CG HC-130H Study Material

If the anti-icing system does not clear the wing and empennage of ice, place the ENGINE BLEED AIR switches (1700 series) to ________. [FM 2-146]

"OVRD"

Discuss Stop Start or Abnormal Start Indications [FM 1-29 2-26 to 2-30]

"Turning Number __" -Any (vibration, leak, noise, smoke, fire) (Stop Start) -"Negative Rotation" Start valve not open or no prop rotation in 5 seconds. (Stop Start) "FF" -FF will increase to approx. 300 pph (higher for enrichment) -Negative De-enrichment (if selected) (Stop Start) "Ignition" -No ignition by 35% RPM. (Stop Start) After Ignition, if eng does not accelerate smoothly to ground idle RPM and/or a rapid increase in TIT is indicated, a stalled start is occurring. (Stop Start and motor to 25%) "Oil Pressure" -No oil pressure (Engine and Gearbox) by 35% RPM (Stop Start) "Hyd Pressure" -If no positive hyd press by the time eng is on-speed. (Stop Start) "Parallel" -"Negative Parallel" (Sec Fuel Pump light not illuminated before 65% RPM) (Abnormal Start. Continue then troubleshoot) "Starter" -If START VALVE OPEN light not extinguished w/i 15 sec after releasing ENG GROUND START. (Stop Start) "Series" - Sec Fuel Pump Pressure light remains on after 65% (Abnormal start. Continue then troubleshoot) "Peak TIT" -720 or less: Stop Start -721-750: Record; Temp Control Check -751 - 830: Normal -Exceeds 830: Record -Exceeds 850: Stop Start; Record; One Restart -Exceeds 965: Stop Start; Record and Inspect "Hyd Pressure" -If hyd press not normal within 30 sec of on-speed. -Start not complete in 1 minute (70 sec w/ high DA)

Which engine is the critical engine and why?

# 1 Engine because the down going blade is inboard. -The # 4 eng down going blade is outboard and therefore has more moment -This is true on paper but the actual difference is imperceptible.

Crossfeed primer moves fuel and air from the fuel manifold to the __________ fuel tank.

#2 fuel tank

If the inner or outer pane of the windshield or cargo compartment windows crack in flight, reduce the cabin differential to ____(1)_____. If both panes of the windshield crack, flight may be continued at ____(2)______; however, if both panes of a cargo compartment window crack, reduce cabin differential pressure to ___(3)___. Adjust mission altitude as required.

(1) 10 in. HG or less (2) 10 in. HG or less (3) zero [FM 3-61]

(1700 series with inoperative APU generator) The airplane will depressurize any time power is removed from the ______________ bus due to the ___________________________ closing. [FM 3-39]

(1700 series with inoperative APU generator) The airplane will depressurize any time power is removed from the essential DC bus due to the engine bleed air regulators closing.

When may Coast Guard Aircraft conduct Assistance Entry (AE) Recsue in coastal a state's territorial seas? When is AE not authorized? [USCFG Addendum pg 1-46]

(a) There is reasonable certainty (based on the best available information regardless of source) that a person is in distress; (b) The distress location is reasonably well known; and (c) The rescue unit is in a position to render timely and effective assistance. Not Authorized: (a) To perform a search (AE rescue operations in a coastal State's territorial sea extends only to rescue operations not searches. Coastal State permission must be obtained prior to entering into, flying over or landing in territory or territorial sea of a coastal State for search operations unless other prior arrangements have been made. This can sometimes be arranged with an RCC of that coastal State.); (b) To rescue (or salvage) property (other than in limited cases, such as for the retrieval of medical supplies, or other property that may assist in the conduct of the lifesaving operation); (c) To assist persons not in distress; or (d) Within the internal waters or over the land mass of a coastal State.

ABORT PROCEDURE [FM 3-15]

*1. THROTTLES - FLIGHT IDLE - (PF) *2. BRAKES - AS REQUIRED - (PF) *3. CONDITION LEVER - "FEATHER" (IF REQUIRED) (ON COMMAND OF THE PILOT) - (CP) *4. THROTTLES - GROUND IDLE - (P) 5. Reverse symmetrical engines. (P) 6. If required, initiate or continue with ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE after safe control of the airplane is assured.

DIRECTIONAL CONTROL PROBLEMS WITH THROTTLES IN GROUND RANGE [FM 3-9]

*1. THROTTLES - GROUND IDLE (PF) *2. BRAKES - AS REQUIRED (PF) *3. CONDITION LEVER - "FEATHER" (IF REQUIRED) (ON COMMAND OF THE PILOT) (CP) 4. Reverse symmetrical engines (P)

EIDS EPs. Which ones have land as soon as possible? [FM 3-29]

+-Engine Flat Panel Display Failure -Loss of a Guage or Indication on the EFPD

What are the CASPER EPs? Which ones are Land as soon as Practicable?+ [FM 3-48]

+CASPER Emergency Power Off CASPER Electrical Isolation Procedure +Turret Bird Strike

What position are the Secondary AC system inverters generally in for start? Why?

- | (horizontal & vertical) (dash 1 is the memory term) Because the AC Inst & Eng Fuel Contr bus will automatically connect to the ESS AC Bus in the event of inverter failure.

Recite the engine start sequence

-"Clear No. 3 engine" -"Turning No. 3" (CP starts time) -"RPM" -"Fuel Flow" -"Ignition" -"Oil Pressure" -"Hyd Pressure" (CP pulls yoke back) -"Parallel" (Light on) -"Starter" (60% RPM) -"Series" (Light out) -"Peak TIT was ____" -CP check Hyds

What is the duty cycle of the feather pump?

-1 min on -1 min off -Not to exceed 2 minutes in a 30 minute period

The suction boost pump is located below the fluid reservoir. It sends fluid under approximately _______ psi to the engine pumps. The suction boost pump light illuminates when pressure drops to ____ psi.

-100 psi -20 psi [FM 1-144]

What is the range for NTS?

-1260 in/lbs + or - 600 (-660 to -1860)

Takeoff performance should allow a climb rate of ______ on three engines for a climb in visual conditions. If an instrument departure is to be flown after take-off, the three engine climb rate should be at least the rate __________ on the departure or _____ if a rate is not specified.

-200 feet per minute -depicted -200 feet per nautical mile (this differs from the 3710.1 requirement) [FM 2-49]

What are the DC system limits (including battery)?

-28 VDC system -25 to 30 VDC from the TRs -0 to 1.03 load -Batt: 24 VDC -Min acceptable battery voltage: 21 [FM 5-35]

How many bladders does each auxiliary tank contain? How can you identify which one is leaking?

-3 bladders -Each lining is dyed a different color so the fuel leaking out will be dyed.

What are the landing sink rate limits?

-300 FPM with greater than 6,600 lbs in outboard main tanks. -300 FPM with gross weight greater than 130,000 lbs. -540 FPM at or below 130,000 lbs & at or below 6,600 lbs in o/b mains. -Landing with fuel in the external tanks decreases the service life of the aircraft. [FM 5-17, 5-18, 5-26]

The NESA control systems do not function automatically when window temperature is below_______.

-43 degrees C Don't cold start the NESA below this temperature because you may cause damage to the windows. [FM 1-143] There is a procedure to warm the windshield up in the System Operations sections. [FM 2-147]

Name the electric-hydraulic pumps. How are they powered and controlled?

-4x feather pumps -2x suction pumps -Aux hydraulic pump All seven are powered by Ess AC bus and controlled by the Ess DC bus.

Describe the electrical system

-5 generators rated at 40 kVA -AC system: 200/115 volt, 400 Hz, 3 phase -DC system: 28 volt -4 Primary & 2 Secondary AC buses -4 DC buses [FM 1-67]

If oil temperature is 85 to 100 degrees C, you have ___________ to cool the engine (in-flight and on ground).

-5 minutes in flight -30 minutes on ground

Downwind drop distance is always ___ feet. Upwind drop distance is based on _____. [FM 2-123]

-50 feet -cross wind (no wind is 50 feet)

Describe the combustion section

-6 can-annular combustion chambers -2 igniters located in the #2 & #5 cans -Cross tubes spread the flames during start -18 dual-element thermocouples mounted on the end of the burner provide TIT

How is nacelle overheat detected? What temp causes the indication? [FM 1-189]

-6 detectors located between the front and aft nacelle firewall. -300 degrees F (149 C). -Possible bleed air leak.

What are the trim tab system failures? What is the unofficial bold face? [FM 3-66]

-Aileron Trim Tab Failure -Rudder Trim Tab Failure -Elevator Trim Tab Failure 1. Hold trim tab switch in opposite direction 2. Pull CB (Aileron & Rudder) or Select EMER (Elevator)

What are some things you can do to increase controllability with a split flap condition?

-Aileron trim -Slower airspeeds to reduce differential lift -Use thrust on the non-lifted wing -Flaps up in 10 knot increments if unable to maintain control -Conduct a controllability check -Use the faster approach speed if the flaps are in two different positions.

What is the normal takeoff configuration?

-All engines max power -Normal Bleed (air conditioning and pressurization on) -50% flaps

EIDS Failures [FM 3-30]

-Analog Failure: Abbreviation in a yellow box. CB fuse, or wire issue. -Single Voting Failure: DCU in a box -Double or Triple Voting Failure: Red X w/ over blank dial. EDCU not communicating properly. -Point of light failure: Red X w/o dial displayed. EFPD issue. Discrete: DSCRT in a red or yellow box. Loss of discrete indication on a display.

What reasons would cause the anti-ski light to illuminate? What failure will cause the anti-skid to be inop without the light illuminated?

-Anti-skid turned off -EMER brakes selected -Parking brake is set -A malfunction of the anti-skid system (LM can view the malfunction panel in the cabin) Loss of Main DC will cause the anti-skid to be inop without the light illuminated because both the light and the system are powered by the Main DC bus.

What is secondary fuel management?

-Anything other than primary -Operations in secondary fuel management must be recorded. -Landing with less than 15,000 lbs fuel -Fuel asymmetry limits are the same as primary [FM 5-18]

What are the requirements to become a First Pilot? [3710 8-8]

-Be recommended by the Operations Officer -Have at least 500 hours of total pilot time in military aircraft. -Complete a closed book exam. -Pass a check flight with an ATC FE or unit FEB pilot. [3710 8-8]

What are the requirements to become an ACDR? [3710 8-9] [2017 Clearwater ORGMAN 9-42]

-Be recommended by the Operations Officer. -For fixed-wing multi-engine aircraft, have at least 250 hours in fixed-wing multi-engine aircraft. -For multi-pilot fixed-wing aircraft, have not less than 900 total pilot hours in military aircraft, of which 250 must be in fixed-wing aircraft. -Complete a closed book exam. -Pass a check flight with an ATC FE or unit FEB pilot. -Complete an oral exam. [3710 8-9] -Designated as FP for a minimum 6 months. [2017 Clearwater ORGMAN 9-42]

How can bleed air regulator closure be determined? What may be necessary if the engine continues to supply bleed air to the system if closure is not successful? [FM 3-56]

-Closure is determined by observing torque increase on the affected engine. -It may be necessary to shut down the engine.

Describe the extension shaft assembly

-Contains the torque-meter -Has a torque shaft and a reference shaft with magnetic teeth at the end -A magnetic sensor measures the time difference between the 2 shafts using the amount of torque shaft twist to provide Torque indication.

What is the function of the speed sensitive valve?

-Controls the air bleed valves. -Has a 94% fly weight which is used to control air from the 14th stage compressor to close the air bleed valves.

The external power system monitor checks for what parameters prior to providing power? [FM 1-68]

-Correct phase (A-B-C) -393-407 Hz -113-118 VAC

Which doors activate the Door Warning Light? [FM 1-190]

-Crew entrance door -Paratroop doors -Cargo ramp and door

What must be done when operating with less than 6,000 lbs of total fuel in the main tanks?

-Crossfeed valves must be placed to OPEN. -Boost pumps ON for all tanks containing fuel. -Crossfeed separation valve OPEN. [FM 2-141]

Oil Pressure: -Eng Oil Press: ______ to _____ Normal. -Gearbox Oil Press ____ to ____ Normal. -Eng start and warm-up as high as ______ psi. -Eng LGSI can be lower than ____ psi (provided it is in limits at ________). -Gearbox start and warm-up can exceed _____ psi. -Gearbox LGSI ______ to _______ psi. -Gearbox max fluctuation + or - _______ psi. -Eng max fluctuation + or - ______ psi.

-Eng Oil Press: 50 to 60 Normal. -Gearbox Oil Press 150 to 250 Normal. -Eng start and warm-up as high as 100 psi. -Eng LGSI can be lower than 50 psi (provided it is in limits at 100% RPM). -Gearbox start and warm-up can exceed 250 psi. -Gearbox LGSI 50 to 250 psi. -Gearbox max fluctuation + or - 20 psi. -Eng max fluctuation + or - 10 psi. [FM 5-7]

How do you inspect the O2 on pre-flight?

-Ensure the 2 green plugs are present on the sides of the aircraft. -Check the pressure indicator for a max of 1800 psi and a minimum of 450 psi.

Which bus powers the dump valves? How are the opened?

-Ess DC (Most valves are Ess DC) -The dump valves are associated with each dump pump. They are opened when the dump pump is turned on. [FM 1-65]

What are the fuel system EPs? Which ones are land as soon as possible?+

-FUEL SYSTEM FAILURE -Fuel Boost Pump Failure -Operation with Boost Pump Failure -Fuel Quantity Indicator Failure -Ext or Aux Dump Valve Failure -Ext or Aux Cross-feed Valve Failure +-External Fuel Leak -Fuel Dumping [FM 3-32 to 3-36]

Describe the propeller system

-Four blade -Hamilton Sundstand -Electro-hydromatic -Full feather -Reversible pitch -26 qt hydraulic capacity

Name some reasons for Multiple Engine Power Loss. [FM 3-41 & 7-2]

-Fuel -Ess AC -Syncrophaser -EMI/ HF/ 11-13 MHz -Bleed Air -Icing

Which EPs require use of oxygen?

-Fuselage Fire/Smoke and Fume Elimination -Emergency Depressurization -Pressurization Malfunction -Electrical Fire -Cargo Fire -In-Flight Door Warning

When does the gear horn sound?

-Gear up with throttles within 1 inch of flight idle (silence available) -Gear up with flaps between 70% and 100% (silence disabled)

When executing an instrument descent during a search/patrol, if good visual contact with the surface cannot be at the MDA, the approach shall be aborted and a climb initiated _________. Rate of descent for the last ____ feet shall not exceed ______ FPM.

-Immediately -500 feet -500 FPM [FM 2-111]

Describe the oil system

-Independent oil systems for each engine. -Supply lubrication for the gearboxes and power section. -19 gallon oil tank located above the engine. -Gravity fed to the gearboxes and power section then pumped to the bearings. -Air cooling provide with flap controlled coolers at the bottom of each nacelle. [FM 1-30]

Which buses are required to heat the windshield?

-LH AC operated -Main DC controlled

What are the nose wheel position limits?

-Limited to 20 degrees with gross weight greater than 155,000 lbs or taxi speed greater than 20 kts. -Taxi speed limited to 5 kts with nose wheel deflected 60 degrees -Taxi speed limited to 20 kts with nose wheel deflected 20 degrees [FM 5-6, 5-28]

What EPs are associated with the electrical system? Which ones are land as soon as possible?+ [FM 3-37]

-Loss of Electrical Systems -LOSS OF PRIMARY AC SYSTEMS --Illumination of AC Bus OFF Light +--Partial Loss of the Essential AC Bus -Generator Fail -Illumination of the Generator Out Light -Generator Disconnect -MULTIPLE ENGINE POWER LOSS/RPM ROLLBACK -LOSS OF SECONDARY AC SYSTEMS +--Illumination of the Isolated DC Bus On Battery Light (+bc you will lose Eng/APU fire ext when the battery is depleted) +-ELECTRICAL FIRE +-Bus Isolation Procedure

Name three of the pumps in the propeller pump housing

-Main pump: mechanically driven by the gearbox (also drives an attached scavenge pump). -Standby pump: also mechanically driven by the gearbox and assists the main pump. -Feather pump: electrically driven (also drives an attached scavenge pump).

TIT Limitations: -Max TIT __________ no longer than ______ minutes. -Max continuous _______________. -Military __________ no longer than _________ minutes. -Recommended climb __________. -Recommended cruise __________.

-Max TIT 1,067 to 1,083 no longer than 5 minutes. -Max continuous 1,010. -Military 1,049 no longer than 30 minutes. -Recommended climb 970. -Recommended cruise 932. [FM 5-7, 5-8]

Torque: -Max torque oil > 40 degrees: __________ -Eng oil temp 0 to 40 degrees: __________ -Eng oil temp < 0 degrees: _________

-Max torque oil > 40 degrees: 19,600 -Eng oil temp 0 to 40 degrees: 4,500 -Eng oil temp < 0 degrees: minimum for 10 minutes

Describe fuel shut-off valve (Geneva Lock)

-Motor or mechanically operated -On the ESS AC CB panel - Ignition control CB -3 methods to close 1. Condition lever to ground stop (electrical, ground only) 2. Fire handle (electrical) 3. Condition lever to feather (mechanical and electrical)

What are the emergency fuel flight time restrictions?

-One time flight -50 hours [FM 5-13]

What are the fuel balance limitations?

-Outboards should be 500 to 1000 lbs more than inboards. -Symmetrical main and external tanks should be within 1000 lbs. -No more than 1500 lbs between wings (including Aux) -If aux differ more than 1500 lbs then the lighter wing has to have more fuel up to 1500 lbs (not to exceed above requirements) [FM 2-140]

What happens when the Emergency Depressurization switch is flipped? What bus is it on?

-Outflow valve opens -Safety valve opens -Flight deck AC is turned off -Cargo compartment AC is turned off -Underfloor heat is turned off On the battery bus

Describe the Low Pitch Stop

-Prevents prop from going below 23 degrees in flight range (prevents entering beta while in flight) -When moving from ground range to flight range the Low Pitch Stop is still retracted. It extends when the throttle is moved forward from flight idle. --Bottom of Alpha vs Top of Beta is at least 200 in-lbs higher) -Hyd pressure will force it to go back into beta when entering ground range. --This is why we pause in ground idle and check for swerving prior to going to reverse. We are checking to ensure it doesn't get stuck at 23 degrees. --EP: Directional Control Problems with Throttle in Ground Range

Name the propeller EPs. Which ones are land as soon as possible?+

-Propeller Malfunction During Takeoff -Propeller Malfunction During Flight -Propeller Low Oil Warning Light Illuminated -RPM Outside Allowable Limits (Without Prop Low Oil Light Illuminated) -Pitchlock Check Procedure Pitchlocked Propeller -Pitchlocked Propeller Operation -Propeller Fails to Feather -In-flight Decoupling of Engine and Propeller -Propeller Brake Failure (Feathered Propeller)

What are some indications of a malfunctioning propeller?

-RPM goes to approximately 103% -RPM Fluctuations -PROP OIL

Describe Negative Torque Sensing

-Reduces drag to reduce yaw. -It occurs when the propeller drives the engine. - -1260 +or- 600 in-lbs -Prevents decoupling at -6,000 in-lbs A ring gear (inside reduction gearbox) slides forward with negative torque. Pushes NTS Actuator Rod which opens the feather valve (in the valve housing) to route fluid to the front of the prop piston and drive the prop TOWARD feather.

Describe the Safety Coupling

-Reduces drag until the propeller can be feathered -Decouples at approximately -6,000 in-lbs. -Decoupling is an engine shutdown condition. -Located on the reduction gear assembly where the extension shaft connects to the reduction gearbox. [FM 1-18]

Pressurization -Safety Valve Opens (High): -Max Normal: -Pressure Controller: -Safety Valve Opens (Low): -Min Normal:

-Safety Valve Opens (High): 15.9 in. hg -Max Normal: 15.8 in. hg -Pressure Controller: 15.16 in. hg -Safety Valve Opens (Low): -0.76 in. hg -Min Normal: -1.2 in. hg

Discuss Due Regard Operations [3710 4-15]

-Should be used only when operational gain outweighs the risk. -We have full responsibility for separation from other aircraft. -Deconfliction may be accomplished when in radar and radio contact with surface facility if they are certified to provide aircraft separation.

Engine system EPs. Which ones have land as soon as possible?+

-Start Valve Open Light Illumination -Engine Fire -Tail Pipe Fires -ENGINE OVERHEATING --Turbine Overheat Warning --Nacelle Overheat Warning --High TIT --Increasing Oil Temp +-Compressor Blockage -ENGINE SYSTEMS FAILURES --Throttle Control Failure --TD Control Valve System Malfunction --Secondary Fuel Pump Pressure Light Illumination -Speed-Sensitive Control Failure (Sheared Shaft) -Visible Fluid Leak [FM 3-9 to 3-11 3-25 to 3-27]

When is an upwind drop pattern used? [FM 2-117]

-Stationary targets -People in the water -Low free board vessels

Describe the propeller brake. What are its three modes?

-Stops prop rotation in feather -Brings the prop to a stop after selecting Ground Stop -Prevents rotation in high winds while static/parked 3 modes: -Applied -Releases -Locked (In feather)

What is primary fuel management?

-Symmetrical loading per pg 2-140 --500 to 1,000 more in o/b than than i/b --No more than 1,000 between symmetrical tanks --No more than 1,500 between wings* --*If Aux tanks differ by more than 1,500 pounds, all other tanks must be either symmetrically loaded or loaded up 1,500 pounds heavier on the wing with the lighter aux tank. -If there is usable fuel in the Aux's or Ext's then the mains must be full (at least 7.5 in o/b & 6.9 in i/b tanks) [FM 2-140 & 5-18]

Describe the engines

-T56-A-15 Allison (Rolls Royce) -14 stage compressor, 6 can-annular combustion chambers, 4 stage turbine. -Rated to 4,910 SHP & 13,820 RPM at 100% -19,600 max torque which is equivalent to 4,200 SHP plus 100 SHP for gearbox accessories for a total of 4,300 SHP -3 assemblies: power, extension shaft, reduction gear [FM 1-18]

What are the requirements to become a Left Seat Copilot? [2017 Clearwater ORGMAN 9-43]

-The greater of 200 hours or 6 months of HC-130H time. -Completion of the LSCP Syllabus.

How is turbine overheat detected? What temp causes the indication? What will cause the indication?

-There are 4 detectors behind the aft firewall in the nacelle. -They are activated at 700 degrees F (371 C). -Exhaust gas escaping somewhere in the after part of the engine (i.e. crack in the turbine, misaligned thermocouple).

Maximum effort speeds are identical to 100 percent flap speeds with the exception of _________, which is obtained from the same chart (9-3), but has its own line. Approach speed is ___ KIAS above ____________ speed.

-Threshold -10 KIAS -Threshold speed [1-1 10-4.2]

Bits of knowledge to review (not penguins)

-Threshold speed is 1.35 x pwr off stall. -Min threshold speed is 106.5 knots (to avoid the back side of the power curve). -Touchdown speed is 1.2 x pwr off stall. Min touchdown speed is 97 knots (to avoid the back side of the pwr curve).

Name the power sources for... -Torque -Tachometer -TIT -Fuel Flow -Trim Position Indicators

-Tq: Self powered -Tach: Self powered -TIT: Self Powered -FF: 115 VAC AC & Eng Fuel Contr Bus -Trim position: 28V Main DC from aft junction box panel

What are the characteristics of the Aerial Delivery System (ADS)? [FM 2-117]

-Two sized: 12 ft & 28 ft parachute -430 ft trail line (400' polypropylene & 30' manila line) -8 to 10 seconds fall time from 200 feet -parachute separates in 10 seconds

If a hydraulic leak is the cause of a malfunction, or hydraulic pressure was lost after repositioning the landing gear lever, immediately place/check the landing gear lever in the ____ position and pull the ______________. If pressure is still low (not rising) proceed with __________________ procedure. This procedure moves the landing gear selector valve to the _________ position, isolating the normally pressurized portion of the landing gear.

-UP -Landing gear control CB -Loss of System Pressure procedure -trail center [FM 3-72]

Describe the acceleration bleed valves

-Used for engine start and low speed ground idle. -Reduce compression at low speeds. -Open when the engine is below 94%. -4 on the 5th stage (nickel) -4 on the 10th stage (dime) -Actuated by 14th stage compressor air through the engine driven, speed sensitive valve assembly [FM 1-22]

Hydraulics: -Utility and booster system pressure _______ psi to ______ psi, _______max -Utility and booster pressure in LGSI can be as low as _____ psi. -Rudder boost flaps 0-15%: _____ to _____psi, _____ max. -Rudder boost flaps 15-100%: _____ to _____ psi, _____ max.

-Utility and booster system pressure 2,900 psi to 3,200 psi, 3,500 max -Utility and booster pressure in LGSI can be as low as 2,550 psi. -Rudder boost flaps 0-15%: 1,100 to 1,400 psi, 1,600 max. -Rudder boost flaps 15-100%: 2,900 to 3,200 psi, 3,500 max. [FM 5-5]

What are the power sources for the Hydraulic System components?

-Utility: Driven by the #1 & #2 Reduction GB. Two valves powered by Ess DC -Booster: Driven by the #3 & #4 Reduction GB. Two valves powered by Ess DC. -Suction boost pumps powered by Ess AC and controlled by Ess DC solenoid switches. Auxiliary: Powered by Ess AC and controlled by Ess DC solenoid switches.

