chapter 17 & 18
c. Periodontal file
A large piece of burnished calculus is present on the distal aspect of tooth #2. Which instrument would be MOST effective in preparing the burnished deposit for eventual removal with another periodontal instrument? a. Beavertail ultrasonic tip b. Rigid Gracey 13/14 c. Periodontal file d. Miniature Gracey 13/14 curet with an extended shank
d. extent of carious lesions.
A periodontal probe can be used to assess all the following EXCEPT a. width of attached gingiva. b. clinical attachment level. c. degree of recession. d. extent of carious lesions.
d. Use an ultrasonic slim-diameter tip and approach the deposit from both facial and lingual aspects.
Access to the light subgingival calculus deposits on the proximal surfaces of the anterior teeth is difficult because of papillary enlargement of the gingival tissues. Which of the following is the BEST approach for thorough subgingival calculus removal from the proximal surfaces? a. Use a universal curet. b. Try to remove the deposit with an explorer since the working end is so tiny. c. Apply a topical anesthetic; then use a calculus removal stroke subgingivally with an anterior sickle. d. Use an ultrasonic slim-diameter tip and approach the deposit from both facial and lingual aspects.
c. Mesiobuccal root is normally not anesthetized by posterior superior alveolar nerve block.
After administering a posterior superior alveolar nerve block, the maxillary first molar remains sensitive, but the maxillary second and third molars are anesthetized. Which of the following would be the BEST explanation? a. Anesthetic agent was deposited too high. b. Not enough anesthetic agent was deposited. c. Mesiobuccal root is normally not anesthetized by posterior superior alveolar nerve block. d. Anesthetic agent was deposited too low.
b. Vasoconstrictor
After starting the root-planing procedure, you encounter considerable bleeding from the client's sulcular tissues. After consulting with the dentist, it is decided to administer a local anesthetic for hemostasis. Which component of the local anesthetic will help to achieve hemostasis? a. Anesthetic salt b. Vasoconstrictor c. Sodium bisulfite d. Distilled water
B. The mark is a hematoma developed by creating a tear in the blood vessel during the PSA block.
After the administration of local anesthesia to anesthetize teeth #1 to #3, you notice a faint bluish discoloration on her cheek. You check intraorally and find the same discoloration near the injection site along with swelling. What is the most probable cause of this mark? a. The anesthetic cartridge was contaminated with alcohol. b. The needle created a tear in the blood vessel. c. The hygienist used a needle of too fine a gauge. d. The hygienist injected too rapidly.
d. your middle finger is on top of the handle to allow for greater pressure against the tooth.
After working for 15 minutes on the distal of tooth #3, the calculus deposit remains. You decide to take a minute to assess your instrumentation technique. Ensuring all the following steps would help you effectively remove the deposit EXCEPT a. the instrument working end angulation is 70 to 80 degrees. b. only the toe-third of the working end is adapted to the tooth. c. the instrument's lower shank is parallel to the long axis of the tooth. d. your middle finger is on top of the handle to allow for greater pressure against the tooth.
d. having the patient's daughter present at all times during treatment.
All the following are ethical and legal concerns when treating this client EXCEPT: case g p 543 a. obligation to protect the client from harm or injury during care. b. following standard of care protocol for her treatment. c. assessing for physician or specialty referrals. d. having the patient's daughter present at all times during treatment.
d. all teeth in the dentition should be polished with a rubber cup polisher until all surfaces are shining.
All the following are true about power-driven polishing (rubber cup polishing) EXCEPT a. using a dry polishing agent with high speed can heat up the large pulp chambers in primary teeth. b. only teeth requiring stain removal for esthetic purposes should be polished with polishing agent. c. bacteremia can be induced during rubber cup polishing. d. all teeth in the dentition should be polished with a rubber cup polisher until all surfaces are shining.
B. Sodium bisulfite, NOT bisulfate, is a preservative found in an anesthetic solution.
All the following ingredients are contained within an anesthetic solution EXCEPT a. sodium chloride. b. sodium bisulfate. c. water. d. vasoconstrictor.
d. ultrasonic instrumentation.
All the following instruments can be used during treatment of a pediatric patient EXCEPT a. anterior sickle. b. pigtail explorer. c. universal curet. d. ultrasonic instrumentation.
d. its lipophilic portion is ester-linked to the amino group.- Lidocaine is an amide.
