Comptia Core 1 P1-5

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area? CPU slot Memory slot CPU power Mini PCIe

CPU slot OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the CPU slot. This is where the processor is installed into the motherboard. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Which of the following would installing a multicore CPU achieve? Increased video editing speed Increased video speed Increased performance and overall processing Accessing shared folders on a server

Increased performance and overall processing OBJ-3.4: A multicore CPU offers essential performance, and overall processing increases to the system. When attempting to access shared folders on a server, a high-performance network interface card (NIC) would be a better choice. When trying to increase the video playback or video editing speed, installing a dedicated GPU would be a more appropriate choice.

Which of the following services does Apple use for syncing their data across multiple macOS and iOS devices? Google Drive iCloud OneDrive DropBox

iCloud OBJ-4.1: iCloud is an Apple proprietary application that works across multiple devices running macOS and iOS. Apple has since released iCloud synchronization tools for Windows. Unfortunately, they have not released an Android version, so Android users must use the web-based version instead of a dedicated synchronization app.

What command is used to test if your own network card's driver is working properly? ping 127.0.0.1 ping 1.1.1.1 ping 8.8.8.8 ping 192.168.1.1

ping 127.0.0.1 OBJ-5.7: The IP Address 127.0.0.1 is a localhost IP for testing your network interface card (NIC). This IP address is reserved for use with a loopback test. If there is no communication of the return packet, this indicates the network card is faulty, the cable/loopback is loose, or there is bad wiring of the loopback plug. Using ping with public IP addresses or the gateway address, such as 1.1.1.1, 8.8.8.8, and 192.168.1.1, would instead verify the entire path and not just NIC's driver.

Which of the following ports is used by LDAP by default? 53 389 3389 427

389 OBJ-2.1: The lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) is a protocol used to access and update information in an X.500-style network resource directory. LDAP uses port 389. The service location protocol (SLP) is a protocol or method of organizing and locating the resources (such as printers, disk drives, databases, e-mail directories, and schedulers) in a network. This is an alternative protocol to LDAP in newer networks. SLP uses port 427. The remote desktop protocol (RDP) is a protocol used for the remote administration of a host using a graphical user interface. RDP operates over TCP port 3389. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53.

Which of the following is an example of a valid IPv4 address? 192.168.1.254 192:168:1:55 00:AB:FA:B1:07:34 ::1

192.168.1.254 OBJ-2.5: An IPv4 address consists of 32 bits. IPv4 addresses are written in dotted octet notation, such as 192.168.1.254. MAC addresses are written as a series of 12 hexadecimal digits, such as 00:AB:FA:B1:07:34. IPv6 addresses are written as a series of up to 32 hexadecimal digits but can be summarized using a :: symbol. The ::1 is the IPv6 address for the localhost. The other option, 192:168:1:55 is not a valid address since it uses : instead of a . in between the octets.

You have just set up an FTP server to allow users to download the new open-source application your company is releasing. Which port should be opened to allow users to connect to this server? 21 22 25 23

21 OBJ-2.1: The file transfer protocol (FTP) is the protocol used to transfer files across the internet over ports 20 and 21. Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. Telnet is the protocol used for remote command-line administration of a host using TCP port 23. Telnet is considered insecure since it is unauthenticated and unencrypted. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25.

v(This is a simulated Performance-Based Question. On the real exam, you may be given a chart with numerous ports and protocols and be asked to drag and drop them to match the ports with the protocols.) What ports do FTP and SFTP utilize? 21, 22 21, 23 20, 21 22, 23

21, 22 OBJ-2.1: FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses ports 20 and 21. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) uses port 22. Port 23 is used by Telnet. If this were a question on the real exam, you would see a list of ports on one side and a list of protocols on the other, and you would drag and drop each one to match them up. (It might also have 4-6 different pairs to match up.)

Which of the following ports should you block at the firewall if you want to prevent a remote login to a server from occurring? 22 143 21 80

22 OBJ-2.1: Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. The file transfer protocol (FTP) is the protocol used to transfer files across the internet over ports 20 and 21. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using port 80. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time.

Your desktop computer is currently running out of internal storage space. You want to upgrade the workstation with more internal storage to store additional videos, photos, and backups. Which of the following is the BEST storage solution to avoid having to expand again next year while still meeting your need to store more data? 1 TB SSD 3 TB HDD 50 TB SAN 5 TB NAS

3 TB HDD OBJ-3.3: Since you need an internal storage solution, you cannot use a NAS or SAN (since these are both network storage solutions). Instead, you have to select from the SSD or the HDD. In this question, we are primarily worried about the size of the storage being installed and not the storage speed. Therefore, we should choose the 3 TB HDD (hard disk drive) over the 1 TB SSD (solid-state drive) due to its larger size.

Your company's printer is displaying an error of "Replace cartridge 1. Filament is empty." Based on this error, what kind of printer is your company using? Thermal Inkjet 3-D Laser Impact

3-D OBJ-3.7: 3-D printers use a filament to create the objects being printed. A 3D printing filament is a thermoplastic feedstock for fused deposition modeling by 3D printers. There are many types of filament available with different properties, requiring different temperatures to print the final product or object. On the exam, you should be thinking about a 3D printer anytime you see the word filament. An inkjet cartridge is used with an inkjet printer. Toner is used with a laser printer. Ribbon is used with an impact printer. Ribbon or special thermal paper is used with a thermal printer.

Which of the following form factors of storage devices are NOT used in laptops? 2.5" 1.8" M.2 3.5"

3.5" OBJ-1.1: A 3.5" drive is only used in desktops and some networked file servers. The larger 3.5" magnetic drives are the standard size used by desktop computers and do not fit into a laptop's smaller form factor. Laptops most commonly use 2.5" and 1.8" magnetic drives. In modern laptops, you will often find an M.2 form factor SSD installed.

Dion Training has just installed a web server for a new domain name. Which of the following DNS records would need to be created to allow users to reach the website using its domain name and then redirect clients to the proper IPv6 address for the server? AAAA A MX SOA

AAAA OBJ-2.6: An AAAA record associates your domain name with an IPv6 address. An A record associates your domain name with an IPv4 address. An MX record is used for outgoing (SMTP) and incoming (POP3/IMAP) traffic. A Start of Authority (SOA) resource record indicates which Domain Name Server (DNS) is the best source of information for the specified domain.

You have decided that you wanted to install a second operating system on your computer. After installing the OS and rebooting the computer, you see the "Operating System Not Found" error on your display. You verify that the boot.ini file is configured properly, but the error still appears. What is MOST likely causing this error? The MBR bootloader was installed accidentally An unsupported version of Linux is installed Windows Startup services are not properly running An incompatible partition is marked as active

An incompatible partition is marked as active OBJ-5.3: This issue may occur if one or more of the following conditions are true: (1) the basic input/output system (BIOS) does not detect the hard disk, (2) the hard disk is damaged, (3) sector 0 of the physical hard disk drive has an incorrect or malformed master boot record (MBR), (4) an incompatible partition is marked as Active, or (5) a partition that contains the MBR is no longer active. The only option provided in this list is that an incompatible partition is marked as active.

Your company has two office buildings which are connected via a copper network cable that is buried underground. There is some construction being performed near the buildings. Now, the second building discovers they have suffered a network outage that doesn't appear to be temporary. What is the MOST likely cause of the outage? Signal attenuation on the cable Electromagnetic interference on the cable Cross-talk on the cable An open circuit has been created

An open circuit has been created OBJ-5.7: Since the issue started after construction began, it is most likely that the construction crew broke the cable during digging operations. This can cause an open circuit or short circuit, depending on how the cable was cut or broken by the construction workers. This can be verified using a Time-Domain Reflectometer to determine exactly where in the cable the break has occurred. Once the location is identified, the cable can be repaired or spliced to return it to normal operations.

What type of cable is most commonly used to terminate a serial connection to a modem? RJ-45 DB-9 RJ-11 LC

DB-9 OBJ-3.1: A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable. A ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector is used to terminate a fiber optic cable. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines. An RJ-45 connector is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable.

Which of the following is the virtualization technology supported by most modern Intel processors? HT Intel-V VT AMD-V

VT OBJ-3.4: To use virtualization and have virtual machines running on a single workstation, you need to have a CPU specifically designed to support virtualization. For Intel processors, they must support VT or Virtualization Technology. If you are using an AMD processor, it should support AMD-V (AMD's virtualization technology). HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits. Intel-V is a made-up term used as a distractor on this question.

A client's laptop appears to have been infected with malware. You have begun troubleshooting, established a plan of action, and have already implemented your proposed solution. According to the best practice troubleshooting methodology, what is the NEXT step you should take? Test the theory to determine the cause Identify the problem Verify full system functionality Document findings, actions, and outcomes

Verify full system functionality BJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

What is the fifth step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology? Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution Document findings, actions, and outcomes Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures Test the theory to determine the cause

Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

You are working as a customer service technician at a smartphone repair center. A customer calls your help desk and states that the device feels warm to the touch even when not used. You ask them to conduct a visual inspection of the smartphone and describe what they are seeing. The customer says, "The battery appears to be swollen' and bulging outward beyond its normally rectangular shape." Which of the following is the BEST statement for you to provide to the customer? "Please conduct a factory reset of your phone since this will eliminate the overheating issue." "Please place 5 heavy books on top of your smartphone since the weight will help reform the battery into its proper and normal rectangular shape." "Since the device is still working, you can continue to use your phone until the new model is released in 2 months." "Please do not use the smartphone and bring it to our service center immediately so that we can replace the battery for you."

"Please do not use the smartphone and bring it to our service center immediately so that we can replace the battery for you." OBJ-5.5: A mobile device battery (such as a smartphone or tablet) will become swollen or distended as it begins to fail. If this occurs and the battery or device appears to be physically abnormal, the customer should NOT use the smartphone. The device should be serviced immediately, the battery should be replaced, and the phone inspected to ensure the defective battery has not damaged it.

(This is a simulated Performance-Based Question. If this was on the real exam, you would be asked to drag and drop the steps into the proper order from step one to step seven.) Dion Training's email server is not sending out emails to users who have a Yahoo email address. What is the proper order that you should follow to troubleshoot this issue using the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology? (1) Verify system functionality; (2) Identify the problem; (3) Establish a theory of cause; (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem; (5) Test the theory to determine the cause; (6) Implement the solution; (7) Document findings and actions (1) Identify the problem; (2) Establish a theory of cause; (3) Test the theory to determine the cause; (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem; (5) Implement the solution; (6) Verify system functionality; (7) Document findings and actions (1) Establish a theory of cause; (2) Test the theory to determine the cause; (3) Identify the problem; (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem; (5) Verify system functionality; (6) Implement the solution; (7) Document findings and actions (1) Identify the problem; (2) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem; (3) Implement the solution; (4) Establish a theory of cause; (5) Test the theory to determine the cause; (6) Document findings and actions; (7) Verify system functionality

(1) Identify the problem; (2) Establish a theory of cause; (3) Test the theory to determine the cause; (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem; (5) Implement the solution; (6) Verify system functionality; (7) Document findings and actions OBJ-5.1: You must know the network troubleshooting methodology steps in the right order for the exam. You will see numerous questions both in the multiple-choice and simulation sections on this topic. If you received this question on the real exam, it will appear as a "drag and drop" question with each of the steps making up a single box, and you need to put them into the correct order. The troubleshooting steps are to (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory to determine the cause, (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects, (5) Implement the solution or escalate as necessary, (6) Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures, and (7) Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned.

Which of the following DC voltages are not found within a printer when the laser printer converts AC power into DC power for use? +24 VDC +5 VDC -5 VDC -24 VDC

-24 VDC OBJ-3.7: The DCPS (DC Power Supply/Source) of a laser printer is used to convert high voltage AC into lower voltage DC for the printer. The DCPS converts 115VAC or 220VAC power into +5 VDC and -5 VDC for use by the printer's logic board, and +24 VDC to power the motors that feed the paper through the printing path in the last printer.

A computer technician is configuring a NAS for a company to store their corporate data. The technician has installed two 1 TB hard drives operating at 7200 RPM in a RAID 1 configuration. How much usable storage space is contained in the NAS? 1 TB 2 TB 0.5 TB 1.5 TB

1 TB OBJ-3.3: A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. Since the NAS is using a RAID 1 configuration, it is a mirrored array. Both 1 TB HDDs are installed, but a full copy of the data must be contained on each drive. Therefore, there is still only 1 TB of usable storage capacity in the NAS.

Your laptop currently has a 128 GB SSD installed and currently running out of internal storage space. You want to upgrade the workstation with more internal storage to store additional videos, photos, and backups. Still, you don't want to sacrifice data access speed for increased storage. Which of the following is the BEST storage solution to store more data while maintaining fast data access speeds? 50 TB SAN 1 TB SSD 3 TB HDD 5 TB NAS

1 TB SSD OBJ-1.1: Since you need an internal storage solution, you cannot use a NAS or SAN (since these are both network storage solutions). Instead, you have to select from the SSD or the HDD. In this question, we are primarily worried about the storage's speed being installed and not the storage size. Therefore, we should choose the 1 TB SSD (solid-state drive) over the 3 TB HDD (hard disk drive) due to its faster speeds.

Your office is located in a small office park, and you are installing a new wireless network access point for your employees. The companies in the adjacent offices are using Wireless B/G/N routers in the 2.4 GHz spectrum. Your security system uses the 5 GHz spectrum, so you have purchased a 2.4 GHz wireless access point to ensure you don't cause interference with the security system. To maximize the distance between channels, which set of channels should you configure for use on your access points? 3, 6, 9 2, 6, 10 1, 7, 13 1, 6, 11

1, 6, 11 OBJ-2.5: Wireless access points should always be configured with channels 1, 6, or 11 to maximize the distance between channels and prevent overlaps. Each channel on the 2.4 GHz spectrum is 20 MHz wide. The channel centers are separated by 5 MHz, and the entire spectrum is only 100 MHz wide. This means the 11 channels have to squeeze into the 100 MHz available, and in the end, overlap. Channels 1, 6, and 11, however, are far enough from each other on the 2.4GHz band that they have sufficient space between their channel centers and do not overlap.

Which of the following is used to connect Cat 5e or above networks in an MDF or IDF? RJ-11 110 punchdown block 66 punchdown block F type

110 punchdown block OBJ-3.1: A 110 punchdown block is a type of punch block used to terminate runs of on-premises wiring in a structured cabling system. The designation 110 is also used to describe a type of insulation displacement contact (IDC) connector used to terminate twisted pair cables when using a punch-down tool similar to the older 66 punchdown block. A 110 punchdown block provides more spacing between the terminals and is designed for Cat 5 networks to eliminate crosstalk between the cables. F type connectors are used for coaxial cables, not Cat 5e network cables. RJ-11 is used to terminate telephone lines, not Cat 5e network cables.

Which of the following Wi-Fi channels in the 2.4 GHz frequency band are only supported in Europe and Japan due to government regulations? 1 11 13 6

13 OBJ-2.3: The Wi-Fi frequency band for 2.4 GHz is split into 14 channels of 5 MHz each. In the United States and Canada, only channels 1 through 11 may be used. In Europe, channels 1 through 13 may be used. In Japan, channels 1 through 14 may be used. Since each Wi-Fi communication requires approximately 20 MHz to operate effectively, users should set their wireless access points to channels 1, 6, and 11 to minimize interference and avoid overlapping channels.

Which of the following ports are used by the NetBIOS protocol to share files and printers on a Windows network? (Select ANY that apply) 21 443 139 110

139 OBJ-2.1: The network basic input/output system (NetBIOS)/NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is a session management protocol used to provide name registration and resolution services on legacy Microsoft networks and those using WINS. NetBIOS/NetBT operates on TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The file transfer protocol (FTP) is the protocol used to transfer files across the internet over ports 20 and 21.

Which of the following type of hard disk drives would provide the best performance in a gaming workstation? 5400 rpm 10,000 rpm 15,000 rpm 7200 rpm

15,000 rpm OBJ-3.3: Hard drive performance is limited based on the number of revolutions per minute (RPM) the disk can spin. If a disk can spin faster, it can retrieve or store data on the disk quicker. For a high-performance gaming computer, a 15,000 rpm hard disk drive or an SSD should be used. For low-end office desktops, using a 5,400 rpm hard disk drive to save money is acceptable.

Which of the following ports is used by SNMP by default? 25 53 139 161

161 OBJ-2.1: The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53. The network basic input/output system (NetBIOS)/NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is a session management protocol used to provide name registration and resolution services on legacy Microsoft networks and those using WINS. NetBIOS/NetBT operates on TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139.

Which of the following is an APIPA or link-local address? 169.254.64.23 33.52.7.83 127.0.0.1 192.168.1.34

169.254.64.23 OBJ-2.5: IP addresses are either public, private, localhost, or APIPA addresses. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. Any address from 169.254.1.0 to 169.254.254.255 is considered an APIPA address. An APIPA address is also referred to as a link-local address. A private IP address is in the range of 10.x.x.x, 172.16-31.x.x, or 192.168.x.x. A localhost IP is 127.0.0.1. All others are considered public IP addresses.

Which cellular technology is compromised of HSPA+ and EV-DO to provide higher data speeds than previous cellular data protocols? 5G 4G LTE 3G

3G OBJ-1.4: 3G cellular technology is made up of two different technologies: HSPA+ and EV-DO. HSPA+ (Evolved High-Speed Packet Access) is a 3G standard used for GSM cellular networks and can support up to a theoretical download speed of 168 Mbps and a theoretical upload speed of 34 Mbps. In the real world, though, HSPA+ normally reaches speeds around 20 Mbps. EV-DO (Evolution-Data Optimized) is a 3G standard used for CDMA cellular networks and can support up to 3.1 Mbps downloads. 4G cellular technology is made up of LTE and LTA-A. Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a packet data communications specification providing an upgrade path for both GSM and CDMA2000 cellular networks. LTE has a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 20 Mbps. LTE Advanced (LTE-A) has a theoretical speed of 300 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 40 Mbps. 5G cellular technology is made up of three different types: low-band, mid-band, and high-band mmWave technology. Low-band 5G reaches an average speed of 55 Mbps with a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps. Mid-band 5G reaches an average speed of 150 Mbps with a theoretical speed of 1.5 Gbps. High-band 5G reaches an average speed of 3 Gbps with a theoretical speed of up to 70 Gbps.

Which of the following ports is used by the Service Location Protocol when organizing and locating printers, databases, and other resources in a network? 443 427 445 389

427 OBJ-2.1: The Service Location Protocol (SLP) is a protocol or method of organizing and locating the resources (such as printers, disk drives, databases, e-mail directories, and schedulers) in a network. This is an alternative protocol to LDAP in newer networks. SLP uses port 427. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) is a protocol used to access and update information in an X.500-style network resource directory. LDAP uses port 389. The server message block (SMB)/common internet file system (CIFS) is a protocol used for requesting files from Windows servers and delivering them to clients. SMB allows machines to share files and printers, thereby making them available for other machines to use. Samba software allows UNIX and Linux servers or NAS appliances to run SMB services for Windows clients. SMB operates on port 445.

Dion Training just installed a new webserver within a screened subnet. You have been asked to open up the port for secure web browsing on the firewall. Which port should you set as open to allow users to access this new server? 443 143 80 21

443 OBJ-2.1: The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using port 80. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using port 80. The file transfer protocol (FTP) is the protocol used to transfer files across the internet over ports 20 and 21.

You just heard of a new ransomware attack that has been rapidly spreading across the internet that takes advantage of a vulnerability in the Windows SMB protocol. To protect your network until Microsoft releases a security update, you want to block the port for SMB at your firewall to prevent becoming a victim of this attack. Which of the following ports should you add to your blocklist? 123 143 514 445

445 OBJ-2.1: Server Message Block (SMB) uses ports 139 and 445, and is a network file sharing protocol that runs on top of the NetBIOS architecture in Windows environments. When the WannaCry ransomware was spreading rapidly across the internet, you could help protect your organization's network by blocking ports 139 and 445 at your firewall to prevent your machines from getting infected over the internet. Network Time Protocol (NTP) uses port 123 and is a networking protocol for clock synchronization between computer systems over packet-switched, variable-latency data networks. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) uses port 143 and is an Internet standard protocol used by email clients to retrieve email messages from a mail server over a TCP/IP connection. System Logging Protocol (Syslog) uses port 514 and is a way network devices can use a standard message format to communicate with a logging server. It was designed specifically to make it easy to monitor network devices. Devices can use a Syslog agent to send out notification messages under a wide range of specific conditions.

A customer is upset that their laptop is too slow during the bootup process and when loading programs. The laptop is configured with an Intel i7 processor, 16 GB of RAM, a 500 GB HDD operating at 5400 RPM, and a dedicated GPU with 8 GB of RAM. Which of the following upgrades should you install to best increase the system's performance? 2 TB HDD 512 GB SSD Integrated GPU 32 GB of RAM

512 GB SSD OBJ-1.1: Based on the system specifications, the system's slowest part appears to be the 5400 RPM hard disk drive (HDD). Therefore, replacing the HDD with a solid-state device (SSD) would dramatically increase the loading speeds as the operating system and other programs are read from the storage device during bootup and when loading programs. Another viable option would be to purchase a faster HDD, such as operating at 7200 RPM or 10,000 RPM. Still, though, an SSD would be faster than a higher RPM HDD, so it remains the best answer. If the laptop had 4GB or less of memory then it would be appropriate to increase the memory to 8GB or 16GB to increase the speed. An integrated GPU cannot be upgraded on a laptop since the integrated GPU is built into the CPU of the laptop, nor could a dedicated GPU be added to most modern laptops.

Jason is building a new gaming computer for his son. Jason has calculated that the required wattage needed is 420 watts to the video card and all of the other internal devices. Which of the following power supplies should Jason purchase to meet the minimum power requirements for this computer? 525 W 350 W 750 W 250 W

525 W OBJ-3.5: When purchasing a new power supply, it is important to understand the wattage requirements. Since the new computer needs a minimum of 420 watts of power, you must find a power supply that is large enough to meet this demand. In this case, the minimum rating that would meet this requirement is the 525-watt power supply. If a power supply doesn't have a high enough wattage rating to provide the power needed, some or all of the devices will not power on or function properly. If a power supply is chosen that is too large, it will generate excessive heat that can overheat the computer and its components.

Which of the following ports should you unblock at the firewall if your workstation cannot access diontraining.com but can access the website by its IP address? 443 67 80 53

53 OBJ-2.1: The Domain Name System (DNS) servers provide resolution of host and domain names to their IP addresses and are essential for locating resources on the Internet. Most local networks also use DNS for name resolution. Typically, the DNS server would be the gateway address, though this may not be the case on all networks. Often two DNS server addresses (preferred and alternate) are specified for redundancy. DNS operates over TCP/UDP port 53, and if that is blocked, the client will be unable to convert the domain name (diontraining.com) to its IP address. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using port 80. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68.

Which of the following type of hard disk drives would be installed in a low-end office desktop? 5400 rpm 10,000 rpm 15,000 rpm 7200 rpm

5400 rpm OBJ-3.3: Hard drive performance is limited based on the number of revolutions per minute (RPM) the disk can spin. If a disk can spin faster, it can retrieve or store data on the disk quicker. For low-end office desktops, using a 5,400 rpm hard disk drive to save money is acceptable. For a high-performance gaming computer, a 15,000 rpm hard disk drive or an SSD should be used instead.

You have been asked by Dion Training to build a specialized computer that will be used exclusively for running numerous virtual machines simultaneously for their lab environment. Which of the following should you install to BEST meet the company's needs? (Select TWO) 64 GB of DDR4 Intel i9 with 8-cores 1 TB HDD Intel i3 with 2-cores 8 GB of DDR3 1 TB SSD

64 GB of DDR4, Intel i9 with 8-cores OBJ-4.2: According to CompTIA, the two main things you need to include for a dedicated virtualization workstation are (1) maximum RAM and (2) multiple CPU cores. Based on the options provided, you should pick the 64 GB of DDR4 (maximum RAM) and the Intel i9 with 8-cores (multiple processor cores) for this workstation's configuration. The CPU should support virtualization and be a multicore processor. The memory should be fast and contain at least 16 GB of RAM to host numerous VMs effectively.

Which of the following ports is used for the request and distribution of DHCP configuration information? 162 80 67 53

67 OBJ-2.1: The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using port 80. The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event (such as a printer that is out of paper).

Which of the following is a public IP address? 68.24.91.15 10.0.1.45 172.18.2.68 192.168.1.45

68.24.91.15 OBJ-2.5: IP addresses are either public, private, localhost, or APIPA addresses. Any address from 169.254.1.0 to 169.254.254.255 is considered an APIPA address. A private IP address is in the range of 10.x.x.x, 172.16-31.x.x, or 192.168.x.x. A localhost IP is 127.0.0.1. All others are considered public IP addresses.

Your company has decided to upgrade its legacy phone system to use VoIP devices instead. The new phones will download the configurations from a server each time they boot up. Which of the following ports needs to be opened on the firewall to ensure the phones can communicate with the TFTP server and download their boot-up configurations? 21 161 69 53

69 OBJ-2.1: Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a simple protocol that provides a basic file transfer function with no user authentication. TFTP uses port 69 to communicate. TFTP is intended for applications that do not need the sophisticated interactions that File Transfer Protocol (FTP) provides. The File Transfer Protocol is a standard communication protocol used for the transfer of computer files from a server to a client on a computer network. FTP uses port 21 to communicate. The Domain Name System (DNS) is used to translate requests for names into IP addresses, controlling which server an end-user will reach when they type a domain name into their web browser. DNS uses port 53 to communicate. The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a networking protocol used for the management and monitoring of network-connected devices in Internet Protocol networks. SNMP uses port 161 to communicate.

Which of the following ports should you unblock at the firewall if your workstation cannot access http://www.diontraining.com but can access https://www.diontraining.com? 53 445 443 80

80 OBJ-2.1: HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the basis for the World Wide Web. HTTP enables clients (typically web browsers) to request resources from an HTTP server. A client connects to the HTTP server using its TCP port (the default is port 80) and submits a resource request using a Uniform Resource Locator (URL). HTTPS (HTTP Secure) uses port 443. In this question, it states that the user can access HTTPS but not HTTP, indicating that port 80 is blocked. The server message block (SMB)/common internet file system (CIFS) is a protocol used for requesting files from Windows servers and delivering them to clients. SMB allows machines to share files and printers, thereby making them available for other machines to use. Samba software allows UNIX and Linux servers or NAS appliances to run SMB services for Windows clients. SMB operates on port 445. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53.

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 54 Mbps? 802.11ac 802.11a 802.11n 802.11g 802.11b 802.11ax

802.11a OBJ-2.3: The 802.11a (Wireless A) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. Unfortunately, when this was first released, the radios to operate with this standard were fairly expensive, so it did not sell well or become widespread. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 3.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. The 802.11ax (Wireless AX or Wi-Fi 6) standard utilizes 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 9.6 Gbps. Wireless AC uses orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA) to conduct multiplexing of the frequencies transmitted and received to each client to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless AC also has a version called Wi-Fi 6E that supports the 6GHz frequency instead of the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies used in Wi-Fi 6.

Your company is currently using a 5 GHz wireless security system, so your boss has asked you to install a 2.4 GHz wireless network to use for the company's computer network to prevent interference. Which of the following can NOT be installed to provide a 2.4 GHz wireless network? 802.11b 802.11g 802.11ac 802.11n

802.11ac OBJ-2.3: Wireless networks are configured to use either 2.4 GHz or 5.0 GHz frequencies, depending on the network type. 802.11a and 802.11ac both utilize a 5.0 GHz frequency for their communications. 802.11b and 802.11g both utilize a 2.4 GHz frequency for their communications. 802.11n and 802.11ax utilize either 2.4 GHz, 5.0 GHz, or both, depending on the Wi-Fi device's manufacturer. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 5.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds.

Which of the following wireless standards should you implement if the existing wireless network only allows for three non-overlapping channels, and you need additional non-overlapping channels to prevent interference with neighboring businesses in your office building? 802.1q 802.11b 802.11g 802.11ac

802.11ac OBJ-2.7: Wireless B and G only support 3 non-overlapping channels (1, 6, 11). Wireless N and Wireless AC supports the 5 GHz spectrum, which provides 24 non-overlapping channels. The 801.q standard is used to define VLAN tagging (or port tagging) for Ethernet frames and the accompanying procedures to be used by bridges and switches in handling such frames. 802.1q is not a wireless networking standard.

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 9.6 Gbps? 802.11b 802.11g 802.11a 802.11n 802.11ax 802.11ac

802.11ax OBJ-2.3: The 802.11ax (Wireless AX or Wi-Fi 6) standard utilizes 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 9.6 Gbps. Wireless AC uses orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA) to conduct multiplexing of the frequencies transmitted and received to each client to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless AC also has a version called Wi-Fi 6E that supports the 6GHz frequency instead of the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies used in Wi-Fi 6. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 3.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth. The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11a (Wireless A) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps.

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 2.4 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 54 Mbps? 802.11ax 802.11ac 802.11b 802.11n 802.11g 802.11a

802.11g OBJ-2.3: The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11a (Wireless A) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 3.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. The 802.11ax (Wireless AX or Wi-Fi 6) standard utilizes 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 9.6 Gbps. Wireless AC uses orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA) to conduct multiplexing of the frequencies transmitted and received to each client to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless AC also has a version called Wi-Fi 6E that supports the 6GHz frequency instead of the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies used in Wi-Fi 6.

Which of the following network standards allows a networking device to provide up to 15.4W of power to a connected device? 802.3at 802.11ac 802.3af 802.11s

802.3af OBJ-2.2: Power over Ethernet (POE) switches provide power over ordinary data cabling to devices such as VoIP handsets and wireless access points. PoE can support up to 15.4W and PoE+ can support up to 25W. The 802.3af (PoE) standard can support up to 15.4W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE can support low-powered devices such as VoIP handsets. The 802.3at (PoE+) standard can support up to 25W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE+ can support higher-powered devices such as PTZ cameras, door controllers, and thin client computers. The 802.11ac standard defines a 5 GHz wireless networking standard. The 802.11s standard defines the usage of wireless mesh technology.

Which of the following is an example of a valid IPv6 address? 192.168.1.254 00:AB:FA:B1:07:34 192:168:1:55 ::1

::1 OBJ-2.5: IPv6 addresses are written as a series of up to 32 hexadecimal digits, but can be summarized using a :: symbol. The ::1 is the IPv6 address for the localhost. An IPv4 address consists of 32 bits. IPv4 addresses are written in dotted octet notation, such as 192.168.1.254. MAC addresses are written as a series of 12 hexadecimal digits, such as 00:AB:FA:B1:07:34. The other option, 192:168:1:55 is not a valid address since it uses : instead of a . in between the octets.

You just bought a new Virtual Reality headset to use with your computer. To ensure your computer is ready to support the new VR games, which of the following should you install? A RAID 5 array A larger hard drive A Bluetooth adapter A dedicated graphics card

A dedicated graphics card OBJ-3.4: Virtual Reality (VR) requires a fast processor, lots of memory, and, most importantly, a dedicated graphics card. To support lag-free virtual reality and reduce headaches/eye pain, you need to ensure you have a high-end dedicated graphics card or GPU in your system. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. A hard disk drive (HDD) is a device providing persistent mass storage for a workstation or laptop by saving data even when the computer is turned off. Data is stored using platters with a magnetic coating that are spun under disk heads that can read and write to locations on each platter known as sectors.

Your company received a large bill for file storage from your online cloud provider this month. Upon investigation, you noticed that one of your employees has uploaded over 1 TB of data to the service. What type of plan is your company utilizing? An on-demand plan A flat-fee plan A non-metered plan A metered plan

A metered plan OBJ-4.1: This scenario describes a measured or metered service plan. For every file or amount of data uploaded, there is an associated fee. It is important to understand what plan your organization is using and match your company's use case to avoid an end of the month billing surprise. Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed.

During a disaster recovery, which of the following statements is true? A virtual machine cannot be used for redundancy or load balancing A virtual machine has less downtime than a physical server A virtual machine has more downtime than a physical server Both a virtual machine and a physical server has the same downtime

A virtual machine has less downtime than a physical server OBJ-4.1: A virtual machine can usually be restored much faster than a physical server. Physical servers must be modified to fit the right drivers for the disk drives, NIC, and other necessary components whenever they must be rebuilt after a crash. Often, a new physical server will also be required to replace a faulty one, and then the right drivers are needed to ensure a smooth transition. Conversely, a virtual machine can be recreated using another instance, clone, or restoration from a backup in much less time. Therefore, the downtime associated with virtual machines and their restoral is much lower.

(This is a simulated Performance-Based Question. On the real certification exam, you will be asked to click on the appropriate device in a network diagram to see and modify its configuration.) Wireless network users recently began experiencing speed and performance issues on your network after Access Point 2 (AP2) was replaced due to a recent hardware failure. The original wireless network was installed according to a wireless consultant's specifications and has always worked properly without any past issues. You have been asked to evaluate the situation and resolve any issues you find to improve the network's performance and connectivity. The client has instructed you to adjust the least amount of settings/configurations possible while attempting to fix the issue. Before arriving on-site, you receive the below office's floor plan with an elementary network diagram drawn on top. Based on the information provided to you so far, which network device would you log into first to begin your troubleshooting efforts? AP1 SW1 AP3 AP2

AP2 OBJ-5.7: Since everything was working properly on the network before AP2 was replaced after the recent hardware failure, AP2 likely has some configuration error that has led to the recent connectivity and performance problems. Therefore, you should begin your troubleshooting efforts with AP2. According to the CompTIA troubleshooting method, you should always determine if anything has changed and question the obvious. If AP2 was recently replaced, it is most likely the device with an incorrect configuration setting or the one causing the issues.

You have connected a new Smart TV to your home network and powered it on. When you try to access Netflix, you receive an error. You check the Network Status menu and see an IP address of 169.254.0.24. Which of the following types of IP addresses has your new Smart TV been assigned? Private Public APIPA Link-local

APIPA OBJ-2.5: Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature in operating systems (such as Windows) that enables computers to automatically self-configure an IP address and subnet mask when their DHCP server isn't reachable. A private IP address is an IP address reserved for internal use behind a router or other Network Address Translation (NAT) devices, apart from the public. Private IP addresses provide an entirely separate set of addresses that still allow access to a network without taking up a public IP address space. A public IP address is an IP address that is used to access the Internet and can be routed on the Internet, unlike private addresses. A link-local IP is an IPv6 address that is valid only for communications within the network segment or the broadcast domain that the host is connected to.

Jason recently purchases a wearable fitness tracker to count the number of steps he is taking each day. Which of the following technologies is used to determine how many steps he takes each day? Digitizer Inverter Accelerometer NFC

Accelerometer OBJ-1.3: Most wearable fitness devices come with a 3-axis accelerometer to track movement in every direction. Some more advanced trackers will also use a gyroscope to measure the orientation and rotation of the device. However, the accelerometer is still the crucial component to measure the activity of the user. The data collected is then converted into steps and activity and from then into calories and sleep quality. Near field communications (NFC) is a standard for peer-to-peer (2-way) radio communications over very short (around 4") distances that facilitate contactless payment and similar technologies. The inverter (also known as inverter board, screen inverter, or LCD inverter) is a part of the laptop's display assembly. The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source. If the inverter is faulty, the display will be too dim to easily see without an external light source like a flashlight. The digitizer is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touchscreen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input. The digitizer can be touched and inspected without taking apart the device.

A network engineer is designing an 802.11g wireless network that uses three wireless access points for complete coverage. Which of the following channel selections would result in the LEAST amount of interference between each access point? Adjacent access points should be assigned channels 4, 8, and 12 with a 40MHz channel width Adjacent access points should be assigned channels 1, 6, and 11 with a 20MHz channel width Adjacent access points should be assigned channels 7, 9, and 11 with a 40MHz channel width Adjacent access points should be assigned channels 2, 6, and 10 with a 20MHz channel width

Adjacent access points should be assigned channels 1, 6, and 11 with a 20MHz channel width OBJ-2.5: Because the overlapping signals are from access points from unrelated non-overlapping channels, the access points are least likely to interfere with each other. For Wireless B and G networks, you should always use channels 1, 6, and 11 to ensure you are using non-overlapping frequencies.

An employee at Dion Training complains that their smartphone is broken. They state that it cannot connect to the internet, nor can it make or receive phone calls and text messages. You ask them to start up the music player on his phone, and it opens without any issues. It appears the common issue has to do with the device's network connectivity. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem with this smartphone? The cellular radio in it is broken The Bluetooth connection is disabled The VPN password was entered incorrectly Airplane mode is enabled on the device

Airplane mode is enabled on the device OBJ-1.4: If the smartphone is functioning properly except for applications that require network connectivity, then the issue is either a misconfiguration (like enabling airplane mode by mistake), a defective cellular radio chip, or a similar issue. The most likely cause is that the employee accidentally enabled the airplane mode on the device that turns off the cellular radio for the smartphone and can cause the network connectivity to be lost. A technician should first verify that airplane mode is disabled and that the cellular radio is enabled. If that doesn't solve the problem, then the technician should investigate whether it is a hardware issue (such as a broken cellular radio chip). The Bluetooth connection being disabled would affect paired devices like a headset or wireless speaker, not the ability of the device to connect to the internet. According to the scenario presented, there is no mention of a VPN, so the VPN password being incorrectly answered is not correct.

Which of the following types of data should you transmit over TCP? Streaming music while you work An order for a $50,000 stock purchase Streaming video from YouTube A Skype phone call with your friend

An order for a $50,000 stock purchase OBJ-2.1: TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a slower but more reliable data delivery protocol. TCP is responsible for ensuring that packets arrive error-free and without loss. If you are doing something that must get to the destination without errors or data loss, such as a banking transaction or stock trade, it should be sent over TCP. The transmission control protocol (TCP) is a protocol in the TCP/IP suite that operates at the transport layer to provide connection-oriented, guaranteed delivery of packets. Hosts must first establish a session to exchange data and then confirm the delivery of packets using acknowledgments when using TCP. TCP is relatively slow in comparison to UDP.

A customer's computer has a noisy, whining sound coming from it when in use. You opened the case and did not see any dust on the fans. What should you attempt next to eliminate the noise? Clean the fans using a damp cloth Apply compressed air to each of the fans Apply a small amount of oil to the fan's bearings Replace the fans.

Apply a small amount of oil to the fan's bearings OBJ-5.2: The best step would be to apply a small amount of oil to each of the fan's bearings, as this will eliminate the noise. If the fans had been dusty, you would instead apply compressed air or clean the fan blades using a damp cloth. Since there was no dust noticed, this cannot be the whining source, and instead, you should apply oil to the bearings. Over time, dust can get into the fan bearings, causing increased friction when spinning and creating a whining sound. If this doesn't solve the noise, then you would replace the case fans.

Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as K? RG-6 Audio cluster SPDIF DVI-I

Audio cluster OBJ-3.1: This port is the audio cluster on the rear of this motherboard. This contains the audio inputs and outputs in mini-jack format. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard's rear port cluster by sight.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area? Audio connector PATA connector USB connector Front panel connector

Audio connector OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the audio connector on this motherboard. This is used to connect the CD/DVD audio cable from the drive to the motherboard for digital audio. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Which option would you MOST likely use to configure PXE to set up remote imaging on a computer during a deployment? Windows boot menu BIOS boot option Power management configuration Secure boot configuration

BIOS boot option OBJ-3.4: To configure a computer to utilize the PXE boot option, you need to configure it under the BIOS boot option. The Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) is an industry-standard client/server interface that allows networked computers that are not yet loaded with an operating system to be configured and booted remotely by an administrator. Secure boot is a security system offered by UEFI that is designed to prevent a computer from being hijacked by malware. Power management allows Windows to reduce or turn off the power supplied to hardware components to save energy.

You are troubleshooting a customer's PC. You realize there is a problem with the RAM and decided to replace the faulty module. You turn on the PC, and after a few seconds, you hear a single beep. What does hearing a single beep indicate? BIOS completed POST BIOS detected an error Possible faulty RAM module CMOS battery needs to be replaced

BIOS completed POST OBJ-5.2: During the bootup process, a power-on self-test (POST) is performed. A single beep is commonly used to indicate the successful completion of the POST. Based on the POST results, different series of beeps may be played to indicate the status of the system. For example, if a single beep was heard, this could indicate a successful POST after a new hardware installation has been completed. Each manufacturer uses different POST codes, so it is important to consult the manual for the motherboard or BIOS in use by the system.

Your Windows 10 machine has just crashed. Where should you look to identify the cause of the system crash and how to fix it? MAC POST BSOD DDOS

BSOD OBJ-5.2: A stop error, commonly called the blue screen of death, blue screen, or BSoD, is an error screen displayed on a Windows computer system following a fatal system error. It indicates a system crash, in which the operating system has reached a condition where it can no longer operate safely. Each BSOD displays a "stop code" that can research the cause of the error and how to solve it. A Media Access Control (MAC) address is a unique physical hardware address for each Ethernet network adapter that is composed of 12 hexadecimal digits. A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is an attempt to make an online service unavailable by overwhelming it with traffic from multiple sources. The Power On Self Test (POST) is a built-in diagnostic program that checks the hardware to ensure the components required to boot the PC are present and functioning correctly.

