EMT-Basic

A conscious patient with a history of COPD is experiencing respiratory distress on room air. Ventilations are at a normal rate and rhythm and the airway is open and easily maintained by the patient. What is the BEST way to ensure the patient is adequately receiving enough oxygen? a. Via a non-rebreather mask b. Via a partial non-rebreather mask c. Via mouth-to-mouth resuscitation d. Via a venturi mask

a

A danger of using a rigid suction catheter with infants and young children is that stimulating the back of the throat can: a. cause changes in heart rhythm b. be ineffective in suctioning c. lead to immediate vomiting d. cause the tongue to fall into the airway

a

A depressed level of consciousness, shallow respirations, and pinpoint pupils are indicative of a narcotic overdose. a. True b. False

a

A device that contains a specific amount of aerosol medicine, that delivers it to the patient's lungs in bursts, is called: a. Metered dose inhaler b. Aerosol chamber c. Nebulizer d. Masked inhalator

a

A diagnosis is a description or label for a patient's condition that assists in further evaluation and treatment. a. True b. False

a

A patient with sickle cell anemia would have abnormal structure of the: a. red blood cells. b. platelets. c. white blood cells. d. none of the above.

a

A patient's pulse rate would not be included in your general impression. a. True b. False

a

A pregnant patient who requires spinal immobilization should be secured to a long spine board that is tilted to the left during transport. a. True b. False

a

A responsive patient's level of pain is not the best indicator as to the seriousness of her injuries. a. True b. False

a

A seesaw (chest and abdomen move in opposite directions) pattern of breathing is a sign of: a. breathing difficulty in infants b. normal respirations in elderly patients c. adequate artificial respiration d. a disease such as COPD

a

An infant or child patient who exhibits wheezing, increased breathing effort on exhalation, or rapid breathing without stridor probably has: a. lower-airway disease. b. upper-airway disease. c. esophageal disease. d. upper-airway obstruction.

a

An older person having a heart attack will most likely present with: a. sudden weakness without chest pain. b. severe chest pain and tremors. c. hemiparesis. d. left-arm spasms and aching.

a

An open wound to the chest that allows air to pass through it, causing a shortness of breath and bubbling of the blood around the wound, is called a: a. sucking chest wound. b. hemothorax. c. flail chest. d. pneumothorax.

a

An oxygen saturation of 80 percent on a newborn two minutes after birth indicates that the neonate: a. Should be observed for other clinical signs of compromise b. Must be ventilated until saturations rise to 94 percent c. Should receive ventilations and compressions to prevent organ damage d. Should be placed on CPAP

a

Anxiety and hallucinations can be caused by severe alcohol withdrawal. a. True b. False

a

Any patient whose level of responsiveness is lower than alert should be considered a high transport priority. a. True b. False

a

As an EMT, keeping yourself safe is your first responsibility. a. True b. False

a

As long as there is no direct threat, a patient's guide dog may accompany the patient in the ambulance. a. True b. False

a

During active inhalation, the diaphragm: a. contracts and flattens, increasing the size of the chest cavity b. relaxes, decreasing the size of the thoracic cavity c. moves upward, forcing the lungs to contract d. moves upward, forcing the ribs to move downward and inward

a

During an assessment of a patient's lower extremity, what is PMS an abbreviation for? a. Pulse, Motor function, Sensation b. Pedial , Motion, Sensation c. Pain, Motion, Severity d. Pulse, Motor sensation, Severity

a

During the management of a cardiac arrest, the AED gives a "no shock indicated" message. Which of the following statements will most likely prompt this condition? a. the patient's rhythm is asystole b. the patient has a pulse c. the patient is in ventricular tachycardia d. the patient is in ventricular fibrillation

a

During transport of a patient with a urinary catheter, keep the catheter bag: a. lower than the level of the patient. b. higher than the level of the patient. c. lying underneath the patient. d. at the same level as the patient.

a

Hypoxia is best defined as: a. insufficient oxygen supply to the tissues of the body. b. cyanosis, altered mental status, shortness of breath, grayish skin tone c. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease d. respiratory arrest

a

Ideally, how many personnel should you have when using a stair chair? a. Three b. One c. Two d. Four

a

If a gurgling sound is heard during artificial ventilation, you should: a. suction the patient immediately. b. increase the rate of ventilations. c. increase the force of the ventilations. d. readjust the airway.

a

If the abdomen appears larger than normal, this is called distention. a. True b. False

a

If the chest has a fracture of two or more consecutive ribs in two or more places this would be called flail chest. a. True b. False

a

If the mechanism of injury exerts great force on the upper body, or if there is any soft tissue damage to the head, face, or neck, you should: a. apply full spinal immobilization. b. perform a detailed physical exam. c. consider the patient a high transport priority. d. apply the PASG.

a

If the nervous system fails to properly regulate blood vessel diameters, it can lead to: a. neurogenic shock. b. volumetric shock. c. psychogenic shock. d. hypovolemic shock.

a

If the patient is not defibrillated within _______ minutes of a cardiac arrest, there is almost no chance for survival. a. 8 b. 4 c. 15 d. 10

a

If you are a single rescuer with an AED arriving at the scene of an unwitnessed arrest, you should: a. perform CPR for two minutes (5 cycles), and then apply the AED. b. begin CPR and wait for a second rescuer before using the AED. c. perform one cycle of 30:2 CPR, and then apply the AED. d. ventilate and apply the AED without starting CPR.

a

If you are touching a patient when their AICD shocks, you will not be shocked. a. True b. False

a

In a situation where an adult patient is refusing emergency care, a(n) _______ may be able to force the patient to go to the hospital anyway. a. police officer b. on-line physician c. paramedic d. incident commander

a

In an EMS system, what is NOT a desired outcome of continued quality improvement (CQI) programs? a. Develop and implement a disciplinary policy for any type of variance in care rendered by the EMS providers. b. Provide statistics on call volume, patient profiles, and skills performed. c. Allow the opportunity to identify potential topics for continuing education for the system's emergency providers. d. Provide a system of internal checks and balances that assures quality care is delivered, and system weaknesses are identified.

a

In general, what is the area of safety in which EMS personnel should set up during a Hazardous materials incident? a. Cold zone b. Warm zone c. Hot zone d. Warm-Hot zone

a

In legal terms, a tort is: a. a civil wrong committed by one individual against another b. a criminal wrongdoing c. an action by an employee for a workers' compensation claim d. a breach of contract

a

In many states, the off-duty EMT has no legal obligation to provide care. a. True b. False

a

In order to prevent injury it is better to push, rather than pull, when moving a patient. a. True b. False

a

A 1 year old male patient is in respiratory arrest and cyA/Otic. As an EMT you should: a. Ensure an open airway, ventilate the patient at a rate of 100 breaths per minute, and administer high flow rate oxygen. b. Wait for a parent's permission before providing care. c. Ensure an open airway and administer high flow rate oxygen. d. Ensure an open airway but do not administer oxygen due to the risk of infant eye damage.

a

A 44 year-old woman is calling you, complaining of feeling anxious and states, "I can't breathe." What should you do? a. Assess her respiratory rate and rhythm, check her oxygen saturation and listen to her lungs. b. Immediately start manually ventilating since she said she can't breathe. c. Place a non-rebreather mask and turn the flow to 6 LPM d. Perform an abdominal thrust; she may be choking.

a

A 45-year-old male patient is having chest discomfort. What should you do next after placing him in his position of comfort? a. Administer oxygen by nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute. b. Ventilate the patient with the bag-valve mask at 15 liters per minute. c. Administer oxygen by the nasal cannula at 6 liters per minute. d. Ventilate the patient with a nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute.

a

Lifeguards have pulled a 7-year-old child out of the pool. She is unresponsive and apneic with a rapid carotid pulse. What should you do? (A) Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. (B) Begin chest compressions with a rate of at least 100 times per minute. (C) Apply AED pads and prepare to shock. (D) Suction the mouth and nose.

a

Loss of tissue in a traumatic event can be: just soft tissue, a portion of an extremity, or an entire extremity. What is the injury in which the distal one-third of a lower extremity has been lost? a. Amputation b. Amplitude c. Avulsion d. Extremity exodus

a

Meningitis is an infection of the lining of the brain and spinal cord. Signs and symptoms include all of the following EXCEPT: a. lower-than-normal body temperature. b. sensitivity to light. c. lethargy. d. stiff neck.

a

Most legal problems can be prevented by the EMT's performing proper care within the scope of practice and properly documenting the care. a. True b. False

a

No matter what size the oxygen cylinder is, it contains between 2,000 and 2,200 psi when full. a. True b. False

a

Not all poisons are toxins. Toxins are poisons that are: a. produced by living organisms. b. also medications. c. artificially produced in a laboratory. d. only poisonous to humans in large amounts.

a

Sellick's maneuver can be utilized in order to assist intubation. Which cartilage are you compressing in this procedure? a. Cricoid cartilage b. Aryepiglottic cartilage c. Thyroid cartilage d. Hyoid cartilage

a

Shock can develop in a 3-year-old patient who has lost as little as a cup of blood. a. True b. False

a

Signs of hypoglycemia include (A) cool, pale, and diaphoretic skin. (B) anxiety and decreased respirations. (C) tachycardia and hypotension. (D) abdominal pain and nausea.

a

Some EMTs may administer aspirin to patients with chest pain a. True b. False

a

Some of the most commonly used medical identification devices are necklaces, bracelets, and: a. wallet cards. b. watches. c. tattoos. d. patches.

a

Some risk factors for heart problems can be reduced by lifestyle changes. Some cannot be changed. A risk factor that cannot be changed is: a. heredity. b. cigarette smoking. c. elevated blood levels of cholesterol. d. hypertension.

a

Starting at about age 30, our organ systems lose about _____% of their function each year. a. 1 b. 3 c. 7 d. 5

a

Statements from patients are used as assessment tools. Which statement about stroke symptoms would cause the clinician to use a higher index of suspicion? a. This is the worst headache I have ever had. b. This headache is behind my right eye. c. My head is throbbing. d. Bright light causes my head to hurt worse.

a

Stridor is caused by a partial obstruction of the upper airway. a. True b. False

a

Sublingual medications should be administered: a. under the patient's tongue. b. into the patient's muscle. c. under the patient's skin. d. into an endotracheal tube.

a

Sublingual medicine is delivered ____. a. under the tongue b. through an intravenous line c. through inhalation d. by swallowing

a

Suffixes are parts of words added to the end of a root or words. a. True b. False

a

Syncope can be caused by many reasons. When does a syncopal episode usually occur? a. Upon standing b. When the patient wakes up in the morning c. When they go to bed d. Any time they feel like it

a

The "up and over pattern" is an injury type common in __________ collisions. a. head-on b. rear-end c. rotational-impact d. side-impact

a

The Apgar score is the standard scoring system to assess the status of a newborn. What does the mnemonic Apgar stand for? a. A- appearance, P- pulse, G- grimace, A- activity, R- respirations b. A- appearance, P- pulse, G- grimace, A- activity, R- reassess c. A- activity, P- pulse, G- grimace, A- appearance, R- respirations d. A- appearance, P- pulse, G- grip, A- activity, R- respirations

a

The Bourdon gauge flowmeter is prone to false readings at lower flow rates. a. True b. False

a

The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale is used to determine the severity of a stroke. a. True b. False

a

The EMT appears on the scene of an adult patient in a cardiac emergency. The patient is unconscious and does not have a pulse. An AED is required and needs to be applied to the patient. Which of the following findings must the EMT address before applying the AED pads? a. The patient is found outside in the rain. b. The patient's shirt has been removed. c. CPR has been initiated for 2 minutes prior to AED arrival. d. The patient is wearing a medical allergy band for a latex allergy

a

The EMT draws up a list of conditions or diagnoses that may be the cause of the patient's condition. This list is called the differential diagnosis. a. True b. False

a

The EMT-B should request prehospital ACLS for the care of the cardiac arrest patient: a. because ACLS intervention provides higher survival rates b. because EMT-B must have prehospital ACLS present to perform defibrillation c. because only paramedics can transport cardiac arrest patients d. because the EMT-B is not adequately trained to manage cardiac arrest

a

The SAMPLE history is designed to learn about past medical history. a. True b. False

a

The ____ is the body's main artery which receives the ejected blood from the left ventricle and delivers it to all the other arteries. a. aorta b. vena cava c. atrium d. right ventricle

a

The ability of the heart to create its own electrical impulses is called automaticity. a. True b. False

a

The best device for an ice rescue would be a: a. flat-bottomed aluminum boat. b. pole and a rope that is looped at one end. c. ladder. d. cold-water submersion suit.

a

The best method to care for a non-traumatic nosebleed is to put the ____. a. patient in an upright sitting position, head forward, and pinch nostrils. b. patient in an upright sitting position, head backward, and ice pack to the forehead. c. patient in a sidelying position and pinch nostrils. d. patient in an upright sitting position, head tilted slightly back, and pinch nostrils.

a

The blood contains molecules called hemoglobin that carry oxygen to the cells. a. True b. False

a

The care rendered by the EMT is an extension of the medical director's authority. a. True b. False

a

The central nervous system consists of the brain and the: a. spinal cord b. spinal nerves c. cranial nerves d. spinal vertebrae

a

The components of the blood that carry oxygen to the tissues are the: a. erythrocytes. b. white corpuscles. c. leukocytes. d. platelets.

a

The correct procedure to handle a used airway is to ____. a. Discard it in a biohazard trash container. b. Clean it with alcohol foam and dry it off. c. Disinfect it with bleach and water solution. d. Sterilize it in an autoclave or boiling water.

a

The correct way to select the proper size oropharyngeal airway (OPA) is to measure the distance from the a. corner of the mouth to the tip of the earlobe b. nose to the tip of the earlobe c. corner of the mouth to the nose d. nose to the tip of the chin

a

The decision on the level of precautions you will take will initially be determined as part of the scene size-up. a. True b. False

a

The device that allows control over the delivery of oxygen in liters per minute is a: a. flowmeter. b. cylinder valve. c. pressure gauge. d. pressure regulator.

a

The electrical rhythm disturbance that should be treated with the use of an AED is called: a. ventricular fibrillation b. atrial fibrillation c. asystole d. pulseless electrical activity (PEA)

a

The expansion of the stomach caused by excessive ventilation pressures, which causes excess air to enter the stomach instead of the lungs is ____. a. Gastric Distention b. Evisceration c. Inflation d. Gastric Bypass

a

The extremity in a hip fracture is usually observed to be a. Externally rotated and shortened b. Externally rotated and lengthened c. Internally rotated and shortened d. Internally rotated and lengthened

a

The first element of the scene size-up is scene safety. Your first safety concern is for yourself. a. True b. False

a

The first step in the delivery of high flow oxygen via nonrebreather mask is to a. select the correct size mask b. regulate the flow of oxygen c. inflate the reservoir bag with oxygen d. turn on the oxygen source

a

The first step in the delivery of high-flow oxygen via nonrebreather mask is to: a. select the correct size mask b. regulate the flow of oxygen c. inflate the reservoir bag with oxygen d. turn on the oxygen source

a

The reason to position a pregnant woman on her left side is to: a. reduce the pressure of the fetus on maternal circulation b. make labor proceed more slowly by slowing down contractions c. help turn a breech fetus in the birth canal to the vertex position d. ensure that there is sufficient blood flow to the placenta

a

The reservoir bag on a nonrebreather mask should: a. remain two-thirds full when the patient inhales. b. remain completely full when the patient inhales. c. completely collapse when the patient inhales. d. none of the above; a nonrebreather mask does not have a reservoir

a

The signs and symptoms of shock are _____. a. Increased heart rate, increased respirations, hypotension b. Decreased heart rate, increased respirations, hypertension c. Increased heart rate, decreased respirations, hypertension d. Decreased heart rate, increased respirations, hypotension

a

The spleen filters blood. a. True b. False

a

The structure that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing is _____. a. Epiglottis b. Diaphragm c. Larynx d. Cricoid Cartilage

a

The time you should spend on scene for critical patients is ____. a. 10 minutes or less b. 30 minutes c. 20 to 30 minutes d. as long as it takes to make sure the patient is stable for transport

a

The trachea, the bronchi, and the bronchioles are known as anatomic dead space. a. True b. False

a

The tube that carries inhaled air from the larynx down toward the lungs is the: a. trachea. b. esophagus. c. epiglottis. d. bronchus.

a

The two layers of the peritoneum are called the _______ peritoneum and the parietal peritoneum. a. visceral b. subcutaneous c. retroparietal d. umbilical

a

The upper airway does not include which of the following? a. the trachea b. the jaw c. the tongue d. the larynx

a

The use of an AED is contraindicated if the cardiac arrest patient is under one year of age or is the victim of a trauma. a. True b. False

a

The warning signs of stress include irritability with family, friends, and coworkers; difficulty sleeping; and anxiety. a. True b. False

a

The zygomatic bones are found: a. in the face b. in the wrist c. in the nasal passages d. none of the above. They do not exist in the human body

a

There are three common techniques used to measure blood pressure with a sphygmomanometer: (1) auscultation; (2) palpation; and (3) blood pressure monitor. a. True b. False

a

There are two major tools to assess a patient with a stroke: the Cincinnati Stroke Scale and the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen. Which tool uses arm drift as a diagnostic tool? a. Cincinnati Stroke Scale b. Neither c. Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen d. Both

a

There are two types of cerebral vascular accidents (i.e., strokes). An ischemic stroke is the most common. What is the other type? a. Hemorrhagic b. Transient ischemic attack c. Thrombotic d. Embolic

a

When dealing with a patient who is experiencing a psychiatric emergency, you should: a. involve family or friends in the conversation if it appears to help. b. not spend a lot of time listening to the patient; transport quickly and restrain if necessary c. play along with any visual or auditory hallucinations the patient is experiencing d. tell the patient whatever he wants to hear, even if it is not true, to keep him calm

a

What is cardiac compromise? a. an encompassing term that refers to any type of heart issue. b. tachycardic dyspnea. c. myocardial infarction. d. a heart murmur caused by a malfunctioning valve.

a

What is meant by minute volume? a. the amount of air inhaled in one breath times the breaths per minute. b. the amount of air that can be taken into the lungs in one breath, otherwise known as lung capacity. c. the amount of breaths per minute, minus the dead space in the lungs. d. the amount of air taken in by the lungs over a two minute period.

a

What is not responsible for seizure activity? a. Diabetes b. Head injury c. Drug withdrawal d. Epilepsy

a

What is true about poisonous ingestions? a. They usually occur accidentally. b. They usually occur by being forced upon them. c. They usually occur through purposeful self inflection. d. They usually occur from abuse.

a

What is your primary concern with a patient who is actively seizing? a. Airway b. What type of seizure is the patient having c. Past medical history d. Last seizure

a

What law protects someone who provides help to an injured person from legal action? a. Good Samaritan law b. EMT Registration c. No law exists d. Duty to act

a

What should you do when managing an open fracture? a. Cover the exposed bone ends with a moist sterile dressing. b. Provide mild manual traction to restore distal circulation. c. Leave the wound exposed if there is no massive bleeding from the area. d. Apply a pressure dressing to prevent blood loss.

a

When dealing with the patient and family confronted with death or dying, you should: a. be tolerant of angry reactions. b. assure the patient that "Everything will be okay." c. avoid talking directly to the patient. d. discourage the patient from sharing feelings and needs

a

When describing a patient's anatomical position, what does superior refer to? a. the portion nearest to the head from a specific reference point b. the portion closest to the midline of the body c. the portion furthest away from the midline of the body d. the portion nearest to the feet

a

When encountering a patient who is not breathing the first thing you should do is: a. open the airway. b. check the patient's pulse. c. stabilize C-spine in case the patient is suffering from syncope. d. administer high flow oxygen at 15 lpm via non-rebreather mask.

a

When is it necessary to wear a mask and eye protection? a. Suctioning a patient. b. Transporting a patient. c. Splinting a closed injury. d. Administering oxygen

a

When the AED is analyzing a patient for a shockable rhythm the EMT should: a. ensure that no one is touching the patient including herself. b. continue with full CPR. c. continue with rescue breathing only. d. reassess pulse during the "downtime."

a

When the EMT assesses the patient and draws up a list of conditions or diagnoses that may be causing the patient's condition, this is called the: a. differential diagnosis. b. medical history. c. physical exam. d. primary assessment

a

When the buttocks or lower extremities of a baby presents first during birth, this is called: a. Breech birth b. Placenta previa c. Meconium d. Precipitous delivery

a

When the kidneys lose their ability to adequately filter the blood, this is called renal failure. a. True b. False

a

When the kidneys lose their ability to remove toxins in the blood, this is called: a. renal failure. b. dialysis. c. hemodialysis. d. dehydration.

a

When treating a patient with suspected head or spine injury, manual stabilization of the head and neck can be released: a. after the patient is secured to a backboard. b. after the cervical collar is applied. c. when you find good pulse, motor function, and sensation in the distal extremities. d. only after the c-spine has been cleared by an X-ray.

a

When using a biphasic defibrillator on a patient in cardiac arrest, the energy level in the shock is: a. 120 to 200 J. b. 200 to 360 J. c. 100 to 120 J. d. 200 to 300 J.

a

When you are caring for an avulsion, you would do all of the following EXCEPT: a. place the avulsed part in ice water. b. control bleeding. c. label the bag that the avulsed part is in. d. fold the skin back to its normal position.

a

When you first arrive on the scene, a 27-year-old woman is complaining of respiratory problems and anxiety. What should you ask her first? a. What is your name? b. What day is today? c. Do you have a history of panic attacks? d. How long have you been having trouble breathing?

a

When you have a collection of blood under the skin at an injury site, this would be called a: a. hematoma. b. closed wound. c. contusion. d. swelling.

a

When you stroke an infant's lips, he begins sucking. a. True b. False

a

When your patient is lying flat on his back in bed he is in the supine position. a. True b. False

a

Where is a nasal cannula to be placed and what is the maximum flow rate for a nasal cannula? a. Placed over the ears and on the nose, maximum flow rate is 6L/min. b. Placed over the ears and on the nose, maximum flow rate is 8L/min. c. Placed on the nose and mouth, maximum flow rate is 5L/min. d. Place within the trachea, maximum flow rate is 6 L/min.

a

Where is the cricoid cartilage located? a. inferior to the larynx b. superior to the epiglottis c. at the carina d. in the oropharynx

a

What treatment is normally advised for patients who have ingested a mild poison that does not, according to on-line medical direction, warrant care at a medical facility? a. Dilution with water or milk b. High-concentration oxygen via a nonrebreather mask c. Administration of activated charcoal d. Flushing with water or saline for at least 20 minutes

a

What type of injury that consists of overstretched and torn ligaments? a. Sprain b. Strain c. Fracture d. Dislocation

a

What type of medication opens the bronchi and increases the effectiveness of breathing when a patient has asthma? a. Bronchodilators b. Bronchoconstrictors c. Anti-inflammatories d. Pneumo-dilators

a

When a diver comes up too quickly from a deep prolonged dive, he may develop: a. decompression sickness. b. underwater pulmonary edema. c. the DTs. d. an air embolism.

a

When a part of the flail segment moves opposite the way the remainder of the chest cavity moves, this would be called paradoxical motion. a. True b. False

a

When a patient is not breathing and his lips, tongue, and nail beds turn blue or gray, this is called: a. cyanosis. b. absent breath sounds. c. abdominal breathing. d. normal breathing.

a

When a pediatric patient acts like a younger child while under stress, it is called regression. a. True b. False

a

When a rigid suction catheter is used with infants and young children, what can stimulating the back of the throat do? a. Cause changes in the heart rhythm. b. Be ineffective in suctioning. c. Lead to immediate vomiting. d. Cause the tongue to fall into the airway.

a

When an injury to the heart causes blood to flow into the surrounding pericardial sac, this condition is called: a. cardiac tamponade. b. traumatic asphyxia. c. hemothorax. d. pneumothorax.

a

When applying dressings to burns, which of the following would you NOT do? a. Break blisters b. Avoid using a dressing which will leave particles or material behind c. Do not apply ointments or salves d. Remove rings or constrictive clothing

a

Where should you apply a tourniquet to a wound located on the wrist? (A) Just proximal to the injury (B) Directly on the hand (C) Directly over the wound (D) On the bicep, just proximal to the elbow

a

Which agency is in charge of regulating EMS radio communications? a. Federal Communications Commission (FCC) b. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) c. National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians (NAEMT) d. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)

a

Which blood vessel carries oxygen poor blood to the heart? a. vena cava b. aorta c. pulmonary artery d. pulmonary vein

a

Which could be a reason that acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) was not administered to a patient in a cardiovascular emergency? a. all of these b. bleeding condition c. stomach ulcer d. documented allergy

a

Which level of emergency medical personnel is allowed to start intravenous lines and use manual defibrillators? a. Paramedic b. Emergency Medical Responder c. Advanced First Aid d. EMT

a

Which mechanism of injury suggests the likelihood of a spinal injury? a. restrained patient in a motor vehicle crash b. stabbing penetration to the upper torso c. arm injured while playing tennis d. gunshot wound to the upper thigh

a

Which medication is often used to treat a patient with shortness of breath by opening bronchioles and increasing effectiveness of breathing? a. Bronchodilators b. Bronchoconstrictors c. Anti-Inflammatory d. Pneumo-dilator

a

Which medication may a physician prescribe for a patient to take regularly to help prevent a myocardial infarction? a. Warfarin b. Lasix c. Albuterol d. Viagra

a

Which nervous system mechanism is responsible for bradycardia and hypotension associated with neurogenic shock? (A) Interruption of the sympathetic nervous system (B) Increased sympathetic nervous system activation (C) Increased parasympathetic nervous system activation (D) Paralysis of motor neurons

a

Which of the following best describes the purpose of HIPAA legislation? a. Regulates the sharing and transfer of patient information b. Strengthens the Good Samaritan laws in most states c. Regulation relating to patient consent laws d. Defines the most current BSI precautions

a

Which of the following characteristics is commonly described by patients as heart attack pain? a. Crushing or squeezing b. Like "pins and needles" c. Intermittent (comes and goes) d. Less severe than indigestion

a

Which of the following conditions is most likely to result in acute anemia? (A) Sickle cell disease (B) Liver disease (C) Stroke (D) Heart attack

a

Which of the following indicates that a patient with hyperthermia is in serious danger? a. hot skin b. moist skin c. muscle cramps d. dizziness

a

Which of the following infectious diseases is spread through airborne droplets? (A) Tuberculosis (B) Hepatitis C (C) Hepatitis B (D) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

a

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of hypoperfusion, or shock, in infants and children? a. Cardiac compromise b. Trauma c. Infection d. Diarrhea or vomiting

a

Which of the following is an extrinsic factor which interferes with the respiratory process? a. aspirated or swallowed foreign objects b. anaphylaxis c. lung infections d. epiglottis e. all of the above

a

Which of the following is generally not considered a weapon of mass destruction (WMD)? a. a machine gun b. a "dirty" bomb c. a weaponized virus d. a chemical agent designed to harm people

a

Which of the following is not a sign/symptom of a spinal injury? a. Fever b. Crepitus c. Paralysis d. Neurogenic shock

a

Which of the following is not a sign/symptom of head injury: a. Beck's triad b. Sluggish eye movement c. Altered mental status d. Cushing's reflex

a

Which of the following is the correct sequence for using an AED on an unresponsive, pulseless patient who has been in cardiac arrest for 1-2 minutes? a. Attach the AED, turn it on, and analyze. b. Provide two minutes of CPR prior to attaching the AED. c. Attach the AED, turn it on, and provide CPR as the AED analyzes the patient's EKG. d. Attach the AED, provide two minutes of CPR, and then analyze.

a

Which of the following is the highest priority patient? a. 57 year old male with chest pain and systolic blood pressure of 80 b. 40 year old female with moderate pain from a leg injury c. 75 year old male who appears confused but responds to commands d. 25 year old female in labor with contractions six minutes apart

a

Which of the following is the most effective method for administering ventilations on an apneic patient? a. Two-person bag-valve-mask. b. Mouth-to-mask c. One person bag-valve-mask. d. Mouth-to-mouth.

a

Which of the following is the most important sign of a diabetic emergency? a. altered mental status b. warm, dry skin c. decreased heart rate d. nausea and vomiting

a

Which of the following mechanisms of injuries is least likely associated with a spinal injury? a. Low impact upon falling off of a bike b. Being thrown out of a vehicle c. A 20-foot fall from a tree d. A baseball player who was hit in the head by a pitch

a

Which of the following signs or symptoms might you expect to see in a patient suffering from hypothermia? a. confused behavior b. excessive mucous production c. blood tinged sputum d. burning or itching in the underarms

a

Which of the following signs would suggest a patient is experiencing anaphylaxis (the most severe allergic reaction)? a. Stridorous breathing b. Tachycardia c. Bradycardia d. Bilateral wheezing

a

When caring for a child where you suspect physical abuse, you should: a. report your suspicions to the emergency department staff. b. let the parents know that you are suspicious and keep them away from the child. c. call for law enforcement and have the parents arrested. d. threaten the parents with violence if they do not allow transport of the child.

a

When caring for a patient with an impaled object in the chest, the EMT should: a. leave the impaled object in place and stabilize it with bulky dressings. b. remove the object if it slips out easily. c. remove the object and seal the wound with an occlusive dressing. d. quickly remove the impaled object and apply direct pressure to the wound

a

When controlling a nosebleed, have the patient: a. sit down and lean forward. b. stand up and lean backward. c. stand up and lean forward. d. sit down and lean backward

a

When dealing with a medical call, your primary assessment should focus on ____. a. the nature of the illness, chief complaint, and symptoms b. complete medical history c. a thorough head to toe exam d. patient's mechanism of injury

a

Which vital sign would indicate that a patient has entered the decompensated stage of shock? a. Heart rate of 128, respirations of 26, and a blood pressure of 82/62 mmHg b. Heart rate of 92, respirations of 18, and a blood pressure of 124/72 mmHg c. Heart rate of 110, respirations of 24, and a blood pressure of 128/90 mmHg d. Heart rate 64, respirations of 8, and a blood pressure of 82/40 mmHg

a

While attending to an unresponsive, apneic, pulseless, 70-year-old female, the AED shows, "no shock advised." What should you do? a. Check pulse b. Manually shock the patient anyway because she is in cardiac arrest c. Resume compressions d. Remove the AED pads, then check pulse

a

In pedestrian versus automobile impacts, which of the following statements is true? a. children often turn toward the impact and are often thrown down and under the vehicle b. adults tend to turn toward the vehicle before impact c. children often turn toward the impact and are often scooped and thrown over the vehicle d. there tends to be no difference in the way adults and children respond in these situations

a

In the event of a dangerous situation where hazardous materials are suspected, the ambulance should be parked ____. a. upwind and/or uphill of scene b. at the station until called to the scene c. downwind of scene d. at the scene

a

In the mnemonic "SAMPLE," what does the letter "P" stand for? a. Past medical history b. Provocation c. Palliative d. Pain

a

In the primary drive, respiration is driven by: a. rising CO2 levels b. rising O2 levels c. falling CO2 levels d. falling O2 levels

a

In what type of setting is it best to ask an adolescent patient about drug or alcohol use? a. In private, such as in the back of the ambulance b. In the presence of the patient's friends c. In the presence of the patient's parent or guardian d. In the presence of a law enforcement officer

a

In which of the following patients would you perform CPR? a. A 2-year-old patient submerged for 15 minutes b. A 56-year-old male with a LVAD in a witnessed arrest c. An 82-year-old patient found pulseless with dependent lividity d. An 18-year-old male patient found pulseless in an MCI bus rollover

a

In which of the following situations should you call for immediate assistance a. you must care for two critical patients with gunshot wounds b. your patient is a 26 year old female in active labor c. your patient is a child with fever who has had a brief seizure d. your partner is needed to stabilize the cervical spine

a

In which of the following situations should you call for immediate assistance? a. You must care for two critical patients with gunshot wounds b. Your patient is a 26 year old female in active labor c. Your patient is a child with fever who has had a brief seizure d. Your partner is needed to stabilize the cervical spine

a

Increased intracranial pressure caused by meningitis or trauma can result in an infant patient's bulging fontanelle. a. True b. False

a

Increased thirst, accompanied by nausea and an acetone-like breath odor, is indicative of: a. hyperglycemia. b. alcoholism. c. glucositis. d. hypoglycemia.

a

Infants rarely develop anaphylaxis because: a. their immune systems are too underdeveloped. b. they never develop anaphylaxis. c. they have a natural defense to allergens. d. they are not generally exposed to allergens.

a

Injecting epinephrine can occasionally be fatal to patients who suffer from: a. hypertension. b. COPD. c. diabetes. d. colitis.

a

Inspiration occurs when the: a. intercostal muscles and the diaphragm contract. b. diaphragm rises and the ribs move downward and inward. c. diaphragm rises and the ribs move upward and outward. d. intercostal muscles and the diaphragm relax.

a

Insulin promotes utilization of glucose by the cells. What would happen if a patient had a low level of insulin? a. Glucose would remain on the outside of the cell and would not be broken down. b. The level of insulin outside of the cell would be insufficient and would not break down the glucose. c. Glucose would remain in the cell and would not be functional. d. The level of insulin inside the cell would be insufficient and would not break down the glucose.

a

It is not important for the EMT to decide if a bone really has been fractured. If it is painful, or swollen, provide care as if it is a fracture. a. True b. False

a

It is permissible to use the head tilt chin lift on a trauma patient only if: a. there is no other way to open the airway b. a third EMT is available to stabilize the spine c. you have already performed CPR for 15 min d. no medical backup is available

a

It is within the small intestine that the majority of nutrients are removed from food and transferred into the bloodstream. a. True b. False

a

It usually takes a severe mechanism of injury to damage the: a. thoracic spine. b. cervical spine. c. temporal spine. d. lumbar spine.

a

It's a hot day, and your patient is presenting with rapid, shallow breathing, dilated pupils, and hot, dry skin. You should immediately suspect hyperthermia. a. True b. False

a

Keep in mind when ventilating a drowning patient that you probably have to ventilate: a. more forcefully than other patients. b. more frequently than other patients. c. using the same force as when ventilating other patients. d. less forcefully than other patients.

a

Kinetic energy is described as: a. the energy an object has while in motion b. the measure of matter c. the capacity to do work d. the tendency for an object to stay in motion

a

Late adulthood is often referred to as the twilight years a. True b. False

a

"Can you think of anything that might have caused this pain?" is considered an "Onset" question with regard to the OPQRST memory aid. a. True b. False

b

"Ecchymosis" refers to: A. an unreactive left pupil B. bruising or discoloration C. motion sickness D. a bad taste in the mouth

b

A "defusing session" is held a week after a critical incident to help resolve any lingering problems. a. True b. False

b

A 12-year-old male presents with a gunshot wound to the chest. You should immediately (A) fully expose the patient and look for other wounds. (B) cover the wound with an occlusive dressing. (C) administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. (D) perform full spinal immobilization.

b

A 12-year-old patient was ice skating when the ice broke, and she fell in the water. Your biggest concern is hypothermia as the patient will lose heat rapidly via: a. Conduction b. Convection c. Evaporation d. Excretion

b

A 12-year-old, insulin-dependent diabetic presents with a three-day history of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Your exam reveals warm, dry skin and poor skin turgor. You also note a fruity odor on the patient's breath. She is most likely suffering from (A) hypoglycemia. (B) diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). (C) epiglottitis. (D) septic shock.

b

A 2-year-old MVC passenger restrained in a car seat has respirations at 30/minute and non-labored. Concerning respiratory findings alone, you should: a. Transport to a trauma center b. Look for other signs as this could be a normal finding c. Insist on transportation to a hospital of the parent's preference d. Consider the respiratory rate an early sign of shock

b

A 2-year-old male presents sitting in his mother's lap, with an injured arm after a fall. You should (A) take off his shirt to expose the arm and keep it off during transport. (B) perform your assessment with the child in the mother's lap. (C) touch the patient as much as possible to allow him to get familiar with you. (D) place a nonrebreather mask over his face to keep him calm

b

A 22-year-old female with a history of asthma presents with dyspnea. She is alert, her respiratory rate is 20 and deep, and her skin is cool and moist with peripheral cyanosis. You auscultate wheezes in all lung fields. She has her prescribed albuterol metered-dose inhaler. You should first (A) administer oxygen via nasal cannula. (B) assist the patient with her metered-dose inhaler. (C) administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. (D) cover her with a blanket.

b

A 23 year old pregnant female is bleeding profusely from her vagina. All of the following actions are appropriate EXCEPT: a. providing high-concentration oxygen b. placing a sanitary napkin in the vagina c. replacing pads as they become soaked d. rapid transport to the hospital

b

A 3 year old female has difficulty breathing after she swallowed a piece of hard candy, which lodged in her throat. What abnormal sounds should you expect to hear on auscultation? a. Rales b. Stridor c. Snoring d. Wheezes

b

A 31-year-old female presents with urticaria and a rash on her forearm after being stung by a bee. She has a history of being allergic to nuts and carries an epinephrine autoinjector, which she produces. You should immediately (A) assess her pulse and blood pressure. (B) listen to lung sounds. (C) have her use her epinephrine autoinjector. (D) transport to a hospital

b

A 32-year-old female has sharp abdominal pain. She is eight weeks pregnant. She has a history of cocaine addiction and pelvic inflammatory disease. There is pain with palpation to her lower right quadrant. The most likely cause of her pain is a(n) (A) miscarriage. (B) ectopic pregnancy. (C) abruptio placentae. (D) placenta previa.

b

A 34-year-old female complains of chest tightness and difficulty breathing. She states that she has a history of anxiety disorder but has been noncompliant with her medications. She is breathing 30 times per minute. You should (A) advise her to take her medications. (B) administer oxygen. (C) have the patient breathe into a paper bag. (D) withhold oxygen.

b

A 34-year-old female presents with an acute onset of dyspnea and right-sided chest pain that worsens when she takes a deep breath. She has a history of asthma and gave birth to her first child four days ago. Lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. Her skin is cool, pale, and diaphoretic, and there is jugular venous distention. You should first (A) obtain a complete set of vital signs. (B) administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. (C) assist the patient with her albuterol metered-dose inhaler. (D) inspect for vaginal hemorrhage.

b

A 35-year-old trauma victim is not breathing. What should you do if you cannot open the airway by means of jaw thrust and suctioning? a. Attempt mouth-to-mask ventilation. b. Use the head-tilt/chin-lift technique. c. Ventilate with a bag-valve-mask unit. d. Insert an airway through a tracheostomy.

b

A 4-year-old child has burns to the anterior surface of both legs and the anterior abdomen. What percentage of body surface area is burned? a. 18 percent b. 23 percent c. 36 percent d. 45 percent

b

A contraindication to assisting the patient in taking nitroglycerin tablets is: a. the patient has a history of a previous heart attack. b. systolic blood pressure is below 90 mmHg. c. the patient complains of chest pain. d. the patient has already taken one nitroglycerin tablet.

b

A fall greater than three times the patient's height is a reasonable guideline in determining the severity of injury. a. True b. False

b

A focused history and physical exam for a patient with a significant mechanism of injury differs from that of the patient with no significant mechanism of injury in that: a. with no significant mechanism of injury, baseline vitals are not required. b. with a significant mechanism of injury, spinal stabilization procedures are always performed. c. if there is a significant mechanism of injury, a SAMPLE history is not included. d. with no significant mechanism of injury, reassessment of mental status is added.

b

A gastric tube (G tube) is a long tube inserted through the nose into the stomach that can be used to deliver nutrients. a. True b. False

b

A general impression is formed from an immediate assessment of the environment as well as the patient's _______ and appearance. a. SAMPLE history b. chief complaint c. mental status d. vital signs

b

A good EMT will use all of his senses while completing a rapid trauma assessment. a. True b. False

b

A good time to assess the posterior of the patient is: a. prior to assessing the chest and abdomen. b. when rolling the patient on his side to apply a backboard. c. prior to assessing the extremities. d. none of the above, as assessing the posterior causes too much movement of the patient.

b

A heat emergency patient with moist, pale, normal-to-cool skin may have which of the following signs and symptoms? a. Lack of perspiration b. Muscle cramps c. Dilated pupils d. Full, rapid pulse

b

A hip fracture is actually a break in the iliac crest. a. True b. False

b

A list of steps, such as assessment and interventions, to be taken by an EMT in different situations is called a: a. policy. b. protocol. c. checklist. d. procedure.

b

A man has been assaulted. He is ambulatory, anxious, and disoriented. You note that he is self-splinting an obviously fractured left humerus; he has a weak and rapid radial pulse; and his skin is cool, pale, and diaphoretic. Your priority is to (A) manually stabilize the injured arm. (B) assess for other injuries. (C) splint the humerus with a sling and swathe. (D) apply a cold pack to the injury site.

b

A medication you can administer as an EMT for a heart attack is: a. antihistamines. b. aspirin. c. Tylenol. d. Valium.

b

A midline is a flat surface formed when slicing through a solid object. a. True b. False

b

A mother is holding her 14-month-old son. She reports the patient was getting ready to fall asleep when his body stiffened for a few seconds and then began to "jerk" rhythmically for about a minute. The child had been running a high fever and has had normal urine output and bowel movements. The child is awake and is crying loudly and clinging to his mother. You should (A) cool the child with wet towels. (B) transport the child and parent to the hospital. (C) have the mother bottle-feed the child. (D) administer a baby aspirin to the child.

b

A normal respiratory rate for an adult is ____ while a normal respiratory rate for a newborn is ____. a. 8 to16 and 20 to 40 b. 12 to 20 and 30 to 60 c. 22 to 30 and 50 d. 12 to 20 and 16 to 24

b

A pacemaker is designed to prevent the heart rate from becoming: a. absent. b. too slow. c. too fast. d. chaotic.

b

A patient experiencing severe, unexpected stress may display all of the following EXCEPT: a. fear b. acceptance c. grief d. anger

b

A patient having a panic attack can manifest signs and symptoms of a heart attack. Which of the following is not a sign or symptom associated with a panic attack? a. Tachycardia b. Feeling calm c. Diaphoresis d. Tachypnea

b

A patient informs you that he has sickle cell anemia. Which of the following might a patient with this condition experience? a. Acute appendicitis b. Priapism c. Painless hypoxia d. Extremely large red blood cells

b

A patient is breathing normally with a tidal volume of 500 mL at a rate of 14 breaths per minute. What is this patient's minute volume? a. 5 L b. 7,000 mL c. 2.4 L d. 2,400 mL

b

A patient presents with a knife impaled in his neck. There is profuse bleeding from the wound. You hear no gurgling or stridor as the patient breathes. You should (A) remove the knife and apply direct pressure. (B) provide direct pressure to the wound around the knife. (C) apply direct pressure to the knife. (D) cover the wound with a four-sided occlusive dressing.

b

A patient presents with a left-sided spontaneous pneumothorax. Which of the following would best suggest that a tension pneumothorax was developing? (A) Decreased lung sounds on the left (B) Jugular venous distention (C) Hypertension (D) SpO2 (oxygen saturation level) = 98 percent on room air

b

A patient suffering from abdominal pain should have his vitals reassessed every _______ minutes. a. 15 b. 5 c. 20 d. 10

b

A patient who flutters her eyelids and attempts to speak following a sternal rub is considered verbally responsive. a. True b. False

b

A portion of intestine has completely twisted around its mesenteric attachment. This is called: a. Fistula b. Volvulus c. Colitis d. Intussusception

b

A prefix is added to the end of a word. a. True b. False

b

A pulse oximeter measures oxygen as it escapes through the patient's epidermis. a. True b. False

b

A respiratory rate of 45 breaths per minute in an infant patient is: a. an indicator of the need for artificial ventilation. b. normal. c. too rapid. d. tachycardic.

