Chapter 54: Management of Patients With Kidney Disorders

When assessing a client with chronic glomerulonephritis, the nurse notes that the client has generalized edema. The nurse documents this as which of the following? A. Periorbital edema B. Anasarca C. Uremic frost D. Hydronephrosis

B Generalized edema known as anasarca is a common finding with chronic glomerulonephritis. Periorbital edema refers to puffiness around the eyes. Uremic frost is a precipitate that forms on the skin in clients with chronic renal failure. Hydronephrosis refers to a condition involving distention of the renal pelves.

A client develops acute renal failure (ARF) after receiving IV therapy with a nephrotoxic antibiotic. Because the client's 24-hour urine output totals 240 mL, the nurse suspects that the client is at risk for: A. cardiac arrhythmia. B. paresthesia. C. dehydration. D. pruritus.

A As urine output decreases, the serum potassium level rises; if it rises sufficiently, hyperkalemia may occur, possibly triggering a cardiac arrhythmia. Hyperkalemia doesn't cause paresthesia (sensations of numbness and tingling). Dehydration doesn't occur during this oliguric phase of ARF, although typically it does arise during the diuretic phase. In the client with ARF, pruritus results from increased phosphates and isn't associated with hyperkalemia.

As renal failure progresses and the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) falls, which of the following changes occur? A. Hyperphosphatemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypokalemia D. Metabolic alkalosis

A Changes include hyperphosphatemia due to its decreased renal excretion, hypocalcemia and decreased vitamin D activation, hyperkalemia due to decreased potassium excretion, and metabolic acidosis from decreased acid secretion by the kidney and inability to regenerate bicarbonate.

During the diuresis period of acute kidney injury (AKI), the nurse should observe the client closely for what complication? A. Dehydration B. Hypokalemia C. Oliguria D. Renal calculi

A Dehydration is a complication during the diuresis phase related to elevated urine output and continued symptoms of uremia. The concern with acute kidney injury (AKI) is hyperkalemia. The diuresis phase of AKI is marked by normal or elevated urine output. Oliguria is urine output less than 400 mL in 24 hours and is seen in the oliguria phase. Renal calculi are a possible cause but not a complication of AKI.

A client diagnosed with acute kidney injury (AKI) has developed congestive heart failure. The client has received 40 mg of intravenous push (IVP) Lasix and 2 hours later, the nurse notes that there are 50 mL of urine in the Foley catheter bag. The client's vital signs are stable. Which health care order should the nurse anticipate? A. Lasix 80 mg IVP B. Normal saline bolus of 500 mL C. Chest x-ray D. Mannitol 12.5 g IVP

A Diuretic agents are often used to control fluid volume in clients with acute kidney injury (AKI). The client's urine output indicates an inadequate response to the initial dosage of Lasix and the nurse should anticipate administering Lasix 80 mg IVP. Often in this situation, the initial dosage of Lasix is doubled. The client is experiencing fluid overload, thus, a 500-mL bolus of normal saline bolus would be contraindicated. There is no need to complete a chest x-ray. Mannitol is widely used in the management of cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure from multiple causes.

A client is in end-stage chronic renal failure and is being added to the transplant list. The nurse explains to the client how donors are found for clients needing kidneys. Which statement is accurate? A. Donors are selected from compatible living donors. B. Donors must be relatives. C. Donors with hypertension may qualify. D. The client is placed on a transplant list at the local hospital.

A Donors are selected from compatible living donors. Donors do not have to be relatives as long as they are compatible. Potential donors with a history of hypertension, malignant disease, or diabetes are excluded from donation. The client is placed on a national computerized transplant waiting list.

The nurse is administering calcium acetate (PhosLo) to a patient with end-stage renal disease. When is the best time for the nurse to administer this medication? A. With food B. 2 hours before meals C. 2 hours after meals D. At bedtime with 8 ounces of fluid

A Hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia are treated with medications that bind dietary phosphorus in the GI tract. Binders such as calcium carbonate (Os-Cal) or calcium acetate (PhosLo) are prescribed, but there is a risk of hypercalcemia. The nurse administers phosphate binders with food for them to be effective.

The nurse cares for a client with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD). Which acid-base imbalance is associated with this disorder? A. pH 7.20, PaCO2 36, HCO3 14- B. pH 7.31, PaCO2 48, HCO3 24- C. pH 7.47, PaCO2 45, HCO3 33- D. pH 7.50, PaCO2 29, HCO3 22-

A Metabolic acidosis occurs in end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) because the kidneys are unable to excrete increased loads of acid. Decreased acid secretion results from the inability of the kidney tubules to excrete ammonia (NH3-) and to reabsorb sodium bicarbonate (HCO3-). There is also decreased excretion of phosphates and other organic acids.

