Dentistry Section 7
107. Ideally, the cutting edge of the scaler should be held at what angle to the tooth surface? A. 5 to 10 degrees B. 35 to 45 degrees C. 15 to 30 degrees D. 45 to 90 degrees
D. 45 to 90 degrees
103. Of cats and dogs ages 6 years and older, approximately what percentage has periodontal disease? A. 20% B. 35% C. 50% D. 85%
D. 85%
32. Malocclusion in which one or more of the upper incisor teeth are caudal to the lower incisors A. Posterior crossbite B. Base-narrow mandibular canines C. Wry mouth D. Anterior crossbite
D. Anterior crossbite Anterior crossbite is the most common orthodontic abnormality. The premolar relationship is a normal scissor occlusion, but one or more of the incisors are misaligned.
11. The pulp canal of a tooth contains A. Nerves B. Blood vessels C. Connective tissue and blood vessels D. Blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissues
D. Blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissues These are all part of the pulp tissue that helps support odontoblastic cells that line the pulp chamber and root canal.
116. What term identifies the tooth surface facing the cheeks? A. Apical B. Rostral C. Furcation D. Buccal
D. Buccal
16. The heaviest calculus deposition in dogs and cats is typically located on the A. Lingual surfaces of the lower cheek teeth B. Lower canine teeth C. Incisor teeth D. Buccal surfaces of the upper cheek teeth
D. Buccal surfaces of the upper cheek teeth The heaviest calculus usually is found here because of the adjacent parotid salivary duct opening.
82. In which of the following species do the teeth fail to continue growing? A. Equine B. Rabbit C. Rat D. Cat
D. Cat Equine should have their teeth floated on a regular basis to prevent the formation of points on their molars that interfere with their ability to grind their food. Rabbits and rats often require their teeth to be clipped to prevent overgrowth and damage to the palate. Cats' teeth do not continue to grow.
123. What term identifies the instrument used for root planing? A. Periodontal probe B. Explorer C. Scaler D. Curette
D. Curette
2. Which of the following is a proper dental term for describing a tooth surface? A. Mesial---farthest from the midline B. Mesial---nearest the front C. Distal---nearest the midline D. Distal---farthest from the midline
D. Distal---farthest from the midline Mesial surface is the part closest to the midline of the arch. It is the surface toward the rostral end or front of the mouth. Whereas distal is the part farthest away from the midline. It is the surface toward the back of the tooth.
19. The periodontium includes the periodontal ligament and all of the following except A. Gingiva B. Cementum C. Alveolar bone D. Enamel
D. Enamel The periodontium is the supporting structure of the teeth and includes the periodontal ligament, gingiva, cementum, and alveolar and supporting bone.
99. What term identifies the loss of tooth structure by chemical means? A. Plaque B. Attrition C. Calculus D. Erosion
D. Erosion
38. The most common dental procedure performed on a horse is A. Quidding B. Curettage C. Scaling D. Floating
D. Floating Floating is the filing or rasping of a horse's premolar and molar teeth to remove the sharp edges. Quidding is the dropping of food while chewing it, often a sign that teeth need to be examined.
13. Enamel, which is the hardest body substance A. Contains living tissue B. Covers the tooth crown and root C. Continues production by the ameloblasts after eruption D. Is relatively nonporous and impervious
D. Is relatively nonporous and impervious Enamel is thus relatively easy to clean and slow to stain. It is acellular and is considered nonliving. Cementum covers the root of the tooth. Ameloblasts do form enamel during tooth development, but enamel production (amelogenesis) stops just before tooth eruption and no more enamel is produced.
87. When performing dental prophylaxis, you should be sure to wear A. Cap, mask, gloves B. Gown, gloves, mask C. Cap, eye protection, gloves D. Mask, eye protection, gloves
D. Mask, eye protection, gloves
83. The root length of an upper canine is how long compared with the length of the exposed portion of that tooth? A. One half the length B. Same length C. Three times the length D. One and a half times the length
D. One and a half times the length
34. Dry socket is more likely to occur when one A. Ensures there is an increased blood supply to the area B. Practices good surgical technique C. Allows a blood clot to form so that fibroblasts are formed D. Overirrigates the tooth socket so that no clot can form
D. Overirrigates the tooth socket so that no clot can form Dry socket has multifactorial causes and is a painful postoperative complication of extraction. One local factor seems to be a deficiency in blood supply to the alveolus so that a good clot does not develop. This alone will not cause dry socket, however.
80. Which of the following statements is false with respect to polishing an animal's teeth following scaling? A. The polishing paste used should be of medium or fine granularity B. Polishing acts to remove microscopic grooves left by the scaling process. C. The polishing instrument should be moved from tooth to tooth to prevent thermal damage to the pulp. D. Polishing is a means for removing stubborn plaque that occurs below the gumline.
D. Polishing is a means for removing stubborn plaque that occurs below the gumline. Polishing is not a means for removing plaque; rather it is an effort to smooth the tooth surface to eliminate any grooves or divots that would potentially allow tartar and plaque to gain purchase on a tooth. One must be cautious not to overheat the tooth with this instrument.
59. Malocclusions can lead to dental disease for all of the following reasons except A. Soft tissue trauma from teeth that are abnormally positioned B. Accelerated development of periodontal disease resulting from lack of normal wear and the normal flushing of teeth with saliva C. Abnormal wear of teeth resulting from malposition leading to fracture and pulp exposure D. Presence of resorptive lesions leading to destruction of teeth
D. Presence of resorptive lesions leading to destruction of teeth Choices A to C describe the manner in which malocclusions result in dental disease. Resorptive lesions are aggressive feline caries that result in tooth loss; however, these are not related to malocclusion pathology.