b

A sign of early respiratory distress in the pediatric patient is: a. an increased blood pressure b. an increased heart rate c. flush, warm skin d. a decreased breathing rate

b

A sign of fetal distress during labor is meconium staining. This is: a. wine-colored blotches on the baby's skin. b. a greenish or brownish-yellow color of the amniotic fluid. c. a yellowish tinge to the baby's skin, similar to jaundice. d. the bluish color of the baby's skin when first born.

b

A sign or symptom of a predelivery emergency is: a. the mother's skin is dry b. profuse vaginal bleeding c. the presence of a bloody show d. a contraction every 20 min

b

A tendon is a tissue that connects bone to bone. a. True b. False

b

A toddler is totally dependent upon others. a. True b. False

b

A tracheostomy mask is a device that is used to provide oxygen to a patient with a stoma, and it provides: a. 12-15L of oxygen per minute b. 8-10L of oxygen per minute c. 6-7L of oxygen per minute d. 1-6L of oxygen per minute

b

A weakened section of an arterial wall that begins to dilate is known as a(n): a. embolism. b. aneurysm. c. thrombus. d. occlusion.

b

A woman is injured after dousing a barbeque with lighter fluid. She is awake and alert, and has burns to her face and chest. You can hear audible stridor when she breathes. You should first (A) cover the burns with a sterile burn sheet. (B) administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. (C) insert a nasopharyngeal airway. (D) suction the airway.

b

AIDS has an incubation period of: a. weeks to months, depending on the type b. several months to years c. 11-21 days d. 14-24 days

b

According to research, what is the cause of most cases of inappropriately delivered shocks from an AED? a. Mechanical interference. b. Human error. c. Improperly charged batteries. d. Malfunctioning electrodes.

b

According to the American Heart Association, ischemic strokes are the most common type of stroke. What percentage of strokes are attributed to ischemic strokes? a. more than 70% b. more than 80% c. more than 60% d. more than 90%

b

According to the National EMS education standard competencies, what are the five parts of assessment? a. scene size-up, primary assessment, history, transport, and reassessment b. scene size-up, primary assessment, history, secondary assessment, and reassessment c. scene size-up, primary assessment, history, secondary assessment, and treatment d. scene size-up, protective equipment, history, secondary assessment, and reassessment

b

Accurately identify signs related to compensated shock. a. absent peripheral pulses, mottled skin b. narrowing pulse pressure, clammy skin c. dilated pupils, poor urinary output d. labored breathing, cyanosis

b

Activated charcoal is commonly premixed with milk or syrup of ipecac. a. True b. False

b

Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested a poison or overdose because it: a. is an antidote for many poisons. b. adsorbs or binds to many substances. c. aids in digestion. d. does not cause the patient to vomit.

b

Addison's disease occurs because of dysfunction in which gland? a. Thyroid b. Adrenal c. Pituitary d. Parotid

b

After a call, you note that there is blood on the bench seat of your ambulance. You should (A) wipe the blood up with a towel. (B) clean the bench with a bleach and water solution. (C) wash the blood off with hot, soapy water. (D) take the ambulance out of service.

b

After applying a splint, sling, or any other emergency immobilizing device, you should always: a. immediately obtain a new set of vital signs. b. reassess distal circulation, sensation, and motor function. c. ask the patient to attempt to move the secured part. d. check proximal pulse, motor function, and sensation (PMS).

b

After blood leaves the right ventricle of the heart, where does it travel? a. To the vena cava then to the left atrium b. To the pulmonary arteries then to the lungs c. To the pulmonary veins, then to the lungs d. To the aorta, then out to the body

b

After delivering your first shock with an AED, if the patient is still pulseless, you should next: a. deliver an additional shock. b. perform two minutes (5 cycles) of CPR, unless the patient wakes up. c. immediately transport, continuing CPR. d. contact medical control.

b

After examining an anaphylactic patient's epinephrine autoinjector and determining that it is, in fact, prescribed to that patient and is not expired, you should: a. have the patient place his hand on the device while you trigger it. b. have the patient remain still while you inject the epinephrine. c. hold onto it while determining if the patient's condition will worsen. d. hand it back to the patient and encourage him to use it.

b

After obtaining medical direction, you are helping your patient use a prescribed inhaler. You should tell the patient to: a. take three quick, shallow breaths b. inhale deeply and hold her breath c. exhale slowly as she can d. lie down to prevent dizziness

b

After opening the airway, the next step in patient management is to a. insert an endotracheal tube b. assess adequacy of respirations c. begin mouth-to-mouth ventilation d. apply bag-valve mask ventilation

b

After opening the airway, the next step in patient management is to: a. insert an endotracheal tube b. assess adequacy of respirations c. begin mouth-to-mouth ventilation d. apply bag-valve mask ventilation

b

After transporting a patient to the emergency department, where should you clean the patient compartment? a. En route to ambulance headquarters b. At the hospital c. At headquarters d. Prior to arriving at the next call

b

Ages 12 to 18 are considered the school age stage of life. a. True b. False

b

All descriptions of the body start with the assumption that the body is in the __________ position: a. physiological b. anatomical c. supine d. directional

b

All of the following are contraindications for the administration of nitroglycerin EXCEPT when the patient a. has a systolic blood pressure of less than 100 mmHg b. has taken a previous dose of nitroglycerin two minutes ago c. has a heart rate less than 60 bpm d. is an infant or child

b

All of the following are signs of labored respiration EXCEPT: a. grunting b. snoring c. stridor d. use of accessory muscles

b

All of the following are signs of possible child abuse EXCEPT: a. the presence of multiple bruises in various stages of healing b. a single severe traumatic event that occurred for no reason c. injuries inconsistent with the mechanism described d. conflicting histories of the injury from the guardians or parents

b

All of the following are signs of spinal cord injury EXCEPT: a. loss of bladder or bowel control. b. increased blood pressure from vessel constriction. c. priapism from damage affecting nerves to the external genitalia. d. posturing.

b

All of the following are steps the EMT takes when assisting a patient to use his prescribed inhaler EXCEPT: a. making sure the patient is alert enough to use the inhaler properly. b. holding the inhaler in the patient's mouth and activating the spray for him. c. having the patient exhale deeply first. d. having the patient inhale deeply as he presses the inhaler to activate the spray.

b

Always assume that the unconscious trauma patient: a. probably will not survive. b. has a spine injury. c. is in cardiac arrest. d. is in shock.

b

An 8-month-old infant is unresponsive. The patient is apneic, with a rapid brachial pulse. There is no trauma. The best way to open the airway is to (A) perform a head-tilt, chin-lift. (B) place a pad under the shoulders to achieve a neutral position. (C) perform a jaw thrust. (D) hyperflex the head.

b

An AICD will deliver a shock if it detects: a. ventricular fibrillation or asystole. b. ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia. c. ventricular tachycardia or bradycardia. d. ventricular tachycardia or sinus rhythm

b

While in the ambulance reassessing a patient who has a splinted tibia and fibula fracture, you can't palpate a distal pulse in the injured extremity. The patient did have a distal pulse before the application of the splint. You should a. Loosen the splint slightly b. Attempt to manipulate the extremity c. Request an advanced life support intercept d. Assume the pulse is present but masked by swelling

a

While interviewing a patient who has an allergic reaction, your partner asks, "What is new and different?" Most patients with an allergy must be exposed to the allergen at some point. What is this process? a. Sensitization b. Allergic reaction c. Anaphylaxis d. Anaphylactic reaction

a

While placing the AED pads on a patient's chest, you note that a medication patch is covering the area where you're supposed to place the pad. You should (A) remove the patch and wipe away any remaining medication. (B) place the AED pad 3 inches away from the medication patch. (C) continue CPR and not apply the AED. (D) place the AED pad over the medication patch.

a

While using a power stretcher, it is vital to follow the manufacturer's instructions and use appropriate body mechanics. a. True b. False

a

White blood cells help fight off infections. a. True b. False

a

Who inhales poisons to get high? a. Huffers b. Puffers c. Inhalers d. Sniffers

a

Who is showing signs and symptoms of cardiac compromise? a. 53-year-old woman: dull chest pain, sudden sweating, difficulty breathing b. 85-year-old man: difficulty breathing, high fever, rapid pulse c. 72-year-old woman: wheezing, labored breathing, tightness in throat d. 51-year-old man: headache, dizziness, gagging, chest pain

a

Who is the most at risk for a diabetic emergency? a. A diabetic child. b. A diabetic elderly person. c. A diabetic teenager. d. A diabetic adult.

a

You are transporting a patient who is having night sweats, mild fever, and a productive cough. He states that the health department has been treating him at home for a respiratory condition. The patient should be transported to the hospital ________. a. With a mask on the patient and the EMT b. In the left lateral recumbent position c. In a position of comfort d. In a calm, passive manner

a

You are transporting an elderly male patient in respiratory distress with a history of COPD. The patient has very shallow, rapid respirations with minimal chest wall motion and slight wheezing in the upper lung fields. What is true about the arterial carbon dioxide levels? a. They are elevated. b. They are not enough information to determine. c. They are normal. d. They are lowered

a

You are treating a 19 year old female who has a penetrating chest injury. She is anxious and has vital signs that indicate shock. Which of the following signs indicate she may have cardiac tamponade? a. Distended jugular veins b. Widening pulse pressure c. Absent lung sounds on the left d. Different quality between the left and right radial pulses

a

You are treating a 46-year-old male who has difficulty breathing and an altered level of consciousness. He is tachypneic, pale, diaphoretic, and has tachycardia. What are your patient's respirations per minute? a. greater than 20 b. 12-15 c. 15-18 d. 18-20

a

You are treating a 52-year-old male who is experiencing dull, achy chest pains. He is alert and oriented. However, you notice his skin is pale, cool and clammy upon assessment. What should you do next? a. Administer Supplemental Oxygen b. Obtain SAMPLE History c. Apply an AED d. Assist the patient with his wife's nitroglycerin.

a

You are treating a 62-year-old male patient with a history of heart disease. He is having chest pain. What should you do first? a. Place him in a comfortable position and administer high-flow oxygen. b. Ask him if he has taken his nitroglycerin, and if not, offer to assist him. c. Place the pads for the automated external defibrillator on his chest. d. Begin CPR while preparing the automated external defibrillator.

a

You are treating a 75-year old female patient who is currently in cardiac arrest. She begins breathing at 15 breaths per minute, and has a strong carotid pulse after one shock via the AED. What should you do next? a. Provide supplemental oxygen by NRB b. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask c. Continue to administer shocks via AED d. Request a non-transport and leave the scene

a

You are treating an 80-year old male with shortness of breath. What condition is the patient suffering from? a. All of these b. A myocardial infarction c. Congestive heart failure d. Cardiac compromise

a

You are using an Ambu bag attached to 100% O2 to perform rescue breaths. You notice that the patient O2 saturation has dropped considerably after several breaths. How should you proceed? a. Reposition the patient's head b. Change the seal on the mask c. Increase the rate of respirations d. Remove the oral airway from the patients mouth

a

You arrive as a father assisted in the unexpected birth of his daughter. The baby wasn't expected for another week, and she appears limp and has minimal movement. The baby has cyanosis in her torso and extremities. You observe rapid breathing, and her pulse is 52. You should first... a. dry and warm the baby. b. administer blow-by oxygen. c. ventilate the baby with a neonate BVM. d. begin chest compressions and ventilate the baby with a neonate BVM.

a

You arrive at the scene of a pedestrian struck by a car. During examination, you notice clear fluid that you believe to be cerebral spinal fluid leaking from the patient's ear. What may the patient suffer from? a. Severe head injury b. Basilar skull fracture c. Ruptured eardrum d. Cervical spine injury

a

You arrive at the scene of an MVA where there are three patients who have minor visible injuries. Two are refusing treatment and one is having neck and back pain. What should you do? a. Have your partner obtain refusals from the two patients who refused treatment, while you treat the last patient. b. Treat all three patients, they are visibly injured and need medical attention c. Obtain signed refusals from the first two patients then proceed to the third d. Treat the third patient, nothing else is needed for the other two

a

You arrive at the scene of of a car versus tree accident. The car is engulfed in flames, the fire is coming from underneath the hood and inside the passenger compartment. The operator of this vehicle is unconscious and slumped over the steering wheel. What is your first priority? a. Ensuring safety of you and your partner b. Effecting immediate rescue of the patient c. Ensuring safety of any by-standers d. Ensuring safety of the fire department

a

You arrive on scene to a car accident and are treating a 35-year-old patient. He is unresponsive and not breathing. While manually maintaining cervical precautions, you should open his airway by ____. a. doing the jaw thrust maneuver b. opening his mouth wide, while slightly hyperextending his neck c. placing a cervical collar and then doing a head tilt-chin lift d. doing the head tilt-chin lift

a

You arrive on scene where a 3-year-old male patient seems to be poisoned. Upon questioning his mother, she tells you that she found a container of detergent tipped over in the laundry room. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of injury for this patient? a. Ingestion b. Injection c. Inhalation d. Absorption

a

You arrive on scene where a 40-year-old male is lying unconscious on the bathroom floor. You see non-reactive pin point pupils in your physical exam. What is the best field diagnosis based on these two findings alone? a. Narcotic overdose b. Insulin overdose c. Hyperglycemia d. Aspirin

a

You arrive on scene where a 55-year-old male patient is lying on the side walk. After asking him a few questions about the wounds to his head and torso, you realize he is intoxicated, but reports he has no neck or back pain. Should he be immobilized? a. Yes, he is intoxicated so it is impossible to appropriately assess his risk of spinal injury. b. Yes, because he has head wounds. c. No, because he does not have any neck or back pain. d. No, because he could act erratically to immobilization since he is intoxicated.

a

You observe an umbilical cord protruding from the vagina of a female who is full term. The most significant problem that accompanies this condition is... a. fetal hypoxia. b. fetal hemorrhage. c. maternal hypoxia. d. maternal hemorrhage.

a

You respond to a call for a 16-year-old female with a history of epilepsy, who is experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. What is the most appropriate intervention? a. Loosen any restrictive clothing and protect the patient from injury. b. Physically restrain the patient and transport to the nearest emergency department. c. Place the patient in the left lateral recumbent position and administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask. d. Administer an albuterol inhaler.

a

You respond to an unresponsive patient at a local festival. Upon your arrival, bystanders say the patient has been drinking heavily. As you assess the patient, you note a heavy odor of alcohol. The patient is responsive to painful stimuli, has gurgling respirations and vomitus on his face, and breathing deeply at 14 times per minute. What are the initial airway management priorities for this patient? a. Open the airway, suction, apply a nonrebreather mask at 15 L/min, and monitor the patient's airway b. Open the airway, insert an oral airway, and place the patient on a non-rebreather mask at 10 L/min c. Open the airway, suction the airway, and ventilate the patient with a bag-valve-mask device d. Open the airway, insert an oral airway, and ventilate the patient with a bag-valve-mask device

a

Your patient has difficulty breathing. He has a history of renal failure and receives dialysis three times a week. Which of the following questions will give you the most information regarding his condition? (A) "Have you missed your scheduled dialysis treatments?" (B) "What medications are you taking?" (C) "Do you have any allergies to medications?" (D) "Have you vomited?"

a

Your patient has ingested a potentially dangerous amount of a medication. One question you should ask is: a. What is the patient's estimated weight? b. Is the medication prescribed to the patient? c. What color was the pill? d. Do you have syrup of ipecac in the house?

a

Your patient has numerous cuts to his inside forearms and wrists. You should be concerned that the patient (A) may have attempted suicide. (B) is the victim of abuse. (C) has been involved in a fight. (D) is an IV drug abuser.

a

Your patient has profuse bleeding from a wound on her lower leg but no signs of skeletal injury. The steps you should take to stop the bleeding, in the correct order, are: a. direct pressure, elevation, pressure dressing, and pressure point b. pressure point, tourniquet, and concentrated or diffuse direct pressure c. pneumatic anti-shock garments (PASG), lower extremity elevation, and diffuse direct pressure d. elevation, pressure point, pressure dressing, and PASG

a

Your patient is a 17-year-old male found face down in a swimming pool. He is being held face up at the surface of the water. He is breathing and has a pulse but unconscious. What should you do? a. Apply cervical and spinal immobilization while the patient is still in the pool b. Jump into the pool and begin CPR c. Wait for a trained water rescue team d. Remove the patient from the pool, immobilize, and transport.

a

Your patient is a 29 year old male who has fallen off a ladder. He is bleeding profusely from a wound on his right forearm and has severe pain in his left thigh. Which of the following is an appropriate initial treatment for this patient? a. perform a quick initial assessment to assess his ABCs b. stop the bleeding by applying a tourniquet near the elbow c. maintain an open airway and ventilate the patient with a gas-valve mask d. elevate the patient's legs 20-30 cm to treat him for shock

a

Your patient is a 45 year old homeless male who is suspected of hypothermia. The most important question to ask him is: a. do you know who you are and where you are? b. are you having any trouble breathing? c. are you currently taking any prescription medications? d. what makes the pain feel better or worse?

a

_______ could cause a patient to present with erratic behavior, fainting, seizures, profuse perspiration, drooling, and a rapid pulse but normal blood pressure. a. low blood sugar b. head trauma c. alcohol poisoning d. hypoperfusion

a

_______ fractures are considered very serious because they can result in a 3-4 pint internal blood loss. a. Pelvic b. Femur c. Skull d. Humerus

a

__________ is performed by instilling a solution containing minerals and glucose into the abdominal cavity. a. Peritoneal dialysis b. Levage dialysis c. Hemodialysis d. Hematodialysis

a

focused physical exam differs from a rapid trauma assessment in that the rapid trauma assessment: a. is a complete, head-to-toe rapid exam. b. does not include eyes, ears, nose, and mouth, while the focused physical exam always does. c. is performed while en route to the hospital. d. is performed more quickly, and in a more focused area than the focused physical exam.

a

hat is not one of the three major components of the cardiovascular system? a. Myoglobin b. Heart c. Blood vessels d. Blood

a

he chamber of the heart that pumps oxygen-rich blood out to the body tissues is ____. a. Left ventricle b. Right atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left atrium

a

You arrive at the scene of a 65-year-old male with shortness of breath. He has terminal brain cancer and a Do Not Resuscitate order. What is your best course of action? a. Administer oxygen and transport the patient to the most appropriate emergency room. b. Discuss the situation with the family and try to persuade them not to have the patient transported. c. Contact medical direction about administering oxygen and not transporting the patient. d. Contact the patient's oncologist for directions on the patient's care. Continue

a If the patient is a DNR, he still has the right to comfort care. It means that he can receive oxygen and medications for pain and make his own medical decisions unless his family has the medical power of attorney to decide if the patent is transported. Patients have the right to die with dignity.

During a cardiac arrest, a paramedic has inserted an endotracheal tube into the patient's trachea. When ventilating the patient through the tube, you should (A) use a 30:2 compression-to-ventilation ratio. (B) squeeze the bag once every 6-8 seconds. (C) disconnect the bag-valve mask from oxygen. (D) administer twice the tidal volume you were delivering without an endotracheal tube.

b

During a deep expiration, the diaphragm extends superiorly to the a. 2nd intercostal space b. 4th intercostal space c. 6th intercostal space d. 8th intercostal space

b

During triage, what type of patient would receive a red triage tag? a. a patient who requires later observation b. a patient who requires immediate treatment c. a patient who is walking wounded d. a patient who is deceased

b

How do you ventilate a patient with a stoma? a. Through the mouth and nose b. Through the stoma c. Cover the mouth and ventilate through the nose d. You cannot ventilate a patient with a stoma

b

How is NTG administered, and in what dose for an adult patient? a. Sublingually; 81mg b. Sublingually; 0.4mg c. Via tablet; 162mg d. Via tablet; 0.8mg

b

Human bites are of particular concern because (A) bleeding can be difficult to control. (B) there is a high risk of infection. (C) crush injuries are common. (D) bones are often fractured.

b

Hypotension associated with anaphylaxis occurs because of (A) bradycardia. (B) increased capillary permeability. (C) bronchodilation. (D) increased peripheral vascular resistance.

b

Hypotension, or low blood pressure, in an adult is considered a systolic blood pressure of less than: a. 110 mmHg. b. 90 mmHg. c. 100 mmHg. d. 120 mmHg.

b

If a baby's APGAR score is 4-6, this indicates: a. Provide oxygen and ventilation and perform CPR. b. Provide stimulation to the baby and give oxygen. c. The baby is perfectly healthy. d. The baby is in dire circumstances.

b

If a cardiac arrest occurs within two hours of the onset of symptoms, it is called (a): a. rapid onset cardiac death (ROCD). b. sudden death. c. cardiac ablation. d. irreversible fatality.

b

If a patient has a ball strike him in the center of the chest and he collapses in cardiac arrest, this is called aneurysm. a. True b. False

b

If a patient has a radial pulse, you can expect a systolic blood pressure of at least: a. 100 mmHg b. 80 mmHg c. 60 mmHg d. 70 mmHg

b

If a patient has an ileostomy bag, it should be removed prior to palpating the abdomen. a. True b. False

b

If a patient is breathing, you can assume she is breathing adequately. a. True b. False

b

If a patient is eight months pregnant, how much blood can she potentially lose before exhibiting signs of shock? a. 20-25% b. 30-35% c. 40-45% d. 55-60%

b

If a patient suffers from a bee sting, what is the proper way to get rid of the stinger? a. Yank it out. b. Scrape it in the direction it's facing. c. Scrape it opposite the direction it's facing. d. Squeeze the skin to push it out.

b

If a pediatric patient has a cardiac problem, it is most likely: a. related to poisoning. b. congenital. c. fatal. d. the result of respiratory distress

b

If the umbilical cord is protruding from the vaginal opening (prolapsed), the patient should be transported on her side with her knees together. a. True b. False

b

If there is a major open wound to the neck, what kind of dressing should be applied? a. A non-occlusive dressing b. An all-sided occlusive dressing c. A 3-sided occlusive dressing d. Gauze pads, followed by adhesive bandage

b

If there is an electrical line down at a collision scene, you should park the ambulance at least 200 feet away. a. True b. False

b

If you are transporting a stable patient to a hospital that is 15 minutes away, you should complete at least three sets of vital signs. a. True b. False

b

If you arrive on scene and an AED is already in use on a patient, emergency care etiquette requires you to follow the instructions of the individual operating the unit. a. True b. False

b

If you arrive on scene and an Emergency Medical Responder has applied a tourniquet to an injury that doesn't require one, you should remove it immediately. a. True b. False

b

If your patient is not awake enough to swallow, you may place the oral glucose on a tongue depressor and place it between the cheek and gum. a. True b. False

b

One role of continuous quality improvement (CQI) is to (A) institute disciplinary actions. (B) identify areas of practice that could be done better. (C) have all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office. (D) focus only on the quality of emergency care.

b

Oxygen administration, bleeding control, patient positioning, and prevention of heat loss are the EMT's only interventions when treating a patient who is in shock. a. True b. False

b

Oxygen cylinders are what color? a. blue b. green c. red d. magenta

b

Pain that originates in the abdominal organs is known as: a. organic. b. visceral. c. parietal. d. referred.

b

Patient has weakness in the upper extremities but normal function in the lower extremities after a cervical spine injury. This patient is experiencing a. Anterior cord syndrome b. Central cord syndrome c. Brown-Sequard syndrome d. Anterior displacement syndrome

b

Patient suffered a gunshot wound to the abdomen, has significant signs of shock. Which of the following would you be least likely to do on scene? a. Use a hemostatic agent for bleeding control b. Immobilize the patient on a backboard c. Perform a head-to-toe examination d. Take a blood pressure

b

Patients commonly describe heart attack pain as which of the following characteristics? A. like pins and needles B. crushing or squeezing C. intermittent (it comes and goes) D. less severe than indigestion

b

Patients experiencing the signs and symptoms of cardiac compromise should always be transported in the Trendelenburg position. a. True b. False

b

Patients with chronic lung diseases, such as emphysema or chronic bronchitis, should be given oxygen with extreme caution, and at low concentration. a. True b. False

b

Penetrating trauma wounds are classified by the _______ of the item that caused the injury. a. composition b. velocity c. shape d. size

b

People who are allergic to peanuts are also allergic to most types of nuts. a. True b. False

b

Performing a scene size-up is not necessary if other emergency crews are already on-scene. a. True b. False

b

Physical impairments include all of the following EXCEPT: a. speech. b. behavior. c. sight. d. hearing.

b

Poison dilution by drinking water or milk should only be carried out under direct medical supervision at a hospital. a. True b. False

b

Predisposing factors for hypothermia include all the following EXCEPT: a. age b. depression c. exposure to cold d. alcohol

b

Procedures for water rescue include: a. search and find. b. throw and tow. c. swim and grab. d. hail and sail.

b

Profuse bleeding from a wound over an obviously fractured area of the skull should be controlled with direct pressure. a. True b. False

b

Pulse pressure is the diastolic reading divided by the pulse rate. a. True b. False

b

Red blood cells contain specialized molecules called: a. plasma. b. hemoglobin. c. red color. d. oxygen.

b

Ringing in the ears and deep, rapid breathing can be caused by an acetaminophen overdose. a. True b. False

b

Select the best technique or device to use if extremity bleeding does not stop with pressure. a. occlusive dressing over a pressure dressing with limb elevation b. tourniquet c. tourniquet with limb elevation d. limb elevation with pressure dressing

b

Select the correct size oral airway for a small child by measuring from the corner of the patient's mouth to what structure? a. central incisor b. angle of the jaw c. tip of the nose d. pinnea of the ear

b

The effects of nitroglycerin on a patient are: a. creates a feeling of well being to relax the patient. b. decreases blood pressure by dilating the blood vessels. c. makes the heart beat harder and faster so that the patient won't go into cardiogenic shock. d. increases blood pressure by constricting the blood vessels.

b

The female reproductive system includes all of the following except: a. vagina b. ureter c. fallopian tubes d. ovaries

b

The first step in artificial ventilation with a bag-valve-mask unit in patients with no suspected trauma is to: a. position the mask correctly on the face using both hands b. place the patient's head in a hyperextended, sniffing position c. insert an airway adjunct and select the correct mask size d. have an assistant squeeze the bag until the patient's chest rises

b

The function of the white blood cells is to a. form clots b. fight infections c. carry oxygen d. carry nutrients

b

An EMT needs direction from medical control or a standing order to administer nitroglycerin. What should you immediately note as a contraindication for the administration of this drug? a. patient reports burning sensation under the tongue with previous administrations b. patient taking medication for erectile dysfunction c. patient diagnosed with angina d. patient with systolic blood pressure over 100

b

An EMT should never treat a patient for cardiac compromise unless she knows the exact nature of the heart problem. a. True b. False

b

An EMT that is overconfident in his evaluation and treatment is good for the patient. a. True b. False

b

An NPA shouldn't be used if _______ has been found in the patient's nose. a. blood b. cerebrospinal fluid c. soft-tissue damage d. vomitus

b

An acquired disease or condition is one that is present at birth. a. True b. False

b

The golden hour in emergency medicine refers to: a. the first 60 min after the arrival of EMS b. the first 60 min after the occurrence of multisystem trauma c. the first 60 min after the arrival at the emergency room d. the first 60 min after the start of surgery

b

The jaw-thrust maneuver provides for the maximum opening of the airway. a. True b. False

b

The last vital sign to change in a patient going into shock is: a. an increased pulse rate b. a decreased blood pressure c. an increased respiratory rate d. cool, clammy, pale skin

b

The liquid that the red and white blood cells are suspended in is called: a. platelets. b. plasma. c. blood. d. hemoglobin.

b

The lower airway ends at the Alveoli, where gas exchange occurs. Oxygen passes through a semipermeable membrane to reach the hemoglobin. Where does this happen? a. Capillary blood b. Capillary bed c. Veinules d. Bronchioles

b

The maximum dosage frequency and time frame for nitroglycerin administration for one chest pain incident is _____. a. 2 doses, allowing 5 minutes in between doses b. 3 doses, allowing 5 minutes in between doses c. 4 doses, allowing 10 minutes in between doses d. 6 doses within 30 minutes

b

The medical term for coughing up blood is (A) hematemesis. (B) hemoptysis. (C) epistaxis. (D) anaphylaxis

b

The midlife crisis stage of life is between the ages of 19 and 40. a. True b. False

b

The most common electrical rhythm disturbance that results in sudden cardiac arrest called a. pulseless electrical activity b. ventricular fibrillation c. ventricular tachycardia d. asystole

b

The most common electrical rhythm disturbance that results in sudden cardiac arrest is called: a. pulseless electrical rhythm b. ventricular fibrillation c. ventricular tachycardia d. asystole

b

The most effective way of preventing the spread of infectious disease is to (A) use sterile techniques when possible. (B) wash your hands. (C) require immunizations for all infectious disease. (D) properly dispose of all contaminated linens

b

The most lethal type of radiation is ____. a. Gamma radiation or X-rays b. neutron radiation c. Alpha particles d. Beta particles

b

The most reliable sign of spinal cord injury in conscious patients is: a. deformity to the spine. b. paralysis of the extremities. c. lower-extremity pain. d. back pain.

b

The nerves that carry messages from the brain to the body are the: a. sensory nerves. b. motor nerves. c. autonomic nerves. d. central nerves.

b

The next treatment choice after aggressive airway control would be epinephrine. Why is it a good choice? a. It speeds up the heart b. All of the above c. It dilates the bronchioles d. It constricts blood vessels

b

The normal headfirst delivery of a baby is called a: a. breech presentation. b. cephalic presentation. c. crown presentation. d. superior presentation

b

There are two types of cerebral vascular accidents (i.e., strokes). An ischemic stroke is the most common. What is the other type? a. Transient ischemic attack b. Hemorrhagic c. Thrombotic d. Embolic

b

There is rarely a physical cause for a patient's altered behavior. a. True b. False

b

To assess the motor function in the lower extremities of a responsive patient, you would a. ask the patient to bend his knees b. ask the patient to wiggle his toes c. carefully move the patient's leg d. carefully turn the patient's leg

b

To assess the motor function in the lower extremities of a responsive patient, you would: a. ask the patient to bend his knees b. ask the patient to wiggle his toes c. carefully move the patient's leg d. touch the skin of the patient's foot

b

To determine the "Provocation" or "Palliation" of a patient's pain, you should ask, "How did the pain begin? a. True b. False

b

To make up one whole word is called a compound. a. True b. False

b

To modify or qualify the meaning of a word you would put a ________ at the beginning. a. root b. prefix c. suffix d. compound

b

To open an airway on a patient with a suspected neck or spine injury, you should use the: a. head-tilt chin-lift maneuver. b. jaw-thrust maneuver. c. chin-lift maneuver. d. head-tilt maneuver.

b

What is the best method to assess circulation in an infant? a. palpate the carotid pulse b. palpate the brachial pulse c. palpate the radial pulse d. observe capillary refill time

b

What is the difference between the head-tilt-chin-lift maneuver and the jaw-thrust maneuver? a. The head tilt opens the airway more than the jaw thrust, allowing for more effective artificial respirations. b. The mechanism of injury or nature of illness determines which technique is used in opening the airway. c. The head tilt is for trauma patients and the jaw thrust is for medical patients. d. The jaw thrust requires two EMTs, whereas the head tilt requires only one.

b

What is the first step in artificial ventilation with a bagvalve-mask unit in patients with no suspected trauma? a. Position the mask correctly on the face using both hands. b. Place the patient's head in a hyperextended, sniffing position. c. Insert an airway adjunct and select the correct mask size. d. Have an assistant squeeze the bag until the patient's chest rises.

b

What is the first thing you should do after receiving orders from the medical direction physician? a. carry out the orders immediately b. repeat the orders exactly as you heard them c. question anything you did not understand d. document the orders in your report

b

What is the first thing you should do before inserting a nasopharyngeal airway? a. Make sure the patient does not have a gag reflex. b. Select the correct size. c. Tilt the head back, lube the airway, and insert it into the nostril. d. Look up the nose to make sure the nostrils are large enough for a nasopharyngeal airway.

b

What is the function of a heart valve? a. It closes to prevent blood flow to the heart itself. b. It opens to allow blood flow in one direction, while closing to prevent backflow of blood. c. It opens to allow blood flow to all areas of the heart. d. It opens and closes to ensure that blood does not leak out of the heart.

b

What is the last stage of shock? a. Compensatory shock b. Irreversible shock c. Decompensated shock d. Reversible shock

b

When assessing breathing, what does tidal volume refer to? a. whether a person inhales and exhales for the same amount of time b. the amount of air moved in and out of the lungs in one relaxed breath c. the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs in one minute d. how regular breathing appears

b

When assessing your patient's airway, you hear snoring sounds. You should suspect that: a. there is fluid in the airway b. the tongue is blocking the airway c. the bronchioles are constricted d. the patient is forcefully exhaling

b

When caring for an unresponsive patient who has been thrown from a vehicle, manual stabilization of the patient's head and spine should be your first priority. a. True b. False

b

When driving in emergency mode, you should (A) brake quickly. (B) anticipate the actions of other drivers. (C) pass other vehicles on the right. (D) use your siren only when necessary

b

When reaching, it is important to keep your back in a slightly curved position. a. True b. False

b

When suctioning a patient, how far should you insert a soft suction catheter? a. as far as you can see b. as far as the base of the tongue c. until resistance is encountered d. past the vocal cords

b

When taking a pulse, you should be assessing for rate and regularity. a. True b. False

b

When treating a patient with an abdominal evisceration, placing her hips and knees in a flexed position will (A) help with pain relief. (B) decrease abdominal muscle tension. (C) slow bleeding. (D) help prevent infection.

b

When two or more words form a medical term this would be called a: a. prefix. b. compound. c. disease. d. root.

b

When using an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) on a 4-year-old patient, you should insert it with the tip pointing up and gently rotate it into position. a. True b. False

b

When would an EMT use the jaw thrust maneuver to open an airway? a. When the patient is bleeding profusely, necessitating a more rapid way to open the airway. b. When the patient has a suspected neck injury. c. When there is a high suspicion of an airway obstruction. d.When the patient has no suspected cervical injury.

b

When you add a word part to the end of a root to complete its meaning, it is called a: a. root. b. suffix. c. prefix. d. compound.

b

When you are called to the scene of an attempted suicide, your first priority should be to provide emergency care to the patient. a. True b. False

b

Where is an ambulance most likely to be involved in a traffic accident? a. on the freeway b. at an intersection c. in a school zone d. three miles from the station

b

Where should the triage and treatment sectors be located in a HazMat incident with ten victims? a. Triage at the area of the incident, treatment in the warm zone. b. Triage and treatment in the cold zone. c. Triage and treatment in the hot zone. d. Treatment in the warm zone, triage in the cold zone.

b

Which bone fractures should be treated with a traction splint? a. Tibia b. Femur c. Tibia/fibula d. Tibia/femur

b

Which burn is possibly the most debilitating: a. A burnt back. b. A burnt hand. c. A burn to the anterior leg. d. A burn to the posterior leg.

b

Which heart rhythm often converts to ventricular fibrillation? a. asystole b. ventricular tachycardia c. atrial fibrillation d. atrial tachycardia

b

Which of the following appropriately describes cardiogenic shock? a. Occurs from severe blood loss. b. Occurs when the heart fails to pump properly, as in congestive heart failure. c. Occurs from vasodilation that causes a drop in blood pressure. d. Occurs when an allergic reaction causes vasodilation, causing poor perfusion.

b

Which of the following traits will best allow you to effectively communicate with patients and their families? (A) Good judgment (B) Ability to listen (C) Resourcefulness (D) Leadership ability

b

Which of the following would be a high priority for any emergency responder to a terrorist attack? a. To determine who was the terrorist group that did this. b. To consider that there might be a secondary device. c. To consider why the group would bomb this target. d. To consider the political or economical agenda of the terrorist group.

b

Which of these elements does not play a role in the Glasgow Coma Scale? a. Eye opening b. Logical response c. Verbal response d. Motor response

b

Which of these is not true about assessing for internal injuries and bleeding? a. Bruising and swelling may not be seen immediately after an internal injury. b. Pain is usually not an indicator of internal bleeding from injuries. c. Bruising and swelling are indicators of possible internal bleeding from injuries. d. Bleeding from any body opening is a serious indicator of internal bleeding from injuries.

b

Which of these lists examples of the deadly dozen chest injuries? a. pulmonary embolism, esophageal injury, tension pneumothorax b. esophageal injury, myocardial contusion, airway obstruction c. airway obstruction, pulmonary embolism, pulmonary contusion d. emphysema, flail chest, cardiac tamponade

b

Which patient can safely receive only a focused physical examination rather than a rapid trauma assessment? A. 10 year old male with deformed right lower leg who is responsive after falling off his bicycle B. 20 year old female who complains of severe pain in her ankle after stepping off a curb C. 70 year old male who complains of neck pain after a medium speed car collision D. 30 year old male who is unresponsive but only has minor cuts on the extremities

b

Which patient can safely receive only a focused physical examination rather than a rapid trauma assessment? a. 10 year old male with a deformed right lower leg who is responsive after falling off his bike b. 20 year old female who complains of severe pain in her ankle after steeping off a curb c. 70 year old male who complains of neck pain after a medium speed car collision d. 30 year old male who is unresponsive but has only minor cuts on the extremities

b

Which patient has adequate respirations? a. A 6-month-old child who is breathing at 22 per minute b. A 31-year-old man breathing at 20 per minute and slightly irregular c. A 55-year-old woman with paradoxical chest expansion at 22 per minute d. A 10-year-old who is breathing with accessory muscles at 30 per minute

b

Which patient needs a detailed physical examination? a. 48 year old male with a history of heart disease who is complaining of chest pain b. 35 year old female who has been in a single car collision and who briefly lost consciousness c. 28 year old full term pregnant female whose water has broken and who is having contractions every 2 min d. 53 year old female with a history of smoking who is distressed and short of breath

b

Which patient needs a detailed physical examination? a. 48 year old male with a history of heart disease who is complaining of chest pain b. 35 year old female who has been in a single car collision and who briefly lost consciousness c. 28 year old full term pregnant female whose water has broken and who is having contractions every two minutes d. 53 year old female with a history of smoking who is distressed and short of breath

b

Which patient's vital signs are within normal range? a. newborn pulse, 96; RR,32/min; BP, 70/30 b. 5 year old female pulse, 90; RR 24/min; BP, 90/50 c. 15 year old male pulse, 102; RR 28/min; BP,124/80 d. 28 year old female pulse, 52; RR, 9/min; BP, 80/40

b

Which statement about a patient's right to refuse care is correct? a. a child who is old enough to understand danger is old enough to refuse care and transport b. an adult patient who is of sound mind and understands the consequences can refuse treatment c. no one can authorize treatment or transport for any other individual, regardless of his or her age d. EMTs should leave immediately whenever a patient says that he or she will refuse care.

b

Which statement in reference to Good Samaritan laws is true? a. Good Samaritan laws only apply to Paramedics. b. Good Samaritan laws protect EMTs who act in good faith and at their level of training. c. Good Samaritan laws prevent lawsuits against EMTs. d. Good Samaritan laws protect EMTs in the event of grossly negligent care.

b

While inspecting your vehicle, you notice that the siren is not operating properly. You should (A) fill out the appropriate paperwork and begin your shift with the ambulance. (B) take the ambulance out of service until the siren can be fixed. (C) attempt to fix the siren yourself. (D) put yourself in service and use the horn as a warning device.

b

While managing a 20-year-old male patient, who has been in a car accident, he becomes unresponsive. Which technique would you be unlikely to use? a. Insert an OPA b. Head-tilt/chin-lift c. Jaw thrust maneuver d. Suctioning

b

Who would be most appropriate for triage to a non-trauma center? a. 67-year-old female who was electrocuted by a 220 volt electrical outlet b. 25-year-old female with a 1-inch laceration on her thigh c. 19-year-old male involved in a single car MVC at a rate of 25 miles per hour d. 14-year-old male who fell 11 feet out of a tree, landing on his back

b

Why does a child's rib cage not protect the intrathoracic organs as effectively as an adult's? (A) The respiratory rate is faster. (B) The ribs are more pliable. (C) There is smaller circulating blood volume. (D) The ribs are more horizontal.

b

Why is an infant more likely to suffer an airway obstruction than an adult? a. An infant's ribs are less flexible than an adult b. The shape of the infant's head will cause the neck to flex when child is supine. c. The adult has a relatively larger tongue compared to an infant. d. The adult has a relatively smaller airway compared to the infant.

b

Why is it important for COPD patients to receive a controlled concentration of oxygen? What device allows for this to happen? a. COPD patients' breathing rate is controlled by carboxic drive, and therefore requires a BVM for controlled volumes of O2 delivery so that their arterial CO2 does not exceed values that stop the patient from breathing. b. COPD patients' breathing rate is controlled by hypoxic drive, and therefore requires a Venturi mask which delivers a precise volume of O2 so that their arterial O2 does not exceed values that stop the patient from breathing. c. COPD patients' breathing rate is controlled by carboxic drive, and therefore requires a nonrebreather for a high concentration of O2 that is delivered at a controlled. This allows the patient to obtain as much O2 as possible. d. COPD patient's breathing rate is controlled by hypoxic drive, and therefore requires a controlled nonrebreather, a special nonrebreather that gives lower volumes of O2 so that their arterial O2 does not exceed values that stop the patient from breathing.

b

Why is it important to not over-ventilate a patient suffering from respiratory failure secondary to asthma? (A) Decreased tidal volume can result in increased intrathoracic pressure. (B) Air trapping can result in decreased preload. (C) Increased intrathoracic pressure can create a hemothorax. (D) Decreased cardiac output can result in hypertension.

b

You are ventilating an unconscious, apneic patient experiencing a severe asthma attack. Your rate is 20 breaths per minute and oxygen is flowing at 15 liters per minute (LPM). You note that his chest is increasingly distended, and it's getting harder to ventilate. You should (A) decrease the oxygen flow rate to 5 LPM. (B) decrease the ventilation rate to 12 per minute. (C) suction the airway. (D) assist the patient with administration of his metered-dose inhaler.

b

You have delivered three shocks with the SAED. Your cardiac arrest patient has shallow, agonal respirations with a pulse. What should you do next? a. deliver second shock to assure patient does not arrest again b. provide artificial ventilation with high concentration oxygen c. give high concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask d. check pulse and deliver two more shocks

b

You hear gurgling in your patient's airway. You should immediately: a. administer high flow oxygen b. open and suction the airway c. insert a nasopharyngeal airway d. insert an oropharyngeal airway

b

You may assume the patient has a pulse any time the AED gives the message "No shock indicated." a. True b. False

b

You notice that a trauma patient's condition starts to get worse while you are transporting him. What should you do? a. Stop the ambulance and begin CPR b. Reassess your patient c. Tell your partner to drive faster; you need to get this patient to the hospital now d. Call medical control

b

You respond to a 25-year-old female patient who has a laceration to her neck. She is conscious and answers your questions. What is the most appropriate dressing for this patient if she is bleeding profusely and the blood is vibrant red and spurting? a. A non-occlusive dressing b. An occlusive dressing c. A flutter dressing d. A gauze bandage

b

You respond to a call of an adult male complaining of persistent vomiting. What is the minimum protective care necessary to adorn before leaving the ambulance? a. Gloves and Gown b. Gloves c. Gown and Mask d. Gloves and Goggles

b

You respond to a call where a 35-year-old woman is in labor. Upon physical examination, you see that the baby is crowning. What is the best course of action? a. Load the patient on to the ambulance and transport her to the nearest hospital. b. Prepare to deliver the baby in the field with sterile delivery kit. c. Call medical direction for advice. d. Transport as low priority, since crowning is not a sign of imminent birth.