Which of the following occurs late in chronic glomerulonephritis? A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Nosebleed C. Stroke D. Seizure

A Peripheral neuropathy with diminished deep tendon reflexes and neurosensory changes occur late in the disease. The patient becomes confused and demonstrates a limited attention span. An additional late finding includes evidence of pericarditis with or without a pericardial friction rub. The first indication of disease may be a sudden, severe nosebleed, a stroke, or a seizure.

One of the roles of the nurse in caring for clients with chronic renal failure is to help them learn to minimize and manage potential complications. This would include: A. restricting sources of potassium usually found in fresh fruits and vegetables. B. allowing liberal use of sodium. C. limiting iron and folic acid intake. D. eating protein liberally.

A Restrict sources of potassium usually found in fresh fruits and vegetables; hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening changes. Restrict sodium intake as ordered; doing so prevents excess sodium and fluid accumulation. Prescribed iron and folic acid supplements or Epogen should be taken. Iron and folic acid supplements are needed for RBC production. Epogen stimulates bone marrow to produce RBCs. Restrict protein intake to foods that are complete proteins within prescribed limits. Complete proteins provide positive nitrogen balance for healing and growth.

When caring for the patient with acute glomerulonephritis, which of the following assessment findings should the nurse anticipate? A. Tea-colored urine B. Left upper quadrant pain C. Pyuria D. Low blood pressure

A Tea-colored urine is a typical symptom of glomerulonephritis. Flank pain on the affected side, not left upper quadrant pain, would be present. Pyuria is a symptom of pyelonephritis, not glomerulonephritis. Blood pressure typically elevates in glomerulonephritis.

A client has been diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. This condition causes: A. proteinuria. B. pyuria. C. polyuria. D. No option is correct.

A The disruption of membrane permeability causes red blood cells (RBCs) and protein molecules to filter from the glomeruli into Bowman's capsule and eventually become lost in the urine. Pyuria is pus in the urine. Polyuria is an increased volume of urine voided.

The nurse passes out medications while a client prepares for hemodialysis. The client is ordered to receive numerous medications including antihypertensives. What is the best action for the nurse to take? A. Administer the medications as ordered. B. Hold the medications until after dialysis. C. Check with the dialysis nurse about the medications. D. Ask if the client wants to take the medications.

B Antihypertensive therapy, often part of the regimen of clients on dialysis, is one example when communication, education, and evaluation can make a difference in client outcomes. The client must know when—and when not—to take the medication. For example, if an antihypertensive agent is taken on a dialysis day, hypotension may occur during dialysis, causing dangerously low blood pressure. Many medications that are taken once daily can be held until after dialysis treatment.

A group of students are reviewing the phases of acute renal failure. The students demonstrate understanding of the material when they identify which of the following as occurring during the second phase? A. Diuresis B. Oliguria C. Acute tubular necrosis D. Restored glomerular function

B During the second phase, the oliguric phase, oliguria occurs. Diuresis occurs during the third or diuretic phase. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) occurs during the first, or initiation, phase in which reduced blood flow to the nephrons leads to ATN. Restoration of glomerular function, if it occurs, occurs during the fourth, or recovery, phase.

The nurse is caring for a patient after kidney surgery. What major danger should the nurse closely monitor for? A. Abdominal distention owing to reflex cessation of intestinal peristalsis B. Hypovolemic shock caused by hemorrhage C. Paralytic ileus caused by manipulation of the colon during surgery D. Pneumonia caused by shallow breathing because of severe incisional pain

B If bleeding goes undetected or is not detected promptly, the patient may lose significant amounts of blood and may experience hypoxemia. In addition to hypovolemic shock due to hemorrhage, this type of blood loss may precipitate a myocardial infarction or transient ischemic attack.

The nurse recognizes which condition as an integumentary manifestation of chronic renal failure? A. Asterixis B. Gray-bronze skin color C. Tremors D. Seizures

B Integumentary manifestations of chronic renal failure include a gray-bronze skin color. Other manifestations are dry, flaky skin, pruritus, ecchymosis, purpura, thin, brittle nails, and coarse, thinning hair. Asterixis, tremors, and seizures are neurologic manifestations of chronic renal failure.

Which period of acute renal failure is accompanied by an increase in the serum concentration of substances usually excreted by the kidneys? A. Initiation B. Oliguria C. Diuresis D. Recovery

B The oliguria period is accompanied by an increase in the serum concentration of substances usually excreted by the kidneys, such as urea and creatinine. The initiation periods begins with the initial insult and ends when oliguria develops. The diuresis period is marked by a gradual increase in urine output. The recovery period signals the improvement of renal function and may take 6 to 12 months.

