight without assistance. B. Focus on using back muscles efficiently when lifting heavy objects. C. Lift objects while holding the object a safe distance from the body. D. Tighten the abdominal muscles and lock the knees when lifting an object.

ANS: A Rationale: The nurse will instruct the client on the safe and correct way to lift objects— using the strong quadriceps muscles of the thighs, with minimal use of the weaker back muscles. To prevent recurrence of acute low back pain, the nurse may instruct the client to avoid lifting more than one-third of the client's body weight without help. The client should be informed to place the feet hip-width apart to provide a wide base of support. The person should then bend the knees, tighten the abdominal muscles, and lift the object close to the body with a smooth motion, avoiding twisting and jerking.

23. A nurse is taking a health history on a client with musculoskeletal dysfunction. What should the nurse prioritize during this phase of the assessment? A. Evaluating the effects of the musculoskeletal disorder on the client's function B. Evaluating the client's adherence to the existing treatment regimen C. Evaluating the presence of genetic risk factors for further musculoskeletal disorders D. Evaluating the client's active and passive range of motion

ANS: A Rationale: The nursing assessment of the client with musculoskeletal dysfunction includes an evaluation of the effects of the musculoskeletal disorder on the client. This is a vital focus of the health history and supersedes the assessment of genetic risk factors and adherence to treatment, though these are both valid inclusions to the interview. Assessment of ROM occurs during the physical assessment, not the interview.

17. A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hours' postoperative following foot surgery. The nurse assesses the presence of edema in the foot. What nursing measure should the nurse implement to control the edema? A. Elevate the foot on several pillows. B. Apply warm compresses intermittently to the surgical area. C. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed. D. Increase circulation through frequent ambulation.

ANS: A Rationale: To control the edema in the foot of a client who experienced foot surgery, the nurse will elevate the foot on several pillows when the client is sitting or lying. Diuretic therapy is not an appropriate intervention for edema related to inflammation. Intermittent ice packs should be applied to the surgical area during the first 24 to 48 hours after surgery to control edema and provide some pain relief. Ambulation will gradually be resumed based on the guidelines provided by the surgeon.

29. The nurse is performing an assessment of a client's musculoskeletal system and is appraising the client's bone integrity. Which action should the nurse perform during this phase of assessment? A. Compare parts of the body symmetrically. B. Assess extremities when in motion rather than at rest. C. Percuss as many joints as are accessible. D. Administer analgesia 30 to 60 minutes before assessment.

ANS: A Rationale: When assessing bone integrity, symmetric parts of the body, such as extremities, are compared. Analgesia should not be necessary, and percussion is not clinically useful for assessing bone integrity. Bone integrity is best assessed when the client is not moving.

15. An 80-year-old man in a long-term care facility has a chronic leg ulcer and states that the area has become increasingly painful in recent days. The nurse notes that the site is now swollen and warm to the touch. The client should undergo diagnostic testing for what health problem? A. Osteomyelitis B. Osteoporosis C. Osteomalacia D. Septic arthritis

ANS: A Rationale: When osteomyelitis develops from the spread of an adjacent infection, no signs of septicemia are present, but the area becomes swollen, warm, painful, and tender to touch. Osteoporosis is noninfectious. Osteomalacia is a metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of bone. Septic arthritis occurs when joints become infected through spread of infection from other parts of the body (hematogenous spread) or directly through trauma or surgical instrumentation.

25. A nurse is explaining a client's decreasing bone density in terms of the balance between bone resorption and formation. What dietary nutrients and hormones play a role in the resorption and formation of adult bones? Select all that apply. A. Thyroid hormone B. Growth hormone C. Estrogen D. Vitamin B12 E. Luteinizing hormone

ANS: A, B, C Rationale: The balance between bone resorption and formation is influenced by the following factors: physical activity; dietary intake of certain nutrients, especially calcium; and several hormones, including calcitriol (i.e., activated vitamin D), parathyroid hormone (PTH), calcitonin, thyroid hormone, cortisol, growth hormone, and the sex hormones estrogen and testosterone. Luteinizing hormone and vitamin B12 do not play a role in bone formation or resorption.