Approximately how much does Vmca increase with bank angle into the dead engine (adverse bank)? [1-1 3-26 & FM 3-19]

-Wings level: Approx 11 KIAS (invariant of weight). -5 degree adverse bank requires a speed increase of 20 KIAS at 80k lbs and 37 KIAS at 140k lbs. [1-1 3-26] Turns can be made safely with one or more engines inoperative on the same side if an adequate speed margin is maintained above the respective charted minimum control speed. The minimum speed increment required is 20 knots for one engine inoperative and 25 knots for two engines inoperative. Such turns should be well coordinated to minimize slip or skid. Minimum control speeds are defined for straight flight using the favorable side slip effect on yawing moment developed, by maximum of five degrees of bank away from the failed engine. The above speed margins allow the use of the rudder for turn coordination and a safety margin for inadvertent slip or skid. Banking into the inoperative engine(s) increases minimum control speed. [FM 3-19]

How is the propeller brake released during engine start? What prevents the brake from being applied after engine start?

-With starter torque -Gearbox oil pressure

How would you dump fuel from the main tanks if the associated fuel dump pump was inoperative?

-You have to open the crossfeed into either the Ext or Aux, open the crossfeed valve, and turn on the dump pump of the Ext or Aux (whichever crossfeed valve isn't open). -If the Aux or Ext dump pump is on then the associated crossfeed valve will be closed regardless of the selected switch position. -Fuel will travel from the main tank through the crossfeed manifold, the open crossfeed, the bypass valve, the Ext or Aux plumping, then into the dump manifold. [FM 3-35: Crossfeed Failure] [FM 1-65: Bypass Valve switches]

For a normal take-off, the minimum flap retraction speed is _____________; however, normal flap retraction speed is _______________. The minimum flap retraction speed for a maximum effort take-off is ________________.

-obstacle clearance speed -take-off speed +20 KIAS -max effort obstacle clearance +10 KIAS Note for ME Minimum Flap Retraction: FM states Vme obs +10; 1-1 states Vobs +10. Using FM verbiage because is makes more sense. [1-1 3-24] [FM 2-51]

The engine should accelerate to normal or LGSI within _______. During low DA (high temp/ high alt), if engine accelerates smoothly with no indication of stall and TIT limits are not exceeded, time to stabilize on-speed is ________. Do not exceed ______ limits.

-one minute -70 seconds -starter duty cycle [FM 2-29)

Spinner anti-ice, blade deice and spinner deice circuit breakers shall not be _______ until proper inspection and repairs have been complete unless__________.

-reset -an emergency exists [FM 2-37]

For all bleed-off condition reduce TOF by _____ from charted value.

0.1 [1-1 3-9]

Starter Limitations

1 min on - 1 min off 1 min on - 5 min off 1 min on - 30 min off -Any starter engagement is considered 1 minute. -Max of 5 seconds for start valve light to illuminate and prop to rotate. -Max of 15 seconds for start valve to extinguish.

Do not hold the AGENT DISCHARGE switch in No. 1 or No. 2 position longer than _____________. To do so may cause _____________________. [FM 3-6]

1 or 2 seconds the FIRE EXT circuit breaker to open

What are the destination alternate requirements if no destination TAF is available or below weather minimums at the intended point of landing? [3710 3-16]

1) Ceiling ≥ 2000' above airport elev. or ≥ 400' above lowest compatible appr., Whichever is higher. 2) 3 SM visibility

What are the three types of take-offs? Which ones require CO approval?

1) Normal 2) Tactical - CO approval required if Vr<Vrot 3) Max Effort - CO approval required

What are the bleed conditions?

1) Normal Bleed (Air conditioning and pressurization) 2) All Bleed On (Air conditioning, pressurization, and pneumatic anti-icing) 3) Zero Bleed (everything off)

What are the three places where 94% RPM is sensed?

1) Speed Sensitive Control (signal to the TD system) 2) Fuel Control 3) Speed Sensing Valve (Air Bleed Valve control)

Any time the autopilot is engaged below ______ feet, AGL/AWL, the Pilot Flying will have a hand on the yoke in the vicinity of the autopilot disengage switch.

1,000 feet [FM 2-111]

When checking propeller reversing, the torque between the symmetrical engines should not vary more than __________.

1,000 in-lbs

When fuel quantity of any main tank is less than __________ lbs, the engine being fed by that tank will be placed on ___________ operations.

1,000 lbs....cross-feed [FM 2-141]

What is Max Allowable TIT?

1,077 degrees C (per 1 Dash 1) -Controlled by automatically by the TD system which can be turned off for troubleshooting. 1,067 to 1,083 degrees C (per the FM) -Based on the range of the gauges.

INADVERTENT IMC

1. ANNOUNCE - "INADVERTENT IMC" - (PF) 2. TRANSITION - ESTABLISH INSTRUMENT SCAN - (PF)(PM) 3. MANEUVER - AS REQUIRED - (PF)

What are some possible mechanical flap malfunctions?

1. Asymmetric flaps 2. Split flaps 3. No flap movement

When will the Electronic Fuel Correction light be illuminated?

1. Below 65 degree throttle 2. If the TD system is Null or fails

ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE

1. CONDITION LEVER - "FEATHER" - (CP) 2. FIRE HANDLE - "PULLED" (FOR FIRE, NACELLE OVERHEAT, OR VISIBLE FLUID LEAK) - (CP) 3. AGENT - "DISCHARGED" (FOR FIRE OR NACELLE OVERHEAT) - (CP)

Describe the landing pattern for LANDING WITH TWO ENGINES INOPERATIVE.

1. DOWNWIND LEG -160 KIAS minimum -Gear as required. 2. BASE LEG -160 KIAS minimum -Gear and Flaps as required. 3. TURN TO FINAL -150 KIAS or approach speed, whichever is higher, until landing is assured. 4. FINAL APPROACH -Maintain 150 KIAS or approach speed, whichever is higher, until landing is assured. -Landing Gear down. [FM 3-96 to 3-97]

The indications of an engine oil system failure that may lead to engine failure are: [FM 3-27]

1. Decreasing oil pressure. 2. Increasing oil temperature. 3. Decreasing oil quantity.

GTC/APU EMERGENCY SHUTDOWN (GROUND/IN-FLIGHT)

1. FIRE HANDLE - "PULLED" - (CP/E) 2. AGENT - "DISCHARGED" (FOR FIRE) - (CP/E)

Partial Loss of the Essential AC Bus A loss of one phase of the essential AC bus may occur with or without illumination of the essential AC bus OFF light. The malfunction is most likely to occur during high load conditions of the essential AC bus and may be indicated by one or more of the following conditions: [FM 3-40]

1. Failure of normal brakes (if on the ground). 2. Erratic autopilot operation (if in use). 3. Loss or malfunction of heading indication. 4. Auxiliary hydraulic pump failure. 5. Illumination or flickering of the No. 2 fuel boost pump low-pressure warning light. 6. Illumination of a hydraulic suction boost pump light. 7. Illumination of the essential AC bus OFF light, which remains illuminated after the affected generator is turned off (another generator does not assume the bus load). 8. Loss of propeller synchrophaser. 9. Illumination of the pitot heat off lights. (HR series - rosemount)

What is the unofficial bold face of the Loss of System Pressure procedure? What may the LM see if the light illuminates?

1. Hydraulic pump switches - OFF (affected system) 2. Suction boost pump switch - OFF (affected system) aka: Light on, Switch off, Check for 2,500 psi, ask the LM what's up Issues: 1. Nothing - Failed pump, clogged filter, faulty indicator switch 2. Went down but stopped - Leak was between the engine pump valves (out in the wing) 3. Reservoir is empty - Leak was elsewhere in the system [FM 3-63]

What are the indications of decoupling?

1. If decoupling is caused by engine failure or flameout, Tq, TIT, and FF will drop near zero, Eng Oil Press will drop, RPM may temporarily increase then settle to normal. (Eng oil press low w/ gearbox oil press near normal) 2.Low TIT and FF for a given throttle setting accompanied by a fluctuating and near zerp Tq. (Eng running with Tq near zero)

Generator failure or generator system malfunction will be indicated by one or more of the following: [FM 3-41]

1. Illumination of a generator OUT light. 2. Illumination of a bus OFF light. 3. Fluctuation/out of limits voltage and/or frequency.

What are the indications for a Major Bleed Air Leak? [FM 2-55]

1. Illumination of the APU/GTC fire warning lights. 2. Erratic operation of engine instruments. 3. Lower than charted engine torque (normally a marked and even reduction). NOTE This torque drop may be transitory followed by near normal values. 4. Erratic operation of electrical equipment. 5. Inoperative or intermittent radar operation. 6. A wing overheat may occur without an accompanying leading edge overtemperature warning due to possible wiring damage. 7. Reduced bleed air manifold pressure. 8. Abnormal sounds, described as a roaring or whistling.

Name the features of the propeller system

1. Low Pitch Stop 2. NTS 3. Safety Coupling 4. Pitchlock 5. Propeller Brake 6. Feather

What are the 5 rules of any emergency? [FM 3-3]

1. Maintain control of the aircraft (SOMEBODY MUST FLY THE AIRPLANE) 2. Analyze the situation 3. Take coordinated corrective action 4. Establish communication with a ground station 5. Study the aircraft configuration and land as the situation dictates Fly Analyze Correct Communicate Land (More details on FM 3-3)

What is the drift down procedure?

1. Maintain drift down airspeed until ROD decreases to 100 fpm. 2. Maintain 100 fpm until reaching the appropriate service ceiling. 3. Attain level flight. [1-1 5-15, 5-16]

FUSELAGE FIRE / SMOKE AND FUME ELIMINATION

1. OXYGEN - "ON / 100 PERCENT" - (ALL)

Fuselage Fire/ Smoke and Fume Elimination (unofficial bold face)

1. Oxygen - "On/100 percent" (actual bold face) 2. Pressure/ Emer Depressurization (for cabin fire - you can starve the fire at altitude or accidentally feed the fire down low) 3. Aux Vent (Is it cold outside?) 4. 150 KIAS/ 50 Flaps (for follow-on paratroop door opening)

What are the 3 major engine assemblies?

1. Power section assembly 2. Extension shaft assembly 3. Reduction Gear Assembly [FM 1-18]

What are the types of SAR helicopter escort? [National SAR Supp 6-5]

1. Procedure Turn Escort Pattern 2. Dogleg Escort Pattern 3. Racetrack Escort Pattern 4. Formation

Summarize Pitchlocked Propeller Operation [FM 3-23]

1. Propeller governor control switch -- MECH GOV 2. TD valve switch -- LOCKED 3. Engine bleed air valve/regulator -- CLOSED/OFF 4. Establish 96 to 98 percent RPM with throttle and/or airspeed adjustment and continue to operate in this RPM range. 5. Upon reaching a suitable landing area, attain 150 KTAS (if possible). 6. Upon reaching 150 KTAS or a point where 96 percent RPM cannot be maintained with the throttle, whichever occurs first, perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE.

Summarize Secondary Fuel Pump Pressure Light Illumination [FM 3-26]

1. Pull the ignition control circuit breaker for the corresponding engine. a. If the light is extinguished, failure of the 65 percent switch in the speed sensitive control is indicated. Leave the circuit breaker pulled and continue operation. b. After landing - reset the ignition control circuit breaker prior to moving the condition lever to GROUND STOP. 2. If the secondary fuel pump pressure light remains illuminated, reset the circuit breaker. a. Land as soon as practicable. b. If secondary indications are present, perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE. Failure of the primary pump could cause metal contamination of the engine fuel system.

What functions does the synchrophaser perform in normal governing?

1. Speed (RPM) Stabalization 2. Throttle Anticipation 3. Synchrophasing

ABORT PROCEDURE

1. THROTTLES - FLIGHT IDLE - (PF) 2. BRAKES - AS REQUIRED - (PF) 3. CONDITION LEVER - "FEATHER" (IF REQUIRED)(ON COMMAND OF THE PILOT) - (CP) 4. THROTTLES - GROUND IDLE - (P) ------- Non-Bold Face: -Reverse symmetricals -Stop the aircraft -Continue the ESP

DIRECTIONAL CONTROL PROBLEMS WITH THROTTLES IN GROUND RANGE

1. THROTTLES - GROUND IDLE - (PF) 2. BRAKES - AS REQUIRED - (PF) 3. CONDITION LEVER - "FEATHER" (IF REQUIRED)(ON COMMAND OF THE PILOT) - (CP)

Electrical Rules of the Road

1. The APU gen will always pwr the ESS AC Bus when turned on. 2. Any 2 eng-driven gens can power all 4 AC busses. 3. One eng-driven gen will pwr ESS AC and Main AC Busses

Coast Guard rescue aircraft may conduct an Assistance Entry (AE) rescue operation in a coastal state's territorial sea, when in the judgement of the aircraft commander: [CG Addendum 1-46]

1. There is reasonable certainty (based of best available information regardless of source) that a person is in distress; 2. The distress location is reasonably well known; and 3. The rescue unit is in a position to render timely and effective assistance.

Throttle control failure may be indicated by any of the following conditions: [FM 3-25]

1. Throttle moves independently of pilot input. 2. Throttle frozen or binding. 3. Power indication unrelated to throttle position.

What are the four indications of overheating in the engines and nacelles? [FM 3-10]

1. Turbine overheat warning light 2. Nacelle overheat warning light 3. High turbine inlet temperature 4. Increasing oil temperature.

Describe the AC Gen Power Source Chart (where does the power come from when generators fail?) [FM 1-73]

1. Wing takes care of wing --Automatically, if a single gen is inop in a wing, the other gen will take the load. 2. Symmetrical takes care of symmetrical --Automatically, if 2 gens are failed on one side, the symmetrical generator on the opposite will pick up the load. Be able to fill in this chart

When pitchlock occurs, the blade angle will decrease a minimum of ______ degrees to engage the teeth. This will normally result in an RPM increase and the prop should stabilize in fuel governing RPM (_________ to __________%).

1.8 degrees 103.5 to 105% [FM 3-23]

What are the flap airspeed limits?

10 - 220 20 - 210 30 - 200 40 - 190 50 - 180 (230 rule) 60 - 165 70 - 155 80 - 150 90 - 145 100 - 145

Appr speed is ____ knots higher than threshold speed.

10 knots

How many pumps can be used for fuel dumping? [FM 1-63] [FM 3-35 and 3-36]

10 pumps can be used for dumping -There are 8 dump switches (one for each tank) -4 dedicated dump pumps for the Mains. -The Aux tank fuel boost pumps double as dump pumps. -The aft boost pump in the external tanks is used for normal dumping, and the forward boost pump can be switched on manually to increase the dumping rate. Refer to the Fuel Dumping checklist and chart in chapter 3 for fuel dumping rates.

What is the maximum number of hours you can fly in a 365 day period without a waiver? [3710 3-13]

1100 hours

How are the fuel quantity indicators powered? What will a fuel quantity indicator do in the event of power failure? How do you verify that the indicator is operating? [FM 1-66]

115V single phase AC from the AC Inst & Eng Fuel Control Bus If power failure is encountered on one indicator, the individual indicator will remain at the last indication before power failure. (AC lies; DC dies) Press the press-to-test switch. Failure of any pointer to move toward (but not necessarily to) zero indicates a malfunction in that indicator.

The fuel control provides _______% of required fuel at all times.

120%

Two engine operation above ___________ pounds or at _________________ is marginal. [FM 3-18]

120,000 pounds high density altitude

What is the maximum number of hours you can fly in a 30 day period without a waiver? [3710 3-13]

125 hours

What is the engine RPM? What does the gearbox reduce the prop RPM to?

13,820 RPM 1,021 RPM

If maximum braking has been used in landing, it is recommended that the gear be left extended after subsequent take-off for a minimum of _______ before retraction or before another braked landing is attempted.

15 minutes [FM 2-142]

After normal landings where the brakes are not used and only checked during landing ground roll, allow ______ cooling time preceding the next takeoff to account for brakes used during taxi. If the runway is at least ______ longer than CFL, the ___________ cooling time maybe omitted.

15 minutes, 300 feet, 15 minute [FM 2-142]

What switches are located in the flap lever?

15% - High/Low Rudder Boost 40% - GPWS 70% - Landing Gear Warning System

What are the flight manual minimum landing fuel requirements?

15,000 lbs to destination 10,000 lbs to alternate [FM 5-10]

What is the desired speed to attain during a propeller malfunction? [FM 3-21]

150 KTAS 150 KTAS is referred to several times in this section as a desirable speed to attain. This speed is considered high enough to cause decoupling but not high enough to produce excessive drag or overspeed after decoupling. Drag produced by a windmilling propeller coupled to the power section is approximately six times greater than drag of a decoupled propeller.

A C-130 or appropriate fixed wing escort shall be provided for an H-60 anytime the case is ______ NM or more offshore, or the CO, OPS, or PIC deems it necessary. [2017 Clearwater ORGMAN 9-35]

150 NM

Identification passes on vessels shall be made no lower than _____ feet.

150 feet [FM 2-111]

What is the primary difference between the 1500 series and the 1700 series bleed air systems? Describe the pros and cons.

1503 has two bleed air isolation valves & the 1700 series has one divider valve. -Pro: Easier to isolate a wing -Con: Unable to isolate a leak between the valves without isolating all other equipment. 1503 has Bleed Air Valves. 1700 series have Bleed Air Pressure Regulators which maintain approximately 50 psi.

What is the departure climb gradient per the Air Ops Manual? [3710.1 3-1]

152 feet per nautical mile (2.5%). Departures may use visual obstacle avoidance in lieu of meeting the required climb gradient with Commanding Officer approval. (this differs from the the Flight Manual requirements).

What is the holding airspeed and max endurance holding airspeed?

170 KIAS Max endurance plus 20 knots [FM 2-96]

Can 1700 series aircraft be pressurized if electrical power is lost? [FM 1-115 to 1-122]

1700 Series: -No. -The Engine Bleed Air Pressure Regulators are ESS DC powered and solenoid-controlled. They will fail closed when the solenoid valve is de-energized. -The Flight Station and Cargo Compartment AC System valves are solenoid-controlled and will fail open when the solenoid is de-energized (but that won't help you if all Engine Bleed Air Control Valves are failed closed).

Describe the 1700 series Engine Bleed Air Pressure Regulators. What powers the valves? How are they operated? What happens if electrical power is lost? [FM 1-115 to 1-122]

1700 Series: -Pressure regulator solenoid-controlled valve powered by ESS DC (most valves are ESS DC) -ON regulates to 50 psi; OVRD- Valve fully open; OFF- Valve closed -The valve is open when solenoid is energized. Fails closed.

Which aircraft have the Rosemount Pitot Tubes?

1717 to 1721 are HR aircraft. [1-1 TOPS 1-6]

How many thermocouples are on the engine? Where are they located?

18 Located after the combustion chamber at the front of the turbine to measure TIT.

What is the recommended climb schedule to prevent nose high attitudes? [FM 2-53]

180 KIAS to 10,000 feet 170 KIAS to 15,000 feet 160 KIAS to 25,000 feet Performance charts above 25,000 feet

What is the speed limit with an inop windshield anti-ice?

185 KIAS below 10,000 feet [FM 3-61]

What is the max airspeed with inop windshield anti-icing?

185 KIAS below 10,000 ft [FM 3-61]

Under normal conditions, the time required for the nose and main landing gears to retract or extend is ____________.

19 seconds or less [FM 1-157]

What is Max Torque?

19,600 in/lbs -Limited by PA and Temp -Manually controlled by the pilot -21,500 in/lbs requires a maintenance inspection

What is the maximum airspeed at 2,000 feet AGL/AWL and below?

190 KIAS [FM 5-10]

Unofficial bold face after ESP if engine fire persists [FM 3-6]

1: Wait a moment for the agent to take effect 2: Don't hold the agent discharge switch longer that 1-2 seconds 3: Isolate the wing from bleed air 4: Discharge second fire bottle

How many engine-driven generators are required to power all four AC buses?

2

For customs inspections, PICs of flights inbound to Clearwater from a foreign country will forward an ETA to the ODO at the earliest opportunity, and no less than ______ prior to landing.

2 hours [2017 Clearwater ORGMAN 9-13]

To reduce carbon and extend turbine life, operate engines in low-speed ground idle for at least ________ prior to engine shutdown.

2 minutes [FM 2-69]

Following a negative g condition, closely monitor gearbox and engine oil pressure for _________. If loss of oil pressure occurs and does not return to normal within __________, shutdown the engine IAW the _______. After the propeller stops rotating, an air start may be attempted in accordance with the _________________________. [FM 3-27]

2 minutes 10 seconds ESP AIR START PROCEDURE Note: A negative g condition may allow air to enter the engine oil supply line, resulting in a loss of oil pressure approximately 30 to 90 seconds later due to oil pump cavitation.

What is the distance of the blue ring on the TCAS?

2 nm ring

The generator disconnect switch should be held for approximately ________. [FM 3-41]

2 seconds

What pressure are the ailerons reduced to? Is there a gauge?

2,050 psi -No gauge

At what speed does anti-skid become inactive? Why?

20 knots and below. It provides the ability to stomp on the brakes at low speed to avoid hitting a hangar.

With engine operation above 94% RPM, the TD system can take up to an additional ____% of fuel to prevent overtemp of ______ degrees.

20%, 1,083 degrees

The APU may not start or run at altitudes above ______ ft or airspeeds above ____ KIAS.

20,000 ft, 200 KIAS [FM 2-149]

What must the torque difference be in flight idle during the engine run-up checks? [FM 2-45]

200 in-lbs higher This indicates that the low pitch stop did not inadvertently retract when moved from alpha to flight idle. The difference will typically be significantly higher (1,500 in-lbs or so)

Describe the pressure indicated display power sources from the step-down transformers. What voltage operates the displays? What type of circuit protection is provided for these instruments?

21 2122122 Fuel Pressure is on the #1 stepdown transformer 26 VAC Protected by fuses

At what temperature does the bleed air warning light illuminate and the bleed air gauge go into the red?

215 degrees F -These are separate sensors on late 1700 series aircraft but the same sensor on early 1700 series aircraft

When do the external and aux Tank Empty light illuminate?

23 psi (or if a GFI breaker pops)

Illumination of the ISOL DC ON BATT light for up to ________ seconds is normal when items with high electrical starting loads are placed on either the ESS AC or ESS DC buses.

25 seconds [FM 3-43]

Pitchlock can only occur between ___________ and ____ degrees of blade angle. [FM 1-45]

25 to 55 degrees The pitch lock is cammed out except for 25° to 55° blade angle. > 55° - You want prop to feather < 25° - Prevents Pitchlock on Ground

What type of landing gear do we have in regards to the FIH/ AFD?

2S geometry

Where are the chip detectors located? [FM 1-30]

3 total on each engine: 2 located on each reduction gearbox 1 located on each engine accessory drive

What are the Hydraulic System limits and numbers?

3,900 - Shut down engines [3-63] 2,900 to 3,300/ 3500 - Aux 2,900 to 3,200/ 3,500 - Util & Bst 2,550 - LSGI 2,050 - Aileron 1,100 to 1,400/ 1,600 - Low Rudder Boost (>15 Flaps) 1,000 - Low pressure light illuminates 20 - Suction boost pump illuminates An indication - Required by on-speed for eng start

To prevent excessive stresses on the propeller, and to prevent wing lift and resultant severe structural damage due to a propeller contacting the ground, the airplane will be headed within ______ degrees of a headwind or tailwind for engine power settings in excess of __________ in-lbs torque when the wind velocity is in excess of ____ knots. When does this apply?

30 degrees 7,000 in-lbs 10 knots For engine run-up checks [FM 2-42]

If the propeller fails to feather, the Flight Engineer will hold the Propeller Feather Override switch down for __________ seconds.

30 seconds

An airborne C-130 can operate as the airborne ready, with the approval of the Operations Officer, if it has a qualified crew and is within ______ NM of the Air Station.

300 NM [2017 Clearwater ORGMAN 9-6]

The local flying area is the area within a _____ NM radius of the PIE VORTAC excluding the are beyond ____ NM offshore. [2017 Clearwater ORGMAN 9-25]

300 NM 75 NM

How far does the APU door open?

35 degrees on the ground 15 degrees in the air

What psi does the APU need to provide to the bleed air manifold to start an engine?

35 psi

What is the Go Around Procedure with all engines operating? With one or two engines inoperative? [FM 2-67] [FM 3-97]

4 Engine Go: A - Announce "Crew, we're going around" P - Power Max F - Flaps "Check/Set flaps 50" After flap movement: G - Gear "Gear Up" Proceed as though from a normal takeoff Go Around with one or two engines inop: A - Announce "Crew, we're going around" P - Power Max F - Flaps "Check/Set flaps 50" After flap movement: G - Gear "Gear Up" F - Flaps 20% Vmca2 F - Flaps "Flaps up, after takeoff touch and go checklist" 3 Eng Climb Speed Warning: It is important to attain Vmca2 ASAP & prior to raising the flaps above 15%.

The engine low oil quantity display will turn red when an oil tank drops to a quantity below _______.