A user has reported that their workstation is running slowly. You perform a reboot of their workstation and receive a S.M.A.R.T. error during the boot-up process. Which of the following actions should you perform FIRST? Run chkdsk Backup the hard drive Run diskpart Reformat the hard drive

Backup the hard drive OBJ-5.3: S.M.A.R.T. is an acronym for Self-Monitoring and Repair Tool. It is a feature in all modern magnetic hard drives (non-SSD drives) that monitors the hard drive to ensure it performs properly. S.M.A.R.T. can detect when the failure of a drive is imminent and can alert the user so that they can back up the drive before a complete failure occurs. If your hard drive produces a S.M.A.R.T. failure, you should immediately back up the drive. Once a backup has been completed, you can instead focus on repairing the drive using chkdsk.

You are working for a logistics company that needs to get a device that will automatically enter information about a package when it is read using light and a lens. Which of the following devices should you install to BEST support this requirement? Touch screen Webcam Barcode reader Digitizer

Barcode reader OBJ-1.3: A barcode scanner or barcode reader is a handheld or pen-shaped device designed to scan barcodes. A barcode is a pattern of different sized parallel bars, typically representing a product number, such as an ISBN, EAN, or UPC. The reader uses a sensor mechanism (typically either a photodiode, laser, or CCD) to read the intensity of light reflected by the barcode. The reader then reports the number back to application software, which links it to a product database. A webcam is a video camera that feeds or streams an image or video in real-time to or through a computer to a computer network, such as the Internet. Webcams are typically small cameras that sit on a desk, attach to a user's monitor, or are built into a laptop, desktop, or mobile device. The digitizer is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touchscreen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input. The digitizer can be touched and inspected without taking apart the device. A touch screen display provides the capability to use tactic actions to send input to a computer by interacting directly with the elements on the display using the person's fingers.

A user submits a trouble ticket for their laptop. The user states that every time they move the laptop from one place to another, the system loses power and shutdowns. You have examined the laptop fully and then removed and reinstalled the hard drive, RAM, ribbon cable to the LCD, and the battery, but the laptop is still shutting down whenever it is moved. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the issue with this laptop shutting down? Laptop is unplugged Battery connection is loose Laptop is overheating Failed CMOS battery

Battery connection is loose OBJ-5.5: Based on the symptoms provided (laptop shutting down whenever it is moved), it is most likely a loose battery connection causing the issue. If the battery connection wasn't loos and the laptop was unplugged, the laptop would continue to run on battery power. Overheating can cause a laptop to shut down, but it wouldn't necessarily happen each time the laptop is moved. If the CMOS battery fails, it will not cause the laptop to shut down, but instead will cause the laptop to lose the correct date/time.

An employee's laptop has become warm to the touch and does not sit evenly on the table during use. You turn the laptop over and see the case bulging into a slightly rounded shape. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue? Battery is defective Keyboard is defective RAM is defective Wireless card is defective

Battery is defective OBJ-5.5: Based on the description, the battery is defective and swelling. Swollen batteries, while not common, are a significant risk. They result from too much current inside a cell of the battery, which causes a build-up of heat and gas. This can be caused by overcharging, manufacturer defects, deep discharge, or damage to the battery. The most common cause is an overcharge of the battery, which causes a chemical reaction between the electrodes and the electrolyte, resulting in the release of heat and gases that expand inside the battery, causing the casing to swell or split open. If a battery begins to bulge, swell, or split, it should immediately be replaced.

Molly enjoys playing an online MMORPG each day after work. To access the game, she simply enters the website address and logins in to begin playing. Today, she tried to access the game from her laptop at work, but she couldn't launch the game. What is most likely causing the issue? Metered services Poor WiFi connection Blocklisted by firewall Incorrect NIC settings

Blocklisted by firewall OBJ-4.1: The company firewall may be blocking any gaming-related websites and applications to improve security. Adding the website or a category of websites to the firewall's blocklist would prevent all corporate users from accessing the content. When using cloud-based resources, it is important that all of the right ports and protocols are allowed through the firewall.

Which of the following technologies is often used indoors by companies to locate a shopper's position in a store and provide them time-sensitive offers or discounts? Cellular GPS Wi-Fi Bluetooth

Bluetooth OBJ-1.4: A mobile device can use its internal GPS, cellular, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi radios to identify its location. When indoors, the devices can use either Bluetooth or Wi-Fi to determine their location. Bluetooth can be used within a building to provide an accurate of the device within 3-4 meters. Bluetooth location services are often used to identify where in a store a customer is located and present them with targeted offers. For example, if the store identified that you were in the frozen foods section, they might send you a push notification offering you a discount on a pint of ice cream. Wi-Fi positioning systems use the signal strength or angle of arrival of a signal to determine the device's location within 1-4 meters. The use of Bluetooth and Wi-Fi to determine the device's location is known as an internal positioning system (IPS). Cellular radios can provide an approximate location based upon the triangulation of your position between different cellular towers. A GPS (global positioning system) device is used to determine a receiver's position on the Earth based on information received from 24 GPS satellites, which operate in a constellation in Medium Earth Orbit (MEO). The receiver must have a line-of-sight to four of the GPS satellites continuously to accurately determine its position on the earth (latitude, longitude, and altitude). The device's GPS receiver can provide an accurate location up to 10 meters.

An employee at Dion Training complains that every time airplane mode is enabled on their laptop, their external mouse and headphones stop working. Which of the following technologies is being disabled by airplane mode and likely causing the issues experienced by this user? Cellular GPS Bluetooth Wireless

Bluetooth OBJ-1.4: Bluetooth is a wireless connectivity method that is usually used by external mice and wireless headphones. When airplane mode is enabled, the GPS, cellular, wireless, and Bluetooth radios are usually disabled in smartphones, tablets, or laptops. If the Bluetooth radio is turned off/disabled, it will cause issues with Bluetooth-connected devices like mice and headphones. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. A GPS (global positioning system) device is used to determine a receiver's position on the Earth based on information received from 24 GPS satellites, which operate in a constellation in Medium Earth Orbit (MEO). The receiver must have a line-of-sight to four of the GPS satellites continuously to accurately determine its position on the earth (latitude, longitude, and altitude). A cellular radio is a component in a mobile device capable of switching frequencies automatically when moving between network cells without losing the connection. Wi-Fi is the IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless networking based on spread spectrum radio transmission in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands. The standard has six main iterations (a, b, g, n, ac, and ax), describing different modulation techniques, supported distances, and data rates.

Which of the following wireless networking technologies is commonly used to connect a mouse to a laptop to create a PAN? Microwave Bluetooth NFC Wi-Fi

Bluetooth OBJ-2.3: A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. Wi-Fi is the IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless networking based on spread spectrum radio transmission in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands. The standard has six main iterations (a, b, g, n, ac, and ax), describing different modulation techniques, supported distances, and data rates. Microwave transmissions occur when using a frequency between 4 GHz and 10 GHz depending on the implementation. Microwave links are used for long-range fixed wireless services.

On Saturdays, your best friend goes to the local farmer's market to sell his homemade craft root beer. He wants to add the ability to take credit card payments from customers on his mobile phone. Which of the following devices should he purchase and configure? Memory card reader Bluetooth card reader DB-9 reader IR reader

Bluetooth card reader OBJ-1.3: A Bluetooth card reader can be used to capture the purchaser's credit card details. These Bluetooth card readers may support magnetic card reading capabilities (swiping a card), smart chip reading capabilities (chip and pin), or even NFC reading capabilities (Google Pay, Apple Pay, etc.). For example, in the United States, Square's mobile payment terminal is popular for small businesses and entrepreneurs. By capturing the credit card details electronically (instead of just typing them in), the merchant pays a lower payment processing fee and saves on credit card fees charged when a customer makes a purchase. DB-9 is a type of serial port connector used on legacy desktops and laptops. Infrared (IR) was a wireless networking standard supporting speeds up to about 4 Mbps with a direct line of sight for communications. Infrared sensors are used in mobile devices and with IR blasters to control appliances. While infrared (IR) used to be commonly used to connect wireless mice and keyboards to a laptop in the 1990s, it has fallen out of favor in the last 10-15 years since Bluetooth is more reliable and does not require a direct line of sight between the device and the laptop. A memory card reader is a device containing one or more slots to accommodate reading (and writing) memory cards. A memory card is a flash drive typically used for digital cameras and smartphones

Sally just purchased a new iPhone and AirPods to listen to her music. After setting up the new iPhone, she can get online and watch YouTube, but her wireless headphones aren't working. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem? Cellular is not enabled The phone is in airplane mode WiFi is not enabled Bluetooth is not enabled

Bluetooth is not enabled OBJ-5.5: Since Sally can connect to the internet, either her cellular or WiFi is enabled, and the phone would not be in airplane mode. Since AirPods work over Bluetooth, it is most likely that the Bluetooth is not enabled on the new phone and should be turned on. Once Bluetooth is enabled, the Airpods will need to be paired to the device to begin using them.

What is the name of the networking protocol used by macOS to find available printers on the network to use? Bonjour Line Printer Daemon Internet Printing Protocol Cloud Print

Bonjour OBJ-3.6: Bonjour, Apple's zero-configuration networking protocol, automates certain aspects of network configuration; the protocol enables devices connected to the local area network to discover and connect automatically. Businesses can use Bonjour to make the sharing of files and devices easier; the technology works with wired and wireless LANs. After enabling Bonjour on a workstation, other computers on the network can detect and install printers or scanners attached to the workstation or access files from shared folders. The Internet Printing Protocol (IPP) is a specialized Internet protocol for communication between client devices and printers (or print servers) using the HTTP protocol for data transport. The Line Printer Daemon (LPD) protocol is a network printing protocol for submitting print jobs to a remote printer. LPD is an older protocol than IPP. Cloud Print is a service that allows users to print from any device in the network cloud to any printer that has Cloud Print support enabled.

An employee is complaining that their workstation is not booting into Windows when they reboot their machine. You noticed that during the reboot, the system is loading into a PXE-based OS. What should you do next? Boot into recovery mode to fix the boot order Reboot PC to determine if it will boot from the HDD Press F12 to boot into boot mode and select the correct device Boot to BIOS and select the HDD from the boot order

Boot to BIOS and select the HDD from the boot orde OBJ-5.3: PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) is a network boot execution process allowing you to retrieve an image from a PXE server. It is often used for reimaging computers in corporate deployments. To boot from the hard drive instead, the BIOS's boot order should be changed from PXE to HDD. Rebooting the workstation will just reload the PXE-based OS again. Since the system is booting to the PXE environment, it is bypassing the internal hard drive's OS making recovery mode an invalid choice.

You are troubleshooting a laptop's display for a customer. The customer states that parts of the picture remain on the screen even after a full shutdown or reboot. You update the device drivers and recalibrate the display, but the problem remains with the laptop's display. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem with the display? Burn in Incorrect device drivers Distorted geometry Dead pixels

Burn in OBJ-5.4: Burn-in or image persistence is a discoloration of areas on an electronic display that causes a non-uniform use of the pixels that appears as an image remains after the screen is turned off or rebooted. While LCD and LED displays are not as likely as plasma and CRT monitors to suffer from burn-in, burn-in can still occur.

A technician at Dion Training is troubleshooting an issue with a workstation. The technician believes that the power supply needs to be replaced based on the symptoms they observed. Which of the following symptoms did the technician likely observe to lead them to this conclusion? Incorrect date/time on the workstation Distended capacitors Burning smell Continuous reboot

Burning smell OBJ-5.2: A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery. Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue.

Which of the following BEST describes how a DHCP reservation works? By leasing a set of reserved IP addresses according to their category By matching a MAC address to an IP address within the DHCP scope By assigning options to the computers on the network by priority By letting the network switches assign IP addresses from a reserved pool

By matching a MAC address to an IP address within the DHCP scope OBJ-2.6: When the client requests an IP address by sending a message on the network to the DHCP server, the DHCP server will assign an IP from its DHCP scope to the client and reserve it based on its MAC address. DHCP reservations allow the DHCP server to pre-set an IP address to a specific client based on its MAC address. This ensures that the client will always get the same IP address from the DHCP server when it connects to the network. DHCP reservations are usually used with servers or printers on your internal network and are rarely used with end-user or client devices.

You connect a VOIP device on a user's desk and need to connect it to a PoE-enabled switch located in a communications closet about 150 feet (approximately 50 meters) away. Which of the following cables should you select to connect the VOIP device to the switch? CAT 6 Coaxial CAT 3 Fiber

CAT 6 OBJ-2.2: VOIP (Voice over IP) devices that rely on PoE (Power over Ethernet) should use a CAT 5e, CAT 6, or higher cable to make the connection. This allows a single cable (CAT 5e or CAT 6) to carry both the data and the device's power. Fiber, coaxial, and CAT 3 cables cannot carry power to the VOIP device and cannot be used to meet this requirement. Using a CAT 5e or CAT 6 cable, you can connect two devices of approximately 300 feet (100 meters) without any need to repeat the signal.

The accounting department has been relocated to a new area of the building, which is more than 70 meters away from the closest IDF. To comply with an SLA that requires that 10Gb speeds be provided, what type of media should be installed? CAT 6a 802.11ac 802.11n CAT 5e

CAT 6a OBJ-3.1: Cat6a is the only one listed that can meet 10 Gbps. CAT5e and 802.11 ac support speeds up to 1 Gbps. 802.11n supports speeds of up to 600 Mbps.

Which of the following types of optical discs can only support storing up to 700 MB on a single piece of media? BD-R CD-RW DVD-R SD

CD-RW OBJ-3.3: A CD can store up to 700 MB. A DVD can store 4.7 GB for a single-layer disc or 8.5 GB for a dual-layer disc. A Blu-ray disc can store up to 25 GB for a single-layer disc or 50 GB for a dual-layer disc. A SD card is a type of memory card and is not considered an optical disc.

Which of the following cellular technologies was not widely used outside of the United States? CDMA 3G 4G GSM

CDMA OBJ-1.4: The code division multiple access (CDMA) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a method of multiplexing a communications channel using a code to key the modulation of a particular signal. CDMA was only popular in the United States with a few providers (Verizon and Sprint). Most of the world instead uses GSM. The global system for mobile (GSM) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a SIM card to identify the subscriber and network provider. 3G cellular technology is made up of two different technologies: HSPA+ and EV-DO. HSPA+ (Evolved High-Speed Packet Access) is a 3G standard used for GSM cellular networks and can support up to a theoretical download speed of 168 Mbps and a theoretical upload speed of 34 Mbps. In the real world, though, HSPA+ normally reaches speeds around 20 Mbps. EV-DO (Evolution-Data Optimized) is a 3G standard used for CDMA cellular networks and can support up to 3.1 Mbps downloads. 4G cellular technology is made up of LTE and LTA-A. Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a packet data communications specification providing an upgrade path for both GSM and CDMA2000 cellular networks. LTE has a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 20 Mbps. LTE Advanced (LTE-A) has a theoretical speed of 300 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 40 Mbps.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area? Mini PCIe Reset jumper CMOS battery Memory slot

CMOS battery OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the CMOS battery on this motherboard. The CMOS battery is used to keep power to the BIOS configurations, such as the date and time, when the power is removed from a desktop or workstation. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Dion Training has just installed a new web server and created an A record for DionTraining.com. When users try entering www.DionTraining.com, though, they get an error. You tell their network administrator that the problem is because he forgot to add the appropriate DNS record to create an alias for www to the domain's root. Which type of DNS record should be added to fix this issue? NS AAAA PTR CNAME

CNAME OBJ-2.6: A CNAME record is a canonical name or alias name, which associates one domain name as an alias of another (like beta.diontraining.com and www.diontraining.com could refer to the same website using a CNAME). An MX record is used for outgoing (SMTP) and incoming (POP3/IMAP) traffic. An A record associates your domain name with an IPv4 address. An AAAA record associates your domain name with an IPv6 address.

You want to buy a new computer that will allow you to run at least 3 virtual machines (VMs) at the same time to practice for your CompTIA exams. You also know in the future that you would like to set up a virtual ethical hacking lab with numerous VMs to study for the CompTIA PenTest+ exam. Which TWO of the following components is the MOST important to upgrade if you want to simultaneously run numerous VMs? NIC CPU GPU HDD SDD RAM

CPU & RAM OBJ-4.2: If you want good performance for a computer used for extensive virtualization (such as multiple virtual machines running at once), you should maximize the CPU and the RAM. The CPU should support virtualization and be a multicore processor. The memory should be fast and contain at least 16 GB of RAM to host numerous VMs effectively. These are the most important components when building a virtualization machine to support numerous VMs.

A technician is building a new computer for Dion Training. The technician installs the motherboard, processor, memory, hard drives, and case fans, then they attempt to connect the cables to the appropriate connections. When the technician powers on the system, the fans spin, and the motherboard's LEDs light up. Unfortunately, the computer does not successfully complete the POST and the monitor remains blank. Which of the following did the technician likely forget to connect to the motherboard? CPU 8-pin power cable Motherboard 24-pin power cable Case fan 4-pin power cable SATA 15-pin power cable

CPU 8-pin power cable OBJ-5.2: Based on the scenario, it is most likely that the technician forgot to connect the 8-pin CPU power cable. Without the CPU receiving power, the POST test cannot be run and the system will not boot up. If the motherboard power cable was not connected, then the motherboard's LED would not be lit. If the SATA 15-pin power cable was not connected, the system could still complete the POST and a "bootable device not found" error would be displayed on the monitor. If the case fan's power cables were not connected, the fans would not be spinning. Therefore, the right answer must be that the CPU power cable was not properly connected by the technician.

An employee's workstation will operate for a short period of time, but then it unexpectedly shuts down. When you check the workstation, you hear the hum of the cooling fans. What is most likely the issue? Defective case fan Defective NIC card CPU overheated GPU overheated

CPU overheated OBJ-5.2: If a computer's CPU becomes overheated, the system will unexpectedly shut down the computer to protect the processor from damage. This usually occurs if the CPU's cooling fan isn't working properly, the heat sink is dislodged, or the thermal paste breaks down. In this case, you would need to remove the heat sink, remove the processor, reseat the processor, reapply thermal paste, reattach the heat sink, and reconnect the processor fan before rebooting the computer to solve this issue.

This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area? Mainboard power NVMe connector CPU power Fan power

CPU power OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the CPU power connector. This is an 8-pin power connector that connects the power supply to the CPU slot. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Which type of internet connection allows for high-speed bi-directional data communication over a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) connection? Cable Fiber Satellite DSL

Cable OBJ-2.7: A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network's high bandwidth. "Fiber to the X" (FTTx) is commonly used to describe where the fiber connection ends between the service and the subscriber. The closer the fiber is to the user's network, the faster the service. FTTH (fiber to the house) provides fiber directly to the user's home network making it the fastest option. Traditionally, you will find a 1 Gbps connection or higher with FTTH. FTTN (fiber to the node) or FTTC (fiber to the curb/cabinet) provides fiber only to the local area or neighborhood but then uses copper cabling from the node/cabinet/curb to the home network, which slows down the network (generally, 100-200 Mbps). Satellite systems provide far bigger areas of coverage than can be achieved using other technologies. A Very Small Aperture Terminal (VSAT) microwave antenna is aligned to an orbital satellite that can either relay signals between sites directly or via another satellite. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user's home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection).

Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to deliver broadband internet access using a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) infrastructure? Optical network terminal Software-defined networking Digital subscriber line Cable modem

Cable modem OBJ-2.2: A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network's high bandwidth. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user's home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that connects fiber optics cables to other types of wiring such as Ethernet and phone lines by converting the signal from optical to electrical and vice versa. An ONT is commonly used with fiber to the house (FTTH) installations. Software-defined networking (SDN) is an approach to network management that enables dynamic, programmatically efficient network configuration to improve network performance and monitoring, making it more like cloud computing than traditional network management. Software-defined networking (SDN) uses Application Programming Interfaces (API) and compatible hardware that allows for the programming of network appliances and systems.

Which of the following tools is used by a technician to remove the jacket or sheathing from a wire when building a cable? Punchdown tool Crimper Cable tester Cable stripper

Cable stripper OBJ-2.8: A cable stripper is used to remove the plastic jacket from an ethernet cable to access its internal wires (twisted pairs). A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics. Punchdown tools are used to connect an ethernet cable to the back of a patch panel, a punchdown block, or the back of a network wall jack. A crimper is a tool used to attach an RJ-45 plastic connector to an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) or shielded twisted pair (STP) cable. It pushes a portion of the plastic into the jacket of the cable to hold it in place.

Jason is printing out a copy of Dion Training's new logo on his color laser printer. When the logo is printed, the blue color does not appear to be the same as the one on the screen. Jason believes the issue is an incorrect chroma display between the monitor and the printer. Which of the following solutions would best fix this issue? Replace the toner cartridge since the printout is faded Update the print drivers to ensure they are operating properly Set the color profile to a sepia tone to eliminate the issue Calibrate the monitor and printer to use the same color profile

Calibrate the monitor and printer to use the same color profile OBJ-5.6: Incorrect chroma display occurs when the printer and the monitor are using different color profiles. To fix this issue, it is important to calibrate both the printer and the monitor to the same standard so that the colors will match. Changing the color to a sepia tone would make the printout appear brown which would not solve this issue. Replacing the toner would help if the printout is faded, but that is not occurring in this scenario. The print drivers would not cause the color to be incorrect, only the incorrect chroma settings and calibration would.

Which of the following is true of a dedicated video card in a computer system? Share the use of the system's memory Cannot be upgraded or replaced Can be upgraded or replaced Less expensive than an integrated video card

Can be upgraded or replaced OBJ-3.4: It is more expensive to have a dedicated GPU or video card, but it does provide higher performance than an integrated GPU. A dedicated GPU also can be upgraded with a newer graphics card in the future to increase performance. An integrated video card is built as part of the main system motherboard or CPU. An integrated GPU is cheaper than a dedicated GPU, but it has limited performance and shares the use of the computer system's RAM. An integrated video card cannot be upgraded since it is part of the processor or motherboard. If a system is being designed for gaming, video editing, or 3D rendering, it should use a separate video card with a dedicated GPU.

You have been asked to replace a cracked screen on a laptop. The replacement screen was delivered today, but it did not include any instructions for removal and replacement. You have been unable to find the repair information on the manufacturer's website. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for you to take when replacing the cracked screen? Carefully remove the laptop's cracked screen while documenting and labeling all of the screw locations and cables/connectors Return the screen and order one from a different manufacturer Update the laptop's device driver before replacing the screen Wait a few weeks until the manufacturer updates their website with the repair manuals

Carefully remove the laptop's cracked screen while documenting and labeling all of the screw locations and cables/connectors OBJ-5.5: Replacing a cracked laptop screen is a common task for a computer technician. If you are not provided with the instructions for how to do it for a particular model, you can carefully disassemble the laptop and document/label all of the screw locations and cables/connectors. This will then allow you to replace the cracked screen and reconnect all the cables properly. You do not need to update the device drivers on the laptop unless there was some software display issue before the screen was cracked. When possible, you should use OEM parts when repairing or replacing components to ensure you don't void the laptop's warranty or cause other issues.

You have been asked to fix a laptop with a screen image that is being displayed upside down. What is the BEST method to fix this issue? Change the orientation of the screen Replace the LCD panel Update the display drivers Replace the integrated GPU

Change the orientation of the screen OBJ-1.3: Windows offers a beneficial function for viewing documents or playing pranks on your friends. With a simple key combination, you can rotate your screen in any direction - flip it upside-down, or lay it on the side. To change your laptop screen orientation, hold down the Ctrl and Alt keys on your keyboard, then press the up/down/left/right arrow key. You can also change your screen orientation in the Windows display settings. An integrated GPU is part of the laptop's CPU and cannot be easily replaced. The display drivers and the LCD panel are not the cause of the issue since you can see the screen image properly (although it is being displayed upside down).

You are troubleshooting an older wireless network that is running Wireless G (802.11g). This network appears to have a lot of collisions and interference. You look up the configuration on two of the three access points in the areas and see they are using Channel 1 and Channel 6. To prevent interference and ensure non-overlapping of the channels, what channel should the third access point utilize? Channel 10 Channel 12 Channel 11 Channel 9

Channel 11 OBJ-2.3: With wireless access points that run 2.4 GHz frequencies, you can only select channels between 1 and 11 in the United States. This includes 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n, and 802.11ax networks. To prevent overlapping of the channels, you should select channels 1, 6, and 11. By doing so, you can increase the reliability and throughput of your wireless network.

You are troubleshooting an older wireless network that is running Wireless G (802.11g). This network appears to have a lot of collisions and interference. You look up the configuration on two of the three access points in the areas and see they are using Channel 1 and Channel 11. To prevent interference and ensure non-overlapping of the channels, what channel should the third access point utilize? Channel 5 Channel 8 Channel 7 Channel 6

Channel 6 OBJ-2.3: With wireless access points that run 2.4 GHz frequencies, you can only select channels between 1 and 11 in the United States. This includes 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n, and 802.11ax networks. To prevent overlapping of the channels, you should select channels 1, 6, and 11. By doing so, you can increase the reliability and throughput of your wireless network.

A client's PC was not able to be powered on. You are troubleshooting the issue by ensuring that the power cable is connected firmly to both the PC and the wall outlet. You took the PC to your workbench to diagnose it. You tried powering on the PC at the workbench, but it did not work. You decided to test the power supply unit and ensure it was selected for 110 volts. You connected it to a power supply tester and verified the power supply is working properly. What is the NEXT step in troubleshooting you should perform? Pull the CMOS battery out and wait 5 min and try again Replace the memory Check the power connection to the motherboard Replace the power supply

Check the power connection to the motherboard OBJ-5.2: You should verify the power connections are securely connected to the motherboard. Always check the motherboard's 24-pin ATX connection and other connectors for the processor and disk drives to ensure they are seated securely. Since the power supply has been verified as working properly, it does not need to be replaced. There is no indication in this scenario that the memory is faulty and needs to be replaced. Removing the CMOS battery would reset the BIOS/UEFI, but that would not solve an issue with the motherboard not receiving the power it requires.

Peter is attempting to print to his office printer, but nothing comes out. Yesterday, his printer was working just fine. Peter does not notice any errors on the taskbar's printer icon. Which of the following actions should Peter try FIRST to solve this issue? Check to ensure the printer selected is the default printer Check that the printer is not offline Cancel all documents and print them again Check the status of the print server queue

Check the status of the print server queue OBJ-5.6: When this issue occurs, it is often because the system properly sent the print job to the print queue, but the print queue has become stuck. If no error is shown in the taskbar's printer icon, the user should open the print queue to determine if the print job has become stuck. If it is, then the print queue can be emptied or reset.

You are installing a new projector in a customer's home theater room. After connecting the projector and powering it on, you notice some odd debris displayed on the screen. Which of the following should you do to correct this? Replace the bulb with correct lumens Degauss the projector Clean artifacts on the protective glass Adjust incorrect color pattern

Clean artifacts on the protective glass OBJ-5.4: Based on the situation described, there appears to be some odd debris being displayed on the screen. This sounds like some artifacts or debris on the lens or protective glass of the projector. If this is cleaned, the image should be resolved back to a clear picture. This is the first and cheapest option to attempt. If this doesn't work, then you may need to replace the bulb since a failing bulb can create artifacts, as well.

Susan sees streaks of toner across her papers when printing documents using the laser printer in her office. What is the MOST likely solution for this problem? Increase the temperature of the fuser element Change the feed rate of the paper Clean the printer's transfer roller Replace the toner cartridge in the printer

Clean the printer's transfer roller OBJ-5.6: The transfer roller is one of the most important components inside the printer, as it charges the toner in the drum before it transfers to the paper. If you see streaks of toner on your printouts, this is usually an indication of a dirty transfer roller. Consequently, occasionally cleaning the transfer roller can keep your printed documents clean and streak-free. You may print hundreds or even thousands of pages on your laser printer between toner cartridge changes, so it is prudent to clean the unit whenever you change the toner cartridge to keep used toner from building up and clogging the print mechanism.

You have just finished installing a virtual machine on a workstation. Your boss asks you to install a second virtual machine with the same settings. To save time, which of the following functions should you use? Shadow Copy Secure Copy Cloning Migration

Cloning OBJ-4.2: Cloning is a function that allows you to fully copy an existing virtual machine and its current configuration. This allows you to quickly deploy an exact copy without having to reconfigure everything again manually. Virtual machine migration is the task of moving a virtual machine from one physical hardware environment to another. Secure copy protocol is a means of securely transferring computer files between a local host and a remote host or between two remote hosts over port 22. Shadow Copy is a technology included in Microsoft Windows that can create backup copies or snapshots of computer files or volumes, even when they are in use.

Samantha, a consultant, is working onsite at a large corporation's headquarters this week. She takes out her iPad and attempts to launch an application. She notices that the application will not launch, even though she is connected to the wireless network and has properly established internet connectivity. Which of the following should she do to fix this issue and allow the application to launch properly? Charge the battery and then try reloading the application Close all open applications, shut down the iPad, power on the iPad, then launch the app again Factory reset the tablet, reload the latest iOS, reinstall the application, then launch the app Ship the iPad back to Apple to replace it under her AppleCare warranty

Close all open applications, shut down the iPad, power on the iPad, then launch the app again OBJ-5.5: Applications often run in the background and do not get properly closed when you finish using them. This can cause them to hang and lock up when a user tries to reopen them. By closing all open applications, shutting down the iPad, then rebooting it and launching the app again will ensure that the application is freshly loaded and overcome many issues. This will ensure that the cache is cleared before attempting to reload the application. While a factory reset and iOS reload would also work, it would take much longer and cause extensive data loss on the device.

Dion Training wants to install a network cable to run a television signal between two buildings. Which of the following cable types should it utilize? Shielded Plenum Fiber Coaxial

Coaxial OBJ-3.1: A coaxial cable is a cable used to transmit video, communications, and audio. A coaxial or coax cable is most commonly used as a cable to connect a TV to a cable TV service. Coaxial cables are a specialized type of copper cabling that uses a copper core to carry the electrical signal while being enclosed by plastic insulation and shielding to protect the data transmission from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI). Plenum-rated cable has a special insulation that has low smoke and low flame characteristics. Plenum cable is mandated to be installed in any air handling space. Shielded cables contain a braided foil shield around the inner cabling to protect the data from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI). An optical fiber consists of an ultra-fine core of glass to carry the light signals surrounded by glass or plastic cladding, which guides the light pulses along the core, and a protective coating. The fiber optic cable is contained in a protective jacket and terminated by a connector. Fiber optic cables use light signals to carry data across a cable at extremely high bandwidths.

A user wants to print 2 copies of a 3-page report at once. The user would like the pages to come out of the printer in the order of pages 1, 2, 3, 1, 2, 3 instead of pages 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3. What printer setting should the user enable for this print job to achieve this result? Orientation Transparency Duplex Collate

Collate OBJ-3.6: The collate setting allows the gathering and arranging of individual sheets or other printed components into a pre-determined sequence. Collating creates consistent, logical sets from multiple parts, such as printing a series of pages in a report like pages 1, 2, 3 before printing the second copy. This makes it easier to staple and distribute to people after coming out of the printer. Duplex printing is a feature of some computer printers, multi-function printers (MFPs), and copy machines that allow the printing of a sheet of paper on both sides automatically. Without this capability, print devices can only print on a single side of the paper, sometimes called single-sided printing or simplex printing. With duplex printing, information is printed on the front side of a piece of paper, and then the paper is automatically fed back through the printer to print the information on the backside of the paper. Page orientation is how a rectangular page is oriented for normal viewing. The two most common types of orientation are portrait and landscape. The term transparency was made up as a distractor for this question.

You just rebooted your Windows 10 workstation, and the desktop's background picture looks strange. Upon closer examination, you notice that only a few hundred unique colors are being shown in the image. Which of the following settings should you reconfigure? Resolution Refresh rate App size Color depth

Color depth OBJ-5.4: Color depth is either the number of bits used to indicate the color of a single pixel in a bitmapped image or video frame buffer or the number of bits used for each color component in a single pixel. In Windows 10, you can display up to 32-bits of color depth if your monitor supports it. A larger color depth number allows more unique colors to be displayed. If you only have 4-bit color, for example, you can only have 16 colors. With an 8-bit color depth, you can see 256 colors. Normally, most Windows systems are set to 16-bit (65,536 colors), 24-bit (16.7 million colors), or 32-bit (4.2 billion colors).

What type of cloud model would allow the sharing of resources by multiple organizations to create a service that benefits all of its members? Private Cloud Hybrid Cloud Public Cloud Community Cloud

Community Cloud OBJ-4.1: A community cloud in computing is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns, whether managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally. Community Cloud is a hybrid form of private cloud. They are multi-tenant platforms that enable different organizations to work on a shared platform. Community Cloud may be hosted in a data center, owned by one of the tenants, or by a third-party cloud services provider and can be either on-site or off-site. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A private cloud contains services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. A hybrid cloud is a cloud computing environment that uses a mix of on-premises, private cloud, and third-party public cloud services with orchestration between these platforms. This typically involves a connection from an on-premises data center to a public cloud.

The printer in the Dion Training offices routinely has issues anytime there is a power outage. The printer is a multi-function, network-enabled printer that connects directly to the network switch using a CAT 5e cable. Which of the following should you do to resolve this continuing issue? Update the print drivers on each employee's machine Configure a static IP for the printer Disable the SSID broadcast on the wireless access point Rollback the print drivers on the print server

Configure a static IP for the printer OBJ-5.7: Since the problem always occurs after a power outage, the printer is likely turning on faster than the DHCP server. This could lead to the printer not getting a new IP address properly or the clients not locating the printer on the network. Therefore, you should configure a static IP for the printer (and any servers) on the network. Servers and shared printers should use a static IP instead of a dynamic assignment to prevent issues.

You have just set up a Minecraft server on a spare computer within your network and want your friends to connect to it over the internet. What do you need to configure in your SOHO router to allow your friends to connect to the new Minecraft server you created? Configure port forwarding Update the firmware Configure your Wi-Fi to use Channel 11 Enable DHCP

Configure port forwarding OBJ-2.5: Port forwarding occurs when a router takes requests from the Internet for a particular application, such as HTTP/port 80), and sends them to a designated host on the local area network. This question did not mention that Wi-Fi was being used in the 2.4 GHz frequency range, therefore using channels 1, 6, and 11 is not required to minimize interference. The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP does not need to be configured to use a server and most servers use static IP addresses instead of dynamic ones. The firmware is a set of software instructions stored semi-permanently (embedded) on a hardware device. Modern types of firmware are stored in flash memory and can be updated more easily than legacy programmable Read-Only Memory (ROM) types.

Your company uses a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) environment for employees to access their desktop applications. To allow employees access to the VDI environment, the company is installing thin clients in each employee's office. Which THREE of the following tasks must you first complete to install a thin client for a new employee? Connect the device to a second monitor Install the necessary applications Connect the thin client to the network Install the operating system Connect the thin client to a printer Install the latest security updates

Connect the thin client to the network, Install the latest security updates, and Connect the thin client to the network. OBJ-4.2: A thin client is a stateless, fanless desktop terminal that has no hard drive. All features typically found on the desktop PC, including applications, sensitive data, memory, etc., are stored back in the data center when using a thin client, most typically in a VDI or other environment. To set up a thin client, you will first connect it to the network, update its security software, and then install/configure any applications needed to access the VDI environment.

You are attempting to build a new gaming workstation and have just finished installing the motherboard and the processor. You are about to begin installing two memory modules, and notice 4 DIMM sockets on the motherboard labeled 0, 1, 2, and 3. Two of these are colored red, and two are colored blue. Which of the following should you do FIRST? Consult the motherboard's manual Install 2 DDR4 memory modules into the blue slots Install 2 DDR4 memory modules into the red slots Install 2 DDR4 memory modules into slots 0 and 1 Install 2 DDR4 memory modules into slots 2 and 3

Consult the motherboard's manual OBJ-3.2: You should consult the motherboard's manual and documentation to determine the best method of installing the memory into the system. The system may support both single-channel and dual-channel memory configurations, depending on how the memory is installed. Based on your specific customer needs, you may wish to install them as single or dual-channel (which may require installing the memory in certain slots). Single-channel memory is any memory using one 64-bit bus between the CPU and the RAM. Dual-channel memory is a memory controller with two primary pathways through the bus to the CPU to transfer 128-bits of data in each transaction.

You are troubleshooting a computer, and your supervisor believes that the issue is with the workstation's RAM. Which of the following symptoms did your supervisor likely observe? Burning smell Distended capacitors Continuous reboot Incorrect date/time on the workstation

Continuous reboot OBJ-5.2: Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue. A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery.

Susan, a computer technician, received a complaint from a client about an issue with their laptop. Based on the symptoms observed, she believes that there is an issue with the laptop's memory. Which of the following symptoms was MOST likely observed during their troubleshooting? POST code beeps Incorrect time in the BIOS Continuous reboots Distended capacitor

Continuous reboots OBJ-5.2: A bad or faulty RAM module can cause system reboots, diminished system performance, and slow loading of websites and programs. This gradual deterioration of performance, especially with memory-intensive programs, may indicate a problem with the laptop's system memory. The system memory should be tested and replaced (if needed) to allow the laptop to begin working efficiently.

Dion Training is upgrading its wired network from an older CAT5e network to a CAT 7 network. The network technician has run out of patch cables and asks you to create a straight-through patch cable. Which of the following tools is used to connect an RJ-45 connector to a patch cable? Punchdown tool Cable tester Cable stripper Crimper

Crimper OBJ-2.8: A crimper is a tool used to attach an RJ-45 plastic connector to an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) or shielded twisted pair (STP) cable. It pushes a portion of the plastic into the jacket of the cable to hold it in place. The RJ-45 connection is the standard one used for wired ethernet networks. Punchdown tools are used to connect an ethernet cable to the back of a patch panel, a punchdown block, or the back of a network wall jack. A cable stripper is used to remove the plastic jacket from an ethernet cable to access its internal wires (twisted pairs). A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable.

A technician receives a report that a VoIP phone is experiencing a "no network connectivity" error. The technician notices the Cat6a patch cable running from the back of the phone is routed behind the user's rolling chair. The cable appears to have been rolled over numerous times by the user, and it looks flattened from the abuse. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the connectivity issues being experienced on the VoIP phone? Improperly crimped cable Excessive collisions Transmit and receive reversed Cross-talk

Cross-talk OBJ-5.7: Crosstalk is defined as an effect caused by the unintentional and undesired transmission (leakage) of a signal from one cable to another. Due to the abuse of the cable being run over repeatedly by the user's chair, the cable's shielding could have been damaged and the cable may no longer be made up of the same consistency. This can lead to crosstalk amongst the cable pairs, or even opens/shorts of the wires in those cable pairs.

What type of cable should be used to connect a laptop directly to another laptop to form an Ethernet network? Patch cable Serial cable Straight-through cable Crossover cable

Crossover cable OBJ-3.1: A crossover cable should be used to connect two similar devices (PC to PC, Router to Router, Switch to Switch, etc.) to create a network. For an ethernet cable, this should be a network cable with a T568A wiring standard on one end and a T568B wiring standard on the other end of the cable to create a crossover cable. A straight-through or patch cable is a network cable that uses the same wiring standard on both ends such as T568A to 5T568A or T568B to T568B. A serial cable is a data cable that transmits data a single bit at a time. A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable.

Which of the following components would require you to de-solder the old part from the laptop to install and solder in a new one? Cellular card Battery Screen DC Jack

DC Jack OBJ-1.1: It is relatively common for the DC jack to fail over time. The DC jack can become loose over time, or the jack itself can become separated from the motherboard. Replacing a DC jack requires disassembling the laptop, de-soldering and removing the old jack, then soldering the new jack into place. Most laptop DC jacks are specific to the manufacturer and the laptop model. Cellular cards are usually installed in a Mini PCIe expansion card slot and are not soldered to the motherboard. The screen and the battery are not soldered in most laptops and can be replaced by removing and replacing screws. Some manufacturers have begun soldering screens and batteries in some of their models, but this is still not considered common practice. A DC jack is always solder to the motherboard in a laptop, therefore it is the best answer to this question.

Your son accidentally knocked his laptop off his desk while it was charging. Your son picks up the laptop and notices that the laptop's battery will no longer charge. You begin to troubleshoot the problem to identify the cause. You ensure the laptop is connected to the power adapter and that the power adapter is plugged into a power outlet, but the laptop's battery will still not charge. Which of the following components was MOST likely damaged when the laptop was knocked off of the desk? DC jack Hard drive Battery Power adapter

DC jack OBJ-5.5: One of the most important parts of any good laptop is the DC power jack. This item allows you to charge your battery and provides you with a steady source of electricity. If it fails, your laptop will lose power and eventually be unable to turn it on. If your battery won't charge or will only charge if the connection is made at a certain angle, this is usually an indication that the DC power jack has failed. To rule out the battery or power adapter as the source of the problem, you can use a multimeter to ensure they are providing the right amount of power.