b

You respond to a call where a 50-year-old male patient with a history of type 2 diabetes has an altered mental status. His wife checked his blood glucose level using an at home meter. A reading below what value would indicate a hypoglycemic diabetic emergency? a. 40 mg/dL b. 80 mg/dL c. 60 mg/dL d. 90 mg/dL

b

You respond to a report of a "person down" in an apartment. On arrival, you find several members of a family complaining of headaches and nausea, and another person is unresponsive in bed. You should first (A) begin resuscitation of the unresponsive person. (B) retreat out of the apartment. (C) administer oxygen to patients with headaches. (D) call for additional resources.

b

You should assess the brachial pulse in patients who: a. have a weak peripheral pulse b. are younger than 1 year old c. have a history of cardiac problems d. have a pulse rate less than 60/min

b

You take a report from a first responder who describes a patient as postictal; based on this report, you would expect to find the patient: a. alert and oriented b. confused c. unresponsive d. hallucinating

b

You take report from a first responder who describes a patient as postictal; based on this report, you would expect to find the patient: a. alert and oriented b. confused c. unresponsive d. hallucinating

b

Your 23-year-old female patient is complaining of generalized lower abdominal pain, described as a 10/10 on a ten scale. Her last normal bowel movement was last night, and her last menstrual period was two months ago. What is the most likely cause of her abdominal pain? a. Appendicitis b. Ectopic pregnancy c. Pancreatitis d. Gallbladder attack

b

A 50-year-old female patient is found lying unconscious on the floor of her home. After manually opening the patient's airway, you use an OPA to maintain the patient's airway. You decide on which size of OPA to use by measuring from the patient's ______ to their ______. a. tip of nose, ear lobe b. center of mouth, ear hole c. corner of mouth, ear lobe d. corner of mouth, jawbone

c

A 56 year old female patient complains of mild chest discomfort. You should a. decide what type of heart problem it might be b. decide whether the patient has a heart problem c. maintain a high index of suspicion for cardiac compromise d. apply the AED

c

A 56 year old female patient complains of mild chest discomfort. You should: a. decide what type of heart problem it might be b. decide whether the patient has a heart problem c. maintain a high index of suspicion for cardiac compromise d. apply the AED

c

A part of the body associated with a specific spinal nerve is a: a. reflex complex. b. zoster simplex. c. dermatome. d. myelin sheath.

c

A partial thickness burn has what characteristics? a. Redness, moderate pain, may be bleeding, leaves long lasting scars. b. Blackened charred appearance, with painful damage to the dermis. c. Blisters, redness, swelling, intense pain, and damage to the dermis. d. Exposed muscle - but not bone, long lasting scars, little to no pain.

c

A patient has full-thickness burns to the anterior torso and the anterior surface of both arms. The total body surface area burned is a. 18% b. 22.5% c. 27% d. 36%

c

A patient has suffered an injury to the back of his head. What part of the brain will likely be affected? a. Temporal b. Frontal c. Occipital d. Parietal

c

You are treating a patient who has chest pain. She tells you she has an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator. While performing your secondary assessment, she becomes unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should... a. wait for her defibrillator to respond. b. begin chest compressions and attach your AED. c. contact medical control for orders. d. begin chest compression but do not connect your AED.

b

You are treating a patient with signs and symptoms of respiratory distress but an oxygen saturation reading of 100%. You should immediately: a. provide assisted ventilation. b. administer oxygen. c. tell the patient to stop faking. d. run a self-test on the pulse oximeter.

b

You are ventilating a patient who is apneic. Which of the following errors will most likely result in gastric distension? (A) Ventilating too fast (B) Ventilating too hard (C) Ventilating too slow (D) Ventilating too shallow

b

You are ventilating a patient with a bag-valve mask. An oropharyngeal airway is in place, and you are performing a head-tilt, chin-lift. You notice that ventilating is becoming harder. You should (A) lay the patient on her left side. (B) perform another head-tilt, chin-lift. (C) suction the airway. (D) increase the oxygen flow rate.

b

You are ventilating an apneic 6-year-old trauma patient at 20 breaths per minute. There is a weak radial pulse of 52 beats per minute. You should (A) increase the ventilation rate to 40 breaths per minute. (B) start chest compressions. (C) perform full spinal immobilization. (D) administer oral glucose.

b

You are ventilating an apneic trauma patient using the jaw thrust maneuver and a bag valve mask. You should: a. tilt the head as far as it can go b. use your ring and little fingers to lift the jaw upward c. kneel at the patient's side d. do nothing. Use of airway adjuncts is not necessary

b

Your patient is alert, with right-sided arm and leg weakness and slurred speech. Family members state that the symptoms began 12 hours ago. He has a blood pressure of 182/118 mm Hg, a heart rate of 82, and is breathing 12 times a minute. Treatment should include (A) transport to a stroke center. (B) oxygen via nasal cannula. (C) laying supine with his feet elevated. (D) administration of oral glucose.

b

Your patient was kicked repeatedly in the chest and head during an assault. As you approach, you see him lying on the ground, moaning, with paradoxical motion of the chest. His breathing is rapid and deep. You should first (A) wrap a bandage around his chest. (B) have your partner hold cervical spine stabilization. (C) obtain a set of vital signs. (D) administer oxygen.

b

Your patient was slashed across her abdomen with a razor knife. You see an open wound with protruding intestines. You should first (A) provide cervical spine stabilization. (B) cover the injury with a moist gauze dressing. (C) apply direct pressure over the injury. (D) cover the injury with a three-sided occlusive dressing.

b

Your patient's level of responsiveness, or mental status, is determined using the letters: a. DCAP-BTLS. b. AVPU. c. PQRST. d. AEIOU.

b

Your pregnant patient is experiencing contractions. She feels like she needs to move her bowels. This may indicate that A. birth is still some time away B. birth is imminent C. she is going into shock D. the baby is still very high in the birth control

b

Your team arrives to find a 50-year-old male collapsed on the floor of a restaurant. Witnesses report the patient was returning from the restroom when he slumped to the floor. You find him gasping, without a pulse. What is the correct sequence of steps in managing this patient? (A) Open the airway, check for breathing, give two rescue breaths, and begin chest compressions. (B) Begin chest compressions, apply the AED pads, and defibrillate as soon as indicated. (C) Apply AED pads, shock immediately if indicated, give two rescue breaths, and begin chest compressions. (D) Open the airway, begin chest compressions, apply AED pads, and defibrillate if indicated after 2 minutes.

b

_______ is the number one cause of death in infants and children in the United States. a. Drowning b. Trauma c. Secondhand smoke d. Leukemia

b

_______ seizures happen spontaneously and for unknown reasons. a. Metabolic b. Idiopathic c. Psychogenic d. Toxic

b

_________ is the process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion/immersion in liquid. a. Dry drowning b. Drowning c. Wet drowning d. Near-drowning

b

A 45 year old male is breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute with shallow respirations. He is altered, and his skin signs are cool, cyanotic, and diaphoretic. You should a. provide oxygen at 6 L/min using a nasal cannula b. provide oxygen at 12 L/min using a nonrebreather mask c. provide artificial ventilation with a gas valve mask and high flow oxygen d. place the patient into the left lateral "recovery" position

c

A 40-year-old female has been vomiting for 24 hours and describes her emesis as being dark in color, with a coffee ground-like texture. This finding is most indicative of (A) intestinal obstruction. (B) esophageal varices. (C) upper gastrointestinal bleeding. (D) lower gastrointestinal bleeding.

c

A 42-year-old male has a sudden onset of sharp, knife-like pain that is located between his shoulder blades. His right radial pulse is weaker than his left. He is most likely suffering from a(n) (A) heart attack. (B) pulmonary embolism. (C) aortic dissection. (D) muscle strain.

c

A 45 year old male is experiencing chest discomfort. After placing him in his position of comfort, your next action should be to a. ventilate the patient with a nonrebreather mask at 15 L/min b. ventilate the patient with the bag valve mask at 15 L/min c. administer oxygen by nonrebreather mask at 15 L/min d. administer oxygen by the nasal cannula at 6 L/min

c

A 45 year old male is experiencing chest discomfort. After placing him in his position of comfort, your next action should be to: a. ventilate the patient with a nonrebreather mask at 15L/min b. ventilate the patient with the bag valve mask at 15L/min c. administer oxygen by nonrebreather mask at 15L/min d. administer oxygen by the nasal cannula at 6L/min

c

A 45-year-old female has abdominal pain after being assaulted by her boyfriend. Her left upper quadrant is tender to palpation, and you observe bruising to the area. Her blood pressure is 136/84 mm Hg, and she has a heart rate of 86 and a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute. She is alert, anxious, and upset. What should you do? (A) Place her supine on the gurney, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport to a trauma center. (B) Determine the full extent of her relationship with the assailant. (C) Place the patient in a position of comfort and transport her to her hospital of choice. (D) Advise the patient to see her primary physician for pain management.

c

The medical direction physician orders you to deliver additional shocks to a patient in cardiac arrest while en route to the hospital. What is the correct procedure to follow? a. wait for the arrival of the ACLS team b. deliver the shocks without stopping CPR c. stop the vehicle before reanalyzing the rhythm d. refuse to defibrillate the patient while en route

c

The most common cause of seizures in adults is: a. high fever or dehydration. b. epilepsy. c. failure to take seizure-control medication. d. head trauma.

c

The most commonly injected poisons include snake and insect venom and: a. sodium nitrate. b. sea anemone acid. c. illicit drugs. d. tetanus.

c

The most important aspect of a scene size-up is ____. a. counting the number of patients b. deciding whether it is a medical or trauma call c. determining if the scene is safe d. figuring out if you or your partner will take the lead, based on the type of illness or injuries

c

The nasopharyngeal airway is preferred over the oropharyngeal airway for responsive patients because it a. is shorter and easier to insert b. can move the tongue out of the airway c. is unlikely to stimulate the gag reflex d. comes in a wide variety of sizes

c

The preferred method of inserting an oropharyngeal airway in a child is by: a. inserting the airway so that the tip is pointing toward the roof of the mouth, and rotating it 180 degrees as you insert it. b. inserting the airway with the tip toward the side of the patient's mouth, rotating it 90 degrees as you insert it. c. using a tongue depressor to press the tongue down while inserting the airway. d. none of the above; oropharyngeal airways are not recommended for children

c

The presence of a bloody show during the first stage of labor, is a sign that: a. the delivery of the infant is imminent b. the newborn is in danger of respiratory distress c. labor is progressing normally d. the second stage of labor has begun

c

The primary care for a liquid chemical burn is to: a. wet the burned area, then apply a dressing b. neutralize the chemical with baking soda water or vinegar. c. continually flood the affected area with water for at least 20 minutes d. dry the area with sterile sheets, then apply water.

c

The primary difference between an emergency move and urgent move is that an urgent move: a. is performed much quicker than an emergency move. b. uses a short backboard or vest to remove the patient from a vehicle. c. is performed with precautions for spinal injury. d. is always accomplished without equipment

c

The proper use of your body to facilitate lifting and moving is called: a. body motion. b. body stability. c. body mechanics. d. body stature.

c

The pulse you feel at your patient's wrist is a result of the: a. atria contracting. b. right ventricle contracting. c. left ventricle contracting. d. left ventricle relaxing

c

The purpose of incident management systems is to provide: a. a clear chain of command in case of legal liability b. a means of evaluating the EMS system's response to an event c. an orderly method for communications and decision making d. a training program for first responders

c

The purpose of the ongoing assessment is to re-evaluate the patient's condition and to a. find any injuries missed during the initial assessment b. reassure the patient that you are still caring for him or her c. check the adequacy of each intervention performed d. protect the EMT against liability from malpractice

c

The purpose of the ongoing assessment is to re-evaluate the patient's condition and to: a. find any injuries missed during the initial assessment b. reassure the patient that you are still caring for him or her c. check the adequacy of each intervention performed d. protect the EMT against liability from malpractice

c

The reduction of breathing to the point where oxygen intake is not sufficient to support life is called: a. suffocation. b. hypoventilation. c. respiratory failure. d. respiratory arrest

c

The right ventricle pumps blood into the a. body via the aorta b. lungs via pulmonary vein c. lungs via the pulmonary artery d. left atrium

c

The right ventricle pumps blood into the: a. body via the aorta b. lungs via the pulmonary vein c. lungs via the pulmonary artery d. left atrium

c

The severe allergic reaction that causes blood vessels to dilate rapidly and causes a drop in blood pressure is called: a. respiratory shock. b. neurogenic shock. c. anaphylactic shock. d. allergenic shock.

c

The skin has several major functions, including: a. shock absorption, temperature regulation, perspiration, and organ containment. b. hormone production, general protection, and fever reduction. c. protection, water balance, temperature regulation, excretion, and impact absorption. d. fluid regulation, temperature control, impact absorption, blood filtration, and mast cell production.

c

The skin has three major layers. They include the: a. subdural. b. muscle. c. dermis. d. periosteum.

c

The term "trending" refers to: a. graphing the number of calls received by the hour of the day. b. similar chief complaints of multiple patients. c. changes in a patient's condition over time. d. plotting locations of calls on a map.

c

The two bones that form the lower arm are the: a. carpal and metacarpal. b. tibia and fibula. c. radius and ulna. d. tarsal and metatarsal.

c

The type of central IV catheter that is inserted in the patient's arm is a: a. Groshong. b. Hickman. c. PICC. d. Broviac.

c

The type of muscle that is under conscious control of the brain via the nervous system is: a. smooth muscle. b. cardiac muscle. c. voluntary muscle. d. involuntary muscle.

c

There are a few medications you will carry on the ambulance, including: a. antihistamines. b. inhalers. c. oral glucose. d. nitroglycerin.

c

There are several dysrhythmias that can occur in the heart. Of the following, which is the most likely to lead to death? a. Ventricular fibrillation b. PEA c. Asystole d. Ventricular tachycardia

c

To "uptriage" means to: a. stop treating one patient to treat another. b. decrease priority. c. overtreat. d. increase priority.

c

To create negative pressure in the thorax (chest cavity) the diaphragm contracts and moves _____________. This action expands the volume of the thorax, allowing air to rush into the lungs. a. upward b. outward c. downward d. The diaphragm does not move. The chest wall expands.

c

To make complete and accurate decisions regarding your trauma patient, you should include: a. vital signs and assessment findings. b. vital signs and mechanism of injury. c. vital signs, other assessment findings, and mechanism of injury. d. mechanism of injury and other assessment findings.

c

To open the airway of a patient who does not have a neck or spinal injury, you should use the: a. jaw lift maneuver. b. jaw-thrust maneuver. c. head-tilt chin-lift maneuver. d. chin-lift maneuver.

c

To treat an expecting mother for shock: a. Lay the mother on her back in the Trendelenburg position for blood flow to the brain. b. Lay the mother on her right side to relieve lower back pressure. c. Lay the mother on her left side, and lift her legs to allow blood flow to the brain. d. Have the mother get into knee-chest position and hyperventilate.

c

Two important principles in the emergency treatment of local cold injuries are to remove the patient from the cold environment and to: a. rewarm the cold extremity quickly b. warm the whole body as soon as possible c. prevent further tissue damage d. prevent or treat pain

c

Under medical direction, the EMT-Basic may administer epinephrine to a patient with respiratory distress or hypoperfusion resulting from an allergic reaction if the: A. patient has no history of heart disease B. patient is in severe respiratory distress or arrest C. medication has been prescribed for this patient D. medication has been stored in the refrigerator

c

Upon arrival on a scene, your first responsibility after BSI and PPE is to ____. a. begin care of the patient b. gown/glove up for patient care c. size-up the scene d. evaluate for spinal immobilization

c

Upon measuring a 3-year-old female's pulse and respiratory rate, which of the following values would be of greatest concern? a. A HR (heart rate) of 140bpm b. A respiratory rate of 25 c. A HR (heart rate) of 70bpm d. A respiratory rate of 32

c

Via a non-rebreather, what flow rate delivers the patient 100% oxygen? a. 12 L/min b. 10 L /min c. 15 L/min d. 16 L/min

c

Vital signs should be assessed at least every ____ minutes for a patient in unstable condition. a. 10 b. 2 c. 5 d. 8

c

What are the five parts of assessment according to the National EMS education standard competencies? a. scene size-up, primary assessment, history, transport, and reassessment b. scene size-up, protective equipment, history, secondary assessment, and reassessment c. scene size-up, primary assessment, history, secondary assessment, and reassessment d. scene size-up, primary assessment, history, secondary assessment, and treatment

c

What are the signs and symptoms associated with a severely hypoxic patient? a. Patients exhibit bradypnea, tachycardia, hypotension, cyanotic skins, and they have an altered mental status. b. Patients exhibit tachypnea that turns to bradypnea, tachycardia, hypertension, shortness of breath, confusion, headaches, and restlessness. Skins will by pale/cool/diaphoretic. c. Patients exhibit tachypnea, dysrhythmia that leads to bradycardia, cyanotic skin, hypotension, sleepiness or lack of consciousness, and an altered mental status. d. Patients exhibit bradypnea, tachycardia, pale/cool/diaphoretic skins, and sleepiness.

c

What arrhythmia can an AED be used for? a. Atrial fibrillation b. PEA c. Ventricular fibrillation d. Asystole

c

What causes the fruity or acetone breath, often seen in Type I diabetes? a. Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome b. Hypoglycemia c. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) d. Lack of sugar

c

What happens when the parasympathetic nervous system is stimulated? a. The heart rate fluctuates. b. The heart rate stays the same. c. The heart slows and beats more weakly. d. The heart rate increases.

c

What is APGAR scoring? a. APGAR is an acronym that stands for Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, and Respiration. Each section is scored from 0-2. It is used to score an adult's health. b. APGAR is an acronym that stands for Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, and Respiration. Each section is scored from 0-5. It is used to score a baby's health upon delivery. c. APGAR is an acronym that stands for Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, and Respiration. Each section is scored from 0-2. It is used to score a baby's health upon delivery. d. APGAR is an acronym that stands for Arrogance, Primal, Grimace, Anger, and Rage. Each section is scored from 0-2. It is used to determine whether a patient is extremely angry or calm.

c

What is Cardiac Compromise? a. Angina b. A period of time when the heart stops c. Any type of heart problem d. A heart attack

c

What is a GCS, and what score indicates severe brain injury? a. Glasgow Coma Score is used to determine a baby's mental capacity, and a GCS of below 10 indicates severe brain injury. b. Glasgow Coma Scale is used to determine a baby's mental capacity, and a GCS of below 8 indicates severe brain injury. c. Glasgow Coma Scale is used to determine an adult's mental capacity through three categories (Eyes/Verbal/Motor). A GCS of 8 or below indicates severe brain injury. d. Glasgow Coma Score is used to determine an adult's mental capacity through three categories (Eyes/Verbal/Motor). A GCS of 10 or below indicates a severe brain injury.

c

What is a blind spot? a. The area immediately behind a vehicle that an operator cannot see. b. The area in front of the vehicle unable to be seen from the operator's seat. c. Any area around a vehicle that is not easily visible through direct sight or mirrors by the vehicle's operator. d. The area unable to be seen by an operator.

c

What is a concern associated with a potential mother who is lying supine? a. All the blood pools towards the legs, so the mother can get dizzy and faint. b. The mother can experience abdominal pain. c. The mother can experience supine hypotensive syndrome d. The mother can experience pre-eclampsia.

c

What is an intervention for someone who is apneic? a. Oropharyngeal Airway b. BVM Mask c. All of the above d. Intubation

c

What is the practice of protecting yourself and your patient from the transfer of bodily fluids? a. Wearing Gloves b. Universal Precautions c. Body Substance Isolation d. Being Safe

c

What is the rate of compressions per minute as specified in the 2015 American Heart Association guidelines? a. 80 to 100 b. At least 100 c. 100 to 120 d. At least 120

c

What is the reason for stopping CPR before applying the AED? a. to give the patient a chance to breathe on his or her own b. to allow the ACLS system to take over patient care c. to allow the EMT to verify pulselessness and apnea d. to allow other rescuers to get out of the way

c

What is the structure that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing? a. larynx b. cricoid cartilage c. epiglottis d. diaphragm

c

What is the typical resting respiration rate for a healthy adult? a. 4-10 breaths per min b. 8-15 breaths per min c. 12-20 breaths per min d. 25-30 breaths per min

c

What is true about an oral and nasal airway? a. It should be used in order to prevent the need for suctioning. b. It should be cleaned well for reuse after the run. c. It should be used to keep the tongue from blocking the airway. d. It should be inserted in all critically injured patients.

c

What kind of injury is evident when the skin is intact and bruised? a. abrasion b. impaled wound c. contusion d. avulsion

c

What occurs during capillary-cellular exchange? a. oxygen enters the capillaries as carbon dioxide enters the alveoli b. oxygen-poor blood from the capillaries passes into the alveoli c. body cells give up carbon dioxide and capillaries give up oxygen d. body cells obtain nourishment from the capillaries

c

What often causes cardiac arrest in children? a. Hypovolemia. b. Chest trauma. c. Respiratory compromise. d. Irregular rhythm.

c

What organ/system is at high risk for injury during blast injuries? a. cardiovascular system b. genitourinary system c. inner ear/auditory canal d. eyes and nose

c

What should the EMT's first concern be when initiating care for an unresponsive medical patient? a. Checking for signs of possible drug overdose b. Prompt transport to an appropriate facility c. Ensuring and maintaining the patient's airway d. Looking for clues to the patient's unresponsiveness

c

What should the flow rate be in order to provide Oxygen Therapy at "100%"? a. 100 LPM b. 2-6 LPM c. 12-15 LPM d. 20-24 LPM

c

What should you do for the cardiac arrest patient found in the rain? a. perform one rapid defibrillation, then move the patient inside b. defibrillate three times, then move the patient inside c. move the patient inside, away from the rain d. perform one rapid defibrillation, then start CPR if pulseless

c

What sign indicates that your patient's tidal volume might be inadequate? a. noisy, labored breathing b. rapid breathing c. inadequate chest movement d. slow breathing

c

What specific measures are taken for a patient experiencing symptoms of an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) who also has a history of heart bypass or an internal defibrillator? a. Never start CPR before clearing with the ER physician. b. Check to see if the patient has the classic bypass scar. c. Implement the same measures as for any patient with AMI symptoms. d. Avoid performing CPR on patient with an internal defibrillator.

c

What structure prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing? a. Larynx b. Cricoid Cartilage c. Epiglottis d. Diaphragm

c

Wheezing can be described as ____. a. tiny popping sound b. wet, crackling sound c. a high-pitched whistling sound d. loud snoring sound

c

When a patient experiences blunt trauma to the chest, such as a baseball to the chest, what are the patient's most likely potential injuries? a. Spontaneous pneumothorax and hemothorax b. Tension hemothorax and Spontaneous Hemothorax c. Tension pneumothorax and hemothorax d. Spontaneous hemothorax and normal pneumothorax

c

When an EMT encounters a patient with a group of signs and symptoms that resemble particular conditions, this is called: a. illusory correlation. b. availability. c. representativeness. d. none of the above.

c

When an adult breathes, the amount of air moved in one breath (one cycle of inhalation and exhalation) is called _______ volume. a. inhalation b. minute c. tidal d. alveolar

c

When arriving at the scene of a possible hazardous materials incident, you would identify hazards by: a. thoroughly investigating the scene yourself b. interviewing victims and bystanders c. scanning with binoculars from a safe place d. assisting law enforcement officers in the search

c

When assessing a child's baseline vital signs, you should check: a. pulse, capillary refill, skin, pupils, motor function, and blood pressure. b. respirations, pulse, skin, heart rate, sensation, and pupils. c. blood pressure, respirations, capillary refill, pulse, skin, and pupils. d. capillary refill, skin, respirations, blood pressure, pulse, sensation, and motor function.

c

When assessing the neck of an unresponsive medical patient, in addition to DCAPBTLS, you should also look for: a. a rash. b. firmness and rigidity. c. medical identification devices. d. distention.

c

When caring for a patient with an impaled object in the chest, the EMT should: a. quickly remove the impaled object and apply direct pressure to the wound. b. remove the object if it slips out easily. c. leave the impaled object in place and stabilize it with bulky dressings. d. remove the object and seal the wound with an occlusive dressing.

c

When caring for a patient with an implanted defibrillator you should: a. Let the implanted defibrillator defibrillate. Do not attach your AED. b. Avoid touching the patient to prevent being shocked yourself. c. Consider an implanted defibrillator activation as serious, even in a conscious patient. d. Ask for the magnet used to turn off the device when multiple shocks are delivered to a responsive patient.

c

When confronted with a patient threatening violence, what is the EMT's first objective? a. Tackle the patient and restrain them b. Protect the patient c. Protect yourself d. Point to the patient when the police arrive

c

When considering the potential for traumatic injury, it is useful to know that if the speed of an object doubles, its ability to cause trauma is: a. doubled b. tripled c. quadrupled d. multiplied by a factor of ten

c

When dealing with parents who have lost a child to SIDS, it is appropriate to express your sorrow for their loss, but only after: a. determining that they are not at fault. b. you have exhausted all resuscitative efforts. c. a physician has informed them of the child's death. d. attending a stress debriefing.

c

When dealing with psychiatric patients, it is important to: a. Enunciate every word because they have an altered mental status. b. Not talk to them at all. You'll never know what makes them tick. c. Not make any sudden moves or gestures, not talk about any issues that are controversial, and not discuss past negative thoughts or feelings. d. Restrain them without letting them know about it.

c

When driving in emergency mode with lights and sirens, you should always pass cars (A) after they come to a full and complete stop. (B) on the right. (C) on the left. (D) at a speed that's no greater than 25 miles per hour.

c

When in contact with patients with ______, EMTs should wear high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirators. a. HIV or AIDS b. Hepatitis B c. Tuberculosis d. Open wounds

c

When obtaining the patient's history of present illness, avoid asking leading questions. Instead, ask questions such as: a. Is your chest pain sharp or dull? b. Does your arm ache, too? c. How would you describe your chest pain? d. Your chest pain is crushing, isn't it?

c

When performing CPR on a pregnant patient the 2015 guidelines recommend: a. Placing a folded blanket under the right side of the backboard b. Placing a folded blanket under the left side of the backboard c. Manually displacing the uterus to the left during CPR d. Placing the patient in a slight Trendelenburg position to maximize fetal and maternal cerebral circulation

c

When performing the modified jaw thrust maneuver to open your patient's airway, which of the following steps is NOT correct? a. stabilize the patient's cervical spine with your forearms b. rest your elbows on the same surface as the patient c. tilt the head by applying gentle pressure to the forehead d. use your index fingers to push the angles of the lower jaw forward

c

When pressure increases inside the skull because of swelling of brain tissue, blood flow is decreased. This results in: a. a massive release of cerebrospinal fluid from the spinal cord into the vascular system. b. a dangerously high blood pressure, and a subsequent lowering of pressure in the skull. c. the brain being starved for oxygen and carbon dioxide increasing, causing more swelling. d. a lowering of blood pressure, causing hypoperfusion, or shock.

c

When providing mouth-to-mask ventilation with supplementary oxygen, what is the first step after sealing the mask to the patient's face? a. follow body substance precautions before touching the patient b. connect the one-way valve and filter (if available) to the mask c. exhale slowly over the ventilation port for 1.5 to two seconds d. attach oxygen tubing to the mask and set the flow rate at 15-30 L/min

c

When providing mouth-to-mask ventilation with supplementary oxygen, what is the first step after sealing the mask to the patients face? a. follow body substance precautions before touching the patient b. connect the one way valve and filter to the mask c. exhale slowly over the ventilation port for 1.5-2 seconds d. attach oxygen tubing to the mask and set the flow rate at 15-20 L/min

c

When reassessing adequacy of oxygen delivery, you notice the nonrebreather bag completely deflates when the patient inhales. You should: a. tighten the oxygen mask on the patient's face. b. decrease the oxygen flow rate. c. increase the oxygen flow rate. d. loosen the oxygen mask on the patient's face.

c

You are a volunteer EMT alone on scene of a vehicle accident, and are performing one-rescuer CPR on a 10-year-old male who was ejected from a vehicle traveling 70 mph. What is the ratio of compressions to ventilations? a. 15:2 b. 30:1 c. 30:2 d. 15:1

c

A patient is ejected from his vehicle during a high-speed rollover crash. There is blood in his airway and he has gurgling respirations that are slow and shallow. You note paradoxical movement on the right anterior chest wall, an unstable pelvis, and an open femur fracture. You should first (A) stabilize the flail segment. (B) ventilate with a bag-valve mask. (C) suction the airway. (D) manually stabilize the pelvis and femur.

c

Acetone on breath, dry skin, poor skin turgor, altered mental status, confusion, thirst, and frequent urination are signs and symptoms of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). What is another symptom of DKA? a. Tremors b. Normal mental status c. Appearance of intoxication d. Diaphoresis

c

After 2 minutes of CPR, you analyze a patient's rhythm using your AED. A shock is indicated. What should you do next? (A) Check for a carotid pulse; if no pulse, defibrillate. (B) Defibrillate and then check for a carotid pulse. (C) Defibrillate and then administer chest compressions. (D) Analyze again to confirm rhythm; then defibrillate.

c

After a call, you note that there is vomit on your uniform pants. You should (A) wipe the vomit off with a wet towel. (B) clean your pants with a disinfectant agent. (C) wash your pants in hot, soapy water. (D) sterilize your pants with steam.

c

Albuterol, Ventolin, and Proventil are names of prescribed medications your patient may have to treat: a. diabetes. b. allergic reaction. c. breathing difficulty. d. chest pain.

c

All of the following are rules that pertain to suctioning a patient's airway except: a. Limit suctioning to 10 seconds at a time b. Use personal protective equipment while suctioning c. Administer oxygen to the patient during suctioning d. Remove the rigid tip or catheter and use large bore suction tubing if copious, thick secretions or vomiting are present

c

All of the following are signs or symptoms of epiglottitis EXCEPT: a. the patient sitting very still, but working hard to breathe. b. painful swallowing. c. the condition worsening at night. d. the patient sitting in the tripod position.

c

Assessing an elderly patient's mental status may be very difficult because: a. many elderly people are ornery, and intentionally become a challenge to assess. b. an altered mental status may be part of the patient's baseline condition. c. an altered mental status can indicate a wide variety of ailments. d. elderly patients tend to be uncooperative around people with whom they are unfamiliar.

c

At what age do teeth begin to appear? a. 8-9 months b. 3-4 months c. 5-7 months d. 1 year

c

At what rate would you ventilate an unresponsive 16-year-old patient who is not breathing but has a pulse? a. One breath every 3-4 seconds b. One breath every 12-15 seconds c. One breath every 5-6 seconds d. One breath every 6-8 seconds

c

Ataxia is an inability to: a. Talk coherently b. Think c. Coordinate movement d. Focus for long periods of time

c

Automated defibrillators that advise the EMT to press a button that delivers the defibrillation shock are called: a. manual. b. fully automatic. c. semiautomatic. d. semimanual.

c

Bacterial meningitis has an incubation period of a. weeks to months, depending on the type b. 11-21 days c. 2-10 days d. 2-6 weeks

c

Before attempting to ventilate a patient with a stoma, you need to: a. feed an NG tube into the opening. b. insert an OPA. c. remove any mucus plugs. d. create a proper mouth-to-stoma seal.

c

Before inserting a nasopharyngeal airway, what should you do first? a. Tilt the head back, lube the airway, and insert it into the nostril. b. Look up the nose to make sure the nostrils are large enough for a nasopharyngeal airway. c. Select the correct size. d. Make sure the patient does not have a gag reflex.

c

Besides the burns from electrocution, you must be concerned with the path the electrical current took to ground. What other concerns must you take into consideration when dealing with electrocution? a. Spare electrons around the entrance wound b. Extra neutrons in the human body c. Cardiac involvement d. Closed head injuries

c

Bradycardia, tachycardia, and ventricular fibrillation can all lead to ______ in a cardiac patient. a. an occlusion b. diminished lung sounds c. loss of consciousness d. shooting arm and leg pain

c

Braxton Hicks contractions are: a. Painful and quick contractions that occur towards the end of pregnancy. It indicates the beginning of the labor stages. b. Painless, fast and regular contractions that occur at about the 13th week of pregnancy. It is a false labor. c. Painless, short and irregular contractions that occur at about the 13th week of pregnancy. It is a false labor. d. Painful, fast and irregular contractions that indicates the beginning of labor.

c

Cardiac arrest in children is most commonly due to ____. a. a heart attack b. internal bleeding c. respiratory failure d. a congenital heart defect

c

Cardiac output equals a. Heart rate x vascular resistance b. Stroke volume x blood pressure c. Heart rate x stroke volume d. Stroke volume x vascular resistance

c

Central pulses may be palpated at the: a. carotid and radial arteries b. radial and brachial arteries c. carotid and femoral arteries d. brachial and femoral arteries

c

Circumferential burns to an extremity are very serious because they: a. make movement very painful. b. involve a large area of the body's surface. c. constrict the skin interrupting circulation to the distal tissues. d. take a very long time to heal.

c

First responders have placed an automated external defibrillator (AED) on a patient who is conscious and complaining of palpitations and chest pain. The AED has analyzed the cardiac rhythm and is beginning to charge. You should (A) allow the AED to charge and deliver a shock. (B) take the defibrillation pads off the patient. (C) turn off the AED. (D) check the patient's pulse.

c

Following an explosion, a patient is trapped in a collapsed structure and suffers crush injuries to both lower extremities. How would the injuries be classified based on the blast injury phase? a. primary blast injury b. secondary blast injury c. tertiary blast injury d, none of the above

c

For a nonrebreather mask to deliver up to 90% inspired oxygen, you must ensure the ____________ is inflated. a. cuff b. mask c. reservoir d. oxygen bottle

c

Maroon or black, tarry stool that is not accompanied by abdominal pain is a sign of: a. celiac poisoning. b. cholecystitis. c. bleeding in the digestive tract. d. bleeding into the peritoneal cavity.

c

Medical control orders you to stop performing CPR on a terminally ill cancer patient. A distraught family member screams, "Do your job and save my mother!" You should (A) resume CPR and transport the patient. (B) immediately call the police. (C) allow the family member to grieve. (D) promptly leave the scene.

c

Most airway problems in adults are caused by: a. foreign objects, such as buttons. b. neck trauma in motor vehicle crashes. c. the tongue sliding into the airway. d. improperly chewed food.

c

Of the following, which body fluid has the most potential to transmit blood borne diseases? a. nasal discharge b. vomitus c. amniotic fluid d. feces

c

Of the following, which body fluids has the most potential to transmit blood-borne diseases? a. nasal discharge b. vomitus c. amniotic fluid d. feces

c

Operating an ambulance in an emergency mode allows you to (A) disregard driving laws related to speed and signal lights. (B) park anywhere at any time. (C) drive with due regard for other motorists. (D) not stop if you're involved in a minor traffic collision.

c

Oral glucose should NOT be used if the patient: a. might be hypoglycemic. b. is potentially hypertensive. c. is unresponsive. d. recently used a prescribed inhaler

c

Parents report their 3-year-old child may have ingested two or three tablets of a grandparent's antihypertensive medication about 45 minutes earlier. The child appears alert, clings to a parent, and appears frightened. You should (A) administer activated charcoal. (B) administer syrup of ipecac. (C) contact poison control. (D) have the child drink milk.

c

Patients with kidney transplants are on a special class of drugs that prevent organ rejection by suppressing the body's: a. red blood cells. b. critical functions. c. immune system. d. hemodialysis.

c

Pediculosis is a condition involving: a. Athlete's foot b. Toenail fungus c. Lice infestation d. Pediatric respiratory infection

c

Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) is a form of what type of stress reaction? a. Cumulative b. Chronic c. Delayed d. Acute

c

Quality improvement is defined as a: a. systematic plan to expose EMTs who make an error. b. one-time effort to correct problems within an EMS system. c. self-review with the purpose of identifying aspects of the system that require improvement. d. customer service campaign.

c

Repeat the reassessment every _______ minutes for an unstable patient. a. 15 b. 10 c. 5 d. 20

c

Select the best option to open the airway of a patient with a suspected spinal injury. a. chin lift jaw-thrust maneuver b. chin lift, tongue pull maneuver c. jaw-thrust maneuver d. head-tilt-chin lift maneuver

c

Select the best treatment option for a patient with an open abdominal wound and organs protruding. a. immediately apply a pressure dressing over a sterile gauze b. apply a sterile adhesive dressing c. cover with a sterile saline moistened gauze and secure with an occlusive dressing d. cover with a sterile moistened gauze and seal with a pressure dressing

c

Select the most accurate list of precautions/contraindications for use with nitroglycerin. a. use of lasix, systolic blood pressure under 100mmHg, and erectile dysfunction drugs b. use of ASA and digoxin c. use of erectile dysfunction drugs, head injury, and systolic blood pressure under 100mmHg d. systolic blood pressure greater than 120 mmHg, use of erectile dysfunction drugs

c

Serious abdominal problems may only cause slight discomfort in elderly patients because they have: a. occluded neural pathways. b. reduced central circulation. c. decreased sensitivity to pain. d. organic necrosis.

c

Several days after treating a chest pain patient, you realize that you made an error on the patient care report. The patient care report has already been submitted to the hospital and your department administration. What procedure should be followed when attempting to correct your documentation? a. Retrieve the original patient care report, white out, and correct the error. b. Retrieve the original patient care report, draw a line through the error, correct the information, and initial the correction. c. Complete and submit an addendum or supplement to the original patient care report. d. Disregard the error in documentation as patient care reports are considered final once submitted.

c

Signs and symptoms are different. A symptom is: a. an abnormal measurement you find, such as blood pressure, pulse, or respirations. b. something a bystander or family member tells you regarding the patient's condition. c. an indication you cannot observe, but that the patient feels and tells you about. d. something you see, hear, feel, and smell when examining the patient.

c

Signs and symptoms of a diabetic emergency include all of the following EXCEPT a. combativeness. b. intoxicated appearance. c. decreased heart rate. d. seizures.

c

Signs and symptoms of breathing difficulty in an adult include all of the following EXCEPT: a. distended jugular veins b. accessory muscle use c. decreased pulse rate d. coughing

c

Small round purplish spots, called petechiae, are caused by: a. bacteria. b. severe blunt trauma. c. capillary bleeding. d. hypotension.

c

Some respiratory distress patients feel better if the head of the stretcher is raised so the body is at a 45- to 60-degree angle. This is known as: a. the supine position. b. Trendelenburg position. c. Fowler's position. d. the recovery position.

c

The lowest acceptable systolic blood pressure in a child over 1 year of age is determined by which formula? a. 50 + (age in years x 2) b. 60 + (age in years x 2) c. 70 + (age in years x 2) d. 90 + (age in years x 2)

c

The majority of the recommendations in the 2015 AHA guidelines are based on what class of evidence? a. Class I - Strong b. Class IIa - Moderate c. Class IIb - Weak d. Class III - No Benefit

c

You are responding to a call with lights and sirens. How do you proceed through a stop sign or a red light? a. As fast as possible to reduce the risk of an accident. b. Always in the oncoming lane as they can see you better when you are coming right at them. c. Always with due regard for others on the road. d. Briefly slow down. As you have lights and sirens, they will always get out of your way.

c

You assess a patient with difficulty breathing who has a history of COPD and is breathing through pursed lips. What is the patient trying to do while breathing through pursed lips? a. Providing back pressure to the alveoli b. Providing oxygen a way to move out of the lungs c. Providing oxygen into the lungs and moving carbon dioxide out of the lungs d. Providing a way to get air to the blood stream

c

You come on the scene of a 2-year-old patient with her grandparents. The child has no pulse, is unresponsive, and does not have a history of heart problems. No CPR has been initiated. Select the best option for the next steps. a. Attach an AED and perform chest thrusts in case of aspiration. b. Attach an AED and perform four back slaps. c. Begin CPR and attach an AED. d. Shake and shout.

c

You find a patient having a grand mal seizure in a cluttered living room. Bystanders have placed a bite block in her mouth. You should first (A) remove hazards from the area. (B) administer oxygen. (C) remove the bite block. (D) place her in the recovery position.

c

You have assisted a patient in administering a prescribed inhaler. After one dose of the medication, the patient's pulse rate increases, and he reports feeling nauseated. You should: a. administer another dose of the medication b. assess respiratory rate, rhythm, and quality c. document and report the signs and symptoms d. begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation

c

You have determined that a patient is a suicide risk and requires transport to the hospital. He refuses transport and says, "I'm not going without a fight." You should (A) allow the patient to leave the room and your sight. (B) contact medical control for advice. (C) request that law enforcement be dispatched to the scene. (D) notify your supervisor.

c

You have just been hired as an EMT on an ambulance where your partner is a paramedic. He decides to quiz you on the acronym "DCAP-BTLS." What does the "C" stand for? a. Crepitus b. Cerebral c. Contusions d. Coronary

c

You have just defibrillated a patient who was in cardiac arrest. He is coughing, and you hear gurgling as he attempts to breathe. You should (A) insert an oropharyngeal airway. (B) check for the presence of a pulse. (C) place him in the recovery position. (D) push the "analyze" button on the automated external defibrillator (AED).

c

A 20-year-old male is sitting on a sidewalk, leaning against a wall. There is an open stab wound to his chest, which makes a loud, gurgling noise as he breathes. He tells you that he is having trouble breathing. You should first (A) suction his airway. (B) insert a nasopharyngeal airway. (C) assist his ventilations with a bag-valve mask. (D) cover the wound with your gloved hand.

d

A 22-year-old female has vaginal bleeding and complains of severe abdominal cramping. She reports that she has not had her menstrual cycle in four months. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these signs and symptoms? (A) Pelvic inflammatory disease (B) Endometritis (C) Ovarian cyst (D) Spontaneous abortion

d

A 65-year-old female has been experiencing vomiting and loose stools for 72 hours. She is confused, and her skin feels cool and diaphoretic. You can detect carotid pulses only. You should (A) perform a detailed physical exam. (B) elevate her legs and reassess. (C) have her drink fluids. (D) prepare for immediate transport.

d

A 7-month-old infant presents limp and unresponsive in his mother's arms. You note no air exchange and a weak, slow brachial pulse. The mother reports that the infant was playing with toys in a crib when he suddenly turned blue and stopped breathing. You should (A) administer five abdominal thrusts. (B) suction the mouth. (C) administer five back blows and five chest thrusts. (D) begin chest compressions.

d

A patient presents sitting on the edge of his bed, leaning forward, and drooling, with inspiratory stridor. He is alert, his respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute with visible chest rise and fall, and his skin is hot, dry, and pale. You should (A) manually inspect the airway. (B) assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. (C) insert an oropharyngeal airway. (D) administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask

d

A patient should receive high-flow oxygen if he or she exhibits a. fever b. anxiety c. dehydration d. cyanosis

d

A patient should receive high-flow oxygen if he or she exhibits: a. fever b. anxiety c. dehydration d. cyanosis

d

A patient who has experienced a DVT is at higher risk for what type of CVA? a. Intracerebral hemorrhage b. Subarachnoid hemorrhage c. TIA d. Ischemic stroke

d

An extremity lift and the draw sheet method of moving a patient are appropriate only for a patient: a. from the floor to a wheeled stretcher. b. who is conscious enough to partially move himself. c. with a cervical collar in place. d. with no suspected spine injury.

