Chapter 14 Material Requirements Planning (MRP) and ERP

C) Wheeled Coach's MRP system allowed the company to meet tight schedules, but caused inventory to rise.

1) Which of the following statements regarding Wheeled Coach is FALSE? A) Wheeled Coach has found competitive advantage through MRP. B) Wheeled Coach builds ambulances in a repetitive process. C) Wheeled Coach's MRP system allowed the company to meet tight schedules, but caused inventory to rise. D) Wheeled Coach's MRP system maintains excellent record integrity. E) Low inventory and high quality are two positive outcomes of Wheeled Coach's use of MRP.

D) All of the above are true.

4) Dependent demand and independent demand items differ in that: A) for any product, all components are dependent-demand items. B) the need for independent-demand items is forecast. C) the need for dependent-demand items is calculated. D) All of the above are true. E) None of the above is true.

C) the work center's load may be smoothed by such tactics as operations splitting or lot splitting.

40) If a load report (resource requirements profile) shows a work center scheduled beyond capacity: A) the company must add capacity by enlarging the facility. B) the company must add capacity by such tactics as overtime and subcontracting. C) the work center's load may be smoothed by such tactics as operations splitting or lot splitting. D) the aggregate plan must be revised. E) the Wagner-Whitin algorithm should be used to rebalance the load.

C) material resource planning.

41) MRP II is accurately described as: A) MRP software designed for services. B) MRP with a new set of computer programs that execute on microcomputers. C) material resource planning. D) an enhancement of MRP that plans for all levels of the supply chain. E) a new generation of MRP software that extends MRP to planning and scheduling functions.

A) increased quality

5) Which of the following is NOT a key benefit of MRP? A) increased quality B) better response to customer orders C) faster response to market changes D) improved utilization of facilities and labor E) reduced inventory levels

C) modular

9) A paint company mixes ten different base colors into 3,000 different color options. If production scheduling is organized around the ten different base colors , then the bills of material are classified as which of the following? A) phantom B) planning C) modular D) low-level E) A and B

E) A) "pseudo" and B) Planning

10) A grill assembly takes 20 washers. Instead of listing these washers separately, they are grouped into a single kit for production. How is the bill of material for the washers classified? A) "pseudo" B) planning C) modular D) low-level E) A and B

E) 99%

11) The minimum record accuracy required for successful MRP is approximately which of the following? A) lower than 90% B) 90% C) 95% D) 97% E) 99%

E) 300

12) Consider the following product structure. If the demand for product A is 50 units, how many units of component E will be needed? A) 4 B) 100 C) 200 D) 250 E) 300

A) 50

13) Consider the following product structure. If the demand for product A is 50 units, how many units of component E will be needed? A) 50 B) 100 C) 150 D) 200 E) 300

C) a component item is coded at the lowest level at which it appears in the BOM structure.

14) Low-level coding means that: A) a final item has only a few levels in the BOM structure. B) the code being used is the code for the lowest level in the BOM structure. C) a component item is coded at the lowest level at which it appears in the BOM structure. D) the top level of the BOM is below level zero and that BOMs are not organized around the finished product. E) the lowest-paid staff member in the production department performs the coding.

A) level 0

15) By convention, what is the top level in a product structure? A) level 0 B) level 1 C) level T D) level 10 E) level 100

C) 70

16) Consider the following product structure. If the demand for product A is 30 units, and there are 10 units of B on hand and none of C, how many units of part D will be needed? A) 3 B) 40 C) 70 D) 90 E) 110

D) Week 4, 40 As

17) It is week 1 and there are currently 20 As in stock. We need 300 As at the start of week 5. If there are scheduled receipts planned for week 3 and week 4 of 120 As each and A has a lead time of 1 week, when and how large of an order should be placed to meet the requirement of 300 As? A) Week 1, 300 As B) Week 1, 40 As C) Week 5, 40 As D) Week 4, 40 As E) Week 4, 300 As

E) either C or D

18) If safety stock is desired, it should be built into which portion of MRP? A) any B) none C) raw materials D) finished goods E) either C or D

C) the capacity needed to provide the projected output rate.

19) A material requirements plan contains information with regard to all of the following EXCEPT: A) quantities and required delivery dates of all subassemblies. B) quantities and required delivery dates of final products. C) the capacity needed to provide the projected output rate. D) inventory on hand for each final product. E) inventory on hand for each subassembly.

