Chapter 11: Cranium, Facial Bones, Paranasal Sinuses

What is the angle between the midsagittal plane and the IR for a parieto-orbital oblique projection of the optic foramen? A) 45° B) 12° C) 30° D) 53°

D) 53°

Which of the following points is NOT true about the oblique inferosuperior (tangential) projection of the zygomatic arches? A) It requires both rotation and tilt of the skull. B) A small focal spot should be used. C) The AEC should not be used. D) A grid must be used.

D) A grid must be used.

Where does the CR exit for the optional PA axial projection of the mandible? A) Junction of the lips B) Nasion C) Mentum D) Acanthion

D) Acanthion

Which of the following technical factors do NOT apply to lateral nasal bone projections? A) The technologist should not use automatic exposure control (AEC). B) The technologist should use a small focal spot. C) The technologist should use low to medium kV. D) All of the above apply.

D) All of the above apply.

What primary type of joint movement occurs with the temporomandibular joint? A) Plane B) Gomphosis C) Spheroidal D) Bicondylar

D) Bicondylar

The axiolateral oblique projection (modified Law method) for TMJs requires a ____ rotation of the skull and a ____ angle of the CR. A) 15°; 15° B) 10°; 15° C) 5°; 0° D) 0°; 25° to 30°

A) 15°; 15°

How much difference is there between the OML and IOML positioning lines? A) 7° to 8° B) 8° to 9° C) 10° to 11° D) 5° to 6°

A) 7° to 8°

A radiograph of a parieto-orbital oblique projection for the optic foramen reveals that the optic foramen is projected into the inferior, outer orbital rim. Which of the following modifications is necessary to produce a more diagnostic image? A) Decrease the extension of the head and neck. B) Increase the extension of the head and neck. C) Increase the CR angulation. D) Decrease the CR angulation.

A) Decrease the extension of the head and neck.

A radiograph of a parietoacanthial (Waters) projection for sinuses reveals that the petrous pyramids are projected over the maxillary sinuses. What positioning error is present on this radiograph? A) Excessive flexion B) Excessive extension C) Excessive CR angulation D) Rotation of the head

A) Excessive flexion

A radiograph of a PA projection of the sinuses reveals that the petrous ridges are projected over the ethmoid sinuses. Which of the following modifications will eliminate this superimposition while not compromising diagnostic quality? A) Increase extension of the head and neck slightly. B) Angle the CR 5° to 10° caudad. C) Increase flexion of the head and neck slightly. D) Have the patient open his mouth.

A) Increase extension of the head and neck slightly.

A radiograph of an axiolateral oblique projection of the mandible with the head in a lateral position reveals that the mandibular body is greatly foreshortened. Which of the following modifications is necessary to produce a more diagnostic image? A) Increase the rotation of skull toward the image receptor. B) Decrease the rotation of skull toward the image receptor. C) Decrease the CR angulation. D) Increase the CR angulation.

A) Increase the rotation of skull toward the image receptor.

A radiograph of a parietoacanthial (Waters) projection reveals that the petrous ridges are superimposed over the lower 30% of the maxillary sinuses. What specific positioning error (if any) led to this radiographic finding? A) Insufficient extension of skull and neck B) Excessive extension of skull and neck C) Excessive CR angulation D) No error exists; accept the initial radiograph.

A) Insufficient extension of skull and neck

Part 10 is part of which bone? A) Maxilla B) Sphenoid C) Zygomatic D) Ethmoid

A) Maxilla

What is the only paranasal sinus not contained within a cranial bone? A) Maxillary B) Sphenoid C) Ethmoid D) Frontal

A) Maxillary

Which sinuses are best demonstrated with a parietoacanthial projection? A) Maxillary B) Frontal and maxillary C) Frontal, maxillary, and ethmoid D) Sphenoid and maxillary

A) Maxillary

Which of the following terms describes the junction of the two nasal bones? A) Nasion B) Acanthion C) Glabella D) Supraorbital groove

A) Nasion

How much skull rotation (from a lateral position) is required to place the ramus parallel to the IR for the axiolateral oblique projection of the mandible? A) None. Keep skull in true lateral position. B) 10 to 15° toward the IR C) 30° toward the IR D) 45° toward the IR

A) None. Keep skull in true lateral position.

