Chapter 39

At what point should transport of the injured begin at an​ MCI? A. After all patients have been triaged B. After all​ "minor" patients have been directed to a treatment​ area, to relieve congestion at the scene C. After triage has identified​ "immediate" category patients and transport has been coordinated through the treatment and transport units D. As soon as the first ambulance arrives

After triage has identified​ "immediate" category patients and transport has been coordinated through the treatment and transport units

Which of the following must be assessed on a HAZMAT team member before that member enters the hot​ zone? A. Allergies B. Task assignment C. Baseline vitals D. Height and weight

Baseline vitals

If an EMS unit is the first to respond to a​ multiple-casualty incident, which role does the most senior EMT​ assume? A. Scene leader B. Incident commander C. Section coordinator D. Ground chief

Incident Commander

The characteristics of a rehab area include all of the following except which​ one? A. Free from exhaust fumes B. Large enough to accommodate a single crew C. Located in the cold zone D. Easily accessible to EMS units

Large enough to accommodate a single crew

Which warning placard is​ diamond-shaped and divided into four smaller​ diamonds? A. UN Globally Harmonized System B. DOT hazard label C. NFPA 704 System D. Material data safety sheet​ (MSDS)

NFPA 704 system

Which of the following best describes the required contents of shipping manifests associated with hazardous​ materials? A. Name of the​ substance, quantity,​ origin, and destination B. Health​ hazards, flammability​ hazards, explosion​ hazards, and special hazards C. Route of​ exposure, signs and​ symptoms, classification, and chemical structure D. The levels of​ toxicity, flammability, and reactivity

Name of the​ substance, quantity,​ origin, and destination

During START​ triage, you encounter an adult patient who is not breathing. Which of the following actions is the next step you should​ take? A. Open the airway and reassess breathing. B. Check the​ patient's pulse. C. Start CPR. D. Assign the patient a black tag.

Open the airway and reassess breathing.

The area in which secondary triage takes place at a​ multiple-casualty incident is​ the: A. transportation area. B. warm zone. C. treatment area. D. triage area.

triage area

Signs that identify the hazardous material contained within a transport vehicle are​ called: A. panels. B. placards. C. indicators. D. warnings.

Placards

What is the number of patients that generally serves as the lowest possible threshold for a​ multiple-casualty incident? A. 3 B. 10 C. 2 D. 15

3

Which of the following statements regarding a disaster plan is​ false? A. A disaster plan should be written to address any conceivable incident. B. A disaster plan should be realistic. C. A disaster plan should be rehearsed. D. A disaster plan should be​ well-publicized.

A disaster plan should be written to address any conceivable incident.

Which of the following events is LEAST likely to create a​ multiple-casualty incident? A. An apartment complex fire with confirmed entrapment B. A motorcycle collision with a guardrail C. A​ high-speed impact between a minivan and a sedan D. An outdoor stage collapse during a show at a state fair

A motorcycle collision with a guardrail

Which of the following HAZMAT training levels requires at least 24 hours of​ training? A. First Responder Awareness B. First Responder Operations C. Hazardous Materials Specialist D. Hazardous Materials Technician

Hazardous Materials Technician

Which of the following zones designates where the hazardous materials contamination is actually​ present? A. Hot zone B. Warm zone C. Cold zone D. Contamination zone

Hot zone

The senior EMT on the first vehicle that arrives on a scene with multiple patients should assume which of the following roles until relieved by a senior​ official? A. Triage supervisor B. Commander of the entire incident C. Transportation supervisor D. Incident Command of the scene

Incident Command of the scene

In which type of incident would unified command be most​ appropriate? A. More than three patients at a scene B. An incident that involves only EMS C. An incident that involves only​ fire/rescue D. Involvement of different branches of public safety

Involvement of different branches of public safety

If your crew is the first to arrive on the scene of a major​ MCI, what will be a major aspect of your scene​ size-up? A. Making a sweep to determine what needs must be met B. Preventing uncoordinated or undirected activity at the scene C. Making an initial scene report to the communications center D. Controlling​ on-scene communication as help arrives

Make a sweep to determine what needs must be met.