E) The process must adhere to stringent quality control standards.

2) Which of the following is NOT one of the four key tasks that Wheeled Coach insists are necessary for successful MRP implementation? A) The material plan must meet both schedule requirements and facility capabilities. B) The plan must be executed as designed. C) Inventory investment must be minimized. D) Excellent record integrity must be maintained. E) The process must adhere to stringent quality control standards.

A) a schedule that shows total demand for an item, and when it must be ordered from a supplier or when production must be started

20) Which of the following best describes a gross material requirements plan? A) a schedule that shows total demand for an item, and when it must be ordered from a supplier or when production must be started B) an intermediate range plan for the scheduling of families of products C) a chart illustrating whether capacity has been exceeded D) a table that corrects scheduled quantities for inventory on hand E) a schedule showing which products are to be manufactured and in what quantities

E) All of the above are true.

21) Which of the following statements regarding the gross material requirements plan is TRUE? A) It shows total demand for an item. B) It shows when an item must be ordered from a supplier or when production must be started. C) It combines a master production schedule with the time-phased schedule. D) It requires several inputs, including an accurate bill of material. E) All of the above are true.

C) 300

22) An order for 110 units of Product M has been placed. There are currently 30 units of Product M on hand. Each M requires 4 units of Component N. There are 20 units of N on hand. What are the net requirements for N? A) 150 B) 170 C) 300 D) 320 E) 440

A) 115

23) An order for 50 units of Product A and 60 of B has been placed. There are currently 25 units of Product B on hand. Each A requires 2 units of Part C; each B requires 5 units of C. There are 160 units of C available. What are the net requirements for C? A) 115 B) 175 C) 240 D) 690 E) 700

C) 180

24) An order for 110 units of Product A has been placed. There are currently 60 units of Product A on hand. Each A requires 4 units of Part B. There are 20 units of B available. What are the net requirements for B? A) 20 B) 120 C) 180 D) 240 E) 440

D) projected on hand.

25) In MRP, the number of units projected to be available at the beginning of each time period refers to: A) net requirements. B) scheduled receipts. C) planned order releases. D) projected on hand. E) the amount necessary to cover a shortage.

E) A and C

26) Distortion in MRP systems can be minimized when safety stock is held at the: A) purchased component or raw material level. B) work-in-process level. C) finished goods level. D) A and B E) A and C

C) pegging

27) What is the process of tracing upward in the bill of material from the component to the parent item in order to determine the cause for the component requirement? A) net requirements planning B) time fencing C) pegging D) backtracking E) leveling

A) management's attempt to continually respond to minor changes in production requirements.

28) In MRP, system nervousness is caused by: A) management's attempt to continually respond to minor changes in production requirements. B) the use of the lot-for-lot approach. C) management's marking part of the master production schedule as "not to be rescheduled". D) the use of phantom bills of material. E) management's attempt to evaluate alternative plans before making a decision.

C) time fences

29) What is one of the tools that is particularly useful in reducing system nervousness in an MRP system? A) modular bills B) time phasing C) time fences D) lot sizing E) closed loop system

D) there is a clearly identifiable parent.

3) Demand for a given item is said to be dependent if: A) it originates from the external customer. B) there is a deep bill of material. C) the finished products are mostly services (rather than goods). D) there is a clearly identifiable parent. E) the item has several children.

A) lot-for-lot

30) Which of the following lot-sizing techniques results in the lowest holding costs? A) lot-for-lot B) EOQ C) POQ D) Wagner-Whitin algorithm E) the quantity discount model

B) The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is equal to the quantity of planned order release(s) multiplied by the number of child items used in the parent assembly.

31) Which of the following statements is TRUE about the MRP plan when using lot-for-lot ordering? A) The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is always equal to the quantity of planned order releases for its parent. B) The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is equal to the quantity of planned order release(s) multiplied by the number of child items used in the parent assembly. C) The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is always equal to the quantity of gross requirements for its parent. D) The quantity and gross requirements for a child item is always equal to the quantity of net requirements for its parent. E) All of the above are true.

A) lot-for-lot

32) What lot-sizing technique is generally preferred when inventory holding costs are extremely high? A) lot-for-lot B) EOQ C) POQ D) the Wagner-Whitin algorithm E) All of the above are appropriate for the situation.

B) setup cost should be relatively small.