d

An indication for the application of the pneumatic anti-shock garment (PASG) is (A) cardiopulmonary arrest. (B) an impaled object in the abdomen. (C) penetrating thoracic trauma. (D) a pelvic fracture with hypotension.

d

Angina differs from a heart attack because in an attack of angina, the: a. patient feels severe chest pain b. pain radiates outward from the heart c. administration of nitroglycerin provides no relief d. heart muscle is not permanently damaged

d

As an EMT you are responsible for: a. transferring the patient to hospital personnel. b. safe transportation to the hospital. c. safe response to the scene. d. all of the above.

d

As an EMT, you release information on a patient to the newspaper. The patient felt he has been slandered. The patient may sue you under which specific area of the law? a. Criminal b. Constitutional c. Federal d. Tort

d

As you approach the scene of a traffic collision, you should: a. look for clues to escaped hazardous materials. b. look and listen for other emergency vehicles approaching from side streets. c. look for collision victims on or near the road. d. all of the above.

d

Asking all of the following questions will help you decide whether delivery is imminent EXCEPT: a. when is the baby due? b. do you feel increasing pressure in your vaginal area? c. do you feel the urge to move your bowels? d. when did you last eat or drink?

d

At a hazardous materials incident, an EMT should provide basic emergency care only after the patient has been: a. moved to a safe place. b. stripped of all outer clothing. c. cleared by law enforcement on scene. d. decontaminated.

d

At approximately what age will a child attempt to walk without assistance? a. 9 months b. 8 months c. 12 months d. 11 months

d

At what age would an individual be totally dependent? a. School age b. Preschool age c. Toddler d. Infant

d

Bacteria and viruses that cause disease in humans when sputum particles are inhaled, such as the flu, are called: a. Bloodborne pathogens b. Contamination c. Parasitic pathogens d. Airborne pathogens

d

Because of multiple impacts, the type of collision which is potentially the most serious is the: a. rear-end. b. head-on. c. side-impact. d. rollover.

d

Begin the reassessment by repeating the initial assessment to recheck for life-threatening problems including: a. maintain an open airway. b. reestablish patient priorities. c. monitor skin color and temperature. d. all of the above.

d

Biological death may be delayed when the water temperature is below: a. 80°F. b. 60°F. c. 90°F. d. 70°F.

d

Bulging neck veins while the patient is supine indicate: a. jugular vein distention. b. accessory muscle use. c. traumatic asphyxia. d. normal circulation.

d

Calls that have a high potential for causing excess stress on EMS providers include: a. calls involving infants and children. b. multiple-casualty incidents. c. calls involving abuse and neglect. d. all of the above.

d

Carbon monoxide poisoning is extremely serious because carbon monoxide: a. is odorless, colorless, and tasteless, making it undetectable without special equipment. b. even at low levels over a long period can cause dramatic effects. c. takes the place of oxygen in red blood cells, causing hypoxia. d. all of the above.

d

Cardiac arrest in infants and children usually is due to: a. congenital defects. b. heart attacks. c. high blood pressure. d. respiratory problems.

d

Children can lose over _______ percent of their total blood volume and still maintain a normal blood pressure. a. 50 b. 90 c. 75 d. 25

d

Choose a correct statement about the assessment of a patient with cardiac compromise. a. Patients usually describe cardiac pain as localized and moderately severe. b. You should not ask patients about nitroglycerin or other drug use. c. The purpose of the focused history is to determine whether to use the AED. d. You cannot determine the degree of cardiac damage in the field.

d

Compare acute myocardial infarction and dissecting aortic aneurysm pain. a. Dissecting aortic aneurysm pain often follows other symptoms, like sweating and nausea, while acute myocardial infarction pain usually does not. b. Pain from a dissecting aortic aneurysm and acute myocardial infarction both "come and go" and both are usually described as "stabbing," rather than "pressure." c. Acute myocardial infarction pain is a sharp, tearing sensation, while dissecting aortic aneurysm pain feels like tightness/pressure. d. Acute myocardial infarction pain feels like tightness/pressure, while dissecting aortic aneurysm pain is a ripping/tearing sensation.

d

Conditions that may mimic the symptoms of a stroke include all of the following except ____. a. hypoglycemia b. postictal state c. a subdural bleed d. a myocardial infarction

d

Conditions that may require the administration of supplemental oxygen include: a. heart problems. b. trauma. c. lung disease. d. all of the above.

d

Delivery of the baby may be imminent when the mother's contractions: a. last 30 seconds to one minute and are 5-12 minutes apart. b. have lasted over an hour. c. begin after the "bag of waters" has ruptured. d. last 30 seconds to one minute, and are 2-3 minutes apart.

d

Depression is considered a disorder when it (A) results in feelings of sadness in the patient. (B) produces physiologic symptoms such as weakness. (C) persists for more than three days. (D) interferes with normal daily activity.

d

HIPAA is an act that was adopted on August 21, 1996, to protect a patient's privacy and assist in maintaining health insurance coverage. What does HIPAA stand for? a. Health Insurance and Portability and Accountability Action b. Health Insurance and Protection and Accountability Act c. Health Insurance and Portability and Accounting Act d. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

d

Hepatitis A is most commonly spread through which of the following means? a. Blood b. Air c. Sexual contact d. Food

d

How is blood sugar usually tested. a. A portable glucometer which attaches to a shunt, giving direct access to blood. b. A glucometer, which measures glucose levels in urine. c. The patient must go to the hospital to use a glucometer. d. A small, portable device which accepts a small sample of blood, usually giving a reading in about a minute.

d

How long will a patient go without breathing before it is likely that irreversible brain damage has set in? a. 0-1 min b. 1-4 min c. 4-6 min d. 6-10 min e. more than 10 min

d

How might you find information about a patient's medical history if the patient is unresponsive? a. Search for any sort of address book and attempt to contact anyone who might know the patient. b. Continue trying to obtain a coherent response from the patient. c. You can't; just focus on transporting the patient immediately. d. Question any bystanders or family members who are present.

d

Hypoperfusion can be the result of: a. inadequate pumping of the heart. b. dilation of the blood vessels. c. severe blood loss. d. all of the above.

d

Of the following actions, which should you do first for a patient who has overdosed on an unknown medication? (A) Identify the medication. (B) Administer an antidote to the medication. (C) Administer oxygen. (D) Maintain a patent airway

d

Of the following, what is the most likely place an EMT would look for cyanosis in her patient? a. the palms. b. both the palms and the superior aspect of the scalp. c. the superior aspect of the scalp. d. earlobes.

d

On most ambulances, oxygen is the only "drug" on board. Oxygen tanks come in various sizes, one of which is an M Cylinder. This tank contains 3,000 L of oxygen. How many minutes will this tank last if the gauge shows a pressure of 1,000 psi and the flow rate is 15 L/minute? Use 200 psi for the tank's residual pressure. a. 832 minutes b. 1800 minutes c. 180 minutes d. 83.2 minutes

d

Once you complete the focused physical exam to assess injuries, you will: a. splint all injuries. b. immediately transport the patient. c. begin a detailed physical exam. d. assess baseline vitals.

d

One of the most reliable signs of decreased perfusion in the pediatric patient is: a. heart rate. b. blood pressure. c. respiratory rate. d. capillary refill.

d

One of the three situations that may require the use of an emergency move is: a. extrication in rain or snow. b. needing to return to service quickly. c. your patient's being in pain. d. the need to reach other seriously injured patients.

d

One of the three types of muscles in the body are: a. vascular. b. digestive. c. intestinal. d. cardiac.

d

Possible sources of burns include: a. superficial damage, partial damage, full damage b. chemical, facial, internal, thermal c. chemical, mechanical, physical, primary d. chemical, thermal, electrical, radiation

d

Problems with a patient's LVAD that may require rapid transport to a hospital include: a. infection. b. battery failure. c. air leakage. d. all of the above.

d

Provide positive pressure ventilation with 100% oxygen if your adult patient is not alert and: a. has a breathing rate of less than 10 per minute. b. has a breathing rate of less than 12 per minute. c. only if the patient is in respiratory arrest; never ventilate a breathing patient. d. has a breathing rate of less than eight per minute

d

Providing supplemental oxygen to individuals with lung diseases, such as emphysema or chronic bronchitis, can in rare occasions cause a condition known as: a. bronchoperfusion. b. instigated hypoxia. c. respiratory dysrhythmia. d. hypoxic drive.

d

Remembering the difference between a sign and a symptom, which of the following is a symptom of breathing difficulty? a. Patient in the tripod position b. Increased pulse in an adult patient c. Changes in breathing rhythm d. Restlessness or anxiety

d

Repeat the reassessment every _______ minutes for a stable patient. a. 10 b. 20 c. 5 d. 15

d

Rules of lifting in order to prevent injury include: a. keeping the weight away from your body. b. positioning your feet together. c. leaning to one side when lifting with one hand. d. using your legs to lift.

d

Seizures may be caused by: a. epilepsy. b. hypoglycemia. c. eclampsia. d. all of the above.

d

Select the best option to identify possible signs of a genitourinary (GU) injury. a. hematoma, ureteral bleeding b. bloody stool, hematuria c. perineal bleeding, ecchymosis d. hematuria, blood at opening of urethra

d

Signs of internal bleeding include: a. increased blood pressure. b. decreased pulse. c. a soft abdomen. d. bruising or swelling over major organs

d

Since it is not uncommon for emotionally disturbed patients to accuse EMS personnel of sexual misconduct, you should try to: a. leave your portable radio keyed so that dispatch can monitor the situation b. audio-record all behavioral emergency calls c. have a law enforcement officer present d. have an EMT of the same sex as the patient provide care.

d

Symptoms of asthma most often include ____. a. vomiting and confusion b. fever and runny nose c. headache d. wheezing, shortness of breath, and coughing

d

Taking a drug either through injection or absorption: a. Shows completely different effects b. Shows that injection is more severe c. Shows that absorption is more severe d. Shows similar effects

d

The EMT may assist a patient in using epinephrine when administered: a. sublingually. b. intravenously. c. by needle and syringe. d. by autoinjector.

d

The EMT-B may sometimes enlist bystanders to assist by: a. communicating with central dispatch b. administering medication c. administering oxygen d. placing the patient on a stretcher

d

The Incident Command System is meant to: a. Provide a way for EMS to effectively communicate and collaborate by having everyone under one system, set of rules, terminologies, and practices. b. Be used for a mass casualty system and sets up an efficient chain of command and organizational system to triage, give care, allocate resources to various teams, and communicate effectively. c. Provide a way to efficiently and effectively help all the patients affected by a mass casualty. d. All of these answers are correct.

d

The air sacs in the lungs where oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange occurs are the: a. bronchioles b. bronchi c. epiglottis d. alveoli

d

The appropriate compression-to-ventilation ratio in two-rescuer CPR on a child is (A) 30:1 (B) 30:2 (C) 15:1 (D) 15:2

d

The average concentration of oxygen in a titration for treatment is between ____. a. 93% and 95% b. 94% and 96% c. 92% and 96% d. 95% and 99%

d

The blanket term that refers to any kind of problem with the heart is: a. angina pectoris. b. cardiac arrest. c. heart attack. d. cardiac compromise.

d

The body system responsible for providing movement is the: a. nervous system. b. endocrine system. c. skin. d. musculoskeletal system

d

The communications system capable of automatically identifying the caller's phone number and location is called: a. a remote location system. b. computer-aided dispatching (CAD). c. a 911 system. d. an enhanced 911 system.

d

The concept in which an EMT synthesizes information from the scene, the patient assessment, and other sources to make appropriate decisions is called: a. prehospital patient evaluation. b. prehospital decision making. c. clinical investigation. d. critical decision making.

d

The correct rate of artificial ventilations for an adult patient is a. 3 ventilations per minute b. 5 ventilations per minute c. 10 ventilations per minute d. 12 ventilations per minute

d

The correct rate of artificial ventilations for an adult patient is: a. 3 ventilations per min b. 5 ventilations per min c. 10 ventilations per min d. 12 ventilations per min

d

The difference between a diagnosis an EMT makes and one an emergency physician makes is that the EMT: a. makes no diagnosis. b. makes a more detailed diagnosis. c. uses laboratory and radiologic testing. d. makes a generalized diagnosis

d

The injuries a patient would sustain from the secondary effects of an explosion are caused by what? a. From the blast itself. b. From the patient being thrown against solid objects. c. From the sound waves of the second explosion. d. From flying shrapnel or objects.

d

The large thighbone is called the: a. patella. b. tibia. c. fibula. d. femur.

d

The layer of skin that contains no blood vessels or nerves is the: a. dermis. b. subcutaneous layers. c. muscle. d. epidermis.

d

The major types of shock include: a. cardiogenic, or pump failure. b. hypovolemic, or fluid failure. c. neurogenic, or pipe failure. d. all of the above.

d

The maximum flow rate for a Nasal Cannula is ____. a. 8 lpm b. 2 lpm c. 12 lpm d. 6 lpm

d

The mnemonic for determining level of consciousness is ____. a. SAMPLE b. OPQRST c. ABC d. AVPU

d

The most common cause of hypoxia in an unconscious head-injured child is: a. tracheal injury. b. injury to the portion of the brain that controls respirations. c. crush injuries to the chest. d. the tongue falling back and blocking the airway.

d

The most common diabetic emergency is hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia can result when the diabetic patient: a. takes too little insulin, putting too little sugar into the cells. b. reduces routine physical exercise. c. increases sugar intake. d. vomits a meal, emptying the stomach of sugar as well as other food.

d

The most common spinal injury associated with improper lifting techniques is ____. a. Sacral b. Cervical d. Thoracic d. Lumbar

d

The most immediate threat to life in a patient with a ruptured appendix is (A) respiratory arrest. (B) cardiac arrest. (C) sepsis. (D) hypovolemic shock.

d

The most important drug in the treatment of heart problems is: a. adrenaline. b. nitroglycerin. c. atropine. d. oxygen.

d

The most important part of treatment for an absorbed poison is: a. neutralizing acids or alkalis with dilute vinegar or baking soda water. b. warming the patient so the perspiration will flush out the skin's pores. c. administration of activated charcoal. d. irrigating the skin with large amounts of clean water.

d

The ongoing assessment of the unconscious patient should be checked during transport every ____ minutes. a. 10 b. 1 c. 3 d. 5

d

The patient is said to be crowning when the: a. placenta separates from the uterine wall b. placenta is formed in an abnormal location c. umbilical cord presents at the vaginal opening d. baby's head is visible at the vaginal opening

d

The practice of protecting yourself from the patient's body fluids or bacteria is called: a. Personal protective equipment b. Scene safety c. Wearing gloves and a protective gown d. Body Substance Isolation

d

The presence of bright red blood in the feces is called (A) hematemesis. (B) melena. (C) varices. (D) hematochezia.

d

The primary assessment is designed to identify immediately life-threatening conditions. These conditions include: a. breathing difficulty. b. decreased level of responsiveness. c. chest pain. d. severe bleeding.

d

The primary difference between Type I and Type II diabetes is that: a. the Type II diabetic must take supplemental insulin at least once a day. b. the Type I diabetic is not dependent on insulin. c. Type II diabetes usually develops in childhood. d. Type I diabetes tends to begin in childhood

d

The primary reason a traction splint is applied to a fractured femur is to: a. Prevent crepitation b. Immobilize broken bone ends c. Reduce pain d. Control bleeding

d

The primary reason you auscultate both sides of the chest is to determine whether breath sounds are a. strong and regular b. fast or slow c. noisy or quiet d. present and equal

d

The pumping action of the heart is normally: a. at the same rate in most adults. b. assessed by taking the patient's blood pressure. c. smooth and continually at the same pressure, like water flowing through a pipe. d. rhythmic, causing blood to move through the arteries in waves.

d

The reason for asking a patient her normal blood pressure reading is to determine: a. if she is alert and oriented b. if her general state of health is poor c. whether you should perform a detailed exam d. if a current reading is cause for concern

d

The rigid suction tip is called: a. flexible plastic tube. b. 14 French suction tip. c. catheter. d. Yankauer.

d

The sound generated by a partially obstructed airway is called: a. crowing. b. gurgling. c. wheezing. d. stridor.

d

The study of drugs, their sources, characteristics, and effects is called: a. pathology. b. homeopathy. c. the study of medicine. d. pharmacology.

d

The thorax contains several important structures, including the: a. stomach. b. liver. c. gallbladder. d. heart.

d

The tongue is often a source of airway obstruction; it falls back and occludes the _________? a. larynx b. trachea c. nasopharynx d. pharynx

d

The two most common side effects of bronchodilators are patient jitteriness and: a. increased respiratory rates. b. decreased urinary outputs. c. decreased blood pressure. d. increased heart rates.

d

To determine if a newborn needs resuscitation, you should assess ____. a. heart rate and color b. tone and oxygen level c. blood pressure and oxygen level d. tone, respiratory effort, and heart rate

d

You have just received permission from medical control to stop CPR on a terminally ill cancer patient. You had moved him from his bedroom floor, and he is naked. The family asks if they can view the deceased's body. You should (A) not allow the family to view the patient. (B) return the patient to his bed. (C) cover the patient up to his chest with a blanket. (D) allow the family to view the patient as is.

c

You have received medical control permission to apply the PASG to your patient who has severe bleeding caused by soft-tissue damage, below the knee on both legs. which compartments of the PASG should you inflate? a. all three compartments b. the abdominal compartment c. both leg compartments d. None, PASG is not indicated

c

Touching the patient when the semiautomatic external defibrillator (SAED) is analyzing the rhythm: a. is acceptable with today's modern defibrillators b. is indicated to maintain cardiac compressions c. is indicated to maintain artificial ventilation d. can cause the SAED to misinterpret a rhythm

d

Using a reservoir with a bag-valve-mask system will allow oxygen levels to increase to nearly: a. 70% b. 90% c. 80% d. 100%

d

You released a public statement about a mass incidence, in which you gave false information that is damaging to a specific person's reputation. This information will be published in newspapers as a direct quote from you. What have you committed? a. Negligence and libel b. Malfeasance and slander c. Libel and slander d. Misdemeanor and libel

c

Using the classification system (instead of the "rule of nines"), what percentage of a pediatric patient's body surface is affected when they have moderate partial-thickness burns? a. less than 5% b. greater than 20% c. less than 10% d. 10-20%

d

What airway opening maneuver should be used on a patient that has fallen off a ladder and is suffering from respiratory distress? a. Head Tilt - Chin Lift b. Intubation c. Bite Block d. Jaw Thrust

d

What are one of the major complications of extended periods of hypoglycemia? a. hot flushed skin, weakness, heart palpitations b. sugar shock c. diabetic ketoacidosis d. brain damage

d

What causes an allergic reaction, for example, to a bee sting? a. The body releases killer T cells. b. The body activates macrophages to eat up the invading pathogens. c. The body correctly activates histamines, towards a potentially deadly foreign object. d. The body activates the immune system towards a usually harmless object, by releasing histamines.

d

What differences in a child's airway might make airway management more difficult than in an adult? a. smaller jaw, smaller teeth b. There are no anatomic differences that affect airway management in children versus adults. c. longer airway and small tongue d. a smaller jaw and a proportionally larger tongue

d

Your patient presents with hallucinations, anxiety, and paranoia after ingesting an unknown drug. When communicating with the patient, you should (A) search the patient for more of the drug he ingested. (B) sit next to him, place your hand on his shoulder, and talk calmly. (C) repeat simple and specific statements to ensure that you are understood. (D) allow him to talk, but do not ask questions.

c

Your patient, a 67 year old male with a history of cardiac disease, is unresponsive. After checking ABCs and finding no pulse, you begin CPR. The next thing you should do is: a. administer oxygen b. call for ALS backup c. attach the AED d. request medical direction

c

Your patient, the victim of a stabbing, is bleeding profusely from a wound on his upper arm. Your first action should be to: a. apply concentrated direct pressure b. apply diffuse direct pressure c. manage the airway and breathing d. elevate the limb and apply pressure points

c

Your unit is dispatched to a private residence for a possible choking. You arrive on scene and find a four-year-old female who was pulled out of the pool by her father. He states she was underwater for a minute or two, and she vomited a small amount when he pulled her out. There is remaining vomit in her mouth and airway, and she is apneic. What is the maximum time you are allowed to suction your patient before oxygenating them? a. 5 seconds b. 15 seconds c. 10 seconds d. 20 seconds

c

_______ AEDs use less power and may cause less damage to the patient's heart. a. Automatic b. Monophasic c. Biphasic d. Hemiphasic

c

_______ force is the force necessary to keep a patient from injuring himself or others. a. respectful b. rational c. reasonable d. resistant

c

_______ is not an agent or source of burns. a. Ultraviolet light b. Chemical bases c. Infrared light d. Direct current

c

"Battle sign" is an indication of a: a. cerebrovascular accident. b. subdermal hematoma. c. deep muscle injury. d. skull injury.

d

"Flail chest" is a common term for what type of trauma? a. A sucking chest wound b. Pneumothorax c. Sternal separation d. Paradoxical motion

d

"Triple A" is a common term for an _______, which is the most serious cause of abdominal pain among elderly patients. a. anterior abdominal apoplexy b. apeptic abdominal attack c. anabolic arterial atrophy d. abdominal aortic aneurysm

d

"Vasovagal syncope" is also called: a. a TIA. b. epilepsy. c. hypovolemia. d. simple fainting.

d

A 12-year-old male patient was hit in the nose with a baseball. His nose is deviated to the left with moderate epistaxis. He has severe pain in his nose. He is alert and oriented without loss of consciousness. What is the best treatment sequence for this patient? a. Pack nares with gauze to control bleeding. b. Have patient lie supine while holding pressure to nares. c. Align nose in the neutral position while holding pressure to nares. d. Have patient sit upright and lean forward while holding pressure to nares.

d

A 2-year-old child has a fever, cough, and audible stridor. The parent awoke to the child coughing forcefully with an unusual sound that improved after the child stepped outside into the winter night air. What is the most likely cause for this presentation? (A) Foreign body airway obstruction (B) Epiglottitis (C) Asthma (D) Croup

d

What do emphysema, chronic bronchitis, and asthma all have in common? a. They are all characterized by an increase in mucus production. b. They are all characterized by crackling sounds due to fluid in the lung area. c. They are all characterized by snoring sounds since all of these diseases block the upper airway. d. They are all characterized by wheezing sounds due to either bronchiole constriction or airway resistance

d

What does right-sided heart failure cause? a. Pulmonary edema b. Heart edema c. Chest edema d. Systemic edema

d

What is the normal rate of breathing for a resting child between six and twelve years old? a. 30-60 breaths per min b. 24-39 breaths per min c. 20-30 breaths per min d. 12-20 breaths per min e. none of the above

d

What is the position of comfort for a patient with an evisceration? a. Prone position b. High Fowler position c. Left lateral position d. Supine with the legs pulled up toward the abdomen

d

What is the primary action of nitroglycerin? a. lower the blood pressure b. contract the heart muscles c. slow the heart rate down d. dilate the coronary vessels

d

What is the primary role of the physician medical director in each EMS system? a. The medical director oversees quality assurance programs for EMS personnel. b. The medical director only allows EMTs to provide treatment after consulting with the base physician. c. The medical director determines if an EMT is fit for duty through a series of physical and written tests. d. The medical director authorizes the EMTs in the field to provide appropriate medical care for each injury, condition, or illness they encounter.

d

What is the purpose of incident management systems? a. To provide a means of evaluating the EMS system's response to an event b. To provide a training program for First Responders c. To provide a clear chain of command in case of legal liability d. To provide an orderly method for communications and decision making

d

What is the purpose of the head-tilt/chin lift technique? a. to position the patient for insertion of an airway adjunct b. to remove foreign bodies from the upper airway c. to help the rescuer better visualize the larynx and vocal cords d. to lift the tongue and epiglottis out of their obstructing position

d

What is the purpose of the head-tilt/chin-lift technique? a. to position the patient for insertion of an airway adjunct b. to remove foreign bodies from the upper airway c. to help the rescuer better visualize the larynx and vocal cords d. to lift the tongue and epiglottis out of their obstructing position

d

What is the rate of breaths per minute for an adult? a. 8 - 16 b. 15 - 25 c. 10 - 18 d. 12 - 20

d

What is the recommended position for transporting a pregnant patient who is in her third trimester and not in labor? a. on her right side b. in Fowler's position c. on her back d. on her left side

d

What is the type of injury in which there is a large laceration to the abdomen, and the abdominal organs are protruding from the wound? a. Contusion b. Protrusion c. Avulsion d. Evisceration

d

What is the usual dosage of activated charcoal? a. 0.5 gram/kg b. 1 mg/kg c. 0.5 mg/kg d. 1 gram/kg

d

What is the way a patient is injured? a. Energy transfer b. Injury pattern c. Mechanics of injury d. Mechanism of injury

d

What is triage? a. a method to determine how fast to transport a patient b. a method of bandaging a wound c. a method to determine how many personnel to care for a patient d. a method of sorting patients based on their severity of injury

d

What medication should you, as an EMT, immediately administer to a 62-year-old patient who complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing? a. Nitroglycerin b. Aspirin c. Albuterol d. Oxygen

d

What method is not recommended for EMTs to stimulate a newborn baby who is not crying or breathing? a. to gently flick or slap the heels of their feet b. to vigorously rub their head with a dry towel c. to rub their back d. to hold them upside down and gently slap their bottom

d

What move should be used when transferring a stable patient, who is unable to walk, from a hospital bed to a gurney? a. Direct ground lift b. Extremity move c. Scoop lift d. Draw sheet method

d

What percentage of oxygen is taken in, in typical, healthy breathing? a. 95% b. 58% c. 34% d. 21% e. 19%

d

What should you be most concerned with when treating a child who ingested a caustic chemical and is beginning to vomit? a. Cardiac compromise due to the substance entering the patient's blood stream b. Permanent tissue damage to the patient's digestive tract c. Internal bleeding from stomach trauma d. Aspiration of the chemical

d

What should you do when managing an open fracture? a. Apply a pressure dressing to prevent blood loss. b. Leave the wound exposed if there is no massive bleeding from the area. c. Provide mild manual traction to restore distal circulation. d. Cover the exposed bone ends with a moist sterile dressing.

d

What type of a penetrating missile traveling over 2,000 ft/sec? a. Low velocity penetrating missile b. Medium velocity penetrating missile c. Decelerating penetrating missile d. High velocity penetrating missile

d

What type of seizure activity presents with the patient staring off in space with little to no muscle contractions? a. Focal motor b. Grand mal c. Febrile d. Petit mal

d

What valve opens during right ventricular contraction, and what valve closes? a. The bicuspid valve closes and aortic valve opens. b. The bicuspid valve closes and the pulmonary valve opens. c. The tricuspid valve opens and the pulmonary valve closes. d. The tricuspid valve closes and the pulmonary valve opens.

d

When a gas moves from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration, this is called: a. external respiration. b. respiration. c. inhalation volume. d. diffusion.

d

When a patient has a chest injury and there are two or more consecutive ribs fractured in two or more places, this is called: a. open chest injury. b. impaled object. c. compression. d. flail chest.

d

When a patient is breathing at a rapid rate (40 breaths per minute) and that breathing is shallow, the patient is at risk of: a. Having low alveolar minute volume b. Inhaling too much oxygen per minute c. Having high amounts of tidal volume d. Having low amounts of minute volume

d

When a patient is lying on his back, this is called: a. recovery position. b. prone. c. Fowler's position. d. supine.

d

When an artery in the brain becomes blocked or bursts, altered mental status may result. This is called a: a. cerebrovascular accident. b. stroke. c. CVA. d. all of the above.

d

When an asthma attack occurs: a. airflow is restricted during both inhalation and exhalation. b. there is a reduction in the amount of mucus produced, causing the lungs to dry out. c. wheezing is heard only during inspiration. d. stale air becomes trapped in the lungs.

d

When analyzing the abdomen, what are the general signs you are looking for? a. Tenderness, guarding, lacerations, swelling b. Guarding, Let-down, aneurysms, defense mechanism c. Pain, muscle lock, touch-pain reflex d. Tenderness/pain, rigidity, guarding, distension

d

When arriving at the scene of an inhaled poisoning, your first priority is: a. moving the patient to a safe area. b. looking for additional victims. c. ventilating the area. d. keeping yourself safe.

d

When assessing a patient with a significant mechanism of injury, instead of a focused physical exam, you perform a(n): a. detailed physical exam. b. neuro assessment. c. assessment for motor, sensation, and circulation. d. rapid trauma assessment.

d

When assessing any unresponsive medical patient, you should always: a. perform spinal immobilization. b. perform a rapid physical exam while en route to the hospital. c. perform a detailed physical exam. d. consider requesting an ALS response.

d

When caring for a patient with an amputation, the amputated part should be: a. placed directly in ice water. b. placed in a bag of warmed IV solution. c. placed directly in body-temperature water. d. wrapped in a sterile dressing, placed in a plastic bag, and kept cool.

d

When caring for a stab wound, your care would include all of the following EXCEPT: a. controlling bleeding b. following your local protocols c. caring for shock d. placing your patient on a nasal cannula

d

When checking capillary refill on an infant patient whose nail beds are too small, you should: a. press on the sole of his foot. b. gently pinch the earlobe. c. use the skin color alone to assess circulation. d. press on the back of his hand.

d

When cleaning an ambulance, what mixture of bleach to water is recommended? a. Bleach is not recommended. Use only an FDA approved chemical. b. 1:5 dilution bleach to water c. 1:2 dilution bleach to water d. 1:10 to 1:100 dilution bleach to water

d

When deciding whether to assist a patient in administering nitroglycerin, you should check the medicine for the patient's name, the route of administration, the dose, and the a. doctor who prescribed it b. quantity still available c. pharmacy d. expiration date

d

When gases enter the bloodstream as the result of a damaged lung, it is called a(n): a. hyperbaric anomaly. b. Deuser's embolus. c. pulmonary thrombus. d. arterial gas embolism.

d

When hypoxia becomes profound and carbon dioxide builds to dangerous levels, the muscles used for increased respiration begin to tire. This condition is called: a. poor breathing. b. normal breathing. c. respiratory arrest. d. respiratory failure.

d

When is activated charcoal not recommended for pediatric patients who have accidental poisoning? a. Activated charcoal is not recommended for patients who have ingested a houseplant. b. Activated charcoal is not recommended for patients who have ingested iron. c. Activated charcoal is not recommended for patients who have ingested prescription medication. d. Activated charcoal is not recommended for patients who have ingested an acid, alkali, or petroleum product.

d

When is it appropriate to use a nasopharyngeal airway rather than an oropharyngeal airway? a. When the patient has been in a traumatic collision and milky fluid is visible in the ears. b. When the patient is unconscious. c. When there is a physical obstruction in the oropharynx. d. When the patient's gag reflex is intact and no CSF is visible.

d

When is the administration of oxygen to a patient experiencing acute coronary syndrome advisable (assuming you do not have a pulse oximeter to measure the patient's oxygen saturation)? a. Always b. Never c. When told to do so by medical direction d. The patient is A/O x2

d

When performing the rapid trauma assessment what is the next step after assessing the neck? a. assess the clavicles, scapula, and chest b. clear the airway and administer oxygen c. assess the head, eyes, ears, and nose d. apply a cervical immobilization device

d

When providing positive pressure ventilation to a patient in respiratory arrest, you use: a. bag-valve mask. b. nonrebreather mask. c. venturi mask. d. automatic transport ventilator

d

When requesting physician medical direction via radio, which of the following procedures should be used? a. Use radio codes as much as possible to ensure patient privacy. b. Give the patient's name so the physician can retrieve previous medical information, if available. c. Transmit extensive medical history information, even if you feel it is not pertinent. d. Repeat all orders back to the physician.

d

When responding to a possible crime scene, the EMT should: a. attempt to disarm any violent person with a weapon. b. immediately enter the scene to treat patients with possible life-threatening injuries. c. make the scene safe so law enforcement can enter. d. provide patient care once law enforcement has made the scene safe.

d

When resuscitating a near-drowning victim, you should attempt to relieve gastric distention only if: a. you have been specially trained in this procedure b. you are acting under the orders of medical direction c. the patient complains of stomach pains d. it interferes with artificial ventilation

d

When should you apply the AED pads to your patient? a. When he is unconscious and vomiting. b. When he appears confused and "out of it". c. When he complains of trouble breathing. d. When he is pulseless and apneic.

d

When splinting an injured limb, you should assess pulse, motor function, and sensation distal to the injury A. after applying the splint B. before applying the splint C. while applying the splint D. before and after applying the splint

d

When the EMT is assessing a patient and he has the signs or symptoms that suggest the problem is very serious, this would be called a: a. working diagnosis. b. critical thinking. c. diagnosis. d. red flag.

d

When the body is divided into front and back halves, the front half of the body is called: a. posterior. b. inferior. c. superior. d. anterior.

d

When the patient has seizures that last more than ten minutes, or if he has two or more seizures without regaining full consciousness, these are called: a. cumulative epilepsy. b. grande epilepsy. c. cluster seizures. d. status epilepticus.

d

When using the power lift technique, your feet should be: a. almost touching. b. 12 inches apart. c. 24 inches apart. d. a comfortable distance apart.

d

When using the two-person bag-valve mask procedure, one EMT ventilates the patient while the other a. suctions the patient and administers CPR b. administers mouth-to-mask ventilation c. inserts the oral or nasopharyngeal airway d. maintains the mask seal and monitors chest rise

d

When using the two-person bag-valve-mask procedure, one EMT ventilates the patient while the other: a. suctions the patient and administers CPR b. administers mouth-to-mask ventilation c. inserts the oral or nasopharyngeal airway d. maintains the mask seal and monitors chest rise

d

When ventilating a patient, you should see: a. a return of normal skin color. b. a return of the pulse to a normal rate. c. the chest rise and fall with each ventilation. d. all of the above.

d

When you are reaching for an object, remember to: a. curve your back for comfort. b. avoid reaching more than 5-10 inches in front of your body. c. twist your back while reaching to keep it flexible. d. avoid prolonged reaching when strenuous effort is required.

d

When you arrive at a scene where there has been an industrial exposure, you should request a copy of the SDS for the offending chemical. What is an SDS? a. Symptom diagnosis sheet. b. Symptom disease sheet. c. Safety diagnostic sheet. d. Safety data sheet.

d

Where should you place your hands when using the head tilt/chin-lift maneuver to open an unconscious patient's airway? a. on the nose, with the fingertips pinching it closed, and under the neck b. on the nose, with the fingertips pinching it closed, and on the forehead c. on the forehead, with the other hand under the neck d. on the forehead, with the fingertips of the other hand under the lower jaw

d

Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygen rich blood out to the body tissues? a. right atrium b. right ventricle c. left atrium d. left ventricle

d

Which of the following accurately identifies the three stages of stress? a. Fright, resistance, and exhaustion b. Alarm, resistance, and flight c. Alarm, retaliate, and exhaustion d. Alarm, resistance, and exhaustion

d

Which of the following adjectives is not acceptable when documenting a patient's chest pain? a. Crushing b. Dull c. Squeezing d. All of these adjectives are acceptable

d

Which of the following are functions of the respiratory system? a. respiration b. ventilation c. oxygenation d. all of the above

d

Which of the following assessment procedures would best confirm your suspicion of an abdominal aortic aneurysm? (A) Palpate the abdomen for rebound tenderness. (B) Perform deep palpation of the abdomen. (C) Perform the Markle test. (D) Assess pedal pulses.

d

Which of the following best indicates that a patient is in respiratory failure? (A) Intercostal retractions (B) Difficulty breathing (C) Stridor (D) Shallow tidal volume

d

Which of the following breathing patterns often occur in patients experiencing a stroke or cardiac arrest? a. agonal gasps b. ataxic breathing c. Cheyne-stokes respiration d. all of the above e. none of the above

d

Which of the following cardiac rhythms will an AED not defibrillate? (A) Ventricular fibrillation (VF) (B) Ventricular tachycardia (VT) without a pulse (C) Ventricular tachycardia (VT) with a pulse (D) Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)

d

Which of the following clinical exam findings would best indicate that your patient is in respiratory distress and not respiratory failure? (A) Shallow tidal volume (B) Respiratory rate of 4 breaths per minute (C) Absent respirations (D) Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute

d

Which of the following conditions is most likely during pregnancy? a. Placental abruption b. Placenta previa c. Prolapsed cord d. Preterm labor

d

Which of the following diseases can result in COPD? a. bronchiectasis b. chronic bronchitis c. emphysema d. all of the above

d

Which of the following is NOT used to report LOR? a. AVPU b. Glasgow c. RTS d. SALT

d

Which of the following is a side effect of nitroglycerin? a. hypertension b. drowsiness c. nausea d. headache

d

Which of the following is a sign of inadequate breathing? a. warm, dry skin b. no audible sounds c. equal chest expansion d. accessary muscle use

d

Which of the following is a sign of inadequate breathing? a. warm, dry skin b. no audible sounds c. equal chest expansion d. accessory muscle use

d

Which of the following is not a role or responsibility of the EMT? (A) Serving as a patient advocate (B) Providing administrative support (C) Maintaining vehicle and equipment readiness (D) Providing follow-up medical care

d

Which of the following is not one of the three elements that make up the revised trauma score? a. Glasgow Coma Scale b. Systolic blood pressure c. Respiratory rate d. Blood pressure

d

Which of the following is not one of the three symptoms of cardiac arrest? a. Unresponsive b. Apneic c. Pulseless d. All of these findings would verify cardiac arrest

d

Which of the following is the division point between the upper and lower airway? a. Pharynx b. Oropharynx c. Nasopharynx d. Laryngopharynx

d

Which of the following is the fastest growing age group? a. 70 to 75 b. 75 to 85 c. 65 to 70 d. Over 85

d

Which of the following items would be the most appropriate to increase rescuer visibility while working on a roadway? (A) Full turnout gear (B) Flashlights (C) Hazardous materials protective suit (D) Class 3 safety vest

d

Which of the following oxygen delivery devices is designed to deliver a specific concentration of oxygen based on the adapter and flow rate? a. Nebulizer mask b. Nasal cannula c. Nonrebreather mask d. Venturi mask

d

Which of the following should not be considered if you have a scene where people are consistently having breathing difficulty, but there are no signs of smoke or odor? a. A chemical or biological weapon may have been used at the scene. b. The possibility of a secondary weapon exists near the scene. c. A hazardous material has been released. d. It doesn't matter; respond to the scene anyhow.

d

Which of the following sign or symptom is NOT associated with hypoperfusion? a. nausea b. increased pulse rate c. decreased blood pressure d. diarrhea

d

Which of the following situations is indicative of implied consent? a. You splint the broken arm and leg of a 6-year-old girl with her mother's permission. b. You arrive at the scene of a car crash, and the injured driver says, "Please help my child first." c. You care for a cardiac patient who asks you to help him take a dose of nitroglycerin. d. You provide life support to a man who was found unconscious by bystanders who called EMS.

d

Which of the following statements best describes how to drive an ambulance with due regard? (A) Disregard traffic laws under any condition. (B) Obey all traffic laws and regulations. (C) Drive aggressively in order to assure safety. (D) Disregard certain traffic laws based upon the driving environment.

d

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to evaluating female patients with abdominal pain? (A) You should determine the exact cause of the patient's pain. (B) You should administer oxygen each time. (C) You don't have to evaluate sexual history if the patient is over 60 years old. (D) You should evaluate the patient's defecation and urination habits.

d

Which of the following statements is true regarding the upper respiratory system? a. the upper respiratory tract warms and moistens the air entering the lungs. b. the upper respiratory tract consists of the pharynx, oropharynx and nasopharynx, larynx, and trachea, nose, mouth, and nasal cavity c. the upper respiratory tract is lined with a mucous membrane d. all of the above

d

Which of the following symptoms accompanies acute respiratory distress? a. high BP b. bradypnea c. dry skin d. dizziness e. bradycardia

d

Which of the following types of shock presents with a normal capillary refill time? a. Hypovolemic b. Cardiogenic c. Septic d. Neurogenic

d

Which of the following would NOT be a routine function of the EMT? a. Scene safety b. Spinal immobilization c. Patient assessment d. Rapid diagnosis

d

Which of the following, in an adult patient, meets the Centers for Disease Control Trauma Triage Guidelines for transport to a trauma center? a. GCS of 14 b. Fall of 10 feet c. Amputated finger d. Respirations of 30 per minute

d

Which patient is breathing adequately? a. 3 month old male: respiratory rate, 62/min, using diaphragm and muscles in chest and neck b. 7 year old female: respiratory rate 12/min, irregular rhythm, using diaphragm primarily c. 18 year old male: respiratory rate, 28/min, shallow chest motions d. 43 year old female: respiratory rate, 15/min, regular chest motions

d

You arrive on scene and find a patient whose stomach is distending rhythmically in the appearance of breathing, yet is unconscious. What audible sound might you hear with the patients breathing (assuming there is no fluid in the upper airway)? a. Wheezing b. Crowing c. Gurgling d. Agonal respirations

d

You arrive on scene to find a 70-year-old man complaining of abdominal pain. He said he just vomited bright red blood. He is diaphoretic and pale. The patient may have ____. a. GERD b. gallstones c. appendicitis d. a gastrointestinal hemorrhage

d

You arrive on scene to find a young woman who is having trouble talking. She has hives and is starting to gasp for air. Her friend says she was just stung by a bee. Your immediate actions should include all of the following except ____. a. administer supplemental oxygen b. provide airway support c. administer epinephrine (if your state and local EMS protocols allow) d. assess the bee sting for signs of an infection

d

You respond to a call for a possible overdose. You arrive and find a male unconscious, apneic, with a needle still in his arm and a heart rate of 62. After ensuring scene safety, care should involve ____. a. doing a head-tilt-chin lift, placing an NRB at 15 LPM, and transporting immediately b. intubating and CPR c. inducing vomiting and providing CPR d. possibly administering Narcan, airway support, and manual ventilations

d

You respond to a call for a psychologically disturbed patient in the middle of a mall parking lot. What is the best way to establish rapport with the patient? a. Explain why the story they're telling is wrong b. Avoid eye contact c. Speak loudly to get through to her d. Speak slowly and clearly

d

You respond to a scene where a 16-year-old girl has just experienced a tonic-clonic seizure. Her mother is there, and tells you she has a seizure disorder. What is the medical term you would use to report this patient's condition to the receiving hospital? a. Epileptic patient who is post tonic-clonic seizure b. Epileptic patient who is post focal motor seizure c. Postictal asthmatic d. Postictal epileptic

d

You should NOT be concerned about the following symptoms when you suspect breathing problems in a pediatric patient? a. the patient is breathing at 65 breaths per minute. b. grunting at the end of respirations. c. nasal flaring. d. equal expansion of the lungs.

d

You use your glucose meter on a patient with an altered mental status. The value is 60 mg/dL. The patient could: a. have had a stroke. b. have anxiety. c. be normal. d. have diabetes and hypoglycemia

d

You will obviously not be able to obtain a SAMPLE history from the patient if he is unresponsive. However, you may obtain one from: a. family. b. coworkers. c. friends. d. all of the above.