Which of the following agencies have developed regulations for dealing with hazardous materials​ emergencies? A. NHTSA and NRC B. DOT and FCC C. NAEMT and NHTSA D. OSHA and EPA

OSHA and EPA

What does the triage mnemonic START stand​ for? A. Simultaneous transport and rapid treatment B. Simultaneous triage and rapid treatment C. Simple triage and rapid treatment D. Simple treatment and rapid transport

Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment

Which of the following is most likely to indicate the presence of released hazardous​ material? A. Sudden irritation of the eyes B. Fire C. Black smoke D. A patient who is not breathing

Sudden irritation of the eyes

When grossly decontaminating a patient who is not wearing personal protective equipment in a hazardous materials​ incident, which of the following techniques should be​ used? A. Sponging with a dilute solution of water and white vinegar B. Taking a​ low-pressure decontamination shower C. Scrubbing with a​ long-handled brush D. Using a high pressure water jet system

Taking a​ low-pressure decontamination shower

Which of the following is LEAST likely an effect of a hazardous​ material? A. Produces pulmonary edema B. Scalds if heated too high C. Causes​ self-ignition of cellulose products D. Irritates the eyes and respiratory tract

Scalds if heated too high

Disaster plans are a predefined set of instructions that should be written to address the events that are conceivable for a particular location. They should also​ be: A. ​written, multijurisdictional, and rehearsed. B. ​written, realistic, and rehearsed. C. well​ publicized, multijurisdictional, and rehearsed. D. well​ publicized, realistic, and rehearsed.

Well​ publicized, realistic, and rehearsed

During triage of a​ 6-year-old patient, you discover that she is​ awake, breathing 28 times per​ minute, has a palpable​ pulse, and responds to verbal stimuli. The patient is not ambulatory. What is the correct triage category for this​ patient? A. Orange B. Green C. Red D. Yellow

Yellow

Identification of chemical hazards starts​ with: A. being alerted to the presence of hazardous materials by dispatch. B. awareness and knowledge of what exists in the community. C. identification of hazardous materials placards. D. seeing fumes in the air at the incident scene.

awareness and knowledge of what exists in the community.

To be classified as​ "walking wounded" in primary​ triage, a​ patient: A. must be in arrest. B. must have burns without airway problems. C. must have major or multiple bone or joint injuries. D. must have only minor musculoskeletal or soft tissue injuries.

must have only minor musculoskeletal or​ soft-tissue injuries.

Which of the following settings should most make the EMT consider the likelihood of a hazardous materials​ incident? A. A warehouse B. A residential house C. An apartment D. A car

warehouse

EMS operations generally include which six​ areas? A. ​Extrication, Staging,​ Triage, Air​ operations, Transportation, and Rehabilitation B. ​Extrication, Staging,​ Logistics, Triage,​ Operations, and Transportation C. ​Extrication, Operations,​ Logistics, Triage,​ Finance, and Transportation D. ​Extrication, Staging,​ Triage, Treatment,​ Transportation, and Rehabilitation

​Extrication, Staging,​ Triage, Treatment,​ Transportation, and Rehabilitation

What is the highest level of training for HAZMAT incidents under OSHA​ regulations? A. ​On-Scene Incident Commander B. Hazardous Materials Specialist C. Hazardous Materials Technician D. First Responder Operations

​On-Scene Incident Commander

To command activities at a hazardous materials incident​ site, the minimum level of training necessary​ is: A. First Responder Operations. B. Hazardous Materials Technician. C. ​On-Scene Incident Commander. D. Hazardous Materials Specialist.

​On-Scene Incident Commander.

What are the three criteria for assessing patients during​ triage? A. Ability to​ walk, cervical spine​ injury, and mental status B. ​Respiration, pulse, and mental status C. Skin​ condition, pupil​ response, and grip strength D. Ability to​ speak, level of​ orientation, and severity of injuries

​Respiration, pulse, and mental status

Psychological first aid​ involves: A. ordering patients in emotional distress to tend to other patients and work off the stress. B. ​caring, honest engagement with patients in emotional distress. C. ordering any emotionally overwhelmed patients out of the treatment area. D. telling distressed patients anything that will calm them down.

​caring, honest engagement with patients in emotional distress.