21. A nurse is providing care for a client who has a recent diagnosis of Paget disease. When planning this client's nursing care, what should interventions address? Select all that apply. A. Impaired physical mobility B. Acute pain C. Disturbed auditory sensory perception D. Risk for injury E. Risk for unstable blood glucose

ANS: A, B, C, D Rationale: Clients with Paget disease are at risk for decreased mobility, pain, hearing loss, and injuries resulting from decreased bone density. Paget disease does not affect blood glucose levels.

22. A nurse is caring for a client who is being assessed following reports of severe and persistent low back pain. The client is scheduled for diagnostic testing in the morning. Which of the following are appropriate diagnostic tests for assessing low back pain? Select all that apply. A. Computed tomography (CT) B. Angiography C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D. UltrasoundE. X-ray

ANS: A, C, D, E Rationale: A variety of diagnostic tests can be used to address lower back pain, including CT, MRI, ultrasound, and x-rays. Angiography is not related to the etiology of back pain.

32. A client is receiving ongoing nursing care for the treatment of Parkinson disease. When assessing this client's gait, which finding is most closely associated with this health problem? A. Spastic hemiparesis gait B. Shuffling gait C. Rapid gait D. Steppage gait

ANS: B Rationale: A variety of neurologic conditions are associated with abnormal gaits, such as a spastic hemiparesis gait (stroke), steppage gait (lower motor neuron disease), and shuffling gait (Parkinson disease). A rapid gait is not associated with Parkinson disease.

24. A client is scheduled for a bone scan to rule out osteosarcoma of the pelvic bones. Which client status would be most important for the nurse to verify before the client's scan? A. Completion of the bowel cleansing regimen B. Empty bladder C. No allergy to penicillins D. Fast for at least 8 hours

ANS: B Rationale: Before the scan, the nurse asks the client to empty the bladder, because a full bladder interferes with accurate scanning of the pelvic bones. Bowel cleansing and fasting are not indicated for a bone scan, and an allergy to penicillins is not a contraindication.

27. A bone biopsy has just been completed on a client with suspected bone metastases. The nurse should prioritize assessments for which common complication of bone biopsy? A. Dehiscence at the biopsy site B. Pain C. Hematoma formation D. Infection

ANS: B Rationale: Bone biopsy can be painful, and the nurse should prioritize relevant assessments. Dehiscence is not a possibility, because the incision is not linear. Signs and symptoms of infection would not be evident in the immediate recovery period, and hematoma formation is not a common complication.

30. A client has been admitted to the hospital with a spontaneous vertebral fracture related to osteoporosis. Which of the following nursing diagnoses must be addressed in the plan of care? A. Risk for aspiration related to vertebral fracture B. Constipation related to vertebral fracture C. Impaired swallowing related to vertebral fracture D. Decreased cardiac output related to vertebral fracture

ANS: B Rationale: Constipation is a problem related to immobility and medications used to treat vertebral fractures. The client's risks of aspiration, dysphagia, and decreased cardiac output are not necessarily heightened.

16. A client has returned to the unit after undergoing limb-sparing surgery to remove a metastatic bone tumor. The nurse providing postoperative care in the days following surgery assesses for what complication from surgery? A. Deficient fluid volume B. Delayed wound healing C. Hypocalcemia D. Pathologic fractures

ANS: B Rationale: Delayed wound healing is a complication of surgery due to tissue trauma from the surgery. Nutritional deficiency is usually due to the effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy, which may cause weight loss. Pathologic fractures are not a complication of surgery.

14. A nurse is caring for an older adult who has been diagnosed with geriatric failure to thrive. The nurse should perform interventions to prevent what complication? A. Muscle clonus B. Muscle atrophy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Muscle fasciculations

ANS: B Rationale: If a muscle is in disuse for an extended period of time, it is at risk of developing atrophy, which is the decrease in size. Clonus is a pattern of rhythmic muscle contractions and fasciculation is the involuntary twitch of muscle fibers; neither results from immobility. Lack of exercise is a risk factor for rheumatoid arthritis.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing peripheral neurovascular dysfunction. Which assessment findings are most consistent with this diagnosis? A. Hot skin and a capillary refill of 1 to 2 seconds B. Absence of feeling, capillary refill of 4 to 5 seconds, and cool skin C. Pain, diaphoresis, and erythema D. Jaundiced skin, weakness, and capillary refill of 3 seconds

ANS: B Rationale: Indicators of peripheral neurovascular dysfunction include pale, cyanotic, or mottled skin with a cool temperature; capillary refill greater than 3 seconds; weakness or paralysis with motion; and paresthesia, unrelenting pain, pain on passive stretch, or absence of feeling. Jaundice, diaphoresis, and warmth are inconsistent with peripheral neurovascular dysfunction.