Which clinical finding should a nurse look for in a client with chronic renal failure? A. Hypotension B. Uremia C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Polycythemia

B Uremia is the buildup of nitrogenous wastes in the blood, evidenced by an elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatine levels. Uremia, anemia, and acidosis are consistent clinical manifestations of chronic renal failure. Metabolic acidosis results from the inability to excrete hydrogen ions. Anemia results from a lack of erythropoietin. Hypertension (from fluid overload) may or may not be present in chronic renal failure. Hypotension, metabolic alkalosis, and polycythemia aren't present in renal failure.

A client who has been treated for chronic renal failure (CRF) is ready for discharge. The nurse should reinforce which dietary instruction? A. "Be sure to eat meat at every meal." B. "Eat plenty of bananas." C. "Increase your carbohydrate intake." D. "Drink plenty of fluids, and use a salt substitute."

C A client with CRF requires extra carbohydrates to prevent protein catabolism. In a client with CRF, unrestricted intake of sodium, protein, potassium, and fluid may lead to a dangerous accumulation of electrolytes and protein metabolic products, such as amino acids and ammonia. Therefore, the client must limit intake of sodium; meat, which is high in protein; bananas, which are high in potassium; and fluid, because the failing kidneys can't secrete adequate urine. Salt substitutes are high in potassium and should be avoided.

The client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to find? A. Hyperalbuminemia B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Cola-colored urine D. Hypotension

C Clinical manifestations of acute glomerulonephritis include cola-colored urine, hematuria, edema, azotemia, and proteinuria.

For a client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), which nursing intervention is the most important? A. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing B. Promoting carbohydrate intake C. Limiting fluid intake D. Providing pain-relief measures

C During the oliguric phase of ARF, urine output decreases markedly, possibly leading to fluid overload. Limiting oral and IV fluid intake can prevent fluid overload and its complications, such as heart failure and pulmonary edema. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing is important for clients with various respiratory disorders. Promoting carbohydrate intake may be helpful in ARF but doesn't take precedence over fluid limitation. Controlling pain isn't important because ARF rarely causes pain.

The nurse is caring for a patient in acute renal failure. The nurse should expect hypertonic glucose, insulin infusions, and sodium bicarbonate to be used to treat: A. Hypernatremia. B. Hypokalemia. C. Hyperkalemia. D. Hypercalcemia.

C Hyperkalemia is a common complication of acute renal failure. It is life-threatening if immediate action isn't taken to reverse it. The administration of glucose and regular insulin, with sodium bicarbonate if necessary, can temporarily prevent cardiac arrest by moving potassium into the cells and temporarily reducing serum potassium levels. Hypernatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia don't usually occur with acute renal failure and aren't treated with glucose, insulin, or sodium bicarbonate.

A nurse who provides care in a high-acuity medical setting is aware of the high incidence and morbidity of acute renal failure (ARF). To reduce patients' risks of developing ARF during their stay in hospital, it is imperative that: A. Standard precautions be adhered to rigorously B. Patients be encouraged to ambulate as soon as they are able C. Patients' medication regimens be monitored closely D. Tube feeding or parenteral nutrition be initiated for patients who cannot eat

C Medications are frequently implicated in cases of hospital-acquired ARF. Malnutrition, lack of infection control, and inactivity are not directly causative of ARF.

A client with chronic renal failure complains of generalized bone pain and tenderness. Which assessment finding would alert the nurse to an increased potential for the development of spontaneous bone fractures? A. Elevated serum creatinine B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyperphosphatemia D. Elevated urea and nitrogen

C Osteodystrophy is a condition in which the bone becomes demineralized due to hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia. In an effort to raise blood calcium levels, the parathyroid glands secrete more parathormone. Elevated creatinine, urea, nitrogen, and potassium levels are expected in chronic renal failure and do not contribute to bone fractures.

A client is diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease and requires teaching on the management of the disorder. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching? A. "I inherited this disorder from one of my parents." B. "The cysts can get quite large in size." C. "As long as I have one normal kidney, I should be fine." D. "If renal failure develops, I may need to consider dialysis."

C Polycystic kidney disease is characterized by the formation of multiple cysts on both kidneys. Polycystic kidney disease is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait. The fluid-filled cysts can cause great enlargement of the kidneys and interfere with kidney function, which can eventually lead to renal failure.

The nurse instructs a client to perform continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis correctly at home. Which educational information should the nurse provide to the client? A. Wear a mask while handling any dialysate solutions. B. Keep the catheter stabilized to the abdomen, below the belt line. C. Use an aseptic technique during the procedure. D. Clean the catheter insertion site daily with soap.

C The client should be instructed to use an aseptic technique during the procedure. The client should also demonstrate the continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) exchange procedure for the nurse using an aseptic technique (clients on continuous cycling peritoneal dialysis [CCPD] should also demonstrate an exchange procedure in case of failure or unavailability of a cycling machine). A mask is generally worn only while performing exchanges, especially when a client has an upper respiratory infection. The catheter insertion site should be cleaned daily with an antiseptic such as povidone-iodine, not with soap. In addition, the catheter should be stabilized to the abdomen above the belt line, not below the belt line, to avoid constant rubbing.