93. The instrument used to measure pocket depth is a periodontal A. Explorer B. Scaler C. Curette D. Probe
D. Probe
25. When performing dental prophylaxis, minimal safety equipment include A. Gloves only B. Gloves and mask only C. Safety glasses only D. Safety glasses, mask, and gloves
D. Safety glasses, mask, and gloves These should be worn at all times when performing dentistry.
46. A curette is used to A. Check the tooth's surface for any irregularities B. Measure the depth of gingival recession C. Scale large amounts of calculus from the tooth's surface D. Scale calculus from the tooth surface located in the gingival sulcus
D. Scale calculus from the tooth surface located in the gingival sulcus
132. Fractured deciduous teeth A. Should be left in place until they are normally shed B. Should be repaired C. Are insignificant D. Should be extracted
D. Should be extracted The permanent tooth bud lies very close to the deciduous tooth and could become infected if the deciduous tooth is fractured and left in place.
129. As a dentifrice for use in small animals, baking soda A. Is an excellent choice B. Should be mixed with salt and water to form a paste C. Should be mixed with fluoride gel to form a paste D. Should not be used as a dentifrice for animals
D. Should not be used as a dentifrice for animals Baking soda contains large amounts of sodium that can be absorbed into the pet's system. Remember, dogs and cats swallow their toothpaste. Because many pets that require frequent brushing may also have heart disease, this extra sodium could be life threatening.
51. Ultrasonic scaling A. Can substitute for hand scaling B. May cause thermal damage to the tooth if the tip is keep on a tooth for longer than 5 seconds C. Sprays the tooth with water to wash the tooth clean D. Sprays the tooth with water to cool the tooth and prevent pulp damage
D. Sprays the tooth with water to cool the tooth and prevent pulp damage The spray from the ultrasonic scaler is for cooling purposes. Hand scaling should always be done to get the surfaces that the ultrasonic scaler cannot reach. Thermal damage to the tooth can happen if the scaler is kept on the tooth longer than 15 seconds.
75. Fluoride acts to accomplish all but which of the following? A. Desensitize the tooth B. Provide antibacterial activity C. Strengthen the enamel D. Strengthen the periodontal ligament
D. Strengthen the periodontal ligament Fluoride performs the functions described in choices A to C but does not directly affect the periodontal ligament over time.
56. The buccal surface of the mandibular molars in a dog refers to the A. Occlusal surface with the maxillary molars B. Most rostral surface C. Surface in contact with the tongue D. Surface in contact with the cheek tissue
D. Surface in contact with the cheek tissue The buccal surface is the side of the tooth that comes into contact with the cheek mucosa. The lingual surface is that side of the tooth that contacts the tongue.
133. The first dental examination should occur when A. The animal is 2 to 3 years old B. The client requests it C. A problem such as drooling or bad breath is noticed D. The animal is 6 to 8 weeks old
D. The animal is 6 to 8 weeks old The animal should have its first dental examination when it comes in for its first vaccinations and should have a dental examination on every visit after that. Waiting for problems such as drooling or bad breath to occur allows dental disease to progress to a point where it may be more difficult to treat successfully.
76. Which of the following statements is false when performing an ultrasonic scaling during routine dental prophylaxis? A. The ultrasonic scaler should not be on the tooth for longer than 20 seconds at a time to prevent thermal damage to the pulp cavity. B. The ultrasonic scaler should be grasped like a pencil. C. The side of the instrument should be used rather than the tip against the tooth. D. The ultrasonic scaler can be used for supragingival and subgingival scaling.
D. The ultrasonic scaler can be used for supragingival and subgingival scaling. The statements made in choices A to C are all true; D is false because the ultrasonic scaler can be used for supragingival scaling only. Subgingival scaling can be accomplished with the handheld instrument called the curette.
95. What tooth has three roots? A. Upper canine B. Lower first premolar C. Lower first molar D. Upper fourth premolar
D. Upper fourth premolar
114. The correct dental formula for an adult cat is A. 2(I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1) = 30 B. 2(I 4/4 C 1/1 P 2/3 M 1/1) = 34 C. 2(I 3/3 C 1/1 P 2/3 M 1/1) = 30 D. 2(I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 2/1) = 32
A. 2(I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1) = 30
9. Using the Triadan system, the proper way of describing a dog's first upper left permanent premolar is A. 205 B. 105 C. 306 D. 502
A. 205 The Triadan system uses three numbers. The first number identifies one of the four quadrants of the mouth. The order is sequential, beginning with the upper right maxillary that is assigned 1; 2 is the left maxillary, 3 is the left mandibular, 4 is the right mandibular. The same format is followed for the deciduous teeth, starting with 5 for the deciduous maxillary right teeth. The second and third numbers identify the teeth. There are always two numbers to represent the teeth. The tooth numbering begins in the front of the mouth with the central incisor being 01, the intermediate incisor 02, and the lateral corner incisor 03. The canine is always 04, and the molar is always 09. Thus 205 refers to the left maxillary quadrant and the fifth tooth, which is the first premolar. Once memorized this system is simple.
4. The cat has which of the following numbers of maxillary and mandibular premolars in one half of the mouth? A. 3 and 2 B. 3 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 2 and 2
A. 3 and 2 Cats have 3 maxillary premolars and 2 mandibular premolars per side.
101. What is the minimum age for cats to have all of its permanent teeth? A. 6 months B. 8 months C. 10 months D. 1 year
A. 6 months
58. Prognathism is a normal condition in brachycephalic breeds but is considered a genetic defect in other breeds. It is best characterized as A. A mandible that is longer than the maxilla B. A maxilla that is longer than the mandible C. One side of the head is longer than the other D. An overly long soft palate
A. A mandible that is longer than the maxilla Prognathism, also called an undershot jaw, is commonly seen in breeds such as the boxer, Pekingese, and bulldogs. This malocclusion can lead to accelerated development of dental disease because of improper wearing of the teeth.
57. Brachygnathism is a genetic defect best characterized as A. A maxilla that is longer than the mandible B. A mandible that is longer than the maxilla C. Lack of incisors D. Polydontia
A. A maxilla that is longer than the mandible Brachygnathism is a common defect in a number of breeds, resulting from an overshot jaw or what is called "parrot mouth." This malocclusion can lead to accelerated development of dental disease because of improper wearing of the teeth.