29. A nurse is caring for a client who is being treated in the hospital for a spontaneous vertebral fracture related to osteoporosis. The nurse should address the nursing diagnosis of Acute Pain Related to Fracture by implementing what intervention? A. Maintenance of high Fowler positioning whenever possible B. Intermittent application of heat to the client's back C. Use of a pressure-reducing mattress D. Passive range of motion exercises

ANS: B Rationale: Intermittent local heat and back rubs promote muscle relaxation following osteoporotic vertebral fractures. High Fowler positioning is likely to exacerbate pain. The mattress must be adequately supportive, but pressure reduction is not necessarily required. Passive range of motion exercises to the back would cause pain and impair healing.

36. A client has come to the clinic for a routine annual physical. The nurse practitioner notes a palpable, painless projection of bone at the client's shoulder. The projection appears to be at the distal end of the humerus. The nurse should suspect the presence of: A. osteomyelitis. B. osteochondroma. C. osteomalacia. D. Paget disease.

ANS: B Rationale: Osteochondroma is the most common benign bone tumor. It usually occurs as a large projection of bone at the end of long bones (at the knee or shoulder). Osteomyelitis, osteomalacia, and Paget disease do not involve the development of excess bone tissue.

33. A client with diabetes has been diagnosed with osteomyelitis. The nurse observes that the client's right foot is pale and mottled, cool to touch, with a capillary refill of greater than 3 seconds. The nurse should suspect what type of osteomyelitis? A. Hematogenous osteomyelitis B. Osteomyelitis with vascular insufficiency C. Contiguous focus osteomyelitis D. Osteomyelitis with muscular deterioration

ANS: B Rationale: Osteomyelitis is classified as hematogenous osteomyelitis (i.e., due to bloodborne spread of infection); contiguous-focus osteomyelitis, from contamination from bone surgery, open fracture, or traumatic injury (e.g., gunshot wound); and osteomyelitis with vascular insufficiency, seen most commonly among clients with diabetes and peripheral vascular disease, most commonly affecting the feet. Osteomyelitis with muscular deterioration does not exist.

3. A client presents at a clinic reports heel pain that impairs walking ability. The client is subsequently diagnosed with plantar fasciitis. This client's plan of care should include what intervention? A. Wrapping the affected area in lamb's wool or gauze to relieve pressure B. Gently stretching the foot and the Achilles tendon C. Wearing open-toed shoes at all times D. Applying topical analgesic ointment to plantar surface each morning

ANS: B Rationale: Plantar fasciitis leads to pain that is localized to the anterior medial aspect of the heel and diminishes with gentle stretching of the foot and Achilles tendon. Dressings of any kind are not of therapeutic benefit and analgesic ointments do not address the pathology of the problem. Open-toed shoes are of no particular benefit.

39. A nurse is assessing a client for risk factors known to contribute to osteoarthritis. What assessment finding should the nurse interpret as a risk factor? A. The client has a 30 pack-year smoking history. B. The client's body mass index is 34 (obese). C. The client has primary hypertension. D. The client is 58 years old.

ANS: B Rationale: Risk factors for osteoarthritis include obesity and previous joint damage. Risk factors of OA do not include smoking or hypertension. Incidence increases with age, but a client who is 58 years old would not yet face a significantly heightened risk.

34. A client is undergoing diagnostic testing for suspected Paget disease. What assessment finding is most consistent with this diagnosis? A. Altered serum magnesium levels B. Altered serum calcium levels C. Altered serum potassium levels D. Altered serum sodium levels

ANS: B Rationale: Serum calcium levels are altered in clients with osteomalacia, parathyroid dysfunction, Paget's disease, metastatic bone tumors, or prolonged immobilization. Paget's disease is not directly associated with altered magnesium, potassium, or sodium levels.