d

You would determine the mechanism of injury during which stage of the primary assessment? a. Transport priority b. Focused history c. Trauma assessment d. General impression

d

You would locate a patient's carotid pulse by first finding the Adam's apple and then: a. pressing hard on only one side of the patient's neck b. placing one hand gently on each side of the neck c. pressing with your thumb on one side of the neck d. sliding two fingers toward one side of the neck

d

You're called to a home and find an unresponsive male. Family members said he "passed out." You assess the scene to be safe. The next thing you should do is: a. Get a temperature to determine if he has heat stroke. b. Get a blood pressure to determine if it's too low and may have caused him to pass out. c. Check the patient's blood sugar; he might be a diabetic. d. Simultaneously check for a pulse and breathing.

d

You're treating an adult patient who is wearing a nonrebreather. The reservoir bag collapses on inspiration. What action(s) should you take? a. Switch to a nasal cannula. b. Tell the patient to take deeper breaths and blow out harder. c. Tell the patient to relax and breathe slower. d. Make sure the bag is connected to an O2 source and the flow is at least 10 LPM.

d

Your 18-month-old patient is experiencing respiratory distress. Which of the following conditions is NOT a likely cause of the difficulty in breathing? a. a partial foreign body obstruction b. the flu c. epiglottitis d. COPD

d

Your 6-year-old patient is suffering a severe allergic reaction to a bee sting received while playing hide and seek. What is the proper dose of epinephrine autoinjector? a. 0.10 mg b. 0.25 mg c. 0.30 mg d. 0.15 mg

d

Your EMS unit is on scene of a solo motorcycle accident. You have a 38-year-old male who was traveling at a high rate of speed and went off the roadway. Your patient is unconscious, unresponsive, with agonal respirations. Your partner tells firefighters that we're in "the Golden Hour" (also called the Golden Period). What is the definition of the Golden Hour? a. The Golden Hour refers to the time from injury to arrival on scene. b. The Golden Hour refers to the time from dispatch to definitive care. c. The Golden Hour refers to the time from dispatch to arrival on scene. d. The Golden Hour refers to the time from injury to definitive care.

d

Your assault victim was stabbed in the left side of the chest. With each breath, bubbles will appear at the wound's surface then disappear with the next inhalation. How would you classify this injury? a. Stab wound b. First-degree emergency c. Non-sucking chest wound d. Sucking chest wound

d

Your assessment of a patient involved in an industrial accident reveals purple discoloration of the face and neck, bulging eyes, and distended neck veins. You suspect: a. hemothorax. b. cardiac tamponade. c. aortic dissection. d. traumatic asphyxia.

d

Your medical director asks you to assist in an audit to determine how often EMTs use oropharyngeal airways and how often they are successful. This is an example of (A) off-line medical direction. (B) standing orders. (C) medical oversight. (D) continuous quality improvement.

d

Your patient complains of a rapid onset of fever, fatigue, and sore throat with difficulty swallowing. You note that he is sitting forward, drooling, and has inspiratory stridor. His lung sounds are clear. Based on this information, he is most likely suffering from (A) asthma. (B) acute pulmonary edema. (C) pneumonia. (D) epiglottitis.

d

Your patient complains of severe pain to his left hand after spilling an unidentified solvent at a local auto-body shop. As you are treating him outside the shop, away from the spill, you see that his hand is turning bright red. There appears to be some wetness from the substance, both on his hand and his pants. What do you do next? a. Assess airway, place on high flow O2. Wrap patient in clean, dry, sterile gauze and transport code three. b. Have a bystander check to find out the name and nature of the chemical as this will determine your treatment protocol. c. Wrap the hand in wet gauze, and prepare for transport. While in transport use saline to dilute the substance still on his pants. Monitor closely for possible airway involvement. d. Use the coiled garden hose in front of the shop to douse the area with a gentle but constant stream of water. Do this while the patient strips off all clothes that many have been contaminated and asses those areas for burn as well. Wash areas for at least 20 minutes.

d

Your patient has a blood pressure of 152/96. This patient would be considered: a. normotensive. b. hyperthermic. c. hypotensive. d. hypertensive.

d

Your patient has experienced a spontaneous abortion or miscarriage. You should: a. remove any tissues from the vagina b. discard any expelled tissues c. place a sanitary napkin in the vagina d. treat the patient for shock

d

Your patient is a 33 year old female with a suspected spinal cord injury. After you have immobilized her to a long board, she vomits. What should you do? a. reassess her vital signs b. ask her what she last ate c. remove the board and suction the airway d. tilt the board to clear the airway

d

Your patient is a 37 year old female who has been in a minor accident. The patient is alert and oriented, and baseline vital signs are pulse, 76 and regular; respirations, 16/min and unlabored; and BP, 118/78. When you check her vital signs 15 minutes later, you find that her pulse rate is now 92 and her respirations are 24/min and shallow. You should: a. continue to reassess her every 15 minutes b. call for medical direction to treat her dyspnea c. administer oxygen by nonrebreather mask d. treat for shock and reassess every 5 minutes

d

Your patient is a 62 year old male with a history of heart disease. He is experiencing chest pain. Your first action should be to: a. place the pads for the AED on his chest b. begin CPR while preparing the AED c. ask him if he has taken his nitroglycerin, and if not, offer to assist him d. place him in a comfortable position and administer high flow oxygen

d

Your patient is a 78 year old female with a history of heart disease. While you are transporting her to the hospital, her level of consciousness decreases. You feel a carotid pulse but no radial pulse. What should you do? a. request permission to administer nitroglycerin b. begin CPR and request advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) services c. defibrillate the patient with an AED d. assess her ABCs and maintain her airway

d

Your patient is a 8 year old female, who had a single, brief seizure at school. Her mother arrives at the same time you do and reports that she has seizures often, and is under medical treatment. What should you do? a. request ALS and law enforcement backup so you can transport the child b. administer a dose of the child's prescribed seizure control medication c. maintain ABCs, monitor vital signs, and transport the patient immediately d. ensure a patent airway and request medical direction regarding transport

d

Your patient is a newborn. You should consider the possibility of breathing difficulty if the respiratory rate is: a. 40/min b. 50/min c. 60/min d. 70/min

d

Your patient is behaving abnormally but refuses treatment after falling down a flight of stairs. Before transporting the patient without consent, you should: a. document the presence of any injury b. ask bystanders to serve as witnesses c. have bystanders help talk him into care d. contact medical direction for advice

d

Your patient is fully immobilized on a backboard when he starts to vomit into his airway. You should (A) suction the airway with a portable suction unit. (B) ventilate the patient with 100 percent oxygen. (C) unstrap the patient and roll him on his side. (D) roll the backboard, and the patient, on its side.

d

Your patient is restless, anxious, and complaining of thirst. She exhibits increased heart rate and pale, clammy skin. You should do all the following EXCEPT: a. maintain an open airway and provide oxygen b. elevate her leg if not contraindicated c. cover the patient with a blanket to keep her warm d. give the patient small amounts of liquid to drink

d

Your patient is walking around, anxious and disoriented, after an assault. You note that he has an obviously fractured left humerus, a weak and rapid radial pulse, and his skin is cool, pale, and diaphoretic. You should first (A) assess for other injuries. (B) manually stabilize the injured arm. (C) splint the humerus with a sling and swathe. (D) manually stabilize the cervical spine.

d

Your patient presents complaining of lower quadrant abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She shows you a pad soaked with about 50 milliliters of blood. Her heart rate is 82 and regular, her respiratory rate is 14 and nonlabored, and her blood pressure is 124/88 mm Hg. You should (A) pack her vagina with gauze to control the bleeding. (B) administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. (C) control the bleeding with direct pressure. (D) place a pad over the vagina to absorb any blood.

d

Your patient presents sitting on a park bench conscious and alert, though confused to person, place, and time. You should (A) administer oral glucose. (B) provide manual cervical spine stabilization. (C) obtain a set of vital signs. (D) assess her breathing.

d

Your patient presents unconscious with a gunshot wound to the thigh just above the knee. The wound is spurting bright red blood. You can't control the bleeding with direct pressure. You should (A) perform full spinal immobilization and transport. (B) elevate the patient's leg. (C) apply a pressure bandage. (D) apply a tourniquet

d

Your patient presents with a history of fever, night sweats, and malaise. You note that he is coughing up spots of blood. You should (A) administer oxygen. (B) obtain a full set of vital signs. (C) listen to his lungs. (D) put on a HEPA mask.

d

Your patient presents with a rash on both hands after being exposed to poison oak. She has an allergy to peanuts and has her epinephrine autoinjector. You should (A) administer oxygen. (B) administer her epinephrine autoinjector. (C) have the patient self-administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl). (D) listen to her lung sounds.

d

Your patient presents with an acute onset of right-sided weakness and slurred speech. The symptoms go away during transport. The patient has most likely suffered a (A) syncopal episode. (B) seizure. (C) stroke. (D) transient ischemic attack

d

Your patient presents with fractures to her right femur and tibia/fibula on her right leg after falling off a second-story balcony. Her heart rate is 94, her blood pressure is 128/78 mm Hg, her respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute with good tidal volume, and her pulse oximetry is 97 percent on room air. You should (A) assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. (B) apply the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG). (C) apply a traction splint. (D) transport immediately.

d

Your patient presents with labored respirations, peripheral cyanosis, and altered mental status. You should immediately (A) suction the airway. (B) determine a pulse rate. (C) administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. (D) assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask.

d

Your patient presents with pain and tenderness over his lower right anterior rib cage after being kicked repeatedly during an assault. His lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. His blood pressure is 92/40 mm Hg, his heart rate is 102 beats per minute, his respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute with good tidal volume, and his pulse oximetry is 93 percent on room air. He has most likely suffered an injury to his (A) lung. (B) spleen. (C) kidney. (D) liver.

d

Your patient presents with signs and symptoms consistent with ischemic stroke. Of the following, which would be the most critical information to relay to the receiving facility? (A) Secondary exam findings (B) The patient's medication list (C) The Glasgow coma scale score (D) The time of onset of stroke symptoms

d

Your patient's abnormal behavior may be due to a medical or traumatic condition. These problems include: a. low blood sugar b. lack of oxygen c. inadequate blood to the brain d. all of the above

d

Your patient, a 49 year old female with a history of heart disease, has collapsed in her home. What should you do first? a. administer supplemental high flow oxygen b. find out if the patient has taken nitroglycerin c. insert an oropharyngeal airway adjunct d. open the airway and assess breathing

d

Your patient, the victim of a car accident, has an obvious injury to her right leg. You should splint the injury before moving her unless: a. transport time is less than 15 minutes b. the patient is in severe pain c. bones are protruding through the skin d. life threatening injuries are present

d

Your trauma patient has a mechanism of injury consistent with a possible spinal injury and has physiologic symptoms of decreased sensation below the belly button. How should the patient be packaged for transport? a. In the high Fowler position b. In the left lateral recumbent position c. In the prone position d. With the C-spine immobilized

d

_____ is permission from the patient, and is required prior to any treatment or action by the EMT. a. Scope of care b. Medical direction c. Abandonment d. Consent

d

There are few antidotes for a number of poisons available. If there is no antidote, what is the treatment goal for a poisoning? a. Removal of poison b. Eliminating the target organ c. Treatment of symptoms d. Limiting the absorption

d.

Which of the following is a symptom of respiratory distress? a. retractions b. tripod position c. nose flaring d. sweating e. all of the above

e

Cricoid pressure is used to minimize the air that enters the __________ during positive pressure ventilation. a. trachea b. stomach c. lungs d. stoma

b

Critical thinking is not an analytical process that helps someone think through a problem in an organized manner. a. True b. False

b

Damage to the spinal cord can isolate a part of the body from the brain, but function is usually restored quickly. a. True b. False

b

Dull and/or persistent abdominal pain is usually caused by _______ organs. a. lacerated b. solid c. hollow d. reproductive

b

One of the first and most significant signs of head injury is hyperventilation. a. True b. False

b

One of the major functions of the large intestine involves removal of old blood cells. a. True b. False

b

The earth's atmosphere and the air that we breathe contain about _______% oxygen. a. 89 b. 21 c. 2 d. 14

b

There are four types of muscle tissue: skeletal, cardiac, smooth, and involuntary. a. True b. False

b

When assessing an unconscious medical patient, the most important thing that you should look for is a medical identification device. a. True b. False

b

Your patient tells you that he just can't seem to catch his breath. You would describe the nature of the illness as: a. chest pain b. respiratory distress c. apnea d. emphysema

b

As an EMT, what do you suspect when a patient has coffee-ground emesis? a. gallstones b. kidney stones c. gastrointestinal (GI) bleed d. appendicitis

c

It is difficult to diagnose food poisoning in the field due to its wide range of symptoms and the time it takes to make the patient ill. What is not a type of food borne illness? a. Encephalitis b. Salmonella c. Champylobacter d. Escherichia coli (E. coli)

1

An easy way to remember what you are trying to find when you assess a suspected injured area of the patient's body is by the memory aid: a. DCAP-BTLS. b. OPQRST. c. AVPU. d. AEIOU-TIPS.

a

During a HazMat incident, in which zone should EMS set up? a. Cold zone b. Hot zone c. Warm zone d. Luke warm zone

a

Routes of entry for accidental poisoning are the same as for allergic reactions. What is the most common route of entry for a poisoning? a. Ingestion b. Absorption c. Inhalation d. Injection

a

Seizures are the result of irregular electrical activity. a. True b. False

a

"Adequate breathing" means breathing that is sufficient to support life. a. True b. False

a

"Indigestion" or pain just below the sternum may be an indication of: a. myocardial infarction. b. ileocecal perforation. c. bowel obstruction. d. dyspnea.

a

"Is this the right dose?" is asked as part of the "five rights" of drug administration. a. True b. False

a

A 10-year-old asthmatic female presents with altered mental status, head-bobbing, and peripheral cyanosis. She is breathing 60 times per minute. There are inspiratory and expiratory wheezes in all lung fields, and her capillary refill is 5 seconds. You should first (A) assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. (B) administer humidified oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. (C) place the patient in a sitting position. (D) ask the mother whether she has used her metered-dose inhaler.

a

A 12-year-old female patient is experiencing an allergic reaction from a bee sting. If this allergic reaction progresses to anaphylactic shock, what physiological mechanism could result in the patient's death? a. Capillaries seep fluid b. Widespread dilation of blood vessels c. Bronchoconstriction d. Lack of perfusion due to mucus in alveoli

a

A 17 year old male patient is experiencing difficulty breathing and abdominal pain after being struck with a bat in his left lower quadrant. He is alert, cool, and diaphoretic, with a tachycardic heart rate. You should provide oxygen using: a. nonrebreather mask at 15 L/min b. nasal cannula at 6 L/min c. nasal cannula at 2 L/min d. nonrebreather mask at 8 L/min

a

A 2 year old male is in respiratory failure when he has: a. altered mental status and a breathing rate of 68 per min b. limp muscle tone and weak or absent distal pulses c. nasal flaring and mottled skin color d. breathing rate of 6 per min and heart rate of 50 per min

a

A 2-month-old infant presents in his crib, pulseless with agonal respirations. You should immediately (A) note the physical appearance of the patient and his position in the crib. (B) declare the room a crime scene and leave the infant in place. (C) ask the parents whether the patient has a cardiac history. (D) leave the patient as found and call the police

a

A 22-year-old male presents conscious and alert, supine on the ground, after driving a dirt bike into a fence at a high rate of speed. You note that his shirt is torn open and that he has suffered an abdominal evisceration. You should immediately (A) have your partner stabilize the patient's cervical spine. (B) expose the patient's abdomen. (C) cover the eviscerated organs with moist gauze. (D) administer oxygen.

a

A 24-year-old college student is unconscious in bed. There is a strong odor of alcohol on his breath, and his skin is cool, pale, and diaphoretic. His heart rate is 114, and his blood pressure is 126/90 mm Hg. He is breathing 14 times per minute with normal tidal volume. You should (A) position the patient left lateral recumbent. (B) ventilate with a bag-valve mask. (C) administer oral glucose. (D) request police assistance.

a

A 24-year-old female has a gunshot wound on the right side of the back. No exit wound is visible. She is awake but confused. Her skin is pale and diaphoretic with cyanosis noted to the oral mucosa. Breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. There is distention in the jugular vein. Blood pressure is 90/78 mmHg, heart rate is 124 beats per minute, and respiratory rate is 28 per minute and labored. The cardiac monitor displays sinus tachycardia. What condition is present with this patient? a. Pericardial tamponade b. Hemothorax c. Lacerated aorta d. Tension pneumothorax

a

A 30 year old female is experiencing labor. Which of the follow questions should you ask when deciding whether to begin immediate transport or prepare for imminent delivery? a. How close are your labor contractions? b. What do your contractions feel like? c. Are you taking prenatal vitamins? d. Who is your doctor?

a

A 32-year-old male is experiencing abdominal pain and weakness. The patient informs you that he has Addison's disease due to steroid use as a teenager. No life-threatening conditions are noted to the airway, breathing, or circulation. Vital signs are pulse 110 beats per minute, respirations 16 per minute, blood pressure 110/72 mmHg, and SpO2 98% on room air. What would you do? a. Check the blood glucose level. b. Contact ALS. c. Administer Oral Glucose. d. Administer Activated Charcoal.

a

A 32-year-old male was complaining of a severe, crushing feeling in the center of his chest and shortness of breath that began while he was mowing his lawn 45 minutes before you arrived. He is now only responding to painful stimuli. His minute ventilation is still adequate, his pulse oximeter reads 95% on room air, and you find his skin to be pale, cool, and diaphoretic. What should you do first? a. 12- 15 liters oxygen by nonrebreather. b. 325 mg aspirin. c. 4-6 liters oxygen by nasal cannula. d. Sublingual nitroglycerin.

a

A 35-year-old male says that there are people "out to get him." He asks if you hear the voices, too. You should (A) focus on reality, such as people in the room. (B) agree with what the patient hears. (C) forcefully tell him that voices are not real. (D) restrain the patient.

a

A 35-year-old man has severed his left hand with an electric saw. There is minimal bleeding from the distal arm. Which of the following describes the most appropriate care? (A) Use direct pressure to control bleeding; wrap the severed hand in plastic and place on ice. (B) Use a tourniquet to control bleeding; wrap the severed hand in plastic and place on ice. (C) Use a pressure point and elevation to control bleeding; wrap the severed hand with cool, wet towels. (D) Use direct pressure to control bleeding; place the severed hand into an ice bath.

a

A 36-year-old pregnant female is experiencing unusually painful cramps when you arrive. She tells you she has 2 kids, has had 3 miscarriages, and is 6 months pregnant. What is her GPA? a. 6/2/3 b. 6/3/2 c. 6/3/3 d. 5/2/3

a

A 4-year-old is in cardiac arrest. You don't have pediatric AED/defibrillation pads with you. You should (A) use adult defibrillation pads. (B) not attach the AED to the patient. (C) immediately begin transport to the emergency department. (D) cut the adult pads to child size.

a

A 4-year-old patient presents supine on a kitchen floor. You determine that he is pulseless and apneic. You and your partner should immediately (A) begin CPR at a ratio of 15 compressions to 2 breaths. (B) ventilate the patient once every 5 seconds. (C) begin CPR, compressing the chest at least 1 inch. (D) attach an automated external defibrillator (AED) and analyze the heart rhythm.

a

A condition where excessive fluid backs up into the lungs or other regions of the body as a result of inadequate pumping of the heart is called: a. congestive heart failure. b. left ventricle compromise. c. pulmonary edema. d. atherosclerosis.

a

A 47-year-old male experiences a rapid onset of chest discomfort that he describes as "stabbing" in between his shoulder blades. He is pale and diaphoretic, and he feels faint. His blood pressure is 102/64 mm Hg, his breathing rate is 20 breaths per minute, and his heart rate is 120 beats per minute. Which of the following procedures would be most beneficial? (A) Assess for bilateral radial pulses. (B) Assess for pedal edema. (C) Auscultate lung sounds. (D) Palpate the area for tenderness

a

A 48-year-old male is complaining of chest pain and does have a prescription for nitroglycerin. Medical direction gives you permission to administer the aforementioned drug, so long as no contraindications are met. What finding would prevent you from administering nitro? a. Patient has used erectile dysfunction (ED) medication within the last 48 hours b. BP (Blood pressure) less than 110/70 c. BP greater than 130/90 d. The patient has a previous medical history of asthma

a

A 49-year-old patient complains of an intense pain between his shoulder blades radiating to his lower back. 10 minutes before you arrived, while the patient was eating, pain began and has been constant. He rates the pain as a 10 out of 10. It is a sharp, tearing pain. He has no significant medical history. Blood pressure is 130/76 mm Hg in the right arm and 78/48 mm Hg in the left arm. Radial pulse in his right arm is 98 beats per minute and regular, and respiratory rate is 20 per minute and non-labored. What condition is this patient suffering from? a. Aortic dissection b. Myocardial infarction c. Angina pectoris d. Congestive heart failure

a

A 55-year-old male presents awake and alert, complaining of a sudden, severe headache. It's located directly behind his right eye and began while he was mowing his lawn. His heart rate is 72, his blood pressure is 180/120 mm Hg, and his respiratory rate is 12 breaths per minute with adequate tidal volume. He sees his physician every year, denies any past medical history, and takes no medications. His hypertension is most likely secondary to (A) increased intracranial pressure. (B) chronic hypertension. (C) acute myocardial infarction. (D) heat stroke.

a

A 6-year-old female presents with a laceration to her bicep that is spurting blood. You should immediately (A) apply direct pressure. (B) elevate her arm. (C) apply a tourniquet. (D) administer oxygen.

a

A 64-year-old female has just collapsed in cardiac arrest. You are alone. What should you do after giving two ventilations? a. Analyze the rhythm, and deliver a shock if indicated. b. Begin chest compressions for one minute. c. Analyze the rhythm, and begin chest compressions. d. Call medical control, and begin chest compressions.

a

A 64-year-old female presents with an acute onset of altered mental status. She has a heart rate of 32, a blood pressure reading of 70/30 mm Hg, and respirations of 16 per minute with normal tidal volume. You suspect an accidental medication overdose. She has most likely overdosed on (A) a beta blocker. (B) insulin. (C) nitroglycerin. (D) aspirin.

a

A 64-year-old female with a history of congestive heart failure has a sudden onset of shortness of breath. She is alert, with rapid and deep respirations and cool, pale, and diaphoretic skin. You auscultate rales (crackles) bilaterally. You should (A) administer continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP). (B) administer oxygen via nasal cannula. (C) administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. (D) determine the patient's blood pressure.

a

A 65-year-old female describes waking up from sleep because she says, "I felt like I was being smothered while I was lying down." Lung auscultation reveals rales (crackles) to the bases bilaterally. Based on this information, she is most likely suffering from (A) acute pulmonary edema. (B) pneumonia. (C) emphysema. (D) pulmonary embolism.

a

A 68-year-old male states that his "heart is beating really fast." He has a weak, irregular radial pulse of 190 and a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute with adequate tidal volume. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and heart attack. He takes an aspirin a day and has been prescribed nitroglycerin. You should (A) administer oxygen. (B) assist the patient with his nitroglycerin. (C) administer aspirin. (D) determine his blood pressure.

a

A 7-year-old presents conscious with a partial foreign body airway obstruction. She suddenly becomes unresponsive. You should (A) administer 30 chest compressions. (B) perform five back blows (slaps). (C) check a pulse. (D) deliver abdominal thrusts.

a

A 74-year-old female presents in her bed, unresponsive to painful stimulus. Family reports the patient has had flu-like symptoms for a week but has refused to see a doctor. Her pulse is 110 and regular, her blood pressure is 70 by palpation, and her respirations are 28 and shallow. Her skin is cool, cyanotic around her lips, and dry. Which of the following best describes your treatment? (A) Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask and oxygen; keep the patient supine. (B) Administer high-flow oxygen with a nonrebreather mask; place the patient in a sitting position. (C) Expose the patient to promote cooling; assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask and high-flow oxygen. (D) Administer low-flow oxygen with a nasal cannula; place the patient in recovery position.

a

A 78-year-old female has a sudden episode of confusion and dizziness. Family reports the patient can speak clearly but her words "don't make sense." She has a history of hypertension and Type 2 diabetes. Her skin is pink, warm, and dry. Her blood pressure is 146/86 mm Hg. You suspect that the patient is experiencing (A) a stroke. (B) diabetic ketoacidosis. (C) insulin shock. (D) a hypertensive emergency.

a

A bacterial infection within the peritoneal cavity is called: a. peritonitis. b. pain in the abdomen. c. sickle cell anemia. d. psoriasis.

a

A blow to the chest that could cause fractures to the ribs, the sternum, and cartilage is called: a. blunt trauma. b. penetrating object. c. compression. d. closed chest.

a

A common source of airway obstruction is the tongue. It falls back and occludes the _________. a. Pharynx b. Larynx c. Trachea d. Nasopharynx

a

A condition characterized by high blood pressure and high protein count in the urine that usually occurs after the 20th week of pregnancy is: a. Preeclampsia b. Eclampsia c. Posteclampsia d. Ectoeclampsia

a

A patient with either type of diabetes has issue with what organ secreting what hormone? a. Pancreas and insulin b. Pancreas and glucagon c. Adrenal medulla and norepinephrine d. Adrenal medulla and epinephrine

a

A driver has been struck on the driver's side door by a second motor vehicle moving at a high rate of speed. He is awake, confused, and breathing fast. There's profuse bleeding from a large laceration to his left forearm. You can palpate a weak, fast carotid pulse only. What should you do next? (A) Control the bleeding. (B) Administer high-flow oxygen. (C) Assist his ventilations with a bag-valve mask. (D) Rapidly extricate him from the vehicle.

a

A gurgling sound heard with artificial ventilation is a sign that a. the patient must be suctioned immediately b. supplemental oxygen should be added to the gas valve mask c. the airway is most likely open, patent, and clear d. the patient is trying to communicate with you

a

A gurgling sound heard with artificial ventilation is a sign that: a. the patient must be suctioned immediately b. supplemental oxygen should be added to the gas-valve mask. c. the airway is most likely open, patent, and clear d. the patient is trying to communicate with you

a

A male patient who was stabbed in the leg with a knife is losing a lot of blood. If this patient begins exhibiting symptoms of shock, what type of shock is he most likely experiencing? a. Hypovolemic b. Hypervolemic c. Distributive d. Cardiologic

a

A multiple trauma patient does not have a radial pulse but has a carotid pulse. You should suspect... a. hypoperfusion. b. an injury to the aortic arch. c. bilateral extremity fractures. d. pre-existing vascular problems in his extremities.

a

A nasal cannula can be run at how many LPM? a. 1 to 6 LPM b. 5 to 10 LPM c. 1 to 15 LPM d. 1 to 8 LPM

a

A normal heart rate for a newborn is typically ____ than that of a one year old. a. faster b. It depends on the weight of the baby. c. the same d. slower

a

A patient has a laceration within the chest cavity along with a collapsed lung and could be in shock. This patient could have: a. hemothorax. b. impaled object. c. pneumothorax. d. hemopneumothorax.

a

A patient has an open wound to the abdomen that is large and deep, and the organs protrude through the wound opening. This is known as evisceration. a. True b. False

a

A patient has been struck over the head during an assault. He responds to pain by moaning only. His arms are slightly flexed which increases with a sternal rub. His eyes remain closed throughout your exam. How would he score on the Glasgow Coma Scale? (A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10

a

A patient has left sided heart failure. What kind of edema would the patient have? a. Pulmonary edema b. Systemic edema c. Pedal edema d. Lower back edema

a

A patient is having difficulty breathing at a dialysis center. A nurse reports that the patient had not yet begun her dialysis session when she became short of breath. The patient is alert and using accessory muscles to breathe. You auscultate crackles in both lung fields. Her blood pressure is 170/112 mm Hg, and her heart rate is 90 beats per minute and irregular. She is breathing 22 times a minute. Her skin is pale, warm, and diaphoretic. You should (A) sit her up and administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. (B) lay her supine and administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. (C) place her in a semi-Fowler's position and assist ventilations with a bag valve mask and oxygen. (D) sit her up and assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask and oxygen.

a

A patient is in greater danger of severe internal bleeding from fracturing which bone? a. pelvis b. rib c. femur d. tibia

a

A patient presents conscious and alert with a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute. You auscultate crackles up to the middle lobes of both lungs, and her skin is clammy with peripheral cyanosis. She has a medical history of asthma and left-sided heart failure. The best way to correct the patient's underlying problem is to (A) administer continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP). (B) initiate bag-valve-mask ventilation. (C) administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. (D) assist the patient with her metered-dose inhaler.

a

A patient presents with agonal breathing. While ventilating this patient with a bag-valve mask, you should (A) give one breath every 5 seconds. (B) match his respiratory rate and "assist" ventilations. (C) give each breath over 2 seconds. (D) administer enough tidal volume to raise the chest 3 inches.

a

A patient who has suffered an MI to the left ventricle, will have impaired blood flow to what structure initially? a. Aorta b. Pulmonary arteries c. Brain d. Coronary arteries of the heart

a

A patient who is found unconscious after swimming in shallow water may have experienced ____. a. breath-holding syncope b. a near drowning episode c. fatigue syndrome d. decompression sickness

a

A patient with chronic renal failure complains of dyspnea with exertion. You auscultate crackles at the bases of both lungs and note pedal edema. He has a pulse rate of 112/minute and irregular, a blood pressure of 172/100 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 20/minute and deep. The pulse oximeter records 90 percent. You should (A) administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute (LPM). (B) lay the patient supine. (C) apply an AED. (D) administer 324 milligrams of chewable aspirin.

a

A patient with diminished breath sounds on one side of the chest may have : a. lung collapse. b. intercostal hematoma. c. pulmonary distention. d. cardiac tamponade.

a

An alternative to using a pneumatic anti-shock garment for a possible pelvic injury is using the pelvic wrap. a. True b. False

a

A trauma patient's left hand is stuck between rollers on a conveyor belt. It takes 30 minutes to extricate. Evaluation during extrication shows delayed capillary refill distal to the injury. Post extrication shows rapid capillary refill distal to the injury deformity mid-palm. There are no obvious fractures, no lacerations, and minor swelling. What is NOT a crush injury complication? a. No injury at all b. Compression of tissues c. Compartment syndrome d. Fractures

a

A woman has just given birth. The newborn has a respiratory rate of 40 and a pulse rate of 90 beats per minute. You should (A) provide blow-by oxygen. (B) begin chest compressions and reassess in 30 seconds. (C) assist ventilations with a pediatric bag-valve mask. (D) suction the mouth and nose.

a

A woman suffering an allergic reaction following a bee sting would be considered a medical patient. a. True b. False

a

About half of the population over the age of 65 has arthritis. a. True b. False

a

According to patients, what is the portion of contact with EMS they fear the most? a. the ride in the ambulance b. being moved on the stretcher c. being backboarded or having a splint put on d. having procedures done on them

a

According to the American Heart Association, at least ________ of air should be delivered to the patient when using an adult bag valve mask. a. 800 mL b. 1000 mL c. 80 L d. 8L

a

Activated charcoal is manufactured to have more ____ than ordinary charcoal. a. surface area b. expandability c. ions d. volume

a

Administering excessive tidal volume with a bag-valve-mask device can result in (A) decreased preload. (B) hypertension. (C) increased cardiac output. (D) decreased minute volume.

a

After applying a pressure dressing to a wound, you should regularly assess distal pulse. a. True b. False

a

After being lifted on a gurney into the ambulance, your patient no longer wants to be transported to the hospital. He is alert, appears not to be under the influence of alcohol or drugs, and understands the ramifications of refusing transport. However, you feel that the man has a significant underlying condition and believe that he should go to the hospital. Which of the following statements regarding this situation is correct? (A) A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treatment at any time. (B) Any patient who refuses EMS treatment must legally sign a patient refusal form. (C) The best approach is to transport him to the hospital. (D) Once inside the ambulance, he cannot legally refuse EMS transport.

a

After three days of diffuse abdominal pain, a 21-year-old patient states that the pain is now located in her lower right quadrant. This is most consistent with (A) appendicitis. (B) intestinal obstruction. (C) gastroenteritis. (D) cholecystitis.

a

After you have finished performing life-saving interventions, you would perform a reassessment. a. True b. False

a

Agonal respirations are: a. slow, shallow, and gasping. b. deep and full. c. regular, but rapid. d. rapid and irregular.

a

Air entering the chest cavity from an open chest wound is dangerous because it can: a. increase pressure in the chest and collapse a lung. b. overinflate the lung. c. increase pressure in the chest, putting pressure on the diaphragm. d. bring in contaminants and cause infection.

a

All of the following are considered acquired diseases or conditions EXCEPT: a. cleft palate. b. COPD. c. AIDS. d. traumatic spinal cord injury.

a

All of the following are reasons that infants and children are prone to respiratory difficulties EXCEPT that they: a. breathe faster than adults b. have smaller air passages c. use their diaphragm rather than their intercostal muscles d. are prone to respiratory infections

a

All of the following are signs of adequate breathing EXCEPT ____. a. Breathing limited to abdominal muscles. b. Air moving in and out of the nose and mouth. c. Equal expansion of both sides of the chest d. Absence of blue / grey skin coloration

a

All of the following are signs of difficult breathing EXCEPT: a. abdominal pain b. restlessness c. retractions d. unequal breath sounds

a

Although legal, alcohol is still considered a potent drug. a. True b. False

a

Always suspect a spine injury whenever you suspect a skull or brain injury. a. True b. False

a

An "explosion" may occur if oxygen under pressure comes in contact with: a. a petroleum-based adhesive, such as adhesive tape. b. a water-based lubricant. c. carbon monoxide, such as cigarette smoke. d. nitroglycerin paste.

a

An EMT may use different approaches to thinking through problems and keep up-to date with new information on diseases and the conditions that sometimes accompany those diseases. This is called: a. a foundation of knowledge. b. hypotheses. c. making decisions. d. technology.

a

An EMT needs direction from medical control or a standing order to administer nitroglycerin. What should you immediately note as a contraindication for the administration of this drug? a. patient taking medication for erectile dysfunction b. patient reports burning sensation under the tongue with previous administrations c. patient with systolic blood pressure over 100 d. patient diagnosed with angina

a

An airway obstruction can occur from burns, swelling of the tissues, or blunt trauma. a. True b. False

a

An alcoholic patient complaining of pain that is radiating from below his sternum to his back may be suffering from pancreatitis. a. True b. False

a

As the head of the Quality Assurance Committee for your service, you review all patient care reports before passing them on to the medical director. You note the following narrative on one trip sheet: "Patient states that he cannot move his bowls and has had abdominal pain for three weeks. Patient also states that he has had a fever and took two Tylenol tablets this morning, but then became nauseated." With regard to this report, what would you advise the paramedic to do? a. Get a dictionary and look up any questionable words when documenting. b. Have the EMT-B do all of the documenting. c. Only document what you know how to spell. d. Make up abbreviations for any words he is unsure of how to spell.

a

As you are inserting an oropharyngeal airway, your patient begins to gag. You should: a. immediately remove the airway and prepare to suction. b. apply cricoid pressure to prevent vomiting. c. continue placing the airway, as the gagging will cease when it is completely inserted. d. roll the patient on his side and continue inserting the airway

a

As you treat the patient for hypothermia, it is not good to: a. Rub the muscles of the patient to facilitate warming via friction. b. Prevent further heat loss, for altered patients, wrap them in blankets and let the body warm itself up until you can assist further with heat packs. For alert patients, actively warm them up. c. Provide oxygen and ventilations if necessary. d. Not allow local hypothermic skin to rub on objects.

a

At the beginning of each shift, why must the paramedic complete an equipment checklist? a. Completion reduces the risk of liability associated with providing prehospital medical services. b. Most medical insurance agencies require a copy of the checklist for ongoing liability coverage c. Checklists are required by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration. d. Completion is mandated by the US Department of Health and Human.

a

At the scene of a motor vehicle crash, what motor vehicle safety system is a hazard to personnel? a. an airbag that has not deployed b. an airbag that has deployed c. the passive restraint system d. the seat belts

a

At what age do children have all of their primary teeth? a. 36 months b. 30 months c. 2 years old d. 24 months

a

Avian flu, a disease that is found in poultry, can also affect humans. a. True b. False

a

Because it is usually extremely difficult or impossible to be sure exactly how much of a poison a child has ingested, always assume a lethal amount. a. True b. False

a

Because your dialysis patient has a fistula in the right arm, you should take blood pressure in the left arm. a. True b. False

a

Before administering nitroglycerin to a patient, you should ask if he has taken _______ recently. a. Viagra b. Proventil c. aspirin d. Valium

a

Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called: a. arteries. b. venules. c. veins. d. capillaries.

a

Bones are living tissue, and bleed when injured. A simple tibia-fibula fracture can result in blood loss of: a. 500 cc. b. 1,000 cc. c. 1,500 cc d. 100 cc.

a

Both pneumonia and aortic aneurysms can cause older patients to complain of chest pain. a. True b. False

a

Botulism is caused by exposure to a bacterial toxin. a. True b. False

a

Bradycardia is not unusual among the elderly a. True b. False

a

Bronchospasm, bronchial edema, and increased mucus production in the lower airways best describe the pathophysiology of (A) asthma. (B) pneumonia. (C) chronic bronchitis. (D) emphysema

a

Bullets, knives, and various other objects that penetrate the chest wall and cause damaging internal injuries are called penetrating objects. a. True b. False

a

Caring for an amputated hand includes (A) flushing the hand with sterile saline to clean it. (B) placing the hand directly on ice. (C) transporting the hand separate from the patient. (D) keeping the hand warm.

a

Chest pain caused by a narrowed coronary artery that cannot supply enough oxygen to a portion of the heart during exertion is called: a. angina pectoris. b. congestive heart failure. c. myocardial infarction. d. pulmonary edema.

a

Choose a correct statement about disposable gloves. a. Gloves protect both you and the patient from the transmission of infectious diseases. b. You should remove gloves by grasping the ends of the fingers and pulling them off right side out. c. It is not necessary to wear gloves when suctioning or ventilating a patient with a bag-valve-mask device. d. One pair of gloves is sufficient for any call, no matter how many patients there are.

a

Choose a correct statement about patient confidentiality. a. A patient must sign a written release before any confidential information can be disclosed. b. Patients who are cared for in a public place lose their right to confidentiality. c. The right to confidentiality does not apply to minors or to wards of the state. d. The patient who signs a statement releasing confidential information relinquishes all rights to privacy.

a

Clearing a severe airway obstruction in an infant differs from the techniques used for children and adults in that: a. the rescuer alternates back blows and chest thrusts. b. blind finger sweeps are performed because the airway is too small to visualize obstructions. c. abdominal thrusts are not as deep. d. the infant is held upside-down during the maneuvers.

a

Common symptoms of a patient in cardiac compromise include: a. difficulty breathing and chest pain. b. cool, dry skin. c. warm, dry skin. d. all of the above

a

Compared to an adult, a child's liver and spleen are more susceptible to injury from blunt force trauma because the (A) liver and spleen are less protected by the rib cage. (B) abdominal wall has a thicker layer of fat. (C) thorax is more pliable. (D) abdominal organs are more fragile.

a

Cooling that affects the entire body is called general cooling, or hypothermia. a. True b. False

a

Drugs, nicotine, and alcohol can pass from the mother's bloodstream to the fetus. a. True b. False

a

EMTs should never try to determine the specific cause of a patient's vaginal bleeding. a. True b. False

a

Emphysema, chronic bronchitis, and many undetermined respiratory illnesses are classified as: a. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). b. pulmonary insufficiency disease (PID). c. adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). d. acute medical illness (AMI).

a

Epinephrine autoinjectors are available with one or two doses in each device. a. True b. False

a

Ethics is best described as: A. the principles of conduct, concerns for what is right or wrong, good or bad B. a code of conduct put forward by a society or some other group such as religion C. the principle of doing good for the patient D. the obligation to treat all patients fairly

a

Even dust and makeup can cause severe allergic reactions on some individuals. a. True b. False

a

Eye protection should be worn: a. when fluids may spray or splatter. b. only with arterial bleeding. c. on all calls. d. only when a patient has a confirmed disease.

a

Family members report that an elderly male who has a history of diabetes and hypertension has garbled speech, difficulty swallowing, and a right-sided facial droop. They also report a similar episode a week earlier that went away on its own. What is the most appropriate treatment plan? a. Suggest immediate transport to an emergency department capable of managing acute stroke. b. Perform a detailed physical examination to determine whether there are any related injuries, immobilize if necessary, and transport to the patient's preferred hospital. c. Suggest that the patient is experiencing a transient ischemic attack (TIA) and assist in making arrangements to have patient seen at an urgent care center. d. Encourage the patient to drink orange juice to increase his blood sugar level, reevaluate mental status, and transport if necessary.

a

Fluid in the pericardium begins to impede cardiac output at what volume? a. 50 mL b. 150 mL c. 300 mL d. 500 mL

a

Following a prolonged auto extrication, your partner complained of pain and discomfort to his upper arm from trying to hold a damaged car door ajar while the patient was being extricated from the automobile. This injury, most likely caused by muscular overexertion, is known as what? a. A strain b. A hairline fracture c. A sprain d. A muscular crick

a

From which direction should you never approach a helicopter while its engine is operating? a. the rear b. the front c. the left side d. the pilot's blind spot

a

Full dilation of the cervix occurs in the _______ stage of labor. a. first b. fourth c. second d. third

a

General rules of immobilization of extremity injuries include: a. immobilizing the injury site and the joint above and below it. b. if there is no distal pulse present after splinting the extremity, remove the splint. c. pushing any protruding bones back into place. d. applying traction to all extremity injuries.

a

Hematuria is defined as the presence of (A) blood in the urine. (B) blood in the stool. (C) bile in the vomit. (D) waste products in the urine.

a

High humidity on a hot day can slow the evaporation of perspiration and quickly cause: a. hyperthermia. b. hypothermia. c. toxemia. d. edema.

a

How is sublingual medicine delivered? a. under the tongue b. through an intravenous line c. by swallowing d. through inhalation

a

How many vertebrae are there in the human spinal column? a. 33 b. 66 c. 44 d. 77

a

How often should you check vitals when transporting an unconscious patient? a. 5 minutes b. 2-3 minutes c. 10 minutes d. 15 minutes

a

How often should you check your medical equipment? (A) Before every shift (B) Weekly (C) Monthly (D) Bimonthly

a

Hypertension or a blow to the patient's _______ can cause epistaxis. a. nose b. lower back c. pelvis d. abdomen

a

Hypoglycemia affects what organ very quickly? a. The brain b. The heart c. The stomach d. The kidneys

a

Obstructive shock is caused by a mechanical obstruction which prevents an adequate volume of blood to fill the heart chambers. What are the three most common examples of obstructive shock? a. cardiac tamponade, tension pneumothorax, and pulmonary embolism b. cardiac ischemia, tension pneumothorax, and pulmonary embolism c. sepsis, anaphylaxis, and pulmonary embolism d. acute myocardial infarction, cerebrovascular accident, and hypovolemia

a

Of the diseases listed below, which poses the most risk to EMTs? a. hepatitis C b. staphylococcal infection c. HIV d. AIDS

a

Of the four nationally recognized levels of EMS training, which is the most basic? a. Emergency Medical Responder b. Paramedic c. EMT d. Advanced Emergency Medical Technician

a

On-scene assessment and treatments of the patient, such as splinting, should be accomplished prior to using a nonurgent move. a. True b. False

a

Once you notice a pulsating mass in the patient's abdomen, you should immediately stop palpating that area. a. True b. False

a

Once your patient's life-threats are under control, you will next: a. decide on the patient's transport priority. b. immobilize the patient to a long spine board. c. splint all extremity injuries. d. begin caring for the patient's secondary injuries

a

One important function of the EMT is assessment of the patient. a. True b. False

a

One of the more stressful calls for first responders is a mass-casualty incident (MCI). In the most basic, simplest definition, what is an MCI? a. Any incident that overtaxes your system, generally three or more patients. b. Any incident that requires two or more ambulances. c. Any incident that requires a full assignment of 2 engines, 1 rescue, 1 squad, 1 medic, 1 EMS officer and 1 Battalion Chief. d. Any incident that requires activation of your system's post incident action plan (PIAP).