110. Once plaque has formed on a tooth, how long does it take to mineralize into calculus? A. About 7 days B. 2 weeks C. 4 weeks D. 2 months
A. About 7 days
117. What is the direction term for "toward the root"? A. Apical B. Rostral C. Furcation D. Buccal
A. Apical
20. A bulldog would be described as having what type of head shape? A. Brachycephalic B. Dolichocephalic C. Mesaticephalic D. Prognacephalic
A. Brachycephalic Brachy means "short" and cephalic is "head." Collies are described as being dolichocephalic (long head), whereas a retriever is a typical example of a mesaticephalic breed (medium head).
64. Which of the following statements about canine toy breeds is true? A. Chronic impaction of incisor teeth with hair and debris often results in a chronic osteomyelitis. B. Maloccusions are rare in toy breeds in comparison with giant-breed dogs. C. Enamel hypoplasia is a common finding in toy breeds. D. Prognathism is considered a genetic defect in brachycephalic breeds.
A. Chronic impaction of incisor teeth with hair and debris often results in a chronic osteomyelitis. Dogs with chronic allergies that engage in chewing and self-excoriation in combination with malocclusions have impaction of hair between the incisors. The subsequent infection spreads from the soft tissue to the alveolar bone, resulting in chronic osteomyelitis. The animals often lose their teeth and experience pain secondary to the infection.
71. In patients with severe, chronic periodontal disease and possible osteomyelitis, antibiotics are often begun before a dentistry is performed. What is the most common antibiotic chosen for these animals? A. Clindamycin B. Amoxicillin C. Trimethoprim sulfa D. Cephalexin
A. Clindamycin For chronic, severe periodontal disease, the antibiotic spectrum should include anaerobes. Drugs such as clindamycin are effective against anaerobic species such as Bacteroides and Fusobacterium species and have been proven useful in treating osteomyelitis.
55. Wry mouth refers to which of the following types of oral malocclusions? A. Elongation of the head on either the left or right side B. Elongation of the maxilla in comparison to the mandible C. Elongation of the mandible in comparison to the maxilla D. Loss of maxillary incisors
A. Elongation of the head on either the left or right side When one half of the head is longer than the other, the resulting outcome is a malocclusion on both sides (left and right) between and maxillary and mandibular teeth.
33. The most common benign soft tissue tumor of the oral cavity is A. Epulide tumor B. Fibrosarcoma C. Malignant melanoma D. Squamous cell carcinoma
A. Epulide tumor The most common soft tissue tumor seen in the oral cavity is benign epulides. The origin is the gingiva. There are three classifications: fibromatous epulis, ossifying epulis, and acanthomatous epulis. The three other options are all malignant oral tumors.
50. When scaling gross calculus from the teeth, A. Hold the scaler using a modified pen grasp B. Hold the scaler using a modified screw driver grasp C. Use long controlled strokes toward the gums D. Hold the curette using a modified pen grasp
A. Hold the scaler using a modified pen grasp The scaler is used by making strokes across the tooth away from the gums. The scaler is held like a pen.
130. After polishing with a prophylactic paste that contains fluoride, rinsing with diluted chlorhexidine A. Is less effective, because the fluoride interferes with bonding of chlorhexidine to tissues B. Results in temporary blue staining of the teeth C. Enhances the activity of both fluoride and chlorhexidine D. May be toxic to the patient
A. Is less effective, because the fluoride interferes with bonding of chlorhexidine to tissues If chlorhexidine is used, the prophylactic paste should not contain fluoride. After the teeth are polished, the teeth and subgingival surfaces can be flushed with dilute chlorhexidine, and then fluoride gel can be applied to the teeth.
65. A biopsy report confirms that an oral mass is an acanthomatous epulis; what can be said about this growth? A. It is a nonmalignant tumor. B. It is a malignant tumor. C. It is very likely to metastasize. D. It is related to the presence of a malocclusion.
A. It is a nonmalignant tumor. An epulis is a nonmalignant tumor that can be locally invasive into bone. It is essential that a biopsy be performed to differentiate it from other tumors and to classify its type (fibromatous, ossifying, or acanthomatous).
60. Which of the following teeth are not normally present in the adult cat? A. P^1 and P1 and P2 B. P1 and P^1 and P^2 C. M^2 and M1 D. M2 and M^2
A. P^1 and P1 and P2 Adult cats are missing their uper PM2 and lower PM1 and PM2. This information should be memorized so as not to result in faulty charting. The upper premolars are numbered PM 2, 3, and 4, and the lower premolars are numbered PM 3 and 4.
17. The carnassial teeth in dogs are A. P^4 and M1 B. P^4 and P4 C. M^1 and M1 D. C^1 and C1
A. P^4 and M1 Carnassial teeth in dogs are the upper fourth premolars and lower first molars.
100. The thin film covering a tooth that comprises bacteria, saliva, and food particles is A. Plaque B. Attrition C. Calculus D. Erosion
A. Plaque
30. Malocclusion in which the upper fourth premolar lies palatal to the first molars A. Posterior crossbite B. Base-narrow mandibular canines C. Wry mouth D. Anterior crossbite
A. Posterior crossbite With posterior crossbite, the incisors are in the normal relationship, but the posterior teeth are not. The upper fourth premolars are either palatally displaced or the mandible is wider than the maxilla in the premolar area.
54. An older dog with dental disease is presented to the clinic with a draining tract below his right eye. What is the most likely cause? A. Right-sided maxillary carnassial tooth root abscess B. Left-sided maxillary carnassial tooth root abscess C. Right-sided mandibular carnassial tooth root abscess D. Maxillary incisor tooth root abscess
A. Right-sided maxillary carnassial tooth root abscess Carnassial tooth root abscesses often present as a draining tract in the sinus area of the affected side (below the eye). Clients often do not associate the tract with a dental problem.