4 gallons

What are you looking for when the throttle is moved during the Pitchlock Check Procedure? [FM 3-22 to 3-23]

4. Slowly move the throttle (until a TIT change is noted) while maintaining a constant TAS and observing RPM. NOTE: If a TIT change is not noted and engine RPMis high, the engine may be on fuel control governing and throttle travel may be insufficient for RPM to follow. In this case, a change in TAS will be necessary to verify pitchlock. A reduction in TAS is recommended (not below Vmca2) as RPM is already on the high side. 5. If RPM does not follow the throttle/TAS - (Prop is Not Pitchlocked) a. If RPM remains outside allowable limits, perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE. b. If RPM is within allowable limits, monitor RPM. NOTE: A pitchlock may occur at any time. If pitchlock occurs, see PITCHLOCKED PROPELLER OPERATION c. Perform the ESP prior to landing. 6. If RPM follows the throttle/TAS - (Prop is Pitchlocked) a. Establish 96 to 98 percent RPM with the throttle and/or airspeed adjustment and continue to operate in this RPM range. b. See PITCHLOCKED PROPELLER OPERATION 7. Land as soon as practicable.

Standard fuel load is _________; loaded with _______ pounds in each outboard main tank, _______ pounds in each inboard man tank, and ________ pounds in each external tank. [2017 Clearwater ORGMAN 9-26]

42,000 lbs 8,000 lbs 7,000 lbs 6,000 lbs

While starting 1700 series aircraft, if the engine fails to rotate with the engine bleed air switch in OVRD, reduce bleed air manifold pressure below _____ psi and attempt start with the switch ON. What is the possible failure?

45 psi -This is one of the steps in troubleshooting negative rotation. -Reduce manifold pressure by closing an operating engine bleed valve and using the APU or opening bleed air to another system. If you get rotation after reducing manifold pressure then it is a possible failure of Solenoid B on the bleed air regulator. Override mode is inoperative. Flight may be continued. [FM 2-30]

On 1700 series, if the engine fails to rotate with the engine bleed air switch in OVRD, reduce bleed air manifold pressure below ____ psi and attempt start with the switch ON.

45 psi Possible Solenoid B failure on the bleed air regulator is indicated. Override mode is inop. Flight may be continued. [FM 2-30] [CAE Negative Rotation Gouge]

Do not dump fuel under ____________ above the terrain.

5,000 feet [FM 3-35]

What is the altitude range of the GPWS?

50 ft to 2,450 ft AGL/AWL

What is the maximum number or hours you can fly in a 7 day period without a waiver? [3710 3-13]

50 hours

With engine operation below 94% RPM, the TD system can take up to an additional ____% of fuel to prevent overtemp of _____ degrees.

50%, 830 degrees

The minimum runway length for touch and go landings is ______ feet. [2017 Clearwater ORGMAN 9-25]

5500 feet

When the flight station air conditioning unit is on, the bleed air gauge may read ___ psi lower than the actual pressure in the bleed air manifold.

6 psi [FM 1-123]

After any full anti-skid braking operation (maximum effort landing, aborted takeoff, engine-out/flaps-up landing, etc.) assure adequate brake/tire cooling prior to further aircraft operation. Approximate cooling time for the brake is _________. Do not taxi or tow the airplane for at least ____________ after overheated brakes have been cooled.

60 minutes 15 minutes [FM 2-142]

How long is the starter duty cycle?

60 seconds

Oil Temperature Limits

60 to 85: Normal 85 to 100: 5 min in air or 30 min on ground When oil temp is 0 to 40, Tq limited to 4500 in/lbs When oil temp is < 0, Tq limited to "minimum." Run for 10 minutes Measured after the oil shut off valve. [FM 5-7, 7-6]

The engine compressor air, at the 14th stage of compression, is approximately ____ degrees F at _____ psi.

600 degrees F, 125 psi

What is the approximate fuel capacity of the C-130H

64,000 lbs

If blade deicing ammeter falls below ____ amps, do not fly into icing conditions.

65 amps [FM 2-38] 65 amperes for a period of 15 seconds in each 1-minute deicing cycle [FM 2-147]

With throttle position above ____ degrees of travel, the TD system can put or take ____% fuel to maintain desired TIT.

65 degrees, 20%

What significant equipment is on the Essential AC Bus? [FM 1-81]

7 - Elec Hyd Pumps 4 Fx, 2 Hyd SBP, 1 Aux S - Syncrophaser T - TD System A - Avionics T - Trim Tabs S - Secondary AC Buses 2 - No 2 FBP

How many O2 bottles are in the oxygen system how are they divided up for crew use?

7 bottles -The pilot and FE share 2 -Everyone else shares 5

When does a C-130 crew enter their first crew bag? [3710 3-12]

8 Individual Flight Hours or 12 Crew Mission Hours

Crossover TIT is _____ to _____ degrees.

800 to 840 degrees

When downshifting to LSGI, monitor the TIT and shutdown the engine if TIT exceeds ________ degrees C.

850 degrees C

When determination of pitchlock is made, it is desirable to operate the prop in an underspeed condition (________ to _______%).

96% to 98%

When operating a pitch-locked propeller, maintain RPM at _______ to ______.

96% to 98%

What significant equipment is on the Essential DC bus?

A - Autopilot P - Prop Fx Soenoid O - Oil Cooler Flaps S - Start Ctrl I - Ignition Ctrl T - Trim Tab Ctrl I - ICS (RS) V - Most Valves E - Ext Lights L - Ldg Gr Ctrl I - Ice Detectors F - Fire Detectors E - EIDS -Various radios/navaids

When calculating your take-off, what is recommended if CFL is greater than Runway Available? [1-1 3-36.2 TOPS 8 *refer to the second decision tree]

A Tactical Takeoff (CO approval required if Vr is less than Vrot) or Max Effort Takeoff if you go further down the decision tree.

Discuss Bleed Air System Failure (Ground/In-flight) [FM 2-55]

A bleed air system failure may be a minor leak from a valve, coupling, or component, or may be a severe leak caused by a rupture of a duct or the total failure of a coupling. Normally minor leaks will be indicated by an Anti-icing Overheat Warning or an Overheat Warning Light. Corrective actions will depend on the location and severity of the leak/failure.

Summarize PROPELLER BRAKE FAILURE (FEATHERED PROPELLER) [FM 3-25]

A failed propeller brake may be indicated by counter-rotation (top toward 1) of a fully feathered propeller. If this occurs, proceed as follows: 1. Reduce airspeed (not slower than one engine VMCA out of ground effect.) a. If the propeller brake does not engage, the engine and gearbox are not receiving lubrication. Land as soon as practicable. b. If the propeller stops rotating, determine if accelerating is appropriate. 2. If acceleration is appropriate, increase airspeed in 10 knot increments to 200 KIAS. a. If the propeller starts to counter--rotate, reduce speed to the point where rotation stops. Use this as the maximum recommended airspeed until landing. b. If the propeller does not start counter--rotating, resume normal cruise.

Describe split flaps

A flap malfunction in which the emergency flap brake does not engage. This usually means the torque tube did not break. Could be caused by: 1. Inboard flap contacts the fuselage 2. Inboard and outboard flaps make contact 3. Outboard flap hits the aileron 4. One half of the flap actuator is jammed 5. Torque tube breaks but flap brakes do not engage

What is drift down?

A forced descent after engine loss is experienced. It occurs when you are above the next engine service ceiling (i.e. at 4 eng cruise you lose an engine then drift down to 3 eng service ceiling). [1-1 5-15, 5-16]

What keeps the main landing gear down?

A friction washer prevents the jackscrew from turning. They are not actually locked in position.

What prevents hydraulic fluid from leaking onto the brakes?

A hydraulic fuse is installed near the brake pads. It uses a spring and pressure differential to stop leak when pressure becomes low.

What are some possible indications of a TD Control Valve System Malfunction? Discuss how you correct the issue. [FM 3-26]

A malfunction of the TD control valve system of an engine may cause a sudden increase or decrease in TIT with an accompanying change in torque and fuel flow indication. If this condition occurs during stabilized operation, place the TD control valve switch for that engine in the NULL position. If TIT stabilizes and returns to near normal, leave the switch in the NULL position, and continue operation. If the malfunction persists, other engine systems are at fault. Monitor TIT closely during NULL operation as maximum TIT can often be exceeded at advanced throttle settings under these conditions.

What are the 3 causes of a propeller malfunction? What are the 3 indications of a propeller malfunction? [FM 3-21]

A propeller malfunction may be caused by synchrophaser, electrical or hydro/mechanical malfunction, and will be indicated by one or more of the following conditions: 1. Propeller low oil light. 2. RPM outside allowable limits (surge, fluctuation exceeding cyclic variation limits, or stabilized operation outside normal governing limits). 3. Failure of propeller to feather.

What are the indications of Speed Sensitive Control Failure (Sheared Shaft)? [FM 3-26]

A sheared shaft on the speed-sensitive control with the throttle above 65 degrees travel may be indicated by: 1. momentary illumination of the secondary fuel pump pressure light 2. fuel correction light 3. TIT will not exceed start limiting temperature of approximately 830 degrees C. A sheared shaft with throttle below 65 degrees may be indicated by: 1. momentary illumination of the secondary fuel pump pressure light 2. TIT will not exceed start limiting temperature of 830 degrees C.

Summarize Speed Sensitive Control Failure (Sheared Shaft). What do you need to remember to complete before shut down? [FM 3-26]

A sheared shaft on the speed-sensitive control with the throttle above 65 degrees travel may be indicated by: 1. momentary illumination of the secondary fuel pump pressure light 2. fuel correction light 3. TIT will not exceed start limiting temperature of approximately 830 degrees C. A sheared shaft with throttle below 65 degrees may be indicated by: 1. momentary illumination of the secondary fuel pump pressure light 2. TIT will not exceed start limiting temperature of 830 degrees C. 1. Throttle for the affected engine -- Retard 2. TD valve switch (for the affected engine) - NULL 3. Ignition control circuit breaker -Pull 4. Continue operation After Landing (using normal ground idle speed only): 1. Ignition control circuit breaker -- Reset 2. Condition lever -- GROUND STOP

What keeps the main landing gear up?

A spring applied brake and hydraulic pressure

NOTE: A _________________________ or ___________________ malfunction may give a false indication of propeller malfunction by causing RPM indications outside allowable limits. [FM 3-21]

A tachometer generator failure or TD system malfunction may give a false indication of propeller malfunction by causing RPM indications outside allowable limits.

What function does the AC BUS TIE switch perform? (CG 1711-1721) [FM 1-74]

A two-position "OFF," "ON," AC BUS TIE switch on the overhead electrical control panel provides a means for powering the Main AC bus from the APU generator during ground operation with no engine-driven generators supplying power. (Power provided to from the APU to the Ess AC to the Main AC)

What is a solenoid valve?

A valve which is spring loaded to one position and required constant power to the other position. It will open/close if it loses power.

If an engine displays normal TIT with a significantly higher fuel flow: A. and similar or lower torque in comparison with other engines at the same setting, the..... B. and significantly higher torque in comparison with other engines at the same setting, the ...

A. the TIT indication system may be displaying faulty indications (possible thermocouple degradation) with a faulty turbine. B. the TIT indicating system may be displaying faulty indications (possible thermocouple degradation) with a good turbine. [FM 2-138]

What are the AC electrical voltage, frequency, and load limits?

AC Voltage: 110 to 125 VAC Frequency: 380 to 420 Hz Load: 0 to 1.05 [FM 5-35]

AC Generator Frequency __________ AC Voltage ___________ AC Load ______________ DC Voltage _____________ DC Load _____________ Min Battery Voltage _____________

AC Generator Frequency: 380 - 420 Hz (400 Hz) AC Voltage: 110 - 125 VAC (115 VAC) AC Load: 0-1.05 DC Voltage: 25 - 30 VDC (28 VDC) DC Load: 0 - 1.03 Min Battery Voltage: 21 VDC [FM 5-4, 5-35]

What are the external power requirements?

AC: 200/115 VAC, 3 phase, 400 Hz, 40 kVA DC: 28 VDC, 400 amp [FM 1-67]

What are the restrictions on Aircraft Commanders flying as PIC with less than 100 hours of HC-130H time? [2017 Clearwater ORGMAN 9-27]

ACDR shall occupy the left seat regardless of the other pilot's designation.

Name the EP: The anti-skid inoperative light illuminates [FM 3-14]

ANTI-SKID SYSTEM FAILURE

What should you do if the anti-skid light illuminates and you don't know why?

ANTI-SKID SYSTEM FAILURE checklist Turn the switch off then get the book out. [FM 3-14]

If uncontrolled loss of bleed air cannot be isolated, do not open the _____________. Operation of the APU/GTC bleed air valve may repressurize the area where the failure occurred.

APU/GTC bleed air valve

What are the characteristics of the ASRK-24 and ASRK-24 modified? [FM 2-116]

ASRK-24: -Three life eight place rafts -Two supply containers -Designed to remain afloat for 6 hours -1000 ft long fully deployed (4 x 250 ft rope segments) ASRK-24 Modified: -Two life eight place rafts -Two supply containers -Designed to remain afloat for 6 hours -750 ft long fully deployed (3 x 250 ft rope segments) -(one raft and rope are removed)

Where are the fire bottles located?

Above the left wheel well

What relative altitude does the TCAS monitor traffic in each bias position?

Above: 8,700 above and 2,700 below Norm: 2,700 above and below Below: 2,700 above and 8,700 below

Continue flight as appropriate

Acknowledges that the aircraft is performing in a degraded mode. The pilot in command should consider mission urgency and the impact of the malfunction on safe aircraft operation when determining whether to proceed on assigned mission.

For GO AROUND WITH ONE OR TWO ENGINES INOP: After gear and flaps are up, continue as a normal takeoff using ___________________ speed if on three engines. Climb out airspeed, on two engines, should be at minimum of _______ or two engine out landing pattern airspeed of _______ knots, if gross weight and altitude permit. [FM 3-98]

After gear and flaps are up, continue as a normal takeoff using three-engine climb speed if on three engines. Climb out airspeed, on two engines, should be at minimum of Vmca2 or two engine out landing pattern airspeed of 160 knots, if gross weight and altitude permit.

Describe when each checklist is required for touch-and-go operations, full stop taxi back operations and hot seat operations. [FM 2-64]

After the normal checklists are complete through the BEFORE LANDING Checklist, the touch-and-go checklist may be used until the airplane either departs the airport traffic/approach control area or makes a full stop landing when an immediate takeoff is not planned. The TOUCH-AND-GO LANDING Checklist may be used for full stop and taxi back operations provided only flaps, trim tabs, low--speed ground idle buttons, and throttles are moved. If the ATM/APU is used, the LINEUP Checklist must be completed prior to takeoff. The OPERATIONAL STOP Checklist and LINEUP Checklist must be used for full stop landings when hatches/doors are opened and/or controls not listed above are operated and a subsequent takeoff is planned. In this case, and when the airplane is going to remain in the airport traffic/approach control area, the TOUCH-AND-GO LANDING Checklist may be initiated immediately after takeoff.

Describe the trim tabs

Aileron: -The left is trimmable, the right is only ground adjusted -20 degrees up and down from the aileron -Not normally used unless fuel imbalance or split flaps Elevator: -3 positions --NORM: (Ess AC operated/ Ess DC controlled) --OFF: No power available --EMER: (Ess DC operated and controlled) (no autopilot) Rudder: -It has a trim tab, congrats! Nothing special.

What systems are operated by bleed air? [FM 1-115]

Air Conditioning System Leading Edge Anti-icing System Cabin Pressurization System Engine Starting System Windshield Defogging System Engine Air Inlet Scoop Anti-icing Systems and Oil Cooler Inlet Scoop Anti-icing

Which systems are on for normal bleed? [1-1 1-10]

Air conditioning and pressurization. ------------------------- Air Conditioning - ON Cabin Pressurization - ON Engine Bleed Air Regulator Valve - ON Engine Bleed Air Switches - ON Pneumatic Anti-icing - OFF

External AC power provides power to ________.

All four AC buses.

What systems are operating for the "All Bleed On" condition? [1-1 1-9]

All pneumatic systems operating Air Conditioning - ON Cabin Pressurization - ON Engine Bleed Air Switches - ON Pneumatic Anti-icing - ON

Draw the propeller system

Alpha - Variable Pitch Beta -Controllable Pitch Flight Idle - Mechanical Stop Feather - Hydraulically Actuated

Land as soon as possible

An emergency will be declared. A landing should be accomplished at the nearest suitable airfield considering the severity of the emergency, weather conditions, field facilities, ambient lighting, and aircraft gross weight.

What are you concerned about when landing with an Ess AC Bus failure? [FM 3-40]

Anti-skid dumping brake pressure or locking up. This is not stated in the Flight Manual. Anti-skid is on Main DC. Partial Loss of ESS AC may be caused by a CB on FS 245 causing one of the phases to be failed. This bad power then travels through the TRs which may provide a distorted output. When landing, the reverse current relay will open allowing the distorted power to flow from the ESS DC to Main DC the anti-skid valve may sense locked brakes and dump brake pressure or may cause the brakes to lock up while landing. Emergency brakes are not an option since they require the aux pump (ESS AC) to operate. Tom wisdom: This was tested with the old analog equipment. Pwr went Ess AC Bus - TR - Ess DC Bus - Main DC Bus (backwards) - Anti-skid and locked the brakes.

When is new TOLD data required?

Any time -gross weight changes 5,000 lbs or more -PA changes 1,000 ft or more -OAT changes 5 degrees or more. [1-1 3-11 or TOPS 10-2]

Any time the main and essential AC bus TR circuit breakers have been pulled as a method of isolating a DC bus, the battery is ___________________________ and is ___________________ from the AC buses.

Any time the main and essential AC bus TR circuit breakers have been pulled as a method of isolating a DC bus, the battery is powering the remaining DC buses and is not being charged from the AC buses. [FM 3-46]

What prevents asymmetric flaps?

Asymmetric flap switches located at the end of each torque tube prevent the situation in the event of torque tube failure.

What functions does the speed sensitive control turn on and off during start?

At 16% (G-PIED On): Geneva Lock opens Parallel valve closes Ignition on Enrichment on (if selected) Drip valve closed At 65% (PIED Off) Parallel valve opens Ignition off Enrichment off (Deenergized and closed at 50 psi in fuel manifold) Drip valve de-energized (held closed by fuel pressure) Geneva Lock = Fuel Shutoff Valve on the Engine Fuel Control [FM 1-19, 1-20, 1-26]

While landing, what are you concerned about while moving the throttles into ground range? [FM 3-21]

At high true airspeeds and/or high ambient conditions with the throttles at flight idle, the propeller blade angle may be in the pitch lock range. The exact airspeed at which this occurs is indeterminate due to the many variable involved. At higher airspeeds, abrupt movement of the throttles into the ground range could result in pitch lock.

What are the 3710 fuel reserve requirements? [3710 3-3]

At least that required for 45 minutes of flight after reaching the alternate. In any case, fuel carried on departure will be at least 10% more than required to reach the alternate airfield via the destination.

Which anti-icing/deicing systems are manual and which are automatic? [FM 1-138]

Automatic (via the ice detector inside #2 & #3 eng inlet): -Engine inlet air scoop anti-ice -Compressor intel vane anti-icing -Propeller spinner forward section and afterbody anti-icing -Propeller blade deicing -Propeller spinner middle and rear section deicing -Propeller spinner plateaus deicing Manual: -Wing leading anti-ice -Empannage leading edge anti-ice -Pitot tube anti-ice -Windshield anti-ice (NESA) -TAS probe heater anti-ice

What does AIS stand for? [USCG Add 3-57]

Automatic Identification System

What order do we generally use the fuel tanks during long range missions?

Aux - Ext - Mains It is advantageous to use the Aux tanks first because they cannot gravity feed and only have one pump.

What is the limit on alcohol consumption? [3710 3-13]

Aviation personnel are restricted from aerial flight for 12 hours after last alcohol use and must have no residual effects.

What circuit breakers are associated with the start sequence?

BBOSIF Bleed Air Divider Valve Bleed Air Oil Start Control Ignition Control Fuel Control

What functions do the engine fire handles perform? [FM 1-186]

BEEEFSHOP -Bleed Air -Extinguishing agent armed -Extinguishing agent aligned (directional control valves) -Engine fuel closed electrically (Geneva Lock) -Fuel firewall shutoff valve closed -Start circuit de-energized -Hydraulic shutoff valves closed -Oil shutoff valves closed -Propeller electronically feathered ------------------ -Sends electrical signal to close Geneva Lock -Sends electrical signal to feather prop -Closes fuel firewall shutoff valve -Closes oil shutoff valve -Closes hydraulic shutoff valves x 2 -Closes bleed air regulator valve --Prevents hot air into nacelle or smoke into manifold -De-energized speed sensitive control (16% & 65%) --disables inadvertent igniter signal -Positions directional control valves for agent (batt bus) -Agent switch is armed (batt bus) Geneva Lock = Fuel Shutoff Valve on the Engine Fuel Control

What functions does the APU fire handle perform?

BEEF D -Bleed Air shutoff valve closed -Extinguishing agent armed -Extinguishing agent aligned (directional control valves) -Fuel shutoff valve closed -Door closes

Discuss decision points for dumping fuel and closing bleeds with engine failure after takeoff.

BLEEDS: When you are TIT limited (hot temp/high DA) on the TOLD card (max torque is posted below 19.6) closing the bleeds will get you a little more power because you have not yet hit max torque. When you are Torque limited (cold temp/low DA) on the TOLD card (max TIT is posted below 1077) closing the bleeds will NOT give you more power because you can't increase torque anymore. Close all four bleed valves when closing the bleeds. Just closing symmetrical bleeds will bog down the other two engines. DUMPING FUEL: -Two engine operations above 120,000 lbs or at high DA is marginal. [FM 3-18] -135,000 pounds for three engine operations (training limit but a good guideline) [1-A 1-6] -115,000 pounds for two engine operations with temps above 15 degrees C (training limit but a good guideline) [1-A 1-6] -Climb Out Factor (COF) corrections should be applied at high temperatures/DA.

Name the EP: Malfunction occurs in the normal brake system [FM 3-14]

BRAKE SYSTEM FAILURE

What is the difference between Balanced CFL and Unbalance CFL? [1-1 3-14,15; 3-59; 3-63]

Balanced CFL: -The distance required to continue take-off is equal to the distance required to stop. --The aircraft accelerates to Vcef then has an engine failure. At that point, stopping and going are equal. Balanced CFL is then the total length of the accel + stop/go. *The engine failure point for Balanced CFL is Vcef. This is a theoretical number and not something that is actually calculated. Unbalanced CFL: -Stop distance is greater than the distance required to continue take-off. --The aircraft accelerates to the lesser of Vmcg or Vrot (Vto - 5 knots) then has an engine failure. At that point, the distance required to go is less than the distance required to stop. Unbalance CFL is then the total length of the accel + stop distance. *The engine failure point for Unbalanced CFL is Vmcg or Vrot. Basically, if the controlling CFL is Balanced CFL and you lose an engine, then you know you will have the ability to stop the aircraft. If the controlling CFL is Unbalanced CFL and you lose an engine, then you may not have the ability to stop the aircraft if you are above the lesser of Vmcg of Vrot. You are committed to takeoff.

What are the primary factors when calculating Balanced CFL? Unbalanced CFL? [1-1 3-14,15; 3-59; 3-63]

Balanced CFL: Take-off factor and gross weight (then corrections are applied) Unbalanced CFL: Nosewheel steering capability, take-off factor, temp deviation from standard day, and gross weight (*the output of sheets 1 & 2 calculates uncorrected accelerate-stop distance to/from the lesser of Vrot or Vmcg) (then corrections are applied)

Describe Balanced CFL [1-1 3-14; 3-59]

Balanced Critical Field Length. -The distance required to continue take-off is equal to the distance required to stop. --The aircraft accelerates to Vcef then has an engine failure. At that point, stopping and going are equal. Balanced CFL is then the total length of the accel + stop/go. __________________|(Vcef)__go/stop___| |_____Balanced CFL___________________|

Banking away from the failed engine reduces air minimum control speed because of the ______________________________________. 5 degree bank is specified because ___________________________________. [FM 3-19]

Banking away from the failed engine reduces air minimum control speed because of the favorable effect of the sideslip angle which must accompany the increased bank angle. 5 degree bank is specified because it minimizes air minimum control speed while maximizing climb performance.

In air starts with inop NTS, why do you reduce the airspeed to less than 130 KIAS and altitude to below 5,000 ft? [FM 2-75]

Because reduced TAS will create less negative torque due to less wind driving the prop.

Why are the power section and reduction gearbox oil pressures different?

Because the power section is regulated to lubricate and cool the shaft bearings.

When do Flight Hours begin and end? [3710 glossary]

Begin when the aircraft first moves forward on its takeoff run. Ends after airborne flight when the aircraft is on the surface and either the the engines are stopped or a change is made in the pilot in command. If the engines are kept running for maintenance or any other purpose and no further flight is intended, aircraft time shall end when the aircraft is stopped for such purpose.

When does Crew Mission Time begin and end? [3710 glossary]

Begins at the start of preflight duties and ends with the completion of postflight duties for each sortie.

What is 3-engine climb?

Best rate of climb (aka Vy)

How is propeller pitch controlled?