You are on the scene of a​ mass-casualty incident in which the grandstand at a race track has collapsed. As the triage​ officer, you have encountered a​ 14-year-old male whose leg has been amputated above the knee. He is responsive to verbal​ stimuli, and he has an open​ airway, shallow rapid​ breathing, and a​ weak, rapid carotid pulse. This patient would be classified as a Priority​ ________ for treatment and transport. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1

1

You are just leaving the scene of a​ multiple-casualty incident with two Priority 1 patients. Which of the following is appropriate regarding​ communication? A. Notify the receiving facility by radio of the nature of the​ patients' injuries. B. Notify the receiving hospital by cellular phone of the nature of the​ patients' injuries. C. Have dispatch relay your patient reports to the receiving facility. D. Allow the transportation supervisor to notify the receiving facility.

Allow the transportation sector officer to notify the receiving facility.

What constitutes a​ multiple-casualty incident​ (MCI)? A. An event that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources B. An event that unfolds over a long period of time and requires​ federal, state, and local response C. An incident with 3 to 15 patients that the service handles without calling for additional resources D. Any event that requires additional ambulances to adequately transport the patients from the scene

An event that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources

Which of the following statements best describes primary​ triage? A. A process of setting tactical objectives for the MCI B. An initial determination of each​ patient's priority for treatment and transport C. An initial determination of the number of patients involved D. An assessment of the scene for mechanism of injury

An initial determination of each​ patient's priority for treatment and transport

Which of the following is the most common type of​ multiple-casualty incident that EMS providers will respond​ to? A. Outbreaks of influenza B. Structure fires C. Automobile collisions D. Hazardous materials incidents

Automobile collisions

Which of the following is a​ 24-hour resource operated by the Chemical Manufacturers​ Association? A. CHEMTREC B. CHEMTRANS C. MSDS D. HAZTECH

CHEMTREC

Which of the following is considered a valuable informational resource in dealing with hazardous materials​ incidents? A. CHEMTREC B. NSA C. FEMA D. DHS

CHEMTREC

​________ is the response​ agency, established in​ Washington, DC, as a service of the Chemical Manufacturers Association that can provide either you or your dispatcher with information about the hazardous material and contact the shipper to provide you with information about the material. A. ERG B. CHEMTREC C. EPA D. OSHA

CHEMTREC

Flammable​ solids, substances that are dangerous when​ wet, and spontaneously combustible materials​ are: A. Class 2 materials. B. Class 1 materials. C. Class 3 materials. D. Class 4 materials.

Class 4 materials.

At a hazardous materials​ incident, which of the following areas is used for triaging​ patients, performing necessary​ treatment, and stabilizing patients before​ transport? A. Cold zone B. Decon zone C. Warm zone D. Hot zone

Cold zone

In which of the following areas at a HAZMAT incident are normal​ triage, stabilization, and treatment​ performed? A. Temperate zone B. Cold zone C. Warm zone D. Command post

Cold zone

Which of the following is not an acceptable way of attempting to identify a hazardous​ material? A. Collecting a sample of the material for laboratory analysis B. Checking the safety data sheet C. Using binoculars to obtain information from the placard on a container D. Asking the driver of the​ tractor-trailer truck involved in the incident

Collecting a sample of the material for laboratory analysis

Which of the following is a principle of effective Incident​ Command? A. Command is most effective when one person is responsible for no more than seven other people. B. ​Police, fire, and EMS must establish separate command locations. C. The command location must not be revealed to anyone on the scene. D. None of the above

Command is most effective when one person is responsible for not more than 6 other people.

While other patients are waiting for​ triage, what is an appropriate treatment measure that can be performed during the ongoing triage​ process? A. Controlling severe bleeding B. Placing a patient on a backboard C. Applying a cervical collar D. Performing​ bag-valve-mask ventilations

Controlling severe bleeding

What is the process that removes the biological​ (etiological) contamination hazards because it destroys microorganisms and their​ toxins? A. Emulsification B. Dilution C. Disinfection D. Absorption

Disinfection

Which of the following actions may need to be taken by the EMT when treating and transporting a patient who was exposed​ to, and contaminated​ by, a hazardous​ material? A. Disposing of patient care equipment such as blood pressure cuffs and backboards B. Placing towels on the floor of the ambulance to soak up contaminated runoff water C. Wearing a​ gown, mask, and goggles to prevent secondary contamination D. Wearing heavy cloth gloves

Disposing of patient care equipment such as​ blood-pressure cuffs and backboards

Which of the following should immediately increase your suspicion of a hazardous materials​ incident? A. Smoke coming from the driver area of a vehicle involved in a​ head-on collision B. An​ out-of-control wildfire in a wooded area C. Emergency site at a factory D. Fire that starts on the lowest level of a residential structure