All the following statements are TRUE about lidocaine EXCEPT a. it is an amide-linked compound. b. it is used in 2% concentrations. c. it forms a salt with a strong acid that is water soluble. d. its lipophilic portion is ester-linked to the amino group.
c. you should never use digital motion.
All the following statements are TRUE about ultrasonic instrumentation EXCEPT a. the side of the tip should maintain contact with the tooth at all times. b. cavitation creates tiny bubbles that collapse and kill bacteria. c. you should never use digital motion. d. there are no cutting edges on the ultrasonic tip.
a. minimal threshold stimulus.- Minimal threshold stimulus is the magnitude of the stimulus (environmental change) required to initiate a nerve impulse.
An environmental change capable of initiating a nerve impulse is termed a. minimal threshold stimulus. b. initiation stimulus. c. firing mechanism. d. the "all or none" law.
b. preventing depolarization.
Anesthetics decrease or limit the sensation of pain by a. decreasing the firing threshold. b. preventing depolarization. c. repolarizing the nerve membrane. d. causing hyperpolarization.
d. relaxing the fingers in the grasp after each calculus removal stroke is inefficient and stresses the hand muscles.
At the end of the workday, Stacy noticed muscle fatigue in her dominant hand. All the following may cause muscle fatigue EXCEPT a. narrow-diameter handles cause the clinician to use more grip pressure, thus causing muscle fatigue. b. a limited selection of instruments forces the clinician to use an instrument that is not appropriate for the task at hand, such as using a Gracey 11/12 to remove a heavy calculus deposit. c. dull instruments are not effective in removing calculus deposits. d. relaxing the fingers in the grasp after each calculus removal stroke is inefficient and stresses the hand muscles.
b. Shepherd's hook
Before calculus removal, an explorer is used to determine the type, amount and location of calculus deposits. Which of the following explorers is NOT recommended for calculus detection? a. ODU 11/12 b. Shepherd's hook c. Orban type d. Pigtail or cowhorn
d. Standard Gracey curets
Calculus assessment reveals light calculus deposits on the mandibular anterior teeth and maxillary first molars and generalized plaque biofilm. Of the following instruments, which would you be most likely NOT to use in treating this client? a. Universal curet b. Anterior sickle scaler c. ODU 11/12 explorer d. Standard Gracey curets
d. A and B
Clinical examination shows that the gingival tissues are red and slightly enlarged on maxillary and mandibular anterior teeth. Which of the following should the hygienist consider as etiologic factor(s) in the tissue inflammation and enlargement? a. Moderate plaque biofilm b. The patient is pregnant c. The patient is asthmatic d. A and B
d. using a universal curet for calculus removal.
During instrumentation for calculus removal using hand instruments, your hand becomes fatigued. Self-assessment indicates you have been using finger motion. Digital activation is acceptable for all the following situations EXCEPT a. using an ultrasonic for debridement. b. using a calibrated probe to measure pocket depth. c. exploring for calculus using an ODU 11/12 explorer. d. using a universal curet for calculus removal.
e. All of the above
For what purpose is epinephrine added to either prilocaine or lidocaine local anesthetic agent? a. Prolongation of anesthesia b. Reduction of hemorrhage in field of operation c. Constriction of blood vessels in area of injection d. Prevention of toxic effects from too rapid absorption e. All of the above
c. Blood will be noticed at the needle hub.
How can you determine a positive aspiration with the computer-controlled local anesthetic delivery date? a. Blood will be noticed in the glass cartridge. b. Blood will be noticed in the plastic tubing only. c. Blood will be noticed at the needle hub. d. The unit will beep rapidly if aspiration is positive.
B. Taking tricyclic antidepressants is a relative contraindication to the use of vasoconstrictors and the cardiac dose for epinephrine must be used making epinephrine the limiting drug in this situation. The cardiac dose for epinephrine is 0.04 mg or 2.2 cartridges.
How many cartridges of lidocaine 2% 1:100,000 epinephrine anesthetic agent can be safely administered to a 120-lb patient taking tricyclic antidepressants? a. 1.1 cartridges b. 2.2 cartridges c. 3.3 cartridges d. 4.4 cartridges
B. . For prilocaine, the maximum dose in milligrams per pound is 4.0. To determine the maximum recommended dose for this patient in milligrams , multiply 130 pds × 4.0 mg/lb = 520 mg, MRD. To convert to cartridges: because a 4% solution has 72 mg in one cartridge, divide 520 mg by 72 mg = 7.2 cartridges.
