Big Boy
S: Self-selected M: Measurable A: Action-oriented L: Linked to your life L: Long-term
SMALL goals
Stretch shortening cycle
SSC
interval training
Short bursts of high intensity exercise which alternate with periods of rest. Typically used to improve aerobic capacity as well as anaerobic endurance.
actin (thin filament) myosin (thick filament)
What are the 2 types of muscle proteins that make up a sacromere, and slide across eachother to provide muscle contraction?
ACE integrated fitness model
ACE IFT
exercise-induced feeling inventory
EFI
heart rate reserve
HRR
ideal body weight
IBW
cognitive associative autonomous
List the stages of learning
the arrangement of the body and its limbs
define posture
limits of stability
LOS
Tendon
A tough band of fibrous connective tissue which attaches muscle to bone.
increases 40-50%
During dynamic exercise, SV _______ curvilinearly with intensity. SV reaches near maximal levels approximately at ___ -____% of maximal aerobic capacity.
aka Karvonen formula difference between maximum heart rate and resting heart rate Max HR - Resting HR = HRR
Heart Rate Reserve (HRR)
maximal voluntary contraction
MVC
increases
SBP ______in a linear fashion with exercise intensity.
transtheoretical model
TTM
external internal
_____ motivation from trainer should inspire _______ of the client.
Rapport
______ is the foundation for success for all phases of the ACE IFT Model
Posterior
backside of the body
visceral
internal organs
70-80 bpm
what is average resting HR?
2
Any resistance training should be performed with enough resistance to tire before the anaerobic threshold of ____ minutes in order to be beneficial for muscle development.
risk identification risk evaluation selection of an approach for managing each risk implementation evaluation`
5 steps risk management protocol should consist of
Aerobic frequency recommendations
5+ days/week of moderate exercise
agility balance coordination reaction time speed power
6 motor skills related components oh physical fitness
past performance experience vicarious experience verbal persuasion physiological state appraisals emotional state and mood appraisals imaginal experiences
6 sources of information self-efficacy is developed through
1. preactivity screening form (PAR-Q) 2. health history questionnaire 3. physician's statement and medical clearance form 4. fitness assessment or evaluation form 5. release, waiver, or informed consent 6. client progress notes 7. incident reports high risk individuals who need a medical referral/require modifcations to their exercise program.
7 forms that should be kept and maintained (to ensure business practices conform to the standards set by professional organizations) what can using these tools/forms help to ID?
age family history cigarette smoking sedentary lifestyle obesity hypertension / on hypertension meds dyslipidemia (abnormally high cholesterol or fats(lipids) in the blood) prediabetes
8 risk factors for CV, pulmonary, or metabolic diseases
-onset of angina, chest pain, or angina-like symptoms -significant drop (>10mmHg) in SBP, despite an increase in exercise intensity -excessive rise in BP: SBP >250 mmHg, or DBP >115 mmHg -excessive fatigue, shortness of breath/wheezing (doesn't include heavy breathing due to exercise) -signs of poor perfusion: light-headedness, pallor (pale skin), cyanosis (bluish coloration, esp. around mouth), nausea, or cold and clammy skin -increase nervous system symptoms (ataxia, dizziness, confusion, syncope) -leg cramping/claudication (limping) -client requests to stop
8 signs and symptoms that merit immediate test termination of any exercise test involving exertion w/clients
-pain/discomfort in the chest, neck, jaw, arms, or other areas that may result from ischemia (reduced blood flow) -shortness or breath at rest or w/mild exertion -shortness of breath when lying flat (orthopnea) or coughing in sleep (paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea) -ankle edema (swollen ankles) -palpitations or tachycardia (unpleasant forceful/rapid beating of the heart) -intermittent claudication (pain in muscle with inadequate blood supply thats stessed by exercise) -known heart murmur -unusual fatigue/shortness or breath with usual activities -dizziness or syncope (loss of consciousness)
9 signs/symptoms of cardiovascular, pumlonary, or metabolic disease
moderate/+2 His father smoked cigarettes which means nothing. He smoked cigarettes but quit one year ago. What was the timeline again for quitting smoking? Six months which means it is not a positive risk factor for Roger. He works out 3 days per week for more than 30 minutes which means he is not sedentary, so no positive risk factor there. He has a BMI of 31, which is over the limit of 30 and is considered a positive risk factor. His systolic blood pressure is 142 which is above the cutoff of 140 so there is another positive risk factor. His total cholesterol is 188 mg/dl which is below the 200 mg/dl cutoff, so no risk factor there. This means there is a total of 2 risk factors. Did you memorize how many risk factors are associated with each risk classification? Well Low Risk is less than two so its not low risk. Moderate Risk is greater than or equal to 2 so that becomes Roger's risk classification.
A 44-year-old man name Roger comes to you wanting to exercise. After a thorough health-risk appraisal, you learn than his father had diabetes and smoked cigarettes. He quit smoking one year ago and he alternates between exercising on the stationary bike and treadmill 3 days per week for 30-45 minutes per session during his lunch break at work. He has a BMI of 31, Systolic Blood Pressure of 142 mmHg, Diastolic Blood Pressure of 88 mmHg, and a total serum cholesterol of 187 mg/dl. What risk classification is Roger and how many risk factors does he have if any according to ACSM guidelines?
a compound circular movement involving flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction, circumscribing a cone shape
Circumduction
Generally, people with LBP should avoid unsupported forward flexion and rapid movements, such as twisting, forward flexion, or hyperextension. Muscular endurance - as opposed to muscular strength - has been shown to have the strongest positive association with low-back health. Maintaining normal joint alignment with a neutral pelvic alignment and an erect torso are critical for optimal health.
Clients with low-back pain should avoid which of the following?
how often should hr be measured during a cardio assessment?
Continuously If possible, heart rate should be monitored continuously during a cardiorespiratory assessment.
cervical curve, thoracic curve, lumbar curve, sacral curve
Curves of the spine
1 pound body fat = 3,500 kcal Step 1: (Desired Weight Loss (pounds) x 3,500 kcal/pounds) ÷ # Weeks = Weekly Caloric Deficit (kcal/week) Step 2: Weekly Caloric Deficit (kcal/week) ÷ 7 days /week = Daily Caloric Deficit
DAILY CALORIC DEFICIT NEEDED TO ACHIEVE DESIRED WEIgHT LOSS IN SET TIMEFRAME
diastolic blood pressure
DBP
fades away.
DBP is determined when the pulse _____.
decrease slightly , remain the same
DBP may _____ or _____ with exercise intensity
degenerative disc disease
DDD
delayed onset muscle soreness
DOMS
Daily undulating periodization
DUP
The motions of joints in the body
Define Arthrokinematics
Golgi tendon organ
GTO
graded exercise test
GXT
bone mineral density
Indicates bone strength through calcium content
10RM ÷ 0.75 = 1RM150 pounds ÷ 0.75 = 200 pounds
Individual can perform maximum of 10 repetitions (10RM) with 150 pounds. What is his predicted 1RM?
36 in ÷ 35 in = 1.03
Individual with 36-inch waist and 35-inch hip circumference
synergistic
Individuals lacking TVA function tend to rely on ______ muscles to stabilize the spine during movements, altering their role of stabilization, and increasing the potential for compromised function and injury.
lumbar spine center of mass (COM)
It is recommended that phase 1 (stability and mobility) or functional movement and resistance training begin wit the establishment of proximal stability within the _______ region which encompasses the body's ______ and the core.
Training zone 3 Since Jacob cannot talk comfortably while training, he is in training zone 3.
Jacob is talking 2-3 words at a time during aerobic exercise. When utilizing the Talk Test, which training zone is Jacob in?
4-7 An athlete with advanced skill like James should train no less than 4 times a week and can train up to 7 if done properly.
James has been training for and competing in triathlons for 5 years. He wants to increase running speed and cycling power. How many times should you suggest he train per week?
Janet will complete the mile in 12 minutes within two months. For her goal, age and level of conditioning this goal is attainable, measurable (12 minutes), specific (complete the mile), relevant (wants to run a 5k) and time-bound (within one month). These are all the components that make up a SMART goal.
Janet is a 55-year-old woman you have recently taken on as a client. She currently walks the mile in 15 minutes and wants to be able to run in a 5k in six months. Which is an example of a SMART goal for her?
8-15 For general muscle fitness it is recommended that a person complete 1-2 sets of between 8-15 repetitions.
Janice is a 35-year-old woman who wants to improve her overall muscular fitness. When resistance training, how many repetitions should she perform per set?
flow-through taxation limited liability undefined operating standards in the states
LLC and LLP advantages / disadvantages
Line of gravity
LOG
Susan is ready to go into phase 3 of cardiorespiratory training which is also referred to as lactate threshold tolerance training. In Anaerobic-endurance training, she will have the benefit of utilizing the working muscles to produce force at an extended period of time to get her at or above VT2.
Susan is a fitness enthusiast who is looking for a higher-intensity cardiorespiratory routine. She is ready to increase the amount of sustained work at the second ventilatory threshold. In which phase of cardiorespiratory training is Susan in?
protein
The human body is incapable of using _____ for anabolic (tissue-building) purposes above the level of 1.5 g/kg of body weight.
low
The initial stage of an exercise program should consist of ___-intensity exercises for clients who are new to resistance training.
The latissimus dorsi and teres major on the posterior side adduct the arm towards the midline of the body.
The latissimus dorsi and teres major are prime movers for which movement?
5 major muscles of shoulder girdle
Trapezius, levator scapulae, rhomboids, pectoralis minor, and serratus anterior
What three sites are suggested for skinfold measurement in women?
Triceps, thigh and suprailium The triceps (back of the arm), thighs and suprailium area are places women are known to hold fat; therefore it is important to assess these areas in a body fat percentage test.
Perform with feet at normal gait-width apart Perform a leg swing to mimic gait Add resistance
What are proper progressions for a single-leg squat?
1. Extensibility 2. Elasticity 3. Irritability 4. Ability to develop tension
What are the 4 behavioral properties of muscle?
-plane (Arthrodial) - gliding and sliding. *acromioclavicular joint -hinge (ginglymus) - formed b/t 2/+ bones, where bones can only move along one axis to flex/extend. *elbow -ellipsodial (condyloid_) - a biaxial joint. radiocarpal flexion and extension *wrist -saddle (sellar) - unique joint. permits movement in all planes, including opposition. *carpometacarpal joint of thumb -ball and socket - ball shaped surface on 1 bone fits into cup shape depression of another. can move on multiple axes. *hip and shoulder -pivot (trochodial) - uniaxial joints. rotation. *proximal radioulnar -bicondylar - allows movement primarily around 1 axis w/some limited rotation in a 2nd axis. flexion, extension, limited rotation. *knee
What are the 7 types of synovial joints? what movements does each produce? give and example of each
Corticotropin releasing hormone (or CRH) and adrenocorticotropin hormone (or ACTH) create a bond in the hypothalamus and higher brain center. This interface is the consummate of "mind-body connection."
What are the two key hormones of behavior that bond brain and body together and play extensive roles in mind-body visceral and cognitive responses?
Auscultation & Palpation
What are the two most accurate methods used to measure heart rate? (choose 2)
Functional/resistance training and cardiorespiratory training Functional/resistance training and cardiorespiratory training are considered to be the principal components of fitness. The model divides them into four phases of training, personalizing the types for each client.
What are the two principal training components of the ACE IFT Model?
the number of cross bridges that are formed between actin and myosin at any time.
What dictates the force production of a muscle?
Actin filament at each end of the sacromere slide inward on myosin filaments, pulling the Z-lines toward the center of the sacromeres and thus shortening the muscle fiber.
What does the sliding filament theory state?
the arrangement of myosin and actin
What gives skeletal muscle its striated appearance?
Low-Moderate A low to moderate intensity should be maintained in order for a person to sustain aerobic exercise as well as to obtain results from said exercise.
What intensity level should generally be utilized for sustained aerobic activities?
The Feldenkrais Method consists of two interrelated, somatically based educational methods. These are the awareness through movement that is verbally directed for group work and functional integration which is a nonverbal manual contact technique designed for people desiring more individualized attention.
What is a somatically based educational method of the Feldenkrais Method?
Muscular imbalance occurs first, setting off the course to dysfunctional movement and system breakdowns.
Which comes first in the sequence of dysfunctional movement?
The lumbar spine is generally where the center of mass is located. That is why proximal stability of the lumbar spine is the priority when beginning stability and mobility training.
Which component of stability and mobility training should be addressed first? a. Proximal stability of the lumbar spine b. Proximal mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine c. Proximal mobility of the glenohumeral joint d. Stability of distal extremities
Static balance is the goal and final stage of stability and mobility training. Once a person reaches static balance they can move on to resistance programs and progressions.
Which component represents the final stage of stability and mobility training? a. Proximal mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine b. Proximal stability of the scapulothoracic spine c. Proximal mobility of the glenohumeral joint d. Static balance
The middle layer of the core consists of muscles and fasciae that encircle the lower regions of the spine. The muscles included are the transverse abdominis, pelvic floor musculature and the adjoining fasciae. This is the muscular layer usually referred to as the core.
Which layer of the core consists of muscles and fasciae that encircle the lower regions of the spine?
submaximal talk test
a person's HR can be determined at VT1 and VT2 thresholds by using the ________ for VT1 and VT2 testing
A predetermined heart rate to be obtained during exercise. = HRR x %intensity + Resting HR
Target Heart Rate (THR)
HRR x %Intensity +RHR (karvonen formula) = THR
Target Heart Rate (THR) / Karvonen Formula
= VO2 Max - VO2 rest x % of intensity + VO2rest
Target VO2 formula
HRR x %intensity + Resting HR = THR find MHR first: 220 - 30 = 190 BPM then find: HRR = 190 - 60 = 130 BPM 130 BPM x .80 + 60 BPM = 164 BPM THR
Target heart rate (THR) formula / Karvonen formula ex: 30 year old , resting HR 60 BPM @ 80% intensity
strain
Tear, stretch or injury of a muscle, fascia, or tendon caused by overexertion
Fitness status fatigue body composition digestion drugs/medication alcohol caffeine stress
List 8 factors that affect RHR
heart disease, type 2 diabetes, and stroke to reduce those risks through lifestyle interventions (healthy eating, increased physical activity, weight loss, tobacco cessation)
MetS increases a person's risk for developing __,___, and ___. What is the primary treatment objective for MetS?
Body composition His main goal is to decrease his body fat percentage, which deals with body composition. Therefore, a relevant goal would be specific to body composition.
Michael is a 35-year-old man who has a body fat percentage of 19%. He says he is looking to become "leaner". He has not participated in any exercise routine for two years. What is the main fitness indicator to consider when creating a SMART goal for him?
96-114 bpm A deconditioned person with a "poor" fitness classification should exercise at approximately 57-67% of their maximum heart rate. For Michael, this is 96-114 bpm. You should be able to deduce this without calculating past his MHR by simply looking at the ranges.
Michael is a 50-year-old man who has not exercised in 8 years. His fitness classification is "poor". What should Michael's heart rate stay between during cardiorespiratory exercise?
A deconditioned person with a "poor" fitness classification should exercise at approximately 57-67% of their maximum heart rate. For Michael, this is 96-114 bpm. You should be able to deduce this without calculating past his MHR by simply looking at the ranges.
Michael is a 50-year-old man who has not exercised in 8 years. His fitness classification is "poor". What should Michael's heart rate stay between during cardiorespiratory exercise?
Bill is a 50-year-old man with a family history of heart disease. His body mass index is 20 and he has been running 3 miles 3-4 days a week for a year. What are the exercise testing recommendations according to risk stratification based on his cardiovascular disease risk factors?
Moderate risk, medical exam necessary before vigorous exercise. Although Bill is at a higher than average fitness level for his age, because he is over 45 years old and has a family history of heart disease, he has 2 points on the risk factor scale, therefore requiring a medical exam before any vigorous exercise is initiated.
Your client has been complaining of pain in her anterior lower leg. What is the best course of action to take in continuing her exercise program?
Modify the program with cross training. The best course of action is to modify with cross training that does not aggravate the pain. This will keep her active without further injuring herself. Diagnosing and treating an injury is not within the scope of practice.
Your client is complaining of pain with extension of her elbow. She has a history of lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow). What is the best course of action to take in continuing her exercise program?
Modify the program with cross training. The best course of action is to modify with cross training that does not aggravate the pain. This will keep her active without further injuring herself. Diagnosing and treating an injury is not within the scope of practice.
Jumps in place Jumps in place are the best starting point for a beginner, as they are the lowest on the scale of intensity.
Molly is just beginning plyometric performance training with you. What is the best exercise for her to perform?
110 bpm Heart Rate Reserve (HRR) is the difference between a person's resting heart rate and their maximum heart rate (MHR). We can use the Karvonen method to determine her HRR. Since Monica is 40, we can determine her MHR by subtraction 40 from 220, which gives us 180 bpm. Then we take 70 away from 180 to get a HRR of 110 bpm.
Monica is a 40-year-old woman with a resting heart rate of 70 bpm. What is her Heart Rate Reserve (HRR)?
Movements performed in the frontal plane
Movements performed within this plane: Adduction, abduction, elevation, depression, inversion, and eversion.
strength , power (higher intensity, lower volume)
Muscles with more type II fibers are better suited for ______ and ______ - type training.
Force and Velocity Power = Force x Velocity, or Work/Time. It takes into account how quickly and forcefully a person can perform an activity.
Muscular Power takes what two performance factors into account?
What component of fitness does the body weight squat test measure?
Muscular endurance The bodyweight squat test measures lower body muscular endurance because it requires multiple repetitions over a period of minutes.
What component of fitness does the push-up test measure?
Muscular endurance The push-up test measures upper-body muscular endurance because it requires multiple repetitions over a period of minutes.
relative strength
a ration which compares the total amount lifted versus a person's body weight as measured in a ratio. It allows for comparative strength measurements across different individuals.
adheres to the established standard of care
a reasonable and prudent person is someone who ___.
performing body-weight movement sequences with proper form core stabilization control of the velocity of movement
adding resistance to dysfunctional movement patterns increases risk of injury. list 3 things clients must demonstrate proficiency with before adding resistance to movement patterns?
cardiorespiratory relapse breast
adequate ______ training will decrease the chance of ______ in ______ cancer patients.
emergency action plan AED current CPR and AED certs legal liability.
all organizations/personal trainers that operate independently must have an _________ in place. facility must also have an _______ on site. personal trainers and staff working with clients must have ____. failure to abide by the emergency procedures can expose the trainer to ______.
these energy systems do not require O2 to produce energy. They're the immediate short-term systems used in the first few minutes of exercise. ATP stored in muscle, creatine phosphate (PCr) and anaerobic glycolysis make up the these energy systems
define anaerobic energy systems. what makes them up?
standard posture wherein the body stands upright with the arms beside the trunk, the palms face forward, and the head faces forward
define anatomical position
further damage must be prevented if a neck injury is suspected. victim should not be moved and the head must be immobilized until EMS arrives
critical neck and back injury info
weekly caloric deficit / 7
daily caloric deficit
-carbs - 6-10 grams per kilogram of body weight per day (45-65% of total calories) -protein - 0.8 grams per kilogram of body weight per day for adults (10-35% of total calories) *adult athletes range from 1.2-1.7 g/kg of body weight -fats - 20-35% of total calories
daily macronutrient recommendations: how much of each should a person consume per day? carbohydrates, protein, fats
agonists: erector spinae (lower back), gluteus maximus, hamstrings (hip extenstion) synergists: quadriceps (knee extension), adductor magnus (leg stabilization) forearms, grip muscles of hands (hold bar) core muscles (activate to help erector spinae stabilize spine during movement)
deadlift is a compound movement that works a variety of muscle groups. list the muscles and actions they perform in a deadlift.
Activities of daily living. basic daily tasks (self-care, household chores).
define ADL
Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness: Result of Dynamic Eccentric Training
define DOMS
federal privacy law that gives parents certain protections with regard to their children's education records and some control over the disclosure of info from the records.
define FERPA (family educational rights and privacy act)
frequency, intensity, repititions, sets and type
define FIRST
high-density lipoproteins carry lipids away from storage into the liver for metabolism and/or excretion *good cholesterol
define HDL
law that requires health care professionals to have strict policies regarding the safety and security of private records. written permission from the client must be obtained prior to sharing confidential info with an outside party
define HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act)
low-density lipoprotein major carrier of cholesterol and other lipids in blood *bad cholesterol
define LDL
Metabolic energy equivalent an index of energy expenditure. VO2 / 3.5 = MET
define MET , give formula
Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands
define SAID principles
oxygen uptake reserve = VO2 MAX - 3.5
define VO2 Reserve , give formula
movement away from midline of the body, usually in frontal plane
define abduction (joint)
inflammation of the achilles tendon (connects bones of heel to calf) controlled eccentric exercises for the calf complex
define achilles tendonitis what exercises can help relieve symptoms and improve strength?
muscle tension that is generated by its contractile elements through the neuromuscular system (sliding filament theory)
define active muscle force
movement toward the midline of the body, usually in the frontal plane
define adduction (joint)
energy system that requires O2 to produce energy. Uses carbohydrates, fats, and proteins to produce ATP.
define aerobic energy system
muscle that works as the prime mover during the movement / joint action. *bicep is this in a bicep curl
define agonist
a signed document that indicates the client is aware of the inherent risks and potential injuries that can occur from participation in exercise.
define agreement to participate
lengthening phase of a muscle contraction. (Control during the lengthening portion of movement against force) "applies the brakes to slow a movement"
define eccentric
the production of an active force when a muscle develops tension while lengthening "slows movement, applying brakes to maintain control"
define eccentric activation
Social support focused on emotional needs (ex: consoling us when we are sad)
define emotional support
the innermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds the individual muscle fibers
define endomysium
physical barriers often outside our control that prevent us from being active. lack of access to facilities, bad weather, safety concerns provide clients with ways to be active outside the gym, at home or within their daily lifestyles
define environmental barriers how can you help a client overcome these?
continually assess the outcome of risk-management endeavors. the standard of care regarding some risks may change over time; therefore, some risk-management approaches may need to be altered.
define evaluation (risk management)
movement involving an increase in joint angle *extended/further away
define extension (joint)
rotation in the transverse plane away from the midline of the body
define external (lateral) rotation
strong connective tissues that perform a number of functions including developing and isolating the muscles of the body and providing structural support and protection.
define fascia (plural: fasciae)
inflammation of the connective tissue (fascia) (overuse condition)
define fasciitis
pain in the lower back, resulting from issues with the muscle and/or bones of the lower back. (musculoskeletal injury)
define low back pain. what causes it?
the largest training cycle time frame of a periodization program (6-12 months). this cycle consists of the combined mico and mesocycles
define macrocycle
Toward the midline of the body
define medial
300 minutes of moderate-intensity or 150 minutes of vigorous-intensity
how many minutes of exercise weekly should overweight and obese individuals seeking to manage their weight perform?