a

One reason patients with cardiac compromise think they might have the flu is because the symptoms include: a. sweating with nausea. b. fever. c. a headache. d. a cough.

a

Open wounds to the abdomen may be so large and deep that organs show through the wound opening. This is known as a(n): a. evisceration. b. protrusion. c. avulsion. d. sucking abdominal wound.

a

Paradoxical motion is the motion of a flail segment opposite to that of the remainder of the chest. a. True b. False

a

Part of assessing the ABCs is assessment of the patient's circulation. Take the conscious adult patient's pulse at the: a. radial artery. b. femoral artery. c. carotid artery. d. brachial artery

a

Passive rewarming of the hypothermic patient includes: a. covering the patient and preventing further heat loss. b. application of hot packs to the central parts of the body. c. rewarming the limbs with hot packs. d. all of the above.

a

People do not have allergic reactions the first time they are exposed to an allergen. a. True b. False

a

People react differently toward death and dying. However, common stages of grieving include (A) denial, bargaining, depression. (B) acceptance, anger, euphoria. (C) anger, suicidal thoughts, bargaining. (D) excitement, acceptance, delirium

a

Peritoneal cavity fluid build-up is called: a. Ascites b. Crohn's disease c. Enteritis d. Diverticulosis

a

Pin point pupils are revealed during your neuro assessment of an unresponsive patient. What is your primary field diagnosis? a. Narcotic b. Beta blocker overdose c. Insulin overdose d. Aspirin

a

Pink or bloody sputum is often seen in patients with a. pulmonary edema b. anaphylaxis c. allergic reaction d. flu

a

Pink or bloody sputum is often seen in patients with: a. pulmonary edema b. anaphylaxis c. allergic reaction d. flu

a

Polycythemia involves: a. Increased red blood cell production b. Loss of many types of blood cells through bleeding c. Abnormally shaped blood cells d. Introduction of toxins into the bloodstream

a

Pressure created in arteries by blood forced into the circulation by the heart contracting is called: a. systolic blood pressure. b. pulse pressure. c. arterial pressure. d. diastolic blood pressure

a

Pressure waves that accompany high-velocity projectiles can cause damage in a process called cavitation. a. True b. False

a

Prior to delivery, if the mother is in the supine position, she may develop dizziness and a drop in blood pressure. This is called: a. supine hypotensive syndrome, caused by the baby compressing the inferior vena cava. b. eclampsia, a serious complication resulting from toxicity. c. maternal hypotension, caused by the fetus taking extra blood from the mother's system. d. pregnancy shock, caused by smoking during the pregnancy.

a

Purpura occurs when: a. Small blood vessels leak under the skin b. Viral infection changes the texture of the cornea c. Bleeding occurs within the capsule of the liver d. Precancerous lesions become cancerous

a

Quickly sealing an open neck wound will help to prevent air from being sucked into the patient's bloodstream through a damaged artery. a. True b. False

a

Reaching a diagnosis by an EMT is a process that involves: a. critical thinking. b. diagnosis training. c. laboratory testing. d. clinical skills.

a

Red flags would be signs or symptoms that suggest the possibility of a particular problem that is very serious. a. True b. False

a

Referred pain is felt in an area other than where the pain originates. a. True b. False

a

Risk factors associated with suicide include all of the following EXCEPT: a. ages 25-35 years, which show a high suicide rae b. improvement from depression c. high current or recent stress levels d. alcohol or drug abuse

a

Roots are the foundations of words and are not used by themselves. a. True b. False

a

The following patients all have signs and symptoms of cardiac chest pain and have their own prescriptions for nitroglycerin. Which patient should you NOT assist with taking nitroglycerin? a. 67 year old male: pulse, 90; respirations, 26/min; BP, 98/72 b. 72 year old female: pulse, 88; respirations, 23/min; BP, 140/96 c. 78 year old male: pulse, 98; respirations, 26/min; BP, 160/112 d. 31 year old female: pulse, 72; respirations, 14/min; BP, 130/80

a

The force of blood against the walls of the blood vessels is called blood pressure. a. True b. False

a

The front of a patient is called: a. anterior. b. posterior. c. dorsal. d. superior.

a

The general term for poisons produced by living organisms, such as animals or plants, is: a. toxin. b. allergen. c. pathogen. d. venom.

a

The grating sound caused by broken bones is known as crepitus. a. True b. False

a

The head of a newborn infant has just delivered. You should: a. suction the baby's mouth and nostrils with a bulb syringe b. push down on the baby's upper shoulder to facilitate the rest of the delivery c. push up on the baby's lower shoulder to facilitate the rest of the delivery d. ventilate the baby with a pediatric bag valve mask and high flow oxygen

a

The last part of the patient's body to be secured to the long spine board is the head. a. True b. False

a

The least serious problem normally associated with an electrical shock is: a. the burn. b. respiratory distress. c. cardiac compromise. d. instant death.

a

The lights and siren on an emergency vehicle ____. a. are a request for drivers to yield right of way b. allow an emergency vehicle to be driven as fast as possible c. allow the emergency vehicle driver to disregard all traffic laws d. allow the operator of an emergency vehicle to drive without regard for the safety of others

a

The lobes of the lungs are made up of millions of alveoli, which are tiny air sacs. What purpose do the alveoli serve? a. This is where the gas exchange between oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs. b. To exchange gases between oxygen, carbon dioxide, and carbon monoxide. c. An exchange between oxygen and carbon monoxide occur in the alveoli. d. The alveoli exchange oxygen and nitrogen into the bloodstream.

a

The lower abdominal quadrants are between the: a. umbilicus and the pelvis. b. xiphoid process and the umbilicus. c. umbilicus and the waistline. d. second floating rib and the pubis

a

The lower airway ends at the alveoli, where gas exchange occurs. Oxygen moves to the hemoglobin by passing through a semipermeable membrane. Where does this occur? a. In the capillary bed b. In the bronchioles c. In the capillary blood d. In the venules

a

The lungs are made up of how many lobes? a. 5 b. 4 c. 6 d. 2

a

The most important element of body substance isolation is to have personal protective equipment: a. readily available. b. on at all times. c. in your personal vehicle. d. properly labeled.

a

The nasopharyngeal airway is used to help keep the tongue off the back of the throat. a. True b. False

a

The normal breathing rate for an adult patient is: a. 12-20 per minute. b. 15-30 per minute. c. 8-12 per minute. d. 25-50 per minute

a

The only reason not to perform a reassessment is if you are too busy providing lifesaving interventions. a. True b. False

a

The order in which you perform the components of the focused history and physical exam changes if your medical patient is unresponsive. One of the differences is that: a. performing a rapid physical exam is first. b. the SAMPLE history comes first. c. obtaining baseline vitals is first. d. history of present illness is last

a

The parents of a 2 year old female tell you she has difficulty breathing and hasn't been feeding well. Which of the following signs are most indicative of a serious condition? a. Limp appearance b. Expiratory wheezing c. Accessory muscle use d. Previous unsuccessful use of a prescribed inhaler

a

The patient is complaining of chest pain and difficulty breathing. His breathing is labored. You should immediately (A) administer oxygen. (B) assist him with his nitroglycerin. (C) take a set of vital signs. (D) listen to lung sounds.

a

The patient should hold the epinephrine autoinjector to his _______ before activating it. a. thigh b. calf c. bicep d. neck

a

The preferred means of providing artificial ventilation to a nonbreathing patient is: a. pocket mask with oxygen. b. two-person bag-valve mask with oxygen. c. flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilator. d. one-person bag-valve mask with oxygen.

a

The quality of CPR done by untrained laypeople instructed by dispatchers is comparable to CPR done by laypeople who were trained in CPR previously. a. True b. False

a

The question, "Has your pain changed at all since it started?" would come from which part of the OPQRST mnemonic? a. Time b. Quality c. Onset d. Severity

a

There is a specific process for administering medications that EMTs must follow, which is called the Six Rights of Medication Administration. What are the six rights? a. The six rights are: right patient, right medication, right dose, right route, right time, and right documentation. b. The six rights are: right patient, right medication, right delivery, right route, right time, and right documentation. c. The six rights are: right procedure, right medication, right dose, right route, right time, and right documentation. d. The six rights are: right patient, right means, right dose, right route, right time, and right documentation.

a

To minimize the likelihood of injury, avoid moving weight that requires reaching more than 15-20 inches in front of your body. a. True b. False

a

To prove negligence, it must be shown that there was first a duty to act, that the EMT breached that duty, and that in not providing the appropriate standard of care, harm was caused to the patient. a. True b. False

a

To provide oxygen therapy at "100%," what should the flow rate be on a nonrebreather mask? a. 12-15 LPM b. 100 LPM c. 20-24 LPM d. 2-6 LPM

a

To remember which questions to ask about a patient's respiratory difficulty, use the letters: a. OPQRST. b. AVPU. c. DCAP-BTLS. d. AEIOU-TIPS.

a

To restore a pedal pulse following a knee dislocation, you may be required to move the injured knee anteriorly. a. True b. False

a

To use an external medical system to help remove toxins from the body is called dialysis. a. True b. False

a

To which patient should you administer oral glucose? a. 60 year old female behaving as if she is intoxicated, and whose daughter informs you that she takes insulin by injection b. 45 year old male with a history of diabetes behaving erratically after falling and hitting his head in the bathtub c. 70 year old male with a long history of diabetes who is unconscious and cannot swallow d. 52 year old female who tells you that she is feeling dizzy and has low blood sugar

a

Tourniquets may be used in situations where there is severe bleeding in the presence of other life-threatening injuries. a. True b. False

a

Unlike all other arteries, the pulmonary artery carries oxygen-poor blood. a. True b. False

a

Upon arrival at a scene of a multi-car accident, the in-charge EMT tells dispatch what they have found. "Squad 3 is on scene. There is a three car accident. All patients are out and walking on the scene." What is this information called? a. Scene size up b. Report to receiving facility c. Scene arrival notification d. Dispatch information

a

Upon arrival at the scene of a possible hazardous materials incident, what should you do to identify hazards? a. Scan with binoculars from a safe distance b. Thoroughly investigate the scene yourself c. Interview victims and bystanders d. Assist law enforcement officers in the search

a

Uppers, such as amphetamines, cause dilated pupils. a. True b. False

a

Vasovagal shock most commonly refers to which of the following conditions? a. Fainting b. Anaphylaxis c. Internal bleeding d. Spine injury

a

Vitreous humor is found: a. behind the lens of the eye b. in the bone marrow of the upper arm c. in front of the lens of the eye d. in the joint lubrication of the upper arm

a

What are the layers of the heart from the outside in? a. Epicardium, myocardium, endocardium b. Pericardium, endocardium, epicardium c. Myocardium, epicardium, endocardium d. Endocardium, myocardium, epicardium

a

What are the signs and symptoms associated with a mildly hypoxic patient? a. In mild hypoxia, patients exhibit tachypnea, tachycardia, hypertension, shortness of breath, confusion, headaches, and restlessness. The patient's skin will be pale/cool/diaphoretic. b. In mild hypoxia, patients exhibit bradypnea, tachycardia, hypotension, cyanotic skins, and altered mental status. c. In mild hypoxia, patients exhibit tachypnea, dysrhythmia that leads to bradycardia, skins are cyanotic, hypotension, exhibits sleepiness or lack of consciousness, and altered mental status. d. In mild hypoxia, patients exhibit bradypnea, tachycardia, pale/cool/diaphoretic skin, and drowsiness.

a

What are the symptoms of compensated shock? a. narrowing pulse pressure, clammy skin b. absent peripheral pulses, mottled skin c. labored breathing, cyanosis d. dilated pupils, poor urinary output

a

What are two large tubes that bring air to and from the lungs? a. Bronchi b. Larynx c. Ronchi d. Diaphragm

a

What crime can an EMT be charged with if a patient who refuses treatment is treated anyway? a. Battery b. Medical Malpractice c. Slander d. Kidnapping

a

What does an EMT suspect when a patient has coffee-ground emesis? a. gastrointestinal (GI) bleed b. gallstones c. kidney stones d. appendicitis

a

What following symptom should lead the EMT to suspect a diabetic emergency? a. recent change in mental status b. diminished lung sounds c. decreased heart rate d. widening pulse pressure

a

What four general legal elements must be proven to have happened in a medical negligence lawsuit? (A) Damages, causation, duty to act, breach of duty (B) Causation, physical injuries only, duty to respond, expectation of payment (C) Duty to act, breach of duty, damages, deliberate intent (D) Breach of duty, damages, incompetence, malfeasance

a

What is a spontaneous pneumothorax? a. A sudden accumulation of air in the pleural space b. More common in women than men c. Caused by an impact to the chest that penetrates the lung d. Only seen in people with COPD

a

What is abruptio placentae? a. Premature placental separation b. A rupture of the uterus c. Delivery of the "afterbirth" d. Breaking the "bag of waters"

a

What is acceptable behavior is based on the situation. An example of a behavioral emergency would be uncontrollable panic or anxiety in the middle of a shopping mall. a. True b. False

a

What is the appropriate way to care for a patient who has been impaled by an object?" a. Keep the object in the patient, but also stabilize the object so that movement can be minimized. Then the appropriate medical facility staff (doctors, surgeons, etc.) can attempt to remove it. b. Remove the object from the patient immediately. c. Keep the object in the patient until the appropriate medical personnel can remove it. d. Partially remove the object until you feel that it is not poking any vital internal organs.

a

What is the average concentration of oxygen in a titration for treatment? a. between 95% and 99% b. between 94% and 96% c. between 92% and 96% d. between 93% and 95%

a

What is the best airway opening maneuver for a man who has fallen off a ladder and is suffering from respiratory distress? a. Jaw Thrust b. Head Tilt - Chin Lift c. Intubation d. Bite Block

a

What is the best description of the National Incident Management System (NIMS)? a. NIMS provides guidelines and common terms to allow multiple agencies to work together. b. NIMS provides a framework for the federal government to take responsibility for an incident. c. NIMS is the command structure to dictate an emergency response. d. NIMS is used to prevent incidents from occurring.

a

What is the concern if a patient inhales a harmful chemical/toxin? a. Damage to the alveoli since the patient inhaled the substance into their lungs. b. Damage to the heart since it can diffuse outside of the lungs. c. Damage to the stomach since the substance can diffuse from the trachea to the esophagus. d. Damage to the pulmonary circuit since the substance can diffuse from the bronchioles to the pulmonary capillaries.

a

What is the correct way to dispose of used gauze that treated a wound, a used airway adjunct that treated an unconscious patient, or any materials that have come into contact with the patient's body fluids? a. Dispose of the item into a biohazard bag or trash container. Then dispose of this bag or container in an appropriate manner. b. Disinfect it with ethanol. This is more effective than bleach. Place it back into the packaging for reuse. c. Clean the item with bleach. This is more effective than ethanol. Then repackage for later use. d. Keep the items in a biohazard bag. Take the bag with you back to base and after your shift ends, throw it into an autoclave for sterilization.

a

What is the emergency where exposure to the cold causes damage to the skin but leaves no permanent tissue loss? a. Frostnip b. Frostbite c. Hypothermia d. Hyperthermia

a

What is the first step in the physical assessment of an unresponsive medical patient? a. perform the initial assessment b. assess a complete set of vital signs c. position the patient to protect the airway d. obtain SAMPLE history from a family member

a

What is the first treatment when a mother bleeds excessively from her vagina after delivery? a. massage the abdomen gently b. administer oxygen c. transport her immediately d. treat her for shock

a

What is the function of the Mitral valve? a. Prevents blood from back-flowing into the left Atrium b. Prevents blood from back-flowing into the left ventricle c. Prevents blood from back-flowing into the lungs d. Prevents blood from flowing between the right and left ventricles

a

What is the function of the atrium? a. The atrium pushes 20-30% of the rest of the blood to the ventricles. b. The atrium pumps blood to the body. c. The atrium receives blood and does not even contract. d. The atrium is there to make sure that blood does not backflow.

a

What is the inability to move enough air required for adequate perfusion? a. Respiratory Failure b. Pleurisy c. Respiratory Arrest d. Cardiac Failure

a

What is the maximum dosage frequency and time frame for nitroglycerin administration for one chest pain incident? a. 3 doses, allowing 5 minutes in between doses b. 4 doses, allowing 10 minutes in between doses c. 6 doses within 30 minutes d. 2 doses, allowing 5 minutes in between doses

a

What is the medical condition in which the patient sometimes suffers convulsions or seizure activity? a. Epilepsy b. Focal motor c. Postictal state d. Tonic-clonic

a

What is the minimum amount of time hand should be washed in order to be effective? a. 10-15 seconds. b. 1-2 minutes. c. 45-50 seconds. d. 25-30 seconds.

a

What is the minimum recommended area for a helicopter landing zone? a. 60' by 60' or larger b. 120' by 120' or larger c. 80' by 90' or larger d. 30' x 30' or larger

a

What is the most common cause of airway obstruction? a. the tongue b. epiglottis c. laryngitis d. swallowed or aspirated foreign objects

a

What is the most common cause of dehydration in pediatric patients? a. vomiting and diarrhea b. insufficient fluid intake c. heat stroke d. increased urination

a

What is the normal heart rate range for infants? a. 120-150 bpm b. 60-80 bpm c. 90+ bpm d. 100-120 bpm

a

What is the significant risk of ingesting acid? a. Acid causes immediate pain and is a superficial burner. It is also not very adherent, so it will burn the stomach more than it will the throat. b. Acid does not cause immediate pain and is a deep burner. It is also more "sticky," so if ingested, it will burn the throat more than the stomach. c. Acid is not as harmful as base. This is because acid causes immediate pain and therefore always causes a quick reaction of the person to get rid of the substance. d. Acid is more harmful than base because it is a superficial burner. This means that it can expose the outermost layer of skin and cause lots of bleeding.

a

What is the term for an incident with three or more patients or one that places great demand on the EMS system? a. Mass-Casualty Incident (MCI) b. Triage c. Multiple Victim Incident (MVI) d. Multiple Response Incident (MRI)

a

What is the two-flap valve located on the left side of the heart? a. Bicuspid valve b. Bivalve c. Aortic valve d. Pulmonary Valve

a

What is the typical dose that an EpiPen delivers to an adult? a. 0.3 mg b. 0.2 mg c. 0.1 mg d. 0.5 mg

a

Which of the following situations represents your abandonment of a patient? a. you begin assessing a patient, but turn responsibility for that patient over to a first responder. b. you begin CPR on a cardiac arrest patient, but stop when the ALS team takes over care c. with the approval of medical direction, you do not transport a patient who feels fine after having a seizure. d. you refuse to help a patient administer nitroglycerin that has been prescribed for someone else.

a

Which of the following skin signs is most characteristic of hypovolemic shock? (A) Pale, cool, diaphoretic skin (B) Warm, flushed, dry skin (C) Diaphoretic, red, hot skin (D) Mottled, warm, dry skin

a

Which of the following terms best describes a patient who has an adequate tidal volume and respiratory rate but is using her accessory muscles and is diaphoretic? (A) Respiratory distress (B) Respiratory failure (C) Respiratory arrest (D) Apneic

a

Which of the following tests are used to diagnose pneumonia? a. auscultation b. MRI c. high fever d. blood pressure e. none of the above

a

Which of the following ventilatory techniques is likely to yield the LOWEST tidal volumes? a. One-person bag-valve-mask b. Two-person bag-valve-mask c. Flow restricted oxygen powered ventilatory device d. Mouth-to-mask

a

Which of the following would be a primary prevention program? (A) A community-focused education program on the risks of driving while texting (B) A traffic signal that is installed at an intersection after a fatal motor vehicle crash (C) Training EMS providers on how to apply a new cervical collar (D) Installing an AED at a pool

a

Which of the following would be most likely to cause hypoglycemia in a patient? a. The patient has been vomiting much of the day. b. The patient has eaten a large ice cream Sunday. c. The patient has just taken his normal dose of insulin. d. The patient went for a brisk walk.

a

Which of the following would indicate that a conscious patient is experiencing an obstructed upper airway? a. The patient's head is in the sniffing position b. The patient is able to speak c. The patient's chest is rising and falling equally bilaterally d. There is no high-pitched sound when the patient breathes

a

Which of the following would most likely indicate that your patient has suffered a stroke? (A) Sudden onset left-sided weakness (B) Altered mental status (C) A blood pressure of 184/120 mm Hg (D) Headache

a

Which of the following wounds is the result of capillary bleeding within the dermis? (A) Contusion (B) Laceration (C) Hematoma (D) Abrasion

a

Which of these procedures are necessary in preparation for an ambulance call? a. all of these b. checking supplies for expired and missing items and replacing them, when needed c. checking the equipment and vehicle for proper operation d. familiarizing yourself with the operating area and facilities you will transport to and from

a

Which organ is most likely to be most sensitive to a hypoglycemic diabetic emergency? a. Brain b. Pancreas c. Kidney d. Stomach

a

Which patient is most appropriate to receive oral glucose? a. An elderly woman who reports a history of diabetes. b. A 12 year girl with decreased heart rate, hot flushed skin, and a head injury. c. An unresponsive 40 year old, who has just taken too much insulin. d. An unconscious elderly man, with a medic alert "diabetic" bracelet.

a

Which patient is most likely suffering from hypothermia? a. 79 year old female; living in an unheated house, outside temperature 40 degrees Fahrenheit b. 65 year old male: dressed appropriately, walking briskly, outside temperature 26 degrees Fahrenheit c. 45 year old female: swimming actively, outside temperature 85 degrees Fahrenheit d. 10 year old male: swimming actively, outside temperature 78 degrees Fahrenheit

a

Which patient is showing early signs of shock (decreased tissue perfusion)? a. 23 year old female: pulse, 104; respiration, 23/min; BP, 118/78; cool, clammy skin b. 43 year old female: pulse, 68; respiration, 20/min; BP, 110/72; warm, moist skin c. 5 year old male: pulse, 110; respiration, 22/min; BP, 88/32; cool, dry skin d. 60 year old male: pulse, 76; respiration, 10/min; BP, 96/60; hot, dry skin

a

Which patient should receive a rapid trauma survey to determine hidden injuries? a. alert 2 year old child in a car seat who was in a medium speed crash b. alert 20 year old male who fell ten feet and is complaining of leg pain c. alert 65 year old female who fell in the bath tub and is complaining of wrist pain d. alert 11 year old female who tripped while roller skating and fell down three steps

a

Which patient should receive a rapid trauma survey to determine hidden injuries? a. alert 2 year old child in a car seat who was in a medium speed crash b. alert 20 year old male who fell ten feet and is complaining of leg pain c. alert 65 year old female who fell in the bathtub and is complaining of wrist pain d. alert 11 year old females who tripped while roller-skating and fell down three steps

a

Which patient's vital signs are NOT within normal limits? a. newborn: pulse, 100; respirations, 30; BP 70/30 b. 3 year old child: pulse, 80; respirations, 28; BP, 86/50 c. 10 year old child: pulse, 88; respirations, 18 BP, 100/60 d. adult: pulse, 76; respirations, 17; BP, 116/86

a

Which situation requires that an emergency patient be moved? a. your patient has undergone cardiac arrest while seated in a chair b. your patient is found on the ground, unresponsive, and alone c. your patient is found in his bed, displaying early symptoms of shock d. your patient is showing signs of inadequate breathing and shock

a

Which substance is the most common cause of anaphylaxis? a. Penicillin b. Aspirin c. Bee stings d. Fungi and molds

a

Which triad characterizes cardiac tamponade? Why? a. Beck's triad - Low arterial blood pressure, narrow pulse pressure, jugular vein distension, muffled heart sounds. b. Cushing's triad - Hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations. c. Beck's triad - Hypotension, bradycardia, irregular respirations. d. Cushing's triad - Low arterial blood pressure, bradycardia, muffled heart sounds.

a

A common symptom in patients with cardiac compromise is an abnormal heartbeat. A heart rate that is too slow is called: a. palpitation. b. bradycardia. c. tachycardia. d. hypotension.

b

You and your partner are performing CPR on a patient in cardiac arrest. You perform defibrillation and continue chest compressions. Thirty seconds later you note that the patient is moving his arms. You should immediately (A) stop compressions and assess for a pulse and breathing. (B) complete your current cycle of compressions and ventilations. (C) prepare for transport to a hospital. (D) analyze the cardiac rhythm with the AED.

a

You and your partner are performing two-rescuer CPR and have just defibrillated a patient with an AED. You should immediately (A) resume chest compressions. (B) wait for the AED to tell you to resume CPR. (C) check for a pulse. (D) analyze the heart rhythm.

a

You and your partner find a gasoline tanker truck on fire and lying on its side. The driver is unconscious and trapped in the cab, and bystanders are attempting to free him. You should (A) move a safe distance away. (B) tell the bystanders how to extricate the patient. (C) attempt to free the driver from the wreckage yourself. (D) use a fire extinguisher to put out the fire.

a

You are an EMT treating a 62-year-old female for a headache that was a sudden onset one hour ago. She describes the pain as the worst pain she has ever experienced and complains of nausea and dizziness. Her blood pressure is 190/100, pulse is 90 and bounding, respirations are normal, and her skin is warm and dry. Based on her signs and symptoms, what type of medical emergency is your patient most likely experiencing? a. a hypertensive emergency b. meningitis c. a migraine d. an aortic aneurysm

a

You are an off-duty EMT who is coaching your son's Little League team. A stray ball goes over the fence and hits a four-year-old female in the head, knocking her to the ground. After asking a bystander to call 911, you run to the patient and begin an assessment. The girl opens her eyes to painful stimuli, has incomprehensible sounds, and withdraws to pain. What is your patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)? a. 8 b. 7 c. 11 d. 9

a

You are an off-duty EMT who is coaching your son's Little League team. A stray ball goes over the fence and hits a four-year-old female in the head, knocking her to the ground. After asking a bystander to call 911, you run to the patient and begin an assessment. The girl opens her eyes to painful stimuli, has incomprehensible sounds, and withdraws to pain. What is your patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)? a. 8 b. 9 c. 11 d. 7

a

You are attending to a 26-year-old female who was jogging when she began to experience severe shortness of breath. She is alert and able to answer your questions in full sentences, although she continues to cough. What is she most likely experiencing and what would be the best intervention? a. Respiratory distress; supply oxygen via non-rebreather mask; transport b. Respiratory distress; rapid transport to the nearest hospital c. Anaphylaxis; administer EPIPEN d. Respiratory arrest; rapid transport to the nearest hospital

a

You are attending to a 53-year-old female patient who is experiencing an episode of unilateral weakness, headaches, vision disturbances, and confusion. Her husband tells you these episodes have been frequent within the last week but this one is the longest. What is the most likely field diagnosis for this patient? a. TIA b. MI c. DM d. CVA

a

You are attending to a female patient who was in the passenger seat when a car collided with her vehicle head on. She has a GCS of 14, a systolic BP of 80, and a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute. What is this patient's trauma score? a. 10 b. 9 c. 11 d. 12

a

You are called to the scene of a 46-year-old female patient who has nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramping. She states that the onset occurred right after she ate some cheesecake. Her only medical history is lactose intolerance. Her blood pressure is 136/88 mm Hg. Her radial pulse is 94 beats per minute and her respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute. Before you arrived, she had vomited twice. What condition is the patient most likely suffering from? a. Acute gastroenteritis b. Gastrointestinal reflux disease c. Diverticulitis d. Peptic ulcer disease

a

You are managing a 10-year-old male patient who had an anaphylactic allergic reaction to a bee sting. Upon arrival an EPIPEN was administered. Upon rechecking his vitals on the ambulance, which of the following would be the best indicator that the patient's condition is improving? a. He is speaking to you in full sentences b. 10mmHg increase in blood pressure c. 10mmHg decrease in blood pressure d. Improved breath sounds with diminished wheezing bilaterally

a

You are performing single-rescuer CPR on an adult. You should (A) take 1 second to deliver each ventilation. (B) use a 15:2 compression to ventilation ratio. (C) compress the chest at least 60 times per minute. (D) use a joule attenuator device

a

You are responsible for devising an ambulance deployment plan for the EMS system within your community. You want to minimize response times while simultaneously using all of the EMS resources efficiently and cost effectively. What would be the most valuable information in formulating a plan? a. Time and location of calls over last 5 years b. Location of previous ambulance collisions c. Average age of the population d. Socioeconomic status of neighborhoods

a

You are transporting a 32-week-pregnant female to the emergency department for a possible sprained ankle. After lying comfortably on your stretcher for the first 5 minutes, she develops dizziness and feels like she is going to faint. You should (A) roll her onto her left side. (B) take her blood pressure. (C) attach an AED. (D) palpate her abdomen

a

You are transporting a 48-year-old male patient between medical facilities. You learn from the history that the patient was involved in a fall at work and suffered a hip fracture and a head injury. The patient is now presenting with labored breathing at 30/min that has progressively worsened over the last 24 hours, a heart rate of 104, and a blood pressure of 98/70. You hear diffuse rales on auscultation. The patient denies any complaints of pain other than those related to his recent fall. What is responsible for the patient's respiratory distress? a. Acute respiratory distress syndrome b. Cardiogenic shock c. Congestive heart failure d. Acute bronchitis

a

You are transporting a patient who has been resuscitated but is still unresponsive. You should check the patients pulse: a. every 30 sec b. every min c. every 5 min d. every 10 min

a

A condition of the eye in which the internal pressure increases and the patient's sight worsens is called: a. cataracts b. glaucoma c. Marfan syndrome d. pinkeye

b

You arrive on scene where a female infant is found with dependent lividity, along with being apneic and pulseless. The infant's parents' state they fed the baby and put her to bed 8 hours ago, and when they woke up this morning they found the baby not breathing and immediately called 911. What should be your next step in this situation? a. Comfort the parents. b. Call the police to report child abuse. c. Begin resuscitation on the infant by starting compressions, establishing an airway using an appropriately sized OPA, and ventilate. d. Provide blow by oxygen and transport the patient to the nearest facility.

a

You arrive on scene, and during your medical assessment, you notice that the patient has slow pupil movement, the pupils are dilated, and the patient has minimal to no reaction upon you touching or attempting to stimulate them. The patient has an altered mental status, and exhibits little to no movement, bradypnea, and bradycardia. These are signs of: a. Late hypothermia b. Early cardiac arrest c. Late cardiac arrest d. Early hypothermia

a

You arrive on scene, where a man is unresponsive, apneic, and has no heart rate. You begin CPR. The consent given by the patient is an example of: a. Implied consent b. Expressed consent c. Unconscious consent d. Bystander consent

a

You arrive on to a trauma scene and begin your assessment appropriately. As you are doing your full body assessment you notice a tracheal deviation to the patient's left side. What does this indicate? a. Tension pneumothorax at right lung b. Hemothorax at left lung c. Hemothorax at right lung d. Tension pneumothorax at left lung

a

You arrive to the home of a man with a known history of diabetes, who seems to be experiencing a diabetic emergency. He is alert and responds to your questions but seems slightly altered. Which of the following would NOT be a part of your secondary exam? a. Determining patient priority b. Focused physical exam c. HPI d. Vital signs

a

You assess a scuba diver complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. The diver states that he was 70 feet below the surface when a large shark appeared in the area. The diver panicked and ascended to the surface very quickly. Within minutes of getting out of the water, he developed considerable shortness of breath and chest pain that worsened with inhalation. Assessment findings show the patient to have significant respiratory distress accompanied by a rapid pulse rate and severe joint pain. The patient states that he has a history of asthma but did not bring his inhaler with him. Your immediate action would be to do which of the following? a. Check breath sounds b. Administer activated charcoal c. Apply an AED d. Administer nebulized albuterol

a

You can check the mental status of an infant by shouting or: a. flicking the feet. b. making eye contact. c. poking the palms with a hard object. d. rubbing the sternum.

a

You come upon an elderly patient in cardiac arrest. You are alone but have an AED. You sent someone to call 911. You should now: a. Apply the defibrillator and analyze immediately b. Perform 2 minutes of CPR and then apply defibrillator c. Provide 2 ventilations, check pulse and apply the defibrillator d. Perform 2 minutes of CPR, check the pulse and apply the defibrillator

a

You determine that the carotid pulse is weak and rapid, and the peripheral pulses are absent while assessing your unresponsive patient. What other clinical assessment finding would you expect to be present? a. Cool and pale skin b. An increase in arterial pressure c. An irregular rhythm of the pulse d. A decrease in the respiratory rate

a

You have been dispatched to a scene where, upon arriving, you hear gunshots in the vicinity and see people running away. You were supposed to arrive to a residence in the area. What do you do? a. Leave the scene, notify law enforcement if not yet done, and wait until the scene is secured by law enforcement. b. Quickly file yourself into the residence for safety. c. Notify the law enforcement of the dangers. d. Contact your dispatch and tell them of the situation.

a

You have been ordered by medical control to help a patient with a metered dose inhaler. What must you ensure before assisting this patient? a. It is their medication and is within the expiration date b. The hospital has more of the same medication for arrival c. It's not leaking d. They are not choking

a

You have called an air medical service to pick up your accident victim from your scene. The helicopter contacts you and asks for landing zone (LZ) information when they are 5 minutes out. What should be included in this safety brief? a. All of the above b. Over head obstructions c. High tension power lines a quarter of a mile from the LZ d. Type of surface, road way, gravel or field

a

You have called an air medical service to pick up your accident victim from your scene. The helicopter contacts you and asks for landing zone (LZ) information when they are 5 minutes out. What should be included in this safety brief? a. All of the above b. Over head obstructions c. Type of surface, road way, gravel or field d. High tension power lines a quarter of a mile from the LZ

a

You have just assisted in delivering an infant with a pink body , a pulse rate of 106 per min, and good muscle tone. The infant is crying lustily. How should you care for this newborn? a. wrap the newborn in clean towels and give her to the mother to hold during transport b. provide positive pressure ventilations at the rate of 60 per min with a bag valve mask c. monitor the infant for one minute and reassess vital signs to see if the heart rate increases d. administer free-flow oxygen by holding an oxygen mask or tubing over the newborn's face

a

You identify a sucking chest wound from a shooting. Treatment includes O2 and rapid transport. What other treatment modality is essential for you to accomplish? a. Cover the wound with an occlusive dressing b. Elevate the patient's legs c. Positive pressure ventilation d. Raise the patient's head

a

You intubate the patient en route to the hospital. You hear wheezing in the upper lung fields during your assessment of tube placement. What is the probable cause of this wheezing? a. Inhalation injury to the lower airway b. Inhalation injury to the upper airway c. Inhalation induced cardiac wheezing d. Inhalation induced asthma attack

a

You must transfer care to the ED staff when you arrive at the receiving facility. What you have just allowed for by giving a report to the attending nursing staff about the past medical history, the patient's complaint assessment, and interventions? a. Continuity of care b. Quantum of care c. Prime directive d. Quality transfer of care

a

You respond to the scene of a 37-year-old male patient complaining of acute shortness of breath. He has a history of status asthmaticus when exposed to certain types of chemicals. You discover that he started a new job today as a custodian, and he has been stripping the floors this morning. Upon your arrival, he is sitting in the tripod position in obvious distress. He is slightly cyanotic in his nail beds, his respiratory rate is 34 with poor volume, and he has audible wheezes. His blood pressure is 146/82 mmHg, and his pulse is 102. What is the most appropriate method for delivering oxygen to this patient? a. Nonrebreather mask at 10-15 liters per minute b. Nasal cannula at 2-6 liters per minute c. Nasal cannula at 4-8 liters per minute d. Venturi mask at 10-15 liters per minute

a

You should always use the jaw-thrust maneuver to open the airway on a patient that has a neck injury. a. True b. False

a

You should obtain a trauma patient's baseline vitals after: a. the physical exam. b. the initial assessment. c. determining the chief complaint. d. the SAMPLE history.

a

You should transport every suicidal patient. a. True b. False

a

You should use a new oxygen cylinder when the old one reaches _______ psi. a. 200 b. 500 c. 50 d. 350

a

You will gain even more valuable information when you repeat the vital signs and compare them to the first measurements you obtained. a. True b. False

a

You're called to the home of a 65-year-old man. When you arrive, your primary survey should include a rapid assessment to determine if the patient's condition is life-threatening. You should look for visual clues, including ____. a. all of these b. severe bleeding c. unconsciousness d. trouble breathing

a

You're dispatched to a park, where a 15-year-old boy has an injury to his leg. His friends called 9-1-1, and his parents cannot be reached. What form of consent gives you the ability to begin treating this boy? a. Implied Consent b. Revoked Consent c. Expressed Consent d. Informed Consent

a

You're on scene at a high school football game in which a football player collapsed to the ground. He has a pulse, a respiratory rate of 4 breaths per minute, breaths are very shallow and he is grunting slightly. What should airway management include? a. performing manual ventilation with supplemental oxygen b. doing a head tilt-chin lift maneuver, placing an oral airway and transporting c. placing a nasal airway and a non-rebreather with an oxygen flow of 10 LPM d. administering supplemental oxygen with a nasal cannula at 2 LPM

a

You're on scene at a high school football game. A football player collapsed to the ground. He has a patent airway, respiratory rate of 4 shallow breaths per minute, pulse rate of 130 beats per minute, and is grunting slightly. Airway management should include ____. a. performing manual ventilation with supplemental oxygen b. administering supplemental oxygen with a nasal cannula at 2 LPM c. doing a head tilt-chin lift maneuver, placing an oral airway and transporting d. placing a nasal airway and a nonrebreather with an oxygen flow of 10 LPM

a

You're treating an adult patient wearing a non-rebreather. The reservoir bag collapses on inspiration. What should you do? a. Make sure the bag is connected to an O2 source and the flow is at least 10 LPM. b. Tell the patient to take deeper breaths and blow out harder. c. Tell the patient to relax and breathe slower. d. Switch to a nasal cannula.

a

Your EMS unit is called to a private residence at 3:00 a.m. for difficulty breathing. Upon arrival, you are presented with a two-year-old female who has had a low-grade fever for the past three days. Her mother says the patient woke up with a seal-bark cough and difficulty breathing. What is the best treatment for your patient? a. administer humidified oxygen b. administer bronchodilators and low-flow oxygen c. withhold oxygen d. administer children's cough syrup and oxygen via nasal cannula

a

Your EMS unit is called to the scene of a motor vehicle vs. tree accident. A 28-year-old male has an altered level of consciousness, and bruising to his chest from an impact with the steering wheel. You notice the patient has jugular vein distention, muffled heart sounds, and narrowing pulse pressure during your assessment. What are these signs and symptoms indicative of? a. cardiac tamponade b. tension pneumothorax c. cardiac hypertrophy d. pulmonary embolism

a

Your EMS unit is dispatched to a motor vehicle vs. tree accident. You arrive on scene and find a 28-year-old male, conscious with an altered level of consciousness, and bruising to his chest from an impact with the steering wheel. During your assessment, you notice the patient has jugular vein distention, muffled heart sounds, and a narrowing pulse pressure. What do these signs and symptoms indicate? a. cardiac tamponade b. cardiac hypertrophy c. tension pneumothorax d. pulmonary embolism

a

Your fully clothed 25-year-old female patient was just pulled from an icy pond. She is alert, oriented, and barely shivering. What is the next step with this patient? a. Remove the wet clothing b. Start warming the patient c. Apply warm packs in the armpits and groin d. Administer warm humidified oxygen

a

Your patient appears confused but is able to follow directions. His wife states that he is a diabetic and "may have taken too much insulin." His vital signs include a pulse rate of 102 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths per minute with adequate tidal volume, and a blood pressure of 128/90 mm Hg. You should first (A) administer oxygen. (B) administer oral glucose. (C) inquire more into his past medical history. (D) hold cervical spine stabilization.

a

Your patient has a foreign body airway obstruction. Three attempts to clear the airway have been unsuccessful. You should: a. transport and attempt to clear the airway en-route b. call for an ALS unit as backup c. request medical direction for further instructions d. carry out three additional cycles before requesting help

a

Your patient has a history of epilepsy. According to his family, he has had a seizure and has not recovered as usual. While assessing this unresponsive patient, you determine that he suffers a second seizure. What type of seizure is this? a. Status epilepticus b. Stacked seizures c. Tonic-clonic d. Repeatius epilepticus

a

Your patient has a history of renal failure and has missed his past two scheduled dialysis treatments. Which of the following exam findings would you most expect? (A) Pulmonary edema (B) Hypotension (C) Cloudy urine (D) Facial droop

a

Your patient is an 8-month-old found pulse-less and apneic in her crib by her parents. Rigor mortis is present. The patient has no medical history. The mother states, "She was absolutely fine when we put her to bed last night. How can this happen?" The best reply is (A) "I have no idea." (B) "I think this may be sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)." (C) "It was most likely a breathing problem that killed your child." (D) "Have you called a funeral home yet?"

a

Your patient is awake, confused and disoriented. How would you grade her using the AVPU scale? a. A b. V c. P d. U

a

Your patient is awake, confused, and disoriented. How would you grade her using the AVPU scale? a. A b. V c. P d. U

a

Your patient is bleeding from a wound to the forearm. The blood flows in a steady, dark red stream. What type of bleeding should you suspect? a. venous b. arterial c. capillary d. internal

a

Your patient is bleeding heavily from a puncture wound on her right leg. Your attempt to stop the bleeding with a gloved fingertip placed over the wound is unsuccessful. Your next step should be to: a. remove the gauze to ensure you have it over the right location. b. elevate the limb and apply more diffuse pressure on the leg c. use pressure point pressure on the femoral artery d. apply and inflate the right leg of the PASG garment

a

Your patient is burned on the anterior chest and the anterior left arm. What percent of their body surface area is burned? a. 13.5% b. 18% c. 22.5% d. 27%

a

Your patient is complaining of severe chest pain with respiratory distress. He is alert but somewhat confused. His skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic. His blood pressure is 72/44 mmHg, pulse rate of 120 beats per minute, and his respirations are 24 per minute and shallow. What is the priority treatment for this patient? a. Apply a nonrebreather at 15 lpm. b. Apply an AED c. Begin CPR d. Administer nitroglycerin

a

Your patient is not responding to your loud verbal stimuli. You find Glucophage and Lipitor. What causes the patient's problem? a. Diabetic reaction b. High cholesterol c. High blood pressure d. Coronary Artery Disease

a

Your patient is supine in bed, unresponsive to verbal stimulus and having difficulty breathing. You note that the patient's lips, face, and fingers are cyanotic and that there's pink, frothy sputum in the mouth and nose. You should first (A) suction the mouth and nose. (B) place the patient into a sitting position with feet dangling. (C) begin bag-valve-mask ventilations. (D) apply a jaw thrust.

a

Your patient presents alert to pain only after being pulled out of a house fire by fire-fighters. You hear audible stridor; his respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute with good tidal volume. There is a strong, rapid radial pulse, and his skin is warm and dry. The patient's most immediate threat to life is (A) an airway obstruction. (B) hypovolemic shock. (C) increased intracranial pressure. (D) decreased perfusion.