How much skull rotation (from a lateral position) is required to place the ramus parallel to the IR for the axiolateral/axiolateral oblique projection of the mandible? A) None. The skull should be kept in a lateral position. B) 30° C) 45° D) 53°

A) None; the skull should be kept in a lateral position.

Which positioning line is perpendicular to the IR for a PA projection of the mandible? A) OML B) AML C) IOML D) GAL

A) OML

The part labeled 8 is part of which bone? A) Palatine B) Sphenoid C) Ethmoid D) Zygomatic

A) Palatine

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the bony nasal septum? A) Parietoacanthial B) Lateral nasal bone C) AP axial projection D) Lateral facial bone

A) Parietoacanthial

A radiograph of a lateral projection of the facial bones reveals that the sella turcica is not a clear saddle. What specific positioning error is present on the radiograph? A) Rotation B) Excessive extension C) Tilt D) Excessive flexion

A) Rotation

True/False: All of the sinuses intercommunicate with each other and with the nasal cavity. A) True B) False

A) True

True/False: Both CT (computed tomography) and MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) can provide reconstructed images in three planes: axial, sagittal, and coronal. A) True B) False

A) True

True/False: For a lateral facial bones projection, the chin should be adjusted so the IOML is perpendicular to the front edge of the IR. A) True B) False

A) True

True/False: Optic foramen studies are routinely taken as bilateral projections. A) True B) False

A) True

True/False: The lateral projection of the facial bones is typically a unilateral projection. A) True B) False

A) True

True/False: The osseous labyrinth includes the cochlea, the vestibule, and the semicircular canals. A) True B) False

A) True

True/False: The sensory apparatus of both equilibrium and hearing are contained in the internal ear. A) True B) False

A) True

True/False: The submentovertex projection requires that the inferior OML (IOML) is placed parallel to the image receptor. A) True B) False

A) True

The posterior aspect of the orbit is termed the: A) apex. B) base. C) sphenoid strut. D) crown.

A) apex

The ____ sinuses develop last and are not fully developed until the teenage years. A) ethmoid B) sphenoid C) nasal D) maxillary

A) ethmoid

The bone labeled 2 is the: A) lacrimal. B) maxilla. C) ethmoid. D) palatine.

A) lacrimal.

How much skull tilt and rotation are required for the oblique inferosuperior (tangential) projection for zygomatic arches? A) 10° B) 15° C) 25° D) None

B) 15°

What is the maximum CR angulation used for the axiolateral oblique projection of the mandible? A) 10° to 15° B) 25° C) 30° D) 45°

B) 25°

What CR angle is required for the axiolateral (Schuller method) projection of the TMJs? A) None; the CR should be perpendicular to the film. B) 25° to 30° caudad C) 15° caudad D) 20° to 25° cephalad

B) 25° to 30° caudad

What is the angle between the OML and the plane of the IR for the parietoacanthial (Waters) projection? A) 40° B) 37° C) 42° D) 15° to 20°

B) 37°

Which positioning line is placed perpendicular to the IR for the parieto-orbital oblique projection of the optic foramina? A) OML B) AML C) MML D) IOML

B) AML

A patient comes to radiology for a sinus series. She cannot fully extend her head and neck for the submentovertex projection. What else can the technologist do to produce a diagnostic submentovertex projection? A) Angle the CR to place it perpendicular to the OML. B) Angle the CR to place it perpendicular to IOML. C) Perform the projection with the patient recumbent. D) Place sandbags on the forehead to extend the skull.

B) Angle the CR to place it perpendicular to IOML.

A radiograph of a PA Caldwell projection reveals that the petrous ridges are projected into the lower one third of the maxillary sinuses. Which of the following modifications should be made during the repeat exposure to produce a more diagnostic image? A) Increase the extension of the head and neck. B) Decrease the extension of the head and neck. C) Nothing; accept the initial radiograph. D) Angle the CR 10° caudad.

B) Decrease the extension of the head and neck.