Big Picture: In Alpha, prop is variable pitch. In Beta, prop is controllable pitch. In Alpha: 100% RPM is maintained by a Speed Sensing Pilot Valve (speeder spring and fly-weight) located in the valve housing. The fly-weight and speeder spring work to maintain 100% RPM. Inc throttle - More fuel - Higher RPM - Fly weight moves - speed spring compensates - more oil to the front of prop piston - prop angle increase - bigger bite of air - RPM slows back to 100% Throttle decrease - Less fuel - Lower RPM - Fly weight slows and spring compensates - more oil to back of prop piston - prop angle decreases - less bite of air - RPM increases to 100% In Beta: Throttles are mechanically links to the Speed-Sensing Pilot Valve to control blade angle. They are also mechanically linked to fuel metering valve).

A bird impacts the aircraft. Which EP do you call for? Summarize the EP. [FM 3-50]

Bird Strike Checklist

An Anti-icing Overheat Warning Light or Wing/Emennage/Wheel Well/Cargo Compartment Refrigerator Overheat Warning Light illuminates or the gauge indicates temperatures in the red. What do you do? (unofficial bold face)

Bleed Air System Failure: Anti-icing Overheat Warning Light Checklist or Wing/Emennage/Wheel Well/Cargo Compartment Refrigerator Overheat Checklist 1. Turn off the operating system then wait one minute 2. Isolate the wing using the bleed air regulators and divider valve -The leak may be robbing engine torque so you may see a torque increase [FM 3-55 through 3-58]

Where do we get our bleed air for air conditioning, pressurization and anti-ice? [FM 1-18]

Bleed air is tapped off of the diffuser. -The 14th stage compressor air enters the diffuser at 125 psi & 600 degrees F. Some is tapped off and the rest continues to the combustion chamber.

How is the APU stopped?

By testing the 110% test switch. The overspeed test solenoid is used to trick the APU into thinking it is at 110% so it shuts down.

CASPER

C-130 Airborne Sensor w/ Palletized Electronic Reconnaissance System

Summarize Visible Fluid Leak. [FM 3-27]

CAUTION: The presence of a visible propeller fluid leak may indicate that there is insufficient fluid remaining to feather the propeller. Carefully consider the adverse effect of a windmilling propeller on controllability, range, and ceiling before securing an engine for a propeller fluid leak. If immediate landing is feasible, attain 150 KTAS (if possible) and perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE. If immediate landing is not feasible, continued operation of the engine may be advisable and accomplish the PITCHLOCK CHECK PROCEDURE. ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE - Recommended

The CHIP Light Illuminates on the Chip Detector System. Which EP do you call for? Summarize the EP. [FM 3-30]

CHIP Warning Light CONDITION: If metal contamination is indicated by illumination of a CHIP light, identify the affected engine with the corresponding ENGINE/POSITION light. Corrective Action: ON THE GROUND 1. Place all throttles to GROUND IDLE. 2. Place applicable Engine Condition Lever to GROUND STOP. IN-FLIGHT 1. This indicates the engine has metal of sufficient size that cannot be burned. Engine shall be monitored for secondary indications of actual reduction gearbox/Power Section failure (i.e., torque and/or gearbox oil pressure fluctuations). Land as soon as practicable. 2. If any secondary indications are experienced, immediately perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE.

How to build your nest?

CLOMPRG: Clocks Lights Oxygen Mike Pressure/ Paperwork Radio Gyro

What clearance is required for a malfunctioning or damaged aircraft with major malfunctions and actual or suspected structural damage? [3710 2-9]

CO or representative must brief Commandant (CG-711)

What is required if a destination alternate is not available? [3710 3-17]

CO will determine amount of holding time required; not less than one hour.

Name and summarize the EP: You receive a bird strike and suspect it went into the intake. [FM 3-11]

COMPRESSOR BLOCKAGE If compressor blockage is suspected, such as due to a bird strike, and verified by lower torque, higher TIT, etc., perform ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE. In cases where blockage is suspected but not verified, the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE is recommended. If engine operation is continued due to extenuating circumstances, land as soon as possible for inspection.

Summarize Illumination of a Generator Out Light [FM 3-41]

CONDITION: Overvoltage, undervoltage, overfrequency, underfrequency, or a ground fault. Corrective Action: Check for frequency, voltage, and load of the affected generator. 1. If frequency, voltage, and load are normal, leave generator ON. Continue operation. 2. If frequency and voltage are normal, but no load is indicated, leave the generator switch ON and monitor generator frequency and voltage. If voltage and frequency indications are lost, disconnect the affected generator using the Generator Disconnect Procedure in this section. 3. If no frequency, voltage, or load are indicated, place the generator switch to OFF and then to ON. a. If frequency, voltage and load are normal, resume normal operation. b. If no frequency or voltage are indicated, place the generator switch to OFF and disconnect the affected generator using the Generator Disconnect Procedure in this section of the Flight Manual. Land as soon as practicable.

The Generator Out Light illuminated while taxiing. What do you do? [FM 3-41,42]

Call for the Illumination of a Generator Out Light checklist. Note: If generator failure is confirmed during ground operations, the affected engine may be shut down by placing the condition lever to ground stop in lieu of the generator disconnect procedure.

What is the minimum weather for training without approval from the Operations Officer? [2017 Clearwater ORGMAN 9-28]

Ceiling: 500 ft Vis: 2 miles Winds: Sustained 40 kts or 15 kts gusts For boat ops: -Winds: 25 kts -Seas: 4 ft or 6 ft depending on the boat -Air temp less than 50 degrees F for CG boat crews

What are the two NESA sections? [FM 1-143]

Center (Three center windshields) Side and Lower (only the lower windows on the pilot's side are heated)

If propeller control is lost, it will try to decrease blade angel to 0 degrees. This is called ____________.

Centrifugal Twising Moment

What are the two primary forces on the propeller? Which is greater?

Centrifugal Twisting Moment (CTM)- The force perpendicular to the spinning axis. Aerodynamic Twisting Moment (ATM) - The force parallel to the spinning axis. CTM is 20 times greater the ATM. The low pitch stop and pitch lock are two mechanisms to fight CTM in the event of prop failure.

What channel is used for maritime distress and calling? [USCG Add 2-28]

Channel 16 (156.8 MHz)

How do you check brake wear on pre-flight (steel brakes only)?

Check the wear indicator located on the back of the brake pads. This needs to be done with hydraulic pressure and the brakes applied. If the brakes are too worn, the pin will not stick out through the hole.

If time available after ESP... (unofficial stuff)

Check, Check, STARS Go Check, Check CHEWWATERS Go

Engine Out Landing Considerations

Check: Emergency checklist complete Check: Normal Checklists complete S: Systems T: Trim A: Airspeeds R: Reverse (symmetricals) S: Swerve Go Around ------------------------------- Check: Emergency checklist complete Check: Normal Checklists complete C: Configuration H: Hydraulics/ Electrical E: Emergency Call W: Weight/ Dumping W: Winds A: Airspeeds T: Trim E: Emergency Brakes R: Reversing/ Swerve S: Swerve Go Around

Closing No. 1 and No. 2 bleed air regulators and the bleed air divider valve, as required in certain emergencies, isolates the bleed air from the jet pump control in the outflow valve and from the safety valve. ________________ _________________ will be inoperative and emergency depressurization will be slower. [FM 3-59]

Closing No. 1 and No. 2 bleed air regulators and the bleed air divider valve, as required in certain emergencies, isolates the bleed air from the jet pump control in the outflow valve and from the safety valve. Automatic pressurization will be inoperative and emergency depressurization will be slower.

What are the major sections of the power section assembly?

Compressor (Cold section) Diffuser Combustion Chamber (Hot section) Turbine (Hot section)

You experience decreasing cabin pressure. What should you consider after oxygen masks are donned? [FM 3-60]

Consider how long oxygen will last and range with masks on at a higher altitude or off at a lower altitude.

Chair Fly: You expirience an engine malfunction during climb out on a Max Effort Takeoff. You are at 600 feet and the obstacle clearance altitude is 800 feet. What should you consider?

Consider if the engine is still producing useable power. It may be advantageous to keep the engine running until you are above the obstacle. For example, if a fire, nacelle overheat, or visible fluid leak is expirienced, the engine will still produce power. Do not perform TAKEOFF CONTINUED AFTER ENGINE FAILURE or ESP immediately.

How is the low rudder boost diverter valve controlled and to which position does it default?

Control by the flap lever (not the flaps). It is de-energized (defaults) to the low rudder boost position.

When the throttles are in the ground range (beta), the propeller is a __________ propeller.

Controllable pitch

How do you control the oil shut off valve? Where is it located?

Controlled with the fire handle. Located on the bottom of the oil tank.

What does the condition lever RUN position do?

Creates an electrical connection from the ignition CB to the speed sensitive control.

Vcef [1-1 3-14]

Critical Engine Failure Speed -Used for calculating Balanced CFL. For balanced CFL, it is defined as that speed to which the airplane can accelerate, lose an engine, and then either continue the take-off with the remaining engines or stop in the same total runway distance. It should be noted that when the unbalanced CFL is established by Vmcg, the Vcef will be the lower of the Vrot or Vmcg. The acceleration distance is based on all engines set at computed take-off power, not exceeding 19,600 inch-pounds of torque. Stopping distances are based on two engines (symmetrical power) in reverse thrust, one engine in ground idle, one propeller wind-milling, and maximum braking with anti-skid operative or inoperative.

What significant equipment is on the Main AC Bus? [FM 1-81]

D - Dump Pumps A - Aux/ Aft Ext FBP V - CP VSI 3 - No 3 FBP -Main DC bus

You notice engine oil pressure 45 psi and decreasing. Which EP do you call for? Summarize the EP. [FM 3-27]

DECREASING OIL PRESSURE This condition warrants careful monitoring of the engine instruments for the engine with the decreasing oil pressure, but no corrective action is required as long as the engine instrument readings arewithin limits. If oil pressure is decreasing out of limits, perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE.

Engine oil quantity is less than 4 gallons with a red band around the oil quantity box. Which EP do you call for? Summarize the EP. [FM 3-28]

DECREASING OIL QUANTITY The low oil quantity warning (red band around oil quantity indicator) appears when the oil level in a tank drops to approximately 4.0 gallons. This condition warrants careful monitoring of the engine instruments for the engine with the low oil quantity gauge reading, but no corrective action is required as long as the engine instrument readings arewithin limits. If engine instrument readings are out of limits, perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE. NOTE If the rate of quantity loss is gradual and length of mission would require engine shutdown prior to termination, the PIC may elect to shut down the affected engine and restart at a later time when conditions necessitate. If during flight the aircrew notices a loss of engine oil quantity with heavy smoke coming out of the tailpipe area, the engine should be monitored during flight and the aircrew should perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE prior to landing. This should prevent oil combustion in the tailpipe after landing.

What risk is warranted for preventing or relieving pain or suffering? [3710 1-7]

Damage to or abuse of the aircraft if recovery of the aircraft can be reasonably expected.

What risk is warranted for saving human life? [3710 1-7]

Damage to or abuse of the aircraft is acceptable. Probably loss of the crew is not acceptable.

What risk is warranted to save property? [3710 1-7]

Damage to the aircraft is the value of the property saved is unquestionably greater than the cost of the aircraft and the aircraft is fully expected to be recoverable.

During engine start, the RPM rapidly increases and the reduction gearbox oil pressure increases, but there is no ignition or engine oil pressure. What is the most likely cause?

Decoupling

To which position do the fire agent direction control valves default? Where do they direct the agent?

Defaulted to the number 2 engine. The agent is directed to the last handle pulled. If you don't know which handle was pulled last you can "reset" the last handle pulled. This relates to ground evac when multiple handles are pulled.

What flap position should be considered with two engines inoperative? Why? [FM 3-18]

Depending on airplane weight, it may not be possible to maintain level flight with two engines inoperative and wing flaps extended. Upon loss of either number one or number two engine, retraction of the wing flaps may be advisable.

When is a destination alternate required? [3710 3-16]

Destination does not have a serviceable approach or forecast mins below: 1) Ceiling ≥ 2000' above airport elev. or ≥ 400' above lowest compatible appr., Whichever is higher. 2) 3 SM visibility One hour before to one hour after ETA.

Do not exceed a ___ degree angle of bank with flaps retracted or a ___ degree angle of bank with flaps extended. [FM 5-28]

Do not exceed a 60 degree angle of bank with flaps retracted or a 45 degree angle of bank with flaps extended.

What risk is warranted for law enforcement and evidence recovery? [3710 1-8]

Does not warrant probable damage to or abuse of the aircraft.

What is the first question you should ask if a fluid leak is seen on the nacelle? Which checklist do you call for? [FM 3-27]

Does the leak appear to be coming from the propeller? Is the PROP LOW OIL light illuminated? If the leak is not coming from the prop: Visible Fluid Leak checklist which leads you to ESP If the leak is coming from the prop: Propeller Low Oil Warning Light Illumination or Pitchlock Check Procedure CAUTION: The presence of a visible propeller fluid leak may indicate that there is insufficient fluid remaining to feather the propeller. Carefully consider the adverse effect of a windmilling propeller on controllability, range, and ceiling before securing an engine for a propeller fluid leak. If immediate landing is feasible, attain 150 KTAS (if possible) and perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE. If immediate landing is not feasible, continued operation of the engine may be advisable and accomplish the PITCHLOCK CHECK PROCEDURE.

During In-Flight Door Warning, what are you considering for the Flight Engineer's check of the door? [FM 3-53]

Don't have the FE check the door if it is not required. If it is required, ensure he is strapped in properly. A Flight Engineer has been injured before when the crew entrance door inadvertently opened in flight. Warning: The Flight Engineer will check the doors, wearing a restraint harness. To check the crew entrance door, connect the restraint harness leash snap to the tiedown ringmounted on the Radio Operator seat track. If it cannot be determined what caused the door light to illuminate, the flight may be continued with partial pressurization, at the discretion of the PIC (below the point where the light illuminates and with all personnel secured by safety belts). If the doors are secure and the trouble is determined to be a door warning switch, the airplane may be fully pressurized.

What do you do for any engine emergency?

Don't touch the throttle until you troubleshoot.

Engines 2 and 3 are shutdown due to an emergency but you still want the ice detectors to function. How would you get the ice detectors to work?

Drop the condition lever into RUN.

Due to the combined effect of headwind loss and rapid decrease in angle of attack caused by microburst type wind shear, immediate power application and deck angle increase is required for recovery. Upon microburst recognition, throttles should be advanced to ___________ _________. At the same time deck angle should be increased to the ____________ _______________ ____________, with consideration given to minimum control speeds for the aircraft configuration. As a technique, ______ or _________, whichever is _________, may be maintained with throttles at takeoff power until the microburst is traversed. [FM 2-59]

Due to the combined effect of headwind loss and rapid decrease in angle of attack caused by microburst type wind shear, immediate power application and deck angle increase is required for recovery. Upon microburst recognition, throttles should be advanced to takeoff power. At the same time deck angle should be increased to the maximum level sustainable, with consideration given to minimum control speeds for the aircraft configuration. As a technique, Vobs or Vmca1out, whichever is higher, may be maintained with throttles at takeoff power until the microburst is traversed.

Draw the EIDS system

EIDS - Engine Instrument Display System EDCU - Engine Data Concentrator Unit EFPD - Engine Flat Panel Display EDCP - Engine Display Control Panel

EIDS EFPD EDCP EDCU

EIDS: Engine Instrument Display System EFPD: Engine Flat Panel Display EDCP: Engine Display Control Panel -Provides brightness and interface control EDCU: Engine Data Concentrator Unit -Interfaces with legacy components to provide digital signal.

Name the EP: Steady illumination in the respective fire handle and the master fire warning light on the Pilot instrument panel [FM 3-10]

ENGINE FIRE (GROUND/IN FLIGHT)

Oil system EPs

ENGINE OIL SYSTEM FAILURE -Decreasing Oil Pressure -Increasing Oil Temperature -Decreasing Oil Quantity CHIP DETECTOR SYSTEM -MAINT Warning Light -CHIP Warning Light [FM 3-27, 3-30]

During CRUISE ENGINE SHUTDOWN the top rotates toward engine 1. What is the issue and what should be done. [FM 2-74, 3-25]

EP: Propeller Brake Failure (Feathered Propeller) If the prop rotates backwards (top toward 1), airstart the engine. This may be an indication of a worn prop brake. Record in aircraft logbook.

If only one engine-driven generator is operating, which AC buses are powered?

ESS AC bus & Main AC bus

Name the Engine Shutdown Conditions

EVEN STUPID HUT Engine Fire Visible Fluid Leak Engine Chip with Secondaries Nacelle Overheat Start Valve Open Light Illuminated in Flight Turbine Overheat Uncontrollable Power Prop Malfunction Increase Oil Temperature Decrease Oil Pressure High TIT Unusual Vibrations Throttle Control Failure

What indication do you receive for an exceedance and what are the parameters that the EIDS uses to determine the exceedance?

EXCD in a box -RPM: outside of 98 to 102 in flight. -RPM outside of 96 to 106 on ground (for reverse) -TIT greater than 1,083 (5 sec or 1,175) -Tq greater than 19.6

Climb out Factor (COF)

Effective gross weight compared to a standard day. [1-1 3-100 (3 eng)/ 3-87 (4 eng)] [1-1 1-9]

What are the hyd pressures on the flight control surfaces?

Elev: 3,000 psi Aileron: 2,050 psi Rudder: 1100-1400/1600 (0-15 flaps) 2900-3200/3500 (15-100 flaps)

Land as soon as practicable

Emergency conditions are less urgent, and although the mission is to be terminated, the degree of the emergency is such that an immediate landing at the nearest suitable airfield may not be necessary. However, extended flight is not recommended. The airfield and duration of the flight is at the discretion of the pilot in command.

Name the two types of fire indications and the associated indications

Engine Fire: Steady FIRE light and steady fire handle illumination. APU Fire: Steady FIRE light and steady fire handle illumination.

Summarize the EP: ENGINE FIRE (GROUND/IN FLIGHT) [FM 3-10]

Engine fires are indicated by a steady Illumination in the respective fire handle and the master fire warning light on the Pilot instrument panel. If an engine fire is experienced, proceed as follows: ON THE GROUND: 1. Move all throttles to GROUND IDLE. (P) 2. Perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE. IN FLIGHT 1. Perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE.

Power Section (Engine) Oil Pressure Limits

Engine oil pressure is regulated. -50 to 60 psi -Can fluctuated +or- 10 psi (20 psi total) -Up to 100 psi during start and warmup -Can be less than 50 psi in LSGI -Must have positive oil pressure by 35% RPM on start [FM 5-7]

What are the sources of bleed air?

Engines APU (Ground Only) External Air Cart

How are all electric-hydraulic pumps on the aircraft operated?

Ess AC powered Ess DC controlled 4 x feather pumps 2 x hydraulic suction boost pumps 1 x auxiliary hydraulic pump

Where is the landing gear control circuit breaker? What color is the tab?

Ess DC Copilot Lower CB panel Green tab [FM 1-90, 3-73]

What powers the six flight control hydraulic shut-off valves?

Ess DC bus (Most valves are controlled by Ess DC)

What order do we generally use the fuel tanks during short range events?

Ext - Aux - Mains Emptying the external tanks first allow us to do landings without fuel in the external tank. This reduces wear and tear on the wing.

Main Landing Gear Extension After Normal and Emergency System Failure Note: Extend the ____ strut first. The main landing gear doors are opened by a mechanical connection from the ____ strut, and damage to the doors could result if the ______ strut is extended first. [FM 3-76]

Extend the aft strut first. The main landing gear doors are opened by a mechanical connection from the aft strut, and damage to the doors could result if the forward strut is extended first.

What are the turbulence limitations?

Extreme, severe, and moderate turbulence shall be avoided. If encountered or for operational necessity, airspeed shall be 65 kts above power off stall not to exceed 180 kts. [FM 5-10]

What significant equipment is on the battery bus?

F - Fire Extinguishing A - Alarm Bells A - AC External J - Jump Lights I - ISOL DC ON BATT V - Voltmeter (DC) E - ELT E - Emer Lights E - Emer Depress

What significant equipment is on the Main DC bus?

F - Flap Ctrl I - Indicators (Tabs/Flaps) (Aft Jct Box) I - Internal Lights N - NESA Ctrl D - Door Open Light A - Anti-Skid A - Air Deflectors

Name some flap system EP's. Which ones are land as soon as possible?+ [FM 3-68 to 3-71]

FLAP SYSTEM FAILURE Electrical Control Failure Loss of Hydraulic Pressure Mechanical Flap Failure -Failure of Flaps to move to the selected position +-Uncommanded Roll/Bank of the Aircraft During Flap Movement -Wing Flap Position Indicator Failure

What are the indications of LOSS OF SECONDARY AC SYSTEMS? [FM 3-43]

Failure of a secondary AC system will be indicated by loss or erratic operation of equipment powered by the Copilot AC Instruments Bus or the AC Instrument and Engine Fuel Control Bus, or by illumination of the Selected Power Out light.

Summarize LOSS OF SECONDARY AC SYSTEMS [FM 3-43]

Failure of a secondary AC system will be indicated by loss or erratic operation of equipment powered by the Copilot AC Instruments Bus or the AC Instrument and Engine Fuel Control Bus, or by illumination of the Selected Power Out light. If failure of one of the secondary AC systems is indicated, proceed as follows: 1. Select the other power source. 2. Verify normal operation of equipment on the affected bus. If the failure continues, proceed as follows: 3. Turn the affected secondary AC system OFF. 4. Check Section 1 to ascertain which equipment has been lost.

The propeller auxiliary feather pump motors will operate when the engine condition lever are placed in ________ or ______.

Feather or Air Start

How is feather controlled inside the valve housing?

Feather valve: Mechanically controlled to increase blade angle (route more hyd fluid to front of the prop piston) Feather solenoid: Electrically controlled to increase blade angle.

In regards to the prop, what are the feather angle, low pitch stop angle, and max beta angle? Bonus question: What pitch are the spinner islands?

Feather:92.5 degrees Low pitch stop: 23 degrees Max beta: -6 degrees The spinner islands are at 55 degrees. Designed for high altitude cruise.

What is the max an aircrew can be scheduled in a 24 hour period? When is it reset? [3710 3-11]

Fixed wing pressurized aircraft Individual Flight Hours: 12 Crew Mission Hours: 16 A new 24 hour period will begin any time 10 hours of rest is completed, regardless of duty status.

How can you increase flaps up max endurance? Why? [1-1 6A-3]

Flap-up endurance may be increased by shutting down one or two engines at lower altitudes. This increase results because specific fuel consumption is lower and propeller efficiencies are higher at the higher power settings.

Describe the Flaps. Describe the Normal Flap Brake. Describe the Emergency Flap Brake [FM 1-155 to 157]

Flaps: The airplane is equipped with four flaps, consisting of an outboard and an inboard flap in each wing. The flaps are of the Lockheed-Fowler, high-lift type in which the flap motion is a combination of an aft movement to alter the airfoil section to increase lift and drag. The time required for full extension or retraction of the flaps is between 10 to 15 seconds. Normal Flap Brake: A disk type, spring-loaded flap brake holds the flaps in the selected position and prevents movement by aerodynamic loads. Emergency Flap Brake: Hydraulically applied. Spring held apart.

When is enrichment used?

For a second start attempt (TIT below 100 and no overtemp on first attempt). Alternate start methods: -Air start -Buddy start -Windmill taxi start [FM 2-28, 2-76, 2-79, 2-80]

For calculating CFL, if an engine failure occurs exactly at Vrot, it is estimated that the lateral deviation on the runway (i.e., the lateral excursion, relative to the original center line of travel) may be as high as ____ feet before the Vto is reached and the airplane lifts off. This is the maximum deviation upon which Vmcg formulations are based. Further, a lateral deviation in the air of as much as ___ feet may be expected. These deviations are expected to decrease in magnitude as the speed, at which an engine might fail, increases from Vrot toward the scheduled Vto.

For calculating CFL, if an engine failure occurs exactly at Vrot, it is estimated that the lateral deviation on the runway (i.e., the lateral excursion, relative to the original center line of travel) may be as high as 30 feet before the Vto is reached and the airplane lifts off. This is the maximum deviation upon which Vmcg formulations are based. Further, a lateral deviation in the air of as much as 55 feet may be expected. These deviations are expected to decrease in magnitude as the speed, at which an engine might fail, increases from Vrot toward the scheduled Vto. [1-1 3-14]

When is a downwind drop pattern used? [FM 2-117]

For high free board vessels

How will the aircraft generally respond to engine malfunctions on landing or takeoff? [FM 3-8 to 3-9]

For malfunctions which result in asymmetric thrust, the airplane will attempt to turn toward the malfunctioning power plant during airplane acceleration and will generally attempt to turn away from the malfunctioning power plant during airplane deceleration.

For the propeller to pitch-lock, the blade angle must ____________ (approximately ____ degrees blade angle) to engage the pitch lock ratchet, normally resulting in an RPM __________ and causing an __________ ___________. The pitch lock is cammed out except for ___ degrees to ___ degrees blade angle. [FM 1-45]

For the propeller to pitch-lock, the blade angle must decrease (approximately 1.8 degrees blade angle) to engage the pitch lock ratchet, normally resulting in an RPM increase and causing an audible beat. The pitch lock is cammed out except for 25 degrees to 55 degrees blade angle.