How many cartridges of prilocaine 4% anesthetic agent can a healthy 130-lb patient receive? a. 6.8 cartridges b. 7.2 cartridges c. 7.8 cartridges d. 8.3 cartridges
C. Gingivectomy is a resective periodontal surgical procedure, which has a limited use in modern periodontal care, and this surgical procedure is not used to treat marginal gingivitis.
In addition to controlling local oral factors—biofilm and calculus deposits—the dental team should consider all the following to assist Michael in improving his oral health EXCEPT: case c p540 a. consultation with Michael's primary care or endocrinologist. b. explain the connection between poor glycemic control and poor oral health. c. recommend a gingivectomy to control the marginal gingivitis. d. brainstorm with Michael about alternative methods of biofilm control that he would be more likely to use on a daily basis, such as a water flosser instead of dental floss.
A. Stage I is the analgesia stage. This stage has three planes; the first two planes are appropriate for dental hygiene care.Stage II is the excitement stage and is not appropriate for dental hygiene care. Stage III is surgical anesthesia. This stage has four planes, which are used in oral and maxillofacial surgery. Stage IV is respiratory paralysis until death.
In monitoring the use of N2O, the patient should be in which stage of general anesthesia? a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV
C. Local anesthetics are bases, the solutions injected into the tissues are an acidic salt.
Local anesthetic drugs are bases; the local anesthetic solution injected into the tissues are weak bases. a. Both statements are TRUE. b. Both statements are FALSE. c. The first statement is TRUE; the second is FALSE. d. The first statement if FALSE; the second is TRUE.
d. Miniature Gracey 13/14 curet
On a tooth with class III furcation involvement, which of the following instruments would you use from the facial aspect to instrument the distal half of the mesial root? a. Universal curet b. ODU 11/12 explorer c. Miniature Gracey 11/12 curet d. Miniature Gracey 13/14 curet
a. increase intake of caffeine beverages to stimulate saliva production.
One of the client's chief complaints is that his medication makes his mouth dry. All the following are useful suggestions for the client to minimize effects of xerostomia EXCEPT a. increase intake of caffeine beverages to stimulate saliva production. b. use toothpastes and mouthrinses specially designed for individuals with xerostomia. c. chew sugarless gum to increase the flow of saliva. d. replace lost saliva with saliva substitutes.
a. straight ultrasonic tip.
Removing the medium-sized subgingival calculus deposits from the mandibular anterior teeth would be BEST accomplished using a a. straight ultrasonic tip. b. anterior sickle. c. standard Gracey 1/2. d. universal curet.
a. rapid transmission of nerve impulses along a myelinated nerve fiber.
Saltatory conduction refers to a. rapid transmission of nerve impulses along a myelinated nerve fiber. b. diffusion of sodium into the nerve cell during impulse conduction. c. conduction of an impulse along a nonmyelinated nerve fiber at the nodes of Ranvier. d. None of the above
b. vasoconstrictor.
Sodium bisulfite is added to a cartridge of anesthetic to increase the stability of the a. distilled water. b. vasoconstrictor. c. hydrochloride salt. d. plasma cholinesterase.
A. Basic drug + HCL (acid) ➔ Acidic salt
The anesthetic solutions injected into the tissues are a. acidic salts. b. strong acids. c. weak bases. d. alkaloids.
d. a standard ultrasonic tip.
The best way to remove tobacco stain is to use a. the toe of a universal curet. b. an air polisher with coarse, abrasive sodium bicarbonate slurry. c. a Nabers diamond-coated file (similar to Nabers furcation probe with diamond coating). d. a standard ultrasonic tip.
a. Periodontal file
The calculus deposit on the distal of tooth #18 has been burnished. Which of the following hand instruments would be your first choice when beginning calculus removal? a. Periodontal file b. Standard Gracey 13/14 c. Posterior sickle d. Universal curet
D. To prevent tissue damage, the anterior third of the instrument working end should be adapted to the tooth.
The client has dark-coral, friable tissue in the mandibular anterior area. After instrumentation of the lower mandibular anterior teeth, there is evidence of tissue trauma. All the following practices may cause tissue trauma EXCEPT a. using a standard versus miniature area specific curet. b. using a cowhorn explorer instead of an Orban-type explorer. c. repeatedly removing the working-end from the sulcus or pocket space and reinserting it again beneath the gingival margin after each stroke. d. adapting the anterior 1/3 of the working end.
c. Use an ultrasonic tip designed to smooth defective margins on restorations.