The nurse is caring for a patient in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI). What does the nurse know would be the daily urine output? A. 1.5 L B. 1.0 L C. Less than 400 mL D. Less than 50 mL

C The oliguria period is accompanied by an increase in the serum concentration of substances usually excreted by the kidneys (urea, creatinine, uric acid, organic acids, and the intracellular cations [potassium and magnesium]). The minimum amount of urine needed to rid the body of normal metabolic waste products is 400 mL. In this phase, uremic symptoms first appear and life-threatening conditions such as hyperkalemia develop.

The nurse helps a client to correctly perform peritoneal dialysis at home. The nurse must educate the client about the procedure. Which educational information should the nurse provide to the client? A. Wear a mask while handling any dialysate solutions B. Keep the catheter stabilized to the abdomen, below the belt line C. Keep the dialysis supplies in a clean area, away from children and pets D. Clean the catheter insertion site daily with soap

Correct answer: C It is important to keep the dialysis supplies in a clean area, away from children and pets, because the supplies may be dangerous for them. A mask is generally worn only while performing exchanges, especially when a client has an upper respiratory infection. The catheter insertion site should be cleaned daily with an antiseptic such as povidone-iodine, not with soap. In addition, the catheter should be stabilized to the abdomen above the belt line, not below the belt line, to avoid constant rubbing.

A nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of risk for ineffective breathing pattern related to incisional pain and restricted positioning for a client who has had a nephrectomy. Which of the following would be most appropriate for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care? A. Administer isotonic fluid therapy as ordered. B. Keep the drainage catheter below the level of insertion. C. Encourage use of incentive spirometer every 2 hours. D. Monitor temperature every 4 hours.

Correct answer: C To address the issue of ineffective breathing pattern, encouraging the use of incentive spirometer would be most appropriate to help increase alveolar ventilation. Administering isotonic fluid therapy would be appropriate for issues involving fluid loss such as bleeding or hemorrhage. Keeping the drainage catheter below the level of insertion would be appropriate to reduce the risk of obstruction leading to acute pain. Monitoring the temperature every 4 hours would be appropriate to reduce the client's risk for infection.

A client requires hemodialysis. Which type of drug should be withheld before this procedure? A. Phosphate binders B. Insulin C. Antibiotics D. Cardiac glycosides

D Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin (Lanoxin) should be withheld before hemodialysis. Hypokalemia is one of the electrolyte shifts that occur during dialysis, and a hypokalemic client is at risk for arrhythmias secondary to digoxin toxicity. Phosphate binders and insulin can be administered because they aren't removed from the blood by dialysis. Some antibiotics are removed by dialysis and should be administered after the procedure to ensure their therapeutic effects. The nurse should check a formulary to determine whether a particular antibiotic should be administered before or after dialysis.

The nurse treats a client with end-stage kideny disease (ESKD). The nurse is concerned that the client is developing renal osteodystrophy. Upon review of the client's laboratory values, it is noted the client has had a calcium level of 11 mg/dL for the past 3 days and the phosphate level is 5.5 mg/dL. The nurse anticipates the administration of which medication? A. Calcium carbonate B. Mylanta C. Calcium acetate D. Sevelamer hydrochloride

D Hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia are treated with medications that bind dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract. Binders such as calcium carbonate or calcium acetate are prescribed, but there is a risk of hypercalcemia. If calcium is high or the calcium-phosphorus product exceeds 55 mg/dL, a polymeric phosphate binder such as sevelamer hydrochloride may be prescribed. This medication binds dietary phosphorus in the intestinal tract; one to four tablets should be administered with food to be effective. Magnesium-based antacids are avoided to prevent magnesium toxicity.

The nurse is caring for a patient that has developed oliguria. Oliguria is defined as urine output less than ___________mL/kg/hr.

0.5

The nurse cares for a client diagnosed with chronic glomerulonephritis. The nurse will observe the client for the development of A. hypokalemia. B. anemia. C. metabolic alkalosis. D. hypophosphatemia.

B Anemia, hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, and hyperphosphatemia occur during chronic glomerulonephritis.

The nurse monitors the client for potential complications during dialysis but recongizes NOT to monitor for A. muscle cramping. B. hypertension. C. dysrhythmias. D. air embolism.

B The nurse should monitor for hypotension, not hypertension, during the treatment related to the removal of fluid. Muscle cramping may occur late in dialysis as fluid and electrolytes rapidly leave the extracellular space. Dysrhythmias may result from electrolyte and pH changes or removal of antiarrhythmic medications. Air embolism is rare, but could occur if air enters the vascular system.