Which two bones form the bony nasal septum? A) Superior and inferior nasal conchae B) Ethmoid and vomer C) Vomer and maxilla D) Sphenoid and ethmoid

B) Ethmoid and vomer

True/False: Infections involving the upper teeth may involve the frontal sinuses. A) True B) False

B) False

True/False: Lesions of decreased density are termed osteoblastic lesions. A) True B) False

B) False

True/False: The 15° PA axial (Caldwell) projection produces an unobstructed view of the maxilla. A) True B) False

B) False

True/False: The PA axial projection (Haas method) for the cranium requires a CR angle of 25° caudad. A) True B) False

B) False

True/False: The lateral projection for the nasal bones is generally a unilateral projection. (Both right and left lateral projections are usually not required.) A) True B) False

B) False

True/False: The modified parietoacanthial (modified Waters) projection requires more extension of the head and neck as compared with the parietoacanthial (Waters) projection. A) True B) False

B) False

True/False: The proper name for the parieto-orbital oblique projection is the Schuller method. A) True B) False

B) False

True/False: The vestibule is located in the middle ear. A) True B) False

B) False

What is the classification of the joint found between the teeth and maxilla? A) Synovial B) Fibrous C) Cartilaginous D) Synarthrodial

B) Fibrous

How many facial bones help make up the bony orbit? A) Three B) Four C) Five D) Seven

B) Four

Which sinuses are best demonstrated with the PA projection? A) Maxillary and sphenoid B) Frontal and ethmoid C) Sphenoid and ethmoid D) Frontal and maxillary

B) Frontal and ethmoid

Which three cranial bones articulate directly with the zygomatic bone? A) Frontal, ethmoid, temporal B) Frontal, sphenoid, temporal C) Sphenoid, frontal, occipital D) Ethmoid, parietal, frontal

B) Frontal, sphenoid, temporal

Along with the use of erect positions, what other technical factor is important to demonstrate air/fluid levels in paranasal sinuses? A) Use of medium kV B) Horizontal x-ray beam C) Use of IR without a grid D) Small focal spot

B) Horizontal x-ray beam

Which positioning line is parallel to the IR for the oblique inferosuperior (tangential) projection of the zygomatic arches? A) Midsagittal plane B) Infraorbitomeatal C) Orbitomeatal D) Glabelloalveolar

B) Infraorbitomeatal

Which of the following imaging modalities should NOT be used to rule out a possible metal foreign body in the eye? A) CT B) MRI C) Nuclear medicine D) Radiography

B) MRI .

Part 9 is part of which bone? A) Zygomatic B) Maxilla C) Sphenoid D) Ethmoid

B) Maxilla

Which projection best demonstrates the floor of the orbits? A) Parietoacanthial (Waters) B) Modified parietoacanthial (modified Waters) C) PA axial (Caldwell) D) Lateral facial bones

B) Modified parietoacanthial (modified Waters)

A patient enters the ED with a possible nasal bone fracture. The physician is concerned about a possible bony nasal septum deviation and fractured nasal bones. Which of the following routines would best diagnose these injuries? A) Fifteen-degree PA Caldwell and lateral facial bone projections B) Parietoacanthial, lateral nasal bone, and superoinferior (axial) projections C) Modified parietoacanthial and lateral nasal bone projections D) Modified parietoacanthial, submentovertex, and oblique axial projections

B) Parietoacanthial, lateral nasal bone, and superoinferior (axial) projections

Which of the following projections of the mandible results in the highest skin dose? A) Axiolateral oblique B) Submentovertex C) PA axial D) AP axial

B) Submentovertex

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the entire mandible with one exposure? A) AP axial B) Submentovertex C) Axiolateral D) Tomography

B) Submentovertex

The ____ passageway drains the maxillary sinus into the middle nasal conchae. A) ethmoid bulla B) infundibulum C) uncinate process D) inferior nasal concha

B) infundibulum

An axiolateral oblique projection (Law method) for the temporomandibular joints on a brachycephalic type of skull would require ____ rotation as compared with an average-shaped skull. A) more B) less C) the same D) Rotation depends on the patient's age.

B) less

The pathway of communication between the frontal, maxillary, and ethmoid sinuses that provides drainage between them is termed: A) paranasal meatus. B) osteomeatal complex. C) labyrinths. D) lateral chambers.

B) osteomeatal complex.

The recommended digital systems kV range for the superoinferior tangential (axial) projection of the nasal bones is: A) 40 to 50. B) 50 to 60. C) 60 to 70. D) 75 to 85.

C) 60 to 70.

Where does the CR exit for a modified parietoacanthial (modified Waters) projection of the facial bones? A) Nasion B) Glabella C) Acanthion D) Midorbits

C) Acanthion

What can the technologist do if the patient cannot extend the head and neck adequately for the routine submentovertex projection of the zygomatic arches? A) Perform the Haas method. B) Use a short SID to magnify the arches. C) Angle the CR to place it perpendicular to the IOML. D) Rotate the skull 15° away from the affected side.