The client has defective margins (overhangs) on the amalgam restorations on two posterior teeth, reducing his ability to keep the area clean with floss and resulting in chronic inflammation. What can you do to help mitigate the circumstance? a. Use a standard Gracey to pop off the extra amalgam. b. Use a sturdy posterior sickle apical to the overhang to try and remove it. c. Use an ultrasonic tip designed to smooth defective margins on restorations. d. Use a Quétin curet to smooth the extra amalgam.
B. Plaque biofilm and calculus can develop on pontics.
The client has two bridges to replace congenitally missing maxillary lateral incisors. All the following statements are TRUE regarding patient treatment EXCEPT a. there is no reason to probe around tooth #7 and #10. b. since calculus does not form on pontics, there is no need to check the pontics for calculus deposits. c. avoid using the motor driven polisher so as not to scratch the restoration. d. instrumentation of the abutment teeth is necessary to remove all calculus deposits.
b. Finding a secure intraoral fulcrum
The client is missing tooth #14 and #16. What might be challenging when trying to remove subgingival calculus deposits from the mesial surface of tooth #15? a. Keeping the instrument's functional shank parallel to the long axis of the tooth b. Finding a secure intraoral fulcrum c. Establishing 0-degree insertion with an area-specific curet d. Probing the col
a. Ask the client to lower his chin (chin-down position).
The client's mandibular anterior teeth are crowded and in linguoversion, making it challenging to remove calculus deposits from the lingual surfaces. Which of the following patient-positioning suggestions is BEST to ensure an ergonomic instrumentation technique? a. Ask the client to lower his chin (chin-down position). b. Lower the back of the chair until it is parallel to the floor. c. Ask the client to keep his chin in an upward position (chin-up position). d. Put the chair in an upright position so the clinician can work from a standing position.
b. After reviewing the medical history and before beginning instrumentation
The client's medical history presents a few challenges, so a thorough assessment must be conducted. At what stage of treatment should you assess the client for signs of anxiety? case G p543 a. After instrumentation of a few teeth b. After reviewing the medical history and before beginning instrumentation c. While explaining what to expect during ultrasonic instrumentation d. Before taking radiographs
A. There is 54 mg in one cartridge of 3% mepivacaine. To determine how many milligrams are in 2.4 cartridges, multiply 54 by 2.4, and the answer is 129.6 mg.
The dental hygienist administered 2.4 cartridges of 3% mepivacaine. How many milligrams were administered? a. 129.6 mg b. 137.5 mg c. 138.4 mg d. 125.2 mg
d. Answers B and C would obtain the most accurate reading
The distal of tooth #18 has a large piece of calculus. When probing, what is the BEST way to obtain accurate probing depth? a. Insert the probe until it is obstructed by the calculus deposit; record this measurement as the probing depth b. To obtain an initial reading, move the probe over and around the deposit and insert the probe to the base of the sulcus or pocket; record this as an initial depth c. Once the calculus deposit has been removed, use the probe to obtain an accurate probing depth d. Answers B and C would obtain the most accurate reading
b. Gracey curet.
The facial surface of tooth #3 is coated with a thin layer of supragingival calculus. All the following instruments will remove this calculus deposit efficiently, EXCEPT a a. posterior sickle scaler. b. Gracey curet. c. universal curet. d. standard ultrasonic tip.
b. 30% to 50%.
The ideal concentration range of N2O is a. 10% to 25%. b. 30% to 50%. c. 50% to 60%. d. 60% to 70%.
a. diffuse through the nerve tissue.
The lipophilic portion of an anesthetic molecule allows the anesthetic solution to a. diffuse through the nerve tissue. b. diffuse through osseous tissue. c. diffuse through the interstitial tissues. d. be absorbed by the blood supply.
B. The lipophilic portion of the anesthetic molecule allows the solution to diffuse through the nerve membrane, the hydrophilic portion allows the solution to diffuse through the interstitial tissues.
The lipophilic portion of an anesthetic molecule allows the anesthetic solution to diffuse through the interstitial tissues; the hydrophilic portion allows the solution to diffuse through the nerve membrane. a. Both statements are TRUE. b. Both statements are FALSE. c. The first statement is TRUE; the second is FALSE. d. The first statement is FALSE; the second is TRUE.
a. sensory only.
The maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve is a. sensory only. b. motor only. c. sensory and motor simultaneously. d. mostly sensory and minimally motor.
a. inferior alveolar nerve.