What will cause the ice detectors to be inoperative?

For the respective ice detector: -Engine 2/3 condition lever not in run -Ignition Control CB 2/3 pulled -Fire Handle 2/3 pulled -Ice detector CB pulled

What are the restrictions on FP/CP flights? [3710 3-5]

For training flights other than pilot instruction, under daylight VFR, an FP and a CP may be assigned together. The FP shall neither relinquish the pilot's seat to the CP, except in emergency, nor relinquish control of the aircraft when at an absolute altitude below 500 feet.

What are some initial actions that should be taken in the event of Multiple Engine Power Loss/RPM Rollback? [FM 3-42]

Fuel (Tank to Engine): 1. Main tank boost pumps - ON 2. All fuel cross-feed valves - CLOSED 3. Cross-feed separation valve - CLOSED Eng/Prop: 4. TD switches - NULL 5. Syncrophaser - OFF 6. Prop governor switches - MECH GOV After those initial actions you are looking at pulling syncrophaser CBs, turning off the generator supplying power to the ESS AC bus & removing the syncrophaser unit from the rack mount.

A Fuel Low Pressure Warning Light or a Tank Empty Light illuminate for a tank which still contains fuel. Which EP do you call for? Summarize the EP. [FM 3-32]

Fuel Boost Pump Failure -Check the CB for each phase -Verify pressure -If determination is made that a pump is bad, set up fuel supply from another tank. -Read Operation with Boost Pump Failure

Name the EP: If the fuel quantity indicator goes to off scale high or off scale low, fails to press to test, or is inoperative. [FM 3-34]

Fuel Quantity Indicator Failure

Chair fly: The airplane has an electrical fire which causes fumes in the cockpit. Which EPs do you call for and in what order? Why?

Fuselage Fire/ Smoke and Fume Elimination [FM 3-51] -This procedure will ensure you get O2 on & attempt to clear any smoke from the cockpit. Electrical Fire [FM 3-44] -This procedure will help you isolate the malfunctioning equipment. Bus Isolation Procedure [FM 3-46] -The BUS ISOLATIONPROCEDURE should be used only as a last resort when the malfunctioning unit(s) cannot be determined, but themalfunctioning bus is known. The purpose of this procedure is to allow a return of normal operation to the unaffected buses.

What significant equipment is on the Isolated DC bus?

G - GCUs A - ADI A - APU Start S - STBY ADI H - HSI I - ICS (LS/FE) P - Pitot Heat E - EIDS

What significant equipment is on the LH AC Bus? [FM 1-81]

G - Galley N - NESA C - CASPER 1 - No 1 FBP

What items are on the reduction gearbox?

GHOST: Generator Hyd Pump Oil pump for the gearbox Starter Tach generator

What is the TAKEOFF CONTINUED AFTER ENGINE FAILURE procedure? [FM 3-15 & 3-16]

Gear, Feather, Flaps If obstacle clearance is not a factor: -Feather (ESP) -Gear -Flaps 20 -Vmca2 -Flaps Up "Flaps up, after takeoff touch and go checklist" -3 Eng Climb Speed If obstacle clearance is a factor: -Gear "Gear Up" (initiated w/i 3 seconds after T/O) -Feather (initiated W/i 6 seconds after T/O) -Flaps 20% -Vmca2 -Flaps "Flaps up, after takeoff touch and go checklist" -3 Eng Climb Speed *Gear, Feather, Flaps is generally used for uniformity. The failed engine can be feathered quickly while the gear is retracting.

Gearbox Oil Pressure Limits

Gearbox oil pressure is unregulated. -150 to 250 psi -Can fluctuate +or- 20 psi (40 psi total) -As low as 50 psi in LSGI -Can exceed 250 psi during start and warmup -Must have positive oil pressure by 35% RPM on start [FM 5-7]

What is the minimum altitude for search/patrol? [FM 2-111]

Generally 200 feet during the day and 500 feet at night but it is based on the configuration and weight of the aircraft. Refer to the Flight Manual SAR procedures.

You abort a take-off for a generator out light. After leaving the runway, the FE attempts to reset the generator but is unsuccessful. What should you do?

Go to Ground Stop with that engine and return to parking. [FM 3-41 1st note]

For Operation with Fuel Boost Pump Failure Gradual power losses will occur between __________ and __________ feet during rapid climb out to an engine without boost pump pressure. [FM 3-33]

Gradual power losses will occur between 12,000 and 20,000 feet during rapid climb out to an engine without boost pump pressure.

Define Vmcg When can Vmcg be calculated using nosewheel steering? [1-1 3-24]

Ground Minimum Control Speed Ground minimum control speed (Vmcg) is the minimum airspeed at which the airplane may lose an outboard engine during the take-off ground run and still maintain directional control. Conditions: a. No. 1 engine inoperative with the propeller windmilling on NTS. b. Maximum power on all operating engines. c. Zero bleed (good also for normal bleed). d. Flaps 50 percent with 3,000 PSI rudder boost. e. Maximum available rudder deflection limited by 180 lbs pedal force or maximum rudder surface deflection, whichever occurs first. f. Maximum deviation from runway centerline of 30 feet. g. Maintain wings level. VMCG with nosewheel steering may only be used when operating from dry paved runways.

What is the minimum field length for a max effort landing?

Ground roll distance plus 500 ft. [FM 2-61]

What are some items on the touchdown system? (not penguins)

Ground stop and TCAS [FM 1-163]

What are the emergency signals (Alarm bells)? [FM 3-6]

Ground: -Abandon Airplane: 1 long Ditching or crash landing: -Prepare for ditch or crash landing: 6 short -Brace for impact: 1 long

What will the copilot do when LSGI is being selected? [FM 2-33]

Guard the conditions levers and watch TIT in case it exceeds 850 degrees C. Shut down the engine by placing the condition levers in GROUND STOP.

When are each wind component applicable (HW, TW, XW, Gusts) in regards to takeoff and landing calculations?

HW: You can apply 50% of HW component for normal ops (100% for Accel check time; none for terrain clearance). TW: Apply 150% XW: Check for necessity to increase takeoff and landing speeds. Gusts: Increase Vrot, not to exceed 10 kts. [1-1 1-13]

Name the EP: Overtemperature is indicated by a high turbine inlet temperature [FM 3-11]

High Turbine Inlet Temperature

What are the airspeed error corrections?

ICE T: -Indicated to Calibrated - Corrected for position error. -Calibrated to Equivalent - Corrected for compressibility error. -Equivalent to True - Corrected for density error.

Summarize In-Flight Door Warning [FM 3-53]

IN-FLIGHT DOOR WARNING When the door open warning light illuminates, notify crew and passengers and proceed as follows: 1. Seat Belts - "Fastened" (All) 2. Oxygen - "As required" (All) 3. Pressurization - "Begin depressurization" (E) 4. Descent - "As required" (PF) 5. Air conditioning master switch - "AUX VENT" (E) 6. Doors - "Checked" (E)

You notice engine oil remperature at 90 degrees and climbing. Which EP do you call for? Summarize the EP. [FM 3-28]

INCREASING OIL TEMPERATURE Increasing oil temperature may result from failure of an oil cooler flap to function in AUTOMATIC. If oil temperatures exceed the normal range proceed as follows: 1. Hold the oil cooler flap switch in the OPEN position until the oil cooler flap is open. 2. Thereafter, manually open or close the oil cooler flap as required to maintain normal engine oil temperature. 3. If engine oil temperature cannot be maintained within limits, perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE. CAUTION If oil temperature exceeds 100 degrees C, engine shutdown is recommended due to possible engine and gearbox damage. Land as soon as practicable.

If a malfunction occurs to the left-hand, right-hand, or main AC bus or equipment on these buses, it may be necessary to turn off ____ ______ engine-driven generators to isolate the problem. In this case, the _____________ should be turned on prior to turning the engine-driven generators off. This will supply power to the _______________ bus. This will allow the crew to evaluate the situation and determine which bus and/or component caused the malfunction and to take the proper corrective action. [FM 3-37]

If a malfunction occurs to the left-hand, right-hand, or main AC bus or equipment on these buses, it may be necessary to turn off all four engine-driven generators to isolate the problem. In this case, the ATM/APU generator should be turned on prior to turning the engine-driven generators off. This will supply power to the essential AC bus. This will allow the crew to evaluate the situation and determine which bus and/or component caused the malfunction and to take the proper corrective action.

When may you receive a false ENRCH discrete indication?

If a tach generator fails and indicates RPM 16% to 60% when the FF is greater than 1,000 lbs/hr for more than 3 seconds. -Could happen even if enrich is off because the EDCU does displays this based on tach and FF parameters.

You lose the #1 & #2 engines. What are you considering?

If able, configure for landing before you shut down the 2nd eng w/ the Util Syst. (Approx 160 KIAS, Gear Down & Flaps Up) No Flap Landing Considerations (FLAPS) -Flare: Minimal flare. High Attitude. -Landing Gear "Below 139" for NW (Nav Call) -A/S: 160 DW/Base; 150 or Vapp Dog Leg/Final to landing assured -Place the GPWS Flaps to OVRD -Sweep --No NWS - Cover on wheel --EMER Brakes --No Anti-Skid --Hyd Syst Switches - OFF --GPWS FLAPS - OVRD --WING FLAP CTRL CB - Pull --Flaps - 20% (High Rudder Boost) --Reversing, FE Call "Below 100" Brief: DDB'S (Dump, Declare, Bleeds, Standing Tall?) Brief: √√ STARS Go Brief: When simulation complete i.e. Flight Idle, Ground Idle, or Reverse √√ STARS Go Considerations: -Systems: No Utility System -Trim: Put trim in to cancel rudder force. Have PM zero out the trim on final. -Airspeeds: 160 D/W & Base;150 or Vapp Final; Flaps Zero Airspeeds; Nav call "Below139"; FE call "below 100" -Reverse: Don't reverse if you don't have symmetricals -Swerve: Away from the dead during deceleration. No nosewheel steering available; use differential braking/ rudder. Dumping (120k minus COF) Ldg Dis: Ldg Dist + 1,000' or 6,000' (training requirement)

If an immediate landing is not feasible, Propeller Low Oil indication coupled with visible propeller fluid leaks must be analyzed carefully. Why? [FM 3-21]

If an immediate landing is not feasible, Propeller Low Oil indication coupled with visible propeller fluid leaks must be analyzed carefully. The presence of a visible propeller fluid leak and/or Propeller Low Oil Warning Light may indicate that there is insufficient fluid remaining to accomplish feathering. In this instance continued operation of the engine may be the best choice. Careful consideration should be given to the adverse effects on controllability, range, and service/cruise ceiling caused by drag from a windmilling propeller.

Summarize the EP: Turbine Overheat Warning [FM 3-10]

If an overheat condition is indicated by the flashing of the master fire warning light and/or lights in a fire handle, proceed as follows: ON THE GROUND 1. Move all throttles to GROUND IDLE. (P) 2. Place condition lever to GROUND STOP. (CP) IN FLIGHT 1. Retard the throttle for the affected engine toward FLIGHT IDLE. (P) 2. Land as soon as practicable. 3. If condition persists: perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE.

Summarize the EP: Nacelle Overheat Warning [FM 3-11]

If an overheat warning is indicated by a nacelle overheat warning light on the Copilot instrument panel, proceed as follows: ON THE GROUND 1. Move all throttles to GROUND IDLE. (P) 2. Perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE. IN FLIGHT 1. Perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE.

Summarize WING/EMPENNAGE/WHEEL WELL/CARGO COMPARTMENT REFRIGERATOR OVERHEAT [FM 3-56]

If an overheat warning light or gauge indicates an overheat condition, proceed as follows: 1. See overheat chart (Figure 3-5). 2. If the overheat condition is eliminated, land as soon as practicable. 3. If the overheat persists, land as soon as possible.

Summarize the EP: High Turbine Inlet Temperature [FM 3-11]

If an overtemperature is indicated by a high turbine inlet temperature, proceed as follows: ON THE GROUND 1. Move all throttles to GROUND IDLE. (P) 2. Place the TD switch for the affected engine in the NULL position. (E) 3. If this fails to eliminate the overtemperature condition, place the condition lever in GROUND STOP. (P) IN FLIGHT WARNING If TIT is stabilized at 1083_C and throttle position is unrelated, see ENGINE SYSTEMS FAILURES in this section. 1. Retard the throttle for the affected engine toward FLIGHT IDLE. (P) 2. Place the temperature datum control switch in the NULL position. (E) 3. If condition persists, perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE.

Discuss the corrective actions for a Major Bleed Air Leak. [FM 2-55]

If bleed air is being lost from the system, the engineer will proceed as follows: 1. Engine bleed air switches on the affected wing - "CLOSED/OFF" 2. Bleed air divider valve/wing bleed air isolation valves switch(es) - "CLOSED" After isolation of a bleed air leak following a bleed air duct failure, proceed as follows: 1. Reduce airspeed to no more than 180 KIAS. 2. Operate the airplane at minimum bank angles and maneuvering loads. 3. Reduce cabin pressure to a maximum of 10 in. Hg. 4. Land as soon as possible. 5. After landing, ensure that bleed air will not be supplied to a damaged duct/component prior to starting the GTC/APU or using an external air source. If the uncontrolled loss of bleed air cannot be isolated, proceed as follows: 1. All engine bleed air switches - "CLOSED/OFF" 2. Reduce airspeed to no more than 180 KIAS. 3. Operate the airplane at minimum bank angles and maneuvering loads. 4. Land as soon as possible.

If generator failure is confirmed during ground operations, the affected engine may be shut down by placing the condition lever to ______________ in lieu of the generator disconnect procedure. [FM 3-41]

If generator failure is confirmed during ground operations, the affected engine may be shut down by placing the condition lever to ground stop in lieu of the generator disconnect procedure.

If it becomes necessary to place a generator switch to the OFF position that is GCU controlled, that generator __________________________. Generator disconnect is advisable. [FM 3-41]

If it becomes necessary to place a generator switch to the OFF position that is GCU controlled, that generator will not be able to be monitored. Generator disconnect is advisable.

If it becomes necessary to place a generator switch to the OFF position that is GCU controlled, that generator will not be able to be monitored. _______________________ advisable. [FM 3-41]

If it becomes necessary to place a generator switch to the OFF position that is GCU controlled, that generator will not be able to be monitored. Generator disconnect is advisable.

Fuselage Fire/ Smoke and Fume Elimination If passengers are aboard and oxygen equipment is not available for them, _____________________________________ before depressurizing the airplane. [FM 3-51]

If passengers are aboard and oxygen equipment is not available for them, descend to a lower altitude before depressurizing the airplane.

Summarize Propeller Fails To Feather [FM 2-24]

If propeller fails to feather, a landing can be made with it windmilling. The drag will be greater than with a feathered propeller and high RPM and noise may be experienced. WARNING It may be necessary to reduce power on the symmetrically opposite engine to maintain directional control. If propeller rotation continues after feathering, proceed as follows: CAUTION If the engine was shut down using the fire handle pull the ignition control circuit breaker to prior to resetting the fire handle, otherwise inadvertent ignition may occur. 1. Fire handle - Reset (if pulled and no indication of fire exists). 2. Feather override button -- Hold in for 30 seconds, then pull out. 3. If airspeed is less than 150 KTAS, attain 150 KTAS (if possible). 4. Land as soon as practicable. WARNING Maintain airspeed above Vmca2 until the landing is assured. A go-around should not be attempted if airspeed is below Vmca2. Go-around with a windmilling propeller may be marginal.

What does it mean to you if the controlling CFL is Balanced CFL? Unbalanced CFL? [1-1 3-14,15; 3-59; 3-63]

If the controlling CFL is Balanced CFL and you lose an engine, then you know you will have the ability to stop the aircraft. If the controlling CFL is Unbalanced CFL and you lose an engine, then you may not have the ability to stop the aircraft if you are above the lesser of Vmcg of Vrot. You are committed to takeoff. Unbalanced CFL accelerate-stop distances are scheduled to and from Vrot when Vrot is less than Vmcg. This is based on the premise that if an engine failure occurs after Vrot but before Vmcg then the airplane is capable of a safe takeoff on the remaining available engines.

For Fuel Quantity Indicator Failure If the fuel quantity indicator goes to off scale high or off scale low, fails to press to test, or is inoperative. What do you do? [FM 3-34]

If the fuel quantity indicator goes to off scale high or off scale low, fails to press to test, or is inoperative, pull the associated fuel quantity indicator circuit breaker.

Why is it desirable to operate a pitch-locked propeller in an under-speed condition (96% to 98% RPM)?

If the propeller tries to govern itself, it will reduce blade angle to attain 100% RPM. This ensures a more positive pitch-lock.

In Low Speed Ground Idle, the generator out light will be _______.

Illuminated -Because RPM is low therefore the generator Hz (cycles) are out of limit. FE will have the APU generator on during taxi in Low speed Ground Idle.

What are you initially looking for if an AC BUS OFF light is illuminated? [FM 3-38]

Illumination of AC Bus OFF Light Corrective Action: 1. If the affected generator OUT light is also illuminated, place the generator switch to OFF. a. Ensure that another generator assumes the bus and the AC Bus OFF Light extinguishes. b. Perform the generator disconnect procedure for the generator that was turned off. c. Land as soon as practicable. 2. If the affected generator OUT light is not illuminated and systems associated with the failed bus are operating normally, verify normal voltage, frequency and load indications for the affected generator. a. If voltage, frequency and load are normal, continue operation. The bus OFF indication is a result of a failed bus OFF indicator relay. b. Monitor the affected generator and the systems associated with the AC bus for any further indications of failure. The EP continues with further troubleshooting...

An AC BUS OFF light illuminates. Which EP do call for? [FM 3-38]

Illumination of AC Bus OFF Light or Partial Loss of the Essential AC Bus Caution: If the Essential AC Bus OFF light illuminates, check for indications of a partial loss of the Essential AC Bus (secondary indications). If secondary indications are present, proceed with PARTIAL LOSS OF THE ESSENTIAL AC BUS procedures. If no indications are present, continue with ILLUMINATION OF AN AC BUS OFF LIGHT procedures.

What do you do if a generator out light illuminates? [FM 3-41]

Illumination of the Generator Out Light Gen out, check it out! Check Frequency, Volts and Load. -If normal, continue operation -If Frequency and Volts are normal but no load, monitor the generator. If Frequency and Volt indications are lost, disconnect using the Generator Disconnect Procedure. -If no Frequency, Volts or Load are indicated, attempt to reset the generator. If unsuccessful, disconnect using the Generator Disconnect Procedure.

In-flight failure of the reverse current relay connecting the essential and isolated DC buses will be indicated by illumination of the ________________________ and/or a ______________________________. Which EP do you call for? What do you do if you recieve these indications? [FM 3-43]

Illumination of the Isolated DC Bus On Battery Light In-flight failure of the reverse current relay connecting the essential and isolated DC buses will be indicated by illumination of the ISOL DC ON BAT light and/or a battery voltmeter indication of 24 volts or less. If these indications are observed, battery power conservationmeasuresmust be initiated.An assessment of flight conditions and electrical power requirements should be made to determinewhat battery and isolatedDCpowered items maybe turned off to conserve battery power. Land the aircraft as soon as possible.

What are the three functions of the syncrophaser?

In Normal Governing: 1. Speed (RPM) Stabalization (dampens prop movement) 2. Throttle Anticipation (quicker prop reaction to throttle) With a Master Engine selected: 3. Synchrophasing (Reduce noise and vibration)

Where is the Prop Low Oil Light float switch located? When does the Prop Low Oil Light illuminate?

In the Pressurized Sump. When the pressurized sump is 2 quarts low.

Where is hand pump pressure indicated?

In the back but not on the cockpit gauge

Why don't you turn the hydraulic pump off with pressure between 3,500 and 3,900 psi? [FM 3-63]

In the event utility or booster hydraulic pressure in excess of 3,500 psi is indicated (failed hyd pump compensator), do not shut off the individual hyd pump switches. If the shutoff valves are closed, the pressure between the hyd pump and shutoff valve is isolated from its means of pressure control. Excess pressure may build in the system.

Describe the Engine and APU fire detector

Inconnel tubing is used to compare electrical resistance between it's inner and outer portion. The tubing is routed around the engine and APU.

Name the EP: Engine oil temp is increasing out of limits or trending in that direction. [FM 3-11]

Increasing Oil Temperature For corrective action to be taken in case of increasing oil temperature, see ENGINE OIL SYSTEM FAILURE.

Summarize Increasing Pressure (EMERGENCY OPERATION OF CABIN PRESSURIZATION SYSTEM) [FM 3-60]

Increasing pressure can result from failure of the outflow valve in a closed or nearly closed position when it cannot be opened either by automatic or manual control methods. In this case, cabin pressure might increase at an excessive rate and could not be reduced by normal means. If this condition is encountered, proceed as follows: 1. Immediately shut off engine bleed air, one engine at a time, until the rate of pressure increase is at a safe (comfortable) value. 2. Control pressure by using engine bleed air as necessary to vary the amount of conditioned air supplied for pressurization. 3. If necessary for further control when descending, one of the air conditioning systems can be shut down to expedite depressurization of the airplane.

Where are the ice detectors located?

Inside the #2 and #3 engine inlets. There may be detectors installed in the other inlets but they are not hooked up.

What is the Isobaric Range and the Differential Range? Approximately what altitude does the aircraft cross between these ranges? (Not penguins)

Isobaric Range: Altitude where cabin pressure remains constant. Differential Range: Altitude where cabin pressure changes with altitude. The C-130 crosses from Isobaric to Differential at approximately 18,000 ft.

How does the enrichment function work? What controls it?

It bypasses the metering section of the fuel pump to induce more FF to the manifold for start. Controlled by the speed sensitive control.

What is the function of the speed sensitive control?

It contains 3 fly weights which are used to monitor and control various functions of the engine during start and the TD system. -16% - G-PIED On -65% - PIED Off -94% - TD Function Controls: -Geneva lock -Pump paralleling valve -Ignition -Enrichment valve -Drip valve Geneva Lock = Fuel Shutoff Valve on the Engine Fuel Control

When will the Secondary Fuel Pump Pressure Light be illuminated? What does it indicate?

It illuminates when the pump paralleling valve is closed or if fuel pressure builds between the secondary and primary fuel pumps. During start, this indicates normal operation. Above 65% RPM, this indicates primary fuel pump failure.

Describe asymmetric flaps

It is a malfunction in which the torque tube breaks and the flaps are stopped by the emergency flap brake. In this malfunction, the flaps are not actually asymmetric. Asymmetry was prevented by the brakes.

Why is the max torque of the engine limited to 19,600?

It is based on the 3 Lord Mounts which attach the engine to the nacelle as well as 2 of the four truss mounts which attach the nacelle to the wing.

How is the feather pump driven? Why? How is it actuated?

It is electrically driven (ESS AC Bus) to provide pressurized oil when the mechanical driven main and standby pumps aren't operating. 1. Provides oil for air start 2. Ensure the prop can go to feather Actuated by going to feather or air start on the condition lever.

How is the APU bleed air valve operated and controlled?

It is operated from the ISOL DC bus -Not Ess DC like most valve because it needs battery power to start -Solenoid controlled, energized to the open position

What does the NTS switch control?

It just controls the NTS light. Not the actual system. NTS= Remain illuminated after NTS occurs. Valve= Only illuminates while NTS is active (flashes)

When may an acceleration check time be required for a normal takeoff? [1-1 3-39 & 3-40]

It may be required if Critical Field Length (CFL) is equal to or nearly equal but less than Runway Available (RA). -Acceleration Check Time must be computed when Vr is less than Vto. -A Normal Takeoff is used if RA is greater than or equal to CFL. -Vrot is 5 knots less than the greater of Vmca1in or or Vto.

How does the fuel water removal system operate?

Jet pumps are driven by suction from the boost pump pressure. Piping goes from the lowest point in the fuel tank to the surge box. The boost pump then takes it to the engine. The engine is unaffected by water in the fuel mixture.

What are the landing gear EPs? [FM 3-72 to 3-88 and 3-99 to 3-101]

LANDING GEAR SYSTEM FAILURE -Overriding the landing gear selector valve -Manual gear extension (main gear) -Emergency hydraulic extension (nose gear) -NLG manual extension with complete loss of hyd press -MLG extension with NORM and EMER fail -Failure of touchdown switch, relay, or lock release -Emergency retraction (main gear) -MLG tiedown TIRE FAILURE -MLG tire failure -NLG tire failure LANDING GEAR RETRACTED -Landing with one or both MLG retracted -Landing with NLG retracted and MLG down -Gear up landing -Loss of nosewheel steering during landing -Landiing with cocked nosewheel Nosewheel shimmy

Which generator primarily powers each AC bus?

LEMR Gen 1 - LH AC Bus Gen 2 - Ess AC Bus Gen 3 - Main AC Bus Gen 4 - RH AC Bus

What powers each of the pumps in the fuel system? The fuel quantity indicators? The fuel pressure indicator? The fuel valves? Dump Valves?