3 : skeletal, cardiac, smooth
how many types of muscles are there? name them
150 minutes of moderate-intensity or 75 minutes of vigorous-intensity or a combination of both
how much aerobic physical activity (in minutes) should adults engage in each week to improve overall health and wellness?
in the last 5 seconds of every minute
how often should RPE be taken during cardio assessment?
individual fitness goals
in load training, volume (reps and sets) vary depending on _______
resistance exercises involving each major muscle group. multi and single joint exercises can be used with a variety of equipment and/or body weight
in load training, what type of exercises are recommended?
2-3 minutes 48 hours or more
in reference of pattern in load training, rest intervals of _________ between each set of reps are effective. a rest of ______ between sessions for any single muscle group is recommended.
per-contemplation and contemplation later
in the early stages of ___ and ___, the perceived cons usually outnumber the pros. people in ____stages of action and maintenance perceive more pros than cons.
the cost of legal defense and any claims awarded. at least $1 million.
the best insurance companies cover _____. how much coverage does ACE recommend retaining?
axis of rotation
the center line around which a joint or other body part moves in rotation
not fully understood
the extent to which exercise can affect CV, endocrine, respiratory and musculoskeletal systems in older adults is ________________.
fascia
the fibrous connective tissue that covers muscle while providing structural support
range of motion
the full movement of a joint from full extension to full flexion
distal
the furthest distance from the origin of a muscle; away from the center of the body
hips and thoracic spine
the goal of proximal mobility in phase 1 (stability and mobility) of functional movement and resistance training is to improve mobility of the 2 joints immediately adjacent to the lumbar spine, the ____ and _____ . Exercises should be performed to promoted mobility in all 3 planes, focusing on the muscles ______ plane of movement first
CV conditioning preventing musculoskeletal deterioration (atrophy) reducing symptoms such as nausea and fatigue improving client's mental health
the goal with exercise in the treatment of cancer is to help improve one's overall quality of life through what means?
concentric-eccentric
the most efficient training programs use what kinds of repetitions?
injuries relating to falls on the premises.
the number one claim against fitness facilities and professionals is _______.
anaerobic glycolysis
the overall process where pyruvic acid generated durring glycolysis is converted to lactic acid. This is a metabolic pathway that does not require oxygen.
cardiac output
the product of heart rate (HR) and stroke volume (SV) or the quantity of blood pumped per heartbeat Q=HR x SV
muscular power
the relationship between force output and speed of movement. The ability to generate as much force as possible, as quickly as possible.
Ligament
the short band of fibrous tissue that holds a joint together by connecting two bones
20 9 essential 11 nonessential
there are ___ amino acids found in the human body. how many essential? nonessential?
600, 100
there are more than ______ skeletal muscles in the human body. approximately ______ are primary movement muscles.
exercise history and attitude questionnaire
this questionnaire is important for developing goals and designing programs
RICE rest, ice, compression, elevation
this treatment should be used immediately after musculoskeletal injuries (sprains, strains, bruises, other soft-tissue injuries)
-involving clients in planning stage of an exercise program by asking for input and working together to design the program helps them take responsibility for the program, and increases adherence -individuals who perceive benefits of exercise outweigh the barriers to exercise are more likely to adhere to the program -helping clients achieve heir own self-regulation is necessary.
tips for program adherence
anaerobic energy system
to maximize strength development, the resistance should be heavy enough to fatigue the target muscles within the limits of the ______________ (90 seconds or less)
fat grams per serving x 9kcal x # of servings per container
total calories from fat (FAT CAL) formula
Medial
toward the midline
stability, mobility joint alignment, muscle balance
trainers should always incorporate ______ and ______ training during the initial phase of a client's training. restoring proper ______ and ________ along with proper execution of the five primary movement patterns is the foundation of all movement.
sets - 2-3 per exercise reps - at least 12 per set rest - 30 seconds or less between sets intensity - 60-70% of 1RM
training volume: endurance sets? reps? rest? intensity
sets - 1-2 per exercise reps - 8-15 per set rest - 30-90 seconds between sets intensity: varies
training volume: general muscular fitness sets? reps? rest? intensity
sets - 3-5 per exercise reps 1-2 per set fo single-effort events 3-5 per set for multiple-effort events rest- 2-5 minutes between sets intensity: >90% of 1RM
training volume: power sets? reps? rest? intensity
sets - 2-6 per exercise reps - at least 6 per set rest - 2-5 minutes between sets intensity - 80-90% of 1 RM
training volume: strength sets? reps? rest? intensity?
Adduction of the wrist in the frontal plane (toward pinky side from anatomical position)
ulnar deviation
superior and lateral movement of the inferior angle of the scapula in the frontal plane
upward rotation of scapula
WHR = Waist circumference / hip circumference 32/36 = .89 WHR
waist to hip ratio (WHR) formula ex: calculate based on a person with a 32 in waist and 36 in hip
low risk - <2 risk factors moderate risk - 2 or more risk factors high risk - symptomatic, or known CV pulmonary, renal, or metabolic disease
what makes a client low, moderate, or high risk?
the rectus abdominis (abs) run parallel totheir origin and insertion points.
what makes the rectus abdominis muscle parallel?
joints
what makes up the articular system?
the core muscles
what muscles are stabilizers in all movement?
executive summary business description operational plan risk analysis decision-making criteria
what should a business plan cover?
avoid diagnosing anything yourself. respect your scope of practice. refer client to an appropriate healthcare provider to obtain guidelines and contraindications related to fitness training and the injured area.
what should a trainer avoid and do if a client asks about an injury?
-at least 20-60 minutes of aerobic, resistance, neruromotor and/or sports specific activities.
what should conditioning consist of?
loss of consciousness does not always accompany a concussion, and if a person doesn't lose consciousness, it does not mean the concussion is minor. no concussion (brain injury is ever minor)
what should personal trainers know about the difference between loss of consciousness and concussions?
anterior cruciate ligament (ligament that stabilizes the knee joint)
ACL
activities of daily living
ADL
automated external defibrillator
AED
autonomic nervous system
ANS
anterior superior iliac spine
ASIS
(adenosine triphosphate) main energy source that cells use for most of their work
ATP
Change the exercise modality. When a client begins to experience diminishing returns due to having reached their full genetic potential, introducing a new form of exercise will change the stimulus and force their body to continue changing.
Abigail has been training with you for a year. She has begun seeing fewer results lately and is becoming discouraged. What is the best way to increase the results she is getting when she has reached a plateau and is unable to increase resistance or number of repetitions?
A one-repetition maximum test evaluates which type of strength?
Absolute strength A 1RM test evaluates absolute strength, as it determines the greatest amount of weight that can be lifted at one time.
It is recommended by ACSM that a healthy adult participates in either moderate-intensity exercise 5 days per week, vigorous-intensity exercise 3 days per week, or a combination of the two.
According to ACSM guidelines, what are the recommendations of cardiorespiratory exercise intensity and frequency for healthy adults?
The Vertical Jump test assesses what component of fitness?
Power The vertical jump test assesses muscular power in the lower body.
John understands that his family has a history of heart disease and that being overweight can increase his risk for such conditions. He has no intention of beginning on any kind of exercise program since he believes he has never had any weight loss success in the past. According to the Transtheoretical Model of Behavioral Change (TTM), what stage of change is John in?
Precontemplation In the precontemplation phase, people are beginning to understand the implications of being inactive, but are not quite ready to commit to a change yet. They have no intention of starting to exercise in the foreseeable future (within 6 months) and tend to focus on the negatives of changing their behavior.
Pounds lifted ÷ % 1RM = Predicted 1RM
Predicted 1 Repetition Max (1RM)
In which stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change (TTM) is a client ready to adopt and live a healthy lifestyle?
Preparation A person in the preparation phase may be somewhat sporadic in their activity level, but is ready to make the change to a healthy lifestyle.
inflammatory phase fibroblastic/proliferation phase maturation/remodeling phase immediately following an injury
3 phases of the healing process how soon does this start?
fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial
3 types of joints
continuing self-regulation intrinsic motivation setting achievable goals
3 ways to prevent relapse
• 220 - 34 = 186 bpm • 186 - 62 = 124• (124 x 0.75) + 62 = 155 bpm
34-year-old, resting heart rate = 62 bpm, 75% of HRR
-goals direct attention toward desired behavior -goals lead to greater effort -goals extend time and energy devoted to a desired behavior -goals increase the use of goal-relevant skills
4 mechanisms that play a role in goal-related behavior change
avoidance - remove possibility of danger/injury by eliminating the activity transfer - move the risk to other waivers, insurance policies, etc reduction - modify risks by removing part of the activity retention - risks are retained, especially if the removal of the risk would eliminate potential benefit.
4 approaches for managing and reducing identified risks
planning exercise setting exercise-related goals self monitoring exercise behavior avoiding relapse
4 self-regulation strategies
emotional, instrumental, informational, appraisal
4 types of social support
duty (to protect plaintiff from injury) breach of duty (failed to uphold standard of care necessary to perform duty) proximate cause (damage/injury was caused by the defendant's breach of duty) damages (or injury occurred to the plaintiff)
4 elements a plaintiff must prove in a negligence claim
warm-up conditioning cool-down
3 components a training session should include
insulin glucagon catecholamines
3 fast acting hormones
Peter is a 47 year old male with a BMI of 31. He has been leading a sedentary lifestyle until recently hiring you. What is his risk stratification?
+3 Peter has a risk stratification of +3. He receives one point each for his age, BMI and lifestyle.
phase 3 or 4
1 RM testing should only be performed during phase ___ or ___ or the ACE IFT Model.
lbs lifted / % 1rm (see table for reps % of 1RM) 180 / .75 = 240lbs 1 RM
1 rep max (1RM) formula ex: calculate based on 180 lbs lifted for 10 reps
What is the approximate standard deviation of an individual's maximum heart rate?
12 bpm ...meaning a man of 22 years could have a maximum heart rate that falls between 186-210 bpm.
hypothermia, frostbite - can occur in extreme cold climates/conditions. proper preparation - layered clothing to trap body heat and help maintain body temp. hats and gloves protect exposed areas.
2 examples of cold stress best way to prevent it?
• 100% - 30% = 70%• 200 pounds x 0.70 = 140 pounds LBW • 100% - 25% = 75%• 140 pounds ÷ 0.75 = 187 pounds DBW
200-pound individual with 30% body fat. How much will he or she weigh at 25% body fat?
A certain amount of body fat is necessary for overall health and well-being. Essential body fat for women is between 10 and 13%
A certain amount of body fat is necessary for insulation and thermoregulation, hormone production, cushioning of vital organs, and maintenance of certain body functions. For women, what percentage is considered essential body fat?
insulin resistance
A condition where the body has a lower level of response to insulin. Muscle tissue is not able to properly transport glucose into the bloodstream.
type 1 diabetes OR juvenile diabetes OR insulin dependent diabetes
A condition where the pancreas produces little to no insulin
The session should be delayed of postponed if the pre-exercise glucose level is below 100 mg/dL, or If the pre-exercise blood glucose is greater than 300 mg/dL. Clients should follow specific guidelines from their healthcare providers should these situations arise.
A diabetic client has been screened thoroughly by his physician and has clearance to exercise. The blood glucose level should be measured before and after each exercise session. When should the exercise session be postponed?
126+
A fasting plasma glucose between 100 to _________ signals diabetes
125 mg/dl
A fasting plasma glucose between 100 to _________ signals pre-diabetes
connective tissue
A fibrous tissue that binds, supports and protects muscles, organs and structures of the body. This includes tendons, ligaments, joint capsules, etc.
Linear Periodization
A form of periodization used in resistance training that provides a consistent training protocol within each microcycle and changes the training variables after each microcycle
product goal
A goal that is achieved by a variable which can be measures such as a weight loss reduction or decrease in resting heart rate.
Tachycardia
A heart rate with a faster beat than normal; measured at over 100 beats per minute.
insulin
A hormone released by the pancreas, is directly involved in the uptake of glucose into tissue. Exerts a hypoglycemic effect by reducing blood glucose levels and promoting the uptake of glucose, fats, and amino acids into cells for storage.
A low-risk CAD client should have a functional capacity greater than 7 METS. There are safety concerns that need to be considered by the trainer prior to implementing any program with CAD clients, and physician clearance, recommendation, and limitations should be obtained before proceeding.
A low-risk CAD client should have a stable cardiovascular and physiological response to exercise. Which of the following characteristics is not generally applied to low-risk CAD clients?
lactic acid
A metabolic by-product of anaerobic glycolysis; when it accumulates it decreases blood pH, which slows down enzyme activity and ultimately causes fatigue.
microcycle
A minimum cycle in a periodized training program between one to four weeks long.
plantarflexion
A movement that flexes the toes toward the sole of the foot from the ankle.
extension
A movement which involves straightening a joint or extending it. It typically refers to the straightening of an arm or other limb.
isotonic
A muscular contraction in which joint movement occurs and muscle tension is created.
isokinetic
A muscular contraction in which the muscle changes throughout the range of motion; also commonly called "variable resistance"
Phase 3 or 4 A one rep max test should be conducted in phase 3 or 4 to make sure the body has proper stability, mobility and movement.
A one rep max test should be given in which phase of the ACE IFT Model?
lateral epicondylitis
A painful inflammation of the tendon that originates at the lateral epicondyle. A repetitive use injury caused from excessive loads at the wrist and finger extensors. (TENNIS ELBOW)
airway, breathing, circulation (vital indicators in unresponsive person)
ABCs
waist to hip ratio
A ratio used to determine health concerns from weight distribution. Measured by girth calculations at the waist and hip. Waist circumference/hip circumference
heat stroke
A serious condition brought on by excessive heat and measured by a body temperature of greater than 105 degrees. Considered a medical emergency with symptoms of red and dry skin, dizziness, seizures, coma and possibly death.
Valsalva maneuver
A strong exhaling effort which builds pressure in the chest cavity that interferes with the return of the blood to the heart. Can cause a drastic rise in blood pressure during expiratory force.
rectus abdominus
A superficial, flat muscle that is located on the anterior aspect of the abdominal wall. It functions mainly as a flexor of the spine and controls the tilt of the pelvis.
0.86 or higher
A waist to hip ratio greater than _________ is considered "at risk" for women.
1. Functional movement and resistance training 2. Cardiorespiratory training
ACE IFT Model has 2 principal training components, divided into 4 phases based on the Function-Health-Fitness-Performace Continuum. Name the 2 phases
Stability and Mobility Training It is important to ensure adequate stability and mobility before progressing to increased load or performance training.
According to the ACE IFT Model, what is phase 1 of the functional movement & resistance training component?
Anaerobic Power Training Anaerobic power training is typically the last phase in cardiorespiratory training because a person needs a good aerobic foundation in order to train for power.
According to the ACE IFT Model, what is phase 4 of the cardiorespiratory training component?
Aerobic-base training Aerobic base training is the first phase of the ACE IFT model. It gets sedentary clients to begin exercising at a low-moderate intensity.
According to the ACE IFT model, which phase of cardiorespiratory training should come first in a training program?
Force-couple Relationships The force-couple relationship refers to contralateral and directional opposing pulls at joints, which in turn keep them stable.
Achieving efficient movement through opposing and contralateral pulls at joints refers to which movement principle?
The force-couple relationship refers to contralateral and directional opposing pulls at joints, which in turn keep them stable.
Achieving efficient movement through opposing and contralateral pulls at joints refers to which movement principle? a. Neural Control b. Force-couple Relationships c. Length-tension Relationships d. Reciprocal Inhibition
sympathetic nervous system
Activates when there is a stressor or an emergency, such as severe pain, anger, or fear. Called the fight or flight response.
The strengthening of weakened muscles follows a progression model beginning with two to four repetitions of isometric muscle contractions, each held for 5 to 10 seconds. The next progression is to dynamic, controlled ROM exercises incorporating one to three sets of 12 to 14 repetitions.
After administering a static postural assessment, your client exhibits deviations in her static position from good posture. She is very deconditioned and has never engaged in an exercise program. Which of the following would you emphasize prior to introducing integrated strengthening exercises?
At what point in a maximal aerobic capacity assessment are carbohydrates the primary source of fuel?
After reaching the first ventilatory threshold Carbohydrates are the main source of fuel after the first ventilatory threshold is reached.
6-12 When training for hypertrophy it is recommended to complete 3-6 sets of 6-12 repetitions.
Alan is a 28-year-old bodybuilder looking to increase muscle size (hypertrophy). When resistance training, how many repetitions should he perform per set?
The glenohumeral joint is responsible for mobility as opposed to stability. Each of the other joints is responsible for stability.
All of the following joints are responsible for stability except: a. Knee b. Glenohumeral c. Lumbar spine d. Foot
For low intensity drills, clients at an intermediate level should be making 100 to 150 contacts per session.
Allan is at an intermediate level with his plyometric training. How many contacts per session should he be completing with low intensity drills?
Concussion If a person has fallen and is experiencing drowsiness, nausea or headache they may be suffering from a concussion and should seek medical attention.
Amnesia, headache, drowsiness and nausea are signs and symptoms of which condition?
transverse plane OR horizontal plane
An imaginary horizontal line that divides the body between upper and lower sections.
increase. stress-relaxation response.
An initial static stretch (low-force) causes a temporary ______ in muscle tension (low-grade). As a stretch is held, a ___________________ occurs, gradually releasing tension.
2-5 minutes When training for muscular strength or power a person should rest for a good 2-5 minutes between sets of resistance exercise.
Andrew is a 35-year-old man who is looking to increase strength in his upper body. How long should he rest in between sets of a bench press exercise?
Throughout the supine drawing-in exercises, there should be no movement of the pelvis, low back, or rib cage. Movement of these joints indicates activation of the rectus abdominis and an inability to activate the TVA in an isolated manner.
As your client is performing the supine drawing-in exercise, you notice she has movement in her pelvis, low back and rib cage. What does movement of these joints indicate?
Once a day At a minimum, the training environment should be assessed for hazards once a day prior to training sessions.
At the least, how frequently should the training environment be examined for potential hazards?
In what specific location is the abdominal circumference measured?
At the level of the umbilicus. The abdomen should be measured at the level of the umbilicus for best results. Waist circumference is taken at the smallest part.
bone mineral density
BMD
body mass index
BMI
(5' x 12) + 8 = 68" 196 ÷ 2.2 = 89 kg (68" x 2.54) ÷ 100 = 1.73 m89 kg ÷ (1.73 m x 1.73 m) = 30 (rounded up)
BMI for a 5' 8", 196-pound individual
base of support
BOS
The term low-risk is generally applied to clients who have functional capacity greater than7 metabolic equivalents (METS) three weeks following any medical event or treatment that required hospitalization.
Ben is a new client that has been released from his physician to take part in a basic exercise program. Ben is considered a low-risk cardiac client. What is Ben's functional capacity?
30-90 seconds A person exercising for the purpose of general fitness should rest for 30-90 seconds in between sets of a resistance exercise.
Beth is a 28-year-old woman who is looking to improve her overall fitness. How long should she rest for in between sets on a leg press exercise?
72 hours While it is recommended to wait 48 hours in between general resistance training sessions, when training at a workload as high as 80-90% of a client's 1RM it is recommended to wait 72 hours before working the muscle group again.
Bill is training at 80-90% of his 1 repetition maximum on leg press. How long should he typically wait before training his legs again?
Less than 30 seconds When training for muscular endurance, a rest interval of less than 30 seconds in between sets of resistance exercise is optimal.
Bob is a 30-year-old man looking to increase muscular endurance for distance running. How long should he rest in between sets on the leg extension machine?
High risk, medical exam needed Since Bob is over 45 years old, it has been less than 6 months since he quit smoking and he also has a BMI of 32, he has 3 points on the risk stratification scale. Note that since Bob has a BMI above 25, you have to assume prediabetes which makes him symptomatic. Based on these factors, Bob is considered high risk, therefore he needs to have a medical examination prior to beginning an exercise program.
Bob is a 45-year-old man who quit smoking 2 months ago. He has not participated in any exercise program in 2 years. His body mass index (BMI) is 32. What are the exercise testing recommendations according to risk stratification based on his cardiovascular disease risk factors?
2 days/ week Research indicates than older adults recover more slowly from their strength-training workouts than younger adults. Two resistance-exercise sessions per week may be advisable for older trainees to attain ample muscle-remodeling time between training days.
Bob is a new client who is 70 years old and has been inactive for about 10 years. His risk for exercise has been assessed and he has been cleared for exercise. How many sessions per week do you advise him to meet with you for full-body resistance training?
agility training
Both speed-endurance and speed-strength are important components of what type of training?
coronary artery disease
CAD
chronic fatigue syndrome
CFS
central nervous system
CNS
center of gravity
COG
center of mass
COM
cardiopulmonary resuscitation
CPR
cardiorespiratory fitness
CRF
cardiovascular disease
CVD
MET x 3.5 x Body Weight in Kg / 200 = kCal
Calories expended per minute formula
increases
Cardiac output (Q) _____ linearly with exercise intensity.
Mind-body exercise is designed to help a person's breathing, focus and re-emphasize the mind-body connection.
Carol is struggling with focus and is getting burnt out with exercising. To keep her motivated, which type of exercise should you consider incorporating?
It is important to monitor intensity as one of the most critical elements. However, it can also be one of the most difficult to measure.
Casey is a new client and you are ready to begin your first couple of sessions. Which variable is the most important to monitor?
What three sites are suggested for skinfold measurement in men?
Chest, thigh and abdominal The chest, thighs and abdominal area are places men are known to hold fat, therefore it is important to assess these areas in a body fat percentage test.
syncope
Commonly referred to as fainting; a person has a temporary loss of consciousness when not enough oxygen reaches the brain.
sciatica
Compression of the sciatic nerve which causes pain to shoot down the leg. Often the result from a lumbar herniated disc.
The process by which neural impulses that sense tension (GTO) are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract (muscle spindles), providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle. Activation of a GTO inhibits muscle spindle response, causing muscle to relax after a stretch is held.
Define Autogenic Inhibition
Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type, Volume, Progression to design cardiorespiratory, muscular, and flexibility exercise programs
Define FIIT-VP what should its principles be used for?
-High intensity interval training -alternating brief periods of high-intensity ex. by less intense recovery periods. -produces greater benefits in a shorter amount of training time. -benefits: improved speed, endurance, recovery time, CV health, insulin sensitivity, fat burning, and increased metabolism -typically 2-3x a week (best not done daily to prevent overtraining) *interval training promotes greater improvements in VO2 max and lactate threshold enhancing a person's ability to sustain high intensity for longer.
Define HIIT
the study of the mechanics of human movement. specifically evaluates muscles, joints, and skeletal structures and their involvement in movement.
Define Kinesiology
an imaginary vertical line passing through a person's COG. it helps to define proper body alignment and posture using landmarks from the head to feet.