The nerve that travels the mental foramen is a branch of the a. inferior alveolar nerve. b. middle superior alveolar. c. lingual nerve. d. posterior superior alveolar nerve.
b. Amides undergo biotransformation in the liver.
The patient's medical history indicates past liver damage. Why is the amount of amide-based anesthetic solution a relative contraindication? a. Amides increase the risk of an allergic reaction. b. Amides undergo biotransformation in the liver. c. Without action by the liver, amides will be reabsorbed. d. Amides are absorbed much slower at the injection site.
C. The greater the potency, the greater the lipid solubility.
The potency of an anesthetic agent is primarily a result of its a. water solubility. b. protein solubility. c. lipid solubility. d. carbohydrate solubility.
c. free nerve endings.
The sensory receptors responsible for the initiation of pain perception are a. Meissner's corpuscles. b. Ruffine's end organs. c. free nerve endings. d. Pacini's corpuscles.
C. The buccal nerve innervates the facial gingiva of the mandibular molars. The lingual nerve innervates the lingual gingiva of the mandible. The mental nerve innervates the facial gingiva of the mandibular anterior teeth and first premolar.
The soft tissue of alveolar process of the mandible is innervated by a. buccal and lingual nerves only. b. buccal and mental nerves only. c. buccal, lingual, and mental nerves. d. buccal and inferior alveolar nerves only.
b. myelinated nerves require less time to be blocked.- A-fibers are the last to be blocked and the first to regain sensation.
The type and size of a nerve plays an important part in the development of adequate anesthesia. All the following are TRUE about nerves and anesthesia EXCEPT a. myelinated nerves require a greater concentration to be blocked. b. myelinated nerves require less time to be blocked. c. smaller nerve fibers are the last to regain sensation. d. smaller nerve fibers are blocked before the larger ones.
c. removes any potentially toxic waste gas from the environment.
The use of a scavenging system with N2O sedation equipment is desirable because it a. removes the odor of nitrous from the room. b. assists the patient's respiration. c. removes any potentially toxic waste gas from the environment. d. allows the patient to inhale room air through the nosepiece.
d. A universal curet
This client has multiple teeth restored with porcelain-fused-to-metal crowns, many of which have defective margins. Which of the instruments would you use first to begin removal of the moderate calculus deposits? a. Thin ultrasonic tip b. Gracey miniature 11/12 and 13/14 curets c. Posterior sickle scaler d. A universal curet
A. Sonic devices are effective in removing soft and newly formed deposits. This patient's calculus deposits are heavy and dense enough to appear in the radiograph.
This patient's periodontal diagnosis is chronic generalized periodontitis. Teeth #28 and #29 have heavy calculus deposits. Which of the following is NOT recommended for removing these calculus deposits? a. Begin calculus removal using a powered tip of a sonic device b. Begin with a standard ultrasonic tip, approach the deposits from both the facial and lingual aspects of the sextant c. Assess the amount, type, and location of the calculus deposits with a periodontal explorer, such as an ODU 11/12 explorer d. After the heavy- and medium-sized deposits have been removed, use a slim-diameter ultrasonic tip to complete calculus removal
B. The probe should be used with bobbing or walking strokes to ensure the entire length of the epithelial attachment is examined. Because this measurement will be recorded for the distal surface on the facial aspect, the clinician should make walking strokes from the distofacial line angle to the midline of the distal surface (the lingual aspect of the distal surface is assessed from the lingual aspect). There is no need to slant the probe because there is no contact area blocking the instrumentation stroke (tooth #16 is missing).
To determine the deepest pocket depth on the distal surface of the facial aspect of tooth #15, the clinician should a. place the probe tip at the distofacial line angle, slide it down to the base of the pocket, take a reading, and record this as the probing depth for the facial aspect distal surface. b. insert the probe to the base of the pocket and use a series of walking strokes from the distofacial line angle to the midline of the distal surface and record the deepest reading as the probing depth for the facial aspect of the distal surface. c. use the probe to measure the point where the col would be if #16 were still present and record this depth. d. slant the probe so that the tip crosses the midline of the distal surface, insert the probe. and take and record this reading for the facial aspect of the distal surface.
b. Right MSA and greater palatine nerves
To prepare the maxillary right premolars for nonsurgical periodontal therapy, which of the following nerves need to be anesthetized? a. Right buccal nerve only b. Right MSA and greater palatine nerves c. Right ASA only d. Right PSA only
c. Gracey 11/12 curet
Tooth #15 has supererupted, causing an exposed root surface. Which of the following instruments is the BEST choice for removal of light calculus deposits from the facial surface of the root? a. Universal curet b. Posterior sickle scaler c. Gracey 11/12 curet d. Periodontal file
B. It is advised that stain only be removed when it can be seen if the patient smiles or during conversation. Stain is harmless and does not contribute to periodontal disease or dental caries.