1. Apical means "toward the _____." A. Root tip B. Crown C. Cheeks D. Tongue
A. Root tip Apical refers to the apex of the tooth, which is toward the root. Coronal is the term that means "toward the crown" of the tooth.
120. In normal occlusion, the bite is termed A. Scissor bite B. Straight bite C. Occlusal bite D. Razor bite
A. Scissor bite
74. The bisecting angle technique is a method for radiographing the oral cavity. The description that adequately describes this technique is A. The central radiation beam is directed perpendicular to the line that bisects the angle formed by the film and the long axis of the tooth. B. The central radiation beam is directed parallel to the line that bisects the angle formed by the film and the perpendicular axis of the tooth. C. The central radiation beam is directed perpendicular to the tooth root. D. The central radiation beam is directed parallel to the occlusal surface of the tooth.
A. The central radiation beam is directed perpendicular to the line that bisects the angle formed by the film and the long axis of the tooth.
85. The crown of a tooth is defined as A. The portion above the gum line and covered by enamel B. The most terminal portion of the root C. The portion below the gum line D. The layer of bony tissue that attaches to the alveolar bone
A. The portion above the gum line and covered by enamel
70. When the pulp cavity of a tooth is exposed, what is the appropriate procedure(s) that should be performed? A. Tooth extraction or pulp capping B. No procedure is required. C. Filling of the crown leaving roots behind D. Prophylactic dentistry to reduce tartar and plaque buildup on the tooth
A. Tooth extraction or pulp capping A tooth in which the pulp is exposed should be extracted or a pulp capping procedure performed. This is a tooth in which the nerves are exposed, causing the animal discomfort. With respect to choice C, the only time that a crown is filed away leaving roots behind would be in the case of a resorptive lesion in a cat patient.
81. The Triadan system is a A. Tooth identification system designed to aid in dental charting B. Complete system that includes an ultrasonic scaler and polisher C. Method for performing radiographs of molars D. Complete home care dental system for use by clients
A. Tooth identification system designed to aid in dental charting The Triadan system is a charting system in which each tooth is identified with a specific number describing the quadrant in which it is located and the type of tooth it is.
42. Dental film should be placed in the mouth with the dimple A. Up and pointing rostrally B. Up and pointing caudally C. Down and pointing rostrally D. Down and pointing caudally
A. Up and pointing rostrally Most dental radiographic film has a small raised dot on one corner. This will be on the side that should be facing the tube head and for easy orientation is best placed pointing rostrally. Most film will also have a comment stating "opposite side toward the radiographic unit."
106. To prevent the pulp tissue from thermal damage during ultrasonic scaling, which of the following should be done? A. Use constant irrigation B. Change tips frequently C. Use slow rotational speed. D. Use appropriate amounts of paste.
A. Use constant irrigation Constant irrigation helps prevent temperatures from rising too high.
36. To protect he pulp tissue of teeth from thermal damage during ultrasonic scaling, one should A. Use constant irrigation. B. Change tips frequently. C. Use slow rotational speed. D. Use appropriate amounts of paste.
A. Use constant irrigation. Constant irrigation is essential to prevent overheating of the teeth.
72. Which of the following cardiac disease is often associated with severe dental disease? A. Vegetative endocarditis B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Dilative cardiomyopathy D. Ventricular arrhythmias
A. Vegetative endocarditis Vegetative endocarditis is a clinical condition in which there is a buildup of bacteria on the atrioventricular valve leaflet. It is hypothesized that bacteria from the mouth gain access to the bloodstream because of periodontal disease and subsequent oral bleeding. The bacteria then colonize the valve leaflets, resulting in valvular incompetence that can lead to heart failure.
86. The range for acceptable gingival sulcal measurements in cats is A. 1 to 3 mm B. 0.5 to 1 mm C. 1.5 to 4.5 mm D. 0.005 to 0.007 mm
B. 0.5 to 1 mm
8. The permanent canine and premolar teeth in dogs generally erupt at about what age? A. 3 to 5 months B. 4 to 6 months C. 5 to 7 months D. 6 to 8 months
B. 4 to 6 months Permanent canines and premolars erupt at 4-6 months. Adult incisors appear at 3-5 months. Molars appear at 5-7 months.
10. Using the Triadan system, the proper way of describing a cat's first lower right molar is A. 407 B. 409 C. 109 D. 909
B. 409 The rule of 4 and 9 in the Triadan system helps standardize the nomenclature for species that have fewer teeth. The cat has only three upper premolars and two lower premolars per side. The canines is always designated as 04 and the first molar is always 09. The count begins backward from the first molar so that for the maxillary teeth, the fourth premolar is 08, the third premolar is 07, and the second premolar is 06, just as in the dog. The first lower right molar then is designated as 409. Cats, then, do not have 405, 406, 305, 306, 205, or 105.
92. The normal adult canine mouth has how many permanent teeth? A. 40 B. 42 C. 48 D. 52
B. 42
52. The following statements are all true except A. Sulcus depth is measured using a probe B. A sulcus depth up to 3 mm is normal in a cat. C. A sulcus depth greater than 3 mm indicates periodontal disease D. The probe is inserted gently into the gingival sulcus parallel to the root of the tooth.
B. A sulcus depth up to 3 mm is normal in a cat. The normal sulcus depth in a cat is 0 to 1 mm.
73. Perioceutics refer to which of the following? A. Procedure to restore the periodontal ligament B. Application of time-released antibiotics directly within the oral cavity C. Use of antibiotics before dental procedure D. Procedure to cap the pulp cavity of the tooth
B. Application of time-released antibiotics directly within the oral cavity Perioceuticals are drugs compounded such that they can be directly placed in the mouth, where the disease is occurring, and release the medication over time.