You have connected your laptop to the network using a CAT 5e cable but received an IP address of 169.254.13.52 and cannot connect to www.DionTraining.com. What is most likely the cause of this issue? Duplicate IP address Poisoned ARP cache Failed DNS resolution DHCP failure

DHCP failure OBJ-5.7: A DHCP Server is a network server that automatically provides and assigns IP addresses, default gateways, and other network parameters to client devices. It relies on the standard protocol known as Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol or DHCP to respond to clients' broadcast queries. Since you have received an APIPA address (169.254.13.52), this signifies a DHCP failure. If a user is unable to access a website by using its domain name but can by its IP address, then this indicates a DNS resolution issue instead. ARP caches rely on layer 2 addresses known as MAC addresses, not IP addresses. Duplicate IP addresses will create an error on the screen instead of issuing an APIPA address as shown in this example.

You connected your laptop to a new wireless network and received an IP address automatically. Which of the following servers allowed this to occur? DNS server TACACS+ server DHCP server Proxy server

DHCP server OBJ-2.4: A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) serve is a server configured with a range of addresses to lease. Hosts can be allocated an IP address dynamically or be assigned a reserved IP address based on the host's MAC address. The server can also provide other configuration information, such as the location of DNS servers. A domain name system (DNS) server is a server that hosts the database of domain names and the IP addresses mapped to those names. Each DNS server is authoritative for certain domain names that their organization owns. An authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) server is a server use to identify (authenticate), approve (authorize), and keep track of (account for) users and their actions. AAA servers can also be classified based on the protocol they use, such as a RADIUS server or TACACS+ server. A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server that provides that resource. A proxy server can be used to filter content and websites from reaching an end user.

Which of the following provides a cryptographic authentication mechanism to positively identify an organization as the authorized sender of email for a particular domain name? DKIM SMTP DMARC SPF

DKIM OBJ-2.6: DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) provides a cryptographic authentication mechanism. This can replace or supplement SPF. To configure DKIM, the organization uploads a public key as a TXT record in the DNS server. Sender Policy Framework (SPF) uses a DNS record published by an organization hosting an email service. The SPF record identifies the hosts authorized to send emails from that domain, and there must be only one per domain. SPF does not provide a cryptographic authentication mechanism like DKIM does, though. The Domain-Based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC) framework can ensure that SPF and DKIM are being utilized effectively. DMARC relies on DKMI for the cryptographic authentication mechanism, making it the incorrect option for this question. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is a communication protocol for electronic mail transmission, which does not utilize cryptographic authentication mechanisms by default.

Which type of internet connection is terminated at a local switching center and requires a different media type between the switching center and the end customer? Fiber Cable DSL Satellite

DSL OBJ-2.7: DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user's home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). "Fiber to the X" (FTTx) is commonly used to describe where the fiber connection ends between the service and the subscriber. The closer the fiber is to the user's network, the faster the service. FTTH (fiber to the house) provides fiber directly to the user's home network making it the fastest option. Traditionally, you will find a 1 Gbps connection or higher with FTTH. FTTN (fiber to the node) or FTTC (fiber to the curb/cabinet) provides fiber only to the local area or neighborhood but then uses copper cabling from the node/cabinet/curb to the home network, which slows down the network (generally, 100-200 Mbps). HFC (Hybrid Fiber Coax) is similar to FTTN/FTTC, except that coaxial cable is used from the cabinet to the home to increase the speed (generally 300-500 Mbps). A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network's high bandwidth. Satellite systems provide far bigger areas of coverage than can be achieved using other technologies. A Very Small Aperture Terminal (VSAT) microwave antenna is aligned to an orbital satellite that can either relay signals between sites directly or via another satellite.

Which of the following cloud services should an organization choose in order to deliver virtual desktops to end-users over the Internet on a per-user license basis? DaaS PaaS SaaS IaaS

DaaS OBJ-4.1: Desktop as a Service (DaaS) is a cloud computing offering where a service provider delivers virtual desktops to end-users over the Internet, licensed with a per-user subscription. DaaS is often combined with Virtual Desktop Infrastructure. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a complete development and deployment environment in the cloud, with resources that enable you to deliver everything from simple cloud-based apps to sophisticated, cloud-enabled enterprise applications. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a type of cloud computing service that offers essential compute, storage, and networking resources on-demand, on a pay-as-you-go basis. Software as a Service (SaaS) allows users to connect to and use cloud-based apps over the Internet. Common examples are email, calendaring, and office tools (such as Microsoft Office 365). SaaS provides a complete software solution that you purchase on a pay-as-you-go basis from a cloud service provider.

A penetration tester wants to build a workstation that will be used to brute force hash digests. Which of the following is the BEST option to ensure sufficient power and speed to crack them? Integrated GPU Dedicated GPU 7200-RPM HDD Multi-core CPU

Dedicated GPU OBJ-3.4: Dedicated GPUs are designed to conduct complex mathematical functions extremely quickly. If you want to build a system to perform the cracking of a password, hash, or encryption algorithm, it is important to have a high-speed, dedicated GPU. The reason to use a GPU instead of a CPU for password cracking is that it is much faster for this mathematically intensive type of work. Cracking passwords, hashes, and encryption is a lot like mining cryptocurrency in that using dedicated GPUs will give you the best performance.

You have been asked by Dion Training to build a specialized computer that will be used exclusively as a gaming machine for beta testing some new video games they are developing. Which of the following should you install to BEST meet the company's needs? (Select FOUR) Dedicated video card with GPU 1 TB HDD CPU with integrated GPU 512 GB SSD Liquid cooling 7.1 Dolby Sound audio card

Dedicated video card with GPU, 512 GB SSD, Liquid cooling, 7.1 Dolby Sound audio card. OBJ-3.4: According to CompTIA, the four main things you need to include for a gaming PC are (1) an SSD, (2) a high-end video/specialized GPU, (3) a high-definition sound card, and (4) high-end cooling. Based on the options provided, you should pick the 512 GB SSD (instead of the 1 TB HDD), the dedicated video card with GPU (instead of the CPU with integrated GPU), the 7.1 Dolby Sound audio card (instead of integrated sound from the motherboard), and the high-end cooling (liquid cooling over fans) for this workstation's configuration.

Jason's iPad only had 12% battery remaining at the end of the day, so he connected his iPad to the lightning cable and wall adapter last night before going to bed. In the morning, Jason tried to turn on the iPad, but it appeared to be completely powered down, and the battery was drained. Jason connected the lightning cable to his iPhone, and the iPhone began charging. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason that the iPad didn't charge overnight? Defective AC adapter Defective lightning cable Defective battery Defective charging port on the iPad

Defective charging port on the iPad OBJ-5.5: Since the iPad didn't charge overnight, but the iPhone could charge with the same wall adapter and lightning cable, so we must suspect that the charging port or the battery on the iPad is defective. Since the iPad's battery was working yesterday during the day (as noted by the 12% battery remaining at the end of the day), it is MOST likely that the charging port is defective.

You are troubleshooting an issue with an impact printer in an automotive service department. The printer has begun to print unevenly. As the print head goes from left to right across the page, the printout goes from darker to lighter. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue? Defective ribbon advance mechanism Broken feed assembly Clogged print head Worn out printer ribbon

Defective ribbon advance mechanism OBJ-5.6: An impact printer has teeth along the paper's edges that pull the paper along a tractor as it prints. This moves the paper up one line at a time. The print head moves from left to right across the page, impacting the print head through the ribbon to mark the paper. If the ribbon advance mechanism is defective, the ribbon will not advance as the print head goes across the page, leading to a lightening of the ink being marked on the paper. If the printer ribbon itself were worn out, it would be lighter in color as you went down the page (not from left to right).

Whenever you reboot your domain controller, you notice it takes a very long time to boot up. As the server is booting, you hear noises that sound like a steady series of clicks coming from the hard drive. Which of the following is the BEST action to help speed up the boot time of the server? Perform a Disk Cleanup Defragment the hard drive Remove unnecessary applications from startup Terminate processes in the Task Manager

Defragment the hard drive OBJ-5.3: Defragging is a simple process when file fragments are put together to speed up file access. File fragments are put together, and quality defragmentation utilities also assemble the free space into a single block to prevent future fragmentation. By defragmenting the hard drive, the server doesn't have to spend as much time accessing the information, and it can boot up faster. Based on the clicking noises, it sounds like the system has to access many parts of the drive to load the files.

You have been asked to provide some training to Dion Training's system administrators about the importance of proper patching of a system before deployment. To demonstrate the effects of deploying a new system without patching it first, you ask the system administrators to provide you with an image of a brand-new server they plan to deploy. How should you deploy the image to demonstrate the vulnerabilities exposed while maintaining the security of the corporate network? Utilize a server with multiple virtual machine snapshots installed o it, restore from a known compromised image, then scan it for vulnerabilities Deploy the image to a brand new physical server, connect it to the corporate network, then conduct a vulnerability scan to demonstrate how many vulnerabilities are now on the network Deploy the system image within a virtual machine, ensure it is in an isolated sandbox environment, then scan it for vulnerabilities Deploy the vulnerable image to a virtual machine on a physical server, create an ACL to restrict all incoming connections to the system, then scan it for vulnerabilities

Deploy the system image within a virtual machine, ensure it is in an isolated sandbox environment, then scan it for vulnerabilities OBJ-4.2: To ensure your corporate network's safety, any vulnerable image you deploy should be done within a sandboxed environment. This will ensure that an outside attacker cannot exploit the vulnerabilities but will still allow you to show the vulnerabilities found during a scan to demonstrate how important patching is to the security of the server.

A customer recently purchased a touchscreen laptop to use for her schoolwork. It has been working well for about 3 weeks, but today she has brought it into your store for repair because it is not working properly. When she touches an icon on the screen, the program fails to load. You look over the laptop, and the screen appears to be fully intact with no dark blobs or spider web cracks in the panel. You attempt to operate the laptop using the touchscreen, but it appears non-responsive to your touch. You can, however, click on the icons using the laptop's touchpad without any issues. Which of the following components MOST likely needs to be replaced? GPU Digitizer Inverter LCD panel

Digitizer OBJ-1.2: The digitizer is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touchscreen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input. The digitizer can be touched and inspected without taking apart the device. A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. The LCD panel is backlight by a cold cathode fluorescent (CCFL) bulb. LCD panels are used on laptops and have replaced CRT monitors as the main type of computer display screen for desktops, as well. The LCD screen is the panel that is inside the device, which displays the image. You cannot get to the LCD without taking the device apart first. When only the touch screen is broken, you should still see what is happening on the screen, and the screen should still function as normal. When only the LCD is broken, you can still use the touchscreen, but the panel will have dark blobs or spider web cracks (or both). When both LCD and touchscreen are damaged, you may still be able to use portions of the touchscreen, and some parts of the LCD may display the image, but you will incur obvious difficulties in using the device as normal. The inverter (also known as inverter board, screen inverter, or LCD inverter) is a part of the laptop's display assembly. The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source. If the inverter is faulty, the display will be too dim to easily see without an external light source like a flashlight. A graphics processing unit (GPU) is a microprocessor used on dedicated video adapter cards or within a CPU with integrated graphics capability to handle the mathematical calculations required to create immersive and 3D graphics.

Which of the following parts is responsible for converting the analog signals created by your tapping or swiping the surface of a display to a binary signal that is understood by the underlying software? Backlight Capacitor Inverter Digitizer

Digitizer OBJ-1.2: The digitizer is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touchscreen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input. The digitizer can be touched and inspected without taking apart the device. Analog signals are created when you tap or swipe the surface of the display. The digitizer is connected to the laptop with a flexible digitizer cable. A grid of sensors is activated when you tap or swipe the screen. The sensors' information is sent through the digitizer cable to a circuit that converts the analog signal to a digital signal using binary. A backlight is a fluorescent lamp used to illuminate the image on a flat panel (LCD) screen. If the backlight or inverter fails, the screen image will go very, very dark. The inverter (also known as inverter board, screen inverter, or LCD inverter) is a part of the laptop's display assembly. The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source. If the inverter is faulty, the display will be too dim to easily see without an external light source like a flashlight. A capacitor is an electrical component that stores electrical energy and is often used to regulate voltages. It can hold a charge after the power is removed.

The touch screen on your Windows 10 laptop is not working properly. You have been asked to troubleshoot the laptop. What should you check FIRST? Digitizer settings System configuration Performance monitor Device manager

Digitizer settings OBJ-5.5: Most laptops have a digitizer and an LCD screen if they are touchscreen devices. The digitizer is a piece of glass glued to the LCD's surface and is used to capture your touches and translate them into input for your system. If the touch screen is not working, but the display doesn't look cracked or broken, this is often a sign that the digitizer settings are incorrect or the digitizer is defective.

You just installed an SSD into a laptop to increase the storage speed of the device. Which of the following should you configure to increase the lifespan of the newly installed SSD? Enable the paging file within the operating system Disable regularly scheduled defragmentation of the SSD Disable memory caching on the SSD Enable the power-saving mode of the SSD

Disable regularly scheduled defragmentation of the SSD OBJ-3.3: An SSD (Solid-State Drive) is limited in the total number of write functions that can occur over its lifespan. Due to the immediate ability of an SSD to locate data on the drive (since there is no spinning platter that must be moved to reach the right area to retrieve the data like a regular magnetic hard drive), there is no need to defragment an SSD. When you defrag a hard drive, especially an SSD, it will cause tons of small write accesses, reducing the hard drive's lifespan. And since data is not being read sequentially, it doesn't matter if the file is stored in a hundred different places; the performance will remain the same. Therefore, you should disable any regularly scheduled defragmentation tasks when using an SSD to extend its lifespan.

Which of the following types of display connectors uses a thunderbolt cable and was designed as a competitor to HDMI? VGA DVI DisplayPort eSATA

DisplayPort OBJ-3.1: DisplayPort uses a thunderbolt cable to connect a monitor to the computer. DisplayPort supports both copper and fiber-optic cabling. DisplayPort was created as a royalty-free standard to compete with HDMI. The digital video interface (DVI) was designed to replace the VGA port used by CRT monitors. The DVI interface supports digital-only or digital and analog signaling. The video graphics array (VGA) was developed as a 15-pin connector to provide analog video signaling to an external display. External SATA (eSATA) is a widely used interface for hard disks on modern desktop and laptop computers. eSATA uses a 7-pin L-shaped data connector with one device per port. eSATA operates at bandwidths of 1.5 Gbps, 3 Gbps, or 6 Gbps.

A technician at Dion Training is troubleshooting an issue with a workstation. The technician believes that the motherboard needs to be replaced based on the symptoms they observed. Which of the following symptoms did the technician likely observe to lead them to this conclusion? Burning smell Continuous reboot Incorrect date/time on the workstation Distended capacitors

Distended capacitors OBJ-5.2: A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery. A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue.

You work as a PC Technician for a real estate company. The company has decided to use laptops instead of desktops in the office so that the real estate agents can easily take their laptops with them when they leave to show properties for sale. You want to create an easy solution for the agents to quickly connect an external monitor, keyboard, mouse, a wired network connection, and an additional hard drive for storage to the laptop whenever they come back into the office. Unfortunately, the laptops used by the agents don't have a built-in wired network connection. Which type of device should you choose to provide all the functionality above? Thunderbolt Port replicator Docking station USB 4-port hub

Docking Station OBJ-1.3: A docking station is a sophisticated type of port replicator designed to provide additional ports (such as network or USB) and functionality (such as expansion slots and drives) to a portable computer when used at a desk. A port replicator is a simple device to extend the range of ports (for example, USB, DVI, HDMI, Thunderbolt, network, and so on) available for a laptop computer when it is used at a desk. The difference between a docking station and a port replicator is that a docking station can add additional capabilities beyond what is already integrated into the laptop whereas a port replicator can only reproduce the same ports that already exist on the laptop. Thunderbolt is a connector type that can be used either as a display interface (like DisplayPort) or as a general peripheral interface (like USB 3). Thunderbolt 3 uses USB-C connectors. A USB hub is a device that connects to a USB port to allow additional USB devices to be connected to the PC, essentially increasing the number of USB ports available.

What is the sixth step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology? Test the theory to determine the cause Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution Document findings, actions, and outcomes Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures

Document findings, actions, and outcomes OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Jason, a computer technician, is troubleshooting a motherboard. He has determined that the motherboard needs to be replaced in the laptop. Which of the following next step should be performed next? (Choose TWO) Documentation of all screws and locations Read owners' manual for procedures and steps to avoid breaking the warranty Disconnect laptop keyboard before disconnecting the battery Use portable power driver to remove screws

Documentation of all screws and locations & Read owners' manual for procedures and steps to avoid OBJ-5.2: It is essential to read the owner's manual before starting anything. The next step is to document all screws and locations because lots of these tiny screws are not equal and have different depths. If you don't document which screws go into which holes, you could insert them into the wrong place and waste a lot of time or cause damage to the laptop. You should avoid using a portable power drive to remove screws as they can generate electromagnetic interference due to their electrical motors. The laptop's keyboard would be disconnected after disconnecting the battery, not before.

Dion Training uses a large laser printer to print documents in its office. The laser printer has recently begun creating printouts that contain a double image or ghost image appearance to them. Jason just printed out a test page: Which of the following components is most likely to cause a ghost image to appear on the printout such as the one above? Drum Fuser Scanner assembly Toner cartridge

Drum OBJ-5.6: Double images or ghost printing occurs when an image or text is repeated more than once on a printed page. This often occurs due to an issue with the drum unit. If the drum unit is not being properly charged by the corona wire, ghost prints can become a problem with the unit.

A user wants to print a large job on both the front and back sides of the paper. Which of the following settings should the technician advise the user to change in the printer settings? Orientation Duplex Collate Transparency

Duplex OBJ-3.6: Duplex printing is a feature of some computer printers, multi-function printers (MFPs), and copy machines that allow the printing of a sheet of paper on both sides automatically. Without this capability, print devices can only print on a single side of the paper, sometimes called single-sided printing or simplex printing. With duplex printing, information is printed on the front side of a piece of paper, and then the paper is automatically fed back through the printer to print the information on the backside of the paper. Page orientation is how a rectangular page is oriented for normal viewing. The two most common types of orientation are portrait (taller rather than wider) and landscape (wider rather than taller). The collate setting allows the gathering and arranging of individual sheets or other printed components into a pre-determined sequence. Collating creates consistent, logical sets from multiple parts, such as printing a series of pages in a report like pages 1, 2, 3 before printing the second copy. This makes it easier to staple and distribute to people after coming out of the printer. The term transparency was made up as a distractor for this question.

You are configuring a new client workstation on the network. Which type of IP address should you configure it with? Static APIPA Link-local Dynamic

Dynamic OBJ-2.5: A dynamic IP address should be used for client workstations and devices to ensure they are easy to configure and less prone to human error. When configuring a dynamic IP address, the DHCP server should issue the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server's IP address to the workstation or device. A static IP address should be used for servers to ensure they are easy to find, access, and manage on the network. When configuring a static IP address, you need to include the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server's IP address. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. An APIPA address is also known as a link-local address.

Which of the following devices should you purchase for a child if you want them to be able to read books and magazines, but you do not want them to be able to surf the web or play games? Laptop E-reader Smartphone Tablet

E-reader OBJ-1.2: An e-Reader is a tablet-sized device designed for reading rather than general-purpose computing. For example, the Amazon Paperwhite is an example of a traditional e-Reader. Unlike a tablet, an e-reader is designed for the sole purpose of reading digital books and magazines (with perhaps the option to add annotations). E-readers use electrophoretic ink (e-ink) technology to create an Electronic Paper Display (EPD). Compared to the LED or OLED display used on a tablet, an EPD has low power consumption but facilitates high contrast reading in various ambient light conditions. These screens do not need to use a backlight in typical conditions, saving power and extending battery life.

A technician needs to upgrade the RAM in a database server. The server's memory must support maintaining the highest levels of integrity. Which of the following type of RAM should the technician install? Non-Parity SODIMM VRAM ECC

ECC OBJ-3.2: Error checking and correcting or error correcting code (ECC) is a type of system memory that has built-in error correction security. ECC is more expensive than normal memory and requires support from the motherboard. ECC is commonly used in production servers and not in standard desktops or laptops. Non-parity memory is a type of system memory that does not perform error checking except when conducting the initial startup memory count. VRAM (video RAM) refers to any type of random access memory (RAM) specifically used to store image data for a computer display. A small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) can be purchased in various types and sizes to fit any laptop, router, or other small form factor computing device.

An employee at Dion Consulting is configuring their Android smartphone to synchronize their email with their corporate Office 365 account. What type of credentials will the employee need? Domain Name Email and Password Mail Protocols Authentication code

Email and Password OBJ-1.4: To configure the email client on an Android device with an Office 365 account, the employee will need their email and password. Since Office 365 is a mainstream service, it is well supported on both Android and iPhone smartphones. If your company is running its own email servers, though, then you would be required to enter the domain name, appropriate mail protocols, and authentication codes.

A computer technician tries to determine if a computer with an Intel i7 processor has virtualization enabled to run a second operating system within VirtualBox. Which of the following should be checked to determine if the system can run a virtual machine? Verify AMD-V is installed Enable virtualization within the BIOS Verify Hyper-V is installed Enable virtualization within Windows

Enable virtualization within the BIOS OBJ-4.2: By checking the settings in the BIOS, it can be determined if virtualization was enabled. For an Intel processor, this option is usually listed as VT (Virtualization Technology). For an AMD processor, this is usually listed as AMD-V. Virtualization allows the system to run another operating system within a virtualized environment, such as VirtualBox, VM Ware, or Hyper-V.

Johnny is trying to download a file from a remote FTP server but keeps receiving an error that a connection cannot be opened. Which of the following should you do FIRST to resolve the problem? Ensure that port 20 is open Ensure that port 161 is open Validate the security certificate from the host Flush the DNS cache on the local workstation

Ensure that port 20 is open OBJ-5.7: Executing an FTP connection from a client is a two-stage process requiring the use of two different ports. Once the user enters the name of the server and the login credentials in the FTP client's authorization fields, the FTP connection is attempted over port 21. Once the connection is established, FTP sends the data over port 20 back to the client from the server. For FTP to function properly, you should have both ports 20 and 21 open.

You are setting up a projector and a laptop for a big presentation in the Dion Training conference room. You start up the presentation software and mirror the laptop's display to the projector. The image on the screen from the projector is flickering intermittently, but the image on the laptop's display is working with no issues. You attempt to change the laptop's resolution to a lower setting and a higher setting, but still, the projector's flickering persists. Which of the following steps should you attempt NEXT? Ensure the projector's power cable is connected securely Change the color depth setting on the projector Change the aspect ratio from 16:9 to 4:3 on the laptop Ensure the display cable is securely connected to both the laptop and the projector

Ensure the display cable is securely connected to both the laptop and the projector OBJ-5.4: A flickering image on a projector is a common issue that can occur if the display cable between the laptop and the projector is not connected securely. This is especially common with older-style display cables like VGA and DVI. Therefore, it is important to ensure a VGA or DVI cable is properly secured using the cable's thumbscrews to prevent flickering of the image.

What is the simplest and most cost-efficient way to allow other network users to access a printer if the printer does not have an RJ-45 or WiFi adapter available? Establish a print share on the local host Order a printer port converter to share a non-networked printer Establish a printer share on the network switch Order another printer with network capabilities and share it on the network

Establish a print share on the local host OBJ-5.6: The simplest and most cost-efficient way to share a printer is to share the printer via the local host and allow sharing across everyone to access the printer. While this costs nothing to establish and requires no additional hardware, it does require that the local host remains on 24 hours a day so that others can print to it at any time. If you are willing to spend a little money, though, you can purchase a wireless print server or a new network-capable printer instead.

Users are complaining that they are unable to connect to the wireless network when seated in the breakroom. You are troubleshooting the issue and have questioned the employees in the area about the issue. You have determined that it was working properly yesterday, but this morning it stopped working. You also determined that there was a power outage earlier this morning for about 10 minutes. After gathering this information and identifying the symptoms of the problem, what should you do NEXT according to the network troubleshooting methodology? Document findings and actions Establish a theory of probable cause Implement preventive measures Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem

Establish a theory of probable cause OBJ-5.1: The troubleshooting steps are to (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory to determine the cause, (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects, (5) Implement the solution or escalate as necessary, (6) Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures, and (7) Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned. Based on the scenario presented, you have already gathered information, questioned users, identified symptoms, and determined if anything changed, so you have completed the first step: identify the problem. Now, you should begin to establish a theory of probable cause by questioning the obvious and using a top-to-bottom, bottom-to-top, or divide and conquer approach to troubleshooting.

You have just installed a second monitor for a bookkeeper's workstation so they can stretch their spreadsheets across both monitors. This would essentially let them use the two monitors as one combined larger monitor. Which of the following settings should you configure? Color depth Extended mode Refresh rate Resolution

Extended mode OBJ-5.4: The extended mode allows the Windows output to be stretched across two or more monitors as if they were a single monitor. This can be configured under the Display settings in Windows 10. Refresh rate is the measure of how fast an image can be updated on a monitor or display. If a monitor has a lower refresh rate, then blurring and ghosting can occur. Color depth defines how many unique colors can be displayed by the projected image at once. Most monitors have a default or native resolution. When you first connect a monitor to a Windows workstation, this native resolution is detected, and Windows attempts to configure itself automatically. If this creates an imbalance between the two monitors, a technician can adjust the screen's resolution by changing it in the Display settings area of Windows 10.

You are building a virtualization environment to host public-facing servers that must connect to the internet. This will require that you install several secured Linux distributions as VMs. The VMs need to have access to a virtualized network and communicate with the host operating system and the internet. Which of the following types of network connections should you configure for each VM? Internal Localhost Private External

External OBJ-4.2: If you select external, the VMs would have internet access. If you select internal, each VM can communicate between the host and the other VMs. The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. If you select localhost, each VM could only communicate with itself.

What type of connector is used to terminate a coaxial cable? RJ-11 DB-9 RJ-45 F type

F type OBJ-3.1: The F type connector is used with coaxial cables. Both RG-6 and RG-59 are cable types used for coaxial cable connections. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet. RG-59 cabling is generally better for most CCTV systems and other analog video signals. An RJ-45 connector is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable. A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines.

Which of the following types of connectors are used to terminate a coaxial cable for your cable modem? DB-9 RJ-45 F-type RJ-11

F-type OBJ-3.1: F type is the connector used with coaxial cables. Both RG-6 and RG-59 are cable types used for coaxial cable connections. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet. RG-59 cabling is generally better for most CCTV systems and other analog video signals. A copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable is usually terminated with an RJ-45 connector. An RS-232 serial cable is normally terminated with a DB-9 connector. A fiber optic cable normally uses an ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector.

You want to boot from a removable USB device to troubleshoot your Windows 10 laptop. During your rebooting of the machine, which key should you press to enter the boot order menu? Command + R F8 F12 F11

F12 OBJ-3.4: F12 is the most commonly used key used to enter the BIOS / UEFI boot order menu. The boot order is a menu that allows you to select which device you wish to boot from, such as the hard drive, DVD, or a removable USB device. F11 during the boot up process will cause the system to boot into recovery mode on a Windows workstation. F8 is used to invoke the Advanced Boot Options menu to allow the selection of different startup modes for troubleshooting. This is done as part of Windows and not the BIOS / UEFI. The command + R is used on the OS X system to boot into recovery mode.

Which of the following is NOT considered part of the Internet of Things? Smart television SCADA ICS Laptop

Laptop OBJ-2.4: Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems, industrial control systems (ICS), internet-connected televisions, thermostats, and many other things examples of devices classified as the Internet of Things (IoT). A laptop would be better classified as a computer or host than part of the Internet of Things. The Internet of things (IoT) is a system of interrelated computing devices, mechanical and digital machines provided with unique identifiers (UIDs), and the ability to transfer data over a network without requiring human-to-human or human-to-computer interaction.

A client reports that their workstation is continually crashing when using certain applications on their macOS system. The system will stop working and display a spinning rainbow pinwheel on the screen. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this error? Failure of the power supply Failure or corruption of the memory Failure of the graphics card Failure of the processor

Failure or corruption of the memory OBJ-5.2: On a Mac (OS X) system, the "Pinwheel of Death" is used to indicate an error. The pinwheel appears as an endlessly spinning rainbow mouse pointer displayed on the screen. This usually occurs due to a memory failure or memory corruption in the system. The pinwheel is like the BSOD used in Windows. The Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) is a "stop screen" that appears when the Windows operating system detects a critical error and literally stops the system so that the error doesn't cause any loss of data. All operating systems have some form of "stop screen," but the Windows version got the name BSOD since it was a screen with a full blue background and white text containing troubleshooting information and error codes.

An Android user recently cracked their screen and had it replaced. If they are in a dark room, the phone works fine. If the user enters a room with normal lights on, then the phone's display is dim and hard to read. What is MOST likely the problem? Defective display Auto-brightness is enabled Low battery Faulty ambient light sensor

Faulty ambient light sensor OBJ-5.5: The ambient light sensor appears to be broken or malfunctioning. The ambient light sensor may be too sensitive as it is taking in more light than usual. This can occur if the sensor is faulty or if the screen was replaced incorrectly, and the technician forgot to install the black gasket around the ambient light sensor. The auto-brightness setting being enabled would increase the brightness in a lit room and decrease the brightness in a dark room. If the device has a low battery, it may dim the display to save battery life but it would still be readable. If the display was defective, it would be difficult to read in all light conditions and not just in the bright room.

You have been asked to install a network cable inside a conduit placed underground and connected to two buildings located about 1 KM apart. Which of the following cable types should you choose? Shielded Coaxial Fiber Plenum

Fiber OBJ-3.1: A fiber optic cable is a network cable that contains strands of glass fibers inside an insulated casing. They're designed for long-distance, high-performance data networking, and telecommunications. If you are dealing with connecting two networks over a long distance (over a few hundred meters), you should use a fiber optic cable. Shielded and plenum copper cables can only cover a distance of approximately 100 meters in length. Coaxial cables can cover a maximum distance of 200 to 500 meters in length.

A network technician needs to connect two switches. The technician needs a link between them that is capable of handling 10 Gbps of throughput. Which of the following media would BEST meet this requirement? Cat 5e cable Cat 3 cable Coax cable Fiber optic cable

Fiber optic cable OBJ-3.1: To achieve 10 Gbps, you should use Cat 6a, Cat 7, Cat 8, or a fiber optic cable. Since fiber optic was the only option listed here, it is the best answer. A Cat 5e can only operate up to 100 meters at 1 Gbps. A Cat 3 cable can only operate at 100 meters at 10 Mbps. A traditional ethernet coaxial cable network can only operate at 10 Mbps, but newer MoCA coaxial ethernet connections can reach speeds of up to 2.5 Gbps.

You have just finished building a Windows server, installing its operating system, updating its security patches, formatting a dedicated data partition, and creating accounts for all of the company's employees. What is the next thing that must be configured to provide users with the ability to access the data contained on the server's data partition? File sharing RAID storage Audit logging Print server

File sharing OBJ-2.4: Most of the options provided are reasonable next steps, but the question specifically states that you want to allow the users to access the server's data. Therefore, file sharing is the next step to providing access to the data and folders for employees on the network. After configuring file sharing, it would be good to configure audit logging and possibly a print server. RAID storage should have been configured before installing the operating system or creating the data partition. A file server is used to host and control access to shared files and folders for the organization.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the port cluster.) Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as H? FireWire USB 3.0 SATA DVI

FireWire OBJ-3.1: This port is the FireWire port. FireWire is a serial SCSI connection that uses a D-shaped connector that supports up to 800 Mbps of bandwidth. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard's rear port cluster by sight.

What network device uses ACLs to prevent unauthorized access into company systems? Load balancer IDS Firewall Content filter

Firewall OBJ-2.4: A firewall is a network security device designed to prevent systems or traffic from unauthorized access. An ACL is a list that shows which traffic or devices should be allowed into or denied from accessing the network. An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors a network or systems for malicious activity or policy violations. An IDS uses signatures, not ACLs. Content filtering is the use of a program to screen and/or exclude access to web pages or emails deemed objectionable. A load balancer distributes a set of tasks over a set of resources to make their overall processing more efficient.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area? Audio connector SATA connector PATA connector Front connectors

Front connectors OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the front connector on the motherboard. This area connectors the various wires to the front panel to include the LED activity lights for the hard disk drive and the power/reset buttons. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

A company wants to ensure that its mobile devices are configured to protect any data stored on them if they are lost or stolen. Which of the following should you enable and enforce through their MDM? Full storage encryption Enable OS updates Remove backups Enable SSO

Full storage encryption OBJ-1.4: Mobile device management (MDM) software suites are designed to manage the use of smartphones and tablets within an enterprise. Full storage encryption is used to encrypt the user and system data stored in the device's internal storage. The encryption key is stored in a protected portion of the device and can be used to remotely wipe the device if it is lost or stolen. Single sign-on (SSO) is an authentication technology that allows a user to authenticate once and receive authorizations for multiple services. Operating system updates are made freely available by the software manufacturer to fix problems in a particular software version, including any security vulnerabilities. Updates can be classified as hotfixes (available only to selected customers and for a limited problem), patches (generally available), and service packs (installable collections of patches and software improvements). A backup is a copy of user and system data that can enable the recovery of data after data loss or a disaster.

The large multi-function network printer has recently begun to print pages that appear to have a dust-like coating when handled by the users. Which of the following components should be replaced based on this description? Scanner assembly Toner cartridge Fuser Drum

Fuser OBJ-5.6: The printer passes the paper through the fuser, a pair of heated rollers. As the paper passes through these rollers, the loose toner powder melts, fusing with the paper's fibers. The fuser rolls the paper to the output tray, and you have your finished page. The fuser also heats the paper itself, of course, which is why pages are always hot when they come out of a laser printer or photocopier. If the paper feels dusty or the toner doesn't adhere to the printer, this usually indicates a failing fuser that needs to be replaced.

Which of the following technologies can provide the precise latitude and longitude of a device's location when it is located outdoors? Bluetooth Cellular GPS Wi-Fi

GPS OBJ-1.4: Location services enable the device to know its position using its internal GPS receiver or its approximate location using its cellular radio. A mobile device can use its internal GPS, cellular, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi radios to identify its location. A GPS (global positioning system) device is used to determine a receiver's position on the Earth based on information received from 24 GPS satellites, which operate in a constellation in Medium Earth Orbit (MEO). The receiver must have a line-of-sight to four of the GPS satellites continuously to accurately determine its position on the earth (latitude, longitude, and altitude). The device's GPS receiver can provide an accurate location up to 10 meters. Cellular radios can provide an approximate location based upon the triangulation of your position between different cellular towers. Bluetooth can be used within a building to provide an accurate of the device within 3-4 meters. Wi-Fi positioning systems use the signal strength or angle of arrival of a signal to determine the device's location within 1-4 meters. The use of Bluetooth and Wi-Fi to determine the device's location is known as an internal positioning system (IPS).

Which of the following describes the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default? Subnet mask Dynamic IP Static IP Gateway

Gateway OBJ-2.5: The default gateway parameter is the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default. This setting is not required, but if you do not have one included, your network traffic can never leave the local area network. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly. A dynamic IP address is configured automatically by a DHCP server when a new host joins the network. The subnet mask is used in IPv4 to distinguish these two components within a single IP address. The subnet mask differentiates the two portions of an IP address into the Network ID and the Host ID.

Which of the following cloud services provides access to Docs, Sheets, Drive, and other productivity tools using a subscription-based pricing model? Google Workspace iTunes Microsoft 365 iCloud

Google Workspace OBJ-1.4: Google Workspace is a collection of cloud computing, productivity and collaboration tools, software, and products developed and marketed by Google. Microsoft 365, formerly Office 365, is a line of subscription services offered by Microsoft which adds to and includes the Microsoft Office product line. Apple's online cloud storage and file synchronization service for macOS and iOS devices is called iCloud. The service provides a centralized location for mail, contacts, calendar, photos, notes, reminders, and files online. Apple's iTunes is a media player, media library, Internet radio broadcaster, mobile device management utility, and the client app for the iTunes Store. It is not a cloud-based solution for synchronization.

An auto mechanic needs to purchase a new printer for their shop. The printer will be used to create estimates and invoices for their customers. The printer must support the ability to create duplicate invoices using multiple sheets of paper separated by carbon paper using tractor-fed paper. Which of the following types of printers should be used? Thermal Impact Laser Inkjet

Impact OBJ-3.7: An impact or dot-matrix printer is an older type of printer that works by pressing a ribbon of ink onto the top sheet of paper using a series of dots. This is called an impact printer because it pushes the ribbon against the paper to create the image or text using a series of dots to create the image or text. These printers are most commonly used when multiple copies of a document must be created at once (like a 3-part form or contract to be signed). As these older printers are being retired and it is harder to find impact printers to purchase, most organizations are now switching to laser or inkjet printers and requiring customers to sign multiple copies of the same invoice after they are printed using a laser printer. Thermal printers are commonly used for receipts such as those at the grocery store or a restaurant.

You want to build a new gaming computer but intend to reuse as many of the parts as possible from your old computer. You have determined that the motherboard and the case will be reused, and you will purchase a new graphics card, sound card, network interface card, and a USB 3.0 expansion card to increase your system's overall speed and performance. You are a bit worried that your old computer's power supply may not be able to support all of these new expansion cards. Which of the following cards is MOST likely to consume the most power during operations and require you to purchase a new power supply to support it? Sound card USB 3.0 NIC Graphics card

Graphics card OBJ-3.5: The power consumption of today's graphics cards has increased a lot. The top models demand between 110 and 270 watts from the power supply; in fact, a powerful graphics card under full load requires as much power as the rest of the components of a PC system combined. If your old computer didn't have a dedicated graphics card, it is unlikely that the power supply will be powerful enough to support one without replacing the power supply. Most business computers have a 300-watt power supply. Most low-end gaming computers have a power supply of 450 to 500 watts. If you are building a high-end gaming workstation, you may require a power supply with 750 watts to 850 watts to support all processing power, graphics processing, and other expansion cards installed in the system.

You are troubleshooting a storage issue on a customer's computer. During the computer's operation, you hear a loud, rhythmic sound. Which of the following storage components is likely failing? RAM SSD HDD M.2 PCIe

HDD OBJ-5.3: A hard disk drive (HDD) is a mechanical storage device that relies on a storage platter and a read arm. When a hard drive begins to fail, the drive will begin to make a loud clicking noise. This noise is usually rhythmic since the failed spot makes the noise every time the drive rotates during the read/write process. The other options (M.2 PCIe, SSD, and RAM) have no moving parts; therefore, no rhythmic noise would be created during their failure.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the port cluster.) Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as D? DVI-D DVI-I HDMI VGA

HDMI OBJ-3.1: This port is an HDMI connection. A high-definition multimedia interface (HDMI) connection is used to provide high-specification digital content to audio-video equipment from a computer. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard's rear port cluster by sight.

Which of the following is a connection-oriented protocol that utilizes TCP? DHCP TFTP HTTPS SNMP

HTTPS OBJ-2.1: The transmission control protocol (TCP) is a protocol in the TCP/IP suite that operates at the transport layer to provide connection-oriented, guaranteed delivery of packets. Hosts must first establish a session to exchange data and then confirm the delivery of packets using acknowledgments when using TCP. TCP is relatively slow in comparison to UDP. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over TCP port 443. The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event (such as a printer that is out of paper). The trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP) is a protocol used to get a file from a remote host or put a file onto a remote host. TFTP is commonly used with embedded devices or systems that retrieve firmware, configuration information, or a system image during the boot process. TFTP operates over UDP port 69. The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68.

A client has a workstation with a RAID 5 configuration and reports that slower than normal performance occurs when reading/writing files to the RAID. You run a diagnostic program against the RAID, and the system passes all of the diagnostic tests without any issues. While you are running the tests, though, you heard clicking noises coming from the RAID. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the slow performance being experienced by the client? Cooling fan RAID controller SSD Hard drive

Hard drive OBJ-5.3: Based on the symptoms described, the RAID itself is fully functional, so the RAID controller is not causing any problems. This could be caused by a failing hard drive or the system overheating due to the slow performance. Since there is a clicking noise, this is most likely a hard drive failure since a cooling fan makes a whirring or grinding noise instead. Therefore, we can assume the RAID is made up of magnetic hard drives, and one of those hard disks is starting to fail. To replace the hard drive, you need to find a comparable drive that will work in the array, reboot the computer, and enter the RAID setup program to rebuild the array after replacing that hard drive. If you use a RAID 1, RAID 5, or RAID 10, the system will continue to operate normally, but with slower performance, until you replace the hard drive and rebuild the RAID.