18. A client with diabetes is attending a class on the prevention of associated diseases. What action should the nurse teach the client to reduce the risk of osteomyelitis? A. Increase calcium and vitamin intake. B. Monitor and control blood glucose levels. C. Exercise 3 to 4 times weekly for at least 30 minutes. D. Take corticosteroids as prescribed.

ANS: B Rationale: Since poor glycemic control can exacerbate the spread of infection from other sources, the client with diabetes should maintain blood glucose levels within a desired range. Corticosteroids can exacerbate the risk of osteomyelitis. Increased intake of calcium and vitamins as well as regular exercise are beneficial health promotion exercises, but they do not directly reduce the risk of osteomyelitis.

40. While performing an assessment, the nurse notes that a client has soft subcutaneous nodules along the extensor tendons of the fingers. Which disorder does this client most likely have? A. Osteoarthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Gout D. Paget disease

ANS: B Rationale: Soft nodules that occur within or along tendons that provide extensor function to joints are characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis. The nodules of osteoarthritis are hard and painless and consist of bony overgrowth. The nodules of gout are hard and lie within and immediately adjacent to the joint capsule. Nodules are not characteristic of gout.

2. A public health nurse is organizing a campaign that will address the leading cause of musculoskeletal-related disability. The nurse should focus on what health problem? A. Osteoporosis B. Arthritis C. Hip fractures D. Lower back pain

ANS: B Rationale: The leading cause of musculoskeletal-related disability is arthritis.

30. A nurse is performing a nursing assessment of a client suspected of having a musculoskeletal disorder. Which assessment should the nurse prioritize for a client who has a musculoskeletal disorder? A. Range of motion B. Activities of daily living C. Gait D. Strength

ANS: B Rationale: The nursing assessment is primarily a functional evaluation, focusing on the client's ability to perform activities of daily living. The nurse also assesses strength, gait, and range of motion, but these are assessed to identify their effect on functional status rather than to identify a medical diagnosis.

9. When assessing a client's peripheral nerve function, the nurse uses an instrument to prick the fat pad at the top of the client's small finger. This action will assess what nerve? A. Radial B. Ulnar C. Median D. Tibial

ANS: B Rationale: The ulnar nerve is assessed for sensation by pricking the fat pad at the top of the small finger. The radial, median, and tibial nerves are not assessed in this manner.

8. Which of the following clients should the nurse recognize as being at the highest risk for the development of osteomyelitis? A. A middle-aged adult who takes ibuprofen daily for rheumatoid arthritis B. An older adult client with an infected pressure ulcer in the sacral area C. A 17-year-old football player who had orthopedic surgery 6 weeks prior D. An infant diagnosed with jaundice

ANS: B Rationale: Clients who are at high risk of osteomyelitis include those who are poorly nourished, older adults, and clients who are obese. The older adult client with an infected sacral pressure ulcer is at the greatest risk for the development of osteomyelitis, as this client has two risk factors: age and the presence of a soft-tissue infection that has the potential to extend into the bone. The client with rheumatoid arthritis has one risk factor and the infant with jaundice has no identifiable risk factors. The client 6 weeks' postsurgery is beyond the usual window of time for the development of a postoperative surgical wound infection.

35. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of cancer that has metastasized to the bone. Which laboratory value would the nurse expect to be elevated in this client? A. Bilirubin B. Potassium C. Alkaline phosphatase D. Creatinine

ANS: C Rationale: Alkaline phosphatase is elevated during early fracture healing and in diseases with increased osteoblastic activity (e.g., metastatic bone tumors). Elevated bilirubin, potassium, and creatinine would not be expected in a client with metastatic bone tumors.

39. A client has been experiencing progressive increases in knee pain and diagnostic imaging reveals a worsening effusion in the synovial capsule. The nurse should anticipate what diagnostic procedure? A. Arthrography B. Knee biopsy C. Arthrocentesis D. Electromyography

ANS: C Rationale: Arthrocentesis (joint aspiration) is carried out to obtain synovial fluid for purposes of examination or to relieve pain due to effusion. Arthrography, biopsy, and electromyography would not remove fluid and relieve pressure.