Emergency site at a factory

Which level of training is required for hazardous materials responders who are first on the scene to protect​ people, property, and the​ environment? A. First Responder Awareness B. First Responder Operations C. Hazardous Materials Specialist D. Hazardous Materials Technician

First Responder Operations

Andrea is an EMS supervisor with a combined​ EMS/Fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials​ incident, she acts as a liaison with​ federal, state, and local authorities.​ Andrea's level of hazardous materials training is at the​ ________ level. A. Hazardous Materials Specialist B. First Responder Awareness C. First Responder Operations D. Hazardous Materials Technician

Hazardous Materials Specialist

Which of the following is a basic principle of​ disaster-preparedness planning? A. Develop very detailed plans that do not permit deviation from stated guidelines. B. Develop a plan that can be activated only by the​ highest-ranking government official. C. Develop a proposal that requires more resources before planning can begin. D. Prepare a plan that is​ specific, practical, and​ well-understood.

Prepare a plan that is​ specific, practical, and​ well-understood.

Using START triage​ guidelines, a patient on the scene of a​ mass-causality incident who has no pulse is deemed a​ ________ patient. A. Priority 3 B. Priority 0 C. Priority 2 D. Priority 1

Priority 0

Using START triage​ guidelines, a patient on the scene of a​ mass-causality incident who is not breathing​ initially, but begins breathing when the airway is​ open, is deemed a​ ________ patient. A. Priority 1 B. Priority 0 C. Priority 2 D. Priority 3

Priority 1

Using START triage​ guidelines, a patient on the scene of a​ mass-causality incident who is alert and able to walk is deemed a​ ________ patient. A. Priority 0 B. Priority 3 C. Priority 2 D. Priority 1

Priority 3

Which of the following best describes the use of secondary​ triage? A. To be used when there are too many casualties to be categorized during the primary triage B. To reevaluate the treatment priorities designated during primary triage C. To categorize patients who are found after all of the other patients have been triaged D. To treat EMS workers who were injured while assisting in the first phase of the rescue operation

To reevaluate the treatment priorities designated during primary triage

When transporting patients from the scene of a​ mass-casualty incident, who should be responsible for contacting the receiving​ hospital? A. Transportation supervisor B. Triage officer C. Transporting EMT D. Incident commander

Transportation supervisor

An example of psychological first aid for a patient at an MCI​ is: A. assuring the patient that everything the patient feels is normal and that responders are doing everything they can. B. asking the patient to consider the possibility the patient is in denial. C. telling the patient that despite how it​ looks, everyone at the scene will be okay. D. directing the patient to begin providing care to less critical patients.

assuring the patient that everything he feels is normal and that responders are doing everything they can.

A decontamination corridor would be established in​ the: A. hot zone. B. dead zone. C. warm zone. D. cold zone.

Warm zone

Field decontamination takes place in​ the: A. cold zone. B. warm zone. C. hot zone. D. safe zone.

Warm zone

Which of the following statements best describes the treatment that is acceptable during triage in​ MCIs? A. Refraining from providing all treatment B. Applying cervical collars and opening the airway C. Opening the airway and controlling severe bleeding D. Inserting oral or nasal airways and performing​ bag-valve-mask ventilations

Opening the airway and controlling severe bleeding

Which of the following is the best description of a safety data sheet​ (SDS)? A. Papers kept on site with hazardous chemicals B. Papers that must accompany hazardous materials during transport C. A placard that must be attached to a fixed container of hazardous materials D. A resource book published by the U.S. Department of Transportation for referencing hazardous materials

Papers kept on site with hazardous chemicals

Which statement best describes the use of the​ "black" category in START​ triage? A. Patients who have immediate threats to​ life, including rapid​ respirations, poor​ perfusion, and altered mental status B. Patients who refuse treatment C. Patients who have minor injuries and do not need immediate care D. Patients who are deceased or who are expected to die because they cannot maintain their airway or breathing

Patients who are deceased or who are expected to die because they cannot maintain their airway or breathing

A responder who has been assigned to decontamination has which of the following​ responsibilities? A. Being willing to treat patients without wearing PPE that could cause secondary contamination B. Performing triage in PPE C. Treating patients as they are received D. Providing contaminated PPE to responders heading back to the hot zone

Performing triage in PPE

Which of the following statements about decisions made by the transportation unit at an MCI is​ true? A. Priority 1 patients should be transported​ first, immediately after treatment. B. ​High-priority patients should all be transported to the same hospital. C. Ambulatory patients may be sent to a hospital on a bus without EMS personnel. D. Each ambulance should radio the receiving hospital with a detailed patient report.