LH AC: -#1 Main Pump -L Ext Fwd Pump Ess AC: -#2 Main Pump Main AC: -#3 Main Pump -Aux Pump x2 (Dump) -Left & Right Ext Aft Pumps x 2 (Dump) -Dump Pumps x 8 (4 dedicated) RH AC: -#4 Main Pump -R Ext Fwd Pump Ess DC: Fuel Valves Dump Valves AC Inst & Eng Fuel Contr: Fuel Quantity Indicators Stepdown Transformer #1: -Fuel Pressure Indicator

Name the EP: loss or erratic operation of equipment powered by the Copilot AC Instruments Bus or the AC Instrument and Engine Fuel Control Bus, or by illumination of the Selected Power Out light. [FM 3-43]

LOSS OF SECONDARY AC SYSTEMS

On which bus is the Landing Gear Control circuit breaker located? The Flap Control?

Landing Gear Control - Ess DC Flap Control - Main DC Memory Aid: Gear is ESSENTIAL for landing the plane. We MAINLY land the plane with flaps.

What are the airspeed limits for the Landing Gear Ramp Cargo Door Paratroop Air Deflector Paratroop Doors

Landing Gear: 165 KIAS Ramp: 150 KIAS Cargo Door: 185 KIAS Paratroop Air Deflectors: 150 KIAS Paratroop Door: 150 (transit)/ 250 (open) [FM 5-15]

For 1700 series aircraft, what systems are on each side of the bleed air manifold?

Left Side (FLAAMEEE): -Flt Deck AC -Leading Edge Anti-ice -Automatic pressurization (Cabin Pressure Outflow Valve) -APU Bleed Air (Ground Only) -Manifold Pressure (Bleed Air Pressure Gauge) -Empennage Anti-Ice -Engine Starter/ Anti-ice -External Air Connection (ground only) Right Side (CLUE): -Cargo compartment air conditioning -Leading Edge Anti-Ice -Underfloor heat -Eng Starter/Anti-Ice

What are the power sources for the pilot and copilot TCAS?

Left: Ess AC Right: Main AC

On 1700 series aircraft, which air condition is on the left of the divider valve? Which is on the right?

Left: Flight deck AC and pressurization Right: Cabin AC and pressurization

Actions for Peak Starting TIT: Less than 720: ___________ 721 to 750: ___________ 751 to 830: ________ 831 to 850: ___________ Greater than 850: _____________ Greater than 965: _______________

Less than 720: Stop Start, Mx req'd 721 to 750: Record, Temp Contr Check, Mx req'd 751 to 830: Normal 831 to 850: Record Greater than 850: Stop Start, 1 restart Greater than 965: Stop Start, Mx Inspection [FM 5-7, 5-8]

Which EP do you call for in the event of lightning strike or suspected lightning strike? Summarize it. [FM 3-50]

Lightning Strike While Airborne Checklist In the event of a lightning strike, or suspected lightning strike, all electrical components should be checked for operation. Flight instruments should be checked for warning flags. If they are present, alternate navigation and attitude references should be used. Each communication system should be checked for proper operation. A safety check shall be conducted to include an operational check of the CASPER turret (if installed). Completion of a controllability check may be advisable. Consideration should be given to terminating the mission following a known or suspected lightning strike. CAUTION If abnormal operation is detected or suspected on any navigation/communication system, isolate the system by pulling the circuit breaker. then After Landing Following a Lightning Strike Checklist -Basically, do an inspection and record

What risk is warranted for logistics missions? [3710 1-8]

Logistics missions that have little or no urgency shall not be prosecuted if they expose the aircraft to hazards greater than those encountered during the course of routine training missions.

What aircraft systems will be operable in the event of Loss of Electrical Systems? [FM 3-37]

Loss of Electrical Systems The possibility of the loss of all electrical systems is very remote. In the event of a complete loss of electrical power, the following systems will be operable. a. Flight instruments: (1) Altimeter (CP only), Airspeed Indicator (pointer only), Attitude Director Indicator (slip indicator portion), Accelerometer b. Engines and Propellers: (1) Engine shutdown can be accomplished only by placing condition lever to FEATHER. (2) Throttle control only (TD valves LOCKED - no overtemp protection) (3) Propellers will go to MECHANICAL GOVERNING c. Anti-icing and Deicing: (1) Engine d. Pressurization and Air Conditioning (CG 1500 series) e. Flight Controls: (1) Normal boost (Rudder boost pressure reduced to low boost) (2) Wing flaps (Hydraulic override) NOTE Due to loss of power to the trim tab system, a no flap landing should be considered, taking into account aircraft weight, runway length, and environmental conditions. f. Fuel available from main tanks g. Normal brake system (no anti-skid) h. Nosewheel steering i. Landing gear system (hydraulic override) j. Emergency lights k. Oxygen system l. Aft cargo door and ramp system (manual)

Summarize Decreasing Pressure (EMERGENCY OPERATION OF CABIN PRESSURIZATION SYSTEM) [FM 3-60]

Loss of ability to pressurize or maintain pressurization on either automatic or manual control may result from any of several causes. If this situation is encountered, proceed as follows: 1. The crew should don oxygen masks immediately. 2. Descend to or maintain an airplane altitude where oxygen is not required. WARNING Consideration should be given to range with or without use of oxygen before descent. 3. Check for excessive cabin leakage by checking doors, windows, hatches, and the safety valve. WARNING Do not attempt to lock or unlock any window, door, or hatch while the airplane is pressurized. First, depressurize the airplane; then turn the AIR CONDITIONING master switch to "AUX VENT." 4. Check the bleed air system for excessive external leakage. Turn off all pneumatic systems, and observe the bleed air pressure gauge. Shut off all engine bleed air, and time the bleed air system pressure drop from 65 to 35 psi. The time required for the pressure to drop from 65 to 35 psi should not be less than 16 seconds.

What types of malfunctions can cause MULTIPLE ENGINE POWER LOSS/RPM ROLLBACK? [FM 3-41]

Loss of positive fuel boost pressure, fuel system malfunction, or non--standard fuel management techniques can cause erratic engine performance or fuel starvation, leading to serious reductions in power output or flameout of multiple engines. Electrical system malfunctions that introduce abnormally low voltage to the Essential AC Bus can cause the four temperature datum amplifiers to malfunction, producing multiple engine torque reductions of up to 1,600 inch pounds per engine. Low voltage, Electromagnetic Interference (EMI), or other electrical malfunctions can also cause the synchrophaser to reduce propeller RPM by a maximum of four percent. This may occur with or without torque or other engine instrument fluctuations caused by other system reactions to the low voltage. Low or fluctuating AC voltage can also cause erroneous instrument indications, which can be misinterpreted as actual fluctuations. TIT, torque, and fuel flow may be affected, as well as other systems on the affected bus.

Engine RPM: Low Speed Ground Idle: ____________ Normal Ground Idle: _____________ Flight Idle: _________________ Take-off (Flight Range): _______________ Max Reverse: ________________ Fuel Topping: ________________

Low Speed Ground Idle: 69 to 75.5% Normal Ground Idle: 94 to 102% Flight Idle: 92.5 to 100.5% (Fuel Contr maintains 94%) Take-off (Flight Range): 98 to 102% Max Reverse: 96 to 106% Fuel Topping: 103.5% [FM 5-7]

What are the RPM limits? [FM 5-7]

Low-speed ground idle: 69% to 75.5% Ground idle: 94% to 102% Max reverse: 96% tp 106% Flight idle: 92.5% to 100.5% Flight normal: 98% to 102% Pitch lock prop: 96% to 98% Cyclic variation: +or- 0.5%

The MAINT Light Illuminates on the Chip Detector System. Which EP do you call for? Summarize the EP. [FM 3-30]

MAINT Warning Light Should the MAINT warning light illuminate, the mission may be continued at the PIC's discretion. The engine should bevmonitoredvfor any secondary indications. If any secondary indications are experienced perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE.

What happens when the condition lever is moved to feather?

MEMEI: -Mechanically/Electrically closes Geneva Lock -Mechanically/Electrically feathers prop -Ignition control de-energized Geneva Lock = Fuel Shutoff Valve on the Engine Fuel Control

What are the type of Marine Location Markers and what are their burn times? [FM 2-115]

MK-25: 13 to 18 minutes MK-58: 40 to 60 minutes

Which bus powers the anti-skid?

Main DC

Name the DC buses in the electrical system

Main DC bus Essential DC bus Isolated bus Battery bus

What are the main boost pump pressure limits? The aux and external boost pump pressure limits?

Main: 15 to 24 psi Aux and Ext: 28 to 40 psi

What must be done during fuel tank trimming?

Maintain two engines on tank-to-engine flow [FM 2-141]

What is the first thing you should do in the event of a flap system failure?

Match the flap lever to the indicated position.

With a major bleed air leak, to what pressure differential does the plane need to be reduced?

Maximum of 10 in. Hg [FM 3-55]

What are the two modes of propeller governing? Describe them.

Mechanical governing: Uses speeder spring and fly-weight (has some lag after throttle movement). Normal governing: synchrophaser does the work 1. Speed (RPM) Stabalization (dampens prop movement) 2. Throttle Anticipation (quicker prop reaction to throttle) Syncrophaser also does: 3. Synchrophasing (Reduce noise and vibration)

Vmca

Minimum Controllable Airspeed -Based on rudder authority

Min field length for Max effort take-off

Minimum field length for Vmeto is defined as the length of runway which is required to accelerate to Vr, experience and eng failure, and stop or continue acceleration to 1.2 x power-on stall speed in the remaining runway. [1-1 3-31]

What aural warnings does the GPWS provide? [1-D 3-15]

Mode 1 (Excessive Sink Rate): SINK RATE or PULL UP - All configurations based on altitude. Mode 2 (Excessive Closure Rate): TERRAIN or PULL UP - Active when flaps are above 50%. Mode 3 (Descent After Takeoff): DON'T SINK Mode 4A (Proximity to Terrain, Gear Up): TOO LOW TERRAIN or TOO LOW GEAR - Based on speed and altitude. Mode 4B (Proximity to Terrain, Flaps Up): TOO LOW TERRAIN or TOO LOW FLAPS - Based on speed and altitude. Mode 5 (Descent Below Glide Slope): BELOW G/S Mode 6 (Descent Below Minimums): MINIMUMS MINIMUMS - Based on Radar Altimeter setting.

Placing the engine condition lever to GROUND STOP on the ground closes the ________.

Motor-operated fuel control shutoff valve (Geneva Lock)

When will acceleration check time be computed?

Must be computed when Vr is less than Vto [1-1 3-33 & 10-4]

During In-Flight Door Warning, what are the considerations in regards to range? [FM 3-53]

NOTE: If range is an important consideration, and passengers without supplemental oxygen are not being carried, the PIC may elect to have the airplane depressurized and the door inspection made at altitude. Oxygen duration increases if NORMAL is selected.

What are the discrete indications?

NTS Prop Oil ENRCH Pump Off (for Aux Pump)

Name the EP: Nacelle overheat warning light on the Copilot instrument panel [FM 3-11]

Nacelle Overheat Warning

Do hydraulic filters bypass when they are clogged?

No

Is there any fire extinguishing capability in the turbine area?

No

What are your considerations for a no flap landing?

No Flap Landing Considerations (FLAPS) -Flare: Minimal flare. High Attitude. -Landing Gear "Below 139" for NW (Nav Call) -A/S: 160 DW/Base; 150 or Vapp Dog Leg/Final to landing assured -Place the GPWS Flaps to OVRD -Sweep --No NWS - Cover on wheel --EMER Brakes --No Anti-Skid --Hyd Syst Switches - OFF --GPWS FLAPS - OVRD --WING FLAP CTRL CB - Pull --Flaps - 20% (High Rudder Boost) --Reversing, FE Call "Below 100"

Can you verify hydraulic system check valve function when you start the second engine operating a hyd system?

No because the switches are wired directly to the light. -Check valves prevent pressure from flowing backwards to the other pressure switch (i.e. 1 to 2 / 4 to 3) -Therefore, you can verify functionality when the first engine is started but not the second. [FM 1-145]

Effect of Wind on Range No correction to air miles per pound of fuel is required for headwinds less than __ knots. If headwinds of more than __ knows are encountered. increasing the cruise TAS by __ knots for every 10 knots above __ knots will result in operating the airplane near the maximum nautical miles per pound of fuel. [1-1 5-11]

No correction to air miles per pound of fuel is required for headwinds less than 70 knots. If headwinds of more than 70 knows are encountered. increasing the cruise TAS by 4 knots for every 10 knots above 70 knots will result in operating the airplane near the maximum nautical miles per pound of fuel.

How long can a crew member be assigned to alert duty? [3710 3-12]

No more than 24 consecutive hours.. 12 hours if adequate crew rest facilities are not available.

Oxygen Requirements: No pressurization and no xygen available: Limited to _______ ft provided it does not remain above ______ ft for more than ___ minutes. If no O2 masks are availalbe to passengers: Limited to ________. O2 masks will be readily available for all crew members above ______.

No pressurization and no xygen available: Limited to 12,000 ft provided it does not remain above 10,000 ft for more than 30 minutes. If no O2 masks are availalbe to passengers: Limited to FL 250. O2 masks will be readily available for all crew members above FL 180.

Your TOLD calculations result in a Vr of 100 and a Vrot of 98. Tower clears you to takeoff and informs you that winds are down the runway at 10 gusting to 15 knots. Is this a refusal based takeoff? How should you adjust your takeoff procedure? [1-1 3-12, 3-24, TOPS-7]

No, it is not a refusal based takeoff. Vrot should be increased by full gust increment not to exceed 10 knots. Since the newly adjusted Vrot is greater than Vr, conduct a normal takeoff. The "rotate" call will be made 5 knots below the greater of Vmca1in or Vto without gust factor. However, rotate the aircraft 5 knots below the newly adjusted takeoff speed with the gust factor applied. Note: Any emergency after the "rotate" call will be considered an airborne emergency.

Do EMER brakes provide anti-skid?

No. Anti-skid is only available with normal brakes.

What does NESA stand for?

Non-Electrostatic Formulation A

The Temp Datum system is in NULL. What feature is the TD system providing to the engine?

None The NULL position removes AC power from the control system amplifier and the TD, valve receiving no control signals, returns its null position so that it does not correct the fuel flow according to the turbine Inlet temperature. FM 1-25

Discuss the difference between normal and tactical take-off

Normal Take-off -Vrot < Vr -CFL < or = RA Tactical Take-off -Vr < Vrot -RA < CFL Tactical Take-offs disregard Vmcg when Vr is less than Vrot. You need CO approval for a tactical take-off for Vr < Vrot because it is an actual number. CFL is theoretical.

Normal landing configuration is ____________. Aircrews shall carefully consider any landing at greater than _________ pounds using less than ___________ flaps. The minimum field length for a normal landing is _________________________ ___________________________. Normal landings should be planned as if ____________ was not available. This should not preclude the use of __________ during the landing ground roll. [FM 2-60]

Normal landing configuration is 100 percent flaps. Aircrews shall carefully consider any landing at greater than 130,000 pounds using less than 100 percent flaps. The minimum field length for a normal landing is the landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle with all four engines in ground idle and max braking available for the existing runway conditions. Normal landings should be planned as if reversing was not available. This should not preclude the use of reverse during the landing ground roll.

During Fuselage Fire/ Smoke and Fume Elimination, if cockpit visibility is obscured, use of _______________ should be considered. [FM 3-51]

Note: If cockpit visibility is obscured, use of autopilot should be considered.

For Operation with Fuel Boost Pump Failure Note: When operating in tank-to-engine position with an inoperative boost pump, avoid rapid _____________ or ________________. Descents should be made with minimum nose down attitude. If a high rate of descent is required, it is advisable to select ______________ operation. [FM 3-33]

Note: When operating in tank-to-engine position with an inoperative boost pump, avoid rapid acceleration or nose low attitudes. Descents should be made with minimum nose down attitude. If a high rate of descent is required, it is advisable to select cross-feed operation.

Which components are on the engine accessory drive?

OFFSS: 1. Oil pumps 2. Fuel pumps 3. Fuel control 4. Speed sensitive valve 5. Speed sensing control

Summarize the EP: START VALVE OPEN LIGHT ILLUMINATION (1700 SERIES) [FM 3-9]

ON THE GROUND: 1. Move all throttles to GROUND IDLE. 2. Move the condition lever to GROUND STOP for the affected engine. 3. Place the affected bleed air regulator to OFF. IN FLIGHT: 1. Perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE.

What are the positions of the Bleed Air Regulator Valves? What is the function of each position? (1700 series)

OVRD: Valve open to the full position ON: Regulates pressure to approx 50 psi OFF: Valve closed

Vobs

Obstacle clearance speed -1.2 x power off stall speed -Cannot be less than Vmca. (aka Vx - best angle of climb) [1-1 3-24]

Do not operate the landing light for prolonged periods while the plane is ____________ since the light has no cooling facility. Landing lights should be used below ______ feet and _____ KIAS. Do not exceed ____ KIAS when operating the landing light

On the ground [FM 1-193] 10,000 ft, 250 KIAS [FM 2-53] 250 KIAS [FM 5-15]

When is asymmetric flap protection provided?

Only during normal operation of the flaps (using Main DC and Utility Hyd). Protection not provided when the flaps are selected to the EMER power position. [FM 3-68]

What does the green DISC FIRED light indicate?

Only that the mechanism has fired. Not that the generator was actually disconnected.

What does the BOOSTER OFF light on the hydraulic shut-off valve panel indicate?

Only that you flipped the switch. Not that the valve closed.

When the Aux system is turned on, which gauges should move?

Only the Aux & Emer Brake. If others move then the ground test (tie) valve is stuck open

Which tanks can be gravity fueled?

Only the mains

What should you consider prior to isolating the ESS DC bus?

Open the oil cooler flaps [FM 3-47]

Define WARNING [FM xi]

Operating procedure, technique, etc., which will result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed.

Define NOTE [FM xi]

Operating procedure, techniques, etc., which are considered essential to emphasize.

Define CAUTION [FM xi]

Operating procedure, techniques, etc., which will result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed.

How to you calculate your lead radial turn inbound during an arcing approach?

Option 1: 1. 60/arc DME x 1% of Ground Speed = lead radial 2. Begin a 1/2 standard rate turn to intercept (pilot math: 1% = move the decimal place left 2 places/ 170 = 1.7 or approximately 2) Option 2: 1. 60/arc DME x 0.05% of Ground Speed = lead radial 2. Begin a standard rate turn to intercept (pilot math: 0.5% = move the decimal place left 2 places then divide by 2 / 180 = 0.9 or approximately 1)

How much fuel will remain in each tank after dumping?

Outboard: 2,100 lbs Inboard: 1,800 lbs Externals: 65 lbs Aux: Empty (Indicators will be inaccurate at these levels) Use ages to remember these. 0-born; 18-vote; 21-drink; 65; retire [FM 1-63]

What happens when Aux Vent is selected on the pressurization panel?

Outside enters the cabin through the valves in the AC systems. Of note, the air is not air conditioned. It will be the temp of the OAT.

Generator Out Light illuminates at... (not a penguin) [FM 1-74]

Over-voltage: >130 VAC Under-voltage: <95 VAC Over-frequency: >440 Hz Under-frequency: <365 Hz Feeder Fault

What are PCN and ACN? What is the relationship between the two numbers?

PCN: Pavement Classification Number: -1st 2 or 3 digits: 1 to 100 based on rwy strength. -1st letter: F for Flexible pavement (asphalt) or R for Rigid pavement (concrete). -2nd letter: Subgrade - A to D - Best to worst -3rd letter: Tire pressure (W-None, X-218 psi, Y-145 psi, Z-73 psi) 4th letter: How PCN was derived (T-Technical data; U-Experienced by user aircraft) ACN: Aircraft Classification Number -Load classification based on main landing gear -FM 5-31 or 5-32 ACN must be less than the first two digits of PCN

What are the steps in the ORM PEACE and STAAR models? [2017 Clearwater ORGMAN 9-4 & 9-5]

PEACE: Planning Event Asset Communications Environment STAAR: Spread Out Transfer Avoid Accept Reduce

State the On Runway Touch and Go Checklist

PF: "Check/set flaps 50" PM: "Flaps are tracking" PM: "Flaps are 50, trim is set, throttles" FE "5, 10, 15" PM "Rotate"

State the After Take-Off Touch and Go Checklist

PF: "We'll stay configured, After Take-off Touch and Go Checklist" or Positive rate, gear up." "Flaps up, After Take-off Touch and Go Checklist." PM: "Landing gear is _____________" "Flaps are _____________" "Landing light panel is set" "GPWS switches are NORM" "After Take-off Touch and Go Checks complete P or CP"

You recieve one or more of the following indications. Which EP do you call for? 1. Failure of normal brakes (if on the ground). 2. Erratic autopilot operation (if in use). 3. Loss or malfunction of heading indication. 4. Auxiliary hydraulic pump failure. 5. Illumination or flickering of the No. 2 fuel boost pump low-pressure warning light. 6. Illumination of a hydraulic suction boost pump light. 7. Illumination of the essentialACbusOFF light,which remains illuminated after the affected generator is turned off (another generator does not assume the bus load). 8. Loss of propeller synchrophaser. 9. Illumination of the pitot heat off lights. (HR series - rosemount)

Partial Loss of the Essential AC Bus [FM 3-40]

State the PF crew briefing for the Before Landing Touch and Go Checklist

Pass the controls and approach brief as necessary. "This will be a 50 to 50/ 50 to 100. Speeds are ____________" "On the runway, I'll call check/set flaps 50. Reset my flaps and trim. Call for throttles. Engineer, call 5, 10, 15. Call rotate at ____. Reject prior to the 4 board; take it airborne after the 4 board. Brief complete. Any questions?"

At what speeds and altitudes are the drop patterns usually performed? (This is review; refer to the checklist) [FM 2-119]

Pattern: -No lower than 300 feet in the turns -Max 30 degree AOB -Speed 135, 145 or 150 based on weight Final: -200 feet (50 feet for free fall drops) -Speed: 130, 135, or 140 based on weight

The generator OUT light will illuminate when the generator is in the ON position and one or more of the following conditions exist: [FM 3-41]

Per the book: -the generator is not developing sufficient voltage -the generator output voltage is too high -the engine RPM is too low -the generator frequency is too high -or a fault exists in the generator output circuit (a feeder fault exists.) ---- Summary: High or Low Frequency High or Low Voltage Feeder Fault ---- Numbers (not penguins) Over-voltage: >130 VAC Under-voltage: <95 VAC Over-frequency: >440 Hz Under-frequency: <365 Hz

Scenario: After the engines are shut down you receive a Nacelle Overheat. What do you do?

Perform the ESP then perform the Ground Evacuation Checklist if the issue is not resolved. This is a gotcha because it is not the obvious since the engines are already shutdown.

RPM increases to approximately 103%. What may have happened?

Pitchlock or a syncrophaser issue. Select MECH GOV and perform the pitchlock check procedure. [FM 3-22]

What needs to be completed prior to isolating the ESS DC bus?

Place the oil cooler flaps to open/fixed [FM 3-47]

If hydraulic pressure is lost after repositioning the landing gear lever, immediately ______________ (Unofficial bold face) [FM 3-72]

Place/ check the gear handle in the UP position and pull the landing gear control CB (Copilot lower CB panel) -The landing gear selector valve will move to the trail center position when the gear is up. -Prevents the valve from being stuck in the down position and continuing to leak -You will not have use of the nose wheel steering although the remainder of the utility hyd functions will still work.

Points of major importance concerning a pitchlocked propeller are: 1. A pitchlocked propeller may not feather. 2. If at least ___ percent RPM cannot be maintained by throttle advancement when slowing to 150KTAS, it can be assumed that blade angle is ______ and shutdown at higher airspeed will produce an ___________ _______________ _________________ ______________. 3. If RPM can be maintained at 150 KTAS, blade angle is probably _______ ____ _______ the low pitch stop. In this case, shutdown at higher true airspeed would produce excessive drag or overspeed. [FM 3-23]

Points of major importance concerning a pitchlocked propeller are: 1. A pitchlocked propeller may not feather. 2. If at least 96 percent RPM cannot be maintained by throttle advancement when slowing to 150KTAS, it can be assumed that blade angle is high and shutdown at higher airspeed will produce an acceptable windmilling drag and RPM. 3. If RPM can be maintained at 150 KTAS, blade angle is probably near or at the low pitch stop. In this case, shutdown at higher true airspeed would produce excessive drag or overspeed.

Points of major importance concerning a pitchlocked propeller are: [FM 3-23]

Points of major importance concerning a pitchlocked propeller are: 1. A pitchlocked propeller may not feather. 2. If at least 96 percent RPM cannot be maintained by throttle advancement when slowing to 150KTAS, it can be assumed that blade angle is high and shutdown at higher airspeed will produce an acceptable windmilling drag and RPM. 3. If RPM can be maintained at 150 KTAS, blade angle is probably near or at the low pitch stop. In this case, shutdown at higher true airspeed would produce excessive drag or overspeed.