Tooth #19 has significant recession of the gingival margin. If there were light tobacco stain on the root surface, what would be the best way to remove it? a. Use a straight, slim-diameter ultrasonic tip with light overlapping strokes. b. Do not remove the stain as it is not visible when the patient smiles and stain does not contribute to periodontal disease or dental caries. c. Use a rigid Gracey 11/12 curet with light pressure. d. Use a motor-driven polisher with fine pumice.
a. Slim-diameter ultrasonic tip with a curved working end
Tooth #3 has a class II furcation involvement on the facial aspect. Which of the following instruments would be the BEST choice for light calculus removal and deplaquing of the furcation area? a. Slim-diameter ultrasonic tip with a curved working end b. Periodontal file c. Standard Gracey curet 1/2 d. Universal curet with an extended lower shank
C. It is always advised to use the correct end of the explorer; the opposite working-end would not adapt effectively to the surface.
Tooth #32 has drifted into the open space with a tilt, making it challenging to assess the mesial surface accurately. When detecting calculus with an ODU 11/12 explorer, it is important to take all the following steps to assure accuracy EXCEPT a. maintain the explorer's lower shank parallel to mesial tooth surface. b. use a fulcrum for stability. c. instead of using the working-end normally used on a mesial surface, switch to the opposite working-end for easier access. d. use overlapping strokes to carefully assess the entire mesial surface with the explorer.
b. heavier lateral pressure is applied.
Using a dull instrument inhibits efficient patient treatment. All the following statements are true about the importance of using a sharp versus a dull instrument EXCEPT a. calculus is more easily removed. b. heavier lateral pressure is applied. c. fewer strokes are necessary. d. stroke control is much improved.
B. By slowing down absorption, the body has more time to metabolize anesthetics, thereby reducing toxicity and increasing duration.
Vasoconstrictors are added to local anesthetic agents to increase duration and a. reduce toxicity by increasing the efficiency of the heart. b. reduce toxicity by slowing absorption. c. extend the overall shelf life. d. help speed up the detoxification process.
b. Position the mirror, establish a finger rest, adjust instrument grasp, and adapt the cutting edge to the tooth.
What is the correct sequence in steps for executing a calculus removal stroke? a. Adjust instrument grasp, establish a finger rest, position the mirror, and adapt the cutting edge to the tooth. b. Position the mirror, establish a finger rest, adjust instrument grasp, and adapt the cutting edge to the tooth. c. Establish a finger rest, adjust instrument grasp, position the mirror, and adapt the cutting edge to the tooth. d. Position the mirror, establish a finger rest, adapt the cutting edge to the tooth, and adjust instrument grasp.
b. Maxillary tuberosity
What is the injection site for the posterior superior alveolar nerve block? a. Retromolar pad or triangle b. Maxillary tuberosity c. Pterygopalatine fossa d. Superior to maxillary canines
a. 650 to 900 psi
What is the pressure in a FULL tank of nitrous oxide (N2O)? a. 650 to 900 psi b. 900 to 1100 psi c. 1400 to 1600 psi d. 1800 to 2100 psi
d. 1800 to 2100 psi
What is the pressure in a FULL tank of oxygen (O2)? a. 700 to 800 psi b. 900 to 1100 psi c. 1400 to 1600 psi d. 1800 to 2100 psi
A. 650 to 900 psi is the same as if it was a full tank because as long as you have 1/8 of a tank of liquid to convert to the gaseous state, the pressure gauge will read full.