97. What term identifies the wearing away of teeth by tooth-against-tooth contact during mastication? A. Plaque B. Attrition C. Calculus D. Erosion
B. Attrition
31. Malocclusion in which the canines erupt in an overly upright position, or the mandible is narrowed A. Posterior crossbite B. Base-narrow mandibular canines C. Wry mouth D. Anterior crossbite
B. Base-narrow mandibular canines The mandibular canines are lingually displaced. This is often seen in conjunction with retained lower deciduous teeth that push the mandibular canines inward. These base-narrow teeth then occlude with and cause trauma to the hard palate.
119. Chlorhexidine contributes to dental prophylaxis by A. Slowly dissolving calculus B. Bonding to the cell membrane and inhibiting bacterial growth C. Bleaching stained teeth D. Decreasing tooth sensitivity
B. Bonding to the cell membrane and inhibiting bacterial growth Chlorhexidine bonds to the cell membrane and inhibits bacterial growth for up to 24 hours. Fluoride decreases tooth sensitivity.
28. The term that best describes a dog with an abnormally short mandible is A. Prognathism B. Brachygnathism C. Mesaticephalic D. Dolichocephalic
B. Brachygnathism
15. Normal scissor occlusion is when the maxillary fourth premolars occlude A. Level with the mandibular fourth premolar B. Buccally to the mandibular first molar C. Buccally to the mandibular fourth premolar D. Ligually to the mandibular first molar
B. Buccally to the mandibular first molar In normal scissor bite, the upper fourth premolar should be buccal to the mandibular first molar. The upper incisors should slightly overlap the lower ones, and the lower canine teeth should fit comfortably in the interdental space between the upper third incisor and lower canine so that no tooth surfaces touch. The first tooth behind the upper canine is the first lower premolar. In the normal bite, each cusp points between the interdental space of the opposite premolar so that a zigzag or pinking-shear effect is seen.
89. A curette A. Is used strictly as a supragingival instrument B. Can be used either supragingivally or subgingivally C. Is the most important dental instrument D. Is used to irrigate the teeth with air or water
B. Can be used either supragingivally or subgingivally
135. Nerves and blood vessels enter the tooth through the A. Apical delta B. Crown C. Pulp D. Sulcus
B. Crown
23. Pocket depth is measured from the A. Cementoenamel junction to the bottom of the pocket B. Current free gingival margin to the bottom of the gingival sulcus C. Cementoenamel junction to the current free gingival margin and then adding 1 to 2 mm D. Cementoenamel junction to the apical extent of the defect
B. Current free gingival margin to the bottom of the gingival sulcus Pocket depth is from the gingival margin to the pocket's bottom; choice A describes how to measure attachment loss; C notes ginigival recession, and D is the periodontal index that determines the amount of periodontal attachment loss.
6. What is the main purpose of premolar teeth? A. Holding and tearing B. Cutting and breaking C. Grinding D. Gnawing and grooming
B. Cutting and breaking Canines: holding and tear Incisors: gnawing and grooming Molars: grinding
124. What term identifies the instrument used to detect subgingival calculus? A. Periodontal probe B. Explorer C. Scaler D. Curette
B. Explorer
111. The most common dental procedure performed on horses is A. Quidding B. Floating C. Repelling D. Scaling
B. Floating Floating is the process of filing shark edges off cheek teeth.
21. In veterinary dentistry, chlorhexidine solutions are used because they A. Prevent cementoenamel erosion B. Have antibacterial properties C. Remove the enamel stains and whiten teeth D. Are used to treat gingival hyperplasia in brachycephalic breeds
B. Have antibacterial properties
134. The deciduous incisors A. Erupt at 3 1/2 to 4 weeks of age B. Have roots that are proportionately longer than the roots of permanent incisors C. Are the most frequently retained teeth D. Are not usually replaced with permanent incisors until the dog is 6 months old
B. Have roots that are proportionately longer than the roots of permanent incisors
122. Topical fluoride A. Will stain remaining calculus red B. Helps desensitize teeth and slow the rate of plaque formation C. Should never be used on feline teeth D. Enhances osteoclastic activity and helps desensitize teeth
B. Helps desensitize teeth and slow the rate of plaque formation Fluoride does not stain the remaining calculus red, it is beneficial to feline teeth, and it inhibits, it does not enhance, osteoclastic activity.
128. The most common mistake made in treating periodontal disease is A. Inadequate removal of supragingival calculus B. Inadequate root planing C. Insufficient polishing D. Iatrogenic trauma to subgingival tissues
B. Inadequate root planing Both inadequate removal of supragingival calculus and insufficient polishing refers to surfaces above the gingival sulcus, and it is in the sulcus that most of the damage from periodontal disease occurs. Proper removal of all calculus from above the subgingival tooth surfaces is essential for treatment of periodontal disease. Although iatrogenic trauma to subgingival tissue may be a problem, it would not be considered the most common mistake in the treatment of periodontal disease.
39. Stomatitis is the A. Bad breath evident when dental work must be completed B. Inflammation of the mouth's soft tissue C. Inflammation of the stomites found in bone D. Inflammation of lesions found in the gastrointestinal tract
B. Inflammation of the mouth's soft tissue Stoma is Greek for a "mouth like opening" and -itis means "inflammation." Halitosis is bad breath.
27. When polishing teeth using an air-driven unit, the speed of the hand piece that should be used is the A. High B. Low C. Either how or low is acceptable D. Finishing
B. Low A prophy angle used for polishing is used on low speed. Low-speed hand pieces have a high torque and speeds of 5000 to 20,000 RPM.
7. What teeth on each side of the mouth in a dog have three roots? A. Maxillary third and fourth premolars and first molar B. Maxillary fourth premolars and first and second molars C. Mandibular fourth premolars and first and second molars D. Mandibular and maxillary fourth premolars and first and second molars
B. Maxillary fourth premolars and first and second molars 3 roots: maxillary fourth premolar and first and second molars. 2 roots: maxillary second and third premolars and the mandibular second, third, and fourth premolars and first and second molars. The rest of the teeth have single roots. There are no three-rooted mandibular teeth in either the dog or cat.