33) For the lot-sizing technique known as lot-for-lot to be appropriate: A) future demand should be known for several weeks. B) setup cost should be relatively small. C) annual volume should be rather low. D) item unit cost should be relatively small. E) the independent demand rate should be very stable.

B) Too much concern with lot-sizing results in false accuracy.

34 Which of the following statements regarding lot-sizing is TRUE? A) EOQ principles should be followed whenever economical. B) Too much concern with lot-sizing results in false accuracy. C) Lot-for-lot cannot be modified for scrap allowance or process constraints. D) The Wagner-Whitin algorithm simplifies lot size calculations. E) All of the above are true.

B) periodic order quantity

35) Which lot-sizing technique orders the quantity needed during a predetermined time between orders? A) economic order quantity B) periodic order quantity C) lot-for-lot D) time fencing E) part-period balancing

E) EOQ / average demand per period

36) What does the POQ interval equal? A) the number of periods of average demand covered by the safety stock B) the same number of periods that are on the "not to be rescheduled" side of the time fence C) EOQ / maximum gross requirement D) the number of periods until the incoming projected on hand runs out E) EOQ / average demand per period

D) Each order quantity is recalculated at the time of the order release.

37) Which of the following is TRUE regarding the POQ lot-sizing method? A) Each POQ interval is recalculated at the time of the order release. B) Each order quantity and POQ interval are recalculated at the time of the order release. C) The POQ interval and all order quantities remain fixed throughout the planning horizon. D) Each order quantity is recalculated at the time of the order release. E) POQ lot sizes are always at least as large as the EOQ lot sizes would be.

C) lot-for-lot

38) Which MRP lot-sizing technique should be considered to be the goal (i.e., the technique of choice under ideal conditions)? A) Wagner-Whitin B) EOQ C) lot-for-lot D) POQ E) Silver-Meal

E) All of the above are true.

39) Capacity planning in closed-loop MRP: A) utilizes feedback about workload from each work center. B) may make use of resource requirements profiles (load reports). C) may smooth work center loads with such tactics as overlapping and lot splitting. D) does not add capacity, but rather seeks effective use of existing capacity. E) All of the above are true.

D) Services such as restaurant meals illustrate dependent demand, and they require product structure trees, bills-of-material, and scheduling.

42) Which of the following statements regarding MRP in services is TRUE? A) MRP is for manufacturing only, and it is not applicable to services. B) MRP can be used in services, but only in those that offer very limited customization. C) MRP only works in services for demand that is independent. D) Services such as restaurant meals illustrate dependent demand, and they require product structure trees, bills-of-material, and scheduling. E) None of the above is true.

B) a time-phased stock replenishment plan for all levels of a distribution network.

43) Distribution resource planning (DRP) is: A) a transportation plan to ship materials to warehouses. B) a time-phased stock replenishment plan for all levels of a distribution network. C) a shipping plan from a central warehouse to retail warehouses. D) material requirements planning with a feedback loop from distribution centers. E) a material requirements planning package used exclusively by warehouses.

D) automates and integrates the majority of business processes.

44) Enterprise resource planning (ERP): A) seldom requires software upgrade or enhancement. B) does not integrate well with functional areas other than operations. C) is inexpensive to implement. D) automates and integrates the majority of business processes. E) all of the above

C) It is inexpensive to implement.

45) Which of the following is FALSE concerning enterprise resource planning (ERP)? A) It attempts to automate and integrate the majority of business processes. B) It shares common data and practices across the enterprise. C) It is inexpensive to implement. D) It provides and accesses information in a real-time environment. E) ERP software promises reduced transaction costs.

E) cost of individual components

6) Effective use of MRP and other dependent demand models does not require which of the following? A) master production schedule B) bill of materials C) inventory availability D) lead times E) cost of individual components

B) modular bills

7) Firms making many different final products use ________ to facilitate production scheduling. A) planning bills B) modular bills C) phantom bills D) overdue bills E) gross requirements bills

E) Modular bills represent subassemblies that actually exist and are inventoried, while phantom bills represent subassemblies that exist only temporarily and are not inventoried.

8) Which of the following statements best compares modular bills and phantom bills? A) Both pertain to assemblies that are not inventoried. B) There is no difference between the two. C) Both pertain to assemblies that are inventoried. D) Modular bills are used for assemblies that are not inventoried, unlike phantom bills. E) Modular bills represent subassemblies that actually exist and are inventoried, while phantom bills represent subassemblies that exist only temporarily and are not inventoried.