Jason's new iPhone has locked up, and the touchscreen is unresponsive. He tries to tap the screen, press the buttons, and still, nothing happens. What should he do next? Hold down power and volume down buttons simultaneously for 10 seconds, then slide to power off Hold down power and volume up buttons simultaneously for 10 seconds, then slide to power off Hold down the power button and then the sleep/wake button simultaneously for about 10 seconds Hold down the home button for 10 seconds, then slide to power off

Hold down power and volume down buttons simultaneously for 10 seconds, then slide to power off OBJ-5.5: Smartphones can become frozen, hung up, or locked up to the point they are unresponsive to touch or some button presses. The best solution is to hold down the power and volume down buttons simultaneously on an iPhone and then slide to power off.

Jason is teaching a CompTIA course at a large company, but they do not allow non-employees to connect to their network. Since Jason needs the Internet for an in-class demonstration, he connects his laptop to his iPhone over Wi-Fi and essentially connects to the Internet using the smartphone as a modem. Which of the following terms best describes this configuration? Hotspot Baseband update Tunneling USB tethering

Hotspot OBJ-1.3: A portable hotspot is a dedicated mobile device that connects to a cellular network and provides a wireless (Wi-Fi) network for a small number of users. Most smartphones can conduct wireless tethering as a form of creating a hotspot. Tethering uses the cellular data plan of a mobile device to provide Internet access to a laptop or PC. The PC can be tethered to the mobile by USB, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi (a mobile hotspot). One method of doing this is to connect the laptop to the device using a Wi-Fi connection and routing all of your data from your laptop to the phone over Wi-Fi and then from the phone to the Internet using the phone's built-in cellular modem. A tunneling (or encapsulation) protocol wraps up data from one protocol for transfer over a different type of network. For example, PPP can carry TCP/IP data over a dial-up line, enabling a remote computer to communicate with the LAN. A baseband update is the modification of the firmware of a cellular modem.

Your boss is looking for a recommendation for a cloud solution that will only allow for both onsite systems and cloud services to work together seamlessly. What type of cloud model should you recommend? Public Cloud Private Cloud Community Cloud Hybrid Cloud

Hybrid Cloud OBJ-4.1: A hybrid cloud model allows for the seamless integration of both onsite and cloud services to the end-user simultaneously. Hybrid clouds can be cost-efficient, flexible, easy to migrate to a complete cloud solution in the future, and require less maintenance than completely onsite options. As with all cloud options, the contents must be properly secured due to the elastic storage nature of all cloud solutions and the possibility of data remnants. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A private cloud contains services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. A community cloud is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns (security, compliance, jurisdiction, etc.), whether managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally.

Which of the following types of hard drives would be used in a gaming laptop to increase the system's boot-up performance while providing a large amount of storage at a lower overall cost? Optical drive SSD Magnetic drive Hybrid drive

Hybrid drive OBJ-1.1: A hybrid hard drive (SSHD) is a storage drive that combines the large storage capacity of an HDD with the faster read/write speed of an SSD. The majority of the drive uses a spinning disk and actuator arm, like a traditional magnetic drive, but it also contains a small SSD (solid-state drive) as part of the combined hybrid drive unit. This allows data to be written to either the SSD portion (for data accessed more frequently like the OS and programs) while using the HDD portion to store larger amounts of rarely accessed files (such as photos and video files). Hybrid hard drives constantly monitor the data retrieved from storage, and it automatically determines which data you open the most. It places the files that you use most often on the SSD to read/write that data faster. A magnetic drive is a traditional hard disk drive (HDD). A hard disk drive (HDD) is a device providing persistent mass storage for a workstation or laptop by saving data even when the computer is turned off. Data is stored using platters with a magnetic coating that are spun under disk heads that can read and write to locations on each platter known as sectors. A solid-state drive (SSD) is a personal computer storage device that stores data in non-volatile special memory instead of on disks or tape. An optical drive is a storage device that uses a CD, DVD, or Blu-Ray disc to store and retrieve data.

A computer technician is building a server that will run multiple virtual machines simultaneously. Which CPU technology should be selected so that the processor can utilize two logical cores? Multi-core processor 32-bit CPU Dedicated GPU Hyperthreading

Hyperthreading OBJ-3.4: HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits. This allows the system to run multiple cores for each operating system in a virtualized environment. Since the question asked about logical cores and not physical cores, the answer is hyperthreading and not a multi-core processor. A 32-bit CPU is a hardware item and used by low-end notebooks or thin clients. A dedicated GPU is a graphics card and would not help with running multiple virtual machines.

You are installing Windows 2019 on a rack-mounted server and hosting multiple virtual machines within the physical server. You just finished the installation and now want to begin creating and provisioning the virtual machines. Which of the following should you utilize to allow you to create and provision virtual machines? Device manager Hypervisor Terminal services Disk management

Hypervisor OBJ-4.2: A hypervisor, also known as a virtual machine monitor, is a process that creates and runs virtual machines (VMs). A hypervisor allows one host computer to support multiple guest VMs by virtually sharing its resources, like memory and processing. To create and provision virtual machines within the Windows 2019 operating system, you can use a Type II hypervisor like VM Ware or VirtualBox. Disk Management is a system utility in Windows that enables you to perform advanced storage tasks. Device Manager is a component of the Microsoft Windows operating system that allows users to view and control the hardware attached to the computer. Remote Desktop Services, known as Terminal Services in Windows Server 2008 and earlier, is one of the components of Microsoft Windows that allow a user to take control of a remote computer or virtual machine over a network connection.

You have been asked to fix an old computer whose CD-ROM has stopped working. The CD-ROM drive is using a 40-pin ribbon cable, and you suspect the cable is defective. Which cable should you buy to replace the cable? IDE USB eSATA SATA

IDE OBJ-3.1: An IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics) cable is an older cable interface that used to be used for the transmission of data between the motherboard and various internal devices like hard drives and CD-ROM drives. An IDE cable is a 40-pin ribbon cable that operated at relatively slow speeds (less than 50 Mbps). IDE cables were also known as PATA (Parallel ATA) cables, as opposed to SATA (Serial ATA) cables. You will rarely come across an IDE cable in use today, but if you are working on a very old computer in an office (legacy machine) then you may find one in use.

You have been asked to set up the corporate email on several mobile devices for Dion Training's employees. The employees will use their mobile devices to check their email when out of the office, but they will also need to check their email from their desktop computers. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow the employees to receive their mail and maintain the read/unread status across all of their devices? POP3 IMAP SMTP HTTPS

IMAP OBJ-1.4: You should configure IMAP because it will leave the email on the server and allow for synchronizing the mail to all devices, including each email's read state. If you configure POP3, the mail is downloaded to the device and removed the mail from the server's mailbox by default. SMTP is used to send emails, not receive them. HTTPS is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.

Which of the following protocols operates over port 143 by default? POP3 RDP IMAP HTTPS

IMAP OBJ-2.1: The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The remote desktop protocol (RDP) is a protocol used for the remote administration of a host using a graphical user interface. RDP operates over TCP port 3389.

Which of the following metrics should you consider to compare the performance of an SSD or HDD? Seek time Latency Bandwidth IOPS

IOPS OBJ-5.3: The input/output operations per second (IOPS) is a measurement of performance used to compare a hard disk drive (HDD) and solid-state device (SSD). The IOPS is calculated based on the physical constraints of the media being used. For a hard disk drive, the IOPS is calculated by dividing 1000 milliseconds by the combined average seek time and average latency. The seek time only applies to a traditional hard drive since it calculates the time it takes to move the head to the proper storage location on the platter. For an SSD, there is no seek time used since it can instantly access any portion of the memory without physically moving a read head.

You are trying to select the best device to install to proactively stop outside attackers from reaching your internal network. Which of the following devices would be the BEST for you to select? Proxy server IPS Syslog server IDS

IPS OBJ-2.4: An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a form of network security that detects and prevents identified threats. Intrusion prevention systems continuously monitor your network, looking for possible malicious incidents, and capturing information about them. An IPS can block malicious network traffic, unlike an IDS, which can only log them. A proxy server is a server application that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server providing that resource. System Logging Protocol (Syslog) uses port 514 and is a way network devices can use a standard message format to communicate with a logging server. It was designed specifically to make it easy to monitor network devices. Devices can use a Syslog agent to send out notification messages under a wide range of specific conditions.

What type of cloud service provides instant access to servers and switches, quickly provisioned, and available for management over the internet? DaaS (Desktop) PaaS (Platform) SaaS (Software) IaaS (Infrastructure)

IaaS OBJ-4.1: Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is an instant computing infrastructure, provisioned, and managed over the internet. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. IaaS quickly scales up and down with demand, letting you pay only for what you use. It helps you avoid the expense and complexity of buying and managing your physical servers and other data center infrastructure. Each resource is offered as a separate service component, and you only need to rent a particular one for as long as you need it. A cloud computing service provider manages the infrastructure while you purchase, install, configure, and manage your software. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

What is the first step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology? Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution Test the theory to determine the cause Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious) Identify the problem

Identify the problem OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Dion Training has recently installed a new VoIP telephone service in their offices. The employees are now complaining that their phone calls are being dropped during the middle of their conversations. The company has a single 48-port gigabit ethernet layer 3 switch that supports their desktops, laptops, and VoIP devices. Which of the following should the company do to prevent VoIP calls from dropping? Enforce MAC filtering Increase the MTU Configure the DHCP server Implement QoS

Implement QoS OBJ-5.7: To prevent the calls from being dropped, quality of service should be implemented on the switch. Quality of Service (QoS) means using a network protocol to prioritize certain traffic types over others. Enterprise networks can use QoS protocols to make sure traffic such as Voice over IP calling or video conferencing is given higher priority than traffic where packets' timing is less important, such as ordinary file downloads. MAC Filtering refers to a security access control method whereby the MAC address assigned to each network card is used to determine access to the network. The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68. MTU is the largest unit that can be transmitted across a network. If the MTU is set at a value above 1500, the network is configured to support jumbo frames.

A technician at Dion Training is troubleshooting an issue with a workstation. The technician believes that the CMOS battery needs to be replaced based on the symptoms they observed. Which of the following symptoms did the technician likely observe to lead them to this conclusion? Burning smell Continuous reboot Distended capacitors Incorrect date/time on the workstation

Incorrect date/time on the workstation OBJ-5.2: The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery. A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue.

You are working at the service desk when a customer calls up and complains that their laptop's monitor looks strange. When pressed for further details, they state that there are black bars on the left and right sides of the screen and that the image appears squashed and distorted. What is MOST likely the cause of this issue? Incorrect display resolution External RF interference Incorrect color depth Bad video card

Incorrect display resolution OBJ-5.4: This is likely a screen resolution problem. Each LCD/LED has a native resolution that fits perfectly on the screen. If a resolution other than the native resolution is used, the screen could become squished, distorted, or have black vertical or horizontal lines filling up the excess space. For example, most laptops operate as a 16:9 or 16:10 aspect ratio. Older VGA monitors relied on a 4:3 aspect ratio using 1024x768 pixels whereas newer monitors use a 16:9 ratio at 1920x1080 pixels.

Jason booted up a Windows 10 laptop and noticed that the icon appears very large and the image appeared blurry. What is the most LIKELY cause of these issues? Incorrect cable used Faulty digitizer Incorrect resolution Incorrect color depth

Incorrect resolution OBJ-5.4: This is likely a screen resolution problem. Each LCD/LED has a native resolution that fits perfectly on the screen. If a resolution other than the native resolution is used, the screen could become squished, distorted, or have black vertical or horizontal lines filling up the excess space. For example, if the computer rebooted into Safe Mode, it will default back to 800x600 pixel resolution instead of the 16:9 ratio of 1920x1080 pixels used by modern laptops. This is also referred to as VGA mode.

You are working as a technician for a college. One of the professors has submitted a trouble ticket stating that the projector connected to the workstation in his classroom is too dim. You look at the image being projected on the wall and notice it is dim, but the image appears to be displayed clearly and correctly. What is the FIRST thing you should do to make the image brighter? Update the video driver on the workstation Modify the workstation's video resolution Replace the bulb in the projector Increase the contrast on the projector

Increase the contrast on the projector OBJ-5.4: If the image being displayed is dim, this could be an issue with your project's contrast. By increasing the contrast, you can increase the amount of light reflected from an all white image and an all black image. The higher the contrast ratio, the brighter the whites will appear in the image. For example, if you have a projector with a 3000:1 contrast ratio, this means that the white image is 3000 times brighter than the black image. The higher the contrast ratio, the more detail you can see on the projected image, regardless of whether it is numbers, pictures, graphs, text, or video. Contrast is what makes it possible for us to see the subtle shades of colors. If the project supports the contrast or contrast ratio adjustment, you should increase the contrast to brighten the screen's image.

You just printed a new sign for your office using thick cardstock paper with your network printer. Unfortunately, when you pick up the cardstock from the laser printer's output tray, the printed image smears across the paper. Attempting to troubleshoot this problem, you decide to print another sign using regular printer paper and determine that the image does not smear when touched on the regular printer paper. Which of the following would be the NEXT step to perform in your troubleshooting efforts? Replace the toner cartridge in the printer Increase the temperature of the fuser element Change the feed rate of the paper Clean the printer's transfer roller

Increase the temperature of the fuser element OBJ-5.6: When printing with a laser printer, the paper passes through rollers in the fuser assembly, where temperatures up to 801 F (427 C) and pressure are used to bond the toner to the paper permanently. If you often print with specialty paper (i.e., envelopes, cardstock, & labels), you may want to turn up the fuser temperature on your printer. With thicker paper types, heat does not transfer as easily as it does with standard paper so the toner may not bond as well and the image could smear when it is touched.

You work as a computer technician for a production company that travels worldwide while filming and editing music videos. Due to the nature of video editing, you will be building a video production workstation for the company that will have the maximum amount of RAM, an 8-core CPU, a dedicated GPU, and a redundant array of solid-state devices for storage. You are now determining which power supply to install in the system. What is the MOST important characteristic to consider when choosing a power supply? Efficiency rating Number of SATA connectors Amperage of 12V rail Input voltage

Input voltage OBJ-3.5: This question provides you with many details, but the key phrase in finding the answer is in the first sentence. This computer will be traveling worldwide, and the most important consideration will be the input voltage. If you choose a 120-volt power supply, it would be destroyed if plugged into a 240-volt outlet (commonly used outside the United States). Conversely, if you use a 240-volt power supply and plug it into a 120-volt outlet, it will not function due to the lower voltage. Therefore, you need to pick a power supply with dual voltage selection capability for maximum compatibility worldwide.

John connected his MacBook to the corporate network and is trying to print to the office's large network printer. John notices that the print job is failing to print. The other employees in the office are having no issues printing from their Windows workstations. Which of the following should be done to resolve John's issue? Enable Bonjour on John's MacBook Install and enable the OS X printing option on the network printer Install the print drivers for OS X on the print server Restart the print spooler on the print server

Install the print drivers for OS X on the print server OBJ-3.6: You should install the print drivers for OS X (macOS) on the print server to ensure compatibility with MacBooks and iMac devices. Since the Windows users can print to the network printer without any issues, the printer and the network are working properly. Instead, the most likely explanation is that the print server does not have the print drivers for OS X (macOS) installed on it.

Tom, a student, wants to install Windows and Linux to practice configuring these operating systems as part of his CompTIA+ studies. His current Windows 10 laptop has a multi-core processor, and 16 GB of RAM installed. Which of the following should Tom do? Install virtualization software and install each OS as a virtual machine Buy an inexpensive Windows 10 laptop Purchase a Chromebook and utilize cloud-based virtual machines Purchase a new high-end gaming laptop with Windows 10 pre-installed

Install virtualization software and install each OS as a virtual machine OBJ-4.2: The best solution would be to install virtualization software like VirtualBox, VM Ware, or Hyper-V. This will allow the student to run additional operating systems for practice. While they could buy additional laptops to practice on, there is no need to spend money on additional hardware since their laptop has multiple cores and plenty of memory to create the two virtual machines. Based on the information provided, Tom's computer is sufficient to run at least one Linux virtual machine on his Windows system so he doesn't need to buy a new laptop. Chromebooks do not support virtual machines. If Tom was going to use cloud-based virtual machines, he could use his current Windows machine to access them instead of buying a new Chromebook.

A network technician connects three temporary office trailers with a point-to-multipoint microwave radio solution in a wooded area. The microwave radios are up, and the network technician can ping network devices in all of the office trailers. However, users are complaining that they are experiencing sporadic connectivity. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue? Interference Split horizon Latency Throttling

Interference OBJ-5.7: Microwave links require a direct line of sight (LoS) between the antennas to maintain a strong and effective link. These line-of-sight microwave link uses highly directional transmitter and receiver antennas to communicate via a narrowly focused radio beam. Since this microwave-based network is being run in a wooded area, there are likely some trees or leaves that are blocking the line of sight between the antennas. To solve this issue, they should trim the trees and branches to provide a clear light of sight or move the antennas to reestablish a clear line of sight. Latency is the time delay between when a packet is sent and received. While latency will increase with an obstructed microwave line of sight link, latency is an effect of this issue and not the cause of the issue. Throttling is the intentional slowing or speeding of an internet service by an Internet service provider to regulate network traffic and minimize bandwidth congestion. This again is not a cause of intermittent connectivity, but would instead occur if the microwave link was overutilized beyond its SLA contract limitations. Split horizon is a form of route advertisement that prohibits a router from advertising back a route to the same interface from which it learned it. This does not affect the issues experienced with the microwave line. Another way to approach this question is to use the process of elimination: throttling slows down the speed, and latency slows down speed even further. Split horizon prevents loops, so it only makes sense that interference is the correct choice since interference can cause drops in connections in many situations.

You are building a virtualization environment to host several secured Linux distributions as VMs. The VMs need to have access to the local corporate network and communicate with the host operating system, the other VMs, and the internal network clients. Still, they should not have access to the internet. Which of the following types of network connections should you configure for each VM? Localhost Internal Private External

Internal OBJ-4.2: If you select internal, each VM can communicate between the host and the other VMs. If you select external, the VMs would have internet access. The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. If you select localhost, each VM could only communicate with itself.

Which of the following network configurations on a virtual machine are used to prevent the VM from accessing the internet, but still allow it to communicate with other VMs on the host and the host itself? Localhost Internal External Private

Internal OBJ-4.2: Virtual machines can have their network configured as internal to prevent them from communicating with the internet. When configured to internal, the VMs can communicate with each other and the host machine. The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. If you select external, the VMs would have internet access. If you select localhost, each VM could only communicate with itself.

Dion Training has just installed a new hub/control system to control the lights, HVAC, and power to the devices in their studio. The new hub/control system relies on Zigbee for wireless communication and networking between the different devices. Which of the following types of networked hosts best describes what was installed? Internet of Things Syslog server Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition DHCP server

Internet of Things OBJ-2.4: Internet of Things (IoT) is a term used to describe a global network of appliances and personal devices that have been equipped with sensors, software, and network connectivity. IoT normally relies on Zigbee or Z-wave to facilitate the networking of the devices, including hub/control systems, smart devices, wearables, and sensors. Supervisory control and data acquisition is a control system architecture comprising computers, networked data communications, and graphical user interfaces for high-level supervision of machines and processes. A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server is a server configured with a range of addresses to lease. Hosts can be allocated an IP address dynamically or be assigned a reserved IP address based on the host's MAC address. The server can also provide other configuration information, such as the location of DNS servers. A Syslog server is a server that collects diagnostic and monitoring data from the hosts and network devices across a given network.

Jason's laptop display appears to be extremely dim. He set the brightness to the highest level and attempted to adjust the control, but the image still appears extremely dim. Jason notices that if he points his smartphone's flashlight at the screen, then he can see the image better. Which of the following components on the laptop should he replace to fix this issue? Digitizer LCD panel Inverter Graphics card

Inverter OBJ-5.4: The inverter (also known as inverter board, screen inverter, or LCD inverter) is a part of the laptop's display assembly. The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source. If the inverter is faulty, the display will be too dim to easily see without an external light source like a flashlight. The digitizer is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touchscreen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input. A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. The LCD panel is backlight by a cold cathode fluorescent (CCFL) bulb. A graphics processing unit (GPU) is a microprocessor used on dedicated video adapter cards or within a CPU with integrated graphics capability to handle the mathematical calculations required to create immersive and 3D graphics.

Dion Training uses a VoIP conferencing solution to conduct its weekly staff meetings. When Jason is talking, some of the employees say it sounds like he is speeding up and slowing down randomly. Tamera is sitting in the office with Jason, and she says Jason is speaking at the same rate the entire time. Which of the following network performance metrics would be most useful in determining why the VoIP service is not presenting a consistent pace when delivering Jason's voice over the network? Jitter Bandwidth Throughput Latency

Jitter OBJ-5.7: Jitter is a network condition that occurs when a time delay in the sending of data packets over a network connection occurs. Jitter is a big problem for any real-time applications you may be supporting on your networks, like video conferences, voice-over IP, and virtual desktop infrastructure clients. A jitter is simply a variation in the delay of the packets, and this can cause some strange side effects, especially for voice and video calls. If you have ever been in a video conference where someone was speaking and then their voice started speeding up for 5 or 10 seconds, then returned to normal speed, you have been on the receiving end of their network's jitter. Latency is the measure of time that it takes for data to reach its destination across a network. Usually, we measure network latency as the round-trip time from a workstation to the distant end and back. Throughput is an actual measure of how much data is successfully transferred from the source to a destination. Bandwidth is the maximum rate of data transfer across a given network. Now, bandwidth is more of a theoretical concept that measures how much data could be transferred from a source to a destination under ideal conditions. Therefore, we often measure throughput, instead of bandwidth, to monitor our network performance.

Linda wants to reduce the number of monitors, keyboards, and mice required to control the multiple servers she manages in the data center. Which of the following devices should she install to allow a single keyboard or mouse to control multiple systems? PS/2 splitter Video mirroring device USB splitter KVM

KVM OBJ-3.1: A KVM (or Keyboard, Video, and Mouse) is a simple and easy to use hardware switching device that allows for multitasking on a single device. A KVM gives you the ability to connect 2 to 64 physical computers to a single set of hardware devices, such as a keyboard, monitor, and mouse. KVMs can be directly connected to the systems being controlled over USB, known as local remote. Modern KVMs can also operate over the network using KVM over IP, common in large datacenter implementations. A PS/2 connector is an older serial communication connector used for mice and keyboards. A PS/2 splitter allows both a mouse and keyboard to be connected to a single PS/2 port on a single system. A video mirroring device is used to send a duplicate copy of the video display signal to two or more monitors simultaneously. A USB splitter or USB hub is a device that connects to a USB port to allow additional USB devices to be connected to the PC, essentially increasing the number of USB ports available.

Which of the following devices would allow you to control and provide input commands to multiple servers within the same server rack using a single set of input devices? Touchpad KVM Mouse Keyboard

KVM OBJ-3.1: A keyboard video mouse (KVM) switch is used to support a single set of input and output devices controlling several PCs. A KVM is typically used with servers but 2- port versions allow a single keyboard, mouse, and display to be used with two PCs. Generally, a single KVM installed in each server rack allows the administrator to quickly switch between physical servers within the rack using the same keyboard, mouse, and monitor. A touchpad is an input device used on most laptops to replace a mouse. The touchpad allows the user to control the cursor by moving a finger over the pad's surface. A mouse is an input device that is used to control the movements of a cursor and to select objects on the screen. A keyboard is an input device that is used to enter data into a computer using different key layouts based on the geographical region in which it is used.

The projector in the Dion Training conference room is creating a distorted image when in use. The technician measures the top of the screen at 72" wide and the bottom of the screen at only 66" wide. The technician checks the projector's resolution and the resolution in the operating system's display settings. They notice that they are both set correctly to HDTV (1920 x 1080) mode. Which of the following settings on the project should the technician adjust to fix this distortion? Keystone Contrast Color depth Brightness

Keystone OBJ-5.4: A keystone effect occurs when the top of a projected image is wider or narrower than the bottom of the image. This creates a trapezoid instead of a rectangular image and leads to distortion. To fix the keystone effect in an image, you need to adjust the keystone setting in the projector. The brightness setting will increase or decrease the number of lumens of the projected image to make it lighter or darker. The contrast is the amount of difference between the whiteness and darkness in a projected image. Color depth defines how many unique colors can be displayed by the projected image at once. Brightness, contrast, and color depth do not affect the size or shape of the image being projected.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name on top of the appropriate cable's connector.) Using the image above, which of the following correctly identifies the fiber optic connector shown as Connector C? F ST LC SC

LC OBJ-3.1: This is an LC connector. A ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector is used to terminate a fiber optic cable. An LC, or Lucent connector, is a small form factor connector that combines the transmit and receive cables into a single square, snap-in connector. The F-type connector is used with coaxial cables, not fiber optic cables. An SC, or subscriber connector, is a general-purpose push/pull style connector that has a square, snap-in connector that latches with a simple push-pull motion. SC connectors are widely used in single-mode fiber optic systems. An ST, or straight tip, connector is a quick-release bayonet-style connector that has a long cylindrical connector.

Which of the following types of laptop displays would utilize a fluorescent backlight to illuminate the image? OLED LCD Plasma LED

LCD OBJ-1.2: A LCD (TFT) with fluorescent backlight has been the standard display technology for the last few years. The backlight is a fluorescent bulb that illuminates the image, making it bright and clear. An inverter supplies the correct AC voltage to the backlight from the laptop's DC power circuits. More modern laptops use LED displays that replace the fluorescent backlight with an LED backlight. OLED and plasma displays do not use a backlight.

Which of the following network performance metrics is used to represent the round-trip time it takes for a packet to be sent by a device to a server and then a response received from that destination server? Latency Throughput Bandwidth Jitter

Latency OBJ-5.7: Latency is the measure of time that it takes for data to reach its destination across a network. Usually, we measure network latency as the round-trip time from a workstation to the distant end and back. Bandwidth is the maximum rate of data transfer across a given network. Now, bandwidth is more of a theoretical concept that measures how much data could be transferred from a source to a destination under ideal conditions. Throughput is an actual measure of how much data is successfully transferred from the source to a destination. Therefore, we often measure throughput, instead of bandwidth, to monitor our network performance. Jitter is a network condition that occurs when a time delay in the sending of data packets over a network connection occurs. Jitter is a big problem for any real-time applications you may be supporting on your networks, like video conferences, voice-over IP, and virtual desktop infrastructure clients.

Which of the following cables is NOT used by Android smartphones and tablets? Mini USB USB-C Micro USB Lightning

Lightning OBJ-1.3: Android devices do NOT use the lightning cable because it is a proprietary 8-pin port and connector used solely by Apple devices. The Lightning connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction. Lightning is a proprietary computer bus and power connector created by Apple. The lightning cable is used by every iPhone from the 5 to 13 series. Newer iPads have shifted to the use of USB-C for charging instead of the lightning cable, though. USB-C is the default standard used in USB 3.1 with a 24-pin connector. The connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction. Micro USB is a miniaturized version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) interface developed for connecting compact and mobile devices such as smartphones, Mp3 players, GPS devices, photo printers, and digital cameras. Micro USB connectors exist or have existed in three forms: micro A, micro B, and micro USB 3. Mini USB was introduced with USB 2.0 and was used with digital cameras and early tablets. Mini USB is not commonly used in modern devices.

Which of the following cables was a proprietary cable used in many iPhones and iPads? Lightning USB-C Micro USB Mini USB

Lightning OBJ-1.3: Apple's iPhone and iPad mobile devices use a proprietary 8-pin Lightning port and connector. The Lightning connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction. Lightning is a proprietary computer bus and power connector created by Apple. The lightning cable is used by every iPhone from the 5 to 13 series. Newer iPads have shifted to the use of USB-C for charging instead of the lightning cable, though. USB-C is the default standard used in USB 3.1 with a 24-pin connector. The connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction. Micro USB is a miniaturized version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) interface developed for connecting compact and mobile devices such as smartphones, Mp3 players, GPS devices, photo printers, and digital cameras. Micro USB connectors exist or have existed in three forms: micro A, micro B, and micro USB 3. Mini USB was introduced with USB 2.0 and was used with digital cameras and early tablets. Mini USB is not commonly used in modern devices.

Your friend just noticed their smartphone's battery is running low. Unfortunately, your friend isn't very knowledgeable about computers and smartphones, so they don't know what type of charging cable they need. They know their phone is running iOS 15. What kind of cable does your friend need to charge their phone? Mini USB Micro USB Lightning USB-C

Lightning OBJ-1.3: Lightning cables are used by Apple's iPhone, which are the only smartphones that run the iOS software. Since your friend is using iOS, he uses an iPhone (smartphone) or an older iPad (tablet). Lightning is a proprietary computer bus and power connector created by Apple. The lightning cable is used by every iPhone from the 5 to 13 series. Newer iPads have shifted to the use of USB-C for charging instead of the lightning cable, though. USB-C is the default standard used in USB 3.1 with a 24-pin connector. The connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction. Micro USB is a miniaturized version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) interface developed for connecting compact and mobile devices such as smartphones, Mp3 players, GPS devices, photo printers, and digital cameras. Micro USB connectors exist or have existed in three forms: micro A, micro B, and micro USB 3. Mini USB was introduced with USB 2.0 and was used with digital cameras and early tablets. Mini USB is not commonly used in modern devices.

You are building a bitcoin mining workstation that will have multiple graphics cards, lots of memory, and an octa-core processor. This computer is expected to generate a lot of heat during its operations. Which of the following solutions would MOST efficiently dissipate all of the heat produced? Replace the power supply with a more efficient model Passive heat sink High RPM fans Liquid cooling system

Liquid cooling system OBJ-3.4: Since the system described in the question will have multiple graphics cards (GPUs), lots of memory, and an 8-core CPU, it is expected to generate a lot of heat during its crypto mining operation. For any extremely high-powered processing environment that generates a lot of heat (for example, gaming workstations), liquid cooling becomes the MOST efficient way to dissipate the system's heat. A heat sink is a block of copper or aluminum with fins. A cooling effect occurs when convection is achieved using passive cooling as the fins expose a larger surface area to the air around the component. Fans are used to dissipate the heat generated by the processors by increasing the airflow across the components. Replacing the power supply with a more efficient model can reduce some of the heat generated by the power supply, but it will not reduce the heat generated by the CPU or the graphics cards.

What is used to distribute traffic across multiple sets of devices or connections to increase the overall efficiency of the network and its data processing? Traffic shaping Fault tolerance High availability Load balancing

Load balancing OBJ-2.4: Load balancing refers to the process of distributing a set of tasks over a set of resources to make their overall processing more efficient. Load balancing can optimize the response time and avoid unevenly overloading some compute nodes while other compute nodes are left idle. Traffic shaping, also known as packet shaping, is the manipulation and prioritization of network traffic to reduce the impact of heavy users or machines from affecting other users. Traffic shaping is used to optimize or guarantee performance, improve latency, or increase usable bandwidth for some kinds of packets by delaying other kinds. High availability (HA) is a component of a technology system that eliminates single points of failure to ensure continuous operations or uptime for an extended period. Fault tolerance refers to the ability of a system (computer, network, cloud cluster, etc.) to continue operating without interruption when one or more of its components fail.

Which of the following settings must be enabled on a mobile device to embed the GPS position into a photograph when using your device's camera? Security profile FDE MDM Location services

Location services OBJ-1.4: Location services enable the device to know its position using its internal GPS receiver or its approximate location using its cellular radio. To embed the GPS position into a photograph, location services must be enabled. Mobile device management (MDM) software suites are designed to manage the use of smartphones and tablets within an enterprise. Full device encryption (FDE) is used to encrypt the user and system data stored in the device's internal storage. The encryption key is stored in a protected portion of the device and can be used to remotely wipe the device if it is lost or stolen. A security profile is used to apply different permissions and functionality to an employee's mobile device and is usually configured by an MDM.

What describes an IPv6 address of ::1? Public Loopback Multicast Broadcast

Loopback OBJ-2.5: In IPv6, ::1 is the loopback address. In IPv4, the loopback address is 127.0.0.1. The loopback address is used to send a test signal sent to a network destination to diagnose problems. A broadcast address is an IP address that is used to target all systems on a specific subnet network instead of single hosts. A multicast address is a logical identifier for a group of hosts in a computer network that are available to process datagrams or frames intended to be multicast for a designated network service. The address shown is not a broadcast or multicast address. A public address is routable over the internet but ::1 is a loopback address and therefore not publicly routable on the internet.

While troubleshooting a switch at the Dion Training offices, you believe that one of the ports on a switch is defective. To prove your hypothesis, which of the following tools should you use? Cable tester Loopback plug Punchdown tool Crimper

Loopback plug OBJ-2.8: A loopback plug is used to test a port. It involves connecting pin 1 to pin 3 and pin 2 to pin 6. You can do this either by rewiring the jack or twisting the relevant pairs together on a cable stub. Alternatively, you can purchase a prefabricated loopback plug. When you connect a loopback plug to a port, you should see a solid connection LED. You can also use the loopback plug in conjunction with diagnostic software. A crimper is a tool used to attach an RJ-45 plastic connector to an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) or shielded twisted pair (STP) cable. It pushes a portion of the plastic into the jacket of the cable to hold it in place. A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics. Punchdown tools are used to connect an ethernet cable to the back of a patch panel, a punchdown block, or the back of a network wall jack.

Which of the following technologies would allow an organization to secure and manage their customer enterprise applications that are installed on a user's smartphone or tablet? CDMA GSM MDM MAM

MAM OBJ-1.4: Mobile application management (MAM) is software that secures and enables IT administrators to have control over enterprise applications on end users' corporate and personal smartphones and tablets. MAM software allows IT administrators to apply and enforce corporate policies on mobile apps and limit the sharing of corporate data among apps. Mobile device management (MDM) software suites are designed to manage the use of smartphones and tablets within an enterprise. MAMs focus on the application while MDMs focus on the device. The global system for mobile (GSM) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a SIM card to identify the subscriber and network provider. The code division multiple access (CDMA) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a method of multiplexing a communications channel using a code to key the modulation of a particular signal.

You work for the city's Department of Motor Vehicles (DMV). There are five DMV locations spread out across the city that you have been asked to connect with a network. You have created a list of requirements for this network, including that it must be wired and support at least 1 Gbps of bandwidth. Which of the following network types would MOST likely be used for the DMV to connect their internal networks across the city securely? MAN WAN LAN PAN

MAN OBJ-2.7: A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a computer network that interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic region of the size of a metropolitan or city area. This is the most appropriate choice based on the requirements provided. MAN is a term applied to the interconnection of local area networks (LANs) or campus area networks (CANs) across a city into a single larger network. A MAN is larger than a CAN or LAN but smaller than a WAN. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. Wide area networks are often established with leased telecommunication circuits. A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices.

Which of the following types of network switches allows an administrator to configure advanced networking and security features? Unmanaged switch PoE switch Hub Managed switch

Managed switch OBJ-2.2: A switch is a network device that receives incoming data into a buffer, then the destination MAC address is compared with an address table so that data is only sent out to the port with the corresponding MAC address. In a switched network, each port is in a separate collision domain. A managed switch is a switch with advanced networking functions and security settings that can be enabled and configured by an administrator. An unmanaged switch operates out-of-the-box without any setup or configuration by switching network traffic based on MAC addresses and putting each switch port into its own collision domain. Power over Ethernet (POE) switches provide power over ordinary data cabling to devices such as VoIP handsets and wireless access points. PoE can support up to 15.4W and PoE+ can support up to 25W. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which slows down the entire network.

You and your friends are hanging out in a bar downtown and notice that the entire area around the bar has a great wireless network called "Downtown Metro." This wireless network was built by the city and currently covers about 5 square blocks of the downtown area. What type of network best classifies this wireless network? MAN PAN LAN WAN

MAN OBJ-2.7: A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a computer network that interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic region of the size of a metropolitan or city area. This usually works by providing municipal broadband via Wi-Fi to large parts or all of a municipal area by deploying a wireless mesh network. A wireless mesh network (WMN) is a wireless network topology where all nodes, including client stations, can provide forwarding and path discovery to improve coverage and throughput compared to using just fixed access points and extenders. The typical deployment design uses hundreds of wireless access points deployed outdoors, often on poles. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. Wide area networks are often established with leased telecommunication circuits.

Dion Training has created a custom corporate application for its employees to access its student information database. This application is not found in the public App Store and must be installed directly on the device by one of the Dion Training system administrators. Which of the following technologies should the administrator use to install a profile with their security credentials and this custom application on an employee's iPhone? CDMA NVMe GSM MDM

MDM OBJ-1.4: Apple's iOS prevents custom applications from being loaded onto the device by default. To install a customer corporate application, the system administrator must install a profile with their security credentials along with the application onto the device using a mobile device management (MDM) suite. Once installed, the system administrator must go to Settings -> General -> Profiles and mark it as Trusted. Mobile device management (MDM) software suites are designed to manage the use of smartphones and tablets within an enterprise. The global system for mobile (GSM) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a SIM card to identify the subscriber and network provider. The code division multiple access (CDMA) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a method of multiplexing a communications channel using a code to key the modulation of a particular signal. Non-volatile memory express (NVMe) is an interface for connecting flash memory devices, such as SSDs, directly to a PCI Express bus. NVMe allows much higher transfer rates than SATA/AHCI.

Due to a global pandemic, your company decides to implement a telework policy for its employees. Unfortunately, the company doesn't have enough time to issue laptops and smartphones to each employee. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) has decided to allow employees to use their laptops and smartphones when conducting their work from home. Which of the following technologies should be implemented to allow the company the ability to manage the employees' mobile devices, provide security updates, and perform remote administration? MDM GSM CDMA NVMe

MDM OBJ-1.4: Mobile application management (MAM) is software that secures and enables IT administrators to have control over enterprise applications on end users' corporate and personal smartphones and tablets. MAM software allows IT administrators to apply and enforce corporate policies on mobile apps and limit the sharing of corporate data among apps. Since the employees will be using their laptops and smartphones, the company should implement and install MDM across the employee's devices to better secure their devices if they give the company permission. The global system for mobile (GSM) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a SIM card to identify the subscriber and network provider. The code division multiple access (CDMA) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a method of multiplexing a communications channel using a code to key the modulation of a particular signal. Non-volatile memory express (NVMe) is an interface for connecting flash memory devices, such as SSDs, directly to a PCI Express bus. NVMe allows much higher transfer rates than SATA/AHCI.

Dion Training utilizes a strong authentication model for all of its internal services. If an employee needs to access one of the company's internal applications, they use their username, a password, and a one-time code texted to their smartphone to log in. Which of the following types of authentication is this known as? FaceID TouchID MFA SSO

MFA OBJ-1.3: Multifactor authentication is an authentication scheme that relies on at least two of the five factors: something you know, something you have, something you are, something you do, and somewhere you are. Since the user must enter their username and password, this is something they know. Since the user must enter a one-time code texted to their smartphone, this is something they have. Using this combination is considered two-factor (2FA) or multifactor authentication (MFA). Single Sign-on (SSO) is an authentication technology that allows users to authenticate once and receive authorizations for multiple services. The advantage of single sign-on is that each user does not have to manage multiple user accounts and passwords. The disadvantage is that compromising the account also compromises multiple services. Face ID is an Apple device feature that uses a face lock to grant access to the device. Face ID is considered a form of biometric authentication. Touch ID is an Apple device feature that uses fingerprint biometric information to grant access to the device.

You are currently conducting passive reconnaissance in preparation for an upcoming penetration test against Dion Training. You are reviewing the DNS records for the company and are trying to identify which of their servers accept email messages for their domain name. Which of the following DNS records should you analyze? SRV TXT MX NS

MX OBJ-2.6: Mail Exchange (MX) records are used to provide the mail server that accepts email messages for a particular domain. Nameserver (NS) records are used to list the authoritative DNS server for a particular domain. Text (TXT) records are used to provide information about a resource such as a server, network, or service in human-readable form. They often contain domain verification and domain authentications for third-party tools that can send information on behalf of a domain name. Service (SRV) records are used to provide host and port information on services such as voice over IP (VoIP) and instant messaging (IM) applications.

Your company has recently migrated much of your data center to the cloud. Now, your boss needs a method to monitor all services used in supporting your customers to be properly billed based on their usage. Which of the following cloud computing concepts is your boss describing? Measured services On-demand Resource pooling Rapid elasticity

Measured services OBJ-4.1: Measured service is a term that IT professionals apply to cloud computing that references services where the cloud provider measures or monitors the provision of services for various reasons, including billing, effective use of resources, or overall predictive planning. Rapid elasticity is used to describe scalable provisioning or the capability to provide scalable cloud computing services. Rapid elasticity is very critical to meet the fluctuating demands of cloud users. The downside of rapid elasticity implementations is that they can cause significant loading of the system due to the high resource number of allocation and deallocation requests. On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) Using the image of the motherboard below, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area? PCIe x16 Memory slot PCI CPU slot

Memory slot OBJ-3.2: The area circled indicates the memory slots that contain the RAM. These are also considered DDR3 memory slots based on the key/notch location. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Dion Training has decided to use a PaaS solution to host their training courses. The service charges are based on the number of students enrolled in the courses each month. Which type of cloud computing concept is being demonstrated by this pricing strategy? Synchronization apps Resource pooling Metered service Rapid elasticity

Metered service OBJ-4.1: Resources are measured through metering on a per-use basis. The metering measurement is based on the type of resources such as storage, processing, bandwidth, or active users. The metering mechanism should be accessible to the customer via a reporting dashboard, providing complete transparency in usage and billing. Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Rapid elasticity is used to describe scalable provisioning or the capability to provide scalable cloud computing services. Rapid elasticity is very critical to meet the fluctuating demands of cloud users. The downside of rapid elasticity implementations is that they can cause significant loading of the system due to the high resource number of allocation and deallocation requests. Using a synchronization app can allow the files to be stored on both the laptop and the cloud service while maintaining the latest versions in both places. This allows a user to synchronize content between all of their own devices, as well as share the cloud storage content with other users. Multiple users can simultaneously access the content to work collaboratively, or they can access it at different times. Each user's changes are typically marked with a flag or color highlighting to indicate who made changes to what content.