Priority 1 patients should be transported​ first, immediately after treatment.

Which of the following has the highest priority at a hazardous materials​ incident? A. Immediately removing patients from a hazardous area B. Decontaminating​ clothing, equipment, and the vehicle C. Providing patient care D. Protecting the safety of all rescuers and patients

Protecting the safety of all rescuers and patients

Where is the decontamination corridor located where​ patients, personnel, and equipment are​ decontaminated? A. Cool zone B. Warm zone C. Cold zone D. Hot zone

Warm zone

Which of the following best describes the roles of Hazardous Materials​ Specialists? A. They keep at a safe distance and help to stop the emergency from spreading. B. They act as a liaison with​ federal, state,​ local, and other government authorities. C. They are trained to recognize a problem and notify the appropriate agencies. D. They​ plug, patch, or stop the release of a hazardous material.

They act as a liaison with​ federal, state,​ local, and other government authorities.

Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of​ triage? A. To find and treat all of one​ patient's injuries before moving on to the next patient B. To prioritize patients in an MCI C. To treat all serious illnesses and injuries as they are discovered D. To treat the​ youngest, healthiest patients first

To prioritize patients in an MCI

What is the purpose of secondary​ triage? A. To reevaluate each​ patient's priority for treatment and transport B. To assess patients who were not immediately found in the initial response C. To conduct a comprehensive examination of all patients D. To perform START triage

To reevaluate each​ patient's priority for treatment and transport

What should be done with an EMT who has become emotionally incapacitated at an​ MCI? A. Talk to the EMT with calm empathy until the EMT feels better enough to return to duty B. Review the​ EMT's performance, to identify what went wrong C. Treat the EMT as a​ patient, and remove the EMT to a place of rest D. Direct the EMT to treat only Priority 3 patients

Treat the EMT as a patient and remove him to a place of rest.

When several agencies work independently but​ cooperatively, rather than one agency exercising control over the​ others, this is​ called: A. single incident command. B. unified command. C. NIMS. D. ICS.

Unified Command

You are in charge of your​ department's personnel at the scene of a​ mass-casualty incident. As the incident​ progresses, you request additional​ resources, and a neighboring department assists you. As part of this​ department's response, a battalion chief responds to oversee operations. At the command​ post, you and the battalion chief work together to manage the incident. This cooperative management effort is known​ as: A. dual command. B. redundant command. C. unified command. D. incident command.

Unified Command

When responding to a​ multiple-casualty incident, staging refers to which of the​ following? A. Keeping a log of all patients transported B. Setting up a triage center from the back of your ambulance C. Waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated section officer D. Staying on station until called upon to receive a patient

Waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated sector officer

Which of the following statements about primary triage when resources are limited is​ true? A. CPR is begun on patients without breathing and a pulse if there are no injuries that are obviously incompatible with life. B. No interventions are performed during primary triage. C. You should open a​ patient's airway and control severe bleeding. D. It is inappropriate for EMTs to assign​ "walking wounded" patients to assist more seriously injured patients.

You should open a​ patient's airway and control severe bleeding.

In which of the following settings should the EMT be alert to the possibility of hazardous materials​ emergencies? A. Manufacturing industries B. Shipping ports C. Farm service agencies D. All of the above

all of the above

Which of the following should be considered during the scene​ size-up of a hazardous materials​ emergency? A. The properties and potential dangers of the substance B. Potential for spread of the substance C. Identification of the substance D. All of the above

all of the above

Hazardous material​ is: A. any material that is poisonous if ingested. B. any material that poses an unreasonable risk to​ life, health, or property. C. any material that is explosive or flammable. D. any material that is radioactive.

any material that poses an unreasonable risk to​ life, health, or property.