A client in chronic renal failure becomes confused and complains of abdominal cramping, racing heart rate, and numbness of the extremities. The nurse relates these symptoms to which of the following lab values? A. Elevated urea levels B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Elevated white blood cells

Correct answer: B Hyperkalemia is the life-threatening effect of renal failure. The client can become apathetic; confused; and have abdominal cramping, dysrhythmias, nausea, muscle weakness, and numbness of the extremities. Symptoms of hypocalcemia are muscle twitching, irritability, and tetany. Elevation in urea levels can result in azotemia, which can be exhibited in fluid and electrolyte and/or acid-base imbalance. Elevation of WBCs is not indicated.

An expected outcome for the hemodialysis client is: A. The client identifies signs and symptoms of rejection. B. The client verbalizes the dwell time for the dialysate. C. The client demonstrates how to administer the dialysate by gravity. D. The client explains how to assess the venous access site.

D Hemodialysis requires the creation of an arterio-venous access site. The absence of a palpable thrill suggests the AV site is blocked or clotted.

A client, aged 87, undergoes continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) for acute renal failure (ARF). Which task would be most important for the nurse to do? A. Monitor the client for hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia. B. Ensure a diet rich in proteins and potassium. C. Note a color change in the client's eyes, teeth, and nails. D. Frequently monitor the client's progress.

D Older clients who are not candidates for kidney transplants may receive CAPD. More frequent monitoring of the client's progress is required when this technique is used. The recommendations for protein and potassium in the diet are highly variable based on the client's condition. Change in the color of client's teeth, eyes, and nails need not be monitored, nor does the client need to be monitored for hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia.

A client is diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease. Which symptom would the nurse most likely assess? A. Hypertension B. Flank pain C. Fever D. Periorbital edema

A Hypertension is often present in clients with polycystic kidney disease at the time of diagnosis. Pain from retroperitoneal bleeding, lumbar discomfort, and abdominal pain also may be noted based on the size and effects of the cysts. Fever would suggest an infection. Periorbital edema is noted with acute glomerulonephritis.

Rejection of a transplanted kidney within 24 hours after transplant is termed A. acute rejection. B. hyperacute rejection. C. chronic rejection. D. simple rejection.

B Hyperacute rejection may require removal of the transplanted kidney. Acute rejection occurs within 3 to 14 days of transplantation. Chronic rejection occurs after many years. The term simple is not used in the categorization of types of rejection of kidney transplants.

A client has undergone a renal transplant and returns to the health care agency for a follow-up evaluation. Which finding would lead to the suspicion that the client is experiencing rejection? A. Hypotension B. Weight loss C. Polyuria D. Tenderness over transplant site

D Signs and symptoms of transplant rejection include abdominal pain, hypertension, weight gain, oliguria, edema, fever, increased serum creatinine levels, and swelling or tenderness over the transplanted kidney site.

At the end of five peritoneal exchanges, a patient's fluid loss was 500 mL. How much is this loss equal to? A. 0.5 lb B. 1.0 lb C. 1.5 lb D. 2 lb

B The most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain in an acutely ill patient is weight. An accurate daily weight must be obtained and recorded. A 1-kg (2-lb) weight loss is equal to 1,000 mL.

A child is brought into the clinic with symptoms of edema and dark brown rusty urine. Which nursing assessment finding would best assist in determining the cause of this problem? A. Sore throat 2 weeks ago B. Red blood cells in the urine C. Elevation of blood pressure D. Protein elevation in the urine

A Acute glomerulonephritis usually occurs as a result of bacterial infection such as seen with a beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection or impetigo. Red blood cells and protein found in the urine and elevated blood pressure are symptoms associated with glomerulonephritis.

What is used to decrease potassium level seen in acute renal failure? A. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate B. Sorbitol C. IV dextrose 50% D. Calcium supplements

A The elevated potassium levels may be reduced by administering cation-exchange resins (sodium polystyrene sulfonate [Kayexalate]) orally or by retention enema. Kayexalate works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestinal tract.

A nurse is reviewing the history of a client who is suspected of having glomerulonephritis. Which of the following would the nurse consider significant? A. Previous episode of acute pyelonephritis B. History of hyperparathyroidism C. Recent history of streptococcal infection D. History of osteoporosis

C Glomerulonephritis can occur as a result of infections from group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infections, bacterial endocarditis, or viral infections such as hepatitis B or C or human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). A history of hyperparathyroidism or osteoporosis would place the client at risk for developing renal calculi. A history of pyelonephritis would increase the client's risk for chronic pyelonephritis.

A change that occurs during chronic glomerulonephritis is termed A. hypokalemia. B. anemia. C. metabolic alkalosis. D. hypophosphatemia.