Define Line of gravity (LOG)
the combined, interworking system of all muscles and bones in the body
Define Musculoskeletal system
often described as "heel pain". caused by inflammation of the flat band of tissue (ligament) that connects the heel bone to the toes. stretching the plantar fascia, and calve muscles. MF release (rolling foot over a lacrosse ball, golf ball, or dumbbell)
Define Plantar Fasciitis how can you help to enhance ROM in the plantar fascia?
personal trainer must review each risk, with consideration of the probability in areas of instruction, supervision, facilities, equipment, contracts, and business structure
Define Risk Evaluation
combines the advantages of sole proprietorship, partnership, and corporation business models. a suitable alternative for small businesses.
Define S Corporation / subchapter corporation
excessive lateral spinal curvature *more prevalent in women and may cause the pelvis and shoulders to be slightly uneven.
Define Scoliosis
isolated muscle group exercises involving 1 joint movement *bicep curls, knee extensions, leg curls
Define Single Joint Exercise give 3 examples
the pacemaker of the heart. a specialized area of cardiac tissue located in the right atrium of the heart where the electrical impulses which determine the HR originate
Define Sinoatrial node (SA node)
a high-energy compound required o do all mechanical work produced by the human body
Define adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
front of the body, ventral
Define anterior
portion of the skeleton that includes bones that connect to the spinal column including the upper and lower extremities. composed of 126 bones
Define appendicular skeleton. how many bones is it composed of?
carry blood away from the heart. the firther they ge from the heart, they become smaller and form small terminal branches (arterioles), which end in capillaries
Define arteries
inflammation of a joint based on the functional status of the client in conjunction with the their physician or physical therapist. to improve CV fitness, lower CAD (coronary artery disease) risk, increase muscular endurance and strength, and maintain (or when indicated) improve ROM and flexibility around the affected joints.
Define arthritis how should exercise programs for these clients be designed? what are the goals of the exercise program for these clients?
decrease in muscle fibers
Define atrophy
Portion of the skeletal system that consists of the skull, rib cage, and vertebral column. composed of 80 bones
Define axial skeleton. how many bones is it composed of?
both sides of the body
Define bilateral
the study of how forces affect a living body. evaluation of how the body moves
Define biomechanics
the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of blood vessels. the result of the amount of blood pumped from the heart (cardiac output) and the resistance the flow of blood meets at the vessels.
Define blood pressure
abnormally slow heart rate (slower than 60 BPM)
Define bradycardia
The smallest blood vessels, which deliver oxygenated blood to the body's tissues and carry away deoxygenated blood
Define capillaries
measures the overall performance of the heart. it measures the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute in liters HR(heart rate) x SV(stroke volume) = Q(cardiac output)
Define cardiac output (Q) What is the formula for it?
the ability to perform large muscle movement over a sustained period; related to the capacity of the heart-lung system to deliver O2 for sustained energy production. aka cardiorespiratory endurance or aerobic fitness.
Define cardiorespiratory fitness what is it aka?
the point from which the weight of a body can be considered to act. it changes with movement, body position, and base of support.
Define center of gravity (COG)
-involves performing several continuous ex. in a short period of time. -induced metabolic and CV responses that could improve aerobic capacity. -targets strength building and muscular endurance
Define circuit training
body part located on the opposite side of the body
Define contralateral
a formal business entity subject to laws, regulations and the demands of the stockholders. it's a legal entity completely separate from its owners and managers.
Define corporation
involves the ability to control a situation and choose the appropriate course of action. effective skills in this give control to the person involved and allows them to dictate the next steps to take.
Define decision making
below the surface
Define deep
shaft portion of a long bone
Define diaphysis
the pressure exerted on the arteries during the relaxation phase of the heart (in between beats)
Define diastolic blood pressure (DBP)
a carbohydrate that cannot be digested, but aids in lowering fat and cholesterol absorption. also improves blood sugar control. since it's non-digestable, it's subrtacted from the total carb of a given food. *a food with 22g of total carbs, with 12g dietary fiber = 10g net carbs
Define dietary fiber
farther away from any reference point
Define distal
the act of maintaining postural control while moving
Define dynamic balance
elevated levels of LDL (low density lipoprotein / "bad cholesterol") and total cholesterol. best managed and improved by combining exercise with dietary changes that reduce body fat and weight.
Define dyslipidemia
difficult or labored breathing. can come on suddenly, and be very uncomfortable or life threatening.
Define dyspnea
ability to return to resting length after being stretched
Define elasticity
the outermost layer of the muscle, made up of connective tissue that lies underneath the fascia and surrounds the muscle.
Define epimysium
End of a long bone, primary site for bone growth, involved in red blood cell production
Define epiphysis
the ability to be stretched or lengthened
Define extensibility
occurs when positive stimulus that once followed a behavior is removed decreasing reoccurrence of that behavior
Define extinction
participation in exercise to achieve external outcomes such as weight loss and appeaance. good for short-term SMALL goals.
Define extrinsic motivation
a decreased anterior lumbar curve. *there's a decrease in the normal inward curve of the back, while the head exhibits a forward tilt
Define flat back
a measure of how carbohydrates affect blood sugar levels.
Define glycemic index
the storage form of glucose that is found in the liver and muscle tissues
Define glycogen
movement that extends the angle of a joint greater than normal
Define hyperextension
increase in number of muscle fibers
Define hyperplasia
big muscles: the enlargement of an organ or tissue from the increase in size of its cells.
Define hypertrophy
increase in size of muscle fibers
Define hypertrophy
institute the plan
Define implementation (risk management)
a written statement signed by a client prior to testing that informs them of testing purposes, process, and all potential risks and discomforts.
Define informed consent
participation in exercise to achieve internal outcomes such as enjoyment of exercise itself or the sense of accomplishment after the workout is completed. this motivation for exercise is better for lifelong adherence.
Define intrinsic motivation
ability to respond to a stimulus
Define irritability
Static, muscle stays in the same place against an external load. (Joints do not move)
Define isometric
increased posterior thoracic curve / hunchback
Define kyphosis
an increased anterior lumbar curve
Define lordosis
the middle group training cycle time frame of a periodization program. combining these makes up the larger macrcocycle, usually 4-6 mesocycles per year
Define mesocycle
the degree to which articulation is allowed to move before being restricted by surrounding tissues
Define mobility
the mid-region in between the origin and insertion.
Define muscle belly
the ability of a muscle/muscle group to continually perform without fatigue. usually measured by repeated/sustained muscle contractions
Define muscular endurance. what is it usually measured by?
the ability of muscle to exert force (ususally measured in by 1-RM)
Define muscular strength
process by which behaviors are influenced by their consequences.
Define operant conditioning
decreased bone mineral density (BMD) and deterioration of bone microarchitecture. causes structural weakness and increases the risk of a fracture. Resistance training, especially higher intensity. reduces risk of falls and fractures. may need to modify some activities to prevent further injuries and falls. yes
Define osteoporosis what type of training can increase BMD? what does increasing BMD reduce? how should you modify for clients with osteoporosis? do clients with this need medical clearance prior to beginning an exercise program?
2 or more people who form a business together *any potential partnership can become contentious and shouldn't be entered without considerable contemplation and legal advice
Define partnership
connective tissue the wraps around bundles of muscle fibers called fascicles
Define perimysium
in this type of joint, bones are connected by cartilage, and little/no movement occurs. *symphysis/es
Describe cartilaginous joints. give example
-explosive ex. that target power development. -these ex. begin with a quick stretch of the muscle fibers (Eccentric phase) followed by a fast shortening of the muscle fibers (concentric phase) -ex: jump lunges, box jumps, sprints
Define plyometric training
The addition of a stimulus strengthens or increases a behavior.
Define positive reinforcement
back of the body, dorsal
Define posterior
as the body adapts to a given stimulus, an increase in stimulus is required for further adaptations and improvements. increasing reps and adding resistance in 5% increments(when end range # of reps is completed) are 2 principal approaches to strength-training progression
Define progressive overload
specialized sensory receptors located within joints, muscles, and tendons that provide the central nervous system with info needed to maintain body position and perform complex movements.
Define proprioceptors
closer to any reference point
Define proximal
the amount of movement produced by 1/+ joints
Define range of motion (ROM)
The simultaneous contraction of one muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist to allow movement to take place.
Define reciprocal inhibition
the number of contractions of the heart occurring in 1 minute while the body is at rest. *true RHR is measured just before a person gets out the bed in the morning
Define resting heart rate (RHR)
often a sign of overtraining. happens when a rapid breakdown of muscle tissue results in the release of intramuscular proteins (myoglobin, myosin protein) into the bloodstream. potentially harmful to kidneys, could lead to kidney failure, sometimes death in extreme cases.
Define rhabdomyolysis
perceived worthiness. capabilities and skills of one's self, based on inner belief and the responses of others.
Define self-concept
confidence in one's own worth or abilities
Define self-esteem
these muscles are consciously controlled, and provide locomotion and stability to the skeletal system.
Define skeletal muscles
one person owns the business
Define sole proprietorship
muscles that minimize unwanted movement while the agonist and synergists work to provide movement at the joint
Define stabilizer
located close to/on the body surface
Define superficial
A decreased anterior lumbar curve and increased posterior thoracic curve; often seen with rounded shoulders, a sunken chest and a forward-tilted head *Note how the femur and head are farther forward than what is seen in a kyphosis deviation, and there is typically a greater posterior deviation
Define sway back
the pressure exerted on the arteries during the contraction phase of the heart (when the heart beats)
Define systolic blood pressure (SBP)
abnormally fast heart rate (faster than 100 BPM)
Define tachycardia
aka nonlinear periodization. allows for varitiaion in the intensity and volume over the course of a training program
Define undulating periodization
one side of the body
Define unilateral
moderate forceful exhalation against a closed airway while pressing out as if blowing up a balloon. commonly used in powerlifting to stabilize the trunk during exercises like squat and deadlift. should be avoided by general population, increases intra-abdominal pressure, BP and HR. can hinder cardiac output and cause dizziness/fainting.
Define valsalva maneuver
Blood vessels that carry blood back to the heart. formed from venules (other small vessels the collect blood from capillaries) that have merged together
Define veins
region from elbow to the wrist
Define: Forearm
transverse abdominis (TVA)
Delayed activiation of the ________________(____) may inadquately stabilize the _______spine during movements of the upper and lower extremities which increase the potential for injury.
"tell me and i'll forget, shoe me and i may remember, involve me and i'll understand" best way to practice teaching. start with brief and simple explanation "tell" along with demo "show" followed by client performing exercise "do" observe client while they perform the exercise and prepare to provide helpful feedback
Describe Tell, Show, Do technique
these joints are held together tightly by fibrous connective tissue and allow little or no movement. classified as synarthrodial . (syn = together. arthro = joint) *the sutures of the skull, and joint between distal ends of the tibia and fibula
Describe fibrous joints. what are they classified as? give examples.
varies depending on fitness level and individual goals
Describe intensity in terms of FIIT-VP principles
aka diarthrodial/diarthroses ("through joint") joints. held together by a joint capsule and ligaments; they're most associated w/movement in the body. 80% of joints
Describe synovial joints. what % of all joints in the body do they comprise?
DBW= LBW/ (1-DBF%) Step 1: 100% - Fat % = Lean body %Step 2: Body weight x Lean body % = LBW Step 3: 100% - Desired fat % = Desired lean % Step 4: LBW ÷ Desired lean % = DBW
Desired body weight formula
type 2 diabetes
Diabetes of a form that develops especially in adults and most often obese individuals and that is characterized by high blood glucose resulting from impaired insulin utilization coupled with the body's inability to compensate with increased insulin production.
Hip flexors and extensors While some other muscles may act as stabilizers, the hip flexors and extensors are the main muscles utilized in hiking, and therefore should be the muscles targeted during resistance training.
Diana is looking to improve her hiking endurance. What are the main muscle groups that should be targeted?
Low-moderate resistance, high repetitions. It is important to choose an appropriate number of repetitions for the desired outcome. When looking to improve endurance, a low-moderate resistance and high number of repetitions should be used.
Diana is looking to improve her hiking endurance. What type of repetitions is right for her?
no
Does limb length influence muscle hypertrophy?
flexing the ankle so that the foot moves anteriorly in the sagittal plane *foot points up toward the leg
Dorsiflexion
The muscle spindle is a sensory organ within a muscle and stretches along with the muscle. The muscle spindle is activated and causes a reflexive contraction in the agonist muscle and relaxation in the antagonist muscle. It's known as the stretch reflex.
During a dynamic stretch, which of the following is sensitive to stretch and is responsible for protecting the muscle against too much stretch?
Motor learning Most strength increases in the first two weeks of a training program are typically due to increased motor unit recruitment within the nervous system as opposed to an increase in muscle size, which comes later.
During the first two weeks of an exercise program, strength gains are typically a result of what adaptation?
ballistic stretching
Dynamic stretching characterized by rhythmic bobbing or bouncing motions representing relatively high-force, short-duration movements.
excess post oxygen consumption
EPOC
abducting the ankle *feet turn out *sole of the foot facing outwards
Eversion
What information does the Informed Consent form collect?
Evidence of disclosure. The informed consent form is where your client acknowledges their "assumption of risk", serves as evidence of disclosure of risks and communicates the potential dangers of exercise. It does not release liability.
kyphosis
Excessive curvature of the spine which causes hunching of the back.
lordosis
Excessive inward curvature of the spine in the lower region.
frequency, intensity, repetitions, sets, type
FIRST
Frequency Intensity Time Type Volume Progression
FITT-VP
Frequency Intensity Time Type Volume Pattern/Progression
FITT-VP Principle
Movements performed in the sagittal plane
Flexion, extension, dorsiflexion, and plantar flexion
tight hip flexors decrease neural drive to the gluteus maximus inhibiting its function. This causes synergistic dominance where the synergist (hamstrings) takes over to perform the movement.`
Give an example of altered reciprocal inhibition
When beginning an exercise program with a client, you determine that he has checked "yes" to 4 risk factors on the Health Questionnaire. The next step in the training process is to:
Give your client a form to be signed by his physician, approving the exercise program. If a client has 1 or more risk factors, you may not legally train him or her without a signed consent form from his/her physician.
in some states, offers liability protection to the person who administers the AED.
Good Samaritan Law
High Intensity Interval Training
HIIT
fast twitch muscle fibers (type II)
Has low oxidative capacity but a high glycolytic capacity; recruited for rapid movement
Hypertension
Having a systolic blood pressure over 140 mmHg, a diastolic blood pressure over 90 mmHg. It is the leading cause of stroke in the United States.
the perceived threat of a potential health problem, susceptibility to potential health consequences and the belief that making suggested behavioral changes will result in a decreased risk of those consequences
Health Belief Model (HBM)
high risk: men -greater than/= to 39.5" women - >/= 35.5 low risk: men less than/= to 31.5 women - </= to 27.5
Health risk is high when wasit circumference is greater than/equal to ____for men and _____ for women. Low risk is less than/equal to ______ for men and _____for women
the difference between maximal heart rate and resting heart rate MHR - RHR = HRR *30 year old client with RHR of 60 BPM 190 - 60 = 130 BPM
Heart Rate Reserve (HRR)
MaxHR - restingHR = HRR (find MHR first: 220 - 30 = 190 BPM) 190 - 60 = 130 BPM HRR
Heart Rate Reserve (HRR) formula ex: 30 year old with resting HR of 60 BPM
Intensity The amount of resistance (her own body weight) is a measure of the intensity of Helen's workout.
Helen is focusing on using her own bodyweight to create an overload. Which training principle is she utilizing?
high blood pressure (hypertension)
High blood pressure that exceeds the average and recorded as resting blood pressure at or above 140/90 mmHg.[*Now 130/80]
15-30 seconds A beginner should perform at less than 70% of their maximum effort for a period of 15-30 seconds.
How long should an agility drill last for a beginner?
3 to 4 sessions per week
How many days a week should a new client exercise with intermediate experience, according to general guidelines?
Bob is a 45-year-old man who quit smoking 2 months ago. He has not participated in any exercise program in 2 years. His body mass index (BMI) is 32. What are the exercise testing recommendations according to risk stratification based on his cardiovascular disease risk factors?
High risk, medical exam before moderate exercise. Since Bob is over 45 years old, it has been less than 6 months since he quit smoking and he also has a BMI of 32, he has 3 points on the risk stratification scale. Note that since Bob has a BMI above 25, you have to assume prediabetes which makes him symptomatic. Based on these factors, Bob is considered high risk, therefore he needs to have a medical examination prior to beginning an exercise program.
Phosphagen
High-energy phosphate compounds found in muscle tissue, including adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and creatine phosphate (CP), that can be broken down for immediate use by the cells
Plyometrics
High-intensity movements, such as jumping, involving high-force loading of body weight during the landing phase of the movement that take advantage of the stretch-shortening cycle.
When an anterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles are suspected to be tight?
Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae Generally, the muscles supporting the occurring action, or the shortened muscles, are tight. When an anterior pelvic tilt occurs it is usually the result of shortened, tight hip flexors and/or erector spinae, causing lordosis in the lumbar spine.
When a posterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles should you aim to strengthen through restorative exercise?
Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae When an imbalance is determined it is important to strengthen the muscles opposing the action that is occurring. In the case of a posterior pelvic tilt, these muscles are the hip flexors and erector spinae.
3 types of proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) stretching
Hold-relax, contract-relax, and hold-relax with agonist contraction.
GTO detect differences in tension. when excessive tension is detected , they send a signal to prevent the muscle from contracting (preventing muscle injury that can occur from over-contraction). GTO will signal the muscle to relax after about 30 sec. of applied tension to the muscle.
How do GTOs work to prevent damage to the musculoskeletal system?
2 to 3 days per week Each major muscle group can be trained 2 to 3 days per week as a general recommendation.
How many days a week should a normally healthy client engage in resistance training for each major muscle group?
2-3 days/wk Adolescents should perform resistance training approximately 2-3 non-consecutive days per week.
How many days per week should a 13-year-old boy perform resistance training?
2-4 days Ideally, a person in phase 2 of their cardiorespiratory training should aim for 3 days of cardio exercise per week in order to progress.
How many days per week should a client do cardio exercise if they are in phase 2 of cardiorespiratory training and want to keep progressing toward their goal?
20-30 minutes A person of a poor fitness level should exercise for between 20 and 30 minutes per day.
How many minutes should a client who is of a poor fitness level exercise for per day?
30-90 minutes Any person who is of a fair fitness level or higher can generally safely exercise from 30-90 minutes per day.
How many minutes should a client who is of an average fitness level exercise for per day?
Discontinue the exercise and have Howard sit down, give him something sugary to drink and monitor him. You should discontinue exercise at the first signs of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar). It is not yet necessary to contact EMS. It is important to give the person something sugary to eat or drink as opposed to anything with artificial sweeteners or only protein. He should be monitored in case he loses consciousness.
Howard is a diabetic client whom you have been training for 3 months. While exercising he begins to show signs of hypoglycemia. What is the best course of action?
When answering the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q), your client answers "yes" to a bone or joint problem that could be made worse by a change in physical activity. What is the next step in his fitness program?
If a client answers "yes" to one or more of the questions on the PAR-Q it is necessary for them to talk with their doctor about their readiness to begin an exercise program before any other actions are taken, especially before a fitness appraisal.
When answering the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q), your client answers "yes" to chest pain during physical activity as well as currently taking a prescription blood pressure medication. What is the next step in his fitness program?
If a client answers "yes" to one or more of the questions on the PAR-Q it is necessary for them to talk with their doctor about their readiness to begin an exercise program before any other actions are taken, especially before a fitness appraisal.
reduced
If a muscle is contracted or stretched the force capability is ___________.
primary: carbohydrates (onset or work and high -intensity work) followed by: fats (prolonged exercise and low to moderate intensity [more than 30 min.]) last: proteins
In an aerobic energy system, what is the primary source of energy at the onset of exercise and during high-intensity work ? followed by what source at what point and intensity? last source?
increase of decrease calories by 300 to 400 kcals per day
In reference to BMR, how what does one to to gain or lose weight?
Phase 4 Any tests involving power, speed, and agility should be tested in phase 4 of the ACE IFT Model.
In what phase should you test your client for power?
Performance training Performance training focuses on developing power, speed, agility and reactivity specific to the client's performance goals. Therefore, it is important to assess the client's ability to perform such tasks in order to determine the level of training to implement as well as to determine their progress.
In which resistance training phase should assessments for power, speed, agility and reactivity be conducted?
Movement training Movement assessments should be administered on a monthly basis to determine if the client has mastered the movements necessary in order to move on to the Load training phase
In which resistance training phase should movement assessments be administered?
Load training Muscular strength and endurance should be periodically assessed throughout the Load training phase in order to aid in program design and ensure progression.
In which resistance training phase should muscular strength and endurance be periodically assessed?
Whenever you are unsure of what to do in a medical emergency you should call 911. Difficulty breathing is a medical emergency and can turn fatal within minutes, so it is important to call 911 in the case of difficulty breathing.
In which situation should you call 911?
how to discuss nutrition with client
Instruct them to go to choosemyplate.gov and to follow the instructions on the web site. Telling your client to visit choosemyplate.gov is within the ACE trainer's scope of practice and is a good way to get your client on the right track nutritionally.
long chain
MCT are an excellent source of fuel for the body whereas ____ fatty acids cannot be used as fuel.
In which stage of the client-trainer relationship should the trainer learn their client's likes and dislikes?
Investigation Stage The investigation stage is when the trainer should learn about the client, including their likes and dislikes.
In what stage of the client-trainer relationship are health-history and lifestyle questionnaires administered?
Investigation Stage The investigation stage occurs between the rapport stage and planning stage, and is typically when a trainer will ask a client to fill out a health-history or lifestyle questionnaire.
Kristin is in for her second session and you are conducting fitness assessments. While you are checking her body fat percentage you ask her about types of exercise she prefers to do. What stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Kristin?
Investigation Stage This is an example of gathering information, which you should do before the planning stage. This is part of the investigation stage.
Metabolic energy equivalent (3.5 ml) - an index of energy expendature
MET
depth jumps The higher the intensity of a plyometric exercise is dictated by the amount of stress placed on the muscles, connective tissue, and joints. The depth jump plyometric exercise would rank at the highest in intensity and jumping in place would rank lowest in intensity.
Jeff is an advanced client. What would be a plyometric drill to advance him to the highest intensity?
2-3 A person who is not currently training or is just beginning should start out exercising between 2 and 3 times per week.
Jenna has not participated in an exercise program for 2 years. She wants to get back into a resistance training routine to gain strength and reduce her body fat percentage. How many times should you suggest she perform resistance training per week?
When progressively increasing a workload (resistance, it is best to increase in increments of 5%, which in this case is 10 pounds.
Jim has been resistance training with you for a month. He has been performing sets of 10-15 repetitions on the leg press. You have been gradually increasing the exercise workload, and he can currently perform 15 leg presses per set with 200 pounds. Which of the following is the best way to progress from here?
5 weeks When ceasing resistance exercise a person will lose strength at approximately one half of the rate in which it was gained. Therefore, about half of Jim's strength gains will be lost in 5 weeks.