A​ multiple-casualty incident​ is: A. any medical or trauma incident that requires extensive rescue efforts. B. any trauma incident involving five or more critically injured patients. C. any medical or trauma incident involving multiple patients. D. any trauma incident involving a patient with multisystem injuries.

any medical or trauma incident involving multiple patients

A hot zone​ is: A. the area immediately surrounding a HAZMAT incident. B. an area where personnel and equipment are decontaminated. C. immediately identifiable with placards. D. an area where the support functions for an incident response are located.

area immediately surrounding a hazmat incident

To respond to a hazardous materials​ incident, the EMT should be trained at which​ level? A. Technician B. Operations C. Awareness D. Specialist

awareness

Organization for a smaller MCI would​ involve: A. treatment and transportation supervisors. B. site operations. C. command and a triage supervisor. D. aides to the triage supervisor.

command and a triage supervisor

All patients leaving the site of a hazardous materials incident should be​ considered: A. cleared for transport. B. contaminated. C. ​low-priority. D. stable.

contaminated

As it pertains to hazardous​ materials, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration requires employers​ to: A. ensure there is at least one person​ on-site trained at the technician level. B. train employees to handle any type of hazardous materials incident. C. have knowledge of all hazardous materials on the premises. D. document the appropriate level of training for each employee.

document the appropriate level of training for each employee.

You are directed to establish a rehab area at a HAZMAT incident. You know that this area must​ be: A. away from the media and the public. B. at least a quarter of a mile from the hot zone. C. established within the warm zone. D. easily accessible to EMS units.

easily accessible to EMS units.

A substance is LEAST likely to be a hazardous material if​ it: A. damages the eyes and mucous membranes. B. forms toxic hydrochloric acid fumes. C. is flammable and explosive. D. forms part of a daily diet.

forms part of a daily diet.

Which of the following is represented by the blue area of the NFPA 704​ placard? A. Fire hazard B. Health hazard C. Reactivity D. Specific hazards

health hazards

When you call an emergency response service or agency regarding hazardous​ materials, which information is LEAST​ relevant? A. How long ago you believe the incident might have begun B. Estimate of the quantity of material transported and released C. Nature and location of the problem D. Injuries and exposures

how long ago you believe the incident might have begun

It is characteristic of a disaster plan to be all of the following except which​ one? A. Impractical B. Efficient C. Specific D. Predefined

impractical

Emotionally incapacitated​ EMTs: A. must observe on scene without providing treatment. B. may not return to duty even after they have rested. C. may rest until they are ready to return to duty. D. must leave the​ area, clock​ out, and go home.

may not return to duty even after they have rested

Which of the following is the best choice for triage​ supervisor? A. The oldest EMS provider B. The most knowledgeable EMS provider C. The senior EMT D. The​ highest-ranking EMS provider

most knowledgeable EMS provider

Priority 3 patients are also known​ as: A. walking wounded. B. deceased. C. immediate. D. delayed.

walking wounded

In addition to toxicity and​ flammability, which of the following is among the harmful properties of hazardous​ materials? A. Instability B. Solubility C. Conversion D. Reactivity

reactivity

A patient at an MCI is unresponsive but breathing 24 times per minutes with a strong radial pulse. To what triage category should the patient be​ assigned? A. Red B. Green C. Yellow D. Black

red

An area near a hazardous materials incident that is upwind from the incident and on the same level is a good location for​ a: A. danger zone. B. safe zone. C. treatment zone. D. hot zone.

safe zone

A hazardous material incident would be LEAST likely to take​ place: A. along a railroad. B. on the highway. C. at a school. D. in a factory

school

The plan for a​ large-scale MCI: A. is unnecessary unless an MCI involves at least 20 patients. B. should be a logical extension of the plan for a​ small-scale MCI. C. must be planned for an incident involving a very specific number of people. D. is completely different from the plan for a​ small-scale MCI.

should be a logical extension of the plan for a​ small-scale MCI.

Which of the following sector officers or supervisors is responsible in​ large-scale incidents for the provision of restrooms and​ meals, and for the rotation of​ crews? A. Transportation B. Supply C. Command D. Staging

staging

If arriving units are not needed right​ away, they should wait in​ the: A. staging area. B. transportation area. C. treatment area. D. triage area.

staging area

You arrive at the scene of a potential hazardous materials incident and see several patients lying on the ground next to an overturned truck with what looks like chemicals leaking out of it in all directions. You​ should: A. call out to the patients to see if any can leave the area of the accident. B. immediately act to save the patients. C. approach cautiously. D. take a command position.

take a command position.