102. Generally speaking, most dental instruments should be held as you would a A. Knife B. Pencil C. Hammer D. Toothbrush
B. Pencil A modified pen grip is the preferred method of holding dental instruments.
49. The nerve and blood vessel of a tooth is located in the A. Sulcus B. Pulp cavity C. Marrow cavity D. Calculus
B. Pulp cavity The sulcus is the space between the gum and the root of the tooth. Teeth do not have marrow cavities. Calculus is the mineralized debris on teeth.
79. Sometimes a 0.12% chlorhexidine solution is sprayed in the patient's mouth before beginning dental prophylaxis. What is the benefit of this activity? A. Sterilizes the patient's mouth before the procedure B. Reduces the bacterial load in the mouth to reduce exposure to the technician who performs the procedure C. Substitutes for prophylactic antibiotic therapy D. Provides topical anesthetic activity
B. Reduces the bacterial load in the mouth to reduce exposure to the technician who performs the procedure There is no means for sterilizing the oral cavity in any patient. Flushing with a dilute chlorhexidine solution may reduce the bacterial load that may potentially be aerosolized during the procedure. Veterinary technicians should wear sugical masks, shields or goggles, and gloves when performing a dental a dental prophylaxis to further decrease their exposure to harmful pathogens.
105. Prevention of periodontal disease involves all of the following except A. Daily teeth brushing or mouth rinsing B. Regular exercise C. Routine professional scaling and polishing D. Proper diet
B. Regular exercise
118. What is the directional term for "toward the front of the head"? A. Apical B. Rostral C. Furcation D. Buccal
B. Rostral
53. The purpose of polishing during the dental prophy is to A. Massage the gums B. Smooth out the rough areas and retard plaque formation C. Apply fluoride D. Disinfect the surface of the tooth
B. Smooth out the rough areas and retard plaque formatio Polishing paste is applied to smooth the surface of the tooth so that plaque will not form quickly. Fluoride is not applied at the polishing step. The polishing cup runs over only the surface of the teeth, not the gums. The polish does not disinfect anything.
108. The purpose of fluoride treatment is to A. Prevent thermal damage and lubrication B. Strengthen enamel and help desensitize teeth C. Remove plaque and strengthen the enamel D. Irrigate and lubricate
B. Strengthen enamel and help desensitize teeth
90. What drug should not be given to pregnant dogs because it may cause discoloration of the puppies' teeth? A. Amoxicillin B. Tetracycline C. Chloramphenicol D. Penicillin
B. Tetracycline None of the other drugs have this effect on neonatal dentition.
131. If the lower incisors seem to be excessively loose in a brachycephalic or miniature-breed dog, A. The teeth should be extracted. B. The depth of the gingival sulcus should be tested. C. The dog is calcium deficient. D. The dog has advanced periodontal disease.
B. The depth of the gingival sulcus should be tested. In many of these types of dogs, the incisor teeth may not be in individual bony sockets but suspended in connective tissue, which allows them to be quite mobile. These may be healthy teeth.
77. Which of the following statements is false regarding patient safety during a dentistry? A. An appropriate sized mouth gag is essential to prevent temporomandibular joint damage. B. The endotracheal tube should be uncuffed so that the tube can be easily manipulated when performing a dentistry. C. Large-breed dogs should be rolled with their legs under to prevent a gastric dilatation and volvulus crisis. D. One must monitor the patient to ensure that fluids and debris from the dentistry do not gain access to the trachea.
B. The endotracheal tube should be uncuffed so that the tube can be easily manipulated when performing a dentistry. It is advisable to use a cuffed endotracheal tube to prevent fluid and debris from gaining access to the lungs around the endotracheal tube. It is also a common practice to keep the endotracheal tube partially inflated when extubating to ensure that the accumulated debris does not progress down the trachea.
68. Which of the following statements about eruptions of permanent teeth is false? A. The permanent upper canines erupt mesial to the deciduous canines. B. The permanent lower canines erupt buccal to the deciduous canines. C. The permanent incisors erupt distal to the deciduous incisors. D. The permanent canine teeth erupt at 5 to 6 months of age in the dog.
B. The permanent lower canines erupt buccal to the deciduous canines. The permanent lower canines usually erupt lingual to the deciduous canines. The other statements are correct.
61. The furcation is best described A. The area between the cementum and enamel B. The space between two roots where they meet the crown C. The space between the root and the gingiva D. The space between two occlusal surfaces
B. The space between two roots where they meet the crown Furcation scores are assigned to teeth in an effort to determine whether a tooth should be extracted. When much of the root is exposed, a tooth is normally extracted.
45. You are looking at your dental radiograph and notice that the tooth is elongated. This happened because the beam was perpendicular to the A. Film B. Tooth C. Bisecting angle D. Wrong tooth
B. Tooth If the x-ray beam is aimed more perpendicular to the tooth, rather than to the bisecting angle, the tooth will appear more elongated. Foreshortening will occur if the beam is more perpendicular to the film. You want the beam perpendicular to the bisecting angle to minimize distortion.
94. A complication that may develop if subgingival plaque is improperly removed is A. Etched tooth enamel B. Torn epithelial attachment C. Overheated tooth D> Bitten technician
B. Torn epithelial attachment Excessive force may degrade epithelial attachment.
22. When using hand instruments to clean teeth, A. Use a modified pen grasp with a back-and-forth-scraping motion. B. Use a modified pen grasp with overlapping pull strokes that are directed away from the gingival margin. C. Use the sickle scaler for subgingival curettage. D. The curette is best used supragingivally.
B. Use a modified pen grasp with overlapping pull strokes that are directed away from the gingival margin. A modified pen grasp should be used. One should never direct the instruments toward the gum surface. Scalers should not be used subgingivally, but curettes are best used subgingivally.