Jim has been training with you for 5 weeks and has increased his upper body strength in pull-ups by 25%. He is going on vacation and you are explaining to him the importance of continuing to train while he is away. Approximately how long would it take Jim to lose half of his strength gains?
Jim is showing signs of patellofemoral pain syndrome. He should avoid deep squats and all downhill running likely to place more stress on the patella. Stretching should focus on tight calves, hamstrings and the IT band.
Jim is 35 years old and an avid runner. Recently he has been complaining of an 'achy' pain behind his patella. Which of the following training modifications should you make?
75 pounds Most people can complete about 10 repetitions at 75% of their 1RM.
Jim's 1 repetition maximum for bench press is 100 pounds. If Jim follows the typical relative muscular endurance pattern, approximately what resistance should he be able to bench press for 10 repetitions?
increase in myofibrils increase in the muscle cell sarcoplasm
John has been strength training with you for 5 weeks and is already experiencing increased muscular strength. This strength gain is a result of which two tissue adaptations?
Body weight lunge The Movement training phase consists of body weight only exercises to improve strength with movement and prepare a client for the Load training phase.
John is in the Movement training phase of resistance training. What is an example of an exercise he should be performing at this time?
1500 pounds The training volume of an exercise is determined by multiplying the sets by the repetitions by the resistance. Therefore, John's training volume is 3 x 10 x 50 = 1500 total pounds lifted.
John performs 3 sets of 10 bicep curls with a 50-pound barbell. What is the training volume of his bicep curls?
In what specific location is the circumference of the upper thigh measured?
Just below the gluteal fold. The circumference of the upper thigh should be measured at the largest part, or just below the gluteal fold.
Grade I A sprain with minimal discomfort and the option of weight bearing is a grade I sprain.
Kelly has been diagnosed with a ligament sprain in her knee. She has minimal impairment and tenderness and has been advised to bear weight as tolerated. What severity level is Kelly's ligament sprain?
Tight hip adductors and weak gluteus medius muscles can lead to which compensation?
Knees moving inward The muscles that oppose the inward movement of the knees are weak and the muscles that generate it are tight, therefore causing the movement to occur.
8
Knowing a client's RHR provides insight to target HRs for training and signs of overtraining when RHR is elevated more than __ BPM
informed consent liability waiver PAR-Q (physical activity readiness questionnaire health-history questionnaire exercise history and attitude questionnaire medical release (if necessary once risk stratification is completed) testing forms client-personal trainer agreement
List 9 necessary/recommended client consulation forms
biceps brachii triceps brachii brachioradialis brachialis
List of 4 Muscles of the Arm
increased resting HR disturbed sleep decrease hunger on multiple days
List signs of overtraining:
poor movement of the chest wall flaring of the nostrils straining of the neck muscles poor air exchange from mouth and nose pale sweaty skin cyanosis
List signs of respiratory distress
phase 1, function - aerobic-base training phase 2, health - aerobic-efficiency training phase 3, fitness - anaerobic endurance training phase 4, performance - anaerobic-power training
List the 4 phases of the cardiorespiratory training of the ACE IFT Model, and each of their focuses
phase 1, function - stability and mobility training phase 2, health - movement training phase 3, fitness - load training phase 4, performance training
List the 4 phases of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACT IFT Model, and each of their focuses
tricuspid valve - right atrium pulmonic valve - right ventricle mitral (bicuspid valve) - left atrium aortic valve - left ventricle
List the 4 valves of the heart , and where they prevent backflow into
ilacus psoas satorius rectus femoris pectineus tensor fascia latte
List the muscles of the hip flexor complex
1. health-risk appraisal 2. resting vital signs (HR and BP) 3. body composition (height, weight, BMI, WHR, Skinfold measurements) 4. static posture and movement screens 5. joint flexibility 6. balance and core function 7. cardiovascular fitness (cycle ergometer tests; ventilatory threshold testing;fiels test( Rockport fitness 1-mile walking test, 1.5 mile run test); step tests (YMCA Submaximal step test) 8. Muscular fitness: Muscular endurance (push-up test, curl-up test, body-weight squat test), Muscular strength (1-RM testing for bench-press, leg press, and squat test, submaximal strength test) 9. Skill related assessments: balance, agility, coordination, reaction time, speed and power
List the sequence of assessments (9)
golgi tendon organ
Located between the muscle belly and its tendon, the GTO senses increased tension within its associated muscle when the muscle contracts or is stretched
Wendy is a 50-year-old woman who has not exercised in 3 years. She has no family history of heart disease and is a non-smoker. What are the exercise testing recommendations according to risk stratification based on her cardiovascular disease risk factors?
Low risk, medical exam not necessary. Although Wendy has been living a sedentary lifestyle, since she is a woman under 55 without any other risk cardiovascular factors she only has 1 point on the risk stratification scale, which means she does not need a medical exam before beginning any exercise program.
Training volume is typically lower for competitive powerlifters who perform fewer exercises, repetitions and sets with heavier weight loads as they focus on improving the muscle's ability to maximally recruit fibers to generate higher amounts of force.
Low training volume is typical for what type of client?
A client who is deconditioned with poor flexibility (a level less than 80 degrees on the passive leg stretch is considered tight) and muscle imbalance should start out with myofascial release, a good warm-up and static stretching to prevent injury.
Maggie is a 50-year-old woman who has not participated in an exercise program in 8 years. She had a measurement 70 degrees of movement with a passive straight-leg raise. She exhibits slight femoral internal rotation. What stretching techniques should be utilized before her workout based on her fitness level?
Myofascial release, warm-up and static stretches A client who is deconditioned with poor flexibility (a level less than 80 degrees on the passive leg stretch is considered tight) and muscle imbalance should start out with myofascial release, a good warm-up and static stretching to prevent injury.
Maggie is a 50-year-old woman who has not participated in an exercise program in 8 years. She had a measurement 70 degrees of movement with a passive straight-leg raise. She exhibits slight femoral internal rotation. What stretching techniques should be utilized before her workout based on her fitness level?
The rectus abdominis pulls upward on the anterior, inferior pelvis. The erector spinae pulls upward on the posterior, superior pelvis.
Maintenance of a neutral pelvic position is achieved via opposing force-couples between four major muscle groups that all have attachments on the pelvis. Which of the following two muscle groups is responsible for pulling upward on the pelvis?
Aim for 60 sit-ups in 2 minutes. It is important to stay within the 2-minute range, or anaerobic range, when performing strength training. Therefore, increasing the number of repetitions performed during the 2-minute time frame is the best way to progress with a body weight exercise.
Mary has been training with you for 2 weeks. She can currently perform 45 sit-ups in 2 minutes. What is the best way to progress?
Fibromyalgia clients should be encouraged to exercise at a low-to moderate-intensity level. Trainers should also encourage variety, rather than one particular type of activity, to reduce repetitive trauma and potential adverse symptoms. Gentle stretching should become part of the daily routine, with extra care being taken to avoid overstretching.
Mary is your client who has fibromyalgia and has been participating in a warm-water exercise class for 3 months. Along with the water exercises, what other recommendations do you have for Mary?
Dynamic and ballistic stretches A client who is a performance athlete and exhibits good skill and flexibility would benefit most from dynamic and ballistic stretches to prepare their muscles for sport specific exercise.
Matt is a 26-year-old man who is training for a mixed martial arts competition. He has been training in this area for 3 years. He has good shoulder mobility and has successfully completed all stability and mobility tests. What stretching techniques should be utilized before his workout based on his fitness level?
Muscular Endurance and Strength At this point he is ready to test his muscular endurance and strength as you have determined he is not a health risk and begun steps to correct any postural issues. Skill-related assessments should be saved for after you have determined his need for strength and/or endurance training.
Matthew is a new client that you have been seeing for two weeks now. You have completed the health risk appraisal and with no medical clearance needed, checked his resting measures, tested his static and dynamic posture as well as performed body composition and aerobic tests. What is the best test to perform next in his training process?
220 - age = MHR or 208 - (0.7 x age) = MHR measured in BPM
Max Heart Rate (MHR)
220-age or 208 - (0.7 x Age) *30 year old client would have a MHR of 190 BPM: 220-30=190 BPM
Max Heart Rate (MHR) formula
VO2 Max
Maximal aerobic capacity is typically represented as milliliters of oxygen consumed per kilogram of body weight per minute (mL/kg/min)
diuretic
Medication that produces an increase in urine volume and sodium excretion.
beta blocker
Medications that act to slow the heart rate and decrease maximum heart rate and are used for cardiovascular and other medical conditions.
160-179 bpm A conditioned person with an "excellent" fitness classification should perform cardiorespiratory exercise at 84-94% of their MHR. This is 160-179 bpm for Michelle. You should be able to deduce this without calculating past his MHR by simply looking at the ranges.
Michelle is a 30-year-old dancer who regularly exercises at a vigorous pace. Her fitness classification is "excellent". What should Michelle's heart rate stay between during cardiorespiratory exercise?
The client should begin with short bouts of activity - three to five minutes, and gradually build to 30 minutes over time. The personal trainer should also consider using intermittent exercise with rest periods as needed.
Michelle is your client who is recovering from a stroke. She has clearance from her physician and recommendations to use a recumbent bike and to work on balance exercises. What should the duration of her activities be?
In what specific location should the arm be measured?
Midway between the acromion and the olecranon process with the arm relaxed. The measurement of the arm should be taken between the acromion (lateral portion of the collarbone) and the olecranon process (elbow) with the arm relaxed for best results.
Phase 2 Phase 2 is the final phase before the anaerobic phases, and most non-competitive fitness goals can be accomplished aerobically.
Most non-competitive fitness goals can be accomplished through which phase of cardiorespiratory training?
slow twitch muslce fibers
Muscle fibers that contract slowly during lower intensity or longer duration activities. Used for fatty acid oxidation and aerobic glycolysis.
resting length.
Muscle force capability is greatest then the muscle is at its ______ ________ due to the increased opportunity for actin-myosin cross bridges.
Decreasing muscle tissue resulting from disuse atrophy will decrease Resting Metabolic Rate (RMR) and increasing muscle tissue will increase RMR. Decreasing muscle tissue requires less energy in daily metabolic function and the calories previously used by muscle tissue will be stored as fat.
Muscle tissue is constantly active for purposes of maintenance of muscle proteins. Skeletal muscle is responsible for what percentage of the body's calorie use during sleep?
Type II (fast-twitch , explosive)
Muscles primarily responsible for joint movement generally contain greater concentrations of _________ muscle fibers.
Type I (slow-twitch , endurance) Core muscles. They stabilize the spine during loading and movement throughout the day.
Muscles that act primarily as stabilizers generally contain greater concentrations of ________ muscle fibers. Name one of these muscles. Explain why.
endurance (high volume, lower intensity)
Muscles with more Type I muscle fibers are better suited for __________-type training.
1. ankle prontation/supination 2. hip adduction 3. pelivc tilting 4. shoulder position and thoracic spine 5. head position
Name 5 key postural deviations that occur frequently
epimysium perimysium endomysium
Name the 3 layers of connective tissue that make up skeletal muscle's structure (outside to in)
ATP: 0-4 sec., Strength and Power *uses ATP stored in muscles ATP + PCr : 0-10 seconds, sustained power ATp+PCr +Lactic Acid : 0-90 seconds , anaerobic power-endurance Aerobic Oxidation : 90 seconds to 3+ minutes , aerobic endurance
Name the 4 energy pathways, durations they are used for, and what type of work they assist.
SITS: supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis
Name the 4 rotator cuff muscles
Onset of blood lactate accumulation
OBLA
The trunk lateral endurance test measures the endurance of which primary muscle?
Obliques The trunk lateral endurance test is an assessment of the lateral core muscles which include the obliques.
Increasing
Once SV reaches its max. levels, the increase in O2 demand i met by ____ the HR.
how often should RPE be taken during a cardio assessment?
Once every minute RPEs should be taken during the last 5 seconds of every minute of a cardiorespiratory assessment.
Circuit training The most common advanced training programs used by bodybuilders include supersets, breakdown training, assisted training, and compound training.
One of your clients is an aspiring bodybuilder. Which of the following exercise programs would he most likely NOT incorporate?
Antidepressants have no significant effect on exercising heart rate. There can be an increase in resting heart rate however.
One of your clients is taking antidepressants. What is the likely effect on her exercising heart rate?
improve control and movement efficiency and increase kinesthetic awareness.
Open-kinetic chain movements are used to...
What is the workload of 1 MET associated with?
Oxygen consumption at rest approximately 3.5 mL/kg/min.
Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire - used to establish an individual's fitness for physical activity
PAR-Q
creatine phosphate (acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue)
PCr
proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (method of stretching muscles to maximize their flexibility. often performed with a trainer. involves a series of contractions and relaxations with enforced stretching during the relaxation phase)
PNF
peripheral nervous system
PNS
Saying things like, "I understand, 125 feels like your ideal weight," is an example of which positive listening skill?
Paraphrasing Paraphrasing is a great way to show the client that you are listening as well as to make sure you are hearing what they are saying correctly.
Clients should be able to squat 1.5 times their body weight or perform 5 squats with 60% of their own body weight within 5 seconds.
Prior to introducing lower body plyometrics to your client, what performance goal should he met first?
combined movements of abduction and eversion resulting in lowering of the medial margin of the foot *flat footed, feet turn out
Pronation (foot/ankle)
3 macronutrients
Protein: 4 calories per gram. The building blocks of human structure; Carbohydrates: 4 calories per gram. The body's preferred energy source; Fats: 9 cal/g. provide insulation, cell structure, nerve transmission, vitamin absorption and hormone production.
movement of the scapula away from the spine in the frontal plane. *outward, rounded shoulders. *associated with kyphosis
Protraction
stability , mobility
Proximal _____ promotes distal _____.
respiratory compensation threshold
RCT
recommended daily allowance
RDA
Reach, Effectiveness, Adoption, Implementation, Maintenance
RE-AIM
respiratory exchange ratio
RER
resting heart rate
RHR
rest, ice, compression, elevation
RICE
resting metabolic rate
RMR
return on investment
ROI
range of motion
ROM
rate of perceived exertion
RPE
Dan is a new client whom you are meeting with for the first time today. He will most likely be evaluating you as a trainer through both your verbal and non-verbal communication. What stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Dan?
Rapport Stage When you are first meeting a client and verbal and non-verbal communication are extremely important to consider, you are in the rapport stage.
When a posterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles are suspected to be tight?
Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings Generally, the muscles supporting the occurring action, or the shortened muscles, are tight. When a posterior pelvic tilt occurs it is usually the result of shortened, tight rectus abdominis and/or hamstrings, possibly causing reverse lordosis in the lumbar spine.
When an anterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles should you aim to strengthen through restorative exercise?
Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings When an imbalance is determined it is important to strengthen the muscles opposing the action that is occurring. In the case of an anterior pelvic tilt, these muscles are the rectus abdominis and the hamstrings.
quadriceps muscles
Rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius, and vastus medialis
Your new client informs you that she has diabetes and is taking insulin. What is the most important thing to do for this client?
Refer her to a physician prior to beginning an exercise program. It is very important for a client receiving insulin for diabetes to consult with a physician prior to beginning any kind of exercise program, both for legal reasons as well as client safety.
intrinsic motivation
Refers to the motivation that influences behavior from inside sources like one's desire for personal achievement or satisfaction.
movement of the scapula toward the spine in the frontal plane *inward, shoulders move back, and chest moves up and out
Retraction
a. His blood pressure increases by 10% b. His risk for metabolic syndrome increases by 18% c. His triglycerides increase by 18%
Risks associated with a one-inch increase in a man's waist circumference and his risk level?
4 types of motion
Rotary, translator, curvilinear, and general plane motion.
right or left twist in the transverse plane, usually used to describe neck and trunk movement.
Rotation (right and left) (joint)
Specific adaptations to imposed demands
SAID
systolic blood pressure
SBP
supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis
SITS
supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis
SITS muscles (rotator cuff)
Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely
SMART goals
Self-myofascial release
SMR
Subjective; Objective; Assessment; Plan progress note that focuses on a single client problem and includes subjective and objective data, analysis, and planning
SOAP note
lower increases
SV is ____ in an upright posture (standing) in untrained individuals compared to trained individuals. SV also ____ in a supine or prone position (lying down)
strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats (used for risk assessment)
SWOT
easily created and managed flow-through taxation personal liability rasining captial
Sole Proprietorship Advantages / disadvantages
SAID principle
Specific adaptation to imposed demands. The concept of the SAID principle is that the body will adapt to the specific challenges imposed upon it, as long as the program progressively overloads the system being trained.
pre-contemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance *know how to determine what stage client is in based on responses in motivational interviewing
Stages of Change (Transtheoretical Model)
According to the ACE Integrated Fitness Training Model, what step in the training process best follows the testing of resting measures such as heart rate and blood pressure?
Static Posture It is considered best to test a client's static posture after taking resting measures but before getting into training.
In which assessment can a personal trainer determine potential movement compensations associated with poor posture?
Static postural assessments Potential movement compensations can be identified through static postural assessments.
vicarious liability
Stipulates that employers are responsible for their workplace environment including the conduct of employees.
Glycogen
Storage form of glucose in the liver & muscles
overload principle
Strategically applying increased load on a tissue or system above and beyond the point at which that tissue or system is normally loaded. Variables manipulated to apply overload include the frequency, intensity, duration, and mode of an exercise-training program.
true
T/F BMI does not determine actual body composition, which means it can unfairly categorize some individuals (e.g., someone w/a lot of muscle mass could be put in obese category)
true
T/F the plane in which an exercise occurs is in relation to the body, not the position of the body. example: standing jumping jacks and making a snow angel on the ground are both frontal plane movements
true
T/F? No specific duration/time of training has been identified for effectiveness in load training
target heart rate
THR
transient ischemic attack (mini stroke)
TIA
transverse abdominis
TVA
5
Taking __days average of RHR each morning will provide a client's true RHR.
What is considered the easiest method for assessing a client's exercise intensity?
Talk test While there are several ways to monitor a client's exercise intensity, the fastest and easiest way is by listening to them talk while exercising. Notice to see if the client is able to perform the exercises while being able to say more than a few words without too much exertion.
-first reestablish proper function -then improve health -then develop and advance fitness -last enhance performance
The Function-Health-Fitness-Performance Continuum states that exercise programs should follow what progression? (4 steps)
4 weeks
The Performance training phase should last at least how long?
neuromuscular efficiency
The ability of the neuromuscular system to effectively recruit muscles to work in a synergistic fashion.
stroke volume
The amount of blood pumped from the left ventricle during each contraction of the heart.
The ACL is responsible for connecting the femur to the tibia, stabilizing the femur on the tibia during knee extension, preventing the tibia from sliding forward and preventing excessive internal rotation of the tibia during walking.
The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) in the knee joint is responsible for which actions?
120/80 mmHg (millimeters in mercury)
The average value of SBP and SBP is _____/_____ mmHG
Systole
The contraction phase of the cardiac cycle, during which blood leaves the ventricles.
Length-tension Relationships The length-tension relationship refers to sarcomere length and the relationship between the contractile proteins actin and myosin, which determine the force production of a muscle fiber.
The force generating capacity of a muscle based on the relationship between the contractile proteins of a sarcomere refers to which movement principle?
The length-tension relationship refers to sarcomere length and the relationship between the contractile proteins actin and myosin, which determine the force production of a muscle fiber.
The force generating capacity of a muscle based on the relationship between the contractile proteins of a sarcomere refers to which movement principle? a. Neural Control b. Force-couple Relationships c. Length-tension Relationships d. Reciprocal Inhibition
Rapport, investigation, planning, action
The four stages of a client-trainer relationship
prime mover(agonist)
The muscle that acts as the initial and main source of a desired movement.
rotational
The need for thoracic mobility is greater during _______ movements, given the three-dimensional nature of the movement patterns. Performing these exercises without thoracic mobility or lumbar stability may compromise the shoulders and hips, and increase the likelihood for injury.
rectus abdominis, erector spinae, external and internal obliques, iliopsoas, and latissimus dorsi
The outermost layer of the core consists of larger, more powerful muscles. Muscles in this region include...
Stage 2 focuses on static balance. Stage 1 focuses on core function. Stage 3 focuses on movement training.
Trainers can utilize the ACE IFT model for core conditioning and balance training. Which stage of the ACE IFT model emphasizes seat and standing stabilization over a fixed base of support?
myofibril
The portion of the muscle containing the thick (myosin) and thin (actin) contractile filaments.
reciprocal inhibition
The principle stating that activation of a muscle on one side of a joint (i.e., the agonist) coincides with neural inhibition of the opposing muscle on the other side of the joint (i.e., the antagonist).
Places to check for pulse
The pulse can only be felt on arteries, and the most common sites are the carotid artery in the neck and the radial artery on the thumb side of the inside of the wrist.
vestibular system
The sensory mechanism in the central nervous system that monitors balance. Reflexes of the eyes and ears are coordinated to provide feedback on spatial orientation and allows the body to maintain equilibrium.
co-contraction
The simultaneous activation of antagonist muscles.
sacromere
The smallest contractile unit of a muscle fiber (cell) is called a ____________.
biceps femoris, gluteus maximus, semitendinosus and semimembranosus. The gluteus medius is a hip abductor.
There are four primary muscles that act as hip extensors
900 points Using the frequency x duration x intensity in RPE equation, 60 x 3 x 5 = 900 points on the training progression scale.
This week Janet has 3 sessions at 60 minutes apiece with an RPE rating of 5. According to the training progression scale using RPE, what is Janet's rating in points for this week?
12 or more For muscular endurance it is recommended to perform 2-3 sets of 12 or more repetitions.
Tim is a 25-year-old soccer player looking to improve muscular endurance. When resistance training, how many repetitions should he perform per set?
70-90% of 1RM When training for muscular strength it is recommended to train at an intensity of between 70 and 90 percent of your 1RM, and for optimal strength development 80-90%.
Tim is training to increase muscular strength. What percent of his 1 repetition maximum should he be training at to accomplish this goal?
transverse abdominis (TVA) drawing the belly button toward the spine / centering
To establish proximal stability within the lumbar spine, focus on exercises that emphasize ______ activation, and the re-education of faulty motor patterns to improve the reflexive function of the core musculature. How would you describe this activation / what is a word for it?
composed of 4 components: stages of change processes of change self efficacy decisional balance
Transtheoretical Model (TTM)
-red in color -smaller in size, produce less force -slow to fatigue, higher aerobic capacity due to a large # of mitochondria and myoglobin for increased O2 delivery and usage
Type 1 characteristics
-white in color -larger in size -produce more force -quicker to fatigue -higher anaerobic capacity -decreased O2 delivery to due to fewer capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin
Type II characteristics
Airway, breathing and circulation The ABCs are Airway, Breathing and Circulation, in that order. This will ensure that the most life-threatening issues are addressed first.
Upon approaching a client who is unconscious and non-responsive, what should you check and in which order?
trapezius function
Upward rotation and elevation of scapula, adduction of scapula, and depression of scapula.