C) Angle the CR to place it perpendicular to the IOML.

Where is the CR centered for an AP axial projection for the mandible? A) At the nasion B) 2 inches (5 cm) above glabella C) At the glabella D) At the mentum

C) At the glabella

Which plane or perspective is most often produced for a CT scan of the sinuses? A) Sagittal B) Transverse C) Coronal D) Axial oblique

C) Coronal

Which of the following structures passes through the superior orbital fissure? A) Optic nerve B) Olfactory nerve C) Cranial nerves III to VI D) Maxillary branch of the fifth cranial nerve

C) Cranial nerves III to VI

Which group of sinuses is shaded (screened) in the frontal and lateral views of the illustration below? A) Maxillary B) Sphenoid C) Ethmoid D) Frontal

C) Ethmoid

A pediatric patient enters radiology for a paranasal sinus series. Because of her age, the child is unable to hold still for the projections even with the use of immobilization devices. The decision is to hold the child during each exposure. Which of the following individuals should be asked to hold the child? A) Technologists B) Referring physician C) Guardian D) Student

C) Guardian

Which positioning line is placed perpendicular to the plane of the IR with a true lateral nasal bone projection? A) OML B) AML C) Interpupillary D) Midsagittal

C) Interpupillary

What is the largest immovable bone of the face? A) Vomer B) Mandible C) Maxilla D) Zygomatic

C) Maxilla

Which facial bone forms the majority of the hard palate? A) Mandible B) Palatine C) Maxilla D) Zygomatic

C) Maxilla

A radiograph of a PA Caldwell projection reveals that the petrous ridges are projected into the lower one third of the orbit. Which of the following modifications should be made during the repeat exposure to produce a more diagnostic image? A) Increase the extension of the head and neck. B) Decrease the extension of the head and neck. C) Nothing; accept the initial radiograph. D) Angle the CR 10° caudad.

C) Nothing; accept the initial radiograph.

Which of the following imaging modalities is utilized to determine the degree of skeletal metastases especially in the cranium? A) CT B) MRI C) Nuclear medicine D) Radiography

C) Nuclear medicine

Which positioning line must be used with a 30° caudad angle for an AP axial projection of zygomatic arches? A) IOML B) AML C) OML D) GAL

C) OML

Where should the optic foramen be located with a well-positioned parieto-orbital oblique projection of the optic foramina? A) Inner, lower quadrant of orbit B) Center of orbit C) Outer, lower quadrant of orbit D) Inner, upper quadrant of orbit

C) Outer, lower quadrant of orbit

A patient enters the ED with a possible fracture of the proximal ramus of the mandible. Which of the following routines would best diagnose this fracture? A) Parietoacanthial projection, axiolateral oblique projection with a 30° rotation toward film, and lateral facial bone projection B) PA mandible projection, axiolateral oblique projection with a 45° rotation, and 35° AP axial projection C) PA axial mandible projection, axiolateral oblique projection with no rotation, and a 35° AP axial projection D) PA mandible projection, axiolateral oblique projection with a 45° rotation toward film, and submentovertex projection

C) PA axial mandible projection, axiolateral oblique projection with no rotation, and a 35° AP axial projection

Which sinus is projected through the oral cavity with a parietoacanthial transoral projection? A) Ethmoid B) Maxillary C) Sphenoid D) Frontal

C) Sphenoid

Which sinus often produces an air/fluid level indicating a basilar skull fracture? A) Ethmoid B) Maxillary C) Sphenoid D) Frontal

C) Sphenoid

Number 6 is which of the following? A) Inferior orbital fissure B) Optic foramina C) Superior orbital fissure D) Lacrimal duct

C) Superior orbital fissure

Why is the chin extended for an axiolateral oblique projection of the mandible? A) To open up the TMJ B) To profile the condylar process C) To prevent superimposition upon the cervical spine D) To better visualize the mentum

C) To prevent superimposition upon the cervical spine

What is the position of the skull for an axiolateral projection (Schuller method) of the TMJ? A) Midsagittal plane at a 53° angle to the image receptor B) Skull rotated 15° toward the IR from the lateral position C) True lateral position D) OML is at a 37° angle to the image receptor

C) True lateral position

The term antrum of Highmore is an older term for the: A) frontal sinuses. B) ethmoid sinuses. C) maxillary sinuses. D) nasal cavity.