B Anemia, hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, and hyperphosphatemia occur during chronic glomerulonephritis.

A client with newly diagnosed renal cancer is questioning why detection was delayed. Which is the best response by the nurse? A. "Squamous cell carcinomas do not present with detectable symptoms." B. "You should have sought treatment earlier." C. "Very few symptoms are associated with renal cancer." D. "Painless gross hematuria is the first symptom in renal cancer."

C Renal cancers rarely cause symptoms in the early stage. Tumors can become quite large before causing symptoms. Painless, gross hematuria is often the first symptom in renal cancer and does not present until later stages of the disease. Adenocarcinomas are the most common renal cancer (about 80%),whereas squamous cell renal cancers are rare. It is not therapeutic to place doubt or blame for delayed diagnosis.

The client with polycystic kidney disease asks the nurse, "Will my kidneys ever function normally again?" The best response by the nurse is: A. "As the disease progresses, you will most likely require renal replacement therapy." B. "Dietary changes can reverse the damage that has occurred in your kidneys." C. "Draining of the cysts and antibiotic therapy will cure your disease." D. "Genetic testing will determine the best treatment for your condition."

A There is no cure for polycystic kidney disease. Medical management includes therapies to control blood pressure, urinary tract infections, and pain. Renal replacement therapy is indicated as the kidneys fail.

The nurse cares for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI). The client is experiencing an increase in the serum concentration of urea and creatinine. The nurse determines the client is experiencing which phase of AKI? A. Initiation B. Oliguria C. Diuresis D. Recovery

B The oliguria period is accompanied by an increase in the serum concentration of substances usually excreted by the kidneys (urea, creatinine, uric acid, organic acids, and the intracellular cations [potassium and magnesium]). The initiation periods begins with the initial insult and ends when oliguria develops. The diuresis period is marked by a gradual increase in urine output. The recovery period signals the improvement of renal function and may take 6 to 12 months.

Following a nephrectomy, which assessment finding is most important in determining nursing care for the client? A. Urine output of 35 to 40 mL/hour B. Pain of 3 out of 10, 1 hour after analgesic administration C. SpO2 at 90% with fine crackles in the lung bases D. Blood tinged drainage in Jackson-Pratt drainage tube

C The Risk for Ineffective Breathing Pattern is often a challenge in caring for clients postnephrectomy due to location of incision. Nursing interventions should be directed to improve and maintain SpO2 levels at 90% or greater and keep lungs clear of adventitious sounds. Intake and output is monitored to maintain a urine output of greater than 30 mL/hour. Pain control is important and should allow for movement, deep breathing, and rest. Blood-tinged drainage from the JP tube is expected in the initial postoperative period.

Because of difficulties with hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis is initiated to treat a client's uremia. Which finding during this procedure signals a significant problem? Blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3 Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L Hematocrit (HCT) of 35%

Correct answer: White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3 Explanation: An increased WBC count indicates infection, probably resulting from peritonitis, which may have been caused by insertion of the peritoneal catheter into the peritoneal cavity. Peritonitis can cause the peritoneal membrane to lose its ability to filter solutes; therefore, peritoneal dialysis would no longer be a treatment option for this client. Hyperglycemia (evidenced by a blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl) occurs during peritoneal dialysis because of the high glucose content of the dialysate; it's readily treatable with sliding-scale insulin. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L can be treated by adding potassium to the dialysate solution. An HCT of 35% is lower than normal. However, in this client, the value isn't abnormally low because of the daily blood samplings. A lower HCT is common in clients with chronic renal failure because of the lack of erythropoietin.

A client is experiencing a decreasing glomerular filtration. What laboratory values should the nurse expect to follow the change? Select all that apply. A. Serum creatinine increases B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) increases C. Creatinine clearance decreases D. Hypokalemia E. Hypophosphatemia

A, B, C As glomerular filtration decreases, the serum creatinine and BUN levels increase; the creatinine clearance decreases. Potassium and phosphate levels should not be affected by decreased glomerular filtration.

The nurse performs acute intermittent peritoneal dialysis (PD) on a client who is experiencing uremic signs and symptoms. The peritoneal fluid is not draining as expected. What is the best response by the nurse? A. Notify the health care provider. B. Turn the client from side to side. C. Lower the head of the bed. D. Push the catheter further into the abdomen.

Correct answer: B If the peritoneal fluid does not drain properly, the nurse can facilitate drainage by turning the client from side to side or raising the head of the bed. The catheter should never be pushed further into the peritoneal cavity. Other measures to promote drainage include checking the patency of the catheter by inspecting for kinks, closed clamps, or an air lock.

A client with acute renal failure progresses through four phases. Which describes the onset phase? A. It is accompanied by reduced blood flow to the nephrons. B. Fluid volume excess develops, which leads to edema, hypertension, and cardiopulmonary complications. C. The excretion of wastes and electrolytes continues to be impaired despite increased water content of the urine. D. Normal glomerular filtration and tubular function are restored.