a

Your patient presents standing in a kitchen with stridorous respirations. A bystander reports that he is choking on a piece of meat. You should (A) encourage the patient to cough. (B) perform abdominal thrusts. (C) administer back blows. (D) perform a blind finger sweep.

a

Your patient presents with an acute onset of tearing pain located between his shoulder blades. His skin is cool, pale, and diaphoretic. His vital signs are as follows: pulse of 96 per minute, respirations of 18 per minute, a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg, and a pulse oximetry reading of 93 percent. You should first (A) administer oxygen. (B) assist him with his nitroglycerin. (C) administer 160 milligrams of baby aspirin. (D) transport him to a hospital

a

Your patient presents with an angulated fracture of her lower leg. There is no pedal pulse and her foot is cold. You should immediately (A) attempt to realign the leg. (B) splint the leg as found. (C) apply a traction splint. (D) perform full spinal immobilization.

a

Your patient presents with extreme agitation and anxiety after methamphetamine ingestion. He becomes increasingly combative and threatening as you attempt to provide care. He is most likely suffering from (A) agitated delirium. (B) bipolar disorder. (C) depression. (D) a panic attack.

a

Your patient tells you he is experiencing severe chest pain. This statement, in the patient's own words, is the: a. chief complaint. b. mechanism of injury. c. general impression. d. nature of illness.

a

Your patient's pupils react unequally to light. You should suspect the presence of a. head injury b. shock c. airway obstruction d. cardiac arrest

a

Your patient, a 69-year-old male, is in cardiac arrest. His wife informs you that their physician has written a DNR order for the patient, but she does not have the written order. You should: A. provide all necessary care to save the patient's life B. obey the DNR order and leave immediately C. leave right after documenting the wife's statement D. call the patients doctor and try to confirm the order

a

Your patient, a 78 year old male, has no pulse and agonal respirations. You should: a. begin CPR immediately b. administer high flow oxygen via bag valve mask c. transport immediately to the closest medical facility d. request the patient's permission to administer nitroglycerin

a

Your system's physician medical director discontinues the use of pneumatic anti-shock garments (PASG) in trauma after reading numerous studies that show increased mortality with their use. This is an example of the use of (A) evidence-based medicine. (B) on-line medical direction. (C) off-line medical direction. (D) quality improvement.

a

Your unconscious patient has blood in his airway. You should: a. use a suction unit to immediately clear the airway b. apply oxygen using a nonrebreather mask at 15 L/min c. use a bag valve mask to clear the airway d. perform a finger sweep to remove the blockage

a

____ is when the heart muscles are not strong enough to accomplish the job of pumping blood throughout the body. a. Congestive heart failure (CHF) b. Transient ischemic attack (TIA) c. Acute myocardial infarction (AMI) d. Pulmonary edema

a

_____ artery carries deoxygenated blood. _____ vein caries oxygenated blood. a. Pulmonary, Pulmonary b. Pulmonary, Aorta c. Pulmonary, inferior vena cava d. Aorta, Superior vena cava

a

Coral snakes are native to Southeast Asia but recently have been introduced into the United States. a. True b. False

b

A 4-year-old child is having breathing difficulty. He isn't responding to your commands, he has cyanosis around his lips and fingers, and he's drooling from his mouth. His parents report the patient has a high fever and didn't want to lie down to rest. What should you do? (A) Administer oxygen via blow-by mask. (B) Ventilate using a bag-valve mask. (C) Apply a nasal cannula and oxygen at 6 LPM. (D) Administer a combination of back blows and abdominal thrusts.

b

A 45 year old female is breathing at a rate of 22 times per minute with adequate tidal volume. She is alert, but her skin signs are cool, pale, and diaphoretic. You should a. provide oxygen at 6 L/min using a nasal cannula b. provide oxygen at 12 L/min using a nonrebreather mask c. provide artificial ventilation with a gas mask valve and high flow oxygen d. place the patient into the left lateral "recovery" position

b

A 50-year-old male patient with known CAD and angina will likely have a prescription for: a. Nitroglycerin b. Both nitroglycerin and aspirin c. Aspirin d. Neither nitroglycerin nor aspirin

b

A 56-year-old female presents lying in bed complaining of chest pain and dyspnea. Her leg is in a cast. She has a history of angina and is an insulindependent diabetic. She has clear and equal lung sounds bilaterally. Her vital signs are a heart rate of 102, a respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 102/60 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry indicates 90 percent saturation. You should first administer (A) oral glucose. (B) supplemental oxygen. (C) the patient's nitroglycerin. (D) aspirin.

b

A 62-year-old Type 2 diabetic is in a nursing home. Staff reports that the patient has had a four-day history of declining mental status, with increased thirst and urine output over the same time period. He is most likely suffering from (A) hypoglycemia. (B) hyperglycemia. (C) pneumonia. 4(D) septic shock.

b

A 62-year-old Type 2 diabetic living in a nursing home has a four-day history of declining mental status. Staff reports that the patient has been increasingly thirsty and urinating more often. He is most likely suffering from (A) hypoglycemia. (B) diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). (C) stroke. (D) septic shock

b

A 68-year-old male presents in bed with vomit on his face, in full cardiac arrest. You decide not to resuscitate. The patient's wife asks if she can "say goodbye to him." You should (A) not allow the wife to view the patient. (B) clean the patient's face and allow the wife to see him. (C) allow the wife to visit her husband. (D) contact medical control for permission.

b

A 7-year-old child has been coughing and vomiting for the past 6 hours. He presents very tired, not reacting to your presence, and saying, "My head hurts." His skin feels very warm to the touch. What should you do next? (A) Transport immediately. (B) Don protective eyeglasses and a mask. (C) Place the child in a cool water and alcohol bath. (D) Have the patient drink several glasses of water.

b

A 7-year-old male complains of neck pain after a fall off his bicycle. You see no obvious injury, and you find no neurological deficits. His heart rate is 82, his respiratory rate is 16 with good tidal volume, and his blood pressure is 112/70 mm Hg. You should (A) administer high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. (B) pad behind his shoulders when placing him on a long spine board. (C) transport the patient to a trauma center. (D) call for a paramedic unit to care for the patient.

b

A 70-year-old female awoke at 2 a.m. very short of breath. She is awake and coughing, with wheezing auscultated in both lungs. Her blood pressure is 210/136 mm Hg, her pulse is 100, and her breathing is 22 times per minute. Her medical history includes hypertension, and her feet appear swollen. What is the most likely cause of this presentation? (A) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) (B) Congestive heart failure (C) Anaphylaxis (D) Pulmonary embolus

b

A 70-year-old patient who has a history of emphysema is complaining of shortness of breath. What should you do? a. Withhold oxygen, because these patients become apneic if they receive high-flow oxygen. b. Administer oxygen, because in most cases, the hypoxic drive will not be a problem. c. Withhold oxygen, since these patients do not respond to oxygen. d. Withhold oxygen, because you could eliminate the hypoxic drive.

b

A 75-year-old male patient was working in his front yard when he suddenly collapsed. Upon your arrival 7 minutes after collapse, he was found pulseless and apneic on the ground. He has a history of unstable angina. What is your initial treatment for this patient? a. Positive pressure ventilations with a bag-valve-mask and 100% oxygen b. Two minutes of high-quality CPR c. Immediately apply and use an AED d. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway

b

A 9-year-old child fell off his skateboard. He presents awake, crying, and cradling his left arm. The elbow is bent at an unusual angle. The child can't feel his hand, and you observe that the fingers appear white with prolonged capillary refill. You should (A) splint the elbow in the position of deformity. (B) apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb. (C) carefully flex the injured arm and secure it with padded board splints. (D) make two attempts to restore distal circulation by manipulating the elbow

b

A 9-year-old female patient states, "I cannot catch my breath." What is the first thing you, as an EMT, should do? a. Ask to borrow your partner's Albuterol inhaler and administer it. b. Ask the patient if they have an inhaler and assist them in administering it. c. Apply a non-rebreather mask to the patient and administer oxygen at a flow rate of 15 L/min. d. Nothing, because the patient's parents are not in the area, and you cannot administer care without their permission.

b

A bulb syringe is used to suction infants up to the age of a. 1 month b. 3-4 months c. 6-8 months d. 1 year

b

A bulb syringe is used to suction infants up to the age of: a. 1 month b. 3-4 months c. 6-8 months d. 1 year

b

A cardiac arrest that happens within two hours within the onset of symptoms is known as: a. angina pestoris. b. sudden death. c. acute myocardial infarction. d. arteosclerosis

b

A cervical collar should be applied as soon as a spinal injury is suspected. a. True b. False

b

A common side effect of nitroglycerin is a dilation of blood vessels, resulting in an increase in blood pressure. a. True b. False

b

An example of a "shockable" rhythm-that is, one for which defibrillation is effective-is: a. asystole. b. pulseless ventricular tachycardia. c. pulseless electrical activity. d. all of the above.

b

An inhaler is a spray device that contains a medicinal gas that the patient can spray into his airway. a. True b. False

b

An unresponsive 36 year old female patient was found in the hallway of an office complex, moaning slightly. Her breathing is adequate, and she appears to have lost bladder control. After administering oxygen, you observe her mental status improving. You should suspect her presentation was most likely caused by... a. stroke. b. seizure. c. hypoglycemia. d. myocardial infarction.

b

As an EMT, you have a certain scope of practice. The patient you are caring for in your ambulance is in critical condition for which you have no standing orders or protocols that allow you to care for the patient. You cannot wait any longer, as the patient needs to be transported to the nearest hospital with the proper care, immediately. What do you do? a. Go through the steps of asking dispatch what is next? b. Immediately carry out the steps to contact the medical director. This is considered Online Medical Direction and gives you permission to do exactly as the physician orders. c. Go online and look up how to perform the procedure you are unauthorized to do. The patient's life is what matters most. d. Immediately call Advanced Life Support (ALS) services. You need paramedics at the scene immediately.

b

As an EMT, you will be able to administer several medications in the field. These medications include: a. narcotics. b. oxygen. c. antibiotics. d. insulin.

b

Aspirin does not reduce the blood's ability to clot. a. True b. False

b

Assessment of abdominal pain in the prehospital setting should include all of the following procedures EXCEPT: a. inspection. b. auscultation. c. palpation. d. all of the above.

b

Because nitroglycerin causes a slight drop in blood pressure, low blood pressure is a(n) _____ to give the drug. a. precaution b. contraindication c. reason d. indication

b

Bedsores, which are caused by pressure against the skin for long periods of time, are also called ____. a. deep vein thrombosis b. decubitus ulcers c. peptic ulcers d. hemoptysis

b

Before arriving on the scene of a call, what is your first step as an EMT? a. Size up the scene. b. Make sure that the scene is safe for you to arrive. Then don the proper PPE for BSI. c. Run to the patients and assess them immediately. They could be in critical condition. d. Make sure your partner is ready to go, everything is safe, then rush to assist the patients while you also don your PPE, simultaneously.

b

Blood has four main functions: transportation of gases, nutrition, protection, and regulation. a. True b. False

b

Blood in the ventricle is prevented from being forced back up into the atrium when the ventricle contracts by: a. the pressure maintained in the circulatory system. b. a one-way valve between the atrium and the ventricle. c. the atrium contracting before the ventricle does. d. the dilation and contraction of the blood vessels in the body

b

Bones are made of: a. calcified muscle tissue. b. connective tissue. c. skeletal tissue. d. integumentary tissue.

b

Burns are evaluated and classified by source, depth, and: a. character b. severity c. intensity d. accompanying injuries

b

By observing the patient's _______, you can check cyanosis. a. All of the above b. Nail beds c. Tongue d. Earlobes

b

CPR fraction refers to: a. The depth to release ratio for compressions on an adult patient b. The amount of time compressions are actually performed during CPR c. The relationship of the compressions to ventilations during a cycle of CPR d. The relationship of compressions to survival from out-of-hospital cardiac arrest

b

Cardiac arrest in children is most often caused by: a. chest trauma b. respiratory compromise c. hypovolemia d. irregular rhythm

b

Cardiac chest pain is usually felt in the jaw and the left arm. This is known as: a. Point tenderness b. Referred pain c. Associated pain d. Sympathy pain

b

Cartilage forms or helps form several structures in the body, including the: a. fibula. b. trachea. c. "tailbone." d. ribs.

b

Chaotic electrical activity originating from many sites in the heart is called: a. asystole. b. V-fib. c. V-tach. d. PEA.

b

Coffee ground-like substances in a patient's vomit are an indication of bowel distention. a. True b. False

b

Common signs and symptoms of patients suffering from cardiac compromise include: a. dull aching chest pain, numbness in the extremities, cyanosis, decreased blood pressure, diminished bowel sounds b. dyspnea, chest pain that is described a squeezing dull or crushing, mild chest discomfort, pain that radiated to the arms and jaw, sweating, nausea and vomiting. c. crushing pain, tremulousness, lacrimation, dyspnea and alopecia d. dyspnea, complaints of dull chest pain, diarrhea, diaphoresis, cardiomyopathy, pain that radiates to the the arms and jaw

b

Commotio cordis is caused by a direct blow to the a. Spine b. Chest c. Neck d. Head

b

Confidential patient information may be divulged: a. to alert other EMTs that a patient has an infectious disease. b. when subpoenaed by a court. c. to the patient's next of kin ONLY. d. to members of your squad or department ONLY

b

EMTs should wear high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirators when they are in contact with patients who have which of the following? a. HIV or AIDS b. tuberculosis (TB) c. open wounds d. hepatitis B

b

Each EMS system has a physician medical director. What is the primary role of the medical director? a. The medical director determines if an EMT is fit for duty through a series of physical and written tests. b. The medical director authorizes the EMTs in the field to provide appropriate medical care for each injury, condition, or illness they encounter. c. The medical director only allows EMTs to provide treatment after consulting with the base physician. d. The medical director oversees quality assurance programs for EMS personnel.

b

Each shoulder consists of several bones: the clavicle, the scapula, and the radius. a. True b. False

b

Elderly people are abused in only three ways: physically, emotionally, and mentally. a. True b. False

b

Electrical shock is of special concern because: a. The burns may have numerous entry and exit sites, often with hidden, severe bleeding. b. Electrical shocks can cause unseen internal organ damage, cardiac disrhythmias, and broken bones. c. Electricity may remain in the body of its victim, posing a risk to EMS personnel. d. People who work around electricity (electricians) are more prone to be sensitive to the negative effects of shock.

b

Elevated end tidal CO2 is a potential indicator of shock? a. true b. false

b

Emergency care for a responsive 7 year old child with a foreign body airway obstruction includes: a. holding the child on your knee and performing back blows b. standing behind the child and performing sub-diaphragmatic thrusts c. placing the child supine on the floor and attempting to see the obstruction d. placing the child supine on the floor and performing abdominal thrusts

b

Emergency care for patients who are not breathing adequately but have a pulse includes all of the following except ____. a. airway management b. CPR c. ventilatory support d. supplemental oxygen

b

Emergency care for the early local cold injury includes: a. gently massage the affected area b. preventing the affected area from any further cold exposure c. covering the affected area with cold, moist dressings d. forcing the patient to drink hot fluids

b

Epinephrine is administered to reverse the symptoms of severe allergic reaction. It also causes an increase in the patient's heart rate. This action of the drug is known as a: a. special consideration. b. side effect. c. reaction. d. contraindication.

b

Epinephrine is contraindicated for an anaphylactic patient with hypertension. a. True b. False

b

Examples of an open wound include ____. a. compound fracture, bruise b. impaled object, dog bite c. simple fracture, compound fracture d. dog bite, bruise

b

Finding out what is or may be wrong with a medical patient is similar to identifying the mechanism of injury with a trauma patient. It is called: a. nature of sickness. b. nature of illness. c. mechanism of illness. d. cause of disease.

b

Food allergies generally bring on reactions slower than insect stings, with the exception of an allergy to: a. eggs. b. peanuts. c. dairy products. d. shellfish.

b

For a conscious patient with rapid, inadequate ventilations, you should: a. ensure an airtight seal with an FROPVD and prevent all but approximately 10-12 adequate respirations per minute. b. use a BVM or face mask and attempt to increase the patient's minute volume. c. never use supplemental oxygen, as it may cause oversaturation and unconsciousness. d. have the patient breathe into a paper bag

b

For a patient with severe altered mental status, what do constricted pupils indicate? a. Use of amphetamine (stimulant) drugs b. Use of narcotic (depressant) drugs c. Head injury d. Heart injury

b

Forcing a competent patient to go to the hospital against his will may result in: a. a charge of false arrest. b. charges of assault and battery. c. a charge of wrongful detention. d. a charge of kidnapping.

b

Half of all cardiac arrest patients will initially have a _______ rhythm. a. V-Tach b. VF c. PEA d. AF

b

Having arrived at the scene of a patient with an altered mental status, you scan the scene quickly. What will point you in the right direction to find the cause of the altered mental status? a. Unkempt house with animal fur and dirt on the floor b. Medications including high blood pressure, anxiety and depression c. Over the counter (OCT) pain relievers d. A smell of dirty clothes and cat feces

b

Heated interchange is the safest prehospital method to return a hypothermic patient's body temperature to normal. a. True b. False

b

Hepatitis B is an example of which type of communicable disease? (A) Airborne (B) Bloodborne (C) Foodborne (D) Vectorborne

b

Herpes zoster in the older patient is usually called: a. hives. b. shingles. c. chickenpox. d. cold sores.

b

In a head-on collision, a poorly restrained 18-month-old child became loose from his car seat, causing him to strike the back of the front passenger seat. He presents supine on the car floor, tachypneic and with cyanotic, cool skin. He doesn't cry, and he grunts when he breathes. Lung sounds are diminished over the left side, and you note crepitus of the rib cage over that side. You should (A) immobilize the patient on a pediatric backboard and lay him on the affected side. (B) assist ventilations with a pediatric bag-valve mask. (C) administer high-flow oxygen via a pediatric nonrebreather mask. (D) administer low-flow oxygen via a pediatric nasal cannula.

b

In asthma, patients can suffer from: a. Obstruction in pulmonary arteries b. Mucosal edema in bronchioles c. Fluid in between the alveoli and capillaries increases d. Crackling sounds upon auscultation of lungs

b

In most cases, the oral requests of a family member for the EMT to withhold care from a patient are as valid as a legal DNR order a. True b. False

b

In order for a patient to refuse care or transport, the conditions that must be met include: a. arrangements being made to take the patient home. b. the patient's being fully informed of the risks. c. the patient's family's assuming responsibility. d. law enforcement's witnessing the refusal

b

In order to relieve the pain of a sea anemone sting, you should apply a cold compress to the wound site. a. True b. False

b

In reference to social media use for notification of out-of-hospital cardiac arrest (OHCA) the AHA believes: a. Social media has no role in notification of lay rescuers b. It may be reasonable to incorporate social media notification into community plans c. Communities should incorporate social media notification of OHCA d. OHCA notification via social media will be required for Heart Safe Community designation after 2017

b

In the mnemonic "CBRNE," the letter "R" stands for "radiological", as in a radiological terrorist attack. Under which of the remaining types of terrorist attacks would an anthrax poisoning fall? a. Chemical b. Biological c. Nuclear d. Explosive

b

In what position should you place a child's head for ventilation? a. in the neutral position b. slightly hyperextended c. slightly flexed forward d. in the recovery position

b

In which of the following circumstances is the recovery position appropriate? a. the patient is conscious and breathing spontaneously b. the patient is unconscious and breathing spontaneously c. the patient is unconscious and is not breathing spontaneously d. the patient is conscious and is not breathing spontaneously e. all of the above

b

Inadequate breathing is best described as: a. the patient complains of shortness of breath and is cyanotic around the lips. b. shallow breathing that is too slow or too fast, diminished breath sounds, abnormal noises, cyanosis, inadequate minute volume. c. the rate of breaths per minute is 16, with cold clammy skin. d. no chest rise, no air moving in and out of lungs, no sounds

b

Infants who have cyanosis, apnea, and are found unresponsive by their families sometimes resume breathing and color with stimulation. These children had what is called ALTE. What does ALTE stand for? a. apparent life-threatening experience b. apparent life-threatening event c. almost life-threatening experience d. almost life-threatening event

b

Injury to the C3 and C5 vertebrae can cause: a. Priapism b. Respiratory failure c. Lack of arm movement d. Lack of leg movement

b

Insulin is produced in the thyroid gland. a. True b. False

b

It is important to recognize and treat shock early. A late sign of shock is: a. increased pulse. b. decreased blood pressure. c. pale, cool skin. d. altered mental status.

b

Keeping your hands at least 10 inches apart, and having as great an area of your fingers and palms as possible in contact with the object being lifted, is called the: a. firefighter grip. b. power grip. c. strength grip. d. weight lifter's grip.

b

Lawsuits against EMTs usually result from either a patient refusal or negligence. a. True b. False

b

Maintaining eye contact with a conscious pediatric patient can cause the patient to become uncomfortable and, as a result, the patient may become uncooperative. a. True b. False

b

Malaria results in which of the following conditions in the blood? (A) Hypoxia (B) Anemia (C) Clotting (D) Dehydration

b

Mallory-Weiss Syndrome is caused by: a. Arrhythmia b. Vomiting c. Bowel strain d. Metastatic tumor

b

Many women develop diabetes during pregnancy who have not previously had diabetes. This condition, ____, resolves in most women after delivery. a. adult onset diabetes b. gestational diabetes c. type 1 diabetes d. type 2 diabetes

b

Meconium staining is an indicator of gestational diabetes. a. True b. False

b

Moderate alcohol consumption prior to working a shift as an EMT is allowed, since it most likely will not affect job performance. a. True b. False

b

Most inhalers work by: a. providing moisture to the lungs b. dilating the bronchioles c. increasing alveolar blood flow d. increasing the respiratory rate

b

Never allow a patient with chest pain to take nitroglycerin once you have begun administering oxygen. a. True b. False

b

New EMS standards changed the name EMT-Basic to Emergency Medical Responder a. True b. False

b

Older patients have a higher likelihood of choking due to age-related changes in the trachea. a. True b. False

b

Once the baby's head delivers, if you see the umbilical cord around the baby's neck, you should: a. immediately clamp and cut the cord. b. place two fingers under the cord and remove it from around the baby's neck. c. allow the delivery to continue and remove the cord after the baby is completely out. d. continue to support the head and immediately transport the mother to the hospital.

b

Select the safest method for handling a patient with an impaled object in the thigh. a. Hold pressure around the site with sterile gauze, carefully remove the object and apply an occlusive dressing. b. Stabilize the impaled object with bulky dressing; do not remove the object. c. Only remove impaled objects that are in the mouth. d. Complete patient assessment and, if stable, hold pressure with sterile gauze, carefully remove the object, and apply pressure dressing.

b

Shivering, tachypnea, and tachycardia are signs of: a. Early hypoxia b. Early hypothermia c. Late hypoxia d. Late hypothermia

b

Signs of breathing difficulty include all of the following EXCEPT: a. use of accessory muscles to breathe. b. increased pulse rate in children. c. inability to speak in full sentences. d. the patient sitting with feet dangling.

b

Since the skin is not broken in a closed wound, there is little chance of a serious injury beneath it. a. True b. False

b

Skin color and temperature can provide clues to significant blood loss in a patient because: a. blood loss raises the body's temperature, causing the skin to feel very warm and sweaty. b. constriction of the blood vessels causes the skin to become pale. c. skin receives more blood than normal when a patient has lost a significant amount of blood. d. blood vessels in the skin become larger, causing the skin to be red.

b

Snake bites and insect stings are examples of ingested poisons, because they enter the body through an opening. a. True b. False

b

Soft tissues of the body include all of the following EXCEPT: a. tendons and ligaments b. cartilage c. glands and nerves d. muscle

b

Splinting a closed, angulated fracture in the position in which it was found is usually ineffective, and may cause a(n) __________ during transport: a. distal protrusion b. open fracture c. ischial tuberosity d. hematomic rotation

b

Statistically, which of these presents the highest risk for ambulance crashes? a. Arriving on the scene b. Driving through intersections c. Driving code 3 to get off of the freeway d. Driving in reverse

b

Stretchers that can carry 800 pounds or more are called: a. one-man stretchers. b. bariatric stretchers. c. power stretchers. d. two-man stretchers.

b

Stridor is a low-pitched sound in the upper airways due to obstructed airflow. a. True b. False

b

Studies show that individuals in the health care profession are growing increasingly allergic to: a. alcohol. b. natural latex. c. iodine. d. plastics.

b

Syncope most often is due to (A) increased intracranial pressure. (B) a temporary lack of blood flow to the brain. (C) a heart attack or stroke. (D) medication overdose.

b

Syrup of ipecac has been used less in recent years because: a. it can take up to 8-12 hours to work. b. it removes, on average, less than one-third of the stomach contents. c. most patients will not drink it. d. the forceful vomiting removes too much fluid from the body.

b

The "B" in the pediatric assessment triangle refers to: a. Perfusion to the brain b. Work of breathing c. Body position d. Bradycardia

b

The "L" in SLUDGE-M stands for a. Laceration b. Lacrimation c. Lactate d. Lipid

b

The AED is used to detect: a. the patient's pulse rate and rhythm b. electrical activity of the heart c. the contraction force of the heart d. the degree of cardiac compromise

b

The AHA defines a child as 1 year to 8 years of age. a. True b. False

b

The EMT must be able to distinguish between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia to give proper treatment. a. True b. False

b

The EMT should always transport a patient with cardiac compromise to the hospital quickly, using lights and siren all the way. a. True b. False

b

The EMT should avoid restraining a patient with a traumatic emergency. Only restrain behavioral patients. a. True b. False

b

The JumpSTART triage system for pediatric patients is designed for children younger than ____ years or who appear to weigh less than ____ pounds. a. 9, 120 b. 8, 100 c. 6, 60 d. 7, 90

b

The _________ is best known for its ability to produce insulin, which assists in the regulation of sugar in the bloodstream. a. liver b. pancreas c. gallbladder d. kidney

b

The administration of nitroglycerin by an EMT requires direction from medical control or a standing order, but which of these should you immediately note as a contraindication for the administration of this drug? a. patient with systolic blood pressure over 100 b. patient taking medication for erectile dysfunction c. patient reports burning sensation under the tongue with previous administrations d. patient diagnosed with angina

b

The aorta begins with its attachment to the heart and continues inferiorly in front of the spine. It splits into two arteries at the level of the: a. diaphragm. b. navel. c. nipple. d. pubis.

b

The body loses heat in several different ways. One is when currents of air pass over the body, carrying heat away. This is called: a. evaporation. b. convection. c. radiation. d. conduction.

b

The bone marrow inhibits the solid components of blood from being created. a. True b. False

b

The diastolic blood pressure represents the pressure in the brachial artery when the: a. ventricles contract b. ventricles are at rest c. cardiac artery is stressed d. aorta is distended

b

The duodenum, jejunum, and ileum are components of the: a. large intestine. b. small intestine. c. bowel. d. stomach.

b

The only time you can remove an impaled object is when it is impaled in the: a. leg. b. cheek. c. chest. d. abdomen.

b

The only type of diabetes that does not cause excessive thirst is diabetes mellitus. a. True b. False

b

The patient is a 29 year old female pregnant with her second child. She is 39 weeks pregnant and saw a bloody show approximately four hours ago. Her contractions are 2 minutes apart and lasting 60 seconds. Transport time is approximately 45 minutes. You should: a. protect the airway and monitor vital signs while transporting b. prepare for an imminent on-scene delivery c. position the mother on her left side and begin transport d. notify dispatch of the need for ALS assistance

b

The phrenic nerve is primarily innervated from which area of the spine? a. C1 and C2 b. C3 through C5 c. T2 through T4 d. T9 and T10

b

The physician responsible for the patient care aspect of an EMS system is called the: a. executive director. b. medical director. c. triage officer. d. chief officer.

b

The places where bones meet at the top of an infant's skull are called: a. the humerus. b. fontanelles. c. meninges. d. grooves.

b

The preferred method of providing artificial ventilation to a patient is the: a. two-person bag-valve mask with high-flow oxygen. b. mouth-to-pocket mask with high-flow oxygen. c. flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device. d. one-person bag-valve mask with high-flow oxygen

b

The pressure regulator provides a safe working pressure of 20 to 50 psi. a. True b. False

b

The primary assessment is only performed once and then is replaced by the reassessment. a. True b. False

b

The production of insulin and epinephrine takes place within the: a. lymph system. b. endocrine system. c. cardiovascular system. d. nervous system.

b

The proper amount of air injected to the cuff of an Endo Tracheal Tube is ____. a. 1 cc b. 10 cc c. 100 cc d. 25 cc

b

The pupils change size when the amount of light entering the eyes changes. When a lot of light enters the eye, the pupils will: a. remain the same. b. constrict. c. dilate. d. completely close.

b

The purpose of quickly opening and closing the valve on an oxygen tank before attaching the regulator is to: a. ensure the valve is facing away from you and the patient b. blow dirt or contamination out of the opening c. ensure the tank is filled d. check the pressure inside the tank

b

The purpose of the automated external defibrillator is to reverse which of the following cardiac rhythm disturbances? (A) Ventricular standstill (B) Ventricular fibrillation (C) Asystole (D) Sinus rhythm without a pulse

b

The respiratory anatomy of infants and children differs from that of adults in several ways, including that: a. the trachea of a child is more rigid, requiring more care to be taken when applying a C-collar. b. the tongue of an infant takes up proportionally more space in the pharynx than does the tongue of an adult. c. a child's airway is less easily obstructed, because it is more flexible. d. infants and children do not rely on the diaphragm for breathing as much as adults.

b

The rule of nines describes the percentage of the body that certain areas take up, on average. For kids, this is: a. 10% each for the head (and neck), and each arm. 10% each for the chest/back/two legs. 3% for the genitals. b. 10% for each arm, 13% each for the chest and back. 21% for the head. 14% for each leg. 1% for genitals. c. 9% each for the head (and neck), and both arms. 18% each for the chest/back/two legs. 1% for genitals. d. 12% for each arm, 16% each for head/chest/back. 13% for each leg. 10% for each arm.

b

The seriousness of a gunshot wound is based on the caliber of the bullet. A .22 caliber gunshot wound would not be considered serious. a. True b. False

b

The severity of shock is classified into three categories. When the body is able to maintain blood pressure and perfusion, it is called: a. decompensated shock. b. compensated shock. c. irreversible shock. d. perfusion shock.

b

The single most effective way to prevent the spread of infection is to (A) wear gloves. (B) wash your hands. (C) avoid touching patients. (D) be current with your vaccinations.

b

The term "medial" refers to a position on the body that is: a. farther away from the midline. b. closer to the midline. c. farther away from the midaxillary line. d. closer to the midaxillary line.

b

The term bilateral refers to one side of the chest. a. True b. False

b

The trachea divides into two: a. carina b. bronchi c. alveoli d. lungs

b

The two most common sites of aneurysms that you will encounter in emergency situations are those that occur in the: a. myocardium and brain. b. aorta and brain. c. myocardium and femoral artery. d. aorta and myocardium.

b

To which of the following patients is appropriate to administer the head tilt chin lift maneuver? a. A 35 year old man who loses consciousness in you presence after being extricated from a car accident. b. An unresponsive 70 year old male who has is in cardiac arrest at a restaurant. c. A 25 year old female complaining of difficulty breathing after falling an hitting her head. d. An unconscious teenage male who fell off his skateboard.

b

Today's smaller vehicles and contoured seats make it more difficult to use _______ for extrications. a. vest-type devices b. short spine boards c. cervical collars d. power tools

b

Training to handle special rescue situations, such as hazardous materials spills, is part of the EMT curriculum. a. True b. False

b

Treatment for head injuries includes: a. applying the PASG to increase perfusion to the brain. b. high-concentration oxygen to help reduce brain tissue swelling. c. transporting the patient in the Trendelenburg position to treat for shock. d. all of the above.

b

Upon arrival at a residential natural gas explosion, you find a 36-year-old male patient who complains of a diminished ability to hear, moderate dyspnea, and acute abdominal pain. What mechanism is the cause of these symptoms? a. Toxic inhalation of natural gas b. Primary blast injury c. Secondary blast injury d. Tertiary blast injury

b

Upon examining a trauma patient's nose, which of the following findings would be consistent with a basilar skull fracture? a. Absence of bleeding from the nose b. Blood mixed with cerebrospinal fluid c. Bleeding from only one nostril d. Increased mucus in both nostrils

b

Using a(n) _______________-based cleaner is an acceptable method for washing your hands when traditional soap and water are not available. a. lye b. alcohol c. bleach d. water

b

Usually only _______ patients can develop hemorrhagic shock due to a closed head injury. a. diabetic b. infant c. comatose d. elderly

b

What are the basic patient assessment components for trauma patients? a. primary and secondary assessment, stabilize, and reassessment b. scene size-up/MOI, primary, history, secondary assessment, and reassessment c. primary assessment, MOI, secondary assessment, history d. primary and secondary assessment, history, and reassessment.

b

What cardiovascular disease causes crackles upon auscultation of lung sounds?" a. Systemic edema caused by right sided heart failure. b. Pulmonary edema caused by left sided heart failure. c. The thoracic cavity has edema due to popped blood vessel. d. The patient sustained a head injury which is affecting the heart pump.

b

What distinguishes anaphylaxis from a mild allergic reaction is that, to be considered anaphylaxis, the patient must have: a. itching. b. respiratory distress. c. hives. d. headache.

b

What do yellow skins indicate? a. Anaphylaxis b. Jaundice c. Hypovolemic shock d. Overdose

b

What does CHF stand for, and what is it? a. Collective heart failure, and it is the failure of both sides of the heart. b. Congestive heart failure, and it is the failure of both sides of the heart. c. Corrective heart failure, and it is the correction of the heart, from a myocardial infarction. d. Cumulative heart failure, and it is the failure of not only the heart, but the blood vessels.

b

What does Newton's second law of motion explain? a. an object will remain at rest or continue to move at a constant velocity unless a resultant force acts on it b. Net force on an object is proportionate to its mass multiplied by its acceleration c. for every force acting on an object, the object will exert an equal yet opposite force on its cause d. what goes up must come down

b

What does the "Q" in the mnemonic "OPQRST" stand for and what is this mnemonic used to identify in the field? a. Quality; rapid trauma assessment b. Quality; the specifics of a patient's chief complaint c. Questioning; mental status d. Qualify; deciding where to transport the patient

b

What does the acronym HAPE mean? a. high-atmosphere physical exposure b. high-altitude pulmonary edema c. high-altitude pulmonary ecchymosis d. high-atmosphere pulmonary edema

b

What event often occurs in patients with Type II diabetes? a. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) b. Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome c. Hypoglycemia d. Lack of sugar

b

What is a description of a partial thickness (second degree) burn? a. redness and no blisters b. intense pain, blisters, moist skin c. mild pain, redness d. moderate pain, blisters

b

What is insulin? a. An oral solution given to a patient suffering form hypoglycemia. b. A hormone that helps the body metabolize glucose. c. An injectable medicine that helps regulate hypoglycemic uptake. d. The hormone responsible for converting complex sugars to simpler glucose.

b

What is not included in the upper airway? a. the tongue b. the trachea c. the larynx d. the jaw

b

What is status epilepticus? a. A seizure that Lasts longer than 5 minutes b. A seizure that begins again after one seizure stops without the patient regaining consciousness c. A seizure that produces apnea d. A seizure that is experienced only on one side of the body

b

What is the advantage of using the Incident Command System (ICS)? a. The ICS is a rigid structure to establish command over an incident. b. The ICS gives you a modular organizational structure that can be applied to incidents of all sizes. c. The ICS provides common guidelines for responding to an incident. d. The ICS provides a framework to enable federal, state, and local governments, as well as private sector and nongovernmental organizations, to work together effectively.

b

What is the appropriate device to use for an isolated mid-shaft femur fracture? a. Air splint b. Traction splint c. Pneumatic anti-shock garment d. Femur splint

b

What is the best airway opening maneuver for a man who has fallen off a ladder and is suffering from respiratory distress? a. Head Tilt - Chin Lift b. Jaw Thrust c. Bite Block d. Intubation

b

What is the leading cause of cardiac arrest in children, and why? a. Children breathe at a faster rate and take in more oxygen. This means that children use more oxygen for metabolic processes, and when they stop breathing, cardiac arrest can occur due to poor perfusion to the heart. b. Children have small lungs and a higher metabolic rate, so hypoxia can occur more often in children. c. Children do not breathe as deeply as adults and do not get enough oxygen during activity. This can lead to cardiac arrest under severe conditions. d. Children are weaker in general and can have sharp objects puncture them easier, leading to cardiac arrest.

b

What is the most effective way to slow an arterial bleed caused by a laceration to the hand? a. Elevate b. Apply a tourniquet two inches above the wound c. Apply a hemostatic agent d. Apply direct pressure

b

What is the most immediate benefit of continuing education? (A) Improved patient outcomes (B) Increased knowledge base (C) Increased wages and benefits (D) Better relationships with other healthcare professionals

b

What is the normal heart rate for a newborn (0-3 months)? a. 100 - 120 b. 140 - 160 c. 120 - 140 d. 80 - 100

b

What is the order in which delivering a baby occurs? a. Expulsion, placental, dilation b. Dilation, expulsion, placental c. Placental, dilation, expulsion d. Expulsion, dilation, placental

b

What is the preferred method for opening the airway in patients suspected of a spinal injury? a. head tilt chin lift b. jaw thrust c. placing the patient in a recovery position d. triple airway maneuver

b

What is the proper rate for artificial ventilation in adults, vs. in children? a. For an adult, give on breath every 3-5 seconds. For children, give on breath every 5-6 seconds. b. For an adult, give one breath every 5-6 seconds. For children, give one breath every 3-5 seconds. c. For an adult, give on breath every 6-8 seconds. For children, give on breath every 2-3 seconds. d. For an adult, give on breath every 3-4 seconds. For children, give on breath every 2-3 seconds.

b

What is the purpose of the Sellick's maneuver? a. To move the vallecula into view b. To reduce the risk of vomiting c. To collapse the trachea 4. To move the carina into view

b

What is the purpose of using terror against a population? a. To advance the population's goals and agenda. b. To cause political and socio/economic change to advance the terror group's agenda. c. To show a different side of the terrorist organization. d. To advance the terrorist organization's humanitarian efforts.

b

What is the time frame in which cardiogenic shock can occur after an acute myocardial infarction (AMI)? a. between 24 hours and 48 hours after the onset of AMI b. immediately and up to 24 hours after onset of AMI c. immediately and up to 48 hours after the onset of AMI d. immediately and up to a week after the onset of AMI

b

What is true about the left atrium? a. It receives blood from the veins of the body. b. It receives blood from the pulmonary veins. c. It pumps blood to the lungs. d. It pumps blood to the body.

b

What mixture of bleach to water is recommended when cleaning an ambulance? a. 1:2 dilution bleach to water b. 1:10 to 1:100 dilution bleach to water c. Bleach is not recommended. Use only an FDA approved chemical. d. 1:5 dilution bleach to water

b

What motor vehicle safety system is a hazard to personnel at the scene of a motor vehicle crash? a. the passive restraint system b. an airbag that has not deployed c. the seat belts d. an airbag that has deployed

b

What type of injury causes paradoxical motion of the chest during exhalation? a. Clavicle break b. Flail Chest c. Pneumothorax d. Hemopneumothorax

b

What type of injury should be suspected when the patient presents with "raccoon eyes"? a. mandibular fracture b. skull injury or fracture c. epistaxis d. rupture of tympanic membranes

b

What valve opens during left ventricular contraction, and what valve closes? a. The bicuspid valve closes and the pulmonary valve opens. b. The bicuspid valve closes and aortic valve opens. c. The tricuspid valve closes and the pulmonary valves opens. d. The tricuspid valve opens and the pulmonary valve closes.

b

Wheezing, excess mucus production, and slow capillary refill times are the three indicators of a lower-respiratory problem in a pediatric patient. a. True b. False

b

When a dying patient mourns things not accomplished or dreams that won't come true, he is said to be in the: a. denial stage. b. depression stage. c. bargaining stage. d. acceptance stage.

b

When a patient has taken an overdose of medication, it is important to have the patient vomit immediately. a. True b. False

b

When an EMT is treating an injury where the intestine is protruding through an abdominal wound, this is called: a. traumatic asphyxia. b. evisceration. c. aortic dissection. d. impaled object.

b

When an EMT thinks through a problem in an organized and efficient manner, this would be called: a. overthinking. b. critical thinking. c. diagnosis. d. differential diagnosis

b

When applied, the AED looks for shockable rhythms in the patient. What specific rhythms will trigger a shock in the AED. a. asystole and ventricular tachycardia b. ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation c. pulseless electrical activity, ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation and asystole d. asystole and ventricular fibrillation

b

When applying AED pads, always remember that one should be placed directly over the sternum and the other should be on the patient's lower-left ribs. a. True b. False

b

When assessing a conscious medical patient, you will conduct a detailed physical exam. a. True b. False

b

When assessing a patient who may have experienced a stroke, you choose to use the Cincinnati Stroke scale. Which of the following is not a part of this measure? a. Facial droop b. Grip c. Arm drift d. Speech

b

Which of the following are the signs of early respiratory distress in children and infants? a. breathing rate of less than ten per minute, limp muscle tone, slow or absent heart rate, weak or absent distal pulses b. increased rate of breathing, nasal flaring, intercostal or supraclavicular retractions, mottled skin color, abdominal muscle use c. altered mental status, respiratory rate of over 60 or under 20 breaths per minute, severe retractions, severe use of accessory muscles d. inability to cough, crying with tears but no sounds, cyanosis, abdominal or chest-wall movements with absent breath sounds

b

Which of the following best describes why an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) can result in a drop in blood pressure? (A) Cardiac output increases during an AMI. (B) Death of heart muscle results in a decrease in stroke volume. (C) AMI results in peripheral vasodilation. (D) AMI results in stimulation of baroreceptors in the aorta

b

Which of the following does NOT explain the purpose of immediately documenting vital signs once they are obtained? a. Comparing each set of vital signs with the previous ones helps detect any trends. b. Failure to record the vital signs immediately is considered falsifying the medical record. c. It may be difficult to recall the vital signs accurately later on. d. Accurately reporting of vital signs is important when communicating with medical direction.

b

Which of the following drug types is likely to cause tachycardia, hypertension, and dilated pupils? (A) Cannabis (B) Stimulants (C) Hypnotics (D) Cholinergics

b

Which of the following emergencies may present with stroke-like symptoms? (A) Hyperglycemia (B) Hypoglycemia (C) Myocardial infarction (D) Pulmonary embolism

b

Which of the following exam findings indicates the greatest potential for harm in a patient with a head injury? (A) Retrograde amnesia (B) High blood pressure (C) Ringing in the ears (D) Nausea

b

Which of the following findings would best help you differentiate a tension pneumothorax from a cardiac tamponade? (A) Jugular venous distention (B) Narrowed pulse pressure (C) Hypotension (D) Tachycardia

b

Which of the following infectious diseases is transmittable by coming in contact with an infected person's blood? (A) Croup (B) Hepatitis (C) Tuberculosis (D) Influenza

b

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate personal trait of the EMT? a. Neat and clean appearance b. Complacency c. Good moral character d. Resourcefulness

b

Which of the following is NOT an organ that assists in the breakdown of food? a. Pancreas b. Kidney c. Gallbladder d. Liver

b

Which of the following is an important trait of the EMT? a. Being able to lift and carry up to 200 pounds b. Being able to receive oral and written instructions c. Having perfect vision without the use of glasses or contact lenses d. Withstanding toxic fumes without protective equipment to rescue patients

b

Which of the following is not a reliable sign when checking circulation in a 20-year-old patient? a. Pedal pulse b. Capillary refill c. Distal pulse d. Skin color

b

Which of the following is not a symptom of CHF? a. JVD b. PE c. Pedal edema d. Hypertension

b

Which of the following is not part of the primary assessment for a patient who has been in a traumatic car accident? a. Ensuring a patent airway b. Performing a rapid trauma assessment c. Ensuring adequate ventilations d. Assessing appropriate circulation

b

Which of the following is true regarding asystole? a. It is caused by chaotic electrical activity in the heart muscle. b. The heart has ceased generating electrical impulses. c. It is the primary electrical disturbance resulting in cardiac arrest. d. It is a "shockable" rhythm.