When filling out the "medications" portion of the Health History Questionnaire, your client lets you know that he is taking a beta-blocking medication. Once obtaining a physician's release for exercise, what is the most important difference in this client's exercise program versus a client who is not taking beta-blockers?
Use Rate of Perceived Exertion (RPE) to determine the level at which he is exercising as his heart rate will not go up. Beta-blockers keep a person's heart rate from going up past a certain point, therefore rendering heart rate monitoring useless for determining the intensity at which someone is exercising. Therefore, RPE is the only way you will be able to determine if this person is exercising at the desired intensity.
The overload principle uses a variety of techniques to advance strength and training adaptations including changing the exercise, increasing the amount of weight lifted, increasing the number of repetitions performed, increasing the total training volume, and increasing the speed of movement.
Using the overload principle, what techniques are used to advance upper-body strength?
You have a new client who is extremely obese, and you realize that your body fat calipers (skinfold measurement) may not be an accurate method to determine their body fat percentage. You want to have a starting measurement to determine their progress. What is the best course of action?
Utilize Body Mass Index (BMI) and girth measurements. Most forms of body fat testing other than skinfold measurement are pricey and uncomfortable, and are not usually necessary for determining progress. Instead you can utilize BMI and circumference measurements to determine progress, as these will change along with body fat percentage.
zone 1: low to moderate exercise. reflects HR below VT1 zone 2: moderate to vigorous exercise, reflects HR above VT1 to just below VT2 zone 3: vigorous to very vigorous exercise, reflects HR above VT2
VT1 and VT2 metabolic markers can be used to divide training intensity into 3 zones:
-low to moderate risk -successfully training in phase 3 (anaerobic endurance) of the ACE IFT model
VT2 threshold test should only be used by clients meeting these parameters:
ventilatory threshold (VT)
Ventilatory threshold is the point of transition between predominately aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy productions. It involves the recruitment of fast-twitch fibers and identified via gas exchange during exercise testing.
waist to hip ratio
WHR
Osteoporosis
Weakening of the bones, which can lead to bone fracture of the hip, spine, and other skeletal sites. Smoking and a sedentary lifestyle increase the risk, while engaging in weight bearing physical activity decreases the risk.
The GTO is activated after 10 seconds of low-force stretching and inhibits muscle spindle activity and any tension in the muscles. This allows for greater stresses along the collagen fibers to remodel them as they pull apart.
What is activated after 10 seconds of a low-force stretch with an increase in muscle tension?
2.0 This is a general knowledge question. Walking slowly has been assigned a MET value of 2.0, where running has been assigned a MET value of 11.5.
What is an appropriate MET value for walking slowly?
2:3 The appropriate strength ratio for flexion to extension of the shoulder joint is 2:3.
What is an appropriate strength ratio for flexion and extension of the shoulder joint?
a cluster of 3/+ of the following conditions: -elevated waist circumference (men- 40"/+, women- 35"/+) -elevated triglycerides (150mg/dL or more) -reduced HDL cholesterol (men <40, women <50) -elevated BP ( 130/85 mmHG or more) -elevated fasting blood glucose (100mg/dL or more)
What is metabolic syndrome (MetS) ?
The Q-angle is the angle formed by the femur and the patellar ligament, which is generally larger in women due to increased laxity in joints.
What is the Q angle?
5%
What is the appropriate rate of progression in most resistance training programs?
.86
What is the at-risk waist-to-hip ratio for females?
responsible for delaying the electrical impulses from the SA node for approximately .12 seconds b/t the atria and ventricles. allows the atriums to contract and fill with blood.
What is the atrioventricular (AV) node responsible for?
When a person is showing signs of shock, they should lie down and elevate their feet to facilitate blood flow to their head.
What is the best course of action if you notice a client going into shock?
One of the most common problems people face when squatting is not enough ankle dorsiflexion and they have trouble keeping their heels down.
What is the biggest issue most people face when squatting?
RPE of 9-13
What is the exercise intensity recommended for a client with hypertension?
health concern for active females. -disordered eating (poor nutritional behaviors like anorexia and bulimia) -amenorrhea (irregular/absent period) -osteoporosis (low bone mass and microarchitectural deterioration, which leads to weak bones and fracture risk)
What is the female athlete triad? what 3 conditions does it involve?
Varying training intensity and volume. Periodization is about intentionally varying the components of training, especially volume and intensity, over specific segments of time.
What is the general idea behind periodization?
10 minutes According to ACSM guidelines, a person should perform aerobic activity in bouts of at least 10 minutes in length.
What is the minimum amount of time a bout of aerobic exercise should last?
48 hours According to ACSM guidelines, a minimum of 48 hours should be allotted for recovery of each muscle group worked between sessions. This is the estimated amount of time it takes for muscle to completely recover from resistance exercise.
What is the minimum amount of time you should allow each muscle group to recover before performing resistance training with the same muscle group again?
macrocycle
What is the name of the periodized training cycle which covers a 6 to 12 month period?
Myofascial release is a technique that applies pressure to tight, restricted areas of fascia and underlying muscle in an attempt to relieve tension and improve flexibility. Applying direct sustained pressure to a tight area can inhibit the tension in a muscle by stimulating the Golgi tendon organ to bring about autogenic inhibition.
What is the objective of myofascial release technique?
Moderate resistance Training with moderate resistance at moderate to fast speeds is most effective for reaching a person's highest power output potential.
What is the optimal amount of resistance for power exercises?
Training with moderate resistance at moderate to fast speeds is most effective for reaching a person's highest power output potential.
What is the optimal amount of resistance for power exercises?
70-80% of 1RM It is recommended when training for hypertrophy, or size increase, to train at 70-80% of a person's 1RM with a moderate number of repetitions and little rest between sets.
What is the optimal training intensity when resistance training for hypertrophy?
60-70% 1 RM It is recommended that a person training for muscular endurance should train at an intensity level between 60 and 70 percent of their 1RM. This will facilitate the performance of a high volume of repetitions necessary for muscular endurance.
What is the optimal training intensity when resistance training for muscular endurance?
The purpose of the Rockport fitness walking test is to estimate VO2 max from a client's immediate post-exercise heart rate. The VO2 max is calculated using the client's immediate post-exercise heart rate and his or her 1-mile walk time.
What is the purpose of the Rockport fitness walking test?
3-5 days per week ACSM gives a general guideline of 3-5 days of cardiorespiratory exercise per week for healthy adults.
What is the recommended frequency of cardiorespiratory training generally accepted by ACSM for healthy adults?
2-3 days per week ACSM gives a general guideline of 2-3 days of resistance exercise per week for healthy adults.
What is the recommended frequency of resistance training generally accepted by ACSM for healthy adults?
Six seconds is considered the best movement speed per repetition for new exercisers . It is recommended to be 1 to 3 seconds on the concentric part and 2 to 4 seconds on the eccentric part.
What is the recommended movement speed per repetition for most machines and free weight exercises for beginners?
30 to 60 minutes The recommended time for aeorbic exercises is between 30 to 60 minutes of moderate exercise per day.
What is the recommended time a client should spend on aerobic exercise per day as a general recommendation?
Shoulder packing is performed to kinesthetically improve awareness of good scapular position, improving flexibility and strength of key parascapular muscles. Each contraction of scapular retraction and depression should be held for 5 to 10 seconds.
What is the term used for the exercise of depression and retraction of the scapulae?
Stand with a steady base above the client's head with your hands following under the bar in case they need assistance. You should always be in the position that best facilitates safety if the weight becomes too much for the client
What position should you take when spotting a client during a bench press exercise?
Medical history A person's medical history is pertinent and logical information to ascertain in a medical emergency.
What questions should you ask a victim of a fall who is conscious?
at least 5-10 minutes of low to moderate cardio and muscular endurance activities. *stretching, BW movements, decompressing from the workout
What should a cool down include?
- Minimum of 5-10 min of lower intensity activity - Should include dynamic flexibility - Movement Prep *dynamic stretching, BW movements elliptical, treadmills, or other cardio equipment
What should a warm up include?
When using heart rate for a client with hypertension, the target should be set at the lower end of the heart-rate range, between 40%-65% of the client's maximum heart rate.
What should the target heart rate range be set at for a client with hypertension?
Encourage clients with arthritis to use a variety of low-impact activities to avoid overstressing the joints. Exercise programs should be carefully designed in conjunction with a physician and /or physical therapist.
What type of activities would you recommend to a client with arthritis?
Trainers should provide education on avoiding aggravating activities and improve posture and body positioning with client's who have carpal tunnel syndrome. Strengthening and gaining flexibility in the elbow, wrist, and finger flexors and extensors will reduce the risk of injury. Full wrist flexion or extension should be avoided.
What would be an exercise program goal for a client with carpal tunnel syndrome?
cervical spine extensors levator scapulae upper trapezius
When a client has a forward head position, what muscles are suspected to be tight?
poor anything below 20 seconds is poor.
When conducting the Stork-Stand balance test on John, he is able to hold the position for 12 seconds before his foot touches the ground. What is the level of his performance based on the Stork-Stand Balance test results?
Intensity There is no intensity in Mark's plan. You should include the workload in every plan in order to effectively measure outcomes.
When designing an exercise program for Mark you decide on 60-minute sessions of resistance training 3 times per week. Which training principle have you forgotten to include in Mark's exercise plan?
Hip-width stance Hip-width stance is the safest, most effective stance to utilize in the beginning stage of static-balance training.
When designing static-balance training programs, which stance is the most appropriate in the beginning stage of progression?
With body-weight exercises, progression is accomplished by performing more repetitions rather than by adding resistance. The progressive-repetition approach works well until the exercise set exceeds 100 seconds, after which the strength-building stimulus diminishes.
When performing body-weight exercises, at what point does strength-building stimulus diminish?
Movement pattern progression is another consideration for programming plyometric exercise. Patterns should begin with: forward movement then progress to lateral, then backward, then rotational, then crossover, cutting, or curving movements.
When programming plyometric exercises, what is the movement-pattern progression after introducing lateral movements?
When the client can reach the end-range repetitions in all sets of the exercise. Resistance progression should be based on completion of repetitions in all sets. Once the client can complete the end-range of repetitions in all sets of a given exercise, he or she is ready to increase the load.
When should resistance be increased in a resistance training program?
When the client can sustain phase 1 for 20-30 minutes Once the client can sustain steady-state cardio for 20-30 minutes they are ready to move to phase 2, or Aerobic-efficiency training.
When should you progress a client to phase 2 of cardiorespiratory training?
Sagittal plane shoulder movements with one arm raised off the floor. A sequence of controlled shoulder movements with one arm raised an inch off the ground is an appropriate beginning exercise for core stability
When training a client to activate their core for the purpose of gaining proximal stability, what exercise modality should come first in the progression?
Chest Press Scapular protraction occurs when the serratus anterioir and synergistic muscles are tight and muscles of the upper back are weak. Chest press is an exercise that strengthens the serratus anterior and should be avoided to prevent increased tightness in the muscles causing the imbalance.
When training a client with scapular protraction, which exercises should be avoided until the postural misalignment has been corrected to prevent further aggravation of the misalignment?
The glycolytic system is predominating in speed and agility drills that require moderate power at a moderate duration.
When training your client to improve her speed and agility, she performs high intensity drills for 15-30 seconds at an intensity level for 70% of her maximal effort. Which of the following energy systems is predominant during this drill?
The Bruce Submaximal treadmill test is typically performed to maximal effort in 3-minute stages until the client reaches 85% of their estimated maximum heart rate. This test may be too difficult and demanding for older or less fit individuals.
Which cardiorespiratory fitness test is better suited for younger, fit individuals?
Neural control controls and stabilizes movement at joints through transmitting impulses to the intended supporting muscles.
Which movement principle ensures that impulses are transmitted to the intended muscles? a. Neural Control b. Force-couple Relationships c. Length-tension Relationships d. Reciprocal Inhibition
Transient hypertrophy, not to be confused with sarcoplasmic hypertrophy which is an increase in sarcoplasm around the muscle cells, is the condition in which fluid accumulates around muscle cells and quickly dissipates after exercise.
Which of the following adaptations to exercise is caused by general fluid accumulation in the spaces between muscle cells?
Myofibrillar hypertrophy refers to an increase in the number of contractile proteins, or myofibrils, in a muscle cell or fiber.
Which of the following adaptations to exercise refers to the increase the number of myofibrils in a muscle fiber?
Fatty acids are the main substrate utilized for aerobic energy production.
Which of the following are utilized for aerobic energy production?
Glycogen and creatine phosphate are the main substrates utilized for anaerobic energy production.
Which of the following are utilized for anaerobic energy production?
The amount of muscle a person has is directly related to their resting metabolic rate in that it takes energy to maintain muscle mass. Less muscle mass requires less energy, therefore decreasing energy expenditure while at rest, or RMR.
Which of the following can result in the reduction of a person's Resting Metabolic Rate (RMR)?
A lateral hip shift is most likely to occur as a subconscious attempt to re-adjust the base of support to center.
Which of the following compensatory movements is most likely to occur during the downward phase of a single-leg squat?
Supine bent-knee marches are designed to improve hip mobility without compromising lumbar stability.
Which of the following exercises is best suited for improving hip mobility for an individual with lumbar stability concerns?
Hip mobilization: Lie supine with knees bent and the feet placed flat on the floor, aligning the anterior superior iliac spine with the knee and second toe. Activate the gluteal muscles to elevate the hips off the floor into hip extension without increasing lordosis.
Which of the following exercises should you recommend to your client to improve hip mobility, stability and core stability by activating the gluteal muscle groups?
The joint capsule or ligaments account for 47% of the resistance that is encountered and prohibits a full range of motion.
Which of the following factors has the most influence over flexibility?
Speed is one of the six skill-related parameters that affect strength development and program design. These are - Power, speed, balance, agility, coordination and reactivity.
Which of the following is a skill-related parameter that affects strength development and program design?
Poor exercise technique is an example of an initial muscular imbalance which sets the stage for neurological alterations and compromises in the mobility-stability relationship. Muscular imbalances are always physical and generally simple, like repetitive motion.
Which of the following is an example of a Muscle Imbalance?
The hamstrings are biarticulate muscles. Biarticulate muscles cross two joints.
Which of the following is an example of a biarticulate muscle?
When progressing in functional movement and resistance training, it is important to start with static exercises and move to movement training. Plank is a static exercise focusing on core. Torso movements on a stability ball focus on the core as well but with added movement, thus progressing the exercise in a positive direction.
Which of the following is an example of a positive progression in functional movement and resistance training?
A neutral pelvic position is the desired position of the pelvis, facilitated by the force-couple relationship of muscles pulling around the joints to maintain stability.
Which of the following is an example of the force-couple relationship working properly? a. Anterior pelvic tilt b. Posterior pelvic tilt c. Scapular protraction d. Neutral pelvic position
Pregnant women are generally advised to avoid any form of jumping.
Which of the following is an inappropriate exercise for a woman who is 5 months pregnant?
Crossover, cutting and curving are the most complex movements in power training and should come only after rotational movement has been mastered.
Which of the following is the final progression of movement in resistance training for power?
anaerobic power. power = work/time
Which of the following skill-related assessments evaluates the amount of work performed in a given unit of time?
Health Related Assessments (body composition, etc.) Health related assessments are typically covered in the first real week of training, after the client has been determined to be healthy and prepared for exercise but before more complex areas of fitness are tested.
Which of the following tests are typically administered in the first or second week of training a client?
In a closed-chain movement, the end of the chain farthest from the body is fixed, such as a squat where the feet are fixed on the ground and the rest of the leg chain moves. In an open-chain exercise, the end of the chain farthest from the body is free, such as in a seated leg extension.
Which of the following would be an example of a close-chain exercise? a. Preacher curlb. b. Leg extensionc. c. Barbell squatd. d. Triceps extension
Personal trainers should choose weight bearing exercises such as walking and high-intensity (8-RM) strength-training to stimulate bone changes. Activities that promote balance and coordination should also be included to reduce the risk of falling and associated fractures. Trainers must be sure to obtain physician clearance prior to initiating a high-intensity program.
Which of the following would you not incorporate into an exercise program for a woman with osteoporosis?
The muscle spindle detects quick stretches and invokes an involuntary contraction, increasing force production.
Which part of the muscle senses differences in the magnitude and rate of stretching that is imposed on a muscle?
Training for power is generally accomplished through plyometric exercise, which utilizes the stretch-shortening cycle to generate optimal force. This involves an active stretch followed by immediate shortening of the targeted muscle, facilitating increased force production.
Which skill-related training parameter involves the stretch-shortening cycle?
associative stage of learning after acquiring understanding of the motor skill in the cognitive stage, the client will then be able to perform the movement with feedback in the associative stage that will help them refine the motor skill.
Which stage of learning allows the client to master the basics and handle more specific feedback to refine the motor skill?
When training for hypertrophy, an individual performs a large number of exercises with short recovery periods, which does not facilitate a simple 5% increase for every exercise. Therefore, when training for hypertrophy, intensity increases are determined on an individual basis.
Which training modality cannot utilize a 5% increase in training intensity as effectively?
Growth hormone and testosterone The two primary hormones responsible for muscular strength and size are growth hormone and testosterone.
Which two primary hormones are associated with tissue growth and muscular development?
If the latissimus dorsi is engaged to begin the lowering phase, anterior containment is provided to help stabilize the shoulder and precipitate greater force production during the lifting phase. Trainers should therefore coach clients to engage the latissimus dorsi during the lowering phase and not simply yield to gravity.
While performing an overhead press, which muscle should you coach your client to engage during the lowering phase?
A member who is unconscious, not breathing and doesn't have a palpable pulse. An AED should only be used if the person is unconscious, not breathing and has no palpable pulse.
Who should you use an AED on?
to allow the GTO to inhibit the muscle and allow the joint to be taken further into its range of motion, increasing the stretch.
Why should self-myofascial release (SMR) and static stretches be held for 30 seconds?
For a sporadic exerciser with a fair to average fitness classification, the appropriate exercise intensity is 74% to 84% MHR.
Your client is mildly deconditioned with a fair to average fitness classification. What is the recommended exercise intensity for her to start with?
10 pounds of body fat If Linda loses muscle but maintains the same weight, she has to have gained body fat at the same rate as the muscle was lost. If muscle was lost at the projected rate of 0.5 pounds per year and it has been 20 years, Linda will have gained approximately 10 pounds of body fat.
Without strength training, a woman loses approximately half a pound of muscle per year. At the age of 30 Linda weighs 130 lbs with a body fat percentage of 25%, which means she has 98 pounds of lean weight. If Linda weighs the same at age 50, approximately how many pounds of body fat will she have gained?
Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) is a method of promoting the response of neuromuscular mechanisms through the stimulation of proprioceptors in an attempt to gain more stretch in a muscle.
You are assisting your client with a hamstring stretch that consists of a contract/relax stretching technique. Which of the following stretching methods are you helping your client perform?
It takes 45 seconds to 3 minutes to achieve steady state and the more fit the quicker adaptation. The rate of oxygen uptake, heart rate, cardiac output, ventilation, blood lactate concentration, and body temperature all reach stable after a short period of exercise.
You are beginning a steady state cardiorespiratory program with your client. How far into the steady state workout can the physiological systems in the body adapt to the physiological demands of exercise?
bilateral squat fix unilateral movement before trying bilateral movement
You are conducting the hurdle step movement screen and take note that there is a major discrepancy between the right and left legs. Which exercise would you want to avoid until the discrepancy has been improved?
Prime movers for hip extension (leg curl) are the gluteus maximus, hamstrings and gastrocnemius.
You are demonstrating proper form for an exercise that requires the gluteus maximus, hamstrings and gastrocnemius muscles to be the prime movers. What movement are you demonstrating?
The lumbar spine is most efficient when it is relatively stable, whereas the thoracic spine is required to be more mobile. The rotator cuff serves as a stabilizer for the scapulae and any imbalance in the length tension relationships of the shoulder could potentially lead to a negative outcome such as impingement.
You are explaining the importance of stabilizing the scapulothoracic region during the proximal stability of the scapulothoracic region and distal mobility of the glenohumeral joint stage. On top of proper mobility of the thoracic spine, what would be a key factor to promote stability in the scapulothoracic region?
220 - 32(age) = 188(Max HR)188(Max HR) - 63(resting HR) = 125(heart rate reserve)125(heart rate reserve) x .6(60% training percentage) = 75125(heart rate reserve) x .8(80% training percentage) = 10075 + 63 = 138100 + 63 = 163Kens target heart rate is between 138bpm and 163bpm
You are training Ken for his first 5K run. He is 32 years old with a resting heart rate of 63bpm. Today he is to participate in a walk/ run interval workout on the treadmill at an intensity level of 60-80%. It is important to monitor his intensity throughout the workout. Using the Karvonen method, what is Ken's target heart rate?
1:3 Personal trainers should teach clients with chronic fatigue syndrome that all exercise should be followed by a rest period at a 1:3 ratio (i.e., resting for three minutes for each minute of exercise).
You are training a client with chronic fatigue syndrome, three days per week. Her program involves walking around the indoor track, light resistance training and light stretching. What is the recommended ratio of exercise followed by a rest period?
Aging has an effect on the visual, vestibular and somatosensory systems. People rely heavily on visual input for balance, the vestibular system for position of the head in space, and somatosensory system for muscle and joint proprioception and cutaneous and pressure receptors.
You are training an older adult and wish to improve her balance and coordination. What sensory systems will provide essential information to the central nervous system to maintain balance?
Moderate Exercise Moderate exercise is considered any form of exercise that can be sustained for 45 minutes with a MET level of 3-6 and 40-60% of the individual's VO2 max.
Your client is on the treadmill exercising at 5 METs and 50% of her VO2 max, a level that she sustains for 45 minutes. What level of exercise is she performing at?
Left upper trapezius, levator scapula and rhomboids If the right shoulder appears to be lower, the likely cause is elevation of the left shoulder. This can be caused by tight, shortened muscles pulling it upward. The muscles that elevate the shoulder are the upper trapezius, levator scapula and rhomboids.
You are working with a client whose right shoulder appears to be lower than her left. Which muscles should you have her stretch?
During assistance training the trainer helps with the concentric muscle action due to people being about 40% stronger on eccentric muscle actions. The post-fatigue repetitions are terminated when the exerciser has difficulty controlling the lowering action.
You are working with your bodybuilding client and decide to implement an advanced training approach. What type of approach would involve training the muscle to fatigue before receiving manual assistance from the trainer in the concentric muscle action?
Time Changing the duration of an exercise routine is altering the time principle.
You decide that Mark's sessions should last for 60 minutes as opposed to the 45 he has currently been doing in order to increase results. Which training principle are you altering?
The exercise session should be discontinued if the systolic blood pressure or diastolic blood pressure rise to 250mmHg or 115mmHg, respectively, or if the systolic blood pressure drops below 20 mmHg.
You have been monitoring your client's blood pressure during his treadmill workout. At what point do you need to discontinue the exercise session?
Isometric contractions to dynamic ROM exercises The proper progression is to move from isometric contractions with 2 to 4 reps, then to 1 to 3 sets of dynamic ROM exercises.