18. A clinic nurse is caring for a client with a history of osteoporosis. What diagnostic test will best allow the care team to assess the client's risk of fracture? A. Arthrography B. Bone scan C. Bone densitometry D. Arthroscopy

ANS: C Rationale: Bone densitometry is used to detect bone density and can be used to assess the risk of fracture in osteoporosis. Arthrography is used to detect acute or chronic tears of joint capsule or supporting ligaments. Bone scans can be used to detect metastatic and primary bone tumors, osteomyelitis, certain fractures, and aseptic necrosis. Arthroscopy is used to visualize a joint.

13. A nurse is reviewing the pathophysiology that may underlie a client's decreased bone density. What hormone should the nurse identify as inhibiting bone resorption and promoting bone formation? A. Estrogen B. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) C. Calcitonin D. Progesterone

ANS: C Rationale: Calcitonin inhibits bone resorption and promotes bone formation, estrogen inhibits bone breakdown, and parathyroid increases bone resorption. Estrogen, which inhibits bone breakdown, decreases with aging. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases with aging, increasing bone turnover and resorption. Progesterone is the major naturally occurring human progestogen and plays a role in the female menstrual cycle.

7. A nurse is caring for a client with Paget disease and is reviewing the client's most recent laboratory values. Which of the following values are most characteristic of Paget disease? A. An elevated level of parathyroid hormone and low calcitonin levels B. A low serum alkaline phosphatase level and a low serum calcium level C. An elevated serum alkaline phosphatase level and a normal serum calcium level D. An elevated calcitonin level and low levels of parathyroid hormone

ANS: C Rationale: Clients with Paget disease have normal blood calcium levels. Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase concentration and urinary hydroxyproline excretion reflect the increased osteoblastic activity associated with this condition. Alterations in PTH and calcitonin levels are atypical.

2. A nurse is discussing conservative management of tendonitis with a client. What is the nurse's best recommendation? A. Weight reduction B. Use of oral opioid analgesics C. Intermittent application of ice and heat D. Passive range of motion exercises

ANS: C Rationale: Conservative management of tendonitis includes rest of the extremity, intermittent ice and heat to the joint, and NSAIDs. Weight reduction may prevent future injuries but will not relieve existing tendonitis. Range-of-motion exercises may exacerbate pain. Opioids would not be considered a conservative treatment measure.

9. A nurse is caring for a client with a bone tumor. The nurse is providing education to help the client reduce the risk for pathologic fractures. What should the nurse teach the client? A. Strive to achieve maximum weight-bearing capabilities. B. Gradually strengthen the affected muscles through weight training. C. Support the affected extremity with external supports such as splints. D. Limit reliance on assistive devices in order to build strength.

ANS: C Rationale: During nursing care, the affected extremities must be supported and handled gently. External supports (splints) may be used for additional protection. Prescribed weight-bearing restrictions must be followed. Assistive devices should be used to strengthen the unaffected extremities.

11. A client has sustained traumatic injuries that involve several bone fractures. A fracture of what type of bone may interfere with the protection of the client's vital organs? A. Long bones B. Short bones C. Flat bones D. Irregular bones

ANS: C Rationale: Flat bones, such as the sternum, provide vital organ protection. Fractures of the flat bones may lead to puncturing of the vital organs or may interfere with the protection of the vital organs. Long, short, and irregular bones do not usually have this physiologic function.

17. The nurse's comprehensive assessment of an older adult involves the assessment of the client's gait. How should the nurse best perform this assessment? A. Instruct the client to walk heel-to-toe for 15 to 20 steps. B. Instruct the client to walk in a straight line while not looking at the floor. C. Instruct the client to walk away from the nurse for a short distance and then toward the nurse. D. Instruct the client to balance on one foot for as long as possible and then walk in a circle around the room.

ANS: C Rationale: Gait is assessed by having the client walk away from the examiner for a short distance. The examiner observes the client's gait for smoothness and rhythm. Looking at the floor is not disallowed and gait is not assessed by observing balance on one leg. Heel-to-toe walking ability is not gauged during an assessment of normal gait.