Chair fly Propeller malfuntion during takeoff. When: Before Vr After Vr Possible Indications: -Prop Low Light -RPM Outside Allowable Limits [FM 3-21 to 3-22]

Possible Indications: •Prop Low Light •RPM Outside Allowable Limits Before Vr: ABORT PROCEDURE After Vr: •Don't touch the throttle. •Continue takeoff and while maintaining directional control. •Warning: Reduce symmetrical power as necessary •Gear "Gear Up" •Flaps 20 "Flaps 20%" •Vmca2 •Flaps Up "Flaps Up" •3 Eng Climb •Call for the appropriate Propeller Malfunctions During Flight checklist. •"Propeller Low Oil Warning Light Illumination" •"RPM Outside Allowable Limits (w/o Prop Low Oil Light Illuminated)" •"AFTER TAKEOFF CHECKLIST" Note: Propeller malfunctions during takeoff may be difficult to analyze at this most critical phase. If the engine is shut down immediately and the propeller fails to feather, it is possible that higher than normal minimum control speed may result. When fire is not indicated, it is recommended that the engine be allowed to run until at least Vmca2 is reached. Warning: During takeoff it may be necessary to reduce power on the symmetrically opposite engine to achieve directional control. As airspeed increases this power should be restored as directional control permits. Warning: It is important to attain two engine minimum control speed as soon as possible and prior to raising the flaps above 15 percent.

Name the AC buses on the aircraft

Primary: -Essential AC bus -Main AC bus -LH AC bus -RH AC bus Secondary: -CP AC Instrument bus -AC Instrument & Eng Fuel Control Bus

During Ground Evacuation Procedure Prior to leaving the airplane, the PIC should brief ____________________________. The PIC should also direct the crew/passengers where to ________________________________________. [FM 3-13]

Prior to leaving the airplane, the PIC should brief which exit is preferred. The PIC should also direct the crew/passengers where to muster once outside the airplane.

What do you do if you have prop fluctuations greater than +or- 0.5% in flight?

Propeller Malfunctions RPM Outside Allowable Limits (Without Prop Low Oil Light Illuminated) Checklist 1. MECH GOV. Selecting MECH GOV will often correct the issue. (Reindexing the syncrophaser IAW chapter 2 procedures will sometimes correct the Normal Governing issue.) If it is in limits then continued operation is permissible. If not in limits, is immediate landing feasible? If feasible, then attain 150 KTAS and ESP. If not feasible, perform Pitchlock Check Procedure. [FM 3-22, 2-139]

NOTE: Propeller malfunctions during takeoff may be difficult to analyze at this most critical phase. If the engine is shut down immediately and the propeller fails to feather, it is possible that higher than normal minimum control speed may result. When fire is not indicated, it is recommended that the engine be allowed to run until at least_______________________ is reached. [FM 3-21]

Propeller malfunctions during takeoff may be difficult to analyze at this most critical phase. If the engine is shut down immediately and the propeller fails to feather, it is possible that higher than normal minimum control speed may result. When fire is not indicated, it is recommended that the engine be allowed to run until at least Vmca2 is reached.

Propeller reversing over _________ surfaces may cause foreign object damage to the propeller or engine compressor section. Every effort should be made to perform the propeller reverse check over ______ surfaces. [FM 2-33]

Propeller reversing over unprepared surfaces may cause foreign object damage to the propeller or engine compressor section. Every effort should be made to perform the propeller reverse check over hard surfaces.

What clearance is required for a malfunctioning or damaged aircraft with minor malfunctions and non-structural or cosmetic damage? [3710 2-9]

Proper inspection of the aircraft by competent maintenance personnel and the results reported to home station's engineering officer or other qualified maintenance officer. If the engineering officer or other qualified maintenance officer has evaluated it to be minor and not a threat the safety, the CO is authorized to clear the aircraft for further flight. Only in unusual circumstances should the aircraft be cleared to fly without specific approval from the CO.

What is the purpose of the APU?

Provides bleed air for ground use and electrical power for ground and in-flight use.

What is the required departure climb gradient? [3710 3-1] [FM 2-49]

Published climb gradient for departure being used with one engine inop. When no climb gradient is published, the aircraft must be able to climb at 152 feet per nautical mile (2.5%) or greater with one engine inop. 200 ft/nm in the flight manual

What significant equipment is on the RH AC Bus? [FM 1-81]

R - Ext Fwd Boost Pump P - Prop Anti-ice/ De-ice 4 - No 4 FBP

How can the highest rates of descent at slow airspeeds be achieved? [1-1 8-3]

RAPID DESCENT WITH FULL FLAPS The highest rates of descent at slow airspeeds are obtained by retarding throttles to flight idle, extending the landing gear and full flaps, and descending at flap placard speed or 145 KIAS. For this condition, fuel, time and distance to descend are shown in figure 8-4 and 8-5.

When will the RESCUE and MEDEVAC callsigns be used? [2017 Clearwater ORGMAN 9-11 & 9-12]

RESCUE: For urgent SAR MEDEVAC: Once a survivor/patient is aboard for transport to a medical facility.

What does reindexing the syncrophaser do?

RESYNC - Recenters the syncrophaser Brake and Clutch assymbly on its gear train (located in the valve housing)

What do each of the condition lever positions do? [FM 1-25]

RUN places the ignition system under control of the speed sensitive control. Energizes the ice detection system. No control over the prop in this position. AIR START is attained by holding the lever forward against spring tension. Closes the same switches closed by placing the condition lever in RUN and in addition causes the prop auxiliary feather motor to operate, thus providing pressure to unfeather the propeller. GROUND STOP closes the electrical fuel shutoff valve if the touchdown switches are closed. No control over the prop in this position. FEATHER turns on the auxiliary feather pump and mechanically and electrically energizes the feather solenoid to feather the prop. Mechanically and electrically closes the shutoff valve on the engine fuel control.

Describe the 3 relationships between Runway Available and Critical Field Length. [1-1 3-6 to 3-7] [1-1 3-37 to 3-39]

RUNWAY AVAILABLE LONGER THAN CRITICAL FIELD LENGTH (RECOMMENDED): In the case of a balanced CFL, the Vr is always higher than Vcef. This is because Vr is based on the Runway Available, while Vcef is based on the CFL. Note, also, Vcef is greater than Vmcg. The situation is similar in the case of an unbalanced CFL. In this case, the Vmcg sets the CFL, however, it is always less than Vr and Vrot. RUNWAY AVAILABLE EQUAL TO CRITICAL FIELD LENGTH (MINIMUM RECOMMENDED): In the case of a balanced CFL, the Runway Available is equal to the balanced CFL. When an engine failure occurs at the refusal point, the distance to continue a take-off on three engines is equal to the distance to stop. For this condition, Vcef is equal to Vr. When the CFL is unbalanced and is set by the Vmcg or Vrot (whichever is less), then Vmcg or Vrot is equal to Vr. The applicability of Vrot taking precedence over Vmcg as a stop speed is discussed under CRITICAL FIELD LENGTH. RUNWAY AVAILABLE LESS THAN CRITICAL FIELD LENGTH (NOT RECOMMENDED): Sheet 1 shows the case for which there is a region past the refusal point where, if an engine fails, it is not possible to either stop or continue the take-off within the remaining runway. It is impossible to select a decision/ refusal speed. Likewise, sheet 2 shows that, for an unbalanced CFL, a stop from Vmcg or Vrot can not be made within the Runway Available. It follows that the larger of Vmcg or Vrot is greater than Vr. A decision/refusal speed can not be selected. If the Runway Rvailable is less than the CFL, the airplane should be down-loaded for a safe take-off. NOTE: If the CFL is longer than the RA, for normal operation, the take-off gross weight should be reduced until CFL is equal to or less than RA. Rather than reducing weight, it may be possible to compute the CFL using the "with nose wheel steering" correction or perform a maximum effort take-off if CFL cannot be met.

Describe Syncrophasing

Reduces noise and vibration by increasing the distance between blades. It does this by slightly controlling blade angle to adjust prop phase. It is disabled in ground range.

How do you determine how long it will take to dump a given amount of fuel?

Refer to the Fuel Dumping checklist and chart in chapter 3. [FM 3-35 and 3-36]

What do you need to do if a fuel quantity indicator is failed prior to take-off?

Reference Chapter 5 of the flight manual for fuel quantity indicator requirements. [FM 5-18 to 5-20]

Practice the crew brief

Reference the ASCW GAR 2.0

How do you determine your oxygen duration?

Refernce the Oxygen Duration chart on Flight Manual page 1-207.

Vr

Refusal Speed -Based on runway available. -Defined as the max speed to which an aircraft can accelerate with engines at max power then stop with the remainder of the runway available, with 2 engines in reverse, 1 ground idle, 1 wind-milling, and max anti-skid braking. -Not to exceed 139 kts (nose tire rotation limit speed) [1-1 3-18] [1-1 10-2 TP-8]

What are the departure alternate requirements and minimums for a four-engine aircraft? [3710 3-16, 3-17]

Required when departure airport is above takeoff minimums but below approach minimums. Departure alternate must be not more than two hours from the departure airport at three-engine cruising speed computed for no wind conditions. The weather at the departure alternate must be at or above the specified weather at departure time and forecast to remain so for one hour after ETA at departure alternate. Weather must be equal to or better than published non-standard alternate minimums. If none are specified: -Non-precision: 800 ft/ 2 sm -Precision: 600 ft/ 2 sm -But not lower than the lowest compatible circling approach.

Vrot

Rotation Speed -5 kts less than the greater of charted Vmca1 in ground effect or Vto, whichever is greater.

What is the greatest limiting factor for gross weight?

Runway Available

What is RCR?

Runway Condition Reading (braking effectiveness) 23 - Dry / Good 20 - Paved/ Grooved (no standing water) (USCG usage) (Round RCR 12 up to this when applicable) 12 - Wet - Fair 05 - Icy - Poor/Nil 02 - No braking applied during landing [1-1 3-11]

What is RSC? When is CO approval required?

Runway Surface Contamination (stuff on the surface) -1 in rwy contaminant = 10 RSC --Loose, dry snow exception: -1/3 RSC up to 3 in loose, dry snow. -Greater than 3 in then 10 RSC increase per inch. -1 in= 3.3 / 2 in =6.6 / 3 in = 10 / 4 in =20 CO approval required above RSC 10.

In cruise, you notice TIT goes to approximately 830 degrees & the Electronic Fuel Correction light illuminates. What happened?

SPEED-SENSITIVE CONTROL FAILURE (SHEARED SHAFT) Likely a sheared shaft on the speed sensitive control. The TD system has thinks RPM is less than 94%. Be aware that start functions are now bad because they are also controlled by the speed sensitive control. You cannot restart if you shut down. [FM 3-26]

What are the TIT limits? [FM 5-7, 5-8]

STARTS: 200 - Ground Start 100- Enrichment start 200 - In flight start PEAK TITs: 720 or less- Stop Start-Mx 721 to 750 - record, temp contr check-Mx 750 to 830 - Normal start range Exceeds 830 - Record Exceeds 850 - Stop Start Exceeds 965 - Inspection Req'd IN FLIGHT: 1,010 - Max Continuous 1,049 - Military (30 min) 1,067 to 1,083 - Max (5 min) 1,083 - More than 5 seconds-Inspection 1,175 - Momentarily-Inspection RECOMMENDED: 970 - Rec Climb 932 - Rec Cruise

What risk is warranted for National Defense? [3710 1-17]

Sacrifice of the aircraft and crew is acceptable

What type of battery does the HC-130H have? What is it rated to? [FM 1-82]

Sealed Lead Acid Battery (SLAB) 24 volt 35 ampere-hour

The secondary fuel pump pressure light flickers or comes on steady while on cross-feed from the auxiliary or external tanks. What do you do? Which EP do you call for? What is indicated if the light extinguishes? [FM 3-26]

Secondary Fuel Pump Pressure Light Illumination If the secondary fuel pump pressure light flickers or comes on steady while on cross-feed from the auxiliary or external tanks, discontinue cross-feed. If the secondary fuel pump pressure light is extinguished, this may be an indication of a malfunctioning pressure switch, secondary pump outlet check valve in the high pressure filter assembly, or paralleling valve. Normal cross-feed operation may be resumed; closely observe fuel flow, turbine inlet temperature and torque.

Describe the fuel control system

Senses 4 things: 1) RPM x2 (94% & 103.5%) 2) Throttle position 3) Compressor inlet temp 4) Compressor inlet pressure Memory Aid: TRIP Manages: -Fuel topping: reduced FF above 103.5% RPM -Maintains a 94% RPM minimum -Low-speed ground idle: 69-75.5% --Electrical solenoid adjusts fuel topping to maintain low-speed ground idle -Provides 120% of required fuel (20% for TD system usage) [FM1-22]

When may skidding or skipping of the nosewheel occur? How can this be prevented? [FM 2-33]

Skidding or skipping of the nosewheel may develop when the airplane is turning, either because of wet pavement or because of an aft center of gravity. These conditions can be prevented by avoiding abrupt steering changes or by asymmetrical power and brake applications.

Why do we have a TD System on the HC-130H? (Not a penguin)

So the engines can burn alternate fuels while still producing the same power. This is general knowledge the is not in the flight manual.

Fuel system operation memory tool

Source: Tank Force: Pump Course: Valves Destination: Engine

You are flying with the throttles above 65 degrees when you notice the following indications: 1. momentary illumination of the secondary fuel pump pressure light 2. fuel correction light 3. TIT will not exceed start limiting temperature of approximately 830 degrees C. Which EP do you call for?

Speed Sensitive Control Failure (Sheared Shaft) [FM 3-26]

You are flying with the throttles below 65 degrees when you notice the following indications: 1. momentary illumination of the secondary fuel pump pressure light 2. TIT will not exceed start limiting temperature of 830 degrees C. Which EP do you call for?

Speed Sensitive Control Failure (Sheared Shaft) [FM 3-26]

Aircraft parking on Spot ___ shall have a wing-walker to provide clearance for the light pole. [2017 Clearwater ORGMAN 9-26]

Spot 5

When turning into spot _____, crews should request the front door lights. [2017 Clearwater ORGMAN 9-14]

Spot 6

Placing the starter switch to START opens the ______.

Start Control Valve

Describe the propeller cams

Stationary cam: Has groves which guide the rotating cam. Rotating cam: Hydraulic pressure on the front of the piston drive the rotating cam aft along the groves to increase blade angle.

What is the first step of any emergency on the ground?

Stop the aircraft. Get the book out after bold face is complete.

What are some indications that an acceleration bleed valve has malfunctioned?

Stuck open: Low power Stuck closed: compressor stall on start or high TIT when going to low speed ground idle

Never service the airplane with fuel containing ___________.

TCP [FM 1-62]

What significant equipment is on the AC Inst & Eng Fuel Control Bus?

TD System Fuel Quantity Indicators Fuel Flow Stepdown Transformers: -1&2: Fuel and Hyd Pressures (1212122122) -3: Hyd Indicator Reference

Indication: Decrease or fluctuation of RPM. Which EP do you call for? [FM 3-31]

Tachometer Generator Failure A tachometer generator failure may be indicated by the following: 1. Decrease or fluctuation of RPM. 2. Decrease or fluctuation of torque. If a tachometer generator failure occurs, the Flight Engineer will proceed as follows: 1. Synchrophase master switch (if the affected engine is selected) -- OFF/other MASTER (Pro Tip: Check for 392 to 408 Hz IAW FM 2-42)

Indication: Decrease or fluctuation of torque. Which EP do you call for? [FM 3-31]

Tachometer Generator Failure A tachometer generator failure may be indicated by the following: 1. Decrease or fluctuation of RPM. 2. Decrease or fluctuation of torque. If a tachometer generator failure occurs, the Flight Engineer will proceed as follows: 1. Synchrophase master switch (if the affected engine is selected) -- OFF/other MASTER (Pro Tip: Check for 392 to 408 Hz IAW FM 2-42)

What are the indications of a Tachometer Generator Failure? Summarize the EP. [FM 3-31]

Tachometer Generator Failure A tachometer generator failure may be indicated by the following: 1. Decrease or fluctuation of RPM. 2. Decrease or fluctuation of torque. If a tachometer generator failure occurs, the Flight Engineer will proceed as follows: 1. Synchrophase master switch (if the affected engine is selected) -- OFF/other MASTER (Pro Tip: Check for 392 to 408 Hz IAW FM 2-42)

Summarize the EP: TAILPIPE FIRES [FM 3-9]

Tailpipe Fire During Start: 1. Place condition lever to GROUND STOP. (P) 2. Continue to motor the engine with the starter if the button/switch has not been released. (This will normally clear the engine of unburned fuel.) (P) 3. If flames spread beyond the tailpipe, follow the GROUND EVACUATION PROCEDURE. Tailpipe Fire During Engine Shutdown: 1. Follow the GROUND EVACUATION PROCEDURE. CAUTION Tailpipe fire during engine shutdown may be caused by an oil leak in the turbine section. Do not motor the engine when a tailpipe fire exists on engine shutdown.

Define Vto

Take off speed. 1.1 x power off stall [1-1 3-24]

______ combines the parameters of torque, field pressure altitude, runway temperature, TIT, and engine efficiency.

Take-off Factor (TOF) [1-1 3-9]

Oil system capacities

Tank capacity: 19.5 gallons Service up to: 12 gallons Low oil warning displays: 4 gallons Record is oil consumption exceeds 0.35 gal/hr [FM 1-30, 5-2]

You are established at 1,500 feet in a search during a long-range SAR case when you receive a PROP LOW OIL Warning Light. What do you do?

Technique only: 1. Don't touch the affected throttle 2. Max power on all other engines 3. Climb Because you are trying to establish a climb before the prop is completely out of oil. If the prop is still regulating, a climb to higher altitudes (or increase in TAS) will increase the blade angle. This will make it more useful for the transit home. Stated another way: When established at low altitudes, the air density is higher and prop angle is low. Low prop angle will give you higher drag during the flight home. Climbing and accelerating will increase blade angle and reduce drag for the return trip.

What color is the Flap Control circuit breaker colored? [FM 3-68]

The "Flap Control" circuit breaker is color coded green for easy recognition.

What color is the Landing Gear Control circuit breaker colored? [FM 3-73]

The "Landing Gear Control" circuit breaker is color coded green for easy recognition

Which tank feeds the APU?

The #2 main fuel tank

What does the Fuel Control CB provide power to?

The 94% switch in the speed sensitive control which provides input for the TD system. -It has nothing to do with the actual Fuel Control Unit.

The BUS ISOLATION PROCEDURE should be used only ___________________________________. The purpose of this procedure is to allow a return of _______________________ to the unaffected buses. If a bus must be isolated, see Section I to determine which systems have been lost.

The BUS ISOLATION PROCEDURE should be used only when the malfunctioning unit(s) cannot be determined, but the malfunctioning bus is known. The purpose of this procedure is to allow a return of normal operation to the unaffected buses. If a bus must be isolated, see Section I to determine which systems have been lost. [FM 3-46]

What indication will you have of a dead battery?

The DC voltmeter will be at zero. No other indicator exists. The FE generally keeps the DC voltmeter selector on Batt for this reason.

Which circuit breakers are color coded green? [FM 3-68 & 3-73]

The Landing Gear Control & the Flap Control circuit breakers.

Describe the function of the temperature datum system. Where does it get its RPM input?

The TD system manages TIT by controlling fuel flow. -Uses 20% fuel from the fuel control (of 120% output) prior to the fuel manifold. BELOW CROSSOVER LSGI (Start Limiting): -TIT limiting to 830 degrees -Can take additional 50% FF below 94% RPM. BELOW CROSSOVER NORMAL (65 degree throttle) (Temp Limiting): -TIT limiting to 1,083 degrees -Above 94% RPM but below 65 degree throttle it can take 20% FF. ABOVE CROSSOVER (Temp Controlling): -Can take or put 20% FF above 94% RPM & 65 degree throttle. -TD manages TIT above 65 degree throttle. -65 degree is 800-840 TIT. 90 degrees is 1,083. TD uses fuel to govern TIT in that range. -Locked position keeps the relative TD fuel control correction throughout the entire throttle range of motion. Gets input from the 94% fly weight in the speed sensitive control. [FM 1-21, 1-25]

You notice high TIT (approx 830 or 1,083), low torque, low FF, and normal RPM. What happened?

The acceleration bleed valves are likely stuck open. -High TIT due to less cooling air in the combustion chamber. -Low FF because the TD system lower FF to reduce TIT to 830 or 1,083 -Low tq is a result Corrective action could be to switch in and out of LGSI a few times in an attempt to loosen the accel bleed valves but you are risking them getting stuck closed. If TD syst can't maintain 830 (w/ 50% take) then you risking an overtemp.

For Fuel Boost Pump Failure WARNING: The affected fuel boost pump switch should not be turned ___ or the circuit breakers _______ until proper inspection and repairs have been performed. ___________ of the circuit breakers and turning the switch on should be considered only to prevent fuel starvation of the engines when a landing cannot be accomplished within the range of available fuel. [FM 3-32]

The affected fuel boost pump switch should not be turned on or the circuit breakers reset until proper inspection and repairs have been performed. Resetting of the circuit breakers and turning the switch on should be considered only to prevent fuel starvation of the engines when a landing cannot be accomplished within the range of available fuel.

What variation of speed and altitude will not affect max endurance appreciably? [1-1 6A-3]

The airspeed my be allowed to vary +or- 10 knots, and altitude may be allowed to vary +or- 1,000 feet without affecting the endurance appreciably.

Describe the landing pattern for LANDING WITH ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE.

The approach for landing with one engine inoperative is made in essentially the same manner as for a normal landing. [FM 3-96]

Which circuit breakers are color coded yellow? [FM 3-40]

The circuit breakers that may be used to reduce the load on the Essential AC Bus are color coded yellow for easy recognition.

Define CFL [1-1 3-14; 3-59; 3-63]

The critical field length is the greater of the total runway distances required to accelerate on all engines, experience an engine failure, and then to either continue the take-off or stop.

The distance required to accelerate to refusal speed from brake release is defined as ___________ ___________. ____________ ____________ can be determined using the appropriate ___________ ______________ ____________ chart. [1-1 3-18]

The distance required to accelerate to refusal speed from brake release is defined as refusal distance. Refusal distance can be determined using the appropriate Acceleration Check Time chart.

When is the Engine Run-up check used? [FM 2-42]

The engine run-up checklist may be completed any time after all engines are started. Engine run-up is only required for Maintenance Flights and any time actual Maximum Effort Operations will be conducted. Select an area which is free of foreign objects.

In cruise, you notice a very high FF, TIT is constant, and low Tq. What happened?

The engine turbines are likely going bad. The blades will erode over time due to high heat. This indication will develop gradually.

The fault may be indicated on the Generator Control Unit Truth Table, but will be _________________ reset if the generator switch is placed to the OFF position and back to ON again, in most cases. [FM 3-41]

The fault may be indicated on the Generator Control Unit Truth Table, but will be automatically reset if the generator switch is placed to the OFF position and back to ON again, in most cases.

What are the operational and non-operational take-off minimums? [3710 3-15]

The following standard takeoff minimums apply in the absence of published nonstandard minimums for the departure airport: -One half statute mile for non-operational missions. -On quarter statute mile for operational missions.

On landing, what should be used at all times to minimize the use of brakes?

The full landing roll and propeller reversing [FM 2-142]

Summarize Generator Disconnect [FM 3-41]

The generator can be mechanically disconnected from the engine by holding the GEN DISC switch to DISC for approximately two seconds. Activation of the disconnect mechanism is indicated by the illumination of the DISC FIRED light. Once disconnected, a generator cannot be reconnected in flight. Land as soon as practicable. If the generator cannot be disconnected, shut down the engine in accordance with the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE.

For Fuel Quantity Indicator Failure Warning The indicator will not be _______________ for troubleshooting and the circuit breaker will not be __________ until proper inspection and repairs have been made. [FM 3-34]

The indicator will not be replaced or swapped for troubleshooting and the circuit breaker will not be reset until proper inspection and repairs have been made.

What indication do you have that a Transformer-Rectifier (TR) shut down?

The load meter will go to zero

Which fuel tanks are referred to as integral part of the wings?

The main fuel tanks

What is the panel beneath the CP left foot?

The nose landing gear release handle

The pitch lock mechanism prevents the blades from decreasing pitch if overspeeding of approximately ____ percent RPM occurs or if _______________________________. [FM 1-45]

The pitch lock mechanism prevents the blades from decreasing pitch if overspeeding of approximately 103 percent RPM occurs or if hydraulic pressure is lost.

Describe pitchlock [FM 1-45]

The pitch lock mechanism prevents the blades from decreasing pitch if overspeeding of approximately 103 percent RPM occurs or if hydraulic pressure is lost. The stationary and rotating pitch lock ratchet rings are held disengaged by propeller oil pressure under control of the pitch lock regulator; they are spring--loaded to engage when the pressure is lost. Located in the Barrel Assembly -Controls CTM (Centrifugal Twisting Moment) -Provides some positive thrust despite prop malfunction -May not feather -Prevents decreasing blade angle -Pitchlock range is 25 to 55 degrees Pressurized fluid from the pressurized sump keeps two ratchets separated. -Activates with overspeed at 103% where a fly-weight cause pressure to be removed and the spring engages the ratchets. -Activates with a leak where pressure is removed and the spring engages the ratchets. Blade angle decreases 1.8 degrees as it pitchlocks. Therefore, RPM will increase slightly

Describe the Step Climb Cruise Profile. [1-1 5-11]

The recommended step for a step-climb cruise profile is 2,000 ft. To obtain maximum cruise performance for this condition, the following procedure is recommended: a. Determine initial airplane gross weight. b. Determine cruise ceiling c. Select desired altitude below cruise ceiling. d. Enter the Range Summary Charts to determine cruise speed, fuel flow and torque setting. (*Note: Spec Range Charts) e. Set the recommended power and adjust periodically as necessary as weight decreases due to fuel burn-off. Maintain a constant altitude until the gross weight has been reduced to a value which gives a cruise ceiling 2,000 ft above the altitude being maintained. f. At this point, advance power to maximum continuous and climb 2,000 ft; and repeat the procedure in d and e. *Note: The Spec Range Charts are significantly easier for determining this profile, but that's not what the 1-1 states. You can get torque setting, KTAS, KIAS and air nm per 1,000 lbs of fuel. You will still need to use the appropriate Range Summary Chart to get actual fuel flow. **Gouge: 194, you get 2 more (When airspeed increases to 194 KIAS at recommended long range cruise torque setting, you should be able to climb 2,000 ft) Cruise Ceiling (pg 5-18 to 5-25) Spec Range (pg 5-35 to 5-83) Range Summary (pg 5-87 to 5-183)

How do you know if a light is on an AC bus or a DC bus?