You have identified a need for one of your clients to strengthen his posterior chain as a result of poor posture. What is the proper progression of suggested exercises?
The proper progression is to move from isometric contractions with 2 to 4 reps, then to 1 to 3 sets of dynamic ROM exercises.
You have identified a need for one of your clients to strengthen his posterior chain as a result of poor posture. What is the proper progression of suggested exercises?
compound set
You have your client performing triceps press-downs with bench dips to push the triceps to a high level of fatigue and muscle pump. What type of training approach would this be called?
the cervical spine extensors, levator scapulae, and upper trapezius.
You notice a forward head position when assessing your client. Which muscles are considered tight and restricted?
The average strength loss per decade in adults between 20 and 80 years of age 10%. Since the client is 60 years old and there has been 3 decades of strength loss, it results in 30% of strength loss since the age of 30.
Your 60-year-old client has been on a regular resistance training program since he was 30 years old. Since advanced age is associated with lower levels of anabolic hormones, what percent of strength loss has occurred since the age of 30?
Jogging places greater stress on the posterior leg muscles than the anterior leg muscles, leading to muscle imbalance. To reduce the risk of unbalanced muscle development, personal trainers should include resistance exercises for all of the major muscle groups.
Your client Mike likes to jog three to five miles 3 times per week. To reduce the risk of having unbalanced muscle development, what muscle groups should you pay special attention to?
Stretching before a workout will improve muscle elasticity which lowers the force-generating capacity of contractile proteins. The warm-up should include a cardiovascular warm-up followed by an exercise specific dynamic warm-up.
Your client explains that his warm-up includes 10 minutes of light exercise followed by static stretching on the muscles that are going to be focused on. What should you tell your client about stretching before a workout?
Have her lie down in a cool area with her feet elevated and give her fluids. When a client is showing signs of heat exhaustion it is important to remove them from the heat, give fluids and elevate their feet to avoid shock.
Your client has been running sprints outside on a hot summer day. She begins to become dizzy and pale with cool, clammy skin. What steps should you take to prevent heat stroke?
The knee should go no higher than hip level or 90-degree flexion. The exercise program should be carefully designed in conjunction with a physician and/or physical therapist.
Your client has had their hip replaced and wishes to begin exercising. what should they not do?
He should exercise in the morning after a meal. To avoid hypoglycemia, a client should exercise within one to three hours following a meal.
Your client has hypoglycemia. When is the best time to schedule his exercise?
amortization
Your client has met all the prerequisites in order to train in phase 4. To improve power, what phase between the concentric and eccentric actions should be kept to a minimum to produce the greatest amount of muscular force?
In aerobic-efficiency training you introduce intervals that are just above the VT1 or an RPE of 5. In order to allow for adequate recovery time between intervals it is suggested to start with a ratio of 1:3. An example would be 60 seconds harder intensity to 180-second recovery.
Your client has shown the ability to advance her cardiorespiratory training into the aerobic-efficiency phase. What would be the ideal hard-to-easy ratio to begin aerobic-efficiency training?
Vigorous Exercise Vigorous exercise is defined as exercising at a MET level above 6 and performing above 60% of an individual's VO2 max. There is a substantial cardiorespiratory challenge involved, and this level cannot be sustained for very long.
Your client is doing intervals on the stair machine. Each interval contains a portion of intensity in which his MET level is a 7 and he is performing at 70% of his VO2 max. He maintains at this level for 2-minute intervals. What level of exercise is he performing at?
Discontinue exercise, begin actively cooling her and call 911. It is important to begin actively cooling someone who is showing signs of heat stroke as soon as possible. Use cold, wet washcloths, ice packs, or even a cool bath. Once you have begun this process, activate EMS.
Your client is exercising outside on a hot day and becomes confused. She has hot, bright red skin and is having difficulty breathing. She is scared and dizzy. What is the best course of action to take?
As the client recovers from elbow tendinitis, they should not perform any high repetition work around the elbow or wrist. The client should start with low weight and repetitions.
Your client is recovering from elbow tendinitis and has been cleared for exercise. Which of the following should be incorporated into the exercise programming?
If your client can talk comfortably, she is training in zone 1. If she cannot talk comfortably while training, she is working in zone 3.
Your client is walking on a treadmill at 4.0 mph, and on a grade of 5%. Fifteen minutes into the workout, you are asking her questions about how she is feeling. Your client can only answer you with 3-4 words comfortably. What training zone is she likely in?
Observational Learning Exercise behaviors of those people who are closest to your clients are likely to impact the likelihood of your client's success. This is called Observational Learning.
Your client tells you that he wants to get into better shape because his wife loves to play tennis and he wants to be able to play with her. Which principle of behavior change is this an example of?
Help her to a chair, offer an ice pack and allow her to call someone to transport her to the hospital. This is a situation in which the person can make his or her own decision about contacting EMS. It is not okay to diagnose an injury or illness, wrap the injury, or give any medication. Just help the person become more comfortable and offer something non-invasive like an ice pack.
Your client trips over a piece of exercise equipment and falls, twisting her ankle. She cannot get up on her own and it is painful to stand on. What is the best course of action?
The equation for caloric expenditure is {VO2 (mL/kg/min) x body weight (kg) / 1000} x 5 kcal/L/min. Remember that caloric expenditure is calculated in terms of gross VO2 during an activity by estimating the total quantity of O2 consumed per minute and multiplying it by 5 kcal/liter O2. Convert lbs. to kg - 190 lbs. x .4535 kg/lbs.= 86.17 kg(40*86.17/1000) x 5 = 17.23 kcal/min x 30 minutes of exercise giving you 517.02.
Your client wants to know how many calories she is burning during exercise. If she weighs 190 lbs. and exercises for 30 minutes with an average VO2 of 40 mL/kg/min, what would be her total calorie expenditure?
caloric consumption, physical inactivity complex psychosocial issues, psychologist or professional counselor detailed medical, physical activity and dietary history
_____ and _____ are directly related to obesity but aren't the only cause. in many causes, it is caused by ______ that may require referral to a ______ or _______. what is necessary before a physician can begin to determine the cause of obesity in patients?
tendons and ligaments
______ and _____ have a low bloody supply which is why they are slower to heal from injury and take longer to adapt to exercise-induced stresses, compared to muscles.
modified upper body, seated, load the injured ankle
______ exercise programs are appropriate for clients with localized injuries. ex: a client with an ankle sprain can still exercise the ______ and perform ______ exercises that do not _____.
providing a safe environment exercise service plans, routine inspections and maintenance of equipment
_______ along with the emergency action plan will help mitigate potential liability for incidents that may occur during a training session. this includes:
balance
_______ is the foundational element of all programming, and is require to move efficiently through ADL. it is a trainable skill, and improvements are evident within a few weeks
tendons
_______ link muscle to bone.
ligaments
________ link bone to bone
contracts
________ provide the best method to ensure that all aspects of a relationship are properly established.
negative
________ reinforcement can also increase the reoccurrence of an undesirable behavior if the client does not have accountability (shows up late, lack of effort, etc)
working for an employer independent contractor start their own business
___________ is a god option for personal trainers who are just starting out as they can learn about the industry without having to take the time and financial risks involved with operating a business of their own. once they gaub experience, they can venture off as an ___ or ____.
assertive
___________ is an important characteristic for achieving success and avoiding relapse.
Lactate threshold
______________ or tolerance training increases the amount of sustained work that an individual can perform at or near VT2
positive first impressions
_________________ are the foundation for the rapport-building process.
plateau , decrease
a SBP that fails to rise and fall with increasing workloads may signal a _____ or _____ in cardiac output
monoarticulate, biarticulate
a ______ muscle crosses 1 joint. a ______ muscle crosses 2 joints.
symphysis **junction of the 2 pubic bones (pubic symphysis), and junctions between bodies of adjacent
a characterisitc of one type of cartilaginous joint, a _______, is the fibrocartilaginous pad/disk that seperates 2 bones.
tinnitus
a condition of ringing, buzzing, or roaring sound in one or both ears
overtraining syndrome
a condition whereby too much training results in the maladaptations of body responses. An imbalance between a training protocol and rest and recovery efforts. Can result in disruptive sleeping habits, injuries, reduced performance and loss of enthusiasm for training.
extrinsic motivation
a desire to perform a behavior due to promised rewards or threats of punishment
urine color.
a good indicator of hydration is ________.
external rotation
a movement of the body away from the midline; turning outward
Dorsiflexion
a movement that flexes the foot in an upward direction from the ankle
synergistic dominance (when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak/inhibited prime mover)
altered force-couple relationships cause _________.
process by which a short muscle, tight muscle, and/or MF adhesions in the muscle cause decreased neural drive of its function
altered reciprocal inhibition (altered length-tension)
scope of practice allied healthcare professionals
an ACE Certified Personal Trainer (CPT) must always operate within their ______ and refer clients to other ______ when necessary.
inversion
an action which happens in the frontal plane and represents the inward rotation of the foot (pronation)
sagittal plane
an imaginary vertical line that divides the body between right and left sections
no
are cardiorespiratory fitness assessments recommended during phase 1 (aerobic-base training) of cardiorespiratory training?
at or above VT1 or RPE of 5 (strong) on a 0-10 scale goal: to improve aerobic endurance and increase client's ability to use fat as a fuel source.
at what level should aerobic intervals be introduced in phase 2 (aerobic-efficiency) of cardiorespiratory training? what is the goal of aerobic intervals?
Insertion
attachment of muscle to its distal and more moveable structure
-sharpened Romberg test (closing eyes during the test challenges the vestibular system) -Stork-Stand balance test -McGill's torso muscular endurance test battery
balance and core assessments
brachial artery
best site for measuring blood pressure
weight (kg) / height (m^2) ex: first convert weight from lb to kg; ft to in , in to cm, cm to m, m to m^2 180lb / 2.2 = 81.81 kg 6ft x 12 = 72 inches 72 in x 2.54 = 182.88 cm 182.88 cm / 100 = 1.83m 1.83m^2 = 3.35 3.35 / 81.81 = 24.42 BMI
body mass index (BMI) formula ex: calculate BMI of a man who is 6' tall and weighs 180 lbs
polyunsaturated, monounsaturated LDL cholesterol
consuming ____ and ___ "healthy fats" along with regular exercise had been shown to improve lipid profiles . regular exercise also helps to reduce _______
fat = 9 cal/g protein = 4 cal/g carbs = 4 cal/g alcohol = 7 cal/g 3500 kcal = 1 lb fat
conversions fat = _____ calories/gram protein= ___ calories/gram carbohydrates= ___ calories/gram alcohol= ___calories/gram 3500 kcal (calories) = __lb fat
limited liability unlimited number of investors cost of formation and operation double taxation
c-corps advantages/disavantages
protects the person who administers AED during an emergency from liability.
cardiac arrest act
traditional training parameters
cardiorespiratory (aerobic fitness), muscular endurance, muscular strength, flexibility
supplements
claims related to the violations of scope of practice most frequently occur in the area of _________.
must be kept and protected to prevent potential harm to a client's reputation and liability to the personal trainer or business. personal trainer must obtain and store a signed release form before disclosing any personal info about a client (includes posting a client's results like before and after photos, etc)
client confidentiality
- an inadequate heart rate response. - beta blockers block adrenaline & reduce blood pressure. This will decrease MHR. - Use RPE instead of HR to monitor.
clients on beta blockers will have ____________ response during the cardiorespiratory fitness teat
12
clients should abstain from taking non-prescription stimulants or depressants for at least ___hours prior to measuring their RHR
stability, mobility, movement
clients who progress to performance training should continue to incorporate __,___, and ____ training as part of dynamic warm-ups to maintain postural stability and proper movement patterns.
coronary artery disease (CAD) as walking distance, speed, or intensity increases discontinue exercise until the client is evaluated by their physician.
clients with PVD may also have underlying ______. how can symptoms of this develop? What should you do if symptoms of this are present?
1 kg = 2.2 lbs lbs / 2.2 = kg 1 in = 2.54 cm in x 2.54 = cm 1 meter = 100 cm cm / 100 = meters 1 MET = 3.4 ml VO2 / 3.5 = MET
conversions and formulas 1 kg = ___lbs 1 in = __ cm 1 meter = ___cm 1 MET = ___ ml
barriers that arise from within client's social network (close family and friends) caregiving (child care), lack of social support, sociocultural barriers. understanding what types of social support a client needs, and teaching them how to obtain that support
define and list examples of social barriers how can you help a client achieve the support required to adhere to exercise?
energy sources for our body carbohydrates, fats, proteins
define and list macronutrients
muscles that oppose the prime mover during movement/joint action. *triceps are this during a bicep curl
define antagonist
straight line that cuts through the body front front to back. in the frontal plane, rotation happens at this axis. *raising an arm laterally is a movement that occurs around this axis.
define anterior-posterior axis. in what plane does rotation at this axis occur? give example of a movement at this axis
info useful for self evaluation (positive affirmations about one's self)
define appraisal support
the region from the shoulder to the elbow
define arm
altered joint motion. caused by altered lenth-tension relationships and force-couple relationships that affect the joints and leads to abnormal joint movement (arthrokinematics) and proprioception causing poor movement efficiency
define arthrokinematic dysfunction. what causes it?
the ability to maintain the body's postiion over its Base of Support (BOS) w/in stability limits, both statically and dynamically
define balance
stretching that involves a bouncing or jerky movement to reach the muscle's ROM limits. not appropriate for the general population
define ballistic stretching
Calories burned daily without movement
define basil metabolic rate (BMR)
exercises involving both limbs *barbell bench press
define bilateral exercises give an example
the study of motion an causes of motion of living things
define biomechanics
hollow tubes that allow blood to be transported throughout the body, and back to the heart, creating a closed circuit.
define blood vessels
the relative proportion of lean tissue to body-fat tissue in body
define body composition
the location of fat on the body. waist to hip ratio
define body fat distribution what is a good indicator of it?
a ratio of a person's weight to height
define body mass index (bmi)
a closed fluid-filled sac/cavity that reduces friction between tissues/joints in the body.
define bursa
inflammation of a bursa, typically one in the knee, elbow, or shoulder (overuse condition)
define bursitis
the cessation of heart function when a person loses consciousness, has no pulse, and stops breathing.
define cardiac arrest
occurs when the median nerve becomes compressed at the wrist. movements that involve full wrist flexion/extension to end-range positions. exercises should be performed in the mid-range
define carpal tunnel syndrome what sort of movements can exacerbate the symptoms? modifications for it?
unexplained persistent fatigue that lasts more than 6 months, resulting in substantial reduction in previous levels of activity. moderate to vigorous. it can exacerbate fatigue/other symptoms that could last for days/weeks, making the condition worse. lower intensity activity with rest. decreases stress. improves fatigue, functional capacity and overall fitness.
define chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) what intensities of exercise are NOT recommended for those with CFS? why? what activities help with CFS and how?
occur when distal segments are fixed in place. *push-ups, pull-ups, squats, deadlift, lunges
define closed chain movements. Give examples of CCM exercises
shortening phase of muscle contraction (moving external resistance) *"together / towards center"
define concentric
the production of an active force when a muscle develops tension while shortening in length.
define concentric activation
a head injury with a loss of brain function. causes a variety of physical, cognitive, and emotional symptoms, which may not be recognized, as the initial signs can be subtle.
define concussion
movements or positions that aren't recommended due to potential injury risk associated. full squats, straight leg sit-ups, double leg raises, standing bent over toe touch, cervical and lumbar hyperextension, etc.
define contraindicated exercises list examples
bluish color that develops around the lips, nose, fingernails, and inner lining of the eye
define cyanosis
involves the perceived pros and cons one has about adopting and/or maintaining an exercise program
define decisional balance
in conditioning, refers to when the training stimulus is stopped and the body gradually returns to its pre-conditioned state. partial or complete reversal of the physiological adaptations gained through exercise "use it or lose it"
define detraining or reversibility
the position the body is in at any moment during a movement pattern
define dynamic posture
moving parts of the body through a full ROM while gradually increasing the reach and/or speed of the movement in a controlled manner, progressing from smaller to larger ROM. great to use in warmup or cool down
define dynamic stretching
abnormally high cholesterol or fats (lipids) in the blood. low-density lipoprotein cholesterol 130 mg or higher or high-density lipoprotein cholesterol <40mg on lipid lowering medication. *if total serum cholesterol is all thats available, use 200mg or greater
define dyslipidemia (include #s)
"crossover" point. represents a level of intensity at which blood lactate accumulates faster than it can be cleared, which causes the person to breathe faster in effort to blow off the extra CO2 produced. "talk test" (person talking complete sentences comfortably is training below VT1)
define first ventilatory threshold (VT1)
movement involving a decrease in joint angle *toward/closer
define flexion (joint)
muscle groups moving together to produce movement around a joint.
define force-couple relationship
breaking of a bone (musculoskeletal injury)
define fracture
divides the body into anterior and posterior portions. vertical and lateral movements occur in it (abduction, adduction) *jumping jacks, overhead press, lateral raises, and windmills
define frontal plane. describe types of movements that occur in it. give examples of exercises.
long-lasting widespread pain and tenderness at specific point on the body. exercise can ease symptoms (pain, depression, anxiety) and prevent the development of other chronic conditions associated with physical inactivity. aerobic
define fybromyalgia how does exercise benefit clients with it? what type of exercise in particular?
a simple sugar that is the preferred energy source for the human body. a compound of many carbohydrates.
define glucose
proprioceptors, attached to the tendons near the junction of the muscle that detect differences in tension.
define golgi tendon organs (GTO)
inflammation of the trochanteric bursa (part of the hip. bursa is at the top, outer side of the femur) avoid side-lying positions that compress lateral hip, as well as higher loading exercises (squats, lunges) to avoid further injury until the condition heals. aquatic exercises. the buoyancy of water can unload the hips and allow for a gradual return to land-based exercises.
define greater trochanteric bursitis modifications? what type of exercises can help and why?
caused by an obstruction in a coronary vessel that prevents parts of the heart muscle from getting adequate bloodflow and oxygen. angina pectoris (chest pain/pressure) pain in one or both arms (usually left), neck, jaw, shoulder, stomach shortness of breath nausea cold sweat lightheadedness have a gradual onset that isn't sudden or intense.
define heart attack list its symptoms an warning signs most warning signs _____
movement away from the midline of the body in the transverse plane
define horizontal abduction
high bp SBP 140mm Hg or higher and/or DBP 90mm Hg or higher confirmed by measurements on atleast 2 separate occasions
define hypertension (includes #s)
a common overuse injury of the connective tissues located on the outer thigh and knee. return slowly to activity with an exercise program that helps regain flexibility and strength at the hip and lateral thigh. early injury recognition, proper technique and equipment will aid in the healing process.
define iliotibial band syndrome (ITBS) modifications? what helps aid the healing process?
provides certain services for other individuals or businesses paid per job/task on a short-term basis. versus an employee working for an employer who's paid on a regular basis.
define independent contractor how is this different from an employee working for an employer?
away from the head; lower (caudal)
define inferior
advice, guidance, useful info
define informational support
assumption of risk
define informed consent
the relatively mobile attachment site of muscle to bone.
define insertion
the coordination of muscles to produce, reproduce, and stabilize forces in multiple planes for efficient and safe movement *inclusive of all muscle functions (concentric, eccentric, isometric)
define integrated fitness
rotation in the transverse plane toward the midline of the body
define internal (medial) rotation
body part located on the same side of the body
define ipsilateral
same speed throughout a movement
define isokinetic
same tone throughout a movement
define isotonic
away from the midline of the body; to the side
define lateral
The amount of fat-free (mass) one has.
define lean body weight (LBW)
region from knee to ankle
define leg
the resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can produce at that resting length. it describes the relationship between the contractile proteins (actin and myosin) of a sacromere and their force generating capacity. When the contractile proteins are ideally aligned w/the most cross-bridgings, they can produce the greatest amount of force. shortening/lengthening minimizes the cross-bridges, reducing the muscle's ability to produce optimal force. *think of a fighter too close/far away from a bag to land a punch with optimal force
define length tension relationship (LTR)
flexible for small and medium sized businesses and generally more advantages than partnerships or s corporations
define limited liability company
the direction in which a muscle is pulled
define line of pull
steady linear increase of a program. traditionally contains: 1. hypertrophy phase (high volume, short rest periods) 2. strength /power phase (reduced volume, but increased resistance and rest periods) 3. peaking phase (low volume, high resistance and longer rest periods) 4. recovery phase (low volume , low resistance)
define linear periodization, and its 4 phases
straight line that cuts through the body from top to bottom. Rotation around this axis takes place in the transverse plane. *spinal rotation with twisting of the trunk is an example of a movement around a longitudinal axis.
define longitudinal axis. what plane does movement at this axis occur in? give an example of a movement that occurs around this axis
straight line that cuts through the body laterally side to side. in the sagittal plane, rotation happens around the axis. aka transverse axis *hip hinge
define mediolateral / medial-lateral axis. aka? what plane does rotation occur around this line? give an example of an exercise at this axis
the smallest training cycle time frame in a periodization program. Ususally ranges from 2-4 weeks, and focuses on one type of workout variable in that phase.
define microcycle
low to moderate-intensity physical activity performed with a meditative, proprioceptive, or sensory-awareness component (physical exercise executed with a profound inward mental focus)
define mind-body exercise
the process of acquiring and improving motor skills.
define motor learning
involves 2/+ muscle groups and joint during the exercise *deadlifts, squats and bench press
define multi-joint exercise give 3 examples
involve 2/+ joints to perform the movement
define multijoint movements
movements that occur in more than 1 plane of motion
define multiplanar movements
neurons that conduct impulses from sensory receptors into the central nervous system (CNS), and carry sensory information from muscles and joints to the brain, forming a body-mind conduit
define muscle afferents
increase in size of muscle fibers
define muscle hypertrophy
the alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint
define muscle imbalance
proprioceptors that sense any stretching or tension within a muscle and through a reflex action initiate a stronger muscle action (contraction) to reduce the stretch (stretch reflex)
define muscle spindles
manual massage technique used to eliminate general fascial restrictions; typically performed with a device like a foam roller.
define myofascial release
failure to perform as a reasonable and prudent professional would perform under similar circumstances. slip-and-fall incidents equipment issues: free weights, weight machines, CV machines claims of sexual harassment
define negligence list common areas of negligence seen in training settings
BMI 30 or higher or waist circumference >102 cm (40 in) for men and >88cm (35 in) for women
define obesity
total body resistance ex. that recruit most major muscle groups. the most complex ex to perform but also considered most effective for increasing total-body power. ex: clean and jerk, snatch, OH squats
define olympic lifting
test that's beneficial to determine training loads for exercises where going to failure/near failure isn't practical (power cleans, olympic lifts) once the 1RM is known, a % of it is used to determine optimal training load for a given exercise. (ex: 70 %- 85% of 1 RM)
define one rep max (1RM)
occurs when a distal segment (hand/foot) moves in space. *bicep curls, lying triceps extentions, leg extensions, leg curls
define open chain movement give examples of OKC exercises
the relatively stationary attachment site where skeletal muscle begins.