15. A nurse is caring for a client who has been scheduled for a bone scan. Which statement should the nurse include when educating the client about this diagnostic test? A. "The test is brief and requires that you drink a calcium solution 2 hours before the test." B. "You will not be allowed fluid for 2 hours before and 3 hours after the test." C. "You will be encouraged to drink water after the administration of the radioisotope injection." D. "This is a common test that can be safely performed on anyone."

ANS: C Rationale: It is important to encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids to help distribute and eliminate the isotope after it is injected. There are important contraindications to the procedure, including pregnancy or an allergy to the radioisotope. The test requires the injection of an intravenous radioisotope, and the scan is performed 2 to 3 hours after the isotope is injected. A calcium solution is not used.

28. A nurse is taking a health history on a new client who has been experiencing unexplained paresthesia. What question should guide the nurse's assessment of the client's altered sensations? A. How does the strength in the affected extremity compare to the strength in the unaffected extremity? B. Does the color in the affected extremity match the color in the unaffected extremity? C. How does the feeling in the affected extremity compare with the feeling in the unaffected extremity? D. Does the client have a family history of paresthesia or other forms of altered sensation?

ANS: C Rationale: Questions that the nurse should ask regarding altered sensations include "How does this feeling compare to sensation in the unaffected extremity?" Asking questions about strength and color is not relevant and a family history is unlikely.

20. A client's fracture is healing and compact bone is replacing spongy bone around the periphery of the fracture. This process characterizes what phase of the bone healing process? A. Hematoma formation B. Fibrocartilaginous callus formation C. Remodeling D. Bony callus formation

ANS: C Rationale: Remodeling occurs as necrotic bone is removed by the osteoclasts. In this phase, compact bone replaces spongy bone around the periphery of the fracture. Each of the other listed phases precedes this stage.

10. A client presents at a clinic reporting back pain that goes all the way down the back of the leg to the foot. The nurse should document the presence of what type of pain? A. Bursitis B. Radiculopathy C. Sciatica D. Tendonitis

ANS: C Rationale: Sciatica nerve pain travels down the back of the thigh to the foot of the affected leg. Bursitis is inflammation of a fluid-filled sac in a joint. Radiculopathy is disease of a nerve root. Tendonitis is inflammation of muscle tendons.

31. A nurse's assessment reveals that a client has shoulders that are not level and one prominent scapula that is accentuated by bending forward. The nurse should expect to read about which health problem in the client's electronic health record? A. Lordosis B. Kyphosis C. Scoliosis D. Muscular dystrophy

ANS: C Rationale: Scoliosis is evidenced by an abnormal lateral curve in the spine, shoulders that are not level, an asymmetric waistline, and a prominent scapula, accentuated by bending forward. Lordosis is the curvature in the lower back; kyphosis is an exaggerated curvature of the upper back. This finding is not suggestive of muscular dystrophy.

31. A nursing educator is reviewing the risk factors for osteoporosis with a group of recent graduates. What of the following risk factors should the educator describe? A. Recurrent infections and prolonged use of NSAIDs B. High alcohol intake and low body mass index C. Small frame and female sex D. Male sex, diabetes, and high protein intake

ANS: C Rationale: Small-framed women are at greatest risk for osteoporosis. Diabetes, high protein intake, alcohol use, and infections are not among the most salient risk factors for osteoporosis.

7. A client injured in a motor vehicle accident has sustained a fracture to the diaphysis of the right femur. Of which tissue is the diaphysis of the femur mainly constructed? A. Epiphyses B. Cartilage C. Cortical bone D. Cancellous bone

ANS: C Rationale: The long bone shaft, which is referred to as the diaphysis, is constructed primarily of cortical bone.

10. The results of a nurse's musculoskeletal examination show an increase in the lumbar curvature of the spine. The nurse should recognize the presence of what health problem? A. Osteoporosis B. Kyphosis C. Lordosis D. Scoliosis

ANS: C Rationale: The nurse documents the spinal abnormality as lordosis. Lordosis is an increase in lumbar curvature of the spine. Kyphosis is an increase in the convex curvature of the spine. Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine. Osteoporosis is the significant loss of bone mass and strength with an increased risk for fracture.