C) maxillary sinuses.

The point of union between both halves of the mandible is termed: A) gonion. B) ramus. C) symphysis menti. D) mental foramina.

C) symphysis menti.

There are a total of ____ fontanels in an infant A. four B. two c. six D. eight

C. six

What CR angle is required for the AP axial projection for the temporomandibular joints (TMJs) with the IOML perpendicular to the image receptor? A) 30° B) 37° C) 25° D) 42°

D) 42°

Which of the following structures are described as scroll-like projections found in the nasal cavity? A) Perpendicular plate B) Pterygoid processes C) Septal cartilage D) Conchae

D) Conchae

Which aspect of the mandible is best demonstrated with an AP axial projection? A) Body B) Mentum C) Ramus D) Condyloid process

D) Condyloid process

Part 3 is part of which bone? A) Palatine B) Sphenoid C) Lacrimal D) Ethmoid

D) Ethmoid

A patient comes to radiology for a sinus series on a cart (gurny). She is unable to stand or sit erect for any of the projections. Which of the following projections will best detect any air/fluid levels present in the maxillary sinuses? A) PA B) Parietoacanthial C) Parietoacanthial transoral D) Horizontal beam lateral

D) Horizontal beam lateral

A radiograph of a submentovertex projection reveals that the mandible is superimposed over the ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses. Which of the following modifications will eliminate this problem? A) Perform the projection with the patient supine. B) Perform the axiolateral oblique instead of the submentovertex projection. C) Increase the flexion of the head and neck. D) Increase the extension of the head and neck.

D) Increase the extension of the head and neck.

A radiograph of a parietoacanthial transoral (open-mouth Waters) projection reveals that the mouth is open but the sphenoid sinus is superimposed over the maxilla and upper teeth. What positioning error led to this radiographic outcome? A) Insufficient flexion of the head and neck B) Excessive CR angulation C) Insufficient CR angulation D) Insufficient extension of the head and neck

D) Insufficient extension of the head and neck

Where are the ethmoid sinuses located within the ethmoid bone? A) Perpendicular plate B) Pterygoid processes C) Cribriform plate D) Lateral masses

D) Lateral masses

Where is the CR centered for a lateral projection of the sinuses? A) Upside EAM (side away from image receptor) B) At the level of the nasion C) Midway between the acanthion and the EAM D) Midway between the outer canthus and the EAM

D) Midway between the outer canthus and the EAM

A patient enters the ED with facial bone injuries. The physician is concerned about a possible blow-out fracture of the left orbit. Which of the following three-projection routines would best diagnose this injury? A) Parietoacanthial, lateral facial bone, and 15° PA Caldwell facial bone projections B) Parietoacanthial, lateral facial bone, and submentovertex projections C) Modified parietoacanthial, superoinferior (tangential), and lateral facial bone projections D) Modified parietoacanthial, 30° PA facial bone, and lateral facial bone projections

D) Modified parietoacanthial, 30° PA facial bone, and lateral facial bone projections

A radiograph of a lateral projection of the facial bones reveals that the mandibular rami are not superimposed. What specific positioning error is present on this radiograph? A) Tilt B) Excessive flexion C) Excessive extension D) Rotation

D) Rotation

Part 7 is part of which bone? A) Ethmoid B) Lacrimal C) Zygomatic D) Sphenoid

D) Sphenoid

A patient enters the ED with a possible fracture of the right zygomatic arch. Which of the following routines would best diagnose a possible fracture of this structure? A) Submentovertex, parietoacanthial, and bilateral tangential superoinferior projections B) Parietoacanthial, parieto-orbital, and lateral facial bone projections C) Modified parietoacanthial, 15° PA Caldwell, and lateral facial bone projections D) Submentovertex, bilateral oblique inferosuperior (tangential), and AP axial projections

D) Submentovertex, bilateral oblique inferosuperior (tangential), and AP axial projections

Where is the CR centered for a lateral projection of the facial bones? A) Outer canthus B) Acanthion C) Midway between the glabella and the EAM D) Zygoma, midway between the EAM and the outer canthus

D) Zygoma, midway between the EAM and the outer canthus

Which bone is involved with a tripod fracture? A) Maxilla B) Ethmoid C) Temporal D) Zygomatic

D) Zygomatic

The upper and lower teeth are embedded in the: A) symphysis menti. B) condyloid processes. C) palatine processes. D) alveolar processes.