What type of cloud service bills consumers based on the actual usage of the service and may charge different prices based on the time of day it was utilized? Measured services Metered services Resource pooling Rapid elasticity

Metered services OBJ-4.1: Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Rapid elasticity is used to describe scalable provisioning or the capability to provide scalable cloud computing services. Rapid elasticity is very critical to meet the fluctuating demands of cloud users. The downside of rapid elasticity implementations is that they can cause significant loading of the system due to the high resource number of allocation and deallocation requests. Measured service is a term that IT professionals apply to cloud computing that references services where the cloud provider measures or monitors the provision of services for various reasons, including billing, effective use of resources, or overall predictive planning.

Which of the following technologies could be used in an unlicensed long-range fixed wireless system? Cellular Microwave NFC Bluetooth

Microwave OBJ-2.3: Long-range fixed wireless can be licensed or unlicensed depending on the frequencies and power levels being utilized. For example, an 802.11 wireless network could be established using a directional antenna to connect two buildings over several miles using unlicensed frequencies and minimal power levels (under 200 mW) which are under the FCC limits. Alternatively, a microwave link can be established in the 4.91 GHz to 5.97 GHz unlicensed frequency range using a point-to-multipoint microwave antenna and transceiver system. Conversely, a user could purchase a licensed cellular fixed wireless system that requires a license from the FCC to operate to ensure they are not interfering with other users and services in the same frequency band.

Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area? CPU slot Mini PCIe AGP CMOS battery

Mini PCie OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the Mini PCIe slot. Mini PCIe (mPCIe) are smaller form factor versions of standard PCI Express expansions cards used with laptops and other small form factor computing devices. Mini PCIe expansion cards provide the ability to add wireless networking or cellular data cards to a laptop. These slots can also be used to connect motherboard mounted solid-state storage devices. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Which type of RAID should be used for a virtualization server that must have the fastest speed and highest redundancy level? RAID 1 RAID 10 RAID 0 RAID 5

RAID 10 OBJ-3.3: RAID 10 offers the fastest speed, best reliability, and highest redundancy but is more costly as the overall disk storage will be greatly reduced. A RAID 10 combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data stored in the array and required a minimum of four disks. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.

A client has asked you to build a computer to use as part of their home theater (HTPC) system. The HTPC will be used primarily to stream videos in their living room and must have a small form factor to fit into their entertainment center next to their surround sound system. Which of the following motherboards would be the BEST choice for an HTPC system? Micro-ATX Mini-ITX ITX ATX

Mini-ITX OBJ-3.4: A form factor means the physical dimensions of a system, and the motherboard form factor defines the size of the case you can use. There is no performance difference between different motherboard form factors, except for the size and number of expansion slots. Mini-ITX is the most commonly used form factor with HTPC systems because they require the smallest fans or passive cooling, which minimizes the noise produced by the system. A micro-ATX motherboard produces more heat and is larger than a mini-ITX motherboard. Micro-ATX motherboards also require a larger (and louder) fan to keep the system cooled, so it is a poor choice for an HTPC. An ATX or ITX motherboard is a bad choice since they are larger and would not fit into a traditional HTPC case.

Your cellular carrier allows you to turn on a feature on your smartphone so that you can share its internet connection with other devices close to your smartphone. If you wanted to share the internet connection with multiple devices simultaneously, which feature would you enable? Bluetooth Mobile hotspot Tethering NFC

Mobile hotspot OBJ-1.3: A mobile hotspot can share that connection via Wi-Fi with nearby laptops, tablets, game consoles, or anything that can connect to a Wi-Fi network. This feature turns your smartphone into a Wi-Fi access point and then allows the other devices to connect to your smartphone and gain access to the internet. Tethering is another good option for this question, but tethering only supports a single device sharing the smartphone's internet connection at once. Tethering is the use of a mobile device's cellular data plan to provide Internet access to a laptop or PC. The PC can be tethered to the mobile by USB, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another.

Which of the following types of power supplies allows the installer to attach or remove cables from the power supply as needed to reduce cable clutter inside the computer's case? 750 watt rated power supply Dual voltage power supply Modular power supply Redundant power supply

Modular power supply OBJ-3.5: A modular power supply will allow the user to attach or detach cables to the power supply as needed. This helps reduce the cable clutter inside of the case and increases airflow for cooling. A redundant power supply is when a single piece of computer equipment operates using two or more physical power supplies. Each of the power supplies will have the capacity to run the device on its own, which will allow it to operate even if one goes down. A 750-watt power supply is commonly used in gaming computers since they have high-powered graphics cards. A dual voltage power supply allows the power supply to use either 115 VAC or 230 VAC as its input.

What type of connector provides power to an internal hard drive from the computer's power supply using a 4-pin connector? SATA Molex Thunderbolt SCSI

Molex OBJ-3.1: A Molex connector provides DC power to the various drives inside a computer case. Molex and Mini-Molex are both 4-pins connectors, with Mini-Molex only being used to support floppy disk drives. The large-sized one is used for hard disk drives, CD-ROM drives, and DVD drives. SATA connectors have 15 pin and 7 pin varieties. Thunderbolt has 20 and 24 pin varieties. SCSI has 50 and 36 pin varieties.

You want to build a virtualization workstation that will be used to run four different server operating systems simultaneously to create a test lab environment. Each guest operating system only requires 20 GB of storage on the host workstation. Which of the following is the MOST important piece of hardware needed for this system to run efficiently? Multi-core processor Dedicated GPU 5400 RPM hard disk drive ATX motherboard

Multi-core processor OBJ-4.2: For a virtualization workstation, it is important to have a fast processor with multiple cores. In addition to a multi-core processor, it is good to have lots of memory and a fast HDD (but not necessarily a large HDD). A dedicated GPU (graphical processing unit) is not important for a virtualization workstation. Many virtualized servers run in text-only mode or with a headless display, making a dedicated GPU a poor choice.

Dion Training has asked you to verify that a server rack has been properly installed and grounded. Which tool should you utilize to verify that the server rack is properly grounded? Multimeter Voltmeter Toner probe Loopback plug

Multimeter OBJ-2.8: A multimeter can measure the voltage, amperage, and resistance of a circuit. If you use the lowest ohms (resistance) setting, you can touch the multimeter's black lead to a grounded metal surface and touch the red lead to each circuit wire. If you get a meter reading of zero ohms (low resistance), this indicates that the circuit is properly grounded. If you get a meter reading of infinity, O.L., Open Loop, or a needle that pegs high on the meter, this indicates an open circuit with no path to ground. A voltmeter can only measure the voltage, not the amperage or resistance of the circuit. A loopback plug is used to test a port. When you connect a loopback plug to a port, you should see a solid connection LED. You can also use the loopback plug in conjunction with diagnostic software. A tone generator is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively.

A workstation is having intermittent issues and continues to receive system errors or freeze. You believe that the problem is being caused by the workstation's motherboard, not getting the proper amount of power to it, and you want to perform a test to confirm your theory. Which of the following tools should you use to determine if the proper amount of power is being supplied to the motherboard? Cable tester Loopback plug Multimeter POST card

Multimeter OBJ-5.2: A multimeter can measure the voltage, amperage, and resistance of a circuit. A multimeter can be a hand-held device useful for basic fault finding and field service work or a bench instrument that can measure electricity with a high degree of accuracy. Using a multimeter, you can determine the exact voltage being supplied to the motherboard from the workstation's power supply. A POST card is a plug-in diagnostic interface card that displays progress and error codes generated during the power-on self-test of a computer. A loopback plug is used to test a port. When you connect a loopback plug to a port, you should see a solid connection LED. You can also use the loopback plug in conjunction with diagnostic software. A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics.

Both Apple and Samsung have released their own version of contactless mobile payment solutions. For example, Apple Pay allows users to place their iPhone or Apple Watch within an inch of a credit card machine at a store to make a payment. Which of the following wireless technologies do these types of payment systems rely upon? Infrared Bluetooth NFC Wi-Fi

NFC OBJ-1.3: NFC, or near-field communication, is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. Infrared (IR) was a wireless networking standard supporting speeds up to about 4 Mbps with a direct line of sight for communications. Infrared sensors are used in mobile devices and with IR blasters to control appliances. While infrared (IR) used to be commonly used to connect wireless mice and keyboards to a laptop in the 1990s, it has fallen out of favor in the last 10-15 years since Bluetooth is more reliable and does not require a direct line of sight between the device and the laptop. Wi-Fi is the IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless networking based on spread spectrum radio transmission in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands. The standard has six main iterations (a, b, g, n, ac, and ax), describing different modulation techniques, supported distances, and data rates.

Which of the following technologies would allow your laptop to share content with a mobile device wirelessly using touchless transfer? USB-C mPCIe NVMe NFC

NFC OBJ-1.1: Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. Mini PCIe (mPCIe) are smaller form factor versions of standard PCI Express expansions cards used with laptops and other small form factor computing devices. Mini PCIe expansion cards provide the ability to add wireless networking or cellular data cards to a laptop. Non-volatile memory express (NVMe) is an interface for connecting flash memory devices, such as SSDs, directly to a PCI Express bus. NVMe allows much higher transfer rates than SATA/AHCI. USB-C is the default standard used in USB 3.1 with a 24-pin connector. The connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction.

You are at the grocery store. At the checkout, you place your smartphone near the payment terminal to authorize the charge. Which of the following technologies did you use to make this purchase? Smart card Zigbee NFC KVM

NFC OBJ-1.3: NFC (near-field communication) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices to establish communication by bringing them within an inch or two (3-4 cm) of each other. Most modern smartphones use NFC to provide payment information between a smartphone and an NFC reader at the store. Apple Pay and Google Pay are examples of NFC payment solutions. Zigbee is a low-power wireless communications open-source protocol used primarily for home automation. Zigbee uses radio frequencies in the 2.4 GHz band and a mesh topology. A smart card is a card with a chip containing data on it. Smart cards are typically used for authentication, with the chip storing authentication data such as a digital certificate. A keyboard video mouse (KVM) switch is used to support a single set of input and output devices controlling several PCs. A KVM is more typically used with servers but 2- port versions allow a single keyboard, mouse, and display to be used with two PCs.

You are configuring a new server for a client. The client has purchased five 1 TB hard drives and would like the server's storage system to provide redundancy and double fault tolerance. Which of the following configurations would BEST meet the client's requirements? RAID 10 RAID 0 RAID 1 RAID 5

RAID 10 OBJ-3.3: RAID 10 provides for redundancy and double fault tolerance. RAID 10, also known as RAID 1+0, is a RAID configuration that combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data. It requires a minimum of four disks and stripes data across mirrored pairs. As long as one disk in each mirrored pair is functional, data can be retrieved. RAID 5 is a redundant array of independent disks configuration that uses disk striping with parity, but it only provides single fault tolerance. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks.

A new smartphone supports users' ability to transfer a photograph by simply placing their phones near each other and "tapping" the two phones together. What type of technology does this most likely rely on? BT NFC IR RF

NFC OBJ-1.3: Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. Bluetooth (BT) is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. Infrared (IR) was a wireless networking standard supporting speeds up to about 4 Mbps with a direct line of sight for communications. Infrared sensors are used in mobile devices and with IR blasters to control appliances. While infrared (IR) used to be commonly used to connect wireless mice and keyboards to a laptop in the 1990s, it has fallen out of favor in the last 10-15 years since Bluetooth is more reliable and does not require a direct line of sight between the device and the laptop. Radio frequency (RF) is the propagation of radio waves at different frequencies and wavelengths. For example, Wi-Fi network products use a frequency of either 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz

Natalie just bought a new mobile Android phone, but her current phone is an iPhone. She needs to move all of her phone's existing contacts and appointments from her calendar from her current phone to her new phone. Natalie's iPhone was configured to use her Dion Training corporate account to save all her contacts and appointments to their cloud-based service, as well. Which of the following is the BEST way for Natalie to migrate her data from her old iPhone to her new Android device? Natalie should perform a backup of her iPhone using iTunes on her PC and then import the contacts and appointments from her PC to her new Android device Natalie should log into her corporate email account on the new Android phone and restore her contacts and appointments to the new device Natalie should create an NFC connection to transfer all compatible data between the iPhone and the Android devices Natalie should create a wireless Bluetooth connection between the iPhone and the Android devices and use it to copy her contacts and appointments to the new device

Natalie should log into her corporate email account on the new Android phone and restore her contacts and appointments to the new device OBJ-1.4: Since Natalie has a corporate account used to synchronize data from her device to the cloud, the easier and quickest method would be to fully synchronize her contacts and appointments to her corporate cloud-based account from her old device first. Then, she can configure her new Android device to access her corporate account. It will automatically download and synchronize the data from the cloud-based servers onto her new Android device. Moving data over Bluetooth from an iPhone to an Android can be complicated, so using the cloud synchronization option would be easier and faster. You cannot use iTunes to move data from an iPhone to an Android device since iTunes only supports iPhone and iPad devices. While NFC can transfer data between two phones that are placed close together, it is not the optimal way to transmit large amounts of data such as all of the contacts or appointments from a previous phone.

Which of the following protocols operates over port 139 by default? SMB IMAP NetBIOS HTTPS

NetBIOS OBJ-2.1: The network basic input/output system (NetBIOS)/NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is a session management protocol used to provide name registration and resolution services on legacy Microsoft networks and those using WINS. NetBIOS/NetBT operates on TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The server message block (SMB)/common internet file system (CIFS) is a protocol used for requesting files from Windows servers and delivering them to clients. SMB allows machines to share files and printers, thereby making them available for other machines to use. Samba software allows UNIX and Linux servers or NAS appliances to run SMB services for Windows clients. SMB operates on port 445.

Which of the following protocols operates over port 137 by default? LDAP NetBIOS IMAP RDP

NetBIOS OBJ-2.1: The network basic input/output system (NetBIOS)/NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is a session management protocol used to provide name registration and resolution services on legacy Microsoft networks and those using WINS. NetBIOS/NetBT operates on TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) is a protocol used to access and update information in an X.500-style network resource directory. LDAP uses port 389. The remote desktop protocol (RDP) is a protocol used for the remote administration of a host using a graphical user interface. RDP operates over TCP port 3389.

What type of expansion bus technology uses lanes with point-to-point communication paths between two components on the motherboard? AGP PCI PCIe PCI-X

PCIe OBJ-3.4: PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) uses lanes between any two intercommunicating devices. This utilizes a separated pair of wires for both directions of traffic. This increases the bus lanes' speed since there is no possibility of collisions or waiting for other devices to finish communicating. PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has some PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. Graphics cards almost exclusively rely on PCIe x16 expansion slots for their connectivity. AGP, PCI, and PCI-X are older technologies that rely on shared busses for communication.

Which of the following types of networking hardware is installed in a computer or server to connect to an ethernet switch using a CAT 6 cable? Cable modem Optical network terminal Network interface card Digital subscriber line

Network interface card OBJ-2.2: A network interface card is an expansion card that enables a PC to connect to a LAN. Network interface cards are also referred to as network adapters. A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network's high bandwidth. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user's home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that connects fiber optics cables to other types of wiring such as Ethernet and phone lines by converting the signal from optical to electrical and vice versa. An ONT is commonly used with fiber to the house (FTTH) installations.

A cybersecurity analyst wants to install a network appliance to conduct packet capturing of the network traffic between the router and the firewall on the network. The device should not be installed in line with the network, so it must receive a copy of all traffic flowing to or from the firewall. Which of the following tools is required to meet these requirements? WiFi analyzer Toner probe Loopback plug Network tap

Network tap OBJ-2.8: A network tap is used to create a physical connection to the network that sends a copy of every packet received to a monitoring device for capture and analysis. A WiFi analyzer can determine the wireless network's signal strength, the frequencies in use, and any possible radio frequency interference. A tone generator is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively. A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics.

Eleanor, a user, contacts the help desk to report that her workstation will not boot up this morning. The help desk technician verifies that the workstation's memory, power supply, and monitor function properly. The technician believes that the hard drive is not recognized by the system based on an error message displayed on the screen. Which of the following error messages was being displayed? BIOS ROM checksum error NTLDR not found No boot device available Operating system not found

No boot device available OBJ-5.3: "No boot device available" is an error message that indicates the workstation is not recognizing the hard drive. If the error message were "Operating system not found" or "NTLDR not found," this would indicate that the hard drive was recognized but that the Windows OS was not installed properly. The "BIOS ROM checksum error" would indicate an issue with the BIOS, not the hard drive.

Tamera was responding to a complaint that one of the employees is having problems with the wired network connection on their laptop. She investigated the issue to see why it will not connect to the network. Tamera looked at the indicator lights, but she doesn't see the blinking she expected to view. Instead, the light is steady. What is MOST likely the issue? Incorrect TCP/IP configuration Intermittent connectivity Low RF signal No network activity

No network activity OBJ-5.7: If the lights are steady on a network interface card (NIC), it indicates that there is no network activity. If it is blinking, this indicates that data is passing over the NIC to the network. Even if there were an incorrect TCP/IP configuration or intermittent connectivity, there would be blinking lights to indicate transmission attempts. Since this is a wired network connection, it cannot be a low RF signal as that is a wireless network problem.

A computer technician is replacing a failed power supply in a customer's gaming workstation that contains multiple hard drives and a dedicated graphics card. Which of the following are the two most important things for the technician to consider when selecting a power supply replacement for this system? (Select TWO) Number and type of connectors Dual voltage Wattage rating Dual rail

Number and type of connectors & Wattage rating OBJ-3.5: The technician must ensure that they select a new power supply with a high enough wattage rating and the right number/type of connectors. Since this is a gaming workstation with several hard drives and a dedicated graphics card, it is likely to require a large wattage rating and many connectors. Wattage defines the amount of power needed to power all the hardware in the system. The number of connectors defines the number of devices that can be powered from the power supply. The number of connectors defines the types of devices that can be powered from the power supply.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area? AGP PCI PCIe x4 PCIe x1

PCIe x1 OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the PCIe x1 slots. PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has some PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. PCIe x1 slots are usually used for external input/output devices such as network interface cards. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Dion Consulting Group is working with a new laptop manufacturer. The manufacturer wants to create the thinnest and lightest laptops in the world. To do this, they need to choose the right technology for their displays. Which technology should Dion Consulting recommend to allow for the thinnest laptop displays? IPS LED OLED LCD

OLED OBJ-1.2: An OLED display works without a backlight because it emits visible light. Thus, it can display deep black levels and be thinner and lighter than a liquid crystal display (LCD). In low ambient light conditions (such as a darker room), an OLED screen can achieve a higher contrast ratio than an LCD, regardless of whether the LCD uses cold cathode fluorescent lamps or an LED backlight. An in-plane switching (IPS) LCD panel uses technology designed to resolve the quality issues inherent in TN panel technology, including strong viewing angle dependence and low-quality color reproduction. A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. The LCD panel is backlight by a cold cathode fluorescent (CCFL) bulb. LCD panels are used on laptops and have replaced CRT monitors as the main type of computer display screen for desktops, as well. A light-emitting diode (LED) display is an LCD panel that uses a LED backlight instead of a CCFL backlight to provide its light source.

Which cloud computing concept allows users to store files on a cloud-based server when necessary and copy that data from the cloud, and put it back on the device when space once again becomes available on the device? Resource pooling Shared resources On-demand Synchronization application

On-demand OBJ-4.1: On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. In this question, the cloud storage is provisioned and deprovisioned automatically for the user, and thereby it would be categorized as on-demand. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Using a synchronization app can allow the files to be stored on both the laptop and the cloud service while maintaining the latest versions in both places. This allows a user to synchronize content between all of their own devices as well as share their cloud storage content with other users. Multiple users can simultaneously access the content to work collaboratively, or they can access it at different times. Each user's changes are typically marked with a flag or color highlighting to indicate who made changes to what content. Shared resources are any resources shared by multiple users or systems within an internal or cloud-based network.

Your boss is looking for a recommendation for a backup solution that can backup non-sensitive data in the most cost-efficient way. The company already has an Office 365 subscription for each employee. The employees should be able to backup and access their data from anywhere using their laptops, smartphones, or tablets. Which of the following solutions should you recommend? AWS S3 iCloud OneDrive G Suite

OneDrive OBJ-4.1: OneDrive is a Microsoft product that comes as part of the Office 365 subscription package. The other options can also provide the capabilities requested, but there would be a separate cost to utilize them. Therefore, you should recommend OneDrive in this scenario. OneDrive can utilize the storage that is easy to access from a laptop, smartphone, or tablet while the employees are away from their offices. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions.

Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to deliver broadband internet access using a fiber connection to the user's home or office? Cable modem Optical network terminal Software-defined networking Digital subscriber line

Optical network terminal OBJ-2.2: An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that connects fiber optics cables to other types of wiring such as Ethernet and phone lines by converting the signal from optical to electrical and vice versa. An ONT is commonly used with fiber to the house (FTTH) installations. A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network's high bandwidth. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user's home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). Software-defined networking (SDN) is an approach to network management that enables dynamic, programmatically efficient network configuration to improve network performance and monitoring, making it more like cloud computing than traditional network management. Software-defined networking (SDN) uses Application Programming Interfaces (API) and compatible hardware that allows for the programming of network appliances and systems.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area? PATA connector Audio connector Front connector SATA connector

PATA connector OBJ-3.1: The area circled indicates the PATA connector on this motherboard. The parallel advanced technology attachment (PATA) used to be the main disk interface for computers until it was replaced by SATA connections. PATA was formerly called integrated drive electronics (IDE) or enhanced IDE (EIDE). Each PATA adapter supports two devices, commonly called primary and secondary. A PATA drive is connected to the bus by a 40-pin ribbon cable. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

You are building a Desktop PC for a newly hired employee at Dion Training. The computer's motherboard doesn't have a wireless network adapter integrated into it, so you need to purchase an expansion card to provide this functionality. Which of the following motherboard connections will most likely be used to connect the wireless network adapter card? AGP eSATA PCIe x1 PCIe x16

PCIe x1 OBJ-3.4: PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has several PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. Network adapters and Wi-Fi network cards almost exclusively rely on PCIe x1 expansion slots or a USB connection for their connectivity. Graphics cards usually rely on a PCIe x16 expansion slot. eSATA is an external SATA port used to connect an external storage device such as a hard drive. The accelerated graphics port (AGP) is a parallel expansion card standard that was originally designed for attaching a video card to a computer system to assist in the acceleration of 3D computer graphics. AGP has been replaced with PCIe due to its faster speeds.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area? PCI PCIe x16 AGP PCIe x4

PCIe x16 OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the PCIe x16 (PCI Express x16) slots. PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has some PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. Graphics cards almost exclusively rely on PCIe x16 expansion slots for their connectivity. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the motherboard.)\ Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area? PCIe x8 PCIe x4 PCIe x1 PCIe x16

PCIe x8 OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the PCIe x8 slot on this motherboard.PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has some PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

You have been asked to set up the email on a corporate laptop. The employees of Dion Training are only allowed to receive their email on one device. The email should be removed from the server's mailbox whenever the client connects to the server to download the messages. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow an employee to receive their mail on their laptop and meet these requirements? HTTPS POP3 IMAP SMTP

POP3 OBJ-1.4: You should configure POP3 because the mail is downloaded to the device and removes mail from the server's mailbox by default. IMAP does not remove the mail from the server when the client connects but instead maintains a copy on the server indefinitely until the user forces it to be deleted. SMTP is used to send emails, not receive them. HTTPS is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.

Which of the following is used when a CDMA smartphone attempts to connect to the cellular network while traveling? (Select ANY that apply) Firmware Baseband PRL PRI

PRL, PRI OBJ-1.4: The PRI and PRL must be updated and referenced when traveling. The preferred roaming index (PRI) is an index that works with the PRL to provide the best data/voice quality to a phone while roaming. The preferred roaming list (PRL) is a database built by CDMA service carriers to indicate which radio bands should be used when connecting to a cell tower. The baseband is the embedded operating system in the firmware of a smartphone or other cellular device. The firmware is a set of software instructions stored semi-permanently (embedded) on a hardware device. Modern types of firmware are stored in flash memory and can be updated more easily than legacy programmable Read-Only Memory (ROM) types. The baseband and firmware would not be updated or changed based on your location. The baseband is changed or updated when a security update is needed.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the port cluster.) Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as A? USB SPDIF PS/2 FireWire

PS/2 OBJ-3.1: This port is the PS/2 connection. It is used for legacy keyboards and mice before the widespread use of USB ports. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard's rear port cluster by sight.

What type of cloud service would provide you with a complete development and deployment environment in the cloud for you to create customized cloud-based apps? IaaS DaaS PaaS SaaS

PaaS OBJ-4.1: Platform as a service (PaaS) is a complete development and deployment environment in the cloud, with resources that enable you to deliver everything from simple cloud-based apps to sophisticated, cloud-enabled enterprise applications. You purchase the resources you need from a cloud service provider on a pay-as-you-go basis and access them over a secure Internet connection. PaaS includes infrastructure (servers, storage, and networking) and middleware, development tools, business intelligence (BI) services, database management systems, and more. PaaS allows you to avoid the expense and complexity of buying and managing software licenses, the underlying application infrastructure and middleware, container orchestrators, or the development tools and other resources. You manage the applications and services you develop, and the cloud service provider typically manages everything else. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

What type of cloud service would allow you to provide a cloud-based application to your employees using their smartphones? PaaS SaaS IaaS DaaS

PaaS OBJ-4.1: Software as a service (SaaS) allows users to connect to and use cloud-based apps over the Internet. Common examples are email, calendaring, and office tools. SaaS provides a complete software solution that you purchase on a pay-as-you-go basis from a cloud service provider. You rent the use of an app for your organization, and your users connect to it over the Internet, usually with a web browser. All of the underlying infrastructure, middleware, app software, and app data are located in the service provider's data center. The service provider manages the hardware and software, and with the appropriate service agreement, it will ensure the availability and the security of the app and your data. SaaS allows your organization to get quickly up and running with an app at minimal upfront cost. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

Which of the following cloud services should an organization choose to develop a new iPhone app without having to configure and set up its own development environment? PaaS DaaS IaaS SaaS

PaaS OBJ-4.1: Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a complete development and deployment environment in the cloud, with resources that enable you to deliver everything from simple cloud-based apps to sophisticated, cloud-enabled enterprise applications. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a type of cloud computing service that offers essential compute, storage, and networking resources on-demand, on a pay-as-you-go basis. Software as a Service (SaaS) allows users to connect to and use cloud-based apps over the Internet. Common examples are email, calendaring, and office tools (such as Microsoft Office 365). SaaS provides a complete software solution that you purchase on a pay-as-you-go basis from a cloud service provider. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) is a cloud computing offering where a service provider delivers virtual desktops to end-users over the Internet, licensed with a per-user subscription. DaaS is often called Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI).

You just bought a new car and want to use the built-in stereo to make and receive calls on your smartphone. Which of the following should you perform to connect your smartphone to the car stereo? Enabling Wi-Fi Installing the device drivers Enabling NFC Pairing the device

Pairing the device OBJ-1.4: By pairing the device, you will establish the Bluetooth connection between your smartphone and the car stereo. Bluetooth is commonly used to create a wireless connection between a smartphone and a car stereo for making/receiving phone calls, streaming music from the smartphone to the stereo, and other functions supported by the stereo. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. Wi-Fi is the IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless networking based on spread spectrum radio transmission in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands. The standard has six main iterations (a, b, g, n, ac, and ax), describing different modulation techniques, supported distances, and data rates. A device driver is a small piece of code that is loaded during the boot sequence of an operating system. This code, usually provided by the hardware vendor, provides access to a device, or hardware, from the OS kernel. Under Windows, a signing system is in place for drivers to ensure that they do not make the OS unstable.

A computer technician is configuring a NAS for a company to store their corporate data. The technician has only two hard drives available for use and needs to ensure that the data's fault tolerance and redundancy. Which of the following would be is the best configuration to implement? RAID 0 RAID 10 RAID 1 RAID 5

RAID 1 OBJ-3.3: While either a RAID 0 or RAID 1 can be used with only two drives, only a RAID 1 will provide redundancy and fault tolerance. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. With a RAID 1, one of the hard drives can fail while the other drive can still operate until the bad drive is replaced. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks. A RAID 10 combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data stored in the array and required a minimum of four disks. A RAID 5 requires at least three hard drives to operate, and a RAID 10 requires at least four hard drives to operate; therefore, neither is an acceptable solution to this problem.

Which of the following devices is installed in a communication closet to connect network wall jacks to a network switch using pre-wired RJ-45 ports? Patch panel Hub Access point Router

Patch panel OBJ-2.2: A patch panel is used in a structured cabling system. A computer is connected to a wall jack in this cable system and then connected to a patch panel by cabling running through the walls. A pre-wired RJ-45 port on the patch panel is then connected to a port on the switch using a straight-through or patch cable. A router is a network device that links dissimilar networks and can support multiple alternate paths between locations based upon the parameters of speed, traffic loads, and cost. Routers are used to logically divide networks into subnets. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An AP supports the connection of multiple wireless devices through their one wired connection. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which can slow down the entire network.

The video editor at Dion Training has submitted a trouble ticket stating her editing workstation makes a loud clicking noise whenever she is editing videos for an upcoming course. You initially thought the system fans were causing the noise. You have replaced the fans, but the noise continues to be heard when applications are loaded or the videos are being edited. Which of the following actions should you perform NEXT? Replace the hard disk Scan the system for viruses Perform a System Restore Perform a full backup of the hard disk

Perform a full backup of the hard disk OBJ-5.3: The next thing you should do is to perform a full backup of the hard drive. A clicking noise is commonly associated with a hard drive that is about to fail. Therefore, you should first conduct a full backup of the hard drive and then replace the faulty drive with a new hard drive to prevent any data loss from occurring.

Tim, a help desk technician, receives a call from a frantic executive who states that their company-issued smartphone was stolen during their lunch meeting with a rival company's executive. Tim quickly checks the MDM administration tool and identifies that the user's smartphone is still communicating with the MDM, and displays its location on a map. What should Tim do next to ensure the stolen device's data remains confidential and inaccessible to the thief? Reset the device's password Identify the IP address of the smartphone Remotely encrypt the device Perform a remote wipe of the device

Perform a remote wipe of the device OBJ-1.4: To ensure the data remains confidential and is not accessed by the thief, Tim should perform a remote wipe of the device from the MDM. This will ensure any corporate data is erased before anyone accesses it. Additionally, Tim could reset the device's password, but if the thief can guess or crack the password, they would have access to the data. Identifying the smartphone's IP address is not a useful step in protecting the data on the device. Additionally, devices should be encrypted BEFORE they are lost or stolen, not after. Therefore, the option to remotely encrypt the device is provided as a wrong answer and a distractor.

A company has just installed a VoIP system on its network. Before the installation, all of the switches were replaced with layer 3 multilayer switches to allow for the VoIP devices to be placed on separate VLANs and have the packets routed accurately between them. What type of network segmentation technique is this an example of? Compliance enforcement Performance optimization Separate public/private networking Honeynet implementation

Performance optimization OBJ-5.7: Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) performance optimization can help a business improve the quality of its video and audio communications over the Internet by decreasing the size of the broadcast domain through the creation of VLANs. Each VLAN can contain the VoIP devices for a single department or business unit, and traffic is routed between the VLANs using layer 3 multilayer switches to increase the performance of the voice communication systems. Performance optimization helps companies bolster the availability, accessibility, security, and overall performance of their networks. Compliance enforcement involves dividing up one network into smaller sections to better control the flow of traffic across the network and to restrict confidential data to a specific network segment based on a specific regulation or contractual requirement, such as PCI DSS segmentation requirements. A honeynet is an intentionally vulnerable network segment that is used to observe and investigate the attack techniques of a hacker or adversary. Separate public/private networking involves segmenting the network into two portions: public and private. This is often used in cloud architectures to protect private data.

You have been asked to configure your neighbor's SOHO network. Your neighbor wants to build a Minecraft server so that all their friends can play together over the internet. When configuring their firewall, where should you place the server? WAN LAN MAN Perimeter network

Perimeter network OBJ-2.5: A perimeter network (formerly called a Demilitarized Zone or DMZ) is a portion of a private network connected to the Internet and protected against intrusion. Certain services may need to be made publicly accessible from the Internet (such as a web, email, or Minecraft server) and they should be installed in the perimeter network instead of in your intranet. If communication is required between hosts on either side of a perimeter network, then a host within the perimeter network will act as a proxy to take the request. If the request is valid, it re-transmits it to the destination. External hosts have no idea about what is behind the perimeter network so that the intranet remains secure. A perimeter network can be implemented using either two firewalls (screened subnet) or a single three-legged firewall (one with three network ports). In this SOHO network, it would use a single three-legged firewall approach to separate the perimeter network from the LAN and WAN. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a network that covers a geographical area equivalent to a city or municipality.

Which of the following is NOT categorized as wearable technology? VR headsets Smartwatches Phablets Fitness monitors

Phablets OBJ-1.3: Phablets are essentially large smartphones. Their size is smaller than a tablet but larger than a smartphone. Generally, smartphones that have screen sizes between 5.5" and 7" are considered phablets by manufacturers. Many phablets also come with a stylus for note-taking on the larger screen size instead of using your finger. Smartwatches, fitness monitors, and VR headsets are all considered wearable technology or wearables. Fitness monitors are wearable mobile devices that focus on tracking the health and exercise habits of their users. A high-end smartwatch (for example, an Apple Watch) will allow the user to see their notifications, chat activity, and even make phone calls. A mid-range or low-end smartwatch can still have the ability to read your chat and notifications, but you may be unable to make phone calls from it. A virtual reality headset (VR) is a headset worn like goggles to interact with images displayed in the headset. Virtual reality is a computer-generated, simulated environment experienced via a headset connected to a PC or powered by a smartphone.

What is the lowest layer (bottom layer) of a bare-metal virtualization environment? Physical hardware Guest operating system Host operating system Hypervisor

Physical hardware OBJ-4.2: The bottom layer is physical hardware in this environment. It is what sits beneath the hypervisor and controls access to guest operating systems. The bare-metal approach doesn't have a host operating system. A hypervisor is a program used to run and manage one or more virtual machines on a computer. A host operating system is an operating system that is running the hypervisor. A host operating system is an operating system that is running the hypervisor.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area? Port cluster Front connection PATA connector AGP

Port cluster OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the port cluster on the rear of the motherboard. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Which of the following locations are you likely to find the antenna wires located within a laptop or mobile device? Laying on top of the battery Connected externally via USB Located under the keyboard Positioned around the display panel

Positioned around the display panel OBJ-1.2: The antenna wires for the wireless cards and cellular radios are usually routed around the screen within the casing of the laptop or mobile device. The antenna connections can be tricky to install/remove and are delicate. When updating or replacing a wireless or cellular card, the technician must be careful to reconnect the antenna wires and reinstall them in the proper location. External antennas are available only when connected to an external wireless card.

What is the name of the printer concept that is used a page description language that produces higher quality outputs at the expense of speed? Printer control language PostScript Internet Printing Protocol Line Printer Daemon

PostScript OBJ-3.6: Both the printer control language (PCL) and PostScript (PS) are page description languages, but PS produces higher quality outputs. The printer control language (PCL) is a page description language used to tell printers how to properly layout and print the contents of a document on a page. PCL is a common printing language that is supported by many different printer manufacturers. PostScript (PS) is the page description language used in the electronic publishing and desktop publishing business. PCL is faster to print than PS. PS is slower but produces higher quality outputs. The Internet Printing Protocol (IPP) is a specialized Internet protocol for communication between client devices and printers (or print servers) using the HTTP protocol for data transport. The Line Printer Daemon (LPD) protocol is a network printing protocol for submitting print jobs to a remote printer. LPD is an older protocol than IPP.

You are troubleshooting a computer that will not boot. You do not hear anything when you attempt to boot the computer, but you smell something that reminds you of burning plastic. Which of the following tools should you use to diagnose the problem with this computer? Power supply tester Toner probe ESD strap Cable tester

Power supply tester OBJ-5.2: The smell of burning plastic and the computer not turning on are symptoms of a power supply issue. Therefore, you should use a power supply (PSU) tester. A burning smell emitting from your laptop indicates that your machine's cooling system is not functioning properly. If your laptop smells like something is burning, this usually means that your computer is overheating. This can be caused by a fan not working properly. For example, if the power supply unit's fan isn't working properly, the unit can overheat, and the wiring in the power supply's transformer can start to burn or melt. This can then cause the power supply unit to fail, too.

Which of the following requires the use of a physical printer to print a document? Print to Image Print to PDF Print to XPS Print to Network

Print to Network OBJ-3.6: Printing to a network printer still requires access to a physical device connected to the network. The other options (Print to Image, Print to PDF, Print to XPS, and similarly Print to File) are all virtual printing methods. These methods will create a file of a specific type with the contents of the printed information. These methods allow a user the ability to print to a file, a PDF (Portable Document Format), XPS (XML Paper Specification - a Microsoft alternative to PDF), or an image (photo).

Which RAID solution will provide the BEST speed and redundancy for a backup and disaster recovery server? RAID 10 RAID 5 RAID 1 RAID 0

RAID 10 OBJ-3.3: RAID 10 provides the system with both speed and efficiency. With RAID 10, the system has a mirror of striped disks for full redundancy and double fault tolerance. RAID 10 configuration (also known as RAID 1+0) requires a minimum of four disks and mirrors data across a striped disk pair. This is not only the best option presented in this question but also the most expensive option. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.

Samantha works in the human resource department in an open floorplan office. She is concerned about the possibility of someone conducting shoulder surfing to read sensitive information from employee files while accessing them on her computer. Which of the following physical security measures should she implement to protect against this threat? Badge reader Privacy screen Biometric lock Hardware token

Privacy screen OBJ-1.1: A privacy screen is a filter placed on a monitor to decrease the viewing angle of a monitor. This prevents the monitor from being viewed from the side and can help prevent shoulder surfing. The standard type of anti-glare filter consists of a coating that reduces the reflection from a glass or plastic surface. A biometric lock is any lock that can be activated by biometric features, such as a fingerprint, voiceprint, or retina scan. Biometric locks make it more difficult for someone to counterfeit the key used to open the lock or a user's account. A smart card is a form of hardware token. A smart card, chip card, or integrated circuit card is a physical, electronic authorization device used to control access to a resource. It is typically a plastic credit card-sized card with an embedded integrated circuit chip. In high-security environments, employee badges may contain a smart card embedded chip that must be inserted into a smart card reader to log in or access information on the system. A badge reader is used to read an employee's identification badge using a magnetic stripe, barcode, or embedded RFID chip.

Your company has decided to move all of its data into the cloud. Your company is concerned about the privacy of its data due to some recent data breaches that have been in the news. Therefore, they have decided to purchase cloud storage resources that will be dedicated solely for their use. Which of the following types of clouds is your company using? Public Community Private Hybrid

Private OBJ-4.1: A private cloud contains services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. A private cloud is usually managed via internal resources. The terms private cloud and virtual private cloud (VPC) are often used interchangeably. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A community cloud is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns (security, compliance, jurisdiction, etc.), whether managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally. A community cloud is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns (security, compliance, jurisdiction, etc.), whether managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally.

Your boss is looking for a recommendation for a cloud solution that will only allow your company's employees to use the service while preventing anyone else from accessing it. What type of cloud model would you recommend to ensure the contents are best secured from those outside your company? Hybrid Cloud Private Cloud Public Cloud Community Cloud

Private Cloud OBJ-4.1: A private cloud service would be the best recommendation to protect and secure the services from those outside the company from accessing its contents. The private cloud is defined as computing services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. Private cloud computing gives businesses many of the benefits of a public cloud including self-service, scalability, and elasticity with the additional control and customization available from dedicated resources over a computing infrastructure hosted on-premises. Private clouds also deliver a higher level of security and privacy through both company firewalls and internal hosting to ensure operations and sensitive data are not accessible to third-party providers. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A community cloud is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns (security, compliance, jurisdiction, etc.), whether managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop the steps into their sequential order.) Which of the following sequence of events properly identifies the steps of a laser printer's imaging process? Charging, processing, exposing, transferring, developing, fusing, and cleaning Cleaning, charging, developing, exposing, transferring, fusing, and processing Developing, processing, charging, exposing, cleaning, transferring, and fusing Processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, and cleaning

Processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, and cleaning OBJ-3.7: The proper sequence of events when printing a document using a laser printer is processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, and cleaning. This is referred to as the imaging process.