32. A nurse is providing care for a client who has osteomalacia. What major goal should guide the choice of medical and nursing interventions? A. Maintenance of skin integrity B. Prevention of bone metastasis C. Maintenance of adequate levels of activated vitamin D D. Maintenance of adequate parathyroid hormone function

ANS: C Rationale: The primary defect in osteomalacia is a deficiency of activated vitamin D, which promotes calcium absorption from the gastrointestinal tract and facilitates mineralization of bone. Interventions are aimed at resolving the processes underlying this deficiency. Maintenance of skin integrity is important, but is not the primary goal in care. Osteomalacia is not a malignant process. Overproduction (not underproduction) of PTH can cause the disease.

16. A nurse is assessing a child who has a diagnosis of muscular dystrophy. Assessment reveals that the child's muscles have greater-than-normal tone. The nurse should document the presence of: A. tonus. B. flaccidity. C. atony. D. spasticity.

ANS: D Rationale: A muscle with greater-than-normal tone is described as spastic. Soft and flabby muscle tone is defined as atony. A muscle that is limp and without tone is described as being flaccid. The state of readiness known as muscle tone (tonus) is produced by the maintenance of some of the muscle fibers in a contracted state.

22. A nurse is caring for a client who has an MRI scheduled. What is the priority safety action prior to this diagnostic procedure? A. Assessing the client for signs and symptoms of active infection B. Ensuring that the client can remain immobile for up to 3 hours C. Assessing the client for a history of nut allergies D. Ensuring that there are no metal objects on or in the client

ANS: D Rationale: Absolutely no metal objects can be present during MRI—their presence constitutes a serious safety risk. The procedure takes up to 90 minutes. Nut allergies and infection are not contraindications to MRI.

13. During assessment, a client reports experiencing rhythmic muscle contractions when the nurse performs passive extension of the wrist. The nurse should recognize the presence of which condition? A. Fasciculations B. Contractures C. Effusion D. Clonus

ANS: D Rationale: Clonus may occur when the ankle is dorsiflexed or the wrist is extended. It is characterized as rhythmic contractions of the muscle. Fasciculation is involuntary twitching of muscle fiber groups. Contractures are prolonged tightening of muscle groups, and an effusion is the pathologic escape of body fluid.

5. A nurse is providing a class on osteoporosis at the local center for older adults. Which statement related to osteoporosis is most accurate? A. High levels of vitamin D can cause osteoporosis. B. A nonmodifiable risk factor for osteoporosis is a person's level of activity. C. Secondary osteoporosis occurs in women after menopause. D. The use of corticosteroids increases the risk of osteoporosis.

ANS: D Rationale: Corticosteroid therapy is a secondary cause of osteoporosis when taken for long-term use. Adequate levels of vitamin D are needed for absorption of calcium. A person's level of physical activity is a modifiable factor that influences peak bone mass. Lack of activity increases the risk for the development of osteoporosis. Primary osteoporosis occurs in women after menopause.

19. A nurse is performing a musculoskeletal assessment of a client with arthritis. During passive range-of-motion exercises, the nurse hears an audible grating sound. The nurse should document the presence of what assessment finding? A. Fasciculations B. Clonus C. Effusion D. Crepitus

ANS: D Rationale: Crepitus is a grating, crackling sound or sensation that occurs as the irregular joint surfaces move across one another, as in arthritic conditions. Fasciculations are involuntary twitching of muscle fiber groups. Clonus is the rhythmic contractions of a muscle. Effusion is the collection of excessive fluid within the capsule of a joint.

38. The nurse's musculoskeletal assessment of a client reveals involuntary twitching of muscle groups. How would the nurse document this observation in the client's chart? A. Tetany B. Atony C. Clonus D. Fasciculations

ANS: D Rationale: Fasciculation is involuntary twitching of muscle fiber groups. Clonus is a series of involuntary, rhythmic, muscular contractions and tetany is involuntary muscle contraction, but neither is characterized as "twitching." Atony is a loss of muscle strength.