define origin
muscles with fibers that are oriented to that muscle's longitudinal axis.
define parallel muscle
a muscle that is placed in a a stretched position created a passive force that can be utilized during contraction (stretch-shortening cycle)
define passive muscle force
stretching where the person stretching is not actively involved. the person assumes a position and then either holds it with another part of body, assistance from a partner, or some other apparatus (resistance band, towel, etc)
define passive stretching
pain in the front of the knee (musculoskeletal injury)
define patello-femoral pain syndrome
characterized as pain in the anterior of the knee originating from the contact of the posterior surface of the patella with the femur. ranges from overuse, biomechanical, and muscle dysfunction. restoring proper flexibility and strength is key. address IT band complex, hamstrings, and calves through stretching and MF release (foam rolling) restoring proper strength throughout the hip, knee, and ankle joints.
define patellofemoral pain syndrome (PFPS) causes? what helps restore balance across the knee joint? what should exercises focus on?
the phasic manipulation of training variables (volume, intensity, frequency, rest intervals) to optimize desired physiological outcomes while reducing the incidence of overtraining. allows for optimal training and recovery time
define periodization
any disease/disorder of the circulatory system outside brain/heart. exercising in cold air/water to reduce the risk of vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels)
define peripheral vascular disease (PVD) what should clients with PVD avoid and why?
inflammation of the plantar fascia (thick band of tissue) that runs across the bottom of the foot and connects the heel bone to the toes. (musculoskeletal injury)
define plantar fasciitis
predictable patterns of muscle imbalances resulting from poor posture, improper movement, or injury
define postural distortion patterns
impaired fasting glucose fasting plasma glucose 100mg - 125mg
define prediabetes (includes #s)
goal achieved by doing something (the process), like completing a certain # of workouts each week
define process goal
something that is achieved (the product) such as weight loss or and increase in strength.
define product goal
creating individualized programs that promote healthy behaviors through exercise, nutrition, education, and coaching
define program design and implementation
lying face down
define prone
method of promoting the response of neuromuscular mechanisms through the simulation of proprioceptors in an attempt to gain more stretch in a muscle. involves stretching and contracting the targeted muscle group. once in position, hold 20-75% voluntary contraction for minimum of 6 seconds, followed by 10-30 seconds of an assisted stretch.
define proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)
exercises involving the "pull" muscle groups *pull-ups, deadlifts, and adduction
define pull exercises give 3 examples
exercises involving the "push" muscle groups *bench press, squats, abduction
define push exercises give 3 examples
A relationship marked by mutual understanding and trust. this stage begins with the initial first impressions a client has, and continues to develop through the use of excellent verbal and nonverbal communication. trainer creates a climate of trust with excellent communication and teaching skills.
define rapport describe this stage
involves a specification of all risks that may be encountered in areas of instruction, supervision, facilities, equipment, contracts, and business structure
define risk identification``
a process whereby a service or program is delivered in a manner to fully conform to the most relevant standards of practice, and that uses operational strategies to ensure optimum achievement of desired client outcomes, and minimize the risk of harm to clients.
define risk management
occurs at the point of intensity where blowing off C02 is no longer adequate to buffer the rapidly increasing lactate. exercise at and above this intensity can only be sustained for a brief period due to the accumulation of lactate.
define second ventilatory threshold (VT2)
not participating in at least 30 minutes of moderate intensity physical activity (40-60% vo2r) at least 3 days a week for at least 3 months)
define sedentary lifestyle
The belief in one's own capabilities to successfully engage in a physical-activity program along with one's ability for self-management, goal achievement and effectiveness
define self-efficacy
general term for any leg pain on the front or side of the lower leg in the region of the shin bone. overuse rest and modified activity. stretching and strengthening techniques for the lower leg (foot, ankle, calves, and anterior leg muscles) are also beneficial to restore any muscle imbalances in these areas.
define shin splints. primary cause? best symptom relief?
acute pain in the shin and lower leg caused by prolonged running, typically on hard surfaces. (musculoskeletal injury)
define shin splints. what causes it?
only the muscles that are trained will adapt and change in response
define specificity of training
stretching/tearing of ligaments (musculoskeletal injury)
define sprain
characteristic of the body's joints or posture that represents resistance to change of position
define stability
the ability to maintain the body's center of mass (COM) w/in its Base of Support (BOS)
define static balance
the alignment of the body's segments, how the person holds themselves "statically" w/no movement in space
define static posture
slowly move into position, then holding stretch at point of tightness for 15-60 seconds. repeat minimum of 4 reps
define static stretching
-involves activity without rest intervals. -can be performed at low, moderate, or high intensities. -continuous training improves aerobic fitness, endurance and aids weight loss -more time consuming than interval/circuit, does very little for anaerobic fitness
define steady state training
stretching or tearing of muscles/tendons (musculoskeletal injury)
define strain
the amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle of the heart in a single contraction.
define stroke volume (SV)
sudden an often sever attack due to blockage of blood flow/bleeding in the brain. -WALK: balance off (walking problems, dizziness, loss of coordination) -TALK: slurred speech, droopy face (confusion, trouble speaking/understanding others?) -REACH: 1 side weak or numb (numbness/weakness in face, arms, legs...) -SEE: partial or total vision loss (trouble seeing in both or one eye?) -FEEL: severe headache with unknown cause
define stroke. list warning signs.
consecutive performance of 2 ex. either for the same or different muscle groups
define super setting
toward the head; higher (cephalic)
define superior
lying face up
define supine
muscles that assist the prime mover during movement/joint action. helps the prime mover perform more efficiently
define synergist
when synergists take over function for weak/inhibited prime movers.
define synergistic dominance
Social support focused on practical or material needs (finances)
define tangible support
inflammation of a tendon and/or tendon-muscle attachment (overuse condition)
define tendonitis
Connective tissues that attach muscle to bone and provide an anchor for muscles to produce force.
define tendons
clients begin to master the basics, and are ready for specific feedback to help refine a skill
define the associative stage of learning
clients are performing skills effectively and naturally
define the autonomous stage of learning
developed by the AHA, and can increase likelihood of survival in the event of cardiac arrest. -early access -early CPR -early defibrillation -early advanced care
define the chain of survival list its 4 steps
when clients try to understand a new skill
define the cognitive stage of learning
divides the body into the R and L sides. Flexion and extension exercises are primarily involved this plane. *squats, bicep curls, tricep pushdown, walking and running
define the sagittal plane. what type of exercises/movement are primarily involved in it? give examples
region from hip to knee
define thigh
body of law that regulates civil wrongdoing
define total law
each resistance exercise has a certain amount of transfer to another activity.
define transfer specificity
divides the body into superior and inferior parts. horizontal and rotational movements occur in it. *trunk rotation and swinging a bat
define transverse plane.
exercises/movements involving 1 limb *1 arm bicep curl
define unilateral exercises give an example
distal segment of a joint deviates laterally
define valgus
no one program should be used without changing the ex. stimulus over time
define variation in training
distal segment of a joint deviates medially
define varus
point of transition between predominately aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production. with regular exercise, this can increase for some time beyond a person's primary increase in V02 max
define ventilatory threshold
maximal oxygen consumption *increases with training, but reaches a peak and plateaus within about 6 months
define vo2max
resting oxygen consumption = 3.5
define vo2rest
voluntary abandonment of a right to file suit; not always legally binding.
define waiver
movement of the scapula inferiorly (downwards) in the frontal plane
depression
nodding, making eye contact, restating important info the client has stated. be nonjudgemental and open-minded. give verbal and non-verbal feedback to indicate attention and understanding. make sure to receive affirmation from the client on feedback given. identify statements that indicate a teaching and/or learning opportunity.
describe active listening
match the client's emotions to show this affectively. ability to identify with their perspective shows and understanding that helps to develop tryst and rapport.
describe empathizing
each major muscle group should be trained 2-3 days per week
describe frequency in terms of FITT-VP principles
helps personal trainer ensure client satisfaction and enjoyment of the program. paying attention to both verbal and nonverbal feedback assists trainer in properly progressing and modifying the clients training program as needed. schedule periodic program evaluations and goal reviews to ensure client expectations are met.
describe importance of client feedback
fats that contain 14 or more carbon atoms
describe long chain fats
fats that contain 8-12 carbon atoms *medium chain triglycerides (MCT) are an excellent source of fuel for the body
describe medium chain fats
helps a client commit to changing unhealthy behavior by combining empathetic counseling and a direct approach to decisive change. ask open ended questions that require more than "yes" or "no" answer encourage client to talk about what needs to be changed and then help them find ways to elicit that behavioral change. encourage client to take control, be independent and self-sufficient with their exercise program by teaching and helping them find enjoyment in the experience.
describe motivational interviewing
programs designed to improve motor skill related components of physical fitness including speed, agility, quickness, reactivity, and power
describe performance training programs
designed to develop and aerobic-base for clients who have been sedentary / near-sedentary. establishes the foundation for aerobic fitness and health that is built upon in stages. exercise during this phase should be performed at steady-state instensities in low-to-moderate range. goal: to gradually increase duration and frequency until the client is performing cardiorespiratory 3-5 days/week, 20-30 min. ea. @RPE 3-4, likely keeping client below VT1
describe phase 1 (aerobic-base training) of cardiorespiratory training -who is it designed for? -what does it establish? -what intensities should exercise be performed at? -goal?
phase designed to enhance the client's aerobic efficiency by increasing exercise duration, frequency (when possible)
describe phase 2 (aerobic-efficiency training) of cardiorespiratory training
-phase's primary focus is to design programs that improve performance in endurance and achieve higher levels of cardiorespiratory fitness. -higher-intensity intervals introduced to load cardiorespiratory system enough to develop anaerobic endurance. -training zones used to alternate times spent below VT1, between VT1 and VT2, and at or above VT2 -emphasize importance of recovery. training sessions should occur at a rate that allows ample recovery time
describe phase 3 (aerobic-endurance) of cardiorespiratory training
this phase is used to enhance muscle hypertrophy, strength and endurance.
describe phase 3 (load training) of functional movement and resistance training
-phase designed to build on training done in previous 3 phases and introduce short-duration, high-intensity intervals designed to enhance aerobic power. -intervals performed well above VT2 or RPE of 9 (very, very strong) will help to develop peak power and aerobic power. -overloads fast glycolytic system and challenges phosphagen system, enhancing ability to perform high-intensity work for longer. -longer recovery times to prevent overtraining
describe phase 4 (anaerobic-power training) of cardiorespiratory training
positive words promote positive attitudes and outcomes. positive reinforcement and encouragement help the client to build self-esteem and motivation for exercise.
describe positive affirmation
fats that contain 6 or less carbon atoms
describe short chain fats
where the exercise program begins. -implementing all of the programming components and providing instruction, demonstration, and execution of the programs -implementing strategies to improve motivation and promote long-term adherence -providing feedback and evaluation -making necessary adjustments and progressions towards goals
describe the action stage
involves gathering info and demonstrating effective listening skills. Identifying client's readiness to change behavior; their current stage of behavioral change and personality style; collecting health and safety info; learning about lifestyle preferences; interest and attitudes; understanding previous experiences, and conducting assessments trainer should be able to identify the emotional needs behind the client's decision to start an exercise program and work with the client to address those needs
describe the investigation stage
consists of these steps: setting goals, generating and discussing alternatives, formulating a plan, evaluating the exercise program, and designing motivation and adherence strategies.
describe the planning stage
lean body weight / (100% - desired body fat%) first find LBW: 180 X .20 = 36 lbs fat weight 180 - 36 = 144 lbs LBW 144 / (100-10 = 90) 144/ 90 = 160 lbs
desired body weight (DBW) formula ex: calculate DBW of person 180lbs, 20 % body fat, wanting to be at 10% DBW
100-250 mgdL (milligram / deciliter) if below 100 mgdL - eat a pre-exercise snack high in complex carbs and low in fat . extra calories may need to be consumed (like a sports drink) during/after exercise to maintain blood sugar levels. if 250 mgdL w/presence of ketones in urine or 300mddL w/o ketones - exercise shouldn't be performed until blood sugar is better controlled.
diabetics should check their blood sugar prior to exercise to ensure their blood glucose level it between __ and ___. what should they do if they are below? what is high and what should they do if they are high?
fat cal: multiply by serving numbers per container %fat: divide by calories per serving
difference between finding %fat and FAT CAL ?
no unless they are also a registered dietician
does a personal trainer have the expertise or legal qualifications necessary to recommend supplements?
inferior and medial movement of the inferior angle of the scapula in the frontal plane
downward rotation of scapula
ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) scale
due to the standard deviations in measuring a person's MHR, training HR should be used in combination w/_____
antagonist (relaxes), agonist (contracts) biceps contract, triceps relax, and vice versa.
during reciprocal inhibition, the __________ relaxes, so the __________ can contract. give an example of a muscle group that does this.
relax, contract
during reciprocal inhibition, the muscles on one side of a joint ______ to allow the muscle on the other side to ________ appropriately.
Action of a muscle when it is generating an eccentric contraction
eccentric function
movement of the scapula superiorly (upwards) in the frontal plane
elevation
density = mass/volume
equation for hydrostatic weighing
angina (chest pain) dyspnea (shortness of breath light-headedness/dizziness pallor (pale skin) discontinue activity. activate emergency medical system. notify client's physician.
exercise with special populations shouldn't continue if these signs are observed what should you do if signs are present and persist?
subcutaneous fat
fat located under the skin
body weight (BW) x body fat (BF)% 180 x 0.20 = 36 lbs FW
fat weight (FW) formula ex: calculate based on 180lb body weight and 20% body fat
the injured area fills with collagen and other cells which will eventually form a scar. starts around day 3 and lasts until approximately day 21. the wound can resist normal stresses within 2-3 weeks but strength continues to build for several months.
fibroblastic/proliferation phase
should provide specific details for how a business will generate cash flow and produce profit. personal trainer should be as specific as possible and consider all of the potential issues related to cash flow in the planing process. allows them to focus time on operation once the business is open.
financial plan
process goals
focus on the actions an individual must engage in during performance to execute or perform well. A goal that is achieved by completing a task like a workout which fits into a longer term strategy or goal.
individualized to fit each client's needs focus: aerobic activities, light strength training, and stretching while including recreational activities.
for a client with cancer, the training program should be _______ and should focus on what?
weight (kg) / height (m^2)
formula for BMI
anterior
front side of the body or nearer the head
externally rotates the GH joint
function of infraspinatus and teres minor
internally rotates the GH joint
function of subscapularis
abducts the glenohumeral (shoulder) joint
function of supraspinatus
130 BPM -find MHR : 220-30 = 190 BPM -max hr - resting = HRR 190 - 60 = 130 BPM
give HRR for a 30 year old with resting HR of 60 BPM
a sedentary person with high BP decides to exercise regularly and eat better to decrease BP naturally. they believe making those behavioral changes will decrease the health risk associated with high BP.
give ab example of the health belief model
access to facilities time social support intensity injury
give examples of environmental factors (influencing participation and adherence) physical-activity factors?
demographic variables health status activity history psychological traits attitudes and beliefs
give examples of personal attributes (influencing participation and adherence)
130 x .80 + 60 = 164 BPM heart rate reserve x intensity % + RHR
give the THR for a woman with a RHR of 60 BPM, and RHR of 60 Bpm, training at 80% intensity
dyspnea
having trouble breathing; shortness of breath or labored breathing
contemporary training parameters
health-behavior change, postural stability, kinetic chain mobility, movement efficiency, core conditioning, balance, cardiorespiratory fitness, metabolic markers, muscular endurance, muscular strength, flexibility, agility, coordination, & reactivity speed & power
in a hot and humid conditions. heat edema, heat cramps heat exhaustion (more serious. profuse sweating, cold, clammy skin, dizziness, weak rapid pulse) heat stroke (hot dry skin, bright red skin color, strong rapid pulse)
heat stress can occur with exercise that is _______. list various types of heat stress
1" = 2.54 cm 1m = 100 cm 1 Kg = 2.2 lbs
height and weight conversions 1" = ___cm 1 m = ____cm 1 Kg = ______lbs
10x more likely to have a CV event during exercise
high risk clients with cardiac disease are _______ than those who are apparently healthy.
movement toward the midline of the body in the transverse plane
horizontal adduction
help clients take ownership and control if a trainer tries to control/manipulate a client into acting a certain way
how can you increase a client's intrinsic motivation? what can diminish it?
feel for air flow on their own check while looking for the chest to rise and fall while also listening for unusual snoring, gurgling, or high pitched sounds that may indicate a partial airway blockage. not breathing; no chest movement or sounds indicating air movement. give breaths. initiate CPR
how do you asses breathing in an unconscious person? define apneic. what should you do if someone is apneic? what should you do if no pulse?
DBW = Lean body weight / (100% - desired body fat %)
how do you calculate desired body weight?
WHR = Waist / hip It is a good indicator of body fat distribution
how do you calculate waist to hip ratio? what is it a good indicator of?
if choking: person cannot breathe, make sounds, or has very quiet cough. if a child cant cry thumb of fist just above belly button from behind. rescuer can wrap their arms around the victim's breastbone instead of the abdomen. victim may become unconscious. call for help and initiate CPR.
how do you know if airway blockage is severe enough for the heimlich maneuver? where should hands be positioned for the heimlich maneuver? what if victim is very large or in late stages of pregnancy? what if heimlich doesn't work?
understanding and IDing synergistic dominance will help you cue clients into better form.
how does understanding synergistic dominance help with your clients?
24 individual 7 cervical (neck) 12 thoracic (mid-back) *ribs connected to these 5 lumbar (low-back)
how many individual vertebrae in the spine? how many in each region?
decreases by 10% 7-10 minutes, CPR, double
in the event of cardiac arrest, a person's chance of survival _______ for every 10 minutes that passes without treatment. EMS usually takes an average of ______ to arrive once contacted so ____ should be performed as it can more than ____the chance of survival
pump, collect
in the heart, the verticles ______ the blood and the atriums ______ the blood.
right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, left ventricle
in which order does blood flow through the heart?
eccentric
incorporating exercises that challenge a muscle's _______ function may help prevent injury during many functional movements
multijoint, multiplanar
incorporating functional exercises that include both _______ and ______ movements that mimic activities of daily living (ADL) will set clients up for long term success.
bursitis
inflammation of the bursa which is located between bones, tendons, joints, & muscles. Most typical areas affected are hips, shoulders, & elbows
immobilizes the injured area to begin healing process. blood flow is increased to bring in oxygen and nutrients to repair the damaged tissue. can last up to 6 days.
inflammatory phase
adducting the ankle *feet turn in *sole of the foot facing inwards
inversion
(1) A muscle's primary function. (2) A muscle action produced at a joint when a muscle is being concentrically activated to produce acceleration of a body segment.
isolated function
the production of an active force whena muscle develops tension while maintaining a constant length
isometric activation
15
isometric exercise strengthen muscle within ___ degrees of the position held
there is a life-threatening situation or anything that requires immediate medical attention. situations where someone is seriously ill, not breathing, has an open wound to the chest, or is bleeding profusely.
it is appropriate to call emergency medical services (EMS) when ________. list examples of when to contact 911
6 months 50%, 6 months
it takes about _____ of regular exercise to see lasting health benefits. _____% of people who begin an exercise program quit within ____ months
Step 1: 220 - Age = Predicted MHRStep 2: Predicted MHR - Resting Heart Rate = HRR Step 3: (HRR x % intensity) + RHR = THR
karvonen formula equation
What are the correct units of measurement for calculating body mass index (BMI)?
kg/(m^2) lb/2.2=kg in/3.39=m
fat = 9 cal/gram protein = 4 cal/g carbs = 4 cal/g alcohol = 7 cal/g 3500 kcal (cal) = 1 lb of fat
kilocalorie (calorie) breakdown: fat = __ calories per gram protein= __ cal/g carbohydrates= __cal/g alcohol= __cal/g 3500 kcal (calories) = how much fat?
movement away from the body in the midline of the body in the frontal plane
lateral flexion (right of left)
-left main coronary stenosis -moderate stenotic valvular heart disease -electrolyte abnormalities -sever atrial hypertension -fast HR or slow HR (Tachydysrhythmia or bradyarrhythmia) -hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and other forms of outflow tract obstruction -neuromuscular, musculoskeletal or rheumatoid disorders that are exacerbated by ex -high-degree atrioventricular block -ventricular aneurysm -uncontrolled metabolic diesase -chronic infectious disease -mental or physical impairment leading to inability to ex. adequately
list 12 relative contraindications (exercise testing can be done only after careful evaluation or the risk/benefit ratio)
adductor longus adductor magnus (anterior and posterior fibers) adductor brevis gracilis pectineus gluteus medius, minimus, and maximus piriformis tensor fascia latte (TFL) Iliacus psoas sartorius
list 13 muscles that act at the hip
vitamins and minerals
list 2 micronutrients
expressing empathy, warmth, and genuineness *people don't care how much you know until they know how much you care
list 3 attributes to building a successful client-trainer relationship
personal attributes environmental factors physical-activity factors
list 3 factors influencing exercise participation and adherence
vitamins B, C niacin
list 3 water soluble nutrients
vitamins A, D, E, K
list 4 fat soluble nutrients
-decreased anxiety and depression -enhanced feelings or well being -positive effect on stress -better cognitive function
list 4 psychological benefits of regular exercise
calcium phosphorus iron zinc magnesium
list 5 minerals related to nutrition and human performance
lordosis kyphosis flat back sway back scoliosis
list 5 postural deviations of the trunk/spine
-less pronounced increase in HR -less pronounced increase in core body temp -improvement in cardiac stroke volume and cardiac output -improvement in skin blood flow (enabling better sweat rates and improved cooling) -maintenance of better blood volume -reduction in net muscle glycogen usage (improves endurance)
list 6 benefits that proper hydration during exercise produces
-foundation of strength and joint integrity (joint mobility and stability) -effective core function -anaerobic efficiency (training of the anaerobic pathways) -athleticism (sufficient skills to perform advanced movements) -no contraindications to load-bearing, dynamic movements -no medical concerns that affect balance and motor skills
list 6 prerequisites fo performance training phase of functional movement and resistance training
balance agility coordination reaction time speed power
list 6 skill-related assessments
static dynamic ballistic passive proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) myofascial release
list 6 stretching techniques
-improvement in cardio and respiratory function -reduction in coronary artery disease factors -decreased morbidity and mortality -decreased risk of falls -increased metabolic rate -improvement in bone health -weight loss and reduced obesity
list 7 physiological benefits or regular exercise
listen empathize positive affirmation intrinsic motivation extrinsic motivation motivational interviewing self-esteem self-concept
list 9 communication and teaching techniques
visual - learns through seeing images and techniques. learner must first see what they are expected to know. auditory - learns best through listening. they depend on hearing and speaking as a primary way of learning. kinesthetic - must manipulate or touch material to learn. often combined with auditory/visual learning techniques producing multi-sensory learning.
list and describe the 3 types of learners
evaluative - summary for the client of how well they have performed a given task "great form and control in that set" supportive - encourage the client when they perform a task properly. motivational for the client and helps them adhere to the program. "good job, way to finish strong" descriptive - specific info that helps the client understand what they need to in order to improve. "keep your core tight and back straight to avoid injury" knowledge of results - provides info on progress
list and describe the type of feedback
avoid isometric exercises, inverted positions, and valsalva maneuver (they can dramatically raise BP and associated work of the heart) clients on meds for condition such as beta blockers and calcium channel blockers can alter HR response during exercise. teach these clients to use RPE scale to monitor exercise intensity. clients on diuretic meds for BP control: pay extra attention to hydration, especially avoiding dehydration in warm environments
list considerations when working with clients with hypertension: what exercises to avoid and why? meds and precautions with them?
internal or behavioral: lack of time, motivation, knowledge, injury and extrinsic motivation discuss strategies for time management, share info about benefits of exercise, set challenging but attainable goals
list examples of personal barriers what ways can you help increase a client's self-efficacy to overcome personal barriers?