Dion Training has asked you to consult on the installation of their new file server. The current server consists of a RAID 5 array with three 1 TB 7200 RPM hard disk drives. Due to the increased reliance on the new file server, you have been asked to recommend a RAID solution that will help ensure there is no unscheduled downtime, no data loss, and increase speed/performance over the current file server. Based on these requirements, which of the following RAID solutions should you recommend? RAID 5 RAID 0 RAID 1 RAID 10

RAID 10 OBJ-3.3: A RAID 10 is the best solution to meet all of these requirements since it provides a fully redundant RAID with both the advantages of mirroring and disk striping. RAID 5 provides redundancy, but it will not improve the speed/performance over the current file server in use since it was also a RAID 5. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.

Which of the following devices should be installed as an intermediary between your clients and the web servers they want to connect to make an HTTP request from the client, check it, and then forward it to its destination? File server DHCP server Proxy server DNS server

Proxy server OBJ-2.4: A proxy server takes a whole HTTP request from a client, checks it, then forwards it to the destination computer on the Internet. When the reply comes back, it checks it and then shuttles it back to the LAN computer. A proxy can be used for other types of traffic too. A proxy server can usually operate either as a transparent service, in which case the client requires no special configuration or as a non-transparent service that requires configuration. A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server that provides that resource. A proxy server can be used to filter content and websites from reaching a user. A file server is used to host and control access to shared files and folders for the organization. A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server is a server configured with a range of addresses to lease. Hosts can be allocated an IP address dynamically or be assigned a reserved IP address based on the host's MAC address. The server can also provide other configuration information, such as the location of DNS servers. A domain name system (DNS) server is a server that hosts the database of domain names and the IP addresses mapped to those names. Each DNS server is authoritative for certain domain names that their organization owns.

You are working as a network technician and need to create several Cat 5e network cables to run between different computers and the network jacks on the wall. The connections between the switch, the patch panel, and the wall jacks have already been installed and tested. Which of the following tools would NOT be necessary to complete this task? Wire stripper Cable crimper Cable tester Punchdown tool

Punchdown tool OBJ-2.8: A punchdown tool is used to connect a network cable (such as Cat 5e) to a patch panel, 110-block, or the inside portion of a wall jack, therefore it is not needed for this task. A wire stripper is used to remove the outer plastic shielding from the Cat 5e cable so that you can reach the inner wiring pairs. The cable tester is used to verify the electrical connections in a twisted pair or coaxial cable. A cable crimper is used to join the internal wires of a twisted pair cable with metallic pins houses inside a plastic connector, such as an RJ-45 connector.

Your office has a legacy wide-format printer that must be connected to your network. The connection on the printer is an older DB-9 serial connection. What is the BEST option for connecting this legacy device to your corporate network? Purchase a wireless print server and connect it to the printer via USB Purchase an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter so that you can connect it to the network Purchase an inexpensive RS-232 to USB adapter to connect it the network Configure a reverse proxy on the printer as a DNS workaround

Purchase an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter so that you can connect it to the network OBJ-3.6: The most convenient and least expensive way to connect the printer would be to buy an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter, which will allow you to connect the legacy printer to the network directly. Then, the printer will be accessed by all users directly from their computers while printing to it using the appropriate print drivers. Networks do not have USB connections, so you need to select a network connection type like RJ-45 to use instead.

Jason's son has broken the RJ-45 port of his laptop by sticking clay into it, and there are no wireless networks available in his office building. The manufacturer of the laptop said the port cannot be replaced for at least a week. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate workaround to get the laptop connected to the wired network at Dion Training's office quickly? Purchase and use a USB to RJ-45 adapter Replace the motherboard since it contains an integrated RJ-45 port Disable airplane mode and use the integrated 802.11ac adapter Enable NIC teaming to increase your bandwidth

Purchase and use a USB to RJ-45 adapter OBJ-1.1: Since the RJ-45 port on the laptop is most likely an integrated port on the motherboard, you will have to wait for the manufacturer to replace the motherboard for you. To get back onto the wired network at the office the quickest, you should purchase an external (USB) wired network adapter. These usually are small devices that will allow you to plug a wired network cable with an RJ-45 connector into the external adapter and connect it to the laptop using a USB port. This works just like the integrated RJ-45 adapter but can be installed in just a few seconds. Alternatively, you could use a port replicator or docking station if there was one available at the office. NIC teaming allows the grouping of multiple physical Ethernet network adapters into one or more software-based virtual network adapters for increased performance or fault tolerance. This would require multiple physical network interface cards to be installed in your laptop already, which is not the case in this scenario. Replacing the motherboard would work if you had one available, but the process can be time-consuming. It would be quicker and easier to simply use an external (USB) wired network interface adapter, instead. Airplane mode and 802.11ac adapters are used with wireless networks, therefore it cannot solve this issue since the office building does not have a wireless network available.

Your boss asked you to generate a simple square code that can be easily scanned by a smartphone to access a preconfigured website address or link. Which of the following technologies would BEST meet this requirement? Barcode QR code Smart card NFC chip

QR code OBJ-1.3: In this case, you should select a QR code to meet this requirement. A QR code is a square that contains a specific graphical pattern that can be read by a smartphone's camera. When read, the graphical pattern is converted to data, such as a website address or link that can be easily opened. QR codes can also be read by dedicated QR scanners, as well. A barcode is a pattern of different sized parallel bars, typically representing a product number, such as an ISBN, EAN, or UPC. The reader uses a sensor mechanism (typically either a photodiode, laser, or CCD) to read the intensity of light reflected by the barcode. The reader then reports the number back to application software, which links it to a product database. Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. A smart card, chip card, or integrated circuit card is a physical, electronic authorization device used to control access to a resource. It is typically a plastic credit card-sized card with an embedded integrated circuit chip. In high-security environments, employee badges may contain a smart card embedded chip that must be inserted into a smart card reader to log in or access information on the system.

What RAID level requires at least three hard disks to operate? RAID 0 RAID 10 RAID 1 RAID 5

RAID 5 OBJ-3.3: RAID 5 requires at least three hard disks to operate. There is no maximum number of disks required. The parity data is spread across all drives to provide redundancy, which allows the array to operate even with one of the drives fails. RAID 5 is considered one of the most popular and widely used RAID configurations. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 10 combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data stored in the array and required a minimum of four disks.

A student wants to use their workstation to run several virtual machines. The workstation currently has an i7 quad-core processor, 4 GB of DDR3 memory, a 512 GB SSD, and a gigabit network interface card. Which of the following components should the student upgrade to support multiple virtual machines running simultaneously on the Windows workstation? NIC SSD RAM CPU

RAM OBJ-5.2: This workstation is sufficient to run multiple virtual machines as long as the RAM is upgraded. Windows 10 requires at least 2 GB of memory, so only having 4 GB of memory for the entire system is too little to run multiple VMs. It is recommended to upgrade to at least 16 GB of RAM to allow this workstation to support multiple VMs. A virtualization machine needs a lot of memory, multiple processor cores (this already has 4 cores), adequate storage (512 GB of SSD is adequate), and a high-speed network card (1 Gbps is sufficient).

Which of the following protocols operates over port 3389 by default? Telnet RDP POP3 SSH

RDP OBJ-2.1: The remote desktop protocol (RDP) is a protocol used for the remote administration of a host using a graphical user interface. RDP operates over TCP port 3389. Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. Telnet is the protocol used for remote command-line administration of a host using TCP port 23. Telnet is considered insecure since it is unauthenticated and unencrypted. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them.

What type of wiring standard is used with POTS? ST F type RJ-11 RJ-45

RJ-11 OBJ-3.1: POTS (Plain Old Telephone System) is an older standard used for telephone systems. An RJ-11 wiring standard is used to terminate both ends of a standard phone line. This is also used for DSL lines and VoIP ATA (Analog Telephony Adapter) devices. An RJ-45 connector is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable. The F-type connector is used with coaxial cables. A ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector is used to terminate a fiber optic cable.

Which of the following types of connectors are used to terminate a CAT 5e network cable? Molex RJ-11 RJ-45 F type

RJ-45 OBJ-3.1: RJ-45 refers to a cable termination specification that specifies physical male and female connectors and the pin assignments of data jacks that can be used for networks and VOIP telephone cables. RJ-45 is an 8-pin/8-position plug or jack commonly used to connect computers onto Ethernet-based local area networks (LAN) and consists of two wiring schemes: T568A and T568B. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines. A Molex connector is used to provide power to internal components of a computer from the power supply.

What type of connector is most commonly used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable? RJ-45 DB-9 ST F type

RJ-45 OBJ-3.1: A copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable is usually terminated with an RJ-45 connector. Coaxial cables are normally terminated using an F type connector. An RS-232 serial cable is normally terminated with a DB-9 connector. A fiber optic cable normally uses an ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the port cluster.) Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as I? RJ-11 PS/2 RJ-45 DB-9

RJ-45 OBJ-3.1: This port is the RJ-45 connection or network interface card (NIC) port that is used to connect a computer to a wired network. An RJ-45 connector is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard's rear port cluster by sight.

Which of the following is a security concern with using a cloud service provider and could result in a data breach caused by data remnants? On-Demand Metered services Resource Pooling Rapid elasticity

Rapid elasticity OBJ-4.1: Rapid elasticity can be a security threat to your organization's data due to data remanences. Data remanence is the residual representation of digital data that remains even after attempts have been made to remove or erase it. So, when a cloud resource is deprovisioned and returned to the cloud service provider, it can be issued to another organization for use. If the data was not properly erased from the underlying storage, it could be exposed to the other organization. For this reason, all cloud-based storage drives should be encrypted by default to prevent data remanence from being read by others. Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider

What type of services can allow you to get more storage and more resources added to the cloud as fast as possible? Measured services Rapid elasticity Resource pooling Metered services

Rapid elasticity OBJ-4.1: Rapid elasticity allows users to automatically request additional space in the cloud or other types of services. Because of the setup of cloud computing services, provisioning can be seamless for the client or user. Providers still need to allocate and de-allocate resources that are often irrelevant on the client or user's side. This feature allows a service to be scaled up without purchasing, installing, and configuring new hardware, unlike if you had to install more physical storage into a server or datacenter. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed. Measured service is a term that IT professionals apply to cloud computing that references services where the cloud provider measures or monitors the provision of services for various reasons, including billing, effective use of resources, or overall predictive planning.

You are working as part of the server team for an online retail store. Due to the upcoming holidays, your boss is worried that the current servers may not be able to handle the increased demand during a big sale. Which of the following cloud computing concepts can quickly allow services to scale upward during busy periods and scale down during slower periods based on the changing user demand? On-demand Rapid elasticity Resource pooling Metered services

Rapid elasticity OBJ-4.1: Rapid elasticity is used to describe scalable provisioning or the capability to provide scalable cloud computing services. Rapid elasticity is very critical to meet the fluctuating demands of cloud users. The downside of rapid elasticity implementations is that they can cause significant loading of the system due to the high resource number of allocation and deallocation requests. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed.

You have been assigned a trouble ticket for a workstation that is unable to boot. When you arrive at the workstation, you recognize an error message on the screen that reads, "Error loading operating system, BOOTMGR is missing, Press Ctrl+Alt+Del to restart." Which of the following actions should you take first? Reboot the computer and allow it to load back into Windows Reboot the computer into the Windows 10 repair console and enter "Bootrec /fixmbr" at the command prompt Reboot the computer into the BIOS to see if the boot order is set to HDD Reboot the computer into recovery mode and initiate the disk restoral process

Reboot the computer into the Windows 10 repair console and enter "Bootrec /fixmbr" at the command prompt OBJ-5.3: To troubleshoot the failed boot, you must reboot the computer and enter into recovery mode. In Windows 10, you will need to boot from the installation disc, select "Repair your computer", and then enter the command-line interface (CLI). From the CLI, enter the command "bootrec /fixmbr" to repair the master boot record. Once completed, reboot the computer and allow it to load into Windows.

A client is attempting to power on their computer, but it keeps booting to the incorrect hard drive. Which of the following actions should you perform to attempt to fix this problem? Press F8 repeatedly during the boot process to enter the boot menu Reconfigure the boot order within the BIOS/UEFI Unplug any external hard disks Reconfigure the boot order within Windows

Reconfigure the boot order within the BIOS/UEFI OBJ-5.3: If the system still fails to boot up from the correct drive, then go into the BIOS/UEFI setup program and check the existing boot order settings. If they are in the wrong order, reconfigure them to ensure the usual boot device is listed first in the list and then restart the computer. There is no need to unplug the exteranl hard disks since you can simply change the boot order in the BIOS. The F8 key will allow the user to choose to boot into Windows in regular or safe mode. This worked by default in Windows 7, 8, and 8.1, but need to be enabled before it will work in Windows 10. The technician cannot configure the boot order in Windows without first booting into Windows from the hard drive, so the technician would still need to reconfigure the boot order in the BIOS/UEFI first.

What describes how many times the image on the monitor changes per second? Aspect ratio Refresh rate Frame rate Resolution

Refresh rate OBJ-1.2: Refresh rate is defined by the vertical scan frequency of a monitor and how many times in one second an image can be redrawn on the screen. LCD monitors have a fixed refresh rate based on the specifications of their panel. Generally, a monitor is rated with a refresh rate of 60 Hz, 72 Hz, or 120 Hz, with the higher refresh rate being considered better quality and easier on the user's eyes. For high-performance gaming systems, a 120 Hz monitor is desired for smoother motion and graphics. The aspect ratio is defined as the ratio of width to height in a display. The frame rate is defined as the number of times the image in a video stream changes per second as expressed in Hertz (Hz) or Frames per Second (fps). The yaw rate is a made-up term for the exam and is used as a distractor in this question. The resolution is the measure of the number of picture elements (pixels) that an imaging device can use to sample or display the image as measured in pixels per inch (PPI).

Your friend just gave you his old laptop. Whenever you turn on the laptop, though, a blank screen appears and asks you to enter an administrative password before the computer attempts to boot up. Unfortunately, your friend never gave you the password for this laptop. Which of the following actions should you take to resolve this issue and get past this password screen? Disconnect the hard drive from the motherboard for a few minutes, reconnect it, and then power on the laptop Press and hold the power button down for a few minutes, then attempt to power on the laptop Remove the CMOS battery, wait a few minutes, reinsert the battery, then power on the laptop Remove the laptop's battery, wait a few minutes, reinsert the battery, and then power on the laptop

Remove the CMOS battery, wait a few minutes, reinsert the battery, then power on the laptop OBJ-5.2: This blank screen asking for the administrative password appears to be a BIOS password required to be entered before the laptop is allowed to boot from the hard disk. Your best option is to clear the CMOS forcibly to remove the BIOS password from a workstation or laptop. To clear the CMOS, you must remove the CMOS battery from your computer, wait a few minutes, reinsert the CMOS battery, and then attempt to power on the computer again. This will cause the information stored in the CMOS (for example, BIOS settings and passwords) to be erased and restored to its default configuration. Removing and reinserting the laptop's battery will not reset the BIOS password. Disconnecting and reconnecting the hard drive will not reset the BIOS password.

You are working as a laptop repair technician. You just received a laptop that was reported to have a glass of water spilled on it. You want to examine the components in the laptop to begin troubleshooting it. What are the first steps you should take as part of your troubleshooting process? Watch a YouTube video for tutorials on how to fix this model of laptop Consult your coworkers for suggestions and advice Remove the external casing of the laptop and document the screw locations Submerge the laptop in a large bowl of rice to fully dry out the inner components

Remove the external casing of the laptop and document the screw locations OBJ-5.5: When you are taking apart a laptop, it is important to keep track of each of the screws and the location that they were removed from. Many of the screws may appear to be the same height or width, but they may be different. One easy way to keep track of these parts is to create a grid on a sheet of printer paper and place the screws on this makeshift diagram. While the other options may be useful, the question asks you what you should do first to examine the laptop components. To perform that examination, you must remove the external casing and its screws.

You are troubleshooting a workstation for a customer. The workstation will not boot. When it is powered on, an error message of "OS not found" is displayed on the screen. What is the MOST likely solution to fix this error? Repartition the drive Replace the HDD with an SSD Perform a chkdsk Repair the GPT

Repair the GPT OBJ-5.2: A bad or faulty RAM module can cause system reboots, diminished system performance, and slow loading of websites and programs. This gradual deterioration of performance, especially with memory-intensive programs, may indicate a problem with the laptop's system memory. The system memory should be tested and replaced (if needed) to allow the laptop to begin working efficiently.

Which of the following devices could be used to extend transmissions of a signal over longer distances by receiving and retransmitting a given signal at the lowest cost? Switch Repeater Router Firewall

Repeater OBJ-2.2: A repeater is an electronic device that receives a signal and retransmits it. Repeaters are used to extend transmissions so that the signal can cover longer distances or be received on the other side of an obstruction. Repeaters may be wired or wireless, and they rebroadcast whatever signal is received through their transmitter. A firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. A firewall typically establishes a barrier between a trusted internal network and an untrusted external network, such as the internet. A switch is a network device that receives incoming data into a buffer, then the destination MAC address is compared with an address table so that data is only sent out to the port with the corresponding MAC address. In a switched network, each port is in a separate collision domain. A router is a network device that links dissimilar networks and can support multiple alternate paths between locations based upon the parameters of speed, traffic loads, and cost. Routers are used to logically divide networks into subnets.

Dion Training's file server is using a RAID 5 with four disk drives as its data store. One of the drives in the array has just failed. The RAID 5 is still operating and no data loss has been experienced, but the array is no longer providing any resiliency or redundancy. Which of the following actions should you take to restore this drive to normal operations? Replace failed disk and rebuild the array Remove the failed disk and perform a system restore Replace the failed disk and perform a system restore Remove the failed disk and rebuild the array

Replace failed disk and rebuild the array OBJ-5.3: In a RAID 5 storage array, you should replace the failed disk and then rebuild the array. If you remove the failed drive, the array can continue functioning at sub-optimal performance until a new drive is installed. The options to perform a system restore would result in downtime and possible data loss. Therefore they should not be selected. While you could run a RAID 5 with only 3 drives, this RAID 5 was already using 4 drives, and the loss of one of those drives by rebuilding it as a 3 drive RAID 5 would result in a 33% reduction in the amount of storage space.

A customer contacts the service desk because their laptop will not power on when plugged in, and the battery is dead. The service desk replaces its battery, connects it to a different power adapter, and the laptop works all day until the battery runs out. Now, the laptop won't turn on, and the battery won't charge. Which of the following do you recommend to solve this issue? Replace the battery Replace the power adapter Replace the DC jack Connect the laptop to a 220v outlet

Replace the DC jack OBJ-5.5: This scenario indicates that the DC jack is faulty. Since the battery was replaced and the laptop continues to work, this indicates it isn't a battery issue but is, instead, most likely a DC jack issue. The DC jack often gets broken on a laptop, and if the jack is broken, the device cannot charge or receive power from the power adapter or wall outlet.

Susan has a 3-year-old iPad. The iPad used to get 8 hours or more of usage before running out of battery, but now it only lasts 30-60 minutes between charges. Which of the following actions should be taken to repair this device? Replace the charging port Replace the battery Turn on airplane mode to reduce battery consumption Install the latest version of iOS

Replace the battery OBJ-5.5: Batteries on electronic devices can deteriorate over time and stop holding a full charge. In this question, the device was several years old, and the most likely cause is that the battery is old and needs replacement. The charging port is not the best answer since the question states that it is fully charged each time but only lasts 30-60 minutes. If the charging port were broken, the device would not charge at all. The other suggestions may help conserve the battery, but it wouldn't explain a drop from 8 hours to 1 hour in battery life between charges.

A client contacts the service desk because their laptop will not charge when plugged in. The client states that the laptop runs properly while connected to the wall outlet, but if they unplug it, then the laptop immediately powers off. Which of the following do you recommend to solve this issue? Connect the laptop to a 220v outlet Replace the power adapter Replace the DC jack Replace the battery

Replace the battery OBJ-5.5: This scenario indicates a defective or failed battery. Since the battery will not charge, but the laptop can stay on while connected to the wall outlet, this indicates it is not an issue with the DC jack, the power adapter, or the wall outlet.

Dion Security Group has established a Security Operations Center (SOC) that operates 24/7. They have several 65" plasma TVs at the front of the room that are used as computer displays to show open tickets. You turned off the televisions to clean the screens and noticed that the company logo is still visible in each of the screens' upper left corners. Which of the following should you do to correct this? Replace the HDMI cable Replace the video card Degauss the television Replace the plasma TVs

Replace the plasma TVs OBJ-5.4: The logo in the upper left corner has been burned into the display since it is a static image. This is common with plasma displays and TVs. To fix this, you need to replace the TVs. If you plan to have a lot of static content on a display, you should use an OLED or LED display instead. If burn-in was experienced on old CRT monitors, you could run a degaussing program to erase the burn-in. Unfortunately, this will not work for plasma, LED, or OLED displays, though.

A customer is complaining that their printer has begun to fade. While questioning the customer, you found out that they bought the laser printer about 11 months ago, have never performed any maintenance, and have only added more paper to it when it runs out. When checking the page counter, you identified that they had printed over 3,000 pages. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the fading? Verify the charge of the corona wire Replace the drum Replace the toner cartridge Adjust paper print tray height

Replace the toner cartridge OBJ-5.6: In general, fading occurs when the ink or toner is running low. Based on the customer's questioning, it appears they have not done any maintenance, including replacing the toner cartridge. It would be best if you first replaced the toner and then attempt to print a test page. In general, drums and corona wires do not need maintenance until closer to 7,500 to 10,000 printed pages with most laser printers.

You see some fading across your papers when printing things using a laser printer. The black color appears to be more faded than the other colors on your documents. What is the BEST solution to this problem? Clean the printer's transfer roller Replace the toner cartridge in the printer Increase the temperature of the fuser element Change the feed rate of the paper

Replace the toner cartridge in the printer OBJ-5.6: A symptom of low toner is faded or faint colors in your printed papers. Most modern printers will also indicate the amount of toner left using their on-screen display and present a warning message for low toner and an error message when the printer is completely out of toner. With color laser printers, there are four different toner colors used during printing: black, cyan, magenta, and yellow. If only the black appears to be faded, it is possible that it is running low on toner. This is a common problem since most employees print more black and white documents than color documents which leads to the black toner normally running out before the other colors.

Which button on a desktop computer begins a reboot of the computer without power being removed from the computer's components? Suspend Power Hibernate Reset

Reset OBJ-3.4: The reset button is usually located on the front panel of a desktop computer next to the power button. When the reset button is pressed, it allows the user to reboot the computer without releasing power from the system's components. This is often used when software has malfunctioned and caused the computer to halt or lock up. The power button is used to shut down or put the computer to sleep. There is usually not a dedicated suspend or hibernate button, but these are instead provided as software buttons in the operating system.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area? Reset jumper USB connector Fan power Audio connector

Reset jumper OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the reset jumper on this motherboard. A reset jumper is a small plastic block with a metal connection inside. To reset the motherboard's BIOS, you would connect the jumper over this area to make an electrical connection between the two pins. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

You have just installed a second monitor for a salesperson's workstation. The user wants to clone the display so that both monitors show the exact same image. This will allow them to see one of the displays while their customer sees the other from across their desk. When you connect the second monitor and clone the display, the second monitor displays text twice as large as the other monitor. Which of the following settings should you configure? Refresh rate Resolution Color depth Extended mode

Resolution OBJ-5.4: Most monitors have a default or native resolution. When you first connect a monitor to a Windows workstation, this native resolution is detected, and Windows attempts to configure itself automatically. If this creates an imbalance between the two monitors, a technician can adjust the screen's resolution by changing it in the Display settings area of Windows 10. Color depth defines how many unique colors can be displayed by the projected image at once. Refresh rate is the measure of how fast an image can be updated on a monitor or display. If a monitor has a lower refresh rate, then blurring and ghosting can occur. The extended mode allows the Windows output to be stretched across two or more monitors as if they were a single monitor. This can be configured under the Display settings in Windows 10.

Which of the following virtualization concepts refers to a VM's ability to have memory allocated for its use? Synchronization Resource pooling Measured service Virtual application streaming

Resource pooling OBJ-4.1: Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Measured service is a term that IT professionals apply to cloud computing that references services where the cloud provider measures or monitors the provision of services for various reasons, including billing, effective use of resources, or overall predictive planning. Using a synchronization app can allow the files to be stored on both the laptop and the cloud service while maintaining the latest versions in both places. This allows a user to synchronize content between all of their own devices and share their cloud storage content with other users. Multiple users can simultaneously access the content to work collaboratively, or they can access it at different times. Each user's changes are typically marked with a flag or color highlighting to indicate who made changes to what content. Virtual application streaming allows an application to be delivered to a workstation from the cloud.

Which of the following requirements should you consider when selecting the type of processors, storage, and RAM to utilize in a virtualization environment? Network requirements Resource requirements Security requirements Emulator requirements

Resource requirements OBJ-4.2: Before you purchase a system to use as a virtualization environment, you should look at the minimum requirements for all operating systems you intend to host as guest VMs. This will ensure you can balance the performance needed and maintain a smooth-running environment without numerous conflicts or issues.

When using an impact printer, what is used to transfer the ink to a piece of paper? Ribbon Inkjet cartridge Toner Filament

Ribbon OBJ-3.7: An impact printer operates the same way as an old-fashioned typewriter. It uses a film-like ribbon that sits inside between the paper and print head. The ribbon is impacted by a series of mechanical dots in the print head, and this transfers the ink from the ribbon to the paper to form the desired image or text. An inkjet cartridge is used with an inkjet printer. Toner is used with a laser printer. Filament is used with a 3-D printer.

Which of the following is a security concern when dealing with virtual machines? Resource pooling Virtual NIC Rogue VM Symmetric multiprocessing

Rogue VM OBJ-4.2: The process of developing, testing, and deploying images brings about the first major security concern with the virtual platform itself. This is the problem of rogue VMs. A rogue VM is one that has been installed without authorization. The uncontrolled deployment of more and more VMs is referred to as VM sprawl. After all, it is a lot easier to add a guest image to a server than it is to plug a new hardware server into the network. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Symmetric multiprocessing (SMP) is the processing of programs by multiple processors that share a common operating system and memory. A virtual network interface card (vNIC) represents the configuration of a VM connected to a network. A VM can be configured to have multiple vNICs.

Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to connect two dissimilar networks such as connecting a local area network (LAN) to the wide area network (WAN)? Router Managed switch Access point Hub

Router OBJ-2.2: A router is a network device that links dissimilar networks and can support multiple alternate paths between locations based upon the parameters of speed, traffic loads, and cost. Routers are used to logically divide networks into subnets. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which slows down the entire network. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An AP supports the connection of multiple wireless devices through their one wired connection. A switch is a network device that receives incoming data into a buffer, then the destination MAC address is compared with an address table so that data is only sent out to the port with the corresponding MAC address. In a switched network, each port is in a separate collision domain. A managed switch is a switch with advanced networking functions and security settings that can be enabled and configured by an administrator.

Dion Training just installed a file server in VLAN 101 and their user workstations in VLAN 102. The users are unable to access the new file server from their workstations. Which of the following devices needs to be installed to allow users in VLAN 102 to access the resources in VLAN 101? Router Hub Unmanaged switch Wireless access point

Router OBJ-5.7: A router or other gateway device must be installed between two VLANs to allow connections to be routed between them. A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logically separate network that is created using switching technology. Even though hosts on two VLANs may be physically connected to the same cabling, local traffic is isolated to each VLAN so they must use a router to communicate. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An unmanaged switch operates out-of-the-box without any setup or configuration by switching network traffic based on MAC addresses and putting each switch port into its own collision domain. A hub, access point, and unmanaged switch are unable to route traffic and therefore would be unable to connect the two VLANs.

A client states that their computer is experiencing slow performance when reading or writing to the hard drive. You have already verified that it is not a system (software) performance issue, and the system is not overheating. Which of the following would be the BEST action to take in attempting to fix this problem? Run the disk repair tool Clean the cooling fans of the system Backup the hard drive Upgrade the memory of the system

Run the disk repair tool OBJ-5.3: Slow performance can be a symptom of overheating or other problems. Since we eliminated overheating as the cause, the issue is most likely caused by a file system problem. To fix this problem, you should try running the disk repair tool or run the Disk Defragmenter tool (for non-SSD devices) to optimize the file system and read/write performance. Since there are no grinding or clicking sounds being observed, it is unlikely that the hard drive will fail soon making backing up the hard drive a lower priority. The system cooling fans are not the issue otherwise the system would be overheating.

A technician is building a new computer for Dion Training. The technician installs the motherboard, processor, memory, hard drives, and case fans, then they attempt to connect the cables to the appropriate connections. When the technician powers on the system, the fans spin, the motherboard's LEDs light up, and the computer completes its POST. Unfortunately, the monitor displays a "bootable device not found" error. Which of the following did the technician likely forget to connect to the motherboard? CPU 8-pin power cable Case fan 4-pin power cable Motherboard 24-pin power cable SATA 15-pin power cable

SATA 15-pin power cable OBJ-5.3: Based on the scenario, it is most likely that the technician forgot to connect the SATA 15-pin power cable causing the hard drive to remain off. The computer will still pass the POST, but it will be unable to load an operating system since there is no boot device found. If the CPU power cable was unplugged, the CPU would not receive power and the POST would not complete. If the motherboard power cable was not connected, then the motherboard's LED would not be lit. If the case fan's power cables were not connected, the fans would not be spinning. Therefore, the right answer must be that the SATA power cable was not properly connected by the technician.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area? USB connection SATA connection PATA connection Port cluster

SATA connection OBJ-3.1: The area circled indicates the SATA connectors on the motherboard. Serial ATA (SATA) is the most widely used interface for hard disks on modern desktop and laptop computers. SATA uses a 7-pin L-shaped data connector with one device per port. SATA operates at bandwidths of 1.5 Gbps, 3 Gbps, or 6 Gbps. SATA drives can also use a 15-pin power connector. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

You have been asked to set up the corporate email on several mobile devices for Dion Training's employees. The employees will use their mobile devices to send their emails when out of the office. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow the employees to send their mail? POP3 SMTP HTTPS IMAP

SMTP OBJ-1.4: You should configure SMTP since it is the only protocol used to send emails. POP3 and IMAP are used to receive emails. HTTPS is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.

Tim's laptop was recently upgraded to Windows 11 but is now running more slowly due to the increased memory requirements. He has decided to install some additional RAM to speed up the laptop. Which of the following should he install? SODIMM GDDR5 DIMM VRAM

SODIMM OBJ-1.1: Laptops and integrated PCs usually use SODIMM memory due to the memory module's smaller footprint. A small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) can be purchased in various types and sizes to fit any laptop. A dual in-line memory module (DIMM) comprises a series of dynamic random-access memory integrated circuits. A DIMM is used in workstations and printers due to its larger size and shape. VRAM (video RAM) refers to any type of random access memory (RAM) specifically used to store image data for a computer display. GDDR5 is the DDR5 memory for a graphics card, not a laptop. For the exam, if you are ever asked about installing memory in a small form factor device or a laptop, the answer will usually be SODIMM.

You are troubleshooting a memory issue on a customer's laptop and have determined that the memory module needs to be replaced. You walk into the storage room to select a memory module to use as a replacement. Which of the following choices would be the MOST LIKELY choice for you to select for use on the laptop? ECC SODIMM DDR4 Single Channel

SODIMM OBJ-1.1: A small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) can be purchased in various types and sizes to fit any laptop, router, or other small form factor computing device. For the exam, if you are ever asked about installing memory in a small form factor device or a laptop, the answer will usually be SODIMM. Single-channel memory is any memory using one 64-bit bus between the CPU and the RAM. Error checking and correcting or error correcting code (ECC) is a type of system memory that has built-in error correction security. ECC is more expensive than normal memory and requires support from the motherboard. ECC is commonly used in production servers and not in standard desktops or laptops. Double data rate synchronous dynamic (DDR) random access memory is a standard for SDRAM where data is transferred twice per clock cycle to achieve a maximum data rate that is 64 times the bus speed in bps. There are various versions of DDR including DDR2, DDR3, DDR4, and DDR5.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the port cluster.) Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as C? PS2 USB FireWire SPDIF

SPDIF OBJ-3.1: This port is the SPDIF (Sony-Philips Digital Interface Format) connection. This is a fiber optic port used to transmit digital audio. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard's rear port cluster by sight.

Which of the following is a connection-oriented protocol that utilizes TCP? SSH SNMP TFTP DHCP

SSH OBJ-2.1: The transmission control protocol (TCP) is a protocol in the TCP/IP suite that operates at the transport layer to provide connection-oriented, guaranteed delivery of packets. Hosts must first establish a session to exchange data and then confirm the delivery of packets using acknowledgments when using TCP. TCP is relatively slow in comparison to UDP. Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. The trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP) is a protocol used to get a file from a remote host or put a file onto a remote host. TFTP is commonly used with embedded devices or systems that retrieve firmware, configuration information, or a system image during the boot process. TFTP operates over UDP port 69. The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event (such as a printer that is out of paper). The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name on top of the appropriate cable's connector.) Using the image above, which of the following correctly identifies the fiber optic connector shown as Connector B? LC SC F ST

ST OBJ-3.1: This is an ST connector. A ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector is used to terminate a fiber optic cable. An ST, or straight tip, connector is a quick-release bayonet-style connector that has a long cylindrical connector. An SC, or subscriber connector, is a general-purpose push/pull style connector that has a square, snap-in connector that latches with a simple push-pull motion. SC connectors are widely used in single-mode fiber optic systems. An LC, or Lucent connector, is a small form factor connector that combines the transmit and receive cables into a single square, snap-in connector. The F-type connector is used with coaxial cables, not fiber optic cables.

What type of network cable should be used to prevent crosstalk? STP Plenum UTP RJ-11

STP OBJ-3.1: Shielded cables contain a braided foil shield around the inner cabling to protect the data from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI). Cables are often clustered together with a high amount of data passing through from one device to another, causing EMI (electromagnetic interference). EMI causes signal interference and errors in the transfer of data that is known as crosstalk. Unshielded cables do not contain this braided foil shield and are more affected by EMI than a shielded cable. Plenum-rated cable has a special insulation that has low smoke and low flame characteristics. Plenum cable is mandated to be installed in any air handling space. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines.

Tom is running some new Cat 5e cabling in an office building to connect a few offices. The ceiling is constructed as a drop ceiling with fluorescent lights and does not have any cable trays. Due to the proximity of the fluorescent lights to the cable being run, what type of CAT 5e cable should be run? Coaxial UTP Fiber STP

STP OBJ-5.7: STP (Shielded Twisted Pair) is a type of cabling that can help prevent electrical interferences or cross-talk. A cross-talk is when electrical interference data passing through can cause CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check) errors. A CRC is used to calculate the before and after checksum is made when transferring data. If electrical interference gets in the way, such as proximity to fluorescent light bulbs, it can cause data to be corrupted and produce an error. UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) is cheaper and easier to work with but is subject to interference. Coaxial and fiber are not types of CAT 5e cabling. Coaxial and fiber are not Cat 5E cable types and cannot be used for this network.

Which cloud computing concept is BEST described as focusing on the replacement of applications and programs on a customer's workstation with cloud-based resources? PaaS SaaS DaaS IaaS

SaaS OBJ-4.1: Software as a Service (SaaS) is ca loud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

Which type of cloud service provides users with an end-to-end application solution for a recurring monthly or yearly fee? IaaS PaaS DaaS SaaS

SaaS OBJ-4.1: Software as a service (or SaaS) is a way of delivering applications over the Internet as a service. Instead of installing and maintaining software, you access it via the Internet, freeing yourself from complex software and hardware management. It allows a company to pay a monthly or yearly fee to receive access to the software without managing the software locally within their own network. For example, many small businesses use Shopify to create an online e-commerce store that is classified as a SaaS product. Other examples include G Suite, Office 365, or Adobe Creative Cloud. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

You have signed up for a web-based appointment scheduling application to help you manage your new IT technical support business. What type of solution would this be categorized as? IaaS SaaS PaaS DaaS

SaaS OBJ-4.1: Software as a Service (SaaS) is ca loud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center.

Dion Training wants to install a new accounting system and is considering moving to a cloud-based solution to reduce cost, reduce the information technology overhead costs, improve reliability, and improve availability. Your Chief Information Officer is supportive of this move since it will be more fiscally responsible. Still, the Chief Risk Officer is concerned with housing all of the company's confidential financial data in a cloud provider's network that might be shared with other companies. Since the Chief Information Officer is determined to move to the cloud, what type of cloud-based solution would you recommend to account for the Chief Risk Officer's concerns? SaaS in a private cloud SaaS in a public cloud PaaS in a hybrid cloud PaaS in a community cloud

SaaS in a private cloud OBJ-4.1: A SaaS (Software as a Service) solution best describes an accounting system or software used as part of a cloud service. This meets the CIO's requirements. To mitigate the concerns of the Chief Risk Officer, you should use a private cloud solution. This type of solution ensures that the cloud provider does not comingle your data with other customers' data and providers dedicated servers and resources for your company's use only.

Your company's file server is using a RAID 5 configuration. You just received an alert from the server that states that "RAID is degraded" and that the "Local Disk 0, Physical Disk 3 has failed". Which of the following is the BEST way to fix this error? Schedule an authorized downtime period, replace physical disk 3, rebuild the array, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded Format logical disk 0, manually configure a new RAID using the remaining good drives from the RAID 5 and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded Reconfigure the RAID 5 to a RAID 0 to avoid any downtime, then rebuild the array during the next authorized maintenance period, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded Replace physical disk 3 immediately, rebuild the array, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded

Schedule an authorized downtime period, replace physical disk 3, rebuild the array, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded OBJ-5.3: Since a RAID 5 has some built-in redundancy, it will continue to operate while in this degraded state without any additional redundancy since one of the drives has failed. It is best to schedule an authorized downtime period, replace the failed drive, rebuild the array, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded. During the rebuilding of the array, the system may perform extremely slowly, and users may experience a loss of service, which is why scheduling some downtime is necessary. Formatting the logical drive or changing a RAID 5 to a RAID 0 will cause data loss, and therefore they are not the correct answers.

John is setting up 100 Windows 10 computers for a new corporate office. He wants to ensure that unauthorized applications are prevented from being installed during the bootup process. What feature should he ensure is enabled? Secure Boot BIOS password required RAM integrity checking Full disk encryption

Secure Boot OBJ-3.4: The purpose of Secure Boot is to prevent malicious and unauthorized apps from loading into the operating system (OS) during the startup process. Secure Boot is enabled by default in Windows 10. When the PC starts, the firmware checks the signature of each piece of boot software, including UEFI firmware drivers (also known as Option ROMs), EFI applications, and the operating system. If the signatures are valid, the PC boots and the firmware gives control to the operating system. The OEM can use instructions from the firmware manufacturer to create Secure boot keys and to store them in the PC firmware. When you add UEFI drivers, you'll also need to make sure these are signed and included in the Secure Boot database. Full disk encryption is used to encrypt the user and system data stored in the device's internal storage. RAM integrity checking is conducted by default on most systems during the initial boot process but it doesn't check the contents of the memory for malware. The BIOS password would prevent the system from booting up without the correct password being entered, but this would not prevent unauthorized applications from being installed during the bootup process.

An administrator arrives at work and is told that network users are unable to access the shared drive on a Windows server. The administrator logs into the server and sees that some Windows Updates were automatically installed last night successfully, but now the network connection shows "limited" with no availability. What rollback action should the technician perform? Web browser Antivirus updates Server's IP address Server's NIC drivers

Server's NIC drivers OBJ-5.7: When automatically receiving updates through the Windows Update service, your server can receive driver updates for its network interface card (NIC), graphics cards, and other peripherals. This can accidentally install an incompatible driver that causes network connectivity issues to occur. A best practice is to always set driver updates to "manual" so that you can download and test them in a lab before upgrading your production servers. If your drivers were updated and this is causing the connectivity issue, you can perform a driver rollback to the last known working version of the drivers. An IP address is bound to a network interface card using DHCP and there is no such thing as a "rollback" for a server's IP address. The error of "limited" connectivity is associated with the network interface card and the network connection, not the antivirus or the web browser.