38. An older adult client sought care for the treatment of a swollen, painful knee joint. Diagnostic imaging and culturing of synovial fluid resulted in a diagnosis of septic arthritis. The nurse should prioritize what aspect of care? A. Administration of oral and IV corticosteroids as prescribed B. Prevention of falls and pathologic fractures C. Maintenance of adequate serum levels of vitamin D D. Intravenous administration of antibiotics

ANS: D Rationale: IV antibiotics are the major treatment modality for septic arthritis; the nurse must ensure timely administration of these drugs. Corticosteroids are not used to treat septic arthritis and vitamin D levels are not necessarily affected. Falls prevention is important, but septic arthritis does not constitute the same fracture risk as diseases with decreased bone density.

26. A client presents at the clinic with a report of morning numbness, cramping, and stiffness in the fourth and fifth fingers of the right hand. What disease process should the nurse suspect? A. Tendonitis B. A ganglion C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Dupuytren disease

ANS: D Rationale: In cases of Dupuytren disease, the client may experience dull, aching discomfort, morning numbness, cramping, and stiffness in the affected fingers. This condition starts in one hand, but eventually both hands are affected. This clinical scenario does not describe tendonitis, a ganglion, or carpal tunnel syndrome.

8. A client has come to the clinic for a regular check-up. The nurse's initial inspection reveals an increased thoracic curvature of the client's spine. The nurse should document the presence of which condition? A. Scoliosis B. Epiphyses C. Lordosis D. Kyphosis

ANS: D Rationale: Kyphosis is the increase in thoracic curvature of the spine. Scoliosis is a deviation in the lateral curvature of the spine. Epiphyses are the ends of the long bones. Lordosis is the exaggerated curvature of the lumbar spine.

14. A client is undergoing diagnostic testing for osteomalacia. Which of the following laboratory results are most suggestive of this diagnosis? A. High chloride, calcium, and magnesium levels B. High parathyroid and calcitonin levels C. Low serum calcium and magnesium levels D. Low serum calcium and low phosphorus level

ANS: D Rationale: Laboratory studies in clients with osteomalacia will reveal a low serum calcium and low phosphorus level.

34. An orthopedic nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative day 1 following foot surgery. What nursing intervention should be included in the client's subsequent care? A. Dressing changes should not be performed unless there are clear signs of infection. B. The surgical site can be soaked in warm bath water for up to 5 minutes. C. The surgical site should be cleansed with hydrogen peroxide once daily. D. The foot should be elevated in order to prevent edema.

ANS: D Rationale: Pain experienced by clients who undergo foot surgery is related to inflammation and edema. To control the anticipated edema, the foot should be elevated on several pillows when the client is sitting or lying. Regular dressing changes are performed and the wound should be kept dry. Hydrogen peroxide is not used to cleanse surgical wounds.

23. A nurse is reviewing the care of a client who has a long history of lower back pain that has not responded to conservative treatment measures. The nurse should anticipate the administration of what drug? A. Calcitonin B. Prednisone C. Aspirin D. Cyclobenzaprine

ANS: D Rationale: Short-term prescription muscle relaxants (e.g., cyclobenzaprine [Flexeril]) are effective in relieving acute low back pain. ASA is not normally used for pain control, due to its antiplatelet action and associated risk for bleeding. Calcitonin and corticosteroids are not usually used in the treatment of lower back pain.

36. A client has had a cast placed for the treatment of a humeral fracture. The nurse's most recent assessment shows signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A. Arrange for a STAT assessment of the client's serum calcium levels. B. Perform active range of motion exercises. C. Assess the client's joint function symmetrically. D. Contact the primary provider immediately.

ANS: D Rationale: This major neurovascular problem is caused by pressure within a muscle compartment that increases to such an extent that microcirculation diminishes, leading to nerve and muscle anoxia and necrosis. Function can be permanently lost if the anoxic situation continues for longer than 6 hours. Therefore, immediate medical care is a priority over further nursing assessment. Assessment of calcium levels is unnecessary.

4. A nurse is teaching an educational class to a group of older adults at a community center. In an effort to prevent osteoporosis, the nurse should encourage participants to ensure that they consume the recommended intake of what nutrients? Select all that apply. A. Vitamin B12 B. Potassium C. Calcitonin D. Calcium E. Vitamin D

ANS: D, E Rationale: A diet rich in calcium and vitamin D protects against skeletal demineralization. Intake of vitamin B12 and potassium does not directly influence the risk for osteoporosis. Calcitonin is not considered to be a dietary nutrient.