-drink 500-600 mL (17-20 oz) 2 hours prior to exercise -drink 200-300 mL (7-10 oz) every 10-20 minutes during exercise, or preferably drink based on sweat loss -post exercise, drink 450-675 mL for every 0.5 kg of body weight lost (16-24oz for every lb)
list fluid-intake recommendations during exercise
coronary artery disease <----- 1 / more hypertension stroke peripheral vascular disease dyslipidemia diabetes metabolic sundrome asthma cancer osteoporosis arthritis fibromyalgia chronic fatigue syndrome low-back pain weight management older adults youth pre- and postpartum
list health conditions / specials needs that fall into special populations a client with ____ of these conditions should engage in a low to moderate program designed for their specific needs
-verbal explanation and demo of proper lifting technique and form prior to exercise -stay close -keep hands on or close to weight being lifted -know how many reps are being done -stop lifter if they break form/have improper technique -make sure you have good base of support and are strong enough to assist lifter with resistance being used
list proper spotting techniques
births, deaths in the family holidays injuries decreased social support decreased motivation discuss potential situations before they occur
list psychological factors and high risk situations that can cause a lapse or relapse in adherence how can you prepare clients to overcome them and maintain their routine?
can assist in the management of many chronic disease states (cardiovascular disease [CVD], diabetes, arthritis)
list some chronic disease states mind-body exercise/yoga can assist in management
static dynamic PNF
list the 3 types of stretching to improve ROM
biceps femoris (long and short heads) semimembranosus semitendinosus
list the 4 muscles of the hamstring complex
vastus lateralis vastus intermedius vastus medialis rectus femoris
list the 4 muscles of the quadriceps
levator scapulae sternocleidomastoid scalenes longus coli longus capitus
list the 5 neck muscles
bend-and-lift single-leg pushing pulling rotational
list the 5 primary human movement patterns
specificty of training SAID principles progressive overload FITT-VP FIRST
list the 5 training principles
sole proprietorship partnership independent contractor corporation s corporation (subchapter corporation) limited liability company
list the 6 basic business models
carbohydrates fats protein vitamins minerals water
list the 6 classes of nutrients
superficial erector spinae (iliocostalis, longissimus, spinalis) quadratus lomborum multifidus lattisimus dorsi
list the 6 muscles of the back
upper, middle, and lower trapezius rhomboid major and minor posterior deltoid teres major
list the 7 muscles of the shoulder / back (posterior)
rectus abdominis internal and external oblique transverse abdominis diaphragm
list the abdominal / core muscles
pectoralis major & minor anterior deltoid medial deltoid serratus anterior
list the muscles 5 of the muscles/chest (anterior)
anterior tibialis peroneus longus
list the muscles of the lower leg (anterior)
posterior tibialis soleus gastrocnemius
list the muscles of the lower leg (posterior)
postural stress emotional duress repetitive movement cumulative trauma poor training technique lack of core strength lack of neuromuscular efficiency
list the variety of ways muscle balances can be caused
amnesia unequal pupil size confusion nausea memory loss vomitting headache balance problems/dizziness drowsiness blurry/double vision loss of consciousness light/noise sensitivity impaired speech tinnitus changes in behavior, thinking, physical function
list warning signs following a possible brain injury
-exercise during cooler times of the day (morning/evening) -take more frequent water breaks on very hot and humid days -avoid exercise in extremely hot and humid conditions with a wet bulb global temp. (WBGT) above 82 degrees.
list ways clients can avoid heat stress
FITT-VP principles
load training should be manipulated using _________
glucose (blood sugar) insulin
low glycemic foods helps maintain ______ levels, that in turn maintains ____ balance, which helps to keep the body out of "fat storing" state.
supine
lying on the back, face up
myofascial release
manual massage treatment designed to release tension in fascia
this final phase begins around day 21 by remodeling the scar, bone, or tissue that was injured into a more organized structure. can last up to 2 years.
maturation/remodeling phase
220 - age = MHR or 208 - (0.7 x age) = MHR EX: 220 - 30 = 190 BPM MHR
max heart rate (MHR) formula EX: What is a 30yr old woman's MHR?
avoid high rep exercises (15-20 reps) invloving elbow and wrist. begin exercises with low weight and reps and gradually progress. full elbow extension should be performed with caution (it can excessively load the muscles and cause further injury)
modifications and guidelines for elbow tendinitis
modifications - limit the ROM and adjust shoulder position to help prevent impingement (pinching) and further injury in general , exercises with elbows bent are preferred over straight arm exercise (they create less torque on the healing tissues)
modifications and guidelines for shoulder and rotator cuff injuries
helps lower blood cholesterol levels while maintaining HDL
monounsaturated fat
will benefit from regular exercise follow general population guidelines. should: perform a gradual and prolonged warmup and cool down to lessen the response during higher-intensity exercise performed furing the condotioning phase. can: -reduce the ventilatory requirement for various tasks (making it easier for asthmatic individuals to perform daily activities and sports) -reduce the severity of exercise-induced asthma (EIA) attacks.
most people with controlled asthma ____________, and can ______. individuals with asthma should do what and why? benefits of exercise conditioning for asthma?
creatine phosphate (CP) Anaerobic glycolysis aerobic oxidation
muscle fibers produce ATP by 3 pathways. list them
contract relax
muscle spindles ______ muscles. GTO _____ muscles.
overactive, underactive
muscles become dysfunctional when hey are wither _____ or _____
Infraspinatus, Teres minor, Posterior deltoid
muscles that all externally rotate the shoulder
The quadratus lumborum is grouped with the rectus abdominis and pulls the rib cage downward during active expiration. These muscles assist with spanning the thorax and abdomen. * the diaphragm is used during passive inspiration * the sternocleidomastoid pulls the rib cage upwards
muscles that pull the rib cage downward during respiration
standing long jump test vertical jump test
name 2 power assessments
1. radial artery - thumb side of writs 2. brachial - anterior side of elbow 3. carotid - neck *note: carotid artery is not preferred site due to possibility of reflexive slowing of heart when pressed. radial and brachial are preferred.
name 3 sites to check HR (names and location) which of the 2 is least preferred and why?
bend and lift, hurdle step, shoulder push stabilization, thoracic spine mobility
name 4 movement screens
cortisol
name a slow acting hormone
thomas test (hip flexion/quadriceps length)' passive straight-leg (PSL) raise shoulder mobility
name flexibility and muscle-length tests
HR (heart rate) and BP (blood pressure)
name the 2 resting vital signs used in sequence of assessments
men - chest, thigh, abdomen women, tricep, thigh, supraillium use Jackson and Pollock 3-site Skinfold Formulas to determine body fat %
name the 3 skinfold measurement locations is men and women. what formula is used to determine body fate % from these?
cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral
name the 4 regions of the spine
abduction, adduction, lateral flexion at the spine, eversion and inversion of the foot
name the 5 frontal plane movements
flexion, extension, hypertension, dorsiflexion, and plantar flexion
name the 5 sagittal plane movements
internal and external rotation, pronation and supination, and horizontal abduction and adduction
name the 6 transverse plane movements
What blood pressure measurement is considered to be a risk factor for cardiovascular disease?
old: 140/90 mmHg An individual with blood pressure greater than or equal to 140 mmHg systolic and/or 90 mmHg diastolic is considered to be hypertensive, or high blood pressure, making it a risk factor for cardiovascular disease.
Contralateral
on the opposite side of the body
lenghtened, strengthened
once imbalances have been identified, overactive muscles should be _____, and underactive muscles should be _____ to restore proper length-tension relationships.
diagonal movement of thumb across the palmar surface of the hand to make contact with the fifth digit
opposition
compound sets
pairing 2 or more exercises for the same body part
easily created flow-through taxation potential management disputes personal liability (Except limited partners)
partnership advantages / disadvantages
(fat grams per serving x 9 kcal) / calories per serving
percent of calories from fat (%FAT) formula
There are several exercise performance factors that affect the rate and degree of strength development. These training variables include volume, intensity, tempo, rest intervals, and frequency.
performance factors that affect the rate and degree of strength development in your client?
employer independent contractor start their own training business
personal trainers must make the decision to either work for an ___, work as an _____, or _______.
means and access to the trainer's potential work environments
personal trainers should conduct market research to ensure the target demographic have ______.
standards of care accepted business practices
personal trainers should stay up to date on ____ and ____ by reading publications and attending conference presentations that address legal issues.
high probability of persisting into adulthood, increases premature death. 6-17 years old, 60 minutes a day, moderate to vigorous muscle and bone strengthening activities. 3 days a week.
physical inactivity, poor diet habits, and other unhealthy behaviors established at a young age have a ___________, which _______. children from __ to ___ years old should participate in at least _____ minutes a day of _____________ intensity exercise. they should engage in vigorous intensity ______ and ______ activities at least ___ days a week.
extending the ankle so that the foot moves posteriorly in the sagittal plane *pointing your toe
plantarflexion
helps lower blood cholesterol levels
polyunsaturated fat
proximal
position near the center of the body or point of attachment
rescuers should wear gloves, use a protective barrier device when performing CPR, and wear eye protection and gown if there's potential for blood splash. helps prevent the spread of bloodborne diseases (hep B, HIV) when dealing with other people's bodily fluids. handwashing.
precautions and protection against bloodborne pathogens what do they help prevent best way to prevent spread of disease whether gloves are worn or not?
an area of Tort Law, regulates any incidents that result from conditions of the physical setting where training activities occur.
premises law
Involves using interventions specific to a client's current stage of change to help them transition to the next stage of change. this will help increase the success of the client adopting a new behavior
process of change (TTM)
transfers the risk to the insurance company in the event of an incident or claim by a client. should be carried by a business/personal trainer.
professional liability insurance
diabetes , PVD peripheral neuropathy - causes loss of sensation in the extremities
proper footwear is essential for clients with ___ or ___ to prevent constriction, ulcers, or injury due to _____, which ______.
Abduction of the wrist in the frontal plane (toward thumb from anatomical position)
radial deviation
Tight plantarflexors can lead to which compensation?
raised heels. the plantar flexor muscles cause the heels to elevate, therefore tight, or overactive, plantarflexors can lead to the inability to keep heels in contact with the floor.
agonists: pectoralis major and minor, anterior deltoids, triceps antagonists: biceps, posterior deltoids, rhomboids, trapezius
the bench press is an upper body compound movement. list the agonists and antagonists
remove the activity completely. through insurance or viable actions to reduce likelihood of occurrence or severity of outcome. reduction low impact
recommended approach for extreme risks? how can risks that fall into the high risk category be managed? preferred method for addressing risks in the medium category? which risks can be retained?
lactate threshold
refers to the intensity of exercise where lactate accumulates into bloodstream. lactate concentrations rise above resting levels.
1. exercise enhances daily caloric expenditure 2. exercise (especially strength training) can minimize the loss of lean body mass 3. exercise may suppress appetite and counteract the impact that diet may have on resting metabolic rate (RMR) 4. exercise makes the body more efficient at burning fat
regular exercise is a key component of long-term weight management. list 4 benefits thats exercise has in effective weight loss and maintaining a healthy weight
heart rate reserve
represents the resting capacity of the heart as measured by the difference between the heart rate & maximal heart rate
45 55
risk factor age for men? risk factor age for women?
used to determine a client's risk level (low, moderate or high) for exercise , and the appropriate procedures to follow once the risk classification is known.
risk stratification
flow-through taxation limited liability limited number of potential investors costs of formation and operation
s-corps advantages / disadvantages
yes. to ensure there are no health conditions present that would limit activity. exercises in the supine position after the 1st trimester
should pregnant women obtain physician clearance and guidelines for exercise before initiating an exercise program? why? what type of exercises should pregnant women avoid and when?
oxidation (burning) , protein (muscle) insulin, fat.
some carbs (glucose) are required for _____ of fat, and help _____ from being broke down. however, too much glucose (carbs/sugar) causes an excessive ____ response, encouraging production of _____.
agonists/prime movers: gluteus maximus and quadriceps synergists and stabilizer (secondary) msucles: hamstrings, erector spinae, transverse abdominis, gluteus medius/minimus, abductors, adductors, soleus and gastrocnemius
squats are a full body multi-joint compound exercise. name the muscles involved and their roles. agonists? secondary muscles?
-warmup: 1st set with light resistance, 50% of anticipated 1-RM. 5-10 reps -rest 1 minute -2nd set: increase load to 70-75% of anticipated 1-RM. 3-5 reps -rest 1 minute -3rd set: at least 85-90% anticipated 1-RM. 2-3 reps -rest 2-4 minutes -info gained from 3rd set is used to determine load for 1-RM.
step by step 1RM assessment
Cortisol
stress hormone released by the adrenal cortex. it is involved in the response to stress. It increases blood pressure and blood glucose levels and has an immunosuppressive action.
sprain
stretching or tearing of ligaments
Combined movements of adduction and inversion resulting in raising of the medial margin of the foot *bow legged/pigeon toed , feet turn in
supination (foot/ankle)
.96 +
what is the at risk waist to hip ratio for men?
base of support
the area beneath your feet that includes all points of contact
(desired weight loss in lbs x 3500) / # of weeks
weekly caloric deficit (to figure out how many calories to cut to achieve weight loss)
pro agility test 40-yard dash
what 2 tests are both appropriate assessments for speed, agility and quicknesss testing?
transportation regulation protection
what 3 functions does blood provide?
long bones short bones flat bones irregular bones sesamoid bones
what 5 major categories are the bones categorized into?
movement - bones act as levers, joints as pivot points that the muscular system acts upon to move support - bones are the framework of the body that everything is built on top of or held within. protection- bones encase vital organs and protect them from trauma. blood production-blood cells are formed in the bone marrow which is housed in the cavity of certain bones in the body. mineral storage-minerals (like calcium and phosphorus are stored in bones)
what 5 major roles does the skeletal system serve in the body?
the body cannot produce essential amino acids (they must be obtained from food), whereas nonessential amino acids can be produced by the body
what is the difference between essential and nonessential amino acids?
the goal of this phase is to develop the client's postural stability and proper movement patterns
what is the goal of phase 1 (stability and mobility) of functional movement and resistance training?
-fat deposits in certain areas of the body can be targeted with strength training via spot reduction. *"1st on, last off" : fat sheds in reverse from the order it was stored -women will build bulky muscles weight training -light weight, high rep =muscle tone ; heavy weights, low rep = muscle mass -you can et too old to lift weights -kids are too young to lift -free weights are always better than weight machines -muscle turns to fat when you stop training -strength training is bad for BP
what are 8 common resistance-training myths and mistakes?
-significant change in resting ECG -Unstable angina (chest pain) -uncontrolled cardiac dysrhythmias -severe symptomatic aortic stenosis -uncontrolled symptomatic heart failure -acute pulmonary embolus or pulmonary infarction -acute myocarditis or pericarditis -suspected/known dissecting aneurysm -acute systematic infection, accompanied by fever, body aches, or swollen lymph glands
what are 9 absolute contraindications (risks of ex. testing outweighs the potential benefit. client should not participate until these conditions are stabilized/treated)
correctible: repetitive movement, poor posture (awkward positions and movements), side dominance, lack of joint stability/mobility, imbalanced resistance training programs non-correctible: congenital conditions (scoliosis), some pathologies (arthritis), structural deviations, certain types of trauma (surgery, injury, amputation)
what are correctible factors that can contribute to muscles imbalances and postural deviations? non correctible?
used to record testing and measurement data during the fitness assessment
what are testing forms used for?
cortical (compact) - more dense trabecular (spongy) - less dense
what are the 2 types of bones?
roll, slide, spin
what are the 3 major motions of the joints?
arteries, capillaries, veins
what are the 3 major types of blood vessels?
left atrium - recieves oxygenated blood from lungs left ventricle - pumps it to all parts of the body
what are the functions of the left atrium and left ventricle?
right artrium - collects deoxygenated blood coming from the body right ventricle - pumps the blood through the lungs
what are the functions of the right atrium and right ventricle?
maintain blood flow in a single direction
what are the heart valves' main function?
morning 5am-9am (before work) afternoon 12pm-2pm (lunch break) evening 4pm - 8pm (after work)
what are the most popular times for clients to work with trainers?
to normalize glucose metabolism, and prevent disease progression as well as complications associated with the disease. by motivating the client to participate in regular physical activity and provide necessary feedback to the client's team of specialists (physician, educators, dietician, etc) regarding progress and responses.
what are the primary treatment goals for diabetes? how can personal trainers provide assistance in managing it?
men 45 or older women 55 or older
what are the risk factor ages of men and women
assessments of the client's posture, balance, movement, ROM of ankle, hip, shoulder complex and lumbar spine the trainer can implement a program that addresses the client's weaknesses and imbalances found in the assessments.
what assessments should be performed in the early stages of phase 1 (stability and mobility) of functional movement and resistance training? what should the exercise program address?
decrease it
what do diuretics do to blood pressure?
physical activity readiness questionnaire
what does PAR-Q stand for?
heart attack (myocardial infaction) coronary revascularization (bypass) sudden death (before 55 years old in father/male 1st degree relatives, or before 65 in mother/female)
what family history = risk factors?
it's either burned as a source of energy or stored as fat. kidneys. can lead to increased metabolic waste and dehydration
what happens to an overconsumption of protein? what organ has to excrete excess protein, and what can that lead to?
oxygen consumption at rest
what is 1 MET associated with
low-back pain. cardiorespiratory training, resistance training, basic core exercises. improper technique. exercises that cause it: unsupported forward flexion; twisting at the waist w/turned feet while carrying a load; lifting both legs together in prone or supine; rapid movements w/twisting, forward flexion, or hyperextension
what is LBP and what should a training program for those with it consist of? what is the presence of LBP and indicator of? what should be avoided with LBP? give examples
ratings of perceived exertion modern scale 1-10 classic scale 6-20
what is RPE? describe the 2 scaled it's measured on
high density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol 60mg or higher if any other risk factors are present, this nullifies or takes one away
what is a negative risk factor and what does it mean for a client's risk classifcation?
medical history, medications, and supplements, exercise history, illness/injuries, lifestyle info (nutrition, stress, work, sleep, etc.)
what is in the health-history questionnaire?
60-80 bpm
what is normal resting HR?
a thorough medical history and assessment. if exercise is appropriate or if the client should be cleared by a medical professional prior to starting the program. ensures client's safety and provides appropriate guidelines to follow.
what is recommended for clients with a pre-existing injury? what should the trainer be able to determine from this, and what will it ensure?
personal trainers utilize their own waivers in addition to any waivers potentially signed by a client when they joined a fitness club where the trainer is employed. investigation with an attorney prior to creating a waiver, as each state has their own rules regarding waivers.
what is recommended for personal trainers and waivers?
men - 2 - 5% women - 10 - 13%
what is the % of essential body fat necessary in men and women?
design a low to moderate intensity individualized exercise program for the client. maintain close communication with the client's healthcare professionals, and expand their own knowledge in applicable areas question clients and be aware of signs/symptoms that require stopping before, during and immediately after exercise. make sure client can recognize signs as well.
what should trainers working with special populations do?
notify the facility's management and avoid that area until it has been addressed.
what should you do as a trainer if you notice an unsafe condition on the premises?
dynamic static
what stretches can be done prior to resistance training? what stretched should be avoided prior to resistance training?
pro agility test 40 yd dash standing long jump test vertical jump test
what tests are used together for clients interested in performance training?
height, weight, BMI, WHR, Skinfold measurements
what tests comprises the body composition assessment?
waivers, informed consent, and agreement to participate
what ways can a personal trainer make the client aware of inherent risks involved in participation and avoid/defend against potential negligence claims?
developing a unique skillset that is tailored to specific goals of the customer base.
what will help a trainer build their own "brand" of training?
190 BPM 220-30 = 190
what would a 30 year old woman's MHR be?
talk test
what's the best method for monitoring intensity during aerobic-base training?
type I (slow twitch) type IIx (fast-twitch) type 11a (hybrid with both fast (explosive) and slow twitch (endurance) capabilities)
whats are 3 types of muscle fiber
antagonist
when a muscle action counteracts the contraction produced by another muscle
Grade I - 1-2 weeks Grade II - 4-8 weeks Grade III - 12-16 weeks lateral and multidirectional begin with straight-plane motions, then side-to-side, last multidirectional
when can a person with Grade I, II, and III ankle sprains usually resume exercise? what movements will these clients often lack stability in? modifications?
and hour after a meal 2 hours after a meal 2-4 hours
when does blood glucose peak? when does it return to normal? eating every ______ helps avoid mental and muscle fatigue
thoracic mobility
when teaching clients bend-and-lift or single leg movements, begin with arms down, as arms up requires a greater degree of ________ which many clients may lack
anaerobic threshold
when the level of exercise intensity places demands on the body causing lactic acid to build up faster than it can be cleared away
contract law
whether a personal trainer works as an independent contractor or employee, the basic tenets of _____ should be understood.
glenohumeral thoracic spine hip ankle
which 4 points on the kinetic chain favor mobility?
scapulothoracic lumbar spine knee foot
which 4 points on the kinetic chain favor stability?
clients with any known CV, pulmonary, metabolic disease or has any major signs and symptoms suggestive of those diseases.
which clients are automatically put in the high risk category
high risk individuals
which individuals should have a medical examination prior to exercise, and doctor supervision of exercise test performed?
Submaximal strength testin
which test is highly accurate to determine a clients likely 1-RM?
standing long jump vertical jump test
which tests should you use to assess anaerobic power?
concentric activation
which type of activation is performed by the agonist?
eccentric activation
which type of activation is performed by the antagonist?
an increase in stroke volume as a result of CV adaptations to exercises reduces HR.
why might a person with a lower RHR indicate a higher fitness level?
aware of unique laws governing the trainer's city, state, and country. will help to ensure that legal responsibilities are met and upheld. will help to mitigate potential litigation and other legal concerns.
why should a personal trainer regularly consult with an attorney?