A The onset phase is accompanied by reduced blood flow to the nephrons. In the oliguric phase, fluid volume excess develops, which leads to edema, hypertension, and cardiopulmonary complications. During the diuretic phase, excretion of wastes and electrolytes continues to be impaired despite increased water content of the urine. During the recovery phase, normal glomerular filtration and tubular function are restored.

Which term is used to describe the concentration of urea and other nitrogenous wastes in the blood? A. Uremia B. Azotemia C. Hematuria D. Proteinuria

B Azotemia is the concentration of urea and other nitrogenous wastes in the blood. Uremia is an excess of urea and other nitrogenous wastes in the blood. Hematuria is blood in the urine. Proteinuria is protein in the urine.

A client has end-stage renal failure. Which of the following should the nurse include when teaching the client about nutrition to limit the effects of azotemia? A. Increase fat intake and limit carbohydrates. B. Eliminate fat intake and increase protein intake. C. Increase carbohydrates and limit protein intake. D. Increase protein, carbohydrates, and fat intake.

C Calories are supplied by carbohydrates and fat to prevent wasting. Protein is restricted because the breakdown products of dietary and tissue protein (urea, uric acid, and organic acids) accumulate quickly in the blood.

An investment banker with chronic renal failure informs the nurse of the choice for continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis. Which is the best response by the nurse? A. "The risk of peritonitis is greater with this type of dialysis." B. "This type of dialysis will provide more independence." C. "Peritoneal dialysis will require more work for you." D. "Peritoneal dialysis does not work well for every client."

Correct answer: B Once a treatment choice has been selected by the client, the nurse should support the client in that decision. Continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis will provide more independence for this client and supports the client's decision for treatment mode. The risk of peritonitis is greater, and symptoms should be discussed as part of the management of the disorder. Peritoneal dialysis is an effective method of dialysis for many clients.

Which of the following would a nurse classify as a prerenal cause of acute renal failure? A. Polycystic disease B. Ureteral stricture C. Prostatic hypertrophy D. Septic shock

D Prerenal causes of acute renal failure include hypovolemic shock, cardiogenic shock secondary to congestive heart failure, septic shock, anaphylaxis, dehydration, renal artery thrombosis or stenosis, cardiac arrest, and lethal dysrhythmias. Ureteral stricture and prostatic hypertrophy would be classified as postrenal causes. Polycystic disease is classified as an intrarenal cause of acute renal failure.

The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease. The patient has gained 4 kg in the past 3 days. In milliliters, how much fluid retention does this equal? __________________

4000 A 1-kg weight gain is equal to 1,000 mL of retained fluid. 4 kg × 1,000 = 4,000. The most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain in an acutely ill patient is weight. An accurate daily weight must be obtained and recorded.

A patient has acute kidney injury (AKI) with a negative nitrogen balance. How much weight does the nurse expect the patient to lose? A. 0.5 kg/day B. 1.0 kg/day C. 1.5 kg/day D. 2.0 kg/day

A AKI causes severe nutritional imbalances (because nausea and vomiting contribute to inadequate dietary intake), impaired glucose use and protein synthesis, and increased tissue catabolism. The patient is weighed daily and loses 0.2 to 0.5 kg (0.5 to 1 lb) daily if the nitrogen balance is negative (i.e., caloric intake falls below caloric requirements).

The nurse cares for a client after extensive abdominal surgery. The client develops an infection that is treated with IV gentamicin. After 4 days of treatment, the client develops oliguria, and laboratory results indicate azotemia. The client is diagnosed with acute tubular necrosis and transferred to the ICU. The client is hemodynamically stable. Which dialysis method would be most appropriate for the client? A. Hemodialysis B. Peritoneal dialysis C. Continuous arteriovenous hemofiltration (CAVH) D. Continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH)

A The client is hemodynamically stable and hemodialysis would be most appropriate. Hemodialysis is used for clients who are acutely ill and require short-term dialysis for days to weeks until kidney function resumes and for clients with advanced chronic kidney disease (CKD) and end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) who require long-term or permanent renal replacement therapy. Peritoneal dialysis (PD) may be the treatment of choice for clients with renal failure who are unable or unwilling to undergo hemodialysis or kidney transplantation. CAVH and CVVH are used for client who are hemodynamically unstable.

The presence of prerenal azotemia is a probable indicator for hospitalization for CAP. Which of the following is an initial laboratory result that would alert a nurse to this condition? A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)-to-creatinine ratio (BUN:Cr) >20. B. BUN of 18 mg/dL. C. Serum creatinine of 1.2 mg/dL. D. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 100 mL/min.