Jay is complaining that the speed at which the cursor moves across his laptop's screen when using his trackpad makes it difficult to properly control. Which setting could he use to slow down the cursor in Windows 10? Settings > Devices > Mouse > Speed Settings > Devices > Touchpad > Speed Settings > Devices > Mouse > Touchpad sensitivity Settings > Devices > Touchpad > Touchpad sensitivity

Settings > Devices > Touchpad > Speed OBJ-5.5: If the speed of the pointer or cursor moving across the screen is difficult to control, a technician can reduce the touchpad's speed in Windows 10 under Settings. To open settings, press the Windows key and the "i" key. Next, open Settings and click/tap on the Devices icon. Then, click/tap on Touchpad in the left-hand column. On the right-hand of the screen, adjust the slider labeled "Change the cursor speed" to a speed that is more comfortable to use. The touchpad sensitivity setting is used to control the amount of pressure needed before the touchpad registers a click as input from the user.

Which application would NOT allow you to sync your data between your Windows, macOS, Android, and iOS devices? OneDrive DropBox Shadow Copy Google Drive

Shadow Copy OBJ-4.1: Shadow Copy will not sync your data between Windows, macOS, Android, and iOS devices because it only works on Windows devices. OneDrive, Google Drive, and DropBox allow you to configure their synchronization applications on all four of these operating systems to keep them synced with the latest version in the cloud service. These applications are all a form of SaaS (software as a service). Using a synchronization app can allow the files to be stored on both the laptop and the cloud service while maintaining the latest versions in both places. This allows a user to synchronize content between all of their own devices as well as share their cloud storage content with other users. Multiple users can simultaneously access the content to work collaboratively, or they can access it at different times. Each user's changes are typically marked with a flag or color highlighting to indicate who made changes to what content.

Several users at an adjacent office building report intermittent connectivity issues after a new flag pole was installed between the two offices. The network technician has determined the adjacent office building is connected to the main office building via an 802.11ac bridge. The network technician logs into the AP and confirms the SSID, encryption, and channels are all correct. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this issue? Incorrect antenna type DHCP exhaustion Signal attenuation Bandwidth Saturation

Signal attenuation OBJ-5.7: The most likely reason is signal attenuation from the new flag being placed between the signal path which may be obstructing the line-of-sight between the antennas. Based on where the flag is precisely located, it is possible to only block the signal when the wind is blowing in a certain direction. This would lead to the intermittent connectivity experienced by the users caused by the signal attenuation when the flag is blocking the communication path between the antennas. DHCP exhaustion occurs when the DHCP server runs out of available IP addresses and stops issuing DHCP bindings. If DHCP exhaustion occurred, the users would not have received an IP address and they would have no connectivity instead of intermittent connectivity. The question does not mention anything about the antennas being moved or replaced recently, so it is unlikely to be an issue with the antennas since they worked previously with the same wireless network and distanced. Bandwidth saturation occurs if too many devices are on one WAN link, but nothing in the question indicates that more users have been added and causing an issue.

You are configuring a workstation to be used as a point of sale (POS) device. Which of the following peripherals should you install with the device? Webcam Flatbed scanner Signature pad Memory card reader

Signature pad OBJ-1.3: A signature pad is a common peripheral used with a point of sale workstation. This allows a customer to sign a contract or sales receipt digitally. A webcam is a video camera that feeds or streams an image or video in real-time to or through a computer to a computer network, such as the Internet. Webcams are typically small cameras that sit on a desk, attach to a user's monitor, or are built into a laptop, desktop, or mobile device. A memory card reader is a device containing one or more slots to accommodate reading (and writing) memory cards. A scanner is a type of photocopier that can convert the image of a physical object into an electronic data file. The two main components of a scanner are the lamp, which illuminates the object, and the recording device, an array of CCDs (Charge Coupled Devices). There are flatbed and sheet-fed versions, with sheet-fed versions typically being incorporated with a printer and fax machine into a multifunction device.

You are at the grocery store. At the checkout, you slide your credit card through the payment terminal and then sign your name to authorize the charge. Which of the following did you MOST likely use to make this purchase? NFC device Signature pad Touchpad Bluetooth reader

Signature pad OBJ-1.3: Many stores use a signature pad to digitally capture your handwritten signature when using a credit card to pay for your purchase. A signature capture pad is a device that electronically captures a person's handwritten signature on an LCD touchpad using a pen-type stylus. Once captured, digital signatures can be imported into and used with most ID software and security programs. Signatures can also be digitally stored for future use. Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. A touchpad is an input device used on most laptops to replace a mouse. The touchpad allows the user to control the cursor by moving a finger over the pad's surface.

Which of the following devices have most of the same functionality as a personal computer but can be operated with a single hand? Smartwatch Smartphone Tablet Laptop

Smartphone OBJ-1.4: A smartphone is a device with roughly the same functionality as a personal computer operated with a single hand. Most smartphones have a screen size between 4.5" and 5.7". Leading smartphones provide high-resolution screens. Smartphones have fast multicore CPUs, anywhere between 2 and 6 GB system memory, and 16 GB+ flash memory storage. They come with premium front and back digital cameras, input sensors like accelerometers, and Global Positioning System (GPS) chips. They can establish network links using Wi-Fi and a cellular data plan. A high-end smartwatch (for example, an Apple Watch) will allow the user to see their notifications, chat activity, and even make phone calls. A mid-range or low-end smartwatch can still have the ability to read your chat and notifications, but you may be unable to make phone calls from it. A smartwatch is not a replacement for a laptop or desktop, but a high-end smartphone can be.

John is a small business owner who is always running between meetings. He wants to buy a device that will let him quickly and easily see his email notifications, view his instant messages and chats, and keep in touch with his executive assistant who is back at the office. Which device would BEST meet John's needs? Smartwatch Portable hotspot Fitness monitor e-Reader

Smartwatch OBJ-1.4: A high-end smartwatch (for example, an Apple Watch) will allow the user to see their notifications, chat activity, and even make phone calls. A mid-range or low-end smartwatch can still have the ability to read your chat and notifications, but you may be unable to make phone calls from it. A fitness monitor is a wearable mobile device that focuses on tracking the health and exercise habits of its users. A high-end smartwatch usually includes fitness tracking functionality, as well. An e-Reader is a tablet-sized device designed for reading rather than general-purpose computing. For example, the Amazon Paperwhite is an example of a traditional e-Reader. A portable hotspot is a dedicated mobile device that connects to a cellular network and provides a wireless (Wi-Fi) network for a small number of users.

Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to create network infrastructures within the cloud? Software-defined networking Optical network terminal Digital subscriber line Cable modem

Software-defined networking OBJ-2.2: Software-defined networking (SDN) is an approach to network management that enables dynamic, programmatically efficient network configuration to improve network performance and monitoring, making it more like cloud computing than traditional network management. Software-defined networking (SDN) uses Application Programming Interfaces (API) and compatible hardware that allows for the programming of network appliances and systems. A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network's high bandwidth. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user's home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that connects fiber optics cables to other types of wiring such as Ethernet and phone lines by converting the signal from optical to electrical and vice versa. An ONT is commonly used with fiber to the house (FTTH) installations.

Which of the following networked hosts should be installed to prevent users from being overwhelmed with junk emails? Spam gateway Web server Proxy server Syslog server

Spam gateway OBJ-2.4: A spam gateway is a server or network appliance used to prevent users from being overwhelmed with spam or junk email. Spam gateways use blocklists to prevent emails from being accepted or routed from known malicious email addresses and domains. A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server that provides that resource. A proxy server can be used to filter content and websites from reaching a user. A Syslog server is a server that collects diagnostic and monitoring data from the hosts and network devices across a given network. A web server is a server that accepts requests through HTTP or HTTPS for a webpage and delivers the webpage and other requested resources to the user.

You are configuring a print server on the network. Which type of IP address should you configure it with? Link-local Dynamic APIPA Static

Static OBJ-2.5: A static IP address should be used for servers to ensure they are easy to find, access, and manage on the network. When configuring a static IP address, you need to include the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server's IP address. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly. A dynamic IP address is configured automatically by a DHCP server when a new host joins the network. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. An APIPA address is also known as a link-local address.

Samuel is building a backup file server, and he wants to ensure that he can minimize downtime. Which of the following considerations should be MOST important when choosing a storage controller card for this server? Support for the fastest speeds available Providing the least expensive option available Support for hot-swappable drives Support for at least 100 TB of connected storage

Support for hot-swappable drives OBJ-3.3: The primary consideration for the storage controller card is that it supports hot-swappable drives. Being hot-swappable means that a bad HDD can be removed and replaced while the server runs, which prevents downtime. Data loss can be prevented by configuring a RAID 1, RAID 5, RAID 6, or RAID 10, and the RAID can automatically replicate the data to the new hard drive that is replaced during the hot swapping process without any downtime or data loss. While the other options may be good features to have, the most important feature is support for hot-swapping to minimize downtime.

Which of the following is used to capture the logs from different devices across the network to correlate different events across multiple servers and clients? Syslog server DHCP server DNS server Proxy server

Syslog server OBJ-2.4: A Syslog server is used to capture logs from different devices. It allows for the correlation of logs to simplify log review and an analyst's ability to respond to alerts. For example, Syslog messages can be generated by Cisco routers and switches, servers and workstations, and collected in a central database for viewing and analysis. A proxy server is a server application that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server providing that resource. The Domain Name System (DNS) uses port 53 and is a hierarchical and decentralized naming system for computers, services, or other resources connected to the Internet or a private network. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) uses port 67 and is a network management protocol used on Internet Protocol (IP) networks for automatically assigning IP addresses and other communication parameters to devices connected to the network using a client-server architecture.

of the following wiring standards should be used when installing ethernet cabling in an office or data center? RS-232 RJ-11 T-568B RG-6

T-568B OBJ-3.1: The T568A and T568B standards are used when installing ethernet cabling. If both ends of the cable use T568A, the cable being created is called a straight-through or patch cable. If one end of the cable is T568A and the other is T568B, then the cable is called a crossover cable. By default, the Department of Defense uses T568A writing on both ends of a cable, and most other organizations use the ANSI/TIA/EIA standards that use T568B on both ends of the cable. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines. A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet.

A computer technician is trying to set up a shared printer on the corporate network. The users must send print jobs directly to the printer, and the printer will be used by multiple operating systems, including Windows, macOS, and Linux. Which of the following should the technician configure to meet these requirements best? Bonjour TCP/IP print server AirPrint Virtual printer

TCP/IP print server OBJ-3.6: The technician should set up a TCP/IP print server since it will eliminate any compatibility issues associated with using different operating systems and allow the users to send jobs directly to the printer. TCP/IP printing is considered a high-speed and reliable method for sending a print job directly to a printer. AirPrint is a feature in the macOS and iOS operating systems, it does not support Windows or Linux. Bonjour is Apple's implementation of zero-configuration networking and does not support Windows or Linux systems. Virtual printers can print a document to a PDF or XPS file, therefore this will not let user's send documents to the printer for physical printing.

Jason is teaching a CompTIA course at a large company, but they do not allow non-employees to connect to their network. Since Jason needs the Internet for an in-class demonstration, he connects his laptop to his iPhone using a USB cable. He essentially connects to the Internet using the smartphone as a modem. Which of the following terms best describes this configuration? Tethering Hotspot Tunneling Baseband update

Tethering OBJ-1.4: Tethering is the use of a mobile device's cellular data plan to provide Internet access to a laptop or PC. The PC can be tethered to the mobile by USB, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi. One method of doing this is to connect the laptop to the device using a USB cable, and then it can be used as a wired network connection. A portable hotspot is a dedicated mobile device that connects to a cellular network and provides a wireless (Wi-Fi) network for a small number of users. A tunneling (or encapsulation) protocol wraps up data from one protocol for transfer over a different type of network. For example, PPP can carry TCP/IP data over a dial-up line, enabling a remote computer to communicate with the LAN. A baseband update is the modification of the firmware of a cellular modem.

Jason wants to order a new gaming laptop for his son for his birthday. The laptop display must support a high refresh rate of 120 Hz or 144 Hz. Which of the following types of laptop displays should Jason purchase to meet this requirement? Plasma TN IPS VA

TN OBJ-1.2: A twisted nematic (TN) LCD panel uses technology where the panel is black when no electric current is running through the liquid crystal cells because the cells align themselves in a twisted state. When an electric current is applied, the liquid crystal cells untwist, allowing light to pass through, resulting in a white display screen. TN displays can be made with high refresh rates of 120 Hz or 144 Hz which makes them popular with gamers. An in-plane switching (IPS) LCD panel uses technology designed to resolve the quality issues inherent in TN panel technology, including strong viewing angle dependence and low-quality color reproduction. IPS displays have great color accuracy, but they do not support higher refresh rates sought after by gamers. A vertical alignment (VA) LCD panel uses technology designed to have liquid crystals lay perpendicular to the glass substrate when power is removed and in a vertical position when voltage is applied. This allows light to move through the liquid pixels when voltage is applied and the image is then produced. VA displays are a good middle-ground between IPS and TN panel displays. A plasma display is a type of flat panel display that uses small cells containing plasma with ionized gas that responds to electric fields. Plasma displays create excessive heat and are not as energy efficient as an LCD, LED, or OLED display.

William would like to use full-disk encryption on his laptop. He is worried about slow performance, though, so he has requested that the laptop have an onboard hardware-based cryptographic processor. Based on this requirement, what should William ensure the laptop contains? FDE PAM TPM AES

TPM OBJ-3.4: This question is asking if you know what each acronym means. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based cryptographic processing component that is a part of the motherboard. A Pluggable Authentication Module (PAM) is a device that looks like a USB thumb drive and is used as a software key in cryptography. Full Disk Encryption (FDE) can be hardware or software-based. Therefore, it isn't the right answer. The Advanced Encryption System (AES) is a cryptographic algorithm. Therefore, it isn't a hardware solution.

Dion Training wants to create a DNS record to enter DKIM or SPF information into the domain name system to help prevent from spam coming from their domain. Which type of DNS record should be created? TXT PTR SRV SOA

TXT OBJ-2.6: The DNS text (TXT) record lets a domain administrator enter text into the Domain Name Systems. The TXT record was originally intended as a place for human-readable notes. However, now it is also possible to put some machine-readable data into TXT records. TXT records are a key component of several different email authentication methods (SPF, DKIM, and DMARC) that help an email server determine if a message is from a trusted source. A DNS service (SRV) record specifies a host and port for specific services such as voice over IP (VoIP), instant messaging, and others. A Start of Authority (SOA) resource record indicates which Domain Name Server (DNS) is the best source of information for the specified domain. PTR records are used for the Reverse DNS (Domain Name System) lookup. Using the IP address, you can get the associated domain/hostname. An A record should exist for every PTR record.

A client claims that their computer keeps rebooting itself without warning. Which of the following is the BEST action you should take to investigate and troubleshoot this issue? Replace the cooling fan Test the power supply Replace the power supply Reinstall the operating system

Test the power supply OBJ-5.2: A computer that keeps rebooting itself is a symptom of a faulty power supply or a computer that is overheating. If the power supply is faulty, the computer will reboot itself. If the issue is caused by an overheating issue (such as a cooling fan failure), the computer will usually reboot itself after running for 15-20 minutes (once enough heat is built-up). Therefore, you should test the power supply first to determine if that is the root cause of the issue, and then replace the power supply, if required.

What is the third step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology? Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution Document findings, actions, and outcomes Test the theory to determine the cause Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures

Test the theory to determine the cause OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

You are working as a network technician and have been asked to troubleshoot an issue with a workstation. You have just established a theory of probable cause. Which of the following steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology should you perform NEXT? Verify full system functionality Test the theory to determine the cause Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem Identify the problem

Test the theory to determine the cause OBJ-5.1: The next step would be to "test the theory to determine the cause" since you just finished the "establish a theory of probable cause" step. The troubleshooting steps are to (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory to determine the cause, (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects, (5) Implement the solution or escalate as necessary, (6) Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures, and (7) Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned.

Which of the following statements about the 5.0 GHz wireless frequency used by Wi-Fi is correct? The 5.0 GHz frequency has more channels available than 2.4 GHz The 5.0 GHz frequency is more effective at penetrating solid surfaces than 2.4 GHz The 5.0 GHz frequency supports lower data rates than 2.4 GHz The 5.0 GHz frequency has a shorter wavelength that allows the signal to travel further than 2.4 GHz using the same power levels

The 5.0 GHz frequency has more channels available than 2.4 GHz OBJ-2.3: The 5.0 GHz frequency has more individual channels giving it less congestion and interference than the 2.4 GHz frequency. The 5.0 GHz frequency supports higher data rates than the 2.4 GHz frequency due to lower levels of congestion and interference. The longer wavelength of 2.4 GHz makes it better at propagating through solid surfaces than the 5.0 GHz frequency. The 2.4 GHz frequency has a longer wavelength than the 5.0 GHz frequency. This longer wavelength gives the 2.4 GHz frequency the ability to cover a longer range using the same power output levels.

Which of the following statements about the 5.0 GHz wireless frequency used by Wi-Fi is correct? The 5.0 GHz frequency supports lower data rates than 2.4 GHz The 5.0 GHz frequency has fewer channels available than 2.4 GHz The 5.0 GHz frequency has a shorter wavelength that allows the signal to travel further than 2.4 GHz using the same power levels The 5.0 GHz frequency is less effective at penetrating solid surfaces than 2.4 GHz

The 5.0 GHz frequency is less effective at penetrating solid surfaces than 2.4 GHz OBJ-2.3: The longer wavelength of 2.4 GHz makes it better at propagating through solid surfaces than the 5.0 GHz frequency. The 2.4 GHz frequency has a longer wavelength than the 5.0 GHz frequency. The longer wavelength gives it the ability to cover a longer range using the same power output levels as the 5.0 GHz frequency. The 5.0 GHz frequency supports higher data rates than the 2.4 GHz frequency due to lower levels of congestion and interference. The 5.0 GHz frequency has more individual channels giving it less congestion and interference than the 2.4 GHz frequency.

Your computer keeps losing track of time and the date in the system. Which of the following is MOST likely causing this issue? The power supply is faulty The CMOS battery is dead and needs to be replaced The memory is corrupted The motherboard's device drivers need to be updated

The CMOS battery is dead and needs to be replaced OBJ-5.2: Most motherboards (especially older ones) have a small coin-sized battery installed on them to power the CMOS RAM when the computer is powered down. This is where the BIOS settings and date/time are saved when power is removed from a workstation. If a computer continually loses track of the day/time, this is a classic sign that the CMOS battery is dead and needs to be replaced. Please note that some newer motherboards have replaced the need for a CMOS battery by replacing it with an area of nonvolatile memory used instead to store the BIOS settings and the date/time.

Dion Training's file server uses a RAID 5 for its main data store. Recently, the RAID began flashing from green to yellow. Additionally, an alert was received that stated, "RAID ARRAY DISK1 FAILURE". Unfortunately, the company no longer has any spare 1 TB, 5400 RPM Seagate drives, so a technician replaces DISK1 with a 1 TB, 7200 RPM Western Digital drive. When the technician attempts to rebuild the array, the drive stays in degraded operation and continues to alert that "RAID ARRAY DISK1 FAILURE" is occurring. What is the most likely cause of this issue? Incorrect SCSI ID set The new drive is not formatted as FAT32 Bad SATA cable The HDD is incompatible

The HDD is incompatible OBJ-5.3: In this scenario, likely, the replacement HDD may not be compatible with the RAID. This will cause the RAID to stay degraded and the alert to continue to display. Whenever you need to replace a disk in a RAID, it is considered a best practice to replace it with the same brand and model of the hard drive. For this reason, most professionals purchase spare hard drives when initially building out their RAID array.

A user called the help desk to complain about an issue with their laptop's keyboard. Every time they type a word like "help" or "none," it is displayed as something cryptic like "he3p" or "n6ne". Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue with the laptop keyboard? The NumLock has been enabled for the laptop The keyboard driver needs to be updated The keyboard is faulty and needs to be replaced The keyboard has some crumbs or debris that has fallen under the keys

The NumLock has been enabled for the laptop OBJ-5.5: Most keyboards have a numeric side (numbers only) and an alphanumeric side (numbers and letters and symbols). However, to minimize space usage, companies create some keyboards with the alphanumeric side only. This is quite common in laptops that insist on minimizing space for the sake of portability, as seen on mini-laptops and notebooks. Usually, the alphanumeric side is split into function keys (F1 to F12), followed by numeric keys (0-9), and then alphabetic keys (A-Z). To fix this, the fastest way to do this is to turn off NumLock using your laptop keyboard. If you hit the NumLock key, it will turn off. A light beside the key or on the laptop's top will go off to confirm that the NumLock is disabled.

A customer is trying to configure an 802.11b wireless card in an old laptop to connect to an 802.11g wireless router. When the customer scans for the wireless network's SSID (Dion-Corp), it is not displayed within Windows. What is the MOST likely reason that the SSID is not being displayed? The wireless router is configured with WPA2 encryption The wireless router is not configured for DHCP support 802.11g and 802.11b use different frequencies The broadcast is disabled on the wireless router

The broadcast is disabled on the wireless router OBJ-5.7: If the SSID (Secure Set Identifier) is disabled, then the wireless network name will not be broadcast to any available devices within range. Both Wireless B and G use the same frequency band (2.4 GHz) and would not cause this issue. Similarly, encryption that is enabled or disabled would not affect the SSID broadcast since the SSID is sent out in cleartext. DHCP support is used once a device connects to the network. Therefore it would not affect the SSID broadcast.

You have been asked to troubleshoot a digital projector in the home theater in your neighbor's basement. Your neighbor attempted to replace the projector's bulb, but after running for a few minutes, a message appears on the screen, and the projector turns itself off again. Based on these symptoms, what are the MOST likely causes of the projector continually turning off after just a few minutes of usage with a new bulb? (Select TWO) The brightness needs to be increased Incorrect video resolution setting The video driver on the media player needs to be updated The bulb's life counter needs to be reset The cooling fan needs to be cleaned or replaced A higher lumen bulb must be installed

The bulb's life counter needs to be reset & The cooling fan needs to be cleaned or replaced OBJ-5.4: Most projectors keep track of the life of a bulb/lamp using a life counter. If you forget to reset the life counter after replacing the bulb/lamp, the projector can often turn itself off since it believes the bulb/lamp still needs to be replaced. Another cause of a project turning itself off is when it overheats. This can be caused by an overly dirty cooling fan or a failed cooling fan. To solve this issue, simply clean or replace the cooling fan to prevent the projector from overheating.

A customer tried to install a PCIe x8 expansion card into a PCIe x16 slot on the motherboard. While the expansion card fits into the slot without any issues, it does not perform as the customer expected. How fast will a PCIe x8 expansion card run if installed in a PCIe x16 slot? The card will run at x16 speed The card will run at x4 speed The card will run at x8 speed The card will run at x1 speed

The card will run at x1 speed OBJ-3.4: While a PCIe x8 card will fit into either an x8 or x16 slot, it will only run at optimal speed when placed into an x8 slot. If the x8 card is placed into an x16 slot, it will reduce the speed to the equivalent of a 1x slot to ensure compatibility and reliability. Even though placing an x8 card into an x16 slot is supported, it is generally considered a bad practice. Instead, you should only insert an x8 card into an x8 slot for optimal performance.

You are traveling to Thailand on a business trip. Your laptop's touchscreen display is visibly flickering between being too bright and too dim when plugged into the power outlet at a local coffee shop. You take your laptop to your hotel room, and you notice it doesn't flicker when plugged in there. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue? The digitizer of the laptop is faulty The coffee shop was experiencing power fluctuations that led to the flickering of the display The inverter of the laptop is faulty The battery of the laptop is failing to charge

The coffee shop was experiencing power fluctuations that led to the flickering of the display OBJ-5.4: Since the only change between the flickering and non-flickering was the change in location and the power source, it is likely the cause of the issue. In some areas of the world, power is less stable and reliable than in more industrialized countries like the United States, Canada, England, and Japan. Some locations around the world have less reliable power that is subject to more power fluctuations. Flicker is a visible change in a lamp's brightness due to rapid fluctuations in the power supply voltage. The voltage drop is generated over the grid's source impedance by the changing load current of equipment or facility. These fluctuations can generate the visible flicker noticed by the user of the device.

You just received a phone call from one of your customers regarding an old monitor. The monitor uses a VGA port, and the customer is worried because they only have an old VGA cable that has a few pins broken off. The customer asks you what would happen if they used that cable to connect the monitor over VGA. What would MOST likely happen? The monitor will be black and white The display will show incorrect colors on the screen The monitor will cause distorted images on the screen The monitor will be dim or start to flicker

The display will show incorrect colors on the screen OBJ-5.4: Unfortunately, a missing or broken pin or two can cause an array of issues. Each of the 15 pins is used to create a composite image on the screen. There are three rows of pins, with 5 pins per row. Due to the pinout of a VGA cable, if pins 1, 2, or 3 are missing, the display will be miscolored. If pins 13 or 14 are missing, the screen will not hold horizontal or vertical sync. The other pins are not used or are used as ground wires. Therefore, either the incorrect colors will show up on the screen, or the screen won't display at all. The other options are not possible.

Eduardo's laptop is shutting down intermittently. Sometimes, the laptop will work for 20 minutes before shutting itself down, and other times it can work for 90 minutes before shutting itself down. He noticed that if he is doing more processor-intensive work such as video editing, the laptop will shut down more quickly than if he is doing simple word processing tasks. A technician examines the laptop and does not smell any unusual odors coming from it. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the laptop to intermittently shut down? The laptop has inadequate airflow and is overheating The laptop's motherboard has a swollen capacitor The laptop's CMOS battery has failed The laptop's battery connection is loose

The laptop has inadequate airflow and is overheating OBJ-5.2: If the laptop had inadequate airflow, it intermittently shuts down at random times. Since the laptop shuts down faster if more intensive processor tasks are performed, this also indicates an overheating issue when the heat from the processor cannot be dissipated fast enough. If a laptop has a swollen capacitor, then a technician will smell a foul odor coming from the motherboard. A swollen capacitor indicates a motherboard failure that can lead to strange issues occurring on the laptop. If the laptop loses power when moved, this is most likely a loose battery connection. If the CMOS battery has failed, then it would cause the laptop to lose its date/time settings.

Jonni's laptop works perfectly when sitting at his desk. Whenever Jonni moves his laptop from his desk to the conference room, though, the laptop unexpectedly powers off. A technician examines the laptop and does not smell any unusual odors coming from it. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the laptop to lose power when moved? The laptop has inadequate airflow and is overheating The laptop's CMOS battery has failed The laptop's battery connection is loose The laptop's motherboard has a swollen capacitor

The laptop's battery connection is loose OBJ-5.2: If the laptop loses power when moved, this is most likely a loose battery connection. Since the laptop operates without any issues when on the user's desk, it indicates that the connection comes loose during movement. If the laptop had inadequate airflow, it intermittently shuts down at random times and not only when moved. If the laptop had a swollen capacitor, the technician would smell a foul odor coming from the motherboard. If the CMOS battery has failed, then it would cause the laptop to lose its date/time settings but the laptop would not shut down intermittently.

On Tuesday evening, the company just pushed a new Windows 10 security update to all of its workstations. On Wednesday morning, the help desk receives numerous complaints about the network being slower than normal. Previously, the network was baselined at 1 Gbps as each workstation uses a wired CAT 6 connection. Today, a technician ran a speed test and saw the network was only reaching speeds of 100 Mbps. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the network slowdown? The network was reconfigured from DHCP to static The incorrect DHCP server configuration is being used The incorrect DNS server configuration is being used The network card drivers were updated last night

The network card drivers were updated last night OBJ-5.7: Often, security updates, patches, and upgrades will reconfigure a network card's drivers during a Windows security update. If this happens, the system may revert to a more generic version of the driver, decreasing speeds from 1 Gbps to 100 Mbps. The network card's drivers should be rolled back to the previous driver to restore functionality and correct it. If there were configuration changes to the DNS or DHCP server, it would limit connectivity completely instead of simply slowing down the connection. If the network changed from DHCP to static assignments, the workstations would not get an APIPA address and would not have connected to the network at a slower speed.

You are attempting to troubleshoot a computer for a user. When you attempt to turn on the computer by pressing the power button, the computer turns on, and the fan spins normally. There is no output displayed on the screen from the PCIe x16 video card. You turn off the computer, remove the processor and the memory, and attempt to power on the computer again. During the boot-up sequence, you do not hear any POST beep codes, but the fans still spin normally. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of his issue? The power supply's voltage switch is set to 240V but the power outlet is providing 110V The motherboard has failed and needs to be replaced The CMOS battery needs to be replaced The power supply wattage is too low for the components in the computer

The power supply wattage is too low for the components in the computer OBJ-5.2: If your computer won't boot, but fans spin continuously, it indicates a problem with the power supply, the motherboard, or overheating could be occurring. When the power supply to your computer fails, it won't start or power up, but the fans spin (as described in this question). One of the reasons your computer won't boot but the fans spin could be a bad processor or memory chip. To isolate this as a reason, you should remove the processor and memory and then attempt to boot up the computer and listen for a POST beep code. In this case, we could eliminate the motherboard, processor, and memory as the issue's source since no POST beep codes were heard. Based on the symptoms and actions performed, it appears that the power supply is not providing enough wattage to all the components of the computer, which is why the fans are spinning (they use low wattage) while the rest of the system fails to boot.

Dion Training's video editor wants to install a new dedicated GPU using an expansion card. Which of the following should they verify before installing the new card? The number of SATA connectors available The power supply's wattage rating The power supply's efficiency rating The power supply supports a 12 VDC input

The power supply's wattage rating OBJ-3.5: Dedicated graphics cards use the most power of any component in a computer. If someone is installing or replacing a graphics card, it is important to compare the current system's power usage to the wattage rating of the power supply to ensure it can support the new graphics card. SATA connectors are not used with graphics cards but are instead used for storage devices and optical drives. The power supply should support 115 VAC or 230 VAC as its input and provide 12 VDC, 5 VDC, and 3.3 VDC as its output. The power supply's efficiency rating would tell the user how much of the input power is being converted to output power, but this is not important in deciding if the power supply can support the new graphics card.

Dion Training's graphic designer is having an issue printing full-page color images using an older color laser printer on the network. The graphic designer can print smaller images such as full-page vector graphic logos, but if they attempt to print a full-page bitmap photo the printer will print only 60% to 70% of the page and then fail. The vector images are less than 100 MB in size, but the larger bitmap photos can be 400 MB to 800 MB in size. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the print failure of the photos? The printer is low on black toner The printer is running out of memory The graphic designer is not printing using PCL The connection to the print server is timing out

The printer is running out of memory OBJ-5.6: The most likely reason for this failure is a lack of memory in the printer. A laser printer must load the entire image into memory before it can process it and print the image to the page. If the laser printer runs out of memory, it will print the part of the image it has processed in memory to the page and then fails. For example, if this printer only has 256 MB of RAM, then it will be able to print the vector graphics without any issues and will fail when trying to print full-size high-resolution photos that are 400 MB to 800 MB in size. There is no indication that there is fading in the printed images to indicate the toner is low. Whether using PCL or PostScript, the lack of memory will still cause the print job to fail. The print server is not timing out since the printer can load most of the image to its memory before failing.

Jason presents a "how to pass your certification exams on the first attempt" lesson for his students using an overhead projector. After 24 minutes, the project goes blank. Jason allows the students to take a 15-minute coffee break while he attempts to turn the project back on. The project runs for another 4 minutes and then turns off again. What is MOST likely wrong with the projector and the laptop setup? The laptop's display driver needs to be updated The sleep setting on the laptop is too short The projector is overheating The HDMI cable is unplugged

The projector is overheating OBJ-5.4: The most likely cause is that the projector is overheating. A faulty or clogged cooling fan could cause this. If the projector overheats, it will turn off the projector's bulb to reduce the machine's heat load. The laptop's sleep setting is not the cause since it is randomly turning off at different amounts of time.

Jason left his smartphone in his car while running into a convenience store to grab a cold drink on a sunny day. When he got back to the car, his smartphone would not turn on. Which of the following issues most likely occurred? The digitizer is broken The smartphone is overheated The battery is depleted The smartphone has no connectivity

The smartphone is overheated OBJ-5.5: Smartphones are designed to operate between 32 and 95 degrees Fahrenheit (0 to 35 degrees Celsius). If a smartphone is left in a car on a sunny day, it is likely to become overheated and shut down until it returns to a normal temperature range. If this occurs, the smartphone should remain off until it cools down to the normal range.

Jason's cellphone company advertises that they offer unlimited data. The internet at Jason's studio was not working today, so he turned on his mobile hotspot to upload the videos recorded today. Initially, the data transfer was occurring without any issues and Jason observed that his data was uploading at 25 Mbps. After 20-30 minutes, though, the speed of the connection dropped to only 0.125 Mbps. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this drop in speed during the upload process? The smartphone's 802.11 radio is broken The smartphone's battery has been depleted The smartphone reached the data cap for the month The smartphone is undergoing a DDoS attack

The smartphone reached the data cap for the month OBJ-1.4: A data cap or bandwidth cap is a service-provider imposed limitation on the amount of data transferred by a user's account or device over the cellular network. Many smartphone plans that advertise unlimited data still have a transfer limit. Once the limit is reached, these plans will either prevent all data transfer from occurring or slow down the speeds of data transfer. For example, T-Mobile offers unlimited data in the United States, but if a user transfers over 50GB of data then their data is deprioritized and transmitted at slower speeds. Other carriers will use a data throttling method, instead, which slows down all data sent for the remainder of the customer's billing cycle. A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack is a denial of service attack that uses multiple compromised computers, called zombies, to launch the attack against a target. Based on the scenario, there is no evidence that the smartphone's battery is depleted since the phone is still online and transmitting data. The smartphone is not using Wi-Fi to transmit the data and there is no evidence that the 802.11 (Wi-Fi) radio is broken.

Tony, a system administrator, set up a printer on John's workstation. During the setup, Tony was able to print a test page. Later, when John attempted to print a document, an error message was displayed that indicates access was denied to the printer. John tried to restart the printer and workstation, but the same error message is displayed when he attempts to print a document. Which of the following MOST likely caused this issue? The print spooler is hung and must be restarted The printer lacks the memory required to process the document The user lacks adequate security permissions to the printer The printer is offline

The user lacks adequate security permissions to the printer OBJ-5.6: A printer needs the user to have the proper permissions to print. Since Tony was a system administrator, he had adequate permissions to print the test page. But, if Tony neglected to add the proper permissions to John's account, then John would be unable to print. This is indicated by the access denied error message received when he attempts to print a document. The printer is not offline since it is powered on and properly connected to the workstation. The print spooler is not hung as evidenced by the system administrator can print to it. Memory limitations can be a factor, but that produces a different error message.

Jason's cellphone company allows him to use his smartphone as a wireless hotspot with his laptop when traveling. Jason notices that if he runs a speed test from his smartphone, the cellular connection is 8761 kbps. If he runs the same speed test connection from his laptop connected to his cellphone over its wireless hotspot, the speed drops to 243 kbps. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for the drop in the speed test results? The laptop is out of range of the smartphone's hotspot The smartphone's RFID signal is low The SSID for the wireless hotspot is not being broadcast The wireless hotspot feature is throttling the cellular connection speed

The wireless hotspot feature is throttling the cellular connection speed OBJ-5.7: Some cellular companies provide free mobile hotspots as part of their plans, but they will throttle the speeds provided by the hotspot. For example, T-Mobile in the United States can provide extremely fast cellular data connections from your smartphone, but they will throttle your hotspot connectivity to 256 kbps unless you purchase an additional high-speed option for your hotspot. The other options are all incorrect since any of those issues would cause the laptop to have no connectivity instead of the slow connectivity provided in the question.

A customer is complaining that they cannot connect to the local network share drive. You run the command 'ipconfig /all' from their workstation, and it returns an IP of 169.254.34.12. Which of the following is the problem with this workstation? The workstation couldn't reach the DNS server The workstation couldn't reach the proxy server The workstation couldn't reach the DHCP server The workstation couldn't reach the gateway

The workstation couldn't reach the DHCP server OBJ-5.7: Since the customer's IP address is 169.254.34.12, it is an APIPA address. Since the workstation has an APIPA address, it means the DHCP server was unreachable. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. APIPA serves as a DHCP server failover mechanism and makes it easier to configure and support small local area networks (LANs). If no DHCP server is currently available, either because the server is temporarily down or because none exists on the network, the computer selects an IP address from a range of addresses (from 169.254.0.0 - 169.254.255.255) reserved for that purpose.

Dion Training recently hired a new graphic designer. You have been asked to install a new, high-end PCIe x16 graphics card into one of the standard corporate workstations so the new designer can get to work. After installing the card, you attempt to power on the computer. The computer makes some odd noises when you press the power button, but the monitor displays the words, 'no source.' What is MOST likely the issue? The processor in the workstation isn't powerful enough to support the card The graphics card installed in the workstation was defective The workstation is overheating due to the graphics card The workstation's power supply isn't powerful enough to support the card

The workstation's power supply isn't powerful enough to support the card OBJ-5.2: High-end graphics cards generally require additional power to operate. Most corporate workstations come with minimal power supplies (usually 250-300 watts) that cannot provide the additional power required to operate a high-end graphics card. In this case, the power supply should be upgraded to at least a 500-750 watt power supply to support the new graphics card.

A customer called the service desk and complained that they could not reach the internet on their computer. You ask the customer to open their command prompt, type in ipconfig, and read you the IP address. The customer reads the IP as 169.254.12.45. What is the root cause of the customer's issue based on what you know so far? Their workstation cannot reach the default gateway Their workstation cannot reach the DNS server Their workstation cannot reach the web server Their workstation cannot reach the DHCP server

Their workstation cannot reach the DHCP server OBJ-5.7: Since the customer's IP address is 169.254.12.45, it is an APIPA address. Since the workstation has an APIPA address, it means the DHCP server was unreachable. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. APIPA serves as a DHCP server failover mechanism and makes it easier to configure and support small local area networks (LANs). If no DHCP server is currently available, either because the server is temporarily down or because none exists on the network, the computer selects an IP address from a range of addresses (from 169.254.0.0 - 169.254.255.255) reserved for that purpose.

What is a tool that would allow you to easily identify a network cable that was not labeled in the wiring closet during its installation? Punchdown tool Tone generator and probe Cable tester Multimeter

Tone generator and probe OBJ-2.8: A tone generator and toner probe is an excellent tool that allows you to easily detect which cable goes to which port on a patch panel in a wiring closet. While you could use a cable tester (if both ends of the cable were available to the technician), a tone generator and probe are much more efficient at identifying cables that were not properly labeled. A tone generator is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively. A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics. Punchdown tools are used to connect an ethernet cable to the back of a patch panel, a punchdown block, or the back of a network wall jack. A multimeter can measure the voltage, amperage, and resistance of a circuit. A multimeter can be a hand-held device useful for basic fault finding and field service work or a bench instrument that can measure electricity with a high degree of accuracy.

You are troubleshooting a network connection issue between the wall jack in a user's office and the switch in the communications closet. When you plug a network cable into the wall jack, there is no connection. You check the switch in the communications closet to determine if the wall jack is properly connected to the switch. Unfortunately, none of the cables in the communication closet are labeled. Which of the following tools should you use to determine which cable in the communications closet is connected to the wall jack in the user's office since none of the cables are properly labeled? Tone generator and probe Loopback plug Punchdown tool Multimeter

Tone generator and probe OBJ-2.8: A tone generator is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively. While a multimeter could be used (in resistance mode) to determine if two ends of a cable are attached to the same cable, the distance between the user's office and the communication closet would prevent a multimeter from being used in this case. A tone generator is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively. Punchdown tools are used to connect an ethernet cable to the back of a patch panel, a punchdown block, or the back of a network wall jack.

Which of the following components of a color laser printer is used to combine the 4 colors before printing them to the paper in one pass? Transfer roller Duplexing assembly Pickup roller Transfer belt

Transfer belt OBJ-3.7: The transfer belt is the component in a color laser printer that combines the 4 colors before printing it to the paper in one pass. The transfer roller is the component in a laser printer that applies an electric charge to the paper to attract toner from the photoconductor during the imaging process. The pickup roller is the component in a laser printer that turns above a stack of paper to feed a sheet into the feed roller. The duplexing assembly is a component that enables a printer or scanner to use both sides of a page automatically.

Which of the following printer configuration settings controls the size of the paper used for the print job? Orientation Quality Tray Duplex

Tray OBJ-3.6: The tray setting is used to define what type of paper is being used by a printer. The tray setting is commonly set to auto, letter in the United States, or A4 in Europe. The quality setting is used to define the overall output characteristics of the print job. If the best setting is used, the printer will use more ink/toner in producing the image and printer more slowly. If the Fast, Draft, or Low settings are used, the printer will use less ink/toner and print more quickly. Page orientation is how a rectangular page is oriented for normal viewing. The two most common types of orientation are portrait and landscape. Duplex printing is a feature of some computer printers, multi-function printers (MFPs), and copy machines that allow the printing of a sheet of paper on both sides automatically. Without this capability, print devices can only print on a single side of the paper, sometimes called single-sided printing or simplex printing. With duplex printing, information is printed on the front side of a piece of paper, and then the paper is automatically fed back through the printer to print the information on the backside of the paper.