What is the pressure in a HALF full tank of N2O? a. 650 to 900 psi b. 900 to 1100 psi c. 1400 to 1600 psi d. 1800 to 2100 psi
b. 900 to 1100 psi
What is the pressure of a HALF-full tank of O2? a. 700 to 800 psi b. 900 to 1100 psi c. 1400 to 1600 psi d. 1800 to 2100 psi
a. Mandibular foramen
What is the target area for the inferior alveolar nerve block? a. Mandibular foramen b. Lateral surface of mandibular ramus c. Anteromedial border of neck of mandibular condyle d. Retromolar pad or triangle
d. Between the polarization stage and reverse polarity
When does depolarization of a nerve fiber occur? a During the resting state of the fiber b. Because of the sodium pump c. During the relative refractory period d. Between the polarization stage and reverse polarity
d. Palatal periodontium
When lingual nerve is anesthetized, which of the following tissue will NOT be affected? a. Anterior two-thirds of the tongue b. Floor of the mouth c. Lingual gingiva d. Palatal periodontium e. Lower lip
D. The most stable finger rest is an intraoral fulcrum is on a tooth mesial to the one being instrumented. The occlusofacial or occlusolingual line angle provides the most secure rest that is safely out of the way of the instrument stroke path (placing a finger rest on directly the facial surface provides less stability, your finger might slip).
When removing calculus deposits on the facial aspect of a maxillary posterior sextant, where would you place your fulcrum for best stability? a. On the facial surface of a tooth near the tooth being instrumented b. On the opposite arch (mandibular arch) c. On the occlusal surface of a tooth near the one being instrumented d. On the occlusofacial or occlusolingual line angle of a tooth near the tooth being instrumented
c. Bloodstream
Where are vasoconstrictors metabolized? a. Liver b. Plasma c. Bloodstream d. Kidneys
d. Hydrochloric acid
Which acid is most often combined with a local anesthetic drug? a. Sodium bisulfite b. Sodium chloride c. Acetic acid d. Hydrochloric acid
d. Greater palatine nerve block
Which injection anesthetizes the palatal gingiva and palatal mucosa of tooth #14? a. Middle superior alveolar nerve block b. Posterior superior alveolar nerve block c. Anterior middle superior alveolar nerve block (palatal approach) d. Greater palatine nerve block
a. A furcation probe, such as a Nabers probe
Which instrument would be BEST to detect furcation involvement on multiple-rooted teeth? a. A furcation probe, such as a Nabers probe b. Periodontal file c. Miniature Gracey curet d. Calibrated periodontal probe
b. Anterior sickle scaler
Which instrument would be most efficient in removing supragingival interproximal calculus deposits from anterior teeth that exhibit crowding? a. Universal curet b. Anterior sickle scaler c. Gracey mini 1/2 d. Beavertail ultrasonic tip
d. Anterior superior alveolar nerve
Which nerve is involved when anesthetizing the facial gingiva of the maxillary canine? a. Middle superior alveolar nerve b. Nasopalatine nerve c. Infraorbital nerve d. Anterior superior alveolar nerve e. Inferior alveolar nerve
e. Inferior alveolar nerve
Which nerve is involved when anesthetizing the mandibular first premolar? a. Middle superior alveolar nerve b. Nasopalatine nerve c. Infraorbital nerve d. Anterior superior alveolar nerve e. Inferior alveolar nerve
b. Nasopalatine nerve
Which nerve is involved when anesthetizing the palatal gingiva of the maxillary lateral incisor. a. Middle superior alveolar nerve b. Nasopalatine nerve c. Infraorbital nerve d. Anterior superior alveolar nerve e. Inferior alveolar nerve
a. Guiding the child as she removes the biofilm herself during the appointment
Which of the following approach to biofilm removal is most likely to be of most benefit to the patient's ongoing oral health? a. Guiding the child as she removes the biofilm herself during the appointment b. Using a universal curet to remove the biofilm c. Using a rubber cup and prophy paste to remove the biofilm d. Using a toothpick holder (Perio-Aide) to remove the biofilm
b. The local anesthetic remains in the salt form (ionized).- Disassociation is hastened by injecting an acidic salt into a basic environment. When an acidic salt is injected into an acidic environment, disassociation is prolonged.
Which of the following explains why the administration of a local anesthetic into an area of inflammation has a decreased effect? a. Inflamed tissue has a high pH. b. The local anesthetic remains in the salt form (ionized). c. Vascularity is decreased in the area of the inflammation. d. The local anesthetic is converted to the free base (unionized).