121. What is the proper dilution of chlorhexidine solution for use in the mouth? A. 20% B. 2.0% C. 0.2% D. 10%
C. 0.2%
113. The correct dental formula for an adult dog is A. 2(I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/4 M 3/3) = 42 B. 2(I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 3/2) = 42 C. 2(I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3) = 42 D. 2(I 4/4 C 1/1 P 3/4 M 3/3) = 46
C. 2(I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3) = 42
41. For dental radiography of the canine tooth, you should use what size of dental film to ensure that the whole tooth is included? A. 0 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 x 10 screen film
C. 4 Size 4 dental film is the largest of the detail intraoral films. It is also referred to as occlusal film and is best used to ensure that the whole root is included.
63. An oronasal fistula can often occur secondary to A. Abscess of the mandibular canine tooth B. Incisor root abscess C. Abscess of the maxillary canine tooth D. Retained deciduous incisors
C. Abscess of the maxillary canine tooth Maxillary canine tooth root abscessation often results in the development of an oronasal fistula, because the root is so long and can penetrate well into the maxilla.
43. The flap inside of the dental film should be facing A. Any direction, because it does not matter B. Toward the tube head C. Away from the tube head D. The caudal side of the animal
C. Away from the tube head Most of the dental film has a flap for easy grasping when processing. This side of the multilayered film package contains the foil or lead, which you do not want facing the tube head.
126. An elongation of one side of the animal's head results in A. Anterior crossbite B. Wry mouth C. Brachygnathism D. Prognathism
C. Brachygnathism Brachygnathism: elongation of the maxilla on both sides of the dog's head. Prognathism: elongation of the mandible on both sides of the head. Anterior crossbite: malocclusion of the incisors.
3. Which of the following is a proper dental term for describing a tooth surface? A. Palatal---facing the cheek B. Labial---facing the tongue C. Buccal---facing the cheek D. Rostral---toward the back
C. Buccal---facing the cheek Buccal is the surface facing the cheek. Whereas palatal is towards the upper palate. Lingual is the surface facing the tongue, is used in reference to the mandibular teeth. Labial means "toward the lips". Rostral is the term meaning "toward the front" of the head, the surface facing the nose of the animal. Caudal is "toward the back".
98. What term identified the hard, mineralized substance on the tooth surface? A. Plaque B. Attrition C. Calculus D. Erosion
C. Calculus
48. What mineralized tissue covers the root of the tooth? A. Calculus B. Enamel C. Cementum D. Dentin
C. Cementum Calculus is mineralized debris on teeth. Enamel covers the crown of the tooth. Dentin is the mineralized layer beneath the enamel and the cementum.
14. Dentin is covered by A. Enamel and bone B. Bone and pulp C. Cementum and enamel D. Pulp and cementum
C. Cementum and enamel Dentin, which makes up the bulk of the tooth, is about as hard as bone but softer than enamel. It is covered by enamel on the crown surface and cementum over the roots.
91. The occlusal surface of a caudal tooth is defined as the A. Surface facing the hard palate B. Surface nearer the cheek C. Chewing surface of the tooth D. Surface nearer the tongue
C. Chewing surface of the tooth
69. The pulp of the tooth has which of the following functions? A. Anchors the tooth in the alveolar bone with a fibrous ligament B. Provides the tooth with a protective strong, hard surface C. Contains blood vessels and nerves that provide nutrition and sensation to the tooth. D. Develops roots to anchor the tooth into the alveolar bone
C. Contains blood vessels and nerves that provide nutrition and sensation to the tooth. The pulp of the tooth is located in the center cavity of a tooth. It contains blood vessels (nutritive function) and nerves (providing sensation). Odontoblasts line the wall of the chamber and produce dentin.
40. A client wants to know what chew toy would be safest for her dog's teeth. You suggest that she is best to give Fido a A. Dried cow hoof B. Nylon rope toy C. Dense rubber exerciser D. Large knuckle bone
C. Dense rubber exerciser These are the safest and work the jaws well. Dried cow hooves and knuckle bones are hard and could cause slab fractures and periodontal ankylosis (ligament shock-absorbing capacity is lost) among other problems. Nylon ropes are abrasive and can cause gingival trauma and wear of the crowns of the teeth.
127. The bulk of tooth is composed of A. Enamel B. Pulp C. Dentin D. Cementum
C. Dentin
12. As part of normal tooth growth, what part of the tooth thickens? A. Enamel B. Pulp C. Dentin D. Gingiva
C. Dentin The odontoblasts that line the pulp chamber and root canal produce secondary dentin throughout life and fill in the canal, causing the dentin to thicken with age.
78. A dog that was exposed to distemper perinatally may develop which of the following oral pathologic conditions? A. Adontia B. Polydontia C. Enamel hypoplasia D. Enamel staining
C. Enamel hypoplasia Distemper virus can result in abnormal formation of enamel (reduced deposition or absence of enamel). Enamel staining usually occurs secondary to tetracycline exposure of animals at a young age.
66. While performing a routine prophylactic dentistry, the veterinary technician notes a large, red raised lesion on the lop of her feline patient. The client noted that the lesion "comes and goes." What is a reasonable differential for this lesion? A. Feline resorptive lesion B. Trauma-related lesion C. Eosinophilic ulcer D. Tumor
C. Eosinophilic ulcer Eosinophilic ulcers, also known as eosinophilic granuloma complex and rodent ulcers, are allergy-related lesions that occur in cats. The inciting cause has not been well defined. They will resolve without treatment but are often responsive to corticosteroid administration. They often recur. These are not malignancies, but they should be distinguished from squamous cell carcinoma lesions via biopsy.
37. Another term for neck lesions on feline teeth is A. Ondontogenic fibroma B. Feline internal odontoclastic resorptive lesions C. Feline external odontoclastic resorptive lesions D. Class 1 enamel fracture
C. Feline external odontoclastic resorptive lesions FEORL is the acronym given to this condition, although there are many names used to describe this.