The rheostat clicks or doesn't AC - Always Clicks DC - Doesn't Click

How is the starter powered?

The starter is pneumatic. It gets air from the bleed air system and is controlled by the Starter Control Valve.

Describe how the brake selector switch operates

The switch controls two solenoids. One for the Utility line (NORM) and one for the Aux line (EMER). The selector switch controls how the valves are energized and de-energized. NORM: -Utility (NORM): De-energized open -Aux (EMER): Energized closed EMER: -Aux (EMER): De-energized open -Utility (NORM): Energized closed Both are de-energized open if there is a power failure. Memory aid: I DO want it if selected De-energized Open

How are the bleed air regulator valves powered and controlled?

The valves are powered from the Ess DC. They are solenoid operated, energized open and de-energized closed. (Most valves are Ess DC)

What are the destination alternate minimums? [3710 3-17]

The weather at the destination alternate must be forecast at or above the specified weather at destination from one hour before to one hour after ETA at the destination alternate. Weather must be equal to or better than published non-standard alternate minimums. If none are specified: -Non-precision: 800 ft/ 2 sm -Precision: 600 ft/ 2 sm -But not lower than the lowest compatible circling approach.

You test the nacelle overheat lights by activating the test switch. What does this test signify?

There are not faults in the nacelle overheat wiring and the warning lights work. [FM 1-189]

PROP OIL Illuminates. What happened?

There is likely a prop oil leak. The float in the pressurized sump has sensed that prop oil is down my 2 quarts. Get the book out [FM 3-22]

Where are the charts for max recommended airspeed and weight limitations located?

They are the colorful charts in section 5 of the flight manual. [FM 5-23 to 5-25]

What do the engine pump switches on the hydraulic panel do?

They control two valves. One before and one after the reduction GB driven pump. Does not actually turn the pump on or off.

During the CRUISE ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE, which engine should be shut down first? Which engine should be shut down second?

This is technique only. Not written in the flight manaul. #4 engine first because it does not run the Utility Hydraulic System. Since it is an outboard engine, you will already have shut down the engine that would give the greatest adverse yaw in the event of failure of another engine. Some people prefer to shut down the #3 engine first. If you choose to shut down 2 engines for operational purposes, then shut down the symmetrical engine on the opposite side.

This relay turns on the anti-icing and deicing systems if the switches for those systems are at ON or AUTO positions. The relay also turns on an indicator light. The ice detection system __________ turn off the anti-icing and deicing systems automatically when icing conditions no longer exist, but the master switch can be held at the RESET position to turn them all off simultaneously. [FM 1-50]

This relay turns on the anti-icing and deicing systems if the switches for those systems are at ON or AUTO positions. The relay also turns on an indicator light. The ice detection system does not turn off the anti-icing and deicing systems automatically when icing conditions no longer exist, but the master switch can be held at the RESET position to turn them all off simultaneously.

Why do you need NTS for Air Start? [FM 2-75]

To prevent decoupling while the prop is rotating the engine for start. Placing the Condition Lever in Air Start causes the prop angle to decrease from feather. The prop then drives the engine for start; creating negative torque. When negative torque is sensed, NTS prevents decoupling by increasing prop angle back toward feather. Positive torque will be regained when the engine is operating and driving the prop. Warning: Do not attempt to restart an engine with an inoperative NTS except in case of a greater emergency. Prior to air-start of an engine on which the NTS has been previously determined to be inoperative, reduce the airspeed to 130 KIAS and the altitude to below 5,000 feet.

What is the troubleshooting connection from Fuel Flow to Torque?

Tom Wisdom: Fuel Flow = Turbine Inlet Temp (TIT) = Torque -Always begin troubleshooting with fuel flow. Is it high, low, or fluctuating?

The C-130H will always be power limited by ____ or ____. When will it be limited by each one?

Torque or TIT. -Tq limited at cold temps and low DA. -TIT limited at hot temps and high DA. --22 degrees C is the approximate cut off at sea level. ---Less than 22 is Tq limited. ---Greater than 22 is TIT limited.

The fire extinguisher agent does not go to the combustion section or the turbine area of the engine (T/F).

True

Turbine Overheat Light may illuminate after entering the wash rack due to water ingestion in the turbine area. If condition persists, ___________________________________________________________________________. [FM 2-88]

Turbine Overheat Light may illuminate after entering the wash rack due to water ingestion in the turbine area. If condition persists, move all the throttles to Ground Idle and place the condition lever for the affected engine to Ground Stop.

_______________________ Light may illuminate after entering the wash rack due to water ingestion in the __________ area. What do you do if the condition persists? [FM 2-88]

Turbine Overheat Light may illuminate after entering the wash rack due to water ingestion in the turbine area. If condition persists, move all the throttles to Ground Idle and place the condition lever for the affected engine to Ground Stop.

Name the EP: Flashing of the master fire warning light and/or lights in a fire handle [FM 3-10]

Turbine Overheat Warning

Name the two types of overheat and the associated indications

Turbine Overheat: Flashing FIRE light and fire handle Nacelle Overheat: Only indicated by the flashing Nac Overheat lights [1][2][3][4] and the adjacent rosebud light. Fire handle does not illuminate.

How can you verify that a dump pump is operating on a tank with a failed fuel quantity gauge?

Turn that pump on first and have the LM verify that the fuel is being dumped

Turns can be made safely with one or more engines inoperative on the same side if an adequate speed margin is maintained above the respective charted minimum control speed. The minimum speed increment required is ____ knots for one engine inoperative and ____ knots for two engines inoperative. Such turns should be __________________ to minimize slip or skid. [FM 3-19]

Turns can be made safely with one or more engines inoperative on the same side if an adequate speed margin is maintained above the respective charted minimum control speed. The minimum speed increment required is 20 knots for one engine inoperative and 25 knots for two engines inoperative. Such turns should be well coordinated to minimize slip or skid.

What are the restriction on FP/FP flights? [3710 3-5]

Two FPs may fly together.

How many brake accumulators are there? How much pressure is required in each for one application of the brakes? What do you need to remember when stopping the aircraft using only the pressure from the accumulators?

Two accumulators Emer: 2900 psi Norm: 2250 psi Use a smooth application of the brakes. Do not pump the brakes. Pumping brakes will send hydraulic fluid to the return line and you will run out of pressure.

Describe the Bleed Air Divider Valve (1700 Series). [FM 1-116 to 1-123]

Two position valves (CLOSED & NORMAL). The shutoff valve is located between the outlets going to the Flight Deck and Cargo Compartment AC Units. The valve is motor-driven open and closed. The setup allows one AC unit to continue to operate in the event of bleed air duct failure. ESS DC powered. Motor-driven (fails to the last powered position).

Two types of pressurization system failures may occur; ____________ pressure or ___________ pressure. [FM 3-60]

Two types of pressurization system failures may occur; increasing pressure or decreasing pressure.

Describe Unbalanced CFL [1-1 3-14; 3-63]

Unbalanced Critical Field Length. -Stop distance is greater than the distance required to continue take-off. --The aircraft accelerates to the lesser of Vmcg or Vrot (Vto - 5 knots*) then has an engine failure. At that point, the distance required to go is less than the distance required to stop. Unbalance CFL is then the total length of the accel + stop distance. ______Accel____|(Vmcg/Vrot)___stop___| __________________|_______go_______| |__________Unbalanced CFL_______________| *This differs from the actual definition of Vrot

What do you do if you begin an uncommanded roll during flap movement? Which EP do you call for? (Unofficial Bold Face)

Uncommanded Roll/Bank of the Aircraft During Flap Movement 1. Match the lever to the indicated position 2. Pull the wing flap control circuit breaker [FM 3-71]

What are some things to remember for immediate ditching? [FM 3-101]

Up - Escape hatch Down - Lock seat belts Left - ELT Right - CP make a mayday call / Alarm Bell 100 - 100% flaps 100 - 100 fpm descent recommended (do not exceed 200 fpm) 100 - Approx 100 KIAS (power-off stall plus 10 KIAS)

Accumulator Pre-Charge

Util, Booster, & Norm Brakes - 1,500 +or- 100 Emer Brakes - 1,000 +or- 100 Measures air/nitrogen pressure in the accumulator

What normally provides power and hydraulic for the flaps?

Utility Hydraulic System and Main DC power

Name the components on each hydraulic system

Utility: -Flight Controls (1/2 pwr) -Landing Gear -Flaps -Nosewheel Steering -Normal Brakes -Flare Launcher Booster: -Flight Control (1/2 pwr) Auxiliary: -Ramp -Cargo Door -Emergency Brakes -Emergency Nose Gear Extension --Pressurizes the Util Syst thru ground test valve

What are the two parts of the propeller control assembly?

Valve housing and Pump Housing

What does the banded pointer on the airspeed indicator indicate?

Vh Based on Area A of the Vh chart on FM 5-23

Summarize: ENGINE SYSTEMS FAILURE - Thottle Control Failure [FM 3-25]

WARNING Do not move the throttle prior to engine shutdown. To do so could cause the propeller to go immediately into reverse pitch or to full power. Throttle control failure may be indicated by any of the following conditions: 1. Throttle moves independently of pilot input. WARNING Do not attempt to restrain a throttle which moves on its own. To do so may cause the propeller to go immediately into reverse or to full power. 2. Throttle frozen or binding. 3. Power indication unrelated to throttle position. If a power increase/decrease, not pilot-initiated, occurs or is suspected, a throttle control cable or TD System malfunction should be suspected. Proceed as follows: 1. TD Valve (affected engine) - NULL a. If power returns to normal, see TD Control Valve System Malfunction. b. If power remains unrelated, perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE.

Summarize Wing Fire [FM 3-54]

WING FIRE If a fire develops in the wing, proceed as follows: 1. Close the engine bleed air valves/regulators and close bleed air divider valve. NOTE Closing the left wing bleed air valves/regulators and bleed air divider valve isolates the bleed air from the jet pump control in the outflow valve and from the safety valve. Automatic pressurization will be inoperative and emergency depressurization will be slower than normal. 2. Close all fuel cross-feed valves. 3. Turn generators/all electrical equipment (for affected wing) OFF. 4. Turn off both engine hydraulic pumps and suction boost pump for the affectedwing, provided an alternate hydraulic source is supplying hydraulic pressure to the flight control packages. 5. Sideslip the airplane to keep the fire away from the fuselage. 6. Put on parachutes and survival equipment (if installed).

Warning: Airstart of the _________________ (1700 series) is required in order to airstart the engines after four engine failure. [FM 3-42]

Warning: Airstart of the APU/Generator (1700 series) is required in order to airstart the engines after four engine failure.

Fuselage Fire/ Smoke and Fume Elimination Warning: If flammable fumes are present, electrical equipment not required to complete these steps should not be turned _________ until the fumes are eliminated. If the source of fumes is fuel venting from cargo, remaining _________________ may be advisable. [FM 3-51]

Warning: If flammable fumes are present, electrical equipment not required to complete these steps should not be turned on or off until the fumes are eliminated. If the source of fumes is fuel venting from cargo, remaining pressurized may be advisable.

When determination of a pitchlock is made, it is desirable to operate the propeller in an underspeed condition (___-___%). Then, if intermittent governing is experienced, the propeller will try to ______________ pitch to return to an on-speed condition, thus assuring a more ___________ pitchlock. It is necessary that the underspeed not be low enough for the engine acceleration bleed valves to open (___%). [FM 3-23]

When determination of a pitchlock is made, it is desirable to operate the propeller in an underspeed condition (96-98%). Then, if intermittent governing is experienced, the propeller will try to decrease pitch to return to an on-speed condition, thus assuring a more positive pitchlock. It is necessary that the underspeed not be low enough for the engine acceleration bleed valves to open (94%).

When are calculations required for CFL (Balanced and Unbalanced) landing distances, and ground roll distances? [1-1 TOPS 10-1]

When one or more of the following conditions are met: 1. OAT 30 degrees or greater. 2. Gross weight 130,000 lbs or greater. 3. Runway available is 6,000 ft or less or 4. RCR is 12 or less CFL does not need to be computed for landing unless subsequent takeoff is anticipated with the same conditions present.

When is the wash-rack required? Where does the CASPER turret need to be to begin wash-rack operations? [2017 Clearwater ORGMAN 9-26 & 9-27]

When operating below 3,000 feet over salt water or when doing touch and go training at an airfield adjacent to saltwater environment. CASPER turret will be placed forward of the jets prior to energizing the wash-rack.

When may Vmcg with nosewheel steering be used? [1-1 TOPS 1-1 & 3-24]

When operating from dry paved runways at pilots discretion. -The speed computed from the chart assumes continuous input to nosewheel steering and forward pressure on the control column throughout the take-off until reaching Vmcg or Vrot.

When is a taxi director required? How many? [3710 4-7]

When taxing within 25 feet of an obstruction a two person taxi crew (minimum) is required. Aircraft shall not be taxied within 5 feet of obstructions.

How does the generator disconnect function? [FM 1-74]

When the switch is held in the disconnect position (approximately 2 seconds), a direct short in the firing mechanism causes the fused portion of the plunger to burn through and be actuated by spring tension. The Plunger movement actuates a generator disconnect fired switch, the generator disconnect fired light will illuminate, indicating the firing mechanism has been fired (not that the generator actually disconnected). The plunger then engages a wing on the generator stub shaft, causing it to shear. The generator cannot be reconnected.

When the temperature change across a front is ____________ or more, or if the front is moving at _____ knots or more, conditions are excellent for wind shear. [FM 2-59]

When the temperature change across a front is 10 degrees F or more, or if the front is moving at 30 knots or more, conditions are excellent for wind shear.

When is the NTS system rendered inop? [FM 1-46]

When the throttles are below FLIGHT IDLE, a cam moves the actuator away from the NTS plunger and renders the system inoperative.

When should you complete a controllability check?

With split flaps or significant damage to the aircraft

Can the hydraulic reservoirs be services in flight?

Yes

The suction boost pumps have current limiters rated at 11 amps that will turn off the pump if it gets too hot. After the pump has cooled, do the current limiters reset so the pump can be turned back on?

Yes [FM 1-144]

What does the EXT AC PWR light mean?

You have proper volts, frequency, and phase rotation from the external power source [FM 1-68]

What is the gotcha with Time, Fuel, and Distance required to climb charts?

You have to run the chart twice to calculate the altitude you are at and the altitude to which you are going. Then you have to subtract where you are at from where you are going?

PROP OIL illuminates and RPM increases to 103%. What happened?

You likely have a leak and pitchlock is engaged. The float in the pressurized sump has sensed that prop oil is down my 2 quarts. The RPM increased because the prop angle decreased 1.8 degrees to engage pitchlock, therefore RPM increased slightly. Get the book out. [FM 3-22]

In cruise, you notice elevated FF, elevated Tq, and normal TIT. What happened?

You likely have failed thermocouples. The TD system increased FF to increase the average TIT of the remaining thermocouples. This will only happen above crossover. You are concerned about thermocouple probes FODing the turbine.

What may happen if you open the APU bleed air switch with the APU on in flight?

You may receive an APU fire light because the APU compartment will have less cooling airflow. You will have to shut it down with the fire handle per the EP.

Scenario: You just completed drops but have not completed the Post Search/ Post Drop Checklist when smoke begins to fill the cockpit. What do you do?

You will need to call for the Fuselage Fire/ Smoke and Fume Elimination checklist to get the crew on O2 masks. You will then need to remember close the cargo ramp and door to get the DM off the harness in the back. Also, close the air defector doors before continuing the Fuselage Fire/ Smoke and Fume Elimination checklist. Smoke will not properly clear the aircraft with the air deflector doors open. After clearing the smoke and completing the Fuselage Fire/ Smoke and Fume Elimination checklist, you will then perform the Post Search/ Post Drop Checklist.

Draw the bleed air system (1700 series)

[FM 1-118 & 1-119]

Describe Crossover Bump

[FM 2-56]

What factors define Landing Distance?

a. 50 ft clearance at runway threshold b. 3 degree glide slope c. 4 engines flight idle d. Flaps 100% e. On approach threshold & touchdown speeds f. Full reverse on all 4 at taxi attitude g. Calculated using 2,030 PSI brakes h. 1 second transition from td to taxi attitude i. Max anti-ski braking & full reverse [1-1 pg 9-1]

What are the base conditions for landing field length? [1-1 9-1]

a. A 50 ft vertical clearance at the runway threshold b. 3 degree glideslope c. Flight idle on all 4 engines d. 100% flaps e. On approach, threshold, and touchdown speeds f. Full reverse on all 4 at taxi attitude g. 2,030 brakes h. 1 second delay for transition from touchdown to taxi attitude i. Max anti-skid braking and full reverse at taxi attitude.

What are the conditions for Vmcg?

a. No. 1 eng inop with prop windmilling on NTS. b. Max power on all operating engines. c. Zero bleed (good also for normal bleed) d. Flaps 50 % w/ 3,000 psi rudder boost. e. Max avail rudder deflection limited by 180 lbs pedal force or max rudder deflection. f. Max deviation from runway centerline is 30 ft. g. Wings level [1-1 3-24]

What are the conditions for Vmca1?

a. No. 1 eng inop with prop windmilling on NTS. b. Max power on all operating engines. c. Zero bleed (good also for normal bleed) d. Flaps 50% e. Max avail rudder deflection limited by 180 lbs pedal force or max rudder deflection. f. 5 degrees bank angle (raise the dead) g. Landing gear down [1-1 3-26]

What are the conditions for Vmca2?

a.. All bleed off. b. Max power on both operating engines. c. No. 2 eng inop w/ prop feathered. d. No. 1 eng inop w/ prop windmilling on NTS. e. Utility hyd system inop. f. Max avail rudder deflection limited by 180 lbs pedal force or max rudder deflection. g. 5 degrees bank angle (raise the dead) h. Landing gear down i. Flaps 50% (3,000 psi rudder boost from booster hyd syst only). [1-1 3-26]

Before placing the AC bus tie switch to "ON," ensure that _____________ (CG 1711-1721) [FM 1-74]

all operating engines are in LSGI and no engine-driven generators are supplying power. (The AC BUS TIE switch ties power to the Main AC Bus from the APU generator during ground operations with no engine-driven generators supplying power) (CG 1711-1721)

After experiencing an ESS AC bus malfunction, the aircraft will be landed ________________ regardless of the apparent success of the correcting actions.

as soon as possible

If an essential AC bus malfunction is experienced, the airplane will be landed ___________, regardless of apparent success of the corrective action.

as soon as possible This is the very last step in the Partical Loss of the Ess AC Bus procedure. Basically, turn around and start heading home while troubleshooting. [FM 3-41]

If torque meter indications fall for no apparent reason, .............

assume that engine inlet air duct icing is occurring. -This is not mention in Multiple Engine Power Loss but it should be. [FM 7-2]

The AC Inst & Eng Fuel Contr bus will ________ connect to the ESS AC Bus in the event of inverter failure.

automatically

Partial Power Condition Flight Characteristics Considerations: More rudder deflection will be required at low speed to counteract the unbalanced thrust. With uneven power conditions, the minimum control speed will be limited by the ________ _________ ________. Failure of an outboard engine may require the reduction of power on the ____________ ______________ ____________. [FM 3-19]

available rudder effectiveness opposite outboard engine.

Do not check the temperature of crazed glass with the _______ with the NESA switches ON.

bare hand It may shock you. [FM 3-61]

When do the Engine Fuel Low Pressure lights illuminate?

below approximately 8.5 psi (or if a GFI breaker pops) [FM 1-66]

The engine fuel control senses pressure and temperature at the ________.

compressor inlet

The feather valve is ___________ from NTS in ground range

disconnected

Circuit breakers will be pulled only for _______.

emergencies and maintenance -Never use CBs as switches [FM 1-67]

During takeoff or in flight, if an outboard engine fails near minimum control speed, it is imperative that a __________________________________________ be established immediately. This should be done by use of ailerons before reaching full rudder inputs, in order to maintain directional control. Failure of an outboard engine may require the _____________________________. [FM3-14]

five degree bank angle away from the failed engine reduction of power on the opposite outboard engine

Calculate ground roll distance with ______ _______ in ground idle when given the option.

four engines [FM]

Resetting of the ______________ circuit breakers should only be considered to prevent fuel starvation when landing cannot be accomplished within range of available fuel.

fuel boost pump [FM 3-33]

If the airplane is allowed to fly in an extreme out-of-rudder trim condition, it is possible to experience engine failure(s) due to ____________ _____________. [FM 3-19]

fuel starvation

In regards to brakes, at first indication of failure or after the brakes have been used excessively or hot brakes are suspected, you should _______________.

have the fire department crash crew make an inspection of the brakes and tires as brake fires are possible. [FM 2-142]

In case of power failure, the fuel crossfeed valves will _______________.

hold their last powered position [FM 1-65]

You have fired the No. 1 bottle and the fire condition continues. You should_________________.

isolate that wing from bleed air

Nacelle overheat is indicated by ______________. [FM 3-11]

nacelle overheat warning light on the Copilot instrument panel

When full take-off power is limited to 19,600, ____ ________ is required to TOF for the resulting decrease in TIT even though TIT is less than 1,077 degrees.

no correction [1-1 3-9]

What do you lose if the landing gear CB is pulled?

nose wheel steering [FM 3-73, 3-75]

During directional control problems with throttles in ground range, in order to maintain directional control while stopping, the pilot must immediately make maximum use of _______________, _________________, and ___________________. [FM 3-9]

nosewheel steering, flight controls, and differential braking

Leading edge anti-ice can be operated for ______ on the ground during maintenance checks. Do not use on the ground otherwise. [FM 2-146]

not more than 30 seconds

If a failed generator cannot be disconnected you should.....

perform the ESP [FM 3-41]

Step 2 of the "Pitchlocked Propeller Operation" is to place the TD valve switch to "LOCKED." This is because during pitchlock prop operations, locking the TD valve will... Why?

prevent crossover "bump" if the throttle is moved through the crossover position. This action aids in maintaining 96% to 98% RPM. [FM 3-23]

The loss of directional control is usually the result of a ______________________, but may be caused by engine/throttle control failure resulting in abnormal power and severe asymmetric thrust. [FM 3-9]

propeller failing to change blade angle

When pulling a condition lever to FEATHER, ______________________________ to assure that the propeller is fully feathered when the engine fuel is shut off. If the lever is left at midposition, and NTS is inoperative, an ________________ is possible. [FM 3-6]

pull it all the way to the detent engine decoupling

Never _________ the fuel quantity circuit breakers. Why?

reset They are 115V on the AC Inst & Eng Fuel Control Bus. The higher voltage is potentially dangerous because the circuitry comes in contact with the fuel. [FM 1-65]

If power is lost to the fuel pressure indicator, it will _________.

stay in the last powered position (AC lies, DC dies)

Engine fire is indicated by _____________. [FM 3-10]

steady illumination in the respective fire handle and the master fire warning light on the Pilot instrument panel

If an engine malfunction occurs before reaching refusal speed, the airplane must be __________. If an engine malfunction occurs after exceeding refusal speed, the takeoff must be __________ because the airplane cannot be stopped on the remaining runway. [FM 3-14]

stopped continued

Which electrical bus provides power to the directional control valves for the fire extinguishing system?

the BATT bus [FM 1-186]

Turbine overheat is indicated by ____________. [FM 3-10]

the flashing of the master fire warning light and/or lights in a fire handle

During Takeoff Continued After Engine Failure If obstacle clearance is a consideration, pilots should be aware that obstacle clearance performance data is based on the assumption that gear retraction is initiated _______ seconds after takeoff and propeller feathering initiated _____ seconds after takeoff. Flap retraction should be accomplished in 10 percent increments with airspeed increasing approximately 5 knots between retraction increments. This procedure will prevent the airplane from settling during flap retraction at heavy gross weights.

three six [FM 3-16]

For malfunctions which result in asymmetric thrust, the airplane will attempt to turn ___________ the malfunctioning power plant during airplane acceleration and will generally attempt to turn ______ from the malfunctioning power plant during airplane deceleration. [FM 3-9]

toward away

Never operate the propeller anti-ice and de-ice system for more than ___________ while on the ground.

two cycles [FM 2-38] The engine must also be running to dissipate the heat generated by the heating elements. [FM 2-147]