A customer complains that their smartphone is hot to the touch when charging and their rubber phone case no longer fits it properly. What should you do? Turn off the phone, do not plug into the wall outlet, and replace the battery Put the phone under a heavy textbook to reshape the battery Let the smartphone cool down for a few hours and try to recharge it again Open the battery meter app to see what is placing a large load on the battery

Turn off the phone, do not plug into the wall outlet, and replace the battery OBJ-5.5: Anytime there is excessive heat and swelling, the battery should be replaced and the phone should not be used until the battery is properly replaced by a certified technician. On 2 September 2016, Samsung suspended sales of the Galaxy Note 7 and announced an informal recall after it was found that a manufacturing defect in the phones' batteries had caused some of them to generate excessive heat that resulted in swelling batteries, fires, and sometimes explosions.

You are building a virtualization server that runs on Windows Server 2016. The server will host multiple virtual machines, each with a different operating system. Which type of hypervisor should you select for this environment? Type 2 IaaS Bare metal Type 1

Type 2 OBJ-4.2: A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of an existing operating system. In this case, the scenario states that the virtualization server is already running Windows 2016, so you must install your hypervisor on Windows 2016. A Type 1 hypervisor, also known as bare metal, uses a specialized hypervisor OS to run the virtual machines (such as VM Ware's ESXi). Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center.

What is the MOST common connector type used when connecting a USB cable to the back of a printer? Type A Mini-USB Micro-USB Type B

Type B OBJ-3.1: The most common USB connector used to connect to a printer is USB Type B. This connector has a large square-shaped male connector that is connected to the rear of the printer. A USB Type A connector is often used to connect to the workstation or computer itself. This question specifically asked which connector is being attached to the printer. Micro USB is a miniaturized version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) interface developed for connecting compact and mobile devices such as smartphones, MP3 players, GPS devices, and digital cameras. Mini USB was introduced with USB 2.0 and was used with digital cameras and early tablets.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the port cluster.) Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as B? SPDIF USB PS/2 FireWire

USB OBJ-3.1: This port is the USB connection. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard's rear port cluster by sight.

Which of the following types of USB connections can support data rates of up to 12 Mbps? You Answered USB 2.0 USB 3.0 USB 3.1 USB 1.1

USB 1.1 OBJ-3.1: USB 1.1 can support data rates up to 12 Mbps. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the port cluster.) Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as J? USB 2.0 USB 3.0 FireWire eSATA

USB 2.0 OBJ-3.1: These ports are the USB 2.0 connections. This is indicated by their black color (instead of being red or blue for USB 3.0 ports). Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host. Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard's rear port cluster by sight.

Which of the following types of USB connections can support data rates of up to 480 Mbps? USB 3.0 USB 2.0 USB 1.1 USB 1.0

USB 2.0 OBJ-3.1: USB 2.0 can support data rates up to 480 Mbps. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host. Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.

Which of the following types of USB connections can support up to 4.5 watts of power per connected device? USB 1.1 USB 2.0 USB 3.0 USB 1.0

USB 3.0 OBJ-3.1: USB 3.0 can support providing up to 4.5 watts of power per connected device. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host. Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at the slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the port cluster.) Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as G? USB-C FireWire USB 2.0 USB 3.0

USB 3.0 OBJ-3.1: These ports are the USB 3.0 connections. The red coloring notates this. USB 3.0 ports are always shown as a different color to differentiate them from the older and slower USB 2.0 ports. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard's rear port cluster by sight.

Your son has a gaming laptop in his bedroom. He loves his laptop since it allows him to take it over to his friend's houses when desired, but his laptop only has 1 USB port. When he gets home, though, he prefers to use a USB mouse, keyboard, and webcam when playing games on his laptop. He only has $20 saved up but wants to buy a device that would allow him to connect all 3 of these peripherals with one USB connector. Which of the following do you recommend he purchase? Docking Station USB 4-port hub Port replicator Thunderbolt

USB 4-port hub OBJ-1.3: Since your son has a limited budget of just $20, the best option to meet his needs would be a USB 4-port hub. This would allow him to connect his USB mouse, keyboard, and a webcam to the USB 4-port hub and then connect the USB 4-port hub using a single USB connector to the laptop. A USB hub is a device that connects to a USB port to allow additional USB devices to be connected to the PC, essentially increasing the number of USB ports available. Thunderbolt is a connector type that can be used either as a display interface (like DisplayPort) or as a general peripheral interface (like USB 3). Thunderbolt 3 uses USB-C connectors. A docking station is a sophisticated type of port replicator designed to provide additional ports (such as network or USB) and functionality (such as expansion slots and drives) to a portable computer when used at a desk. A port replicator is a simple device to extend the range of ports (for example, USB, DVI, HDMI, Thunderbolt, network, and so on) available for a laptop computer when it is used at a desk. The difference between a docking station and a port replicator is that a docking station can add additional capabilities beyond what is already integrated into the laptop whereas a port replicator can only reproduce the same ports that already exist on the laptop.

What type of connector can be inserted into the port in either direction without damaging the port? USB Type C USB Type A USB Type B FireWire

USB Type C OBJ-3.1: A USB Type C (USB-C) is a 24-pin USB connector with a rotational symmetrical connector, which means it can be plugged into the port in either direction. USB-C makes it easier and more convenient to plug into a USB-C female port than previous versions like Type A and Type B. FireWire and USB Type B use a d-shaped connector that can only be inserted in one direction. USB Type A uses a rectangular connector with a protrusion on one half of the connector to force insertion in only one direction.

Which of the following cables supports both charging and data transfer with a non-directional connector inserted into a port on the device? USB-A Mini-USB USB-C Micro-USB

USB-C OBJ-3.1: USB-C can be inserted in any direction since it is designed as a non-directional connector. There are many other variations of USB cables in use today such as Micro-USB, Mini-USB, USB-A, and USB-B that can only be inserted into the port in a single direction due to the physical shape of their connector. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.

Which of the following cables is MOST widely used by modern Android smartphones and tablets? Lightning Mini USB Micro USB USB-C

USB-C OBJ-1.3: Modern Android devices most commonly use USB-C connections. USB-C is the default standard used in USB 3.1 with a 24-pin connector. The connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction. Before USB-C, Android devices used either Micro USB or Mini USB connectors. Micro USB is a miniaturized version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) interface developed for connecting compact and mobile devices such as smartphones, Mp3 players, GPS devices, photo printers, and digital cameras. Micro USB connectors exist or have existed in three forms: micro A, micro B, and micro USB 3. Mini USB was introduced with USB 2.0 and was used with digital cameras and early tablets. Mini USB is not commonly used in modern devices. Android devices do NOT use the lightning cable because it is a proprietary 8-pin port and connector used solely by Apple devices. The Lightning connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction. Lightning is a proprietary computer bus and power connector created by Apple. The lightning cable is used by every iPhone from the 5 to 13 series. Newer iPads have shifted to the use of USB-C for charging instead of the lightning cable, though.

Which of the following technologies combines the functionality of a firewall, malware scanner, and other security appliances into one device? Syslog UTM IDS IPS

UTM OBJ-2.4: A Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance enforces a variety of security-related measures, combining the work of a firewall, malware scanner, and intrusion detection/prevention. A UTM centralizes the threat management service, providing simpler configuration and reporting than isolated applications spread across several servers or devices. An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors a network or system for malicious activity or policy violations. Any malicious activity or violation is typically reported to an administrator or collected centrally using a security information and event management system. Unlike an IPS, which can stop malicious activity or policy violations, an IDS can only log these issues and not stop them. An intrusion prevention system (IPS) conducts the same functions as an IDS but can also block or take actions against malicious events. A Syslog server is a server that collects diagnostic and monitoring data from the hosts and network devices across a given network.

A customer's Android smartphone is only 6 months old but is becoming excessively slow. When questioned, the customer states it was acting fine until they recently installed a new stock market tracking app. What action should you take to troubleshoot the slow performance on this phone? Perform a hard reboot of the smartphone Factory reset the smartphone and reinstall all the apps Replace the phone with a newer model Uninstall the app, reboot the phone, and reinstall the app

Uninstall the app, reboot the phone, and reinstall the app OBJ-5.5: The best option in this scenario is to uninstall and reinstall the stock market app. When apps are updated automatically, they can sometimes become faulty or corrupted and slow down performance on the device. With Android phones, much like iPhones, apps can run in the background and may begin to take up excess resources. If the app is removed, the phone is rebooted, and the app is reinstalled, and the issue persists, then the app should be removed, and an alternate app selected to replace it. Remember, in the CompTIA troubleshooting method we should always question the obvious. In the question, the thing that recently changed was the installing of a new app, so it is likely the issue.

Which of the following network devices is used to put each connected network host to its own collision domain? Hub Unmanaged switch Access point Repeater

Unmanaged switch OBJ-2.2: A switch is a network device that receives incoming data into a buffer, then the destination MAC address is compared with an address table so that data is only sent out to the port with the corresponding MAC address. In a switched network, each port is in a separate collision domain. A managed switch is a switch with advanced networking functions and security settings that can be enabled and configured by an administrator. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which slows down the entire network. A repeater is an electronic device that receives a signal and retransmits it. Repeaters are used to extend transmissions so that the signal can cover longer distances or be received on the other side of an obstruction. Repeaters may be wired or wireless, and they rebroadcast whatever signal is received through their transmitter. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An AP supports the connection of multiple wireless devices through their one wired connection.

You have just installed a new hard disk drive into your computer, but the motherboard does not recognize it within the BIOS/UEFI. You have verified the drive is properly connected to the motherboard and the power supply with the correct cables, but it still is not recognized. Which of the following actions would BEST solve this problem? Format the new hard drive as FAT-32 Configure a RAID in the BIOS/UEFI Format the new hard drive as NTFS Update the firmware of the motherboard

Update the firmware of the motherboard OBJ-5.3: This type of error (drive not recognized) is usually the result of the motherboard's firmware not supporting a newer hard drive model or the cables not being properly connected. Since we already established that the cables were properly connected, we have to consider the firmware as the issue. To troubleshoot this issue, you should restart the computer and enter the BIOS/UEFI configuration. If the BIOS/UEFI does not recognize the hard drive, then the motherboard's firmware will need to be updated. If the BIOS/UEFI cannot detect the hard drive, then the operating system cannot detect the drive either (since it relies on the underlying BIOS/UEFI to make the connection). This means that you cannot format the hard drive or configure a RAID.

A technician has installed an 802.11n network, and most users can see speeds of up to 300Mbps. A few of the users have an 802.11n network card but cannot get speeds higher than 108Mbps. What should the technician do to fix the issue? Upgrade the WLAN card driver Rollback the firmware on the WLAN card Install a vulnerability patch Upgrade the OS version to 64-bit

Upgrade the WLAN card driver OBJ-5.7: Wireless N networks can support up to 600Mbps with the network cards' proper software drivers. Without them, they can only achieve 108Mbps since they cannot communicate with the increased data compression rates. Wireless network interface card drivers are software programs installed on your hard disk that allow your operating system to communicate with your wireless and network adapters. Wireless and network driver problems usually occur due to missing, outdated, or corrupt drivers.

A customer is complaining that their workstation is beginning to run slowly when many applications are opened simultaneously. Which of the following upgrades would you recommend to solve this problem? Perform a chkdsk on their SSD Upgrade the system from 4 GB to 16 GB of RAM Replace their 802.11g card with an 802.11ac card Replace their 256 GB SSD with a 1 TB HDD

Upgrade the system from 4 GB to 16 GB of RAM OBJ-5.2: In this scenario, we want to add more RAM. RAM is the temporary storage used for running applications. By adding more RAM, you can speed up the system when running applications simultaneously and prevent reading to the slower disk drives (SSD or HDD). Replacing an SSD with an HDD would slow down the system. Replacing the 802.11g card with an 802.11ac card would help if the customer complained of slow network connectivity, but that is not the case in this scenario. There is no need to perform a chkdsk on their SSD unless there is an error stating that there are errors in the file system.

Jason is attending the CompTIA Partner's Summit convention this year. While at the conference, Jason will need to ensure his smartphone has enough battery power to last the entire day without having to recharge it since it is hard to find an available electrical outlet in the conference rooms. Jason needs to ensure his smartphone is always available for use to receive updates from his team back home, as well. Which of the following would you recommend Jason use to ensure he can use the phone all day without his smartphone running out of power? Set the smartphone to airplane mode Use a wireless charging pad Bring a power strip so that more than one person can use an electrical wall outlet Use a smartphone case with a built-in battery

Use a smartphone case with a built-in battery OBJ-1.1: Laptops and integrated PCs usually use SODIMM memory due to the memory module's smaller footprint. A small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) can be purchased in various types and sizes to fit any laptop. A dual in-line memory module (DIMM) comprises a series of dynamic random-access memory integrated circuits. A DIMM is used in workstations and printers due to its larger size and shape. VRAM (video RAM) refers to any type of random access memory (RAM) specifically used to store image data for a computer display. GDDR5 is the DDR5 memory for a graphics card, not a laptop. For the exam, if you are ever asked about installing memory in a small form factor device or a laptop, the answer will usually be SODIMM.

Which of the following refers to using virtual machines as a method of provisioning workstations for corporate users? VDI IaaS SaaS PaaS

VDI OBJ-4.1: Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) refers to using a VM as a means of provisioning corporate desktops. In a typical VDI, desktop computers are replaced by low-spec, low-power thin client computers. When the thin client starts, it boots a minimal OS, allowing the user to log on to a VM stored on the company server or cloud infrastructure. The user connects to the VM using some remote desktop protocol (Microsoft Remote Desktop or Citrix ICA, for instance). The thin client has to find the correct image and use an appropriate authentication mechanism. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the port cluster.) Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as E? DVI-I HDMI VGA DVI-D

VGA OBJ-3.1: This port is the VGA connection. A video graphics array (VGA) connector is a 15-pin HD connector that has been used to connect the graphics adapter to a monitor since 1987. The use of digital flat-panel displays rather than CRTs has made this analog connector increasingly obsolete. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard's rear port cluster by sight.

You are connecting a laptop to a brand new digital high definition TV. Unfortunately, the laptop is a little outdated and only has an analog display output. Which of the following adapters could you use to convert the signal from analog to digital for use with the new television? VGA to DVI-D HDMI to VGA S-Video to RCA DVI-D to HDMI

VGA to DVI-D OBJ-3.1: Since this question asks you to select the converter that can convert a signal from analog to digital, you need to consider which of the connectors are analog and digital. S-Video, RCA, and VGA are all analog. HDMI and DVI-D are both digital. Therefore, the correct answer is VGA (analog) to DVI-D (Digital). HDMI to VGS would be digital to analog. S-Video to RCA would be analog to analog. DVI-D to HDMI would be digital to digital.

Which of the following is the MOST dangerous type of threat when using virtualization? VM sprawl Rogue VM Virtual NIC duplication VM escape

VM escape OBJ-4.2: VM escape refers to malware running on a guest OS jumping to another guest or the host. As with any other software type, it is vital to keep the hypervisor code up-to-date with patches for critical vulnerabilities. VM escape is the biggest threat to virtualized systems. A virtual network interface card (vNIC) represents the configuration of a VM connected to a network. A VM can be configured to have multiple vNICs. A rogue VM is one that has been installed without authorization. VM sprawl is the uncontrolled deployment of more and more VMs.

Your company has an office in Boston and is worried that its employees may not reach the office during periods of heavy snowfall. You have been asked to select a technology that would allow employees to work remotely from their homes during poor weather conditions. Which of the following should you select? NAT VLAN IDS VPN

VPN OBJ-2.6: A remote-access VPN connection allows an individual user to connect to a private network from a remote location using a laptop or desktop computer connected to the internet. A remote-access VPN allows individual users to establish secure connections with a remote computer network. Once established, the remote user can access the corporate network and its capabilities as if they were accessing the network from their own office spaces. Network address translation (NAT) is a network service provided by a router or proxy server to map private local addresses to one or more publicly accessible IP addresses. NAT can use static mappings but is commonly implemented as network port address translation (PAT) or NAT overloading, where a few public IP addresses are mapped to multiple LAN hosts using port allocations. A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logically separate network that is created using switching technology. Even though hosts on two VLANs may be physically connected to the same cabling, local traffic is isolated to each VLAN so they must use a router to communicate. An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors a network or system for malicious activity or policy violations. Any malicious activity or violation is typically reported to an administrator or collected centrally using a security information and event management system. Unlike an IPS, which can stop malicious activity or policy violations, an IDS can only log these issues and not stop them.

Susan, an executive at Dion Training, will be traveling to Italy for a conference next week. She is worried about remaining connected to the internet while overseas and plans to use the WiFi in her hotel room and the local coffee shop with her laptop. Which of the following should she purchase and configure before leaving for Italy to ensure her communications remain secure regardless of where she is connecting from? Local SIM card for her smartphone VPN International data roaming plan on her cellphone Local mobile hotspot

VPN OBJ-2.6: While WiFi is available almost everywhere these days, it is not safe to use it without first configuring and using a VPN. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) connects the components and resources of two (private) networks over another (public) network. This utilizes an encryption tunnel to protect data being transferred to and from her laptop to the Dion Training servers and other websites. The other options are all focused on connecting her cellphone but would still not be considered safe without a VPN being utilized. A local mobile hotspot should be used to provide internet connectivity to the laptop (if she uses this instead of the hotel and coffee shop WiFi). Still, for best security, it should also use a VPN when using this connection.

Tom, a salesman, is trying to print a 3-page report to the network printer located in the Sales department's office space. He walks over to the printer but doesn't see the pages in the printer's output tray. He checks the on-screen display of the printer, but he doesn't see any errors listed. Tom tries a few more times, but he gets the same results. Frustrated, Tom selects the network printer for the Customer Service department and sends his print job there. He walks over to their offices and finds his 3-page report sitting in that printer's output tray. Tom asks you to help him solve this printing problem. What action should you take FIRST to help solve Tom's problem? Ask one of Tom's coworkers to attempt to print something to the Sales department's printer to verify it is working properly Verify that Tom has been sending the document to the correct network printer's queue Stop and restart the PC's print spooler service using your administrator account Log in to the network's print server, stop and restart all of the shared printer queues, and then try to reprint the document

Verify that Tom has been sending the document to the correct network printer's queue OBJ-5.6: The first thing you should do is verify that this problem is not caused by user error. To do this, you should verify which network printer queue Tom had been sending the document to the first few times. You may wish to ask a coworker to print to the Sales department's printer, but that would be your second step AFTER verifying the user was printing to that print queue properly first. Since the print job was successful once Tom switched to another printer, the PC's print spooler worked properly, so you don't need to restart it. You should not restart all of the shared printer queues unless it is necessary because this would affect all company employees and is not necessary to solve this issue.

You are troubleshooting an issue on a client's computer and need to make some computer changes to test your theory of probable cause. What should you do BEFORE you make any changes to the computer to test your theory? Order a spare power supply in case you need to replace it Provide the customer with an invoice for the work Verify that a recent backup of all of the client's important files has been created Create a system restore point in the operating system

Verify that a recent backup of all of the client's important files has been created OBJ-5.1: You should always ensure that a recent backup of all of the client's important and critical files has been created before making any changes to the computer. After all, it is easy to replace hardware if you break the computer, but the client's personal files may be irreplaceable. For example, if you accidentally delete or remove the customer's pictures of their baby, you can't just take new baby pictures to replace them!

While working as a technician, you are trying to help a customer whose PC cannot boot up. When the computer is turned on, an error stating "bootable device not found" appears on the screen. What should you attempt first? Check Disk Management to see if the system drive is recognized Verify that either the Molex or SATA cable is connected to the HDD Press F12 to check the boot order and select the proper HDD to boot from Boot into Recovery Mode and run the Bootrec /fixmbr command to fix the MBR that's preventing the PC from booting

Verify that either the Molex or SATA cable is connected to the HDD OBJ-5.3: The very first step we want to check is to check the physical connections. This falls under step two of the troubleshooting methodology (question the obvious). If a PC was recently moved or repaired, the cable may have become disconnected and is no longer powering the hard drive. When working with these cables, it is considered a best practice to ensure connections are present, remove the connection, and then reseat it to fix the issue effectively. If this doesn't work, then the issue may be with the HDD itself.

You are setting up a new wireless network at the local branch of your community's public library. Previously, the library only had a small wired network that relied on statically assigned IP addresses. You just finished installing all of the wireless access points. You configured a server to automatically provide an IP address to wireless clients when connecting to one of the wireless access points. To test the new wireless network, you turn on your wireless adapter on your laptop and connect to the network. Your laptop is automatically assigned an IP address of 192.168.1.12 from the DHCP server, and you can ping the default gateway of 192.168.1.1. You open a web browser and attempt to connect to diontraining.com, but you cannot connect and instead receive an error. You attempt to ping the IP address for the Google DNS server (8.8.8.8) and are successful. Which of the following should you attempt to do NEXT to resolve this issue? Enable DHCP inside of your laptop's network adapter settings Disable the Broadcast SSID option for the wireless access point Verify that the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server Disable the Windows Firewall to ensure it isn't blocking your access to the website

Verify that the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server OBJ-5.7: Since you are already connected to the wireless network and can ping the gateway using its IP address, you already know the SSID and DHCP are properly configured (therefore, you should not select these options). It is a poor security practice to disable the firewall, so it is not recommended that you choose this option. Since we cannot access a website using its domain name (diontraining.com), we can successfully ping a remote server using its IP address (8.8.8.8). This indicates that your laptop has not been properly assigned a DNS server to use by the DHCP server. Therefore, you need to verify the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server to the clients when it assigned them their IP address configuration information.

You just replaced a failed motherboard in a corporate workstation and returned it to service. About an hour later, the customer complained that the workstation is randomly shutting down and rebooting itself. You suspect the memory module may be corrupt, and you perform a memory test, but the memory passes all of your tests. Which of the following should you attempt NEXT in troubleshooting this problem? Verify the case fans are clean and properly connected Remove and reseat the RAM Reset the BIOS Replace the RAM with ECC modules

Verify the case fans are clean and properly connected OBJ-5.2: If a workstation overheats, it will shut down or reboot itself to protect the processor. This can occur if the case fans are clogged with dust or become unplugged. By checking and reconnecting the case fans, the technician can rule out an overheating issue causing this problem. Since the memory was already tested successfully, it does not need to be removed and reseated, or replaced with ECC modules. The BIOS is not the issue since the computer booted up into Windows successfully before rebooting.

Which of the following operating systems cannot be installed as a guest inside of a virtual machine on a Windows 10 laptop running Virtual Box? Kali Linux Windows 8 Red Hat Linux macOS

macOS OBJ-4.2: The macOS software can only be installed in a Virtual Box virtual machine running on a macOS system. If you are running Virtual Box on Windows, it can only install other versions of Windows, Linux, and Unix. This is because Apple's operating system is a free product but can only be installed on official Apple hardware as part of the licensing agreement. A Windows or Linux virtual machine can be installed on any host operating system.

A military contracting firm is worried about proprietary corporate information being removed from the company's network. To combat this, they have created strict rules regarding what types of information can leave their office building. You have been asked to fix a workstation for the company and have been brought on-site to troubleshoot the issue. You have properly followed the troubleshooting steps and have created a plan of action to fix the workstation. Unfortunately, your solution will require that the workstation be taken back to your off-site repair shop to solve the workstation's problems fully. What is the NEXT thing you should do to fix this workstation? Format the hard drive of the workstation to delete all proprietary data before taking the workstation to your repair shop Verify the contracting firm's corporate polices regarding the removal of a workstation for repairs Ask the employee who usually works on the workstation if you can take it to your repair shop Remove the internal hard disk drive and then take the workstation with you to your repair shop to fix it

Verify the contracting firm's corporate polices regarding the removal of a workstation for repairs OBJ-5.1: You should always verify the company's corporate policies you are working with for any specialized procedures or requirements involved when you are asked to work on a machine containing proprietary information. Based on their corporate policies, they may require you to remove the hard drive, delete the information on the hard drive, or follow other technical or administrative procedures before you can remove the workstation from their facility. It is not simply enough to ask the employee who normally works on that computer since they may not be authorized to make that decision (based on their corporate policies).

Dion Training's multifunction laser printer recently had a paper jam. An employee pulled the paper out of the rollers to clear the jam. Unfortunately, the device still has a paper jam error displayed on the screen and will not print. You have been called to fix this issue. Which of the following should you attempt FIRST? Verify the paper path and its sensors are not blocked Update the drivers on the print server Replace the toner cartridge Replace the pickup rollers

Verify the paper path and its sensors are not blocked OBJ-5.6: Often, employees will pull the jammed paper out of a printer to clear a paper jam. This can lead to small bits of paper being left in the path or in front of a blockage sensor. As a technician, you should always check the entire path is clear and the sensors are not blocked first if the printer claims there is a paper jam as this is the most likely cause of a continued paper jam error.

What does VDI stand for? Virtualized Data Infrastructure Virtual Desktop Integration Virtual Desktop Instances Virtual Desktop Infrastructure

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure OBJ-4.1: VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) centralizes instances for desktops that run on a single server utilizing the resources and performance from a single server. A thin client or an end-user then accesses the virtual desktops through a web browser. It is important to have sufficient resources on the central server to reduce lag time and provide an adequate user experience. VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) is used in large enterprise businesses to focus on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

When using a Type 1 hypervisor virtualized environment, which of the following hardware types is necessary to connect the VMs to the corporate network? VNC Virtual NIC VPN VDI

Virtual NIC OBJ-4.2: A virtual machine includes a virtual NIC. A virtual NIC is a type of virtual adapter that can be configured on logical partitions to provide a network interface. This virtual NIC can be paired and mapped to a physical NIC to get the VM onto the network. Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) is a software technology that separates the desktop environment and associated application software from the physical client device that is used to access it. A virtual private network (VPN) extends a private network across a public network and enables users to send and receive data across shared or public networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private network. Virtual Network Computing (VNC) is a cross-platform screen sharing system that was created to remotely control another computer from a distance by a remote user from a secondary device as though they were sitting right in front of it.

Which of the following resources is used by virtual machines to communicate with other virtual machines on the same network but prevents them from communicating with resources on the internet? Virtual external network Network address translation Virtual internal network DNS

Virtual internal network OBJ-4.2: Most virtual machines running on a workstation will have their own virtual internal network to communicate within the virtual environment while preventing them from communicating with the outside world. You may also configure a shared network address for the virtual machine to have the same IP address as the physical host that it is running on. This usually relies on network address translation to communicate from the virtual environment (inside) to the physical world (outside/internet). If you are communicating internally in the virtual network, there is no need for DNS or an external network.

Which of the following types of memory relies on temporary storage space on the hard drive that is used when there is insufficient physical memory available to perform a given task? SODIMM VRAM ECC Virtual memory

Virtual memory OBJ-3.2: Virtual memory is an area on the hard disk allocated to contain pages of memory. When the operating system doesn't have sufficient physical memory (RAM) to perform a task, pages of memory are swapped to the paging file. This frees physical RAM to enable the task to be completed. When the paged RAM is needed again, it is re-read into memory. VRAM (video RAM) refers to any type of random access memory (RAM) specifically used to store image data for a computer display. A small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) can be purchased in various types and sizes to fit any laptop, router, or other small form factor computing device. Error checking and correcting or error correcting code (ECC) is a type of system memory that has built-in error correction security. ECC is more expensive than normal memory and requires support from the motherboard. ECC is commonly used in production servers and not in standard desktops or laptops.

You need to determine the best way to test operating system patches in a lab environment before deploying them to your automated patch management system. Unfortunately, your network has several different operating systems in use, but you only have one machine available to test the patches on. What is the best environment to utilize to perform the testing of the patches before deployment? Bypass testing and deploy patches directly into the production environment Virtualization Purchase additional workstations Sandboxing

Virtualization OBJ-4.2: When you have a limited amount of hardware resources to utilize but have a requirement to test multiple operating systems, you should set up a virtualized environment to test the patch across each operating system before deployment. You should never deploy patches directly into production without testing them first in the lab. Virtualization will allow the organization to create a lab environment without significant costs. Purchasing additional workstations would be costly and more time-consuming to configure.

You are trying to install Hyper-V on a new laptop, but you keep receiving an error during installation that the software cannot be installed. Which of the following characteristics of the laptop's processor should you investigate as the MOST likely issue? Hyper-threading (HT) technology Number of cores available Cache size Virtualization (VT) support

Virtualization (VT) support OBJ-4.2: CPU Virtualization is a hardware feature found in all current AMD & Intel CPUs that allows a single processor to act as if it was multiple individual CPUs. This allows an operating system to more effectively & efficiently utilize the computer's CPU power to run faster. This is enabled or disabled on supported processors within your system's BIOS. HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits. The cache is an extremely fast internal memory located in the CPU. The number of cores is defined by the processor's multicore capability such as dual-core, quad-core, or octo-core.

A technician is troubleshooting a newly installed WAP that is sporadically dropping connections to devices on the network. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST during troubleshooting? WAP SSID Bandwidth saturation WAP placement Encryption type

WAP placement OBJ-5.7: For optimal network performance, the placement of the Wireless Access Point (WAP) guidelines should be taken into consideration to ensure that the building's construction doesn't cause interference with the wireless signals. To determine if adequate coverage and signal strength is being received in the building, you can conduct a wireless site survey. The service set identifier (SSID) is a group of wireless network devices which share a common natural language label, such as a network name. The SSID would not affect the devices and cause sporadic connection drops. Bandwidth saturation is a phenomenon that occurs when all of a circuit's available bandwidth in a given direction is being utilized by a large upload or download which can result in high latency and performance issues. Bandwidth saturation would not cause the wireless connection to drop, though. Encryption type refers to the type of security used on a wireless network, such as WEP, WPA, WPA2, or WPA3. The security type used on a network would not cause sporadic drops of the network connection, though.

Which of the following types of networks would be created if a wireless access point, a microwave link, and a satellite link were combined in a mesh? WAN LAN WMN PAN

WMN OBJ-2.3: The 802.11s standard defines a Wireless Mesh Network (WMN). Unlike an ad hoc network, nodes in a WMN (called Mesh Stations) can discover one another and peer, forming a Mesh Basic Service Set (MBSS). The mesh stations can perform path discovery and forwarding between peers, using a routing protocol, such as the Hybrid Wireless Mesh Protocol (HWMP). A wireless mesh network (WMN) is a wireless network topology where all nodes, including client stations, can provide forwarding and path discovery to improve coverage and throughput compared to using just fixed access points and extenders. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices.

Which of the following types of servers should you configure to accept requests through HTTP or HTTPS and provide resources back to the requester? Web server DHCP server File server Print server

Web server OBJ-2.4: A web server is a server that accepts requests through HTTP or HTTPS for a webpage and delivers the webpage and other requested resources to the user. A print server is a type of server that connects printers to client computers over a computer network. Print servers act as an intermediary between the computers and printers by accepting print jobs and then sending them to the correct printer when it is ready to accept new jobs. A file server is used to host and control access to shared files and folders for the organization. A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server is a server configured with a range of addresses to lease. Hosts can be allocated an IP address dynamically or be assigned a reserved IP address based on the host's MAC address. The server can also provide other configuration information, such as the location of DNS servers.

Which of the following technologies uses 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequencies to determine your location indoors based on the signal strength received or the angle of arrival of that signal to the mobile device? Wi-Fi GPS Cellular Bluetooth

Wi-Fi OBJ-1.4: Location services enable the device to know its position using its internal GPS receiver or its approximate location using its cellular radio. A mobile device can use its internal GPS, cellular, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi radios to identify its location. Wi-Fi positioning systems use the signal strength or angle of arrival of a signal to determine the device's location within 1-4 meters. Bluetooth can be used within a building to provide an accurate of the device within 3-4 meters. The use of Bluetooth and Wi-Fi to determine the device's location is known as an internal positioning system (IPS). Cellular radios can provide an approximate location based upon the triangulation of your position between different cellular towers. A GPS (global positioning system) device is used to determine a receiver's position on the Earth based on information received from 24 GPS satellites, which operate in a constellation in Medium Earth Orbit (MEO). The receiver must have a line-of-sight to four of the GPS satellites continuously to accurately determine its position on the earth (latitude, longitude, and altitude). The device's GPS receiver can provide an accurate location up to 10 meters.

Which of the following technologies could be used in a licensed long-range fixed wireless system? Bluetooth Cellular NFC Wi-Fi

Wi-Fi OBJ-2.3: Long-range fixed wireless can be licensed or unlicensed depending on the frequencies and power levels being utilized. For example, an 802.11 wireless network could be established using a directional antenna to connect two buildings over several miles using unlicensed frequencies and minimal power levels (under 200 mW) which are under the FCC limits. Alternatively, a microwave link can be established in the 4.91 GHz to 5.97 GHz unlicensed frequency range using a point-to-multipoint microwave antenna and transceiver system. Conversely, a user could purchase a licensed cellular fixed wireless system that requires a license from the FCC to operate to ensure they are not interfering with other users and services in the same frequency band.

Which of the following tools is used to identify why an 802.11g network is intermittently dropping network traffic? Multimeter Tone generator and probe Cable tester WiFi analyzer

WiFi analyzer OBJ-5.7: A WiFi analyzer can determine the wireless network's signal strength, the frequencies in use, and any possible radio frequency interference. Based on the issue described in the question, the network may have dead zones that could be fixed by adding additional access points to increase the network's wireless coverage. Another possible issue could be radio frequency interference from other devices, which a WiFi analyzer could help identify. A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics. A multimeter can measure the voltage, amperage, and resistance of a circuit. A multimeter can be a hand-held device useful for basic fault finding and field service work or a bench instrument that can measure electricity with a high degree of accuracy. A tone generator is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively.

Dion Training has recently purchased a new wireless printer and has asked you to configure it in their office. You have installed the necessary printer drivers on your workstation and have plugged the printer into the power outlet. You just configured the printer to connect to the guest wireless network. Next, you try to print a test page, but nothing prints out. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the printer not printing the test page? You connected the printer to the guest wireless network instead of the corporate wireless network You didn't enable DHCP on your workstation You forgot to configure your workstation as a print server You didn't configure the printer to use the Internet Printing Protocol (IPP)

You connected the printer to the guest wireless network instead of the corporate wireless network OBJ-5.6: Most corporate wireless networks are configured as two separate networks: one for the corporate wireless network traffic and another for any guests that might connect to the wireless network while visiting your offices. These two wireless networks are isolated from each other, so if you connect the printer to the guest wireless network then the workstations will be unable to reach the printer and print out any documents or test pages.

You have been asked to replace the processor in a workstation. You remove the old processor, install the new processor into the motherboard slot, attach the heat sink, and attempt to power on the workstation. The workstation boots up but after a minute the computer shuts itself down. Which of the following steps did you MOST likely forget to perform? You forgot to reattach the power cables to the case fans You forgot to close the ZIF socket You forgot to replace the RAM with parity memory You forgot to apply thermal paste to the processor during the installation

You forgot to apply thermal paste to the processor during the installation OBJ-3.4: When you install a processor, you need to ensure you install it in the processor socket on the motherboard, apply thermal paste to the backside of the processor, attach the heat sink, attach the processor fan to the heat sink, and then connect the power cable to the processor fan. If you neglect to apply the thermal paste between the processor and the heat sink, the heat sink cannot effectively dissipate all the heat from the processor, and the computer will shut itself down to protect the processor from becoming overheated. Thermal paste is a paste used to connect a heat sink to a CPU that provides a liquid thermally conductive compound gel to fill any gaps between the CPU and the heat sink to transfer heat more efficiently to the heat sink from the CPU.

Which of the following is an open-source wireless communication protocol operating in the 2.4 GHz frequency band and is primarily used for home automation? Z-Wave Zigbee NFC Bluetooth

Zigbee OBJ-2.4: Zigbee is an open-source wireless communication protocol used for home automation. Zigbee is open-source, unlike Z-Wave, which is proprietary. Zigbee uses the 2.4 GHz frequency band. This higher frequency allows more data bandwidth at the expense of range than Z-Wave and the greater risk of interference from other 2.4 GHz radio communications. Zigbee supports more overall devices within a single network (65,000 compared to 232 for Z-wave), and there is no hop limit for communication between devices. Z-wave is a low-power wireless communications protocol used primarily for home automation. Z-wave uses radio frequencies in the 800 MHz and 900 MHz frequency ranges. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another.

Which of the following statements about an eSATA connection is correct? eSATA is slower than USB 3.0 eSATA uses unshielded cables eSATA is used to add additional internal storage devices eSATA is used to add additional external storage devices

eSATA is used to add additional external storage devices OBJ-3.1: The External Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (or eSATA) is used for connecting external drives to provide additional storage. When connecting a cable to an eSATA port, you must use a shielded cable. SATA is an internal connector for adding storage, while eSATA is reserved for external use. USB 3.0 can operate at speeds up to 5 Gbps, while eSATA can operate at speeds of up to 6 Gbps.

Which of the following synchronization methods does NOT work with Android devices? Google Workspace iTunes Office 365 Flickr

iTunes OBJ-1.4: Android can not use iTunes to perform synchronization functions. The iTunes application only works with Apple devices, such as iPhones and iPads. Android devices can use Google Workspace with Gmail to sync emails and contacts. Android devices can also use Office 365 to sync emails, contacts, and other files if you are a Microsoft subscriber. Android devices can use Flickr to sync photos.

Jason has just returned to his office after vacation and is attempting to access diontraining.com. He receives an error that he cannot connect to the website. He then tries to connect to the company's local intranet server, which he can connect to without any issues. Next, he pings the IP address for diontraining.com and gets a successful connection. Finally, he tries to ping diontraining.com by its domain name, and then he receives an error. Which of the following commands should Jason enter NEXT to try and resolve this issue ipconfig /renew ipconfig /release ipconfig /all ipconfig /flushdns

ipconfig /flushdns OBJ-5.7: Whenever you have an issue where you can ping the server's IP, but you cannot access it by its domain name, it has something to do with DNS. Being able to troubleshoot issues with internet connections is an important part of being an IT technician or administrator. The ipconfig /flushdns command provides you with a means to flush and reset the contents of the DNS client resolver cache. During DNS troubleshooting, if necessary, you can use this procedure to discard negative cache entries from the cache, as well as, any other dynamically added entries. Resetting the cache does not eliminate entries that are preloaded from the local Hosts file. To eliminate those entries from the cache, remove them from the hosts.ini file instead.

Rick, a computer technician, was contacted by a customer who wants to reduce his office computer's footprint to save space. Which of the following cases is the smallest form factor? mATX ATX mITX ITX

mITX OBJ-3.4: Since the customer wants to save space and reduce the computer's overall size, Rick should use an mITX (Mini-ITX). The mITX contains a smaller footprint than the other options presented and measures only 6.7" x 6.7" in size. The mATX (microATX) motherboard's form factor is 9.6" x 9.6" in size (24 cm x 24 cm). The mATX form factor is commonly used in smaller computer systems with a small form factor (SFF) case. An mATX motherboard is backward-compatible with the larger ATX motherboard since it contains the same mounting point locations as the full-size board. An ATX motherboard's form factor is 12" x 9.6" in size (305mm x 244mm). ITX is a series of form factors which began with the mini-ITX, but there is no specific size called ITX.

Which motherboard form factor measures 6.7" x 6.7" (17 cm x 17cm) in size? ATX mITX ITX mATX

mITX OBJ-3.4: The mITX (Mini-ITX) form factor is 6.7" x 6.7" in size (17 cm x 17cm). The mITX is commonly used in smaller computer systems with a small form factor (SFF) case. These motherboards are usually used in computers designed for passive cooling and a low power consumption architecture, such as a home theater PC system. The mATX (microATX) motherboard's form factor is 9.6" x 9.6" in size (24 cm x 24 cm). The mATX form factor is commonly used in smaller computer systems with a small form factor (SFF) case. An mATX motherboard is backward-compatible with the larger ATX motherboard since it contains the same mounting point locations as the full-size board. An ATX motherboard's form factor is 12" x 9.6" in size (305mm x 244mm). ITX is a series of form factors that began with the mini-ITX, but there is no specific size called ITX.

You have been asked to replace the wireless 802.11ac card in an employee's laptop. Which of the following types of expansion cards is this? SODIMM PCIe miniPCIe NVMe

miniPCIe OBJ-1.1: Mini PCIe (mPCIe) are smaller form factor versions of standard PCI Express expansions cards used with laptops and other small form factor computing devices. Mini PCIe expansion cards provide the ability to add wireless networking or cellular data cards to a laptop. Non-volatile memory express (NVMe) is an interface for connecting flash memory devices, such as SSDs, directly to a PCI Express bus. NVMe allows much higher transfer rates than SATA/AHCI. PCI Express (PCIe) is an expansion bus standard using serial communications. Each device on the bus can create a point-to-point link with the I/O controller or another device. The link comprises one or more lanes (x1, x2, x4, x8, x12, x16, or x32). Each lane supports a full-duplex transfer rate of 250 MBps (v1.0), 500 MBps (v2.0), or 1 GBps (v3.0). A small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) can be purchased in various types and sizes to fit any laptop, router, or other small form factor computing device.