a. 30
Which of the following gauge numbers indicates the needle with the smallest lumen? a. 30 b. 27 c. 25 d. 23
a. Plastic curet
Which of the following instruments is BEST for calculus removal from a dental implant? a. Plastic curet b. Plastic periodontal probe c. Standard Gracey curet d. Miniature Gracey curet
a. Rigid Gracey 13/14 curet
Which of the following instruments would be BEST to remove moderate to heavy calculus on the distal of tooth #29? a. Rigid Gracey 13/14 curet b. Posterior sickle c. Quétin curet d. Universal curet
a. Standard ultrasonic tip
Which of the following instruments would be the BEST choice to initiate removal of moderate calculus deposits? a. Standard ultrasonic tip b. Ultrasonic slim-diameter tip with a straight working end c. Set of rigid Gracey curets 1/2, 11/12, and 13/14 d. Quétin furcation curet
a. Gracey 1/2 curet with a miniature working end and an extended lower shank
Which of the following instruments would be the MOST effective in removing a small subgingival calculus deposit on the lingual aspect of tooth #24? a. Gracey 1/2 curet with a miniature working end and an extended lower shank b. Anterior sickle scaler c. Periodontal file designed for use on the lingual aspect d. Standard Gracey 1/2 curet
d. It may induce nerve damage if used chronically.
Which of the following is TRUE concerning N2O, Nitrous oxide? a. A full tank would read approximately 2100 psi. b. It exists as a gas in the tank and is delivered as a gas. c. It can be administered and monitored by dental hygienists in all states. d. It may induce nerve damage if used chronically.
a. It can be used in the anterior and posterior sextants for removal of supragingival and subgingival calculus deposits.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding use of a universal curet for this client's treatment? case b p 539 a. It can be used in the anterior and posterior sextants for removal of supragingival and subgingival calculus deposits. b. It is the most efficient instrument for removing small calculus deposits just below the contact areas of the mandibular anterior teeth. c. The pointed tip is effective in removing calculus interproximally. d. If used in areas of gingival inflammation, the curet will cause undue discomfort for the patient.
d. Patient with a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Which of the following patients would NOT be a good candidate for the use of N2O? a. "Gagger" b. Pediatric patient c. Patient with heart disease or a heart attack d. Patient with a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
E. Carbocaine 3% does not contain a vasoconstrictor; only Carbocaine 2% contains 1:20,000 Neo-cobefrin.
Which of the following vasoconstrictor agents is used with mepivacaine (Carbocaine) 3%? a. Neo-Cobefrin b. Epinephrine c. Levophed d. Benzocaine e. None of the above
A. An Orban-type explorer has a straight shank design and short working end can be placed flat against the tooth and is useful in narrow periodontal pockets on anterior tooth surfaces.
While checking for subgingival calculus deposits on the mandibular anterior teeth with an ODU 11/12 explorer, the clinician finds it difficult to insert the explorer without unduly distending the tissue. Which of the following techniques might cause less tissue distention? a. Switch to an Orban-type explorer. b. Aim the point of the ODU 11/12 explorer toward the base of the sulcus so less of the working end is inserted in the sulcus. c. Switch to a pigtail explorer. d. Use a calibrated periodontal probe to locate calculus deposits.
b. direct vision. - mirrors are not used for that
While removing the light calculus on the lingual surfaces of lower anterior teeth, you would be using your mirror for all of the following purposes EXCEPT a. retraction. b. direct vision. c. indirect illumination. d. indirect vision.
a. glove fit is too big.
You are using hand instruments to remove the calculus deposits from the client's teeth. After 30 minutes, your hand muscles are noticeably fatigued. Potentially, all the following can cause hand fatigue EXCEPT a. glove fit is too big. b. instrument handles are of small diameter. c. instrument is not balanced. d. using finger motion instead of wrist motion activation.
A. An advanced fulcrum such as finger-on-finger would allow better access because it allows the clinician to keep the lower shank parallel to the root surface being instrumented.
You are working on the mesial of tooth #14, which has drifted mesially, and having difficulty keeping the instrument's lower shank parallel to the long axis of the tooth. You are using an After Five (AF) Gracey 11/12 with a miniature working end with a standard intraoral finger rest. Which of the following would MOST LIKELY improve access on this mesial surface? a. Switch to an advanced fulcrum. b. Use a straight, slim-diameter ultrasonic tip. c. Use a universal curet with an extended shank. d. Use a rigid Gracey curet instead.
c. Move the tip repeatedly over a calculus deposit, using light stroke pressure, for efficient calculus removal.
You decide to use ultrasonic instrumentation for calculus removal. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the correct technique with ultrasonic instrumentation? a. Keep the tip stationary and on top of a calculus deposit until you feel or see it release. b. Use moderate to firm pressure against a calculus deposit for more effective removal. c. Move the tip repeatedly over a calculus deposit, using light stroke pressure, for efficient calculus removal. d. Always set the power level to the highest setting for use with all ultrasonic tips, as the high power setting is much more effective than a medium power setting.