62. Severe stomatitis is a clinical sign commonly associated with which of the following feline disorders? A. Feline infectious peritonitis B. Inflammatory bowel disease C. Feline immunodeficiency virus D. Toxoplasmosis
C. Feline immunodeficiency virus FIV positive cats often suffer from severe oral stomatitis. When a veterinary technician performs dental prophylaxis and notes stomatitis, especially when it is not associated with dental plaque, and FELV/FIV test should be performed on the patient to rule out infectious causes for stomatitis.
67. Feline cervical line lesions/feline neck lesions/feline resorptive lesions are of great concern to veterinarians. Which of the following statements regarding these lesions is false? A. Feline resorptive lesions are aggressive dental caries that result in resorption of roots and subsequent tooth loss. B. Feline resorptive lesions often present with a raspberry seed type sign at the base of the tooth where it meets the gingival margin. C. Feline resorptive lesions are effectively managed with steroid administration. D. It is common to find more than one feline cervical line lesion in the oral cavity.
C. Feline resorptive lesions are effectively managed with steroid administration. Statements made in A, B, and D are all true; however, steroid administration does not appear to diminish or prevent the development of feline neck lesions. The cause of these lesions have not been determines.
18. Free or marginal gingiva A. Occupies the space between the teeth B. Is the most apical portion of the gingiva C. Forms the gingival sulcus around the tooth D. Is tightly bound to the cementum
C. Forms the gingival sulcus around the tooth This is the most coronal portion of the gingiva and in healthy patients lies passively against the tooth, so that a potential space is formed around the tooth. This sulcar depth can be measured and should normally be between 0.5 and 1.0 mm in cats and between 1.0 and 3.0 mm in dogs, depending on the teeth.
115. What term identifies the space between the roots of the same tooth? A. Apical B. Rostral C. Furcation D. Buccal
C. Furcation
88. In what grade of periodontal disease does early pocket formation occur without initial bone loss? A. Grade I B. Grade II C. Grade III D. Grade IV
C. Grade III Early bone loss is the late stage of Grade III can be verified by radiographic examination.
109. Mrs. Walker comes to pick up her dog after dental prophylaxis has been performed. Which of the following topics would be least helpful to be discussed as a part of the discharge instructions? A. Chewing exercises B. Home care C. How to give injections D. Dietary concerns
C. How to give injections
44. The bisecting angle principle states that the plane of an x-ray beam should be 90 degrees to the A. Long axis of the tooth B. Plan of the film C. Imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the tooth's long axis and the film plane D. Imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the animal's head and the film plane
C. Imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the tooth's long axis and the film plane If the beam is 90 degrees to the bisecting angle, minimal distortion will occur.
84. The upper fourth premolar communicates with what sinus? A. Mandibular B. Occipital C. Maxillary D. Orbital
C. Maxillary The upper fourth premolar communicates directly with the maxillary sinus.
5. The dental formula for the permanent teeth in the dog is 2 (I 3/3 and C 1/1) plus A. P 3/4 and M 3/2 = 40 B. P 3/4 and M 3/3 = 42 C. P 4/4 and M 2/3 = 42 D. P 4/4 and M 3/2 = 42
C. P 4/4 and M 2/3 = 42 Adult dogs have a total of 42 teeth with each mandibular and maxillary side having four premolars. There are two maxillary and three mandibular molars per side.
35. Gingivoplasty is the A. Addition of more gingiva to the site B. Binding of the loose teeth together to stabilize them during a healing process C. Removal of hyperplastic gingival tissue D. Removal of a portion of the tooth structure
C. Removal of hyperplastic gingival tissue The suffix -plasty means "formation" or "plastic repair of." The disease gingiva is removed to eliminate suprabony pockets.
112. What tissue is not part of the periodontium? A. Periodontal ligament B. Alveolar bone C. Root D. Gingiva
C. Root
104. Removal of calculus and necrotic cementum from the tooth roots is called A. Curettage B. Splinting C. Root planing D. Scaling
C. Root planing
47. A scaler is used to A. Check the tooth's root surface for any irregularities B. Measure the depth of gingival recession C. Scale large amounts of calculus from the tooth's surface D. Scale calculus from the tooth surface located in the gingival sulcus
C. Scale large amounts of calculus from the tooth's surface
125. What term identifies the instrument used for removal of supragingival calculus? A. Periodontal probe B. Explorer C. Scaler D. Curette
C. Scaler
96. Which statement concerning the polishing aspect of dental prophylaxis is least accurate? A. A slow speed should be used. B. Adequate prophy paste is needed for lubrication and polishing. C. The polisher should remain on the tooth for as long as is needed to polish the tooth. D. If teeth are not polished, the rough enamel will promote bacterial plaque formation.
C. The polisher should remain on the tooth for as long as is needed to polish the tooth.
26. You have an instrument in your hand that has two sharp sides, a rounded back, and a rounded point. You are holding a A. Sickle scaler B. Morris scaler C. Universal curette D. Sickle curette
C. Universal curette Curettes have two sharp edges and a rounded toe and are most effective for removing calculus subgingivally. They are designed so that each end is a mirror image of the opposite end. The universal curette can be adapted to almost all dental surfaces.
24. Between patients, it is best to use the following order for maintaining instruments: A. Use, sharpen, wash, sterilize B. Use, wash, sterilize, and sharpen C. Use, wash, sharpen, and sterilize D. Wash, sterilize, use, and sharpen
C. Use, wash, sharpen, and sterilize To minimize the danger of infection to the operator and maintain sterility, it is best to sharpen the instruments after washing but before sterilization.
29. Malocclusion in which one side of the mandible or maxilla is disproportionate to its other side A. Posterior crossbite B. Base-narrow mandibular canines C. Wry mouth D. Anterior crossbite
C. Wry mouth Wry bite, or wry mouth, is a skeletal defect in which the affected animal has a nonsymmetrical head. The upper and lower incisors do not align.