D) alveolar processes.

A fracture involving the facial bones where a blow to one side causes a fracture to the opposite side is termed a ____ fracture. A) tripod B) blow-out C) Le Fort D) contrecoup

D) contrecoup

The most common radiographic sign for secondary osteomyelitis of the paranasal sinuses is: A) polyps. B) mucosal thickening. C) deviation of the bony nasal septum. D) erosion of the bony margins.

D) erosion of the bony margins.

The CR must be placed parallel to the ____ positioning line for the superoinferior (tangential) projection of nasal bones. A) glabellomeatal B) mentomeatal C) lips-meatal D) glabelloalveolar

D) glabelloalveolar

Match each of the following radiographic appearances with the corresponding pathologic indication. (Use each selection only once.) - Radiolucent areas within the bony cranium a. Multiple myeloma b. Paget's disease c. Metastases d. Pituitary adenoma

a. Multiple myeloma

MATCHING Select the imaging modality that would best demonstrate the following pathologies. - Early detection of metastases a. Nuclear medicine b. MRI c. CT d. Ultrasound e. Conventional radiography

a. Nuclear medicine

Match each radiographic appearance with the corresponding pathologic indication. (Use each selection only once.) - Excessive bone formation generally involving both the middle and inner ear a. Otosclerosis b. Acoustic neuroma c. Cholesteatoma d. Mastoiditis

a. Otosclerosis

Match each radiographic appearance with the corresponding pathologic indication.(Use each selection only once.) - Bone destruction with widened internal auditory canal a. Otosclerosis b. Acoustic neuroma c. Cholesteatoma d. Mastoiditis

b. Acoustic neuroma

MATCHING Select the imaging modality that would best demonstrate the following pathologies. -Most sensitive modality for detecting differences between normal and abnormal brain tissues a. Nuclear medicine b. MRI c. CT d. Ultrasound e. Conventional radiography

b. MRI

Match each of the following radiographic appearances with the corresponding pathologic indication.(Use each selection only once.) - Destructive stage of bony areas demonstrated by areas of radiolucency followed by reparative stages of sclerotic (radiodense) regions resulting in a "cotton-wool" appearance a. Multiple myeloma b. Paget's disease c. Metastases d. Pituitary adenoma

b. Paget's disease

MATCHING Select the imaging modality that would best demonstrate the following pathologies. - Recent bleeding within the brain a. Nuclear medicine b. MRI c. CT d. Ultrasound e. Conventional radiography

c. CT

Match each radiographic appearance with the corresponding pathologic indication. (Use each selection only once.) -Bone destruction most commonly involving middle ear a. Otosclerosis b. Acoustic neuroma c. Cholesteatoma d. Mastoiditis

c. Cholesteatoma

Match each of the following radiographic appearances with the corresponding pathologic indication. (Use each selection only once.) - Distinctive lesions with moth-eaten appearance, a combination of increased density and destructive irregular border lesions a. Multiple myeloma b. Paget's disease c. Metastases d. Pituitary adenoma

c. Metastases

Match each radiographic appearance with the corresponding pathologic indication.(Use each selection only once.) - Increased densities replace mastoid air cells a. Otosclerosis b. Acoustic neuroma c. Cholesteatoma d. Mastoiditis

d. Mastoiditis

Match each of the following radiographic appearances with the corresponding pathologic indication.(Use each selection only once.) - Enlarged sella turcica a. Multiple myeloma b. Paget's disease c. Metastases d. Pituitary adenoma

d. Pituitary adenoma

MATCHING Select the imaging modality that would best demonstrate the following pathologies. - Craniosynostosis (premature suture closing in neonate skull) a. Nuclear medicine b. MRI c. CT d. Ultrasound e. Conventional radiography

d. Ultrasound

MATCHING Select the imaging modality that would best demonstrate the following pathologies. - Hydrocephalus (in neonate) a. Nuclear medicine b. MRI c. CT d. Ultrasound e. Conventional radiography

d. Ultrasound

MATCHING Select the imaging modality that would best demonstrate the following pathologies. - Intracranial hemorrhage in premature infants a. Nuclear medicine b. MRI c. CT d. Ultrasound e. Conventional radiography

d. Ultrasound

MATCHING Select the imaging modality that would best demonstrate the following pathologies. - Paget's disease a. Nuclear medicine b. MRI c. CT d. Ultrasound e. Conventional radiography

e. Conventional radiography