A The normal BUN:Cr ratio is less than 15. Prerenal azotemia is caused by hypoperfusion of the kidneys due to a nonrenal cause. Over time, higher than normal blood levels of urea or other nitrogen-containing compounds will develop.

Patient education regarding a fistulae or graft includes which of the following? Select all that apply. A. Check daily for thrill and bruit. B. Avoid compression of the site. C. No IV or blood pressure taken on extremity with dialysis access. D. No tight clothing. E. Cleanse site b.i.d.

A, B, C, D The nurse teaches the patient with fistulae or grafts to check daily for a thrill and bruit. Further teaching includes avoiding compression of the site; not permitting blood to be drawn, an IV to be inserted, or blood pressure to be taken on the extremity with the dialysis access; not to wear tight clothing, carry bags or pocketbooks on that side, and not lie on or sleep on the area. The site is not cleansed unless it is being accessed for hemodialysis.

A client has a family history of polycystic kidney disease. As the nurse gathers information and completes an assessment related to a polycystic kidney diagnosis, which findings would the nurse expect to find? Select all that apply. A. Hypertension B. Pain from retroperitoneal bleeding C. Normal urinalysis D. No renal stones E. Polyuria

A, B, E Hypertension is present in affected clients at the time of diagnosis. Pain from retroperitoneal bleeding is caused by the size and effects of the cysts. Polyuria can occur. Urinalysis shows mild proteinuria, hematuria, and pyuria. Renal stones are common.

A patient is postoperative day 3 following the successful transplantation of a kidney. The nurse is aware of the importance of assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of rejection. Consequently, the nurse is constantly monitoring the patient for: A. Decreased level of consciousness and pruritus B. Oliguria and edema C. Pain and hematuria D. Weight loss and lethargy

B After kidney transplantation, the nurse assesses the patient for signs and symptoms of transplant rejection: oliguria, edema, fever, increasing blood pressure, weight gain, and swelling or tenderness over the transplanted kidney or graft. The other given assessment findings are not directly suggestive or organ rejection.

What is a characteristic of the intrarenal category of acute kidney injury (AKI)? A. Decreased creatinine B. Increased BUN C. High specific gravity D. Decreased urine sodium

B The intrarenal category of acute kidney injury (AKI) encompasses an increased BUN, increased creatinine, a low-normal specific gravity of urine, and increased urine sodium. Intrarenal AKI is the result of actual parenchymal damage to the glomeruli or kidney tubules. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN), AKI in which there is damage to the kidney tubules, is the most common type of intrinsic AKI. Characteristics of ATN are intratubular obstruction, tubular back leak (abnormal reabsorption of filtrate and decreased urine flow through the tubule), vasoconstriction, and changes in glomerular permeability. These processes result in a decrease of GFR, progressive azotemia, and fluid and electrolyte imbalances.

A male client has doubts about performing peritoneal dialysis at home. He informs the nurse about his existing upper respiratory infection. Which of the following suggestions can the nurse offer to the client while performing an at-home peritoneal dialysis? A. Perform deep-breathing exercises vigorously. B. Wear a mask when performing exchanges. C. Auscultate the lungs frequently. D. Avoid carrying heavy items.

B The nurse should advise the client to wear a mask while performing exchanges. This prevents contamination of the dialysis catheter and tubing, and is usually advised to clients with upper respiratory infection. Auscultation of the lungs will not prevent contamination of the catheter or tubing. The client may also be advised to perform deep-breathing exercises to promote optimal lung expansion, but this will not prevent contamination. Clients with a fistula or graft in the arm should be advised against carrying heavy items.

A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) has developed faulty red blood cell (RBC) production. The nurse should monitor this client for: A. nausea and vomiting. B. dyspnea and cyanosis. C. fatigue and weakness. D. thrush and circumoral pallor.

Correct answer: C Explanation: RBCs carry oxygen throughout the body. Decreased RBC production diminishes cellular oxygen, leading to fatigue and weakness. Nausea and vomiting may occur in CRF but don't result from faulty RBC production. Dyspnea and cyanosis are associated with fluid excess, not CRF. Thrush, which signals fungal infection, and circumoral pallor, which reflects decreased oxygenation, aren't signs of CRF

The nurse is reviewing the potassium level of a patient with kidney disease. The results of the test are 6.5 mEq/L, and the nurse observes peaked T waves on the ECG. What priority intervention does the nurse anticipate the physician will order to reduce the potassium level? A. Administration of an insulin drip B. Administration of a loop diuretic C. Administration of sodium bicarbonate D. Administration of sodium polystyrene sulfonate [Kayexalate])

D The elevated potassium levels may be reduced by administering cation-exchange resins (sodium polystyrene sulfonate [Kayexalate]) orally or by retention enema. Kayexalate works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestinal tract.