b

Which of the following occurs as blood glucose levels fall below about 70 mg/dL? (A) Type 2 diabetes develops. (B) Glucagon secretion increases. (C) Insulin secretion increases. (D) Hyperglycemia develops.

b

Which of the following patients would be described as alert and oriented? a. 40 year old female who appears to be asleep but answers you appropriately when questioned b. 4 year old male who refuses to tell you his name and cries to be returned to his mother's arms c. 65 year old male who grimaces when you pinch his shoulder but does not answer you d. 59 year old female who tells you her name but can't remember why you are there

b

Which of the following portions of the brain is responsible for the respiratory drive? a. cerebrum b. the pons c. the corpus callosum d. all of the above

b

Which of the following presentations is most indicative of cardiac tamponade? a. Decreased lung sounds and decreased pulse pressure b. JVD and decreased pulse pressure c. Decreased pulse rate and increased pulse pressure d. Increased respiratory rate and increased pulse rate

b

Which of the following questions would be least helpful in determining the cause of a patient's vaginal bleeding? (A) "When was your last menstrual period?" (B) "Are you having difficulty breathing?" (C) "Could you be pregnant?" (D) "Have you had any surgeries?"

b

Which of the following situations could create the greatest dilemma between ethical and moral beliefs? a. Providing oxygen to a patient in respiratory distress. b. Transporting a critically injured intoxicated driver from an MVA in which a child sustained injuries incompatible with life. c. Transporting a 16-year-old patient that was an unrestrained driver in an MVA to the emergency department when he does not want to be evaluated. d. Transporting a homeless person to the emergency department for evaluation of a cough.

b

Which of the following statements is true regarding the cardiovascular system? a. All four chambers of the heart contract at once, pumping blood to the lungs and the body. b. The ventricles contract slightly after the atria. c. All arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart. d. The right ventricle is the most muscular and strongest part of the heart.

b

Which of the following symptoms can be heard without a stethoscope? a. rales b. stridor c. ronchi d. wheezing

b

Why should an EMT check all the equipment in the ambulance and complete an official checklist given by the company? a. This ensures that if you do not have a piece of equipment, you can prove that you did not have it in the first place. Generally, not having the equipment in the back of the ambulance means you must switch to a temporary ambulance for the day, while specialized personnel of the company replace the equipment for you. b. This ensures that you have checked equipment and replaced anything that was missing or expired. You can also find any possible ambulance or equipment damage that qualifies you to take another ambulance for the day, while the one you usually drive gets repaired. All of this ensures that you have reduced the liability associated with providing prehospital care. c. The U.S. Department of Health requires you to have an official checklist prior to officially starting your shift. This ensures that you are complying with the federal law. d. Insurance companies require a copy of the checklist when submitting your final paperwork for the day. This lets the insurance company know that if you did not have a piece of equipment, it did not affect the call related to the patient anyway.

b

Wind can make the body lose heat at a much greater rate. Heat lost in this way describes the process of: a. conduction b. convection c. radiation d. diffusion

b

You are a new EMT and are assisting your partner with a six-year-old male who fell off his skateboard, striking his head on the pavement. Your partner asks you to do a quick assessment using the DCAP-BTLS mnemonic. What does the "T" stand for in DCAP-BTLS? a. trauma b. tenderness c. temperature d. thrombosis

b

You are assessing a 13-month-old child and determine the need for spinal immobilization. You do not have a cervical collar that fits the patient. You should (A) use the smallest sized adult collar you have. (B) use a towel or other padding as an improvised cervical collar. (C) immobilize the child without cervical spine protection. (D) hold manual cervical spine stabilization throughout transport.

b

You are assessing a three-year-old male who was involved in a vehicle rollover with ejection from his car seat. Your patient is unconscious, unresponsive, with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) draining from his ears. What type of injury is most commonly associated with CSF drainage from the ears? a. depressed skull fracture b. basilar skull fracture c. linear skull fracture d. diastatic skull fracture

b

You are attending to a 22-year-old male patient who was hit in the head with a baseball bat. The patient has a closed head injury. If this patient had a contusion to the opposite side of his brain to which the bat hit his skull, it would be called: a. Coup injury b. Contre-coupe injury c. Concussion d. Hematoma

b

You are attending to a patient who has a laceration to their abdomen. Which of the following changes in vital signs would indicate that this patient is experiencing hypovolemic shock? a. Increase in pulse, decrease in respiratory rate, decrease in blood pressure, and decrease in pulse pressure b. Increase in pulse, increase in respiratory rate, decrease in blood pressure, and decrease in pulse pressure c. Increase in pulse, decrease in respiratory rate, decrease in blood pressure, and increase in pulse pressure d. Decrease in pulse, decrease in respiratory rate, increase in blood pressure, and increase in pulse pressure

b

You are attending to an 18-year-old male patient who fell 10 feet from a tree. He has a pulse of 99bpm, a BP of 130/99, diminished breath sounds, and an open radial fracture. You control the bleeding and prepare to transport the patient. What priority is this patient and why? a. High, because of his narrow pulse pressure b. High, because of diminished breath sounds c. High, because of an open fracture d. Low, because the bleeding is controlled

b

You are called to a home and find a three-year-old child who is dirty and has an ALOC. You see old bruises on his legs and arms. You suspect possible child abuse. You should ____. a. ask the parents for an explanation and determine if it appears logical before reporting the abuse b. report the abuse to the appropriate agency in your area c. not say anything—it's not your job d. talk to your supervisor and do what they tell you

b

You are called to a local gas station for a possible childbirth. You arrive on scene and find a 23-year-old female in the restroom, who complains that her water broke 10 minutes ago. You notice a foul smell and green liquid on the floor at her feet, which you determine to be meconium. What is meconium? a. amniotic fluid b. fetal stool c. a yeast infection d. an infected placenta

b

You are called to an unresponsive 4-year-old patient who has a congenital heart problem. The patient is limp and pulseless. You should: a. Administer two breaths b. Apply the AED c. Suction the child d. Determine the nature of the cardiac problem

b

You are called to provide emergency treatment to a female rape victim. Law enforcement is already on scene. It's important to do all of the following, except ____. a. Limit the physical exam to a brief assessment to determine life threatening injuries. b. Ask the woman to tell you details about what happened. c. Try to preserve evidence as you are dealing with a crime scene. d. If possible, give the victim the option of being treated by a female EMT.

b

You are caring for a 58-year-old male patient who has stopped breathing. You should immediately apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask. a. True b. False

b

You are caring for an amputated body part and prepare to wrap it in a moist dressing. What solution is best to moisten the dressing? a. D5W b. Normal Saline c. Sterile water d. Any of the above may be used

b

You are currently off duty and are on a date with your significant other. Suddenly, you hear someone say, "Help! My son is choking!" You then save the day by performing the Heimlich maneuver. In the process, you give the child a harmless bruise. The mother is angry about the bruise and threatens to take legal action. What law protects you from this legal action? a. Bystander law b. Good Samaritan law c. There is no law that exists, you are in trouble d. Duty to Act

b

You are delivering a newborn. As the head emerges from the birth canal, you note dark-colored, sticky secretions covering the infant's face, nose, and mouth. What should you anticipate? (A) This is a normal delivery. (B) The newborn is in distress and may require resuscitation. (C) There may be a delay in delivering the placenta. (D) You'll need to stimulate the newborn to breathe immediately.

b

You are dispatched to a private residence at 3:30 a.m. for a one-year-old female with seizures. Upon arrival, your patient is in her mother's arms, conscious, but slow to respond. Her mother says that her daughter sleeps with her and suddenly developed a high fever and started seizing for approximately one minute. Her daughter has no medical history, takes no medication, and has no known allergies. What type of seizure did the patient most likely have? a. a petit mal seizure b. a febrile seizure c. a nonfebrile seizure d. an epileptic seizure

b

You are dispatched to the scene of a potential unsafe materials incident in a local industrial complex. The dispatcher reports that nearly 30 workers have been affected and that a number of workers have been overcome by fumes. The specialized unsafe materials response team has been dispatched but will arrive approximately 20 minutes after your ambulance. When you arrive, a worker you meet at the gate points to a large white tank next to the building which is the apparent source of the contamination. On the side of the tank you see a multi-colored NFPA 704 symbol with a number four (4) placed within the blue diamond, a number one (1) placed within the red diamond, a number one (1) placed within the yellow diamond, and no indicator placed within the white diamond. A crowd of approximately fifteen workers approach you and state that they were exposed to fluid leaking from the tank. What should you do next? a. Mix a weak bleach solution and tell the victims to use it to decontaminate their exposed skin b. Have the patients remove their clothing and begin to rinse them with water c. Ask the patients to remain in a single location until the hazardous materials team arrives d. Begin to triage the patients and obtain baseline vital signs

b

You are dispatched to the scene of what seems to be a domestic dispute over child molestation. What would be the best word to ask a 5-year-old child about elimination habits? a. Urination b. 'Pee-Pee' c. Deltrusion d. Micturation

b

You are managing an elderly female patient with a heart rate of 55 bpm. The most appropriate way to describe her heart rate is: a. Tachycardia b. Bradycardic c. Normal d. Slow

b

You are on scene with a cardiac patient and have the ER physician on the telephone. He tells you to administer a nitroglycerin pill. This is an example of: a. direct medical orders. b. on-line medical direction. c. standing orders. d. off-line medical direction

b

You are performing rescue breaths on an unconscious patient. However, you do not see adequate chest rise and fall upon giving the rescue breaths with a BVM (Bag Valve Mask), attached to 100% oxygen. The patient's oxygen saturation levels are also falling. What should you do? a. Give the rescue breaths faster, abruptly re-tilt the patient's head to ensure an airway, and check the seal on the BVM. b. Reposition the patient's head, using the appropriate method. Check the oral adjunct you inserted to ensure that it is properly inhibiting the tongue from blocking the airway. Check the seal on the mask to ensure that air or oxygen is not escaping. c. Give the rescue breaths at a controlled pace. Re-tilt the patient's head. Remove the oral airway to check to see if it is working. d. Reposition the patient's head, using the head-tilt/chin-lift method. Check the oral adjunct you inserted to ensure that it is properly inhibiting the tongue from blocking the airway. Check the seal on the mask to ensure that there is a proper seal.

b

You are planning to have a continuing education seminar with your service's medical director. He asks you to define normal behavior after you both decide that behavioral emergencies need to be addressed. What would you reply? a. A person's observable conduct or activity b. Behavior that society views as acceptable c. Behavior that the person believes is normal d. Behavior that does not hurt anyone Skip

b

You are preparing to transport an 86 year old male who has an altered mental status to the hospital. Nursing home staff tell you they suspect he has an infection. His temperature does not appear to be elevated. This is likely because... a. geriatric patients have an increased basal body temperature. b. geriatric patients have less efficient temperature-regulating mechanisms. c. the immune systems of geriatric patients are hyperresponsive to infection. d. the infections most commonly seen in geriatric patients don't present with fever.

b

You are presented with a 2-year-old who appears limp and sleepy and doesn't respond to painful stimulus. The father describes a 24-hour history of vomiting and diarrhea with limited fluid intake. What condition do you suspect? (A) Compensated cardiogenic shock (B) Decompensating hypovolemic shock (C) Compensated hypovolemic shock (D) Irreversible distributive shock

b

You are presented with a three-year-old male who was witnessed by his babysitter putting a small plastic toy in his mouth. When she tried to take it out, it got pushed farther down his airway. The patient is conscious and coughing forcefully. What is the best course of action? a. Perform five abdominal thrusts. b. Encourage the child to continue coughing. c. Quickly administer five back blows. d. Perform a finger sweep.

b

You are transporting a patient in four-point restraints. Which of the following should be documented frequently? a. vital signs, especially blood pressure b. presence of distal circulation c. Glasgow Coma Score d. Everything the patient says

b

You are transporting a patient to dialysis when he becomes unconscious. Which intervention should you avoid? a. Taking his blood pressure using the arm without the fistula b. Taking his blood pressure using the arm with the fistula c. Ensuring an open airway d. Supplying oxygen at 15lpm

b

You are transporting an unconscious diabetic patient to the hospital. what is the best position for transport? a. Fowlers b. Recovery c. Supine d. Trendelenburg

b

You are treating a 50-year old male patient who is having cardiac issues. If the patient's heart is beating too fast or too slow, which of the following will happen? a. He will begin to get very agitated b. He may become unconscious c. He will begin to vomit d. He will have a seizure

b

You are treating a 50-year old male patient who is having cardiac issues. If the patient's heart is beating too fast or too slow, which of the following will happen? a. He will begin to vomit b. He may become unconscious c. He will have a seizure d. He will begin to get very agitated

b

You arrive at an assisted living facility where an 86-year-old male is pulseless and apneic. You manage the airway while your partner starts compressions. When you are about to place an oropharyngeal airway, you notice that the patient has firmly intact dentures. Before proceeding with the OPA, what should you do? a. Place the OPA and then remove the dentures. b. Leave the dentures in place. c. Switch to a nasopharyngeal airway. d. Remove the dentures.

b

You arrive at the scene of a 50-year-old male patient who is having extreme chest pain. What is a contraindication to administer nitro? a. The patient has a prescription b. The patient has a systolic BP less than 100 c. Medical direction approves d. The patient has a systolic BP greater than 100

b

You arrive on scene and notice that a patient sustained an injury to the arm. Upon closer look, you notice bright red blood spurting from the patient's arm. What kind of blood is this? a. Venous blood b. Arterial blood c. Capillary blood d. Arteriole blood

b

You arrive on scene to a dangerous car crash. There is shrapnel, the car is on fire, there is a patient in the car, and the fire team is on scene. What is the first thing you should do? a. Jump out and help the patient immediately with the fire crew. The patient might die. b. Ensure the safety of you and your partner. Your safety comes first. c. Ensure the safety of the bystanders. The fire may get out of hand. d. Ensure the safety of the fire team. They are your only hope to get the patient.

b

You arrive on scene where a 19-year-old female has been shot in the chest on the right side. Upon auscultation of her chest, you find that there are unequal and rapid breath sounds. Why should an occlusive dressing with a flutter valve be placed on this patient's wound? a. Because she is at risk of developing spontaneous pneumothorax b. Because she is at risk of developing tension pneumothorax c. A non-occlusive dressing should be placed on the wound to prevent the patient from developing tension pneumothorax d. A non-occlusive dressing should be placed on the wound to prevent the patient from developing spontaneous pneumothorax

b

You arrive on scene where you find a 23-year-old male patient who is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You begin CPR and send your partner to retrieve the AED from the ambulance. After placing the defibrillator pads on the patient's chest, your partner notices a sudden influx of air that seems to fill the patient's abdomen. Should you defibrillate the patient? Why? a. Yes, even a breathing patient should be defibrillated if he is unconscious. b. Yes, the breath your partner noticed was an agonal breath, and the AED will detect if the patient is in a shockable rhythm or not. c. No, the patient is breathing and therefore no longer needs to be defibrillated. d. No, the patient is experiencing an agonal breath, which means the CPR was working and you should return to doing CPR.

b

You arrive on the scene of a motor vehicle accident before law enforcement gets there. The speed limit on this particular street is 50mph. Where should you park the ambulance and what side should you exit? a. 100 feet before the start of the accident, blocking traffic to the work area; exit towards oncoming traffic b. 50 feet before the start of the accident, blocking traffic to the work area; exit towards the curb side of the road c. 50 feet before the start of the accident, blocking traffic to the work area; exit towards oncoming traffic d. 100 feet before the start of the accident, blocking traffic to the work area; exit towards the center of the road

b

You arrive on the scene of a motor vehicle crash (MVC) and find a tanker truck lying on its side, leaking an unknown fluid. You note numerous bystanders trying to assist the injured driver. You should first (A) call for additional resources. (B) move to a safe area uphill and upwind from the incident. (C) instruct the bystanders to move away from the tanker truck. (D) perform an assessment on the injured driver of the tanker truck.

b

You arrive on the scene of an unwitnessed adult arrest. Your crew employs a team approach. In reference to the defibrillator the team should: a. Apply the defibrillator immediately and before CPR is started b. Begin CPR. Apply the defibrillator and analyze as soon as possible c. Perform 2 to 3 minutes of CPR prior to applying the defibrillator d. Focus on fast, deep compressions for about 5 minutes to make defibrillation more likely to succeed

b

You can assess a pregnant woman's uterine contractions by placing your gloved hand on a. her abdomen, below the naval b. her abdomen, above the naval c. the right side of her abdomen d. the left side of her abdomen

b

You determine that your unconscious patient has an inadequate airway. You insert an oropharyngeal airway. The patient vomits. You should first (A) place the patient into a prone position. (B) remove the airway. (C) suction the airway until it's clear. (D) place the patient in a sitting position.

b

You encounter two burn victims. A child with one fully circumferential leg burn, and an adult with his entire back burnt. Using the Rule Of Nines, add each victims' score together to come up with one number. What is it. a. 23 b. 32 c. 36 d. 15

b

You find a 75-year-old male lying unresponsive in bed. Family reports that the patient was last seen two days ago in a normal state. He takes thyroid medication and a blood thinner. His pulse rate is 60, his blood pressure is 210/104 mm Hg, and he has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. Lung sounds are clear, and there's bruising to the left side of his head and to his abdomen. Which is the most likely cause of the patient's presentation? (A) Acute alcohol poisoning (B) Subdural hematoma (C) Acute ischemic stroke (D) Internal hemorrhage

b

You form a general impression by listening, smelling, and touching. a. True b. False

b

You have an unresponsive patient with an intact gag reflex. You attempt to place a nasal airway in his right nostril, but you meet resistance and cannot insert. You should ____. a. try a smaller size b. try the other nostril and be sure you have lubricated the device c. push it in with more force d. switch to an oral airway

b

You have arrived at a hospital with a trauma patient. There is a large amount of blood on the floor and walls of the ambulance as well as on the gurney. What would be the best way to clean the unit and return it to service? (A) Use hot water and a towel to wipe up the blood. (B) Spray 1:10 bleach and water solution to contaminated areas and wipe with a towel or mop. (C) Allow the blood to dry and then use a broom to brush it away. (D) Heat-sterilize the ambulance.

b

Your 68-year-old male patient complains of a constant, throbbing abdominal pain around his umbilicus with radiation to his back. His posterior tibial and dorsalis pedal pulses are absent. His blood pressure is 168/74 mm Hg in his left arm and 166/72 in his right arm. His radial pulse is 108 beats per minute and strong in his right and left arms. His abdomen is soft and tender around the umbilical area, with no pulsatile mass noted. His medical problems include atherosclerosis and chronic bronchitis. What condition would you most likely suspect? a. Umbilical hernia b. Abdominal aortic aneurysm c. Cholecystitis d. Appendicitis

b

Your EMS unit is called to a private residence at 7:00 a.m. for an unknown medical emergency. Dispatch tells you that a woman called screaming about her baby, but the dispatcher couldn't get any more information. You arrived to find a woman holding a cyanotic three-month-old girl on her front lawn. Through her tears, you understand she found the baby this way when she checked on her in her crib. You and your partner are alone on the scene in a rural area 45 minutes from the closest hospital. Your partner places the mother in the front seat and begins rapid transport while you start CPR in the back. Using the STOP mnemonic, when is it appropriate to discontinue CPR? a. S—the patient starts breathing and has a pulse, T—transfer of care to another provider, O—out of oxygen, P—physician's orders b. S—the patient starts breathing and has a pulse, T—transfer of care to another provider, O—out of strength, P—physician's orders c. S—the patient starts breathing and has a pulse, T—traumatic injury, O—out of strength, P—physician's orders d. S—the patient sits up, T—transfer of care to another provider, O—out of oxygen, P—physician's orders

b

Your male patient has climbed out of his car unassisted after a car crash, but he is now complaining of back pain. You should: a. transport him in whatever position is the most comfortable b. immobilize him to a long spine board with a standing take-down c. immobilize him to a short spine board in the sitting position d. immobilize him with a Kendrick Extrication device

b

Your partner asks you to clean an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) that was used on a patient during a cardiac arrest. You should (A) wipe the OPA off with a towel. (B) clean the OPA with a disinfectant agent. (C) wash the OPA in hot, soapy water. (D) clean the OPA in cold, sterile water.

b

Your patient complains of dizziness and a headache. He has a history of angina that is treated with nitroglycerin and high blood pressure for which he has not been taking his prescribed medications. His blood pressure is 230/164 mm Hg, his heart rate is 84, and his respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute. You should (A) assist the patient with his nitroglycerin to lower his blood pressure. (B) administer oxygen via nasal cannula. (C) lay the patient in a head-down position. (D) perform a complete secondary assessment.

b

Your patient complains of substernal chest pain radiating to his left shoulder and jaw. He has a history of angina and has his prescribed nitroglycerin with him. You should first (A) assist him with his nitroglycerin. (B) obtain a blood pressure. (C) have him walk to the ambulance and transport immediately. (D) perform a full secondary assessment.

b

Your patient has severe eye pain after being struck in the face with a bat. Your exam reveals a ruptured globe in his right eye. Proper care of this injury includes (A) irrigating the eye for 20 minutes. (B) placing an eye shield over both eyes. (C) applying a cold pack over the injury site. (D) applying direct pressure to the ruptured globe.

b

Your patient is a 19 year old male who has been in a motorcycle accident and shows deformity and bleeding to the left leg. You would NOT perform a detailed physical exam if the patient a. said that he was feeling fine except for his leg b. began to spurt blood from an open wound c. was in a great deal of pain and discomfort d. showed a weak pulse or other signs of shock

b

Your patient is a 19 year old male with severe nosebleed and no other signs of trauma. In what position should you place him? a. flat on his back, with lower extremities elevated b. sitting up and leaning forward c. prone d. supine

b

Your patient is a 22-year-old male with an object impaled on the right side of his chest, just below the shoulder. What is the best course of action for this patient after assessing that the object was not blocking his airway? a. Remove the object by pushing it through the same direction as it entered b. Stabilize the object in place, control the bleeding and transport c. Remove the object by pulling it back out the way it entered. d. Cut the object close to the patient in order to control the bleeding and transport the patient

b

Your patient is a 23 year old female who calmly tells you that her thoughts are controlling the weather. Her body language and speech are non-threatening and gentle. You should: a. request immediate police backup for protection b. talk quietly to this patient and keep her calm c. request permission to restrain the patient d. take a detailed medical history

b

Your patient is a 24 year old female with a history of asthma. She is wheezing and gasping for air and has a pulse rate of 88/min. You may assist her in using an inhaler if: a. she has not yet taken more than three doses of medication b. she has her own inhaler and you obtain medical direction c. her respiratory rate is greater than 24/min d. her blood pressure is grater than 100/70

b

Your patient is a 25 year old female who is severely hypothermic after having plunged into an icy river. Although she was rescued after only a few minutes in the water, she is showing diminished level of responsiveness. Your care should include: a. encouraging the patient to walk in order to improve her circulation b. covering the patient in blankets and turning up the heat in the ambulance c. giving her hot coffee or tea to drink and massaging her extremities d. beginning active rewarming measures under direct medical direction

b

Your patient is a 32-year-old female who is unconscious without a gag reflex. You ask your partner to hand you an oropharyngeal airway to assist with maintaining the patient's airway. How do you measure for the correct size? a. measure from the patient's tip of their nose to the corner of their mouth b. measure from the patient's earlobe or angle of the jaw to the corner of their mouth c. measure from the patient's earlobe to the tip of their nose d. measure from one side of the patient's jaw to the other side

b

Your patient is confused but is able to follow directions. His wife states that he "may have taken too much insulin." His pulse rate is 102 per minute, and his blood pressure is 128/90 mm Hg. He is breathing 14 times per minute with noticeable chest rise and fall. Your next step is to (A) administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. (B) administer oral glucose. (C) inquire more into his past medical history. (D) hold cervical spine stabilization.

b

Your patient is conscious and alert with difficulty breathing secondary to an exacerbation of COPD. His respiratory rate is 22, with a prolonged expiratory phase and pursed-lip breathing A pulse oximeter registers 84 percent. You should (A) withhold oxygen. (B) initiate CPAP. (C) assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. (D) administer oxygen via blow-by mask.

b

Your patient is experiencing right-sided heart failure. You should expect an accumulation of fluid in the... a. alveoli. b. periphery. c. pulmonary vein. d. coronary arteries.

b

Your patient is found lying on the ground after falling off a roof. He is unconscious and apneic. Which method should you use to open the patient's airway? a. head tilt/chin lift b. modified jaw thrust c. head tilt only d. head tilt/neck lift

b

Your patient is showing signs and symptoms of shock and has a tender abdomen. She reports vomiting material that looked like coffee grounds. You should suspect a. ruptured appendix b. internal bleeding c. fractured pelvis d. inhaled poisoning

b

Your patient is sitting on a living room couch, confused and lethargic after inhaling glue fumes. Vital signs are a regular heart rate of 88, blood pressure of 128/90 mm Hg, a respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and an oxygen saturation level of 98 percent. You should (A) administer activated charcoal. (B) administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. (C) decontaminate the patient by removing his clothes. (D) transport the patient to a facility with a hyperbaric chamber.

b

Your patient is unconscious after being struck by a car. His breathing is slow and shallow, and you hear snoring. You feel crepitus when you palpate his pelvis and both femurs. His pulse rate is 126, and his blood pressure is 82/56 mm Hg. Which of the following treatments is indicated? (A) Application of a tourniquet (B) Application of a pneumatic anti-shock garment (PASG) (C) Oxygen via a nonrebreather mask (D) Use of a traction splint

b

Your patient presents conscious and alert with a sudden onset of slurred speech and facial droop. His heart rate is 100, his blood pressure is 210/120 mm Hg, his respirations are 12 per minute with good tidal volume, and his pulse oximetry is 98 percent on room air. You should (A) withhold oxygen. (B) transport to a stroke center. (C) ventilate with a bag-valve-mask device. (D) administer aspirin.

b

Your patient presents severely agitated, paranoid, and hyper-alert. His pupils are dilated bilaterally, and his skin is warm and diaphoretic. His heart rate is 104, and his blood pressure is 148/100 mm Hg. His respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute with normal tidal volume. Which of the following drugs has he most likely been using? (A) Marijuana (B) Methamphetamine (C) Heroin (D) Barbiturates

b

Your patient presents supine on the ground with a sucking chest wound after being stabbed with a knife. You note that his respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute with shallow tidal volume. You should immediately (A) administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. (B) cover the chest wound with a gloved hand. (C) obtain a full set of vital signs. (D) apply a cervical collar.

b

Your patient presents supine on the roadway and unconscious after being struck by a car. You note that he has a flail segment on his left lateral chest and has rapid respirations with a shallow tidal volume. He is wearing a medical alert bracelet that identifies him as a diabetic. You should immediately administer (A) continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP). (B) oxygen via a bag-valve mask. (C) oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. (D) oral glucose.

b

Your patient presents unconscious with slow, shallow, and snoring respirations and an intact gag reflex. You should immediately (A) insert an oropharyngeal airway. (B) insert a nasopharyngeal airway. (C) suction the airway. (D) ventilate with a bag-valve mask.

b

Your patient presents with a screwdriver impaled through his pants, into his thigh. You should immediately (A) expose the wound area. (B) manually stabilize the screwdriver. (C) use a bulky dressing to stabilize the object. (D) remove the object

b

Your patient presents with altered mental status, difficulty breathing, hypotension, and tachycardia after being stung by a bee. He is allergic to bees and carries an epinephrine autoinjector. You should immediately (A) administer oxygen. (B) have the patient use his epinephrine autoinjector. (C) determine the blood pressure. (D) administer oral glucose

b

Your patient presents with bright red blood spurting from a stab wound to her bicep. You should immediately (A) apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound. (B) apply direct pressure to the wound. (C) elevate the arm. (D) apply in-line cervical spine immobilization.

b

Your patient presents with decorticate posturing after being hit in the head with a bat. Your physical exam reveals a fixed and dilated right pupil. His heart rate is 52 beats per minute, his respiratory rate is 6 breaths per minute with erratic tidal volume, and his blood pressure is 188/92 mm Hg. Your first step is to (A) perform full spinal immobilization. (B) ventilate the patient 20 times per minute with a bag-valve mask. (C) administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. (D) apply a cervical collar

b

Your patient presents with hallucinations and violent behavior. You restrain him to the stretcher by his wrists and ankles. While en route to the hospital he calms down noticeably, apologizes for his behavior, and asks you to remove the restraints. You should (A) remove all the restraints. (B) not remove the restraints. (C) remove the ankle restraints but not the wrists. (D) remove the wrist restraints and reevaluate the situation.

b

Your patient presents with slow, shallow, and gurgling respirations. You should immediately (A) insert a nasopharyngeal airway. (B) suction his airway. (C) listen to lung sounds. (D) ventilate with a bag-valve mask

b

Your patient splashed liquid fertilizer on his unprotected arms. This would be an example of _______ poisoning. a. inhaled b. absorbed c. injected d. ingested

b

A 10-year-old female was struck by a motor vehicle while riding her bicycle. She is unresponsive to painful stimulus, is breathing shallowly at 10 times per minute, and has a pulse rate of 68 per minute. You note her pupils are unequal and notice an obvious deformity to the right humerus and right femur. Her abdomen is firm. Her helmet is damaged on the right side. Your priority of care is to (A) ventilate the patient with a bag-valve mask and oxygen, immobilize the patient with a cervical collar and backboard, splint the femur with a traction splint, and begin transport. (B) immobilize the patient with a cervical collar and backboard, administer oxygen with a nonrebreather mask, begin transport, and splint the femur with a traction splint. (C) ventilate the patient with a bag-valve mask and oxygen, immobilize the patient with a cervical collar and backboard, begin transport, and splint the femur and humerus if time permits. (D) ventilate the patient with a bag-valve mask and oxygen, place the patient on a gurney, begin transport, and splint the femur and humerus if time permits.

c

A 12-month-old female presents supine in bed having a generalized seizure. There is vomit around her mouth and she is peripherally cyanotic. You note that her respirations are rapid and shallow. You should (A) insert an oropharyngeal airway. (B) ventilate with a bag-valve mask. (C) inspect her airway. (D) administer blow-by oxygen.

c

A 12-year-old Type 1 diabetic female is unresponsive. There is gurgling in her airway. A parent says her blood sugar level is low. You should first (A) administer oral glucose. (B) obtain a set of vital signs. (C) suction her airway. (D) insert a nasopharyngeal airway

c

A 12-year-old male presents in respiratory arrest after falling off a secondfloor balcony. You note a large contusion to his forehead, and he has a heart rate of 62. You should first (A) determine his blood pressure. (B) perform full spinal immobilization. (C) ventilate with a bag-valve mask (D) administer chest compressions.

c

A 16-year-old female says she is short of breath. She is alert and is speaking seven to eight words in between breaths. She has hives on her chest and arms, and her skin is pale. You should (A) ventilate the patient with a bag-valve mask. (B) insert a nasopharyngeal airway. (C) administer supplemental oxygen. (D) apply continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).

c

A 19-year-old male has been shot. A small, round wound is located in the right anterior chest wall. The patient is coughing up blood and has difficulty breathing. Lung sounds are absent over the right side. His blood pressure is 146/84 mm Hg, and he has a heart rate of 98 and a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute. You should (A) place the patient in a supine position, with legs elevated. (B) assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. (C) seal the wound with an occlusive dressing. (D) place the patient on his left side.

c

A 2-year-old child is electrocuted by a 220-volt circuit. He presents apneic and pulseless. You and your partner should (A) perform compressions and ventilations at a ratio of 30:2. (B) perform compressions at a rate of at least 100 per minute and at a depth of 1 inch. (C) perform compressions and ventilations at a ratio of 15:2. (D) apply AED pads and defibrillate immediately if indicated; then begin compressions.

c

A 23-year-old male presents conscious and alert, supine on the ground with an obvious abdominal evisceration. Bystanders tell you that he fell from a second story balcony and struck an iron fence. You should first (A) flex the patient's hips and knees. (B) cover the evisceration with a moist, sterile dressing. (C) provide cervical spine stabilization. (D) administer oxygen.

c

A 3-year-old male presents lethargic and irritable. His mother states that he developed a fever of 102 degrees Fahrenheit over the past 2 hours. As such, he is at high risk of (A) dehydration. (B) hypertension. (C) febrile seizure. (D) bradycardia.

c

A 30-year-old female fell from a tree trying to retrieve a kitten. She is A/O x4 and there are no immediate life threats. However, upon assessment of her rib cage and auscultation of her chest you realize that part of the chest is moving in the opposite direction than the rest of the chest. You also hear crackling under the skin. These two findings indicate a significant mechanisms of injury and are called: a. Paradoxical motion and congestive heart failure b. Paradoxical motion and rhonchi c. Paradoxical motion and subcutaneous emphysema d. Flail chest and subcutaneous rhonchi

c

A 30-year-old male is hyperventilating after receiving very emotional news. His breaths are fast and deep. Which of the following statements is most accurate in this situation? (A) Inhaling too much oxygen will cause breathing to slow, allowing oxygen levels to fall to normal levels. (B) Inhaling too much oxygen will cause breathing to speed up. (C) Exhaling too much carbon dioxide will cause breathing to slow, allowing carbon dioxide levels to rise to normal levels. (D) Exhaling too much carbon dioxide will cause breathing to speed up.

c

A 32-year-old male has a stab wound to his right lateral chest at the 4th intercostal space. There is jugular venous distention, and lung sounds are absent over the right side. His heart rate is 118, and his blood pressure is 60 by palpation. You suspect which of the following injuries? (A) Simple pneumothorax (B) Pericardial tamponade (C) Tension pneumothorax (D) Flail chest

c

A 34-year-old male presents supine on the ground after falling 30 feet off a roof. Your primary assessment reveals that he is not breathing and has a slow, regular, and strong radial pulse. You should immediately (A) administer ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device. (B) perform full spinal immobilization. (C) instruct your partner to manually stabilize the patient's cervical spine. (D) insert an oropharyngeal airway.

c

A 4-year-old female presents in bed, postictal, after a grand mal seizure. Her mother states that she "spiked a high fever this afternoon." Her skin is hot and dry to the touch. You should (A) apply ice packs to cool her off. (B) immerse her in cold water to cool her off. (C) provide supplemental oxygen. (D) apply a cervical collar.

c

A 4-year-old male presents complaining of a sore throat. His parents describe a three-day progression of fever, malaise, and respiratory distress. You note slight intercostal retraction, tachycardia, tachypnea, and a loud cough. Lung sounds are clear. This is most consistent with (A) asthma. (B) epiglottitis. (C) croup. (D) pneumonia

c

A 56-year-old male is alert and in respiratory distress after being rescued from a burning apartment. You note soot on his face and soot-tinged secretions from his mouth and nose. There is audible stridor when he breathes. He is able to speak in four- to five-word sentences with a hoarse voice. You should (A) place him supine and assist with ventilations. (B) place him supine and administer supplemental oxygen. (C) have him sit if tolerated, and administer supplemental oxygen. (D) have him sit if tolerated, and assist with ventilations.

c

A 57-year-old female was robbed, badly beaten, and sexually assaulted. Your priority in treatment is to (A) preserve evidence of the sexual assault. (B) determine baseline vital signs. (C) identify traumatic injuries. (D) get a detailed description of the attack.

c

A 62-year-old male with a history of heart attack complains of crushing, substernal chest pain that radiates to his neck. He is allergic to aspirin and has his prescribed nitroglycerin. You should first (A) administer aspirin. (B) assist the patient with his nitroglycerin. (C) obtain a blood pressure. (D) administer continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).

c

A 65-year-old male presents with chest pressure and difficulty breathing. His blood pressure is 86/50 mm Hg, he has a pulse rate of 110, and he's breathing 24 times per minute. You can hear crackles in both lung fields during auscultation. You should (A) sit the patient upright to improve his breathing ability. (B) assist his ventilations with a bag-valve mask. (C) provide supplemental oxygen. (D) assist the patient with his prescribed nitroglycerin.

c

A 70 year old female is complaining of shortness of breath. She has a history of emphysema. You should a. withhold oxygen since these patients do not respond to oxygen b. withhold oxygen, because you could eliminate the hypoxic drive c. administer oxygen, because in most cases, the hypoxic drive will not be a problem d. withhold oxygen, because these patients become apneic if they receive high flow oxygen

c

A 70-year-old man is sitting in his kitchen, confused but cooperative. His wife reports that this episode began about an hour ago. He is a diabetic who takes insulin daily. He also has a history of hypertension. His skin feels cool and diaphoretic and looks pale. His blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 96, and his respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute. He moves his arms equally and speaks clearly. Which of the following conditions best fits the patient's presentation? (A) Hyperglycemia (B) Stroke (C) Hypoglycemia (D) Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

c

A blood sugar level below_____ is considered hypoglycemic. While a Blood sugar level above _____ is considered hyperglycemic. a. 80, 100 b. 100, 120 c. 80, 120 d. 90, 110

c

A burn to the skin that damages the epidermis and dermis, causing pain and blisters, is called a: a. superficial burn. b. full-thickness burn. c. partial-thickness burn. d. deep burn.

c

A bystander is performing CPR when you arrive. You evaluate the scene, practice body substance isolation, and begin your initial assessment by having the bystander: a. verify pulselessness b. continue CPR c. stop CPR d. provide a history of cardiac arrest

c

A chest injury where the skin is not broken is called: a. blunt trauma. b. compression. c. closed chest injury. d. open chest injury.

c

A class of drugs that affect the nervous system, change many normal body activities, and are legally used for pain relief are: a. amphetamines. b. barbiturates. c. narcotics. d. hallucinogens.

c

A collapsed lung caused by air entering the chest cavity is called: a. tension pneumothorax. b. hemopneumothorax. c. pneumothorax. d. hemothorax.

c

A conscious 6-month-old is moving around, turning blue, and not making any sounds or moving any air. You should (A) check her pulse. (B) deliver abdominal thrusts. (C) perform five back blows (slaps). (D) administer 30 chest compressions.

c

A device that delivers a specific amount of medication to the lungs in the form of a short burst of aerosolized medicine that the patient inhales is known as a(n)? a. Nebulizer b. Aero chamber c. Metered-dose inhaler d. Albuterol infuser

c

A dystonic reaction is one which: a. Involves gastrointestinal upset b. Develops after ingestion of certain cardiac medications c. Causes abnormal movement d. Involves diffuse, unexplained abdominal pain

c

A female patient presents with vaginal bleeding. You should (A) open the vagina and inspect the vaginal canal. (B) have the patient insert a tampon. (C) place a sanitary pad over the vaginal opening. (D) discard any used sanitary pads prior to transport.

c

A football player wearing a helmet and shoulder pads presents supine on the ground after being tackled. He is alert and complaining only of neck pain. You should remove (A) the helmet but leave the shoulder pads on. (B) the helmet and shoulder pads. (C) the helmet face mask but leave the helmet and shoulder pads on. (D) neither the helmet nor the face mask.

c

A fracture of the tibia and fibula may result in a maximum blood loss of: a. 400 mL b. 500 mL c. 1,000 mL d. 1,250 mL

c

A hiatal hernia involves a protrusion of digestive organs through the: a. Inguinal canal b. Area around the umbilicus c. Diaphragm d. Cardiac sphincter into the esophagus

c

A malfunction of the heart's electrical system will generally result in a(n): a. thrombus. b. occlusion. c. dysrhythmia. d. aneurysm

c

A new alternative to the use of a pneumatic anti-shock garment in the treatment of pelvic injuries is a(n): a. iliac compress. b. Ehrsen's pump. c. pelvic wrap. d. crest cast.

c

A normal blood pressure is a systolic pressure of no greater than ____ millimeters of mercury (mmHg) and diastolic of no greater than ____ mm Hg. a. 140, 90 b. 90, 140 c. 120, 80 d. 80, 120

c

A patient is in respiratory failure after being shot in the right anterior chest. An occlusive dressing has been placed over the wound. While ventilating the patient with a bag-valve mask, you note that ventilating the patient is becoming increasingly difficult. You also note that the patient is developing jugular venous distention, increasing tachycardia, and worsening hypotension. You should immediately (A) suction the airway. (B) begin hyperventilating the patient. (C) lift the occlusive dressing. (D) remove the oropharyngeal airway.

c

A patient presents conscious and alert with profuse bleeding from his nose. You should (A) apply a warm pack to his nose. (B) lay him supine and apply a cold pack to his nose. (C) lean him forward and pinch the nostrils together. (D) pack his nose with gauze.

c

A patient presents with a stab wound to the neck. It is not bleeding. You should (A) apply a three-sided occlusive dressing. (B) dress and bandage the wound with gauze. (C) apply a four-sided occlusive dressing. (D) use a hemostatic agent.

c

A patient who has experienced a syncopal episode will most often (A) experience a postictal period afterward. (B) remain unconscious for a long period of time. (C) regain consciousness after being positioned supine. (D) present with tachycardia and hypertension.

c

A patient who is being treated for peptic ulcer disease is taking which of the following medications? a. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory b. Calcium channel blocker c. Antibiotic d. Aspirin

c

A patient you are attending to is in need of a helicopter transport. Your partner, who is coordinating the landing zone asks you how big the landing zone should be. Due to your EMT training you know that the minimum size recommended for a helicopter landing zone is: a. 50 ft × 50 ft b. 150 ft × 150 ft c. 100 ft × 100 ft d. 100 yards × 100 yards

c

A physician who is concerned with blood disorders is called a(n): a. nephrologist. b. hepatologist. c. hematologist. d. ER physician.

c

A physician who is concerned with renal and kidney diseases is called a(n): a. hematologist. b. ENT physician. c. nephrologist d. ER physician.

c

A pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) is contraindicated if the patient presents with cardiogenic shock or: a. any abdominal injuries. b. pelvic injuries. c. abnormal lung sounds. d. distal bleeding.

c

A process in which trained peer counselors and mental health professionals meet with rescuers who have been involved in a major incident is a: a. defusing session. b. professional referral. c. critical incident stress debriefing. d. rest and relaxation session

c

A pulse oximeter reading of 86%-90% indicates that the patient is suffering from _______ hypoxia. a. possible b. mild c. significant d. severe

c

A set of stacked shocks means that: a. six shocks have been delivered with no pause for a pulse check b. one shock, followed by CPR, and then three more shocks are delivered c. three shocks have been delivered with no pause for a pulse check d. three shocks have been delivered with pulse checks after each shock

c

A sign of inadequate respiration that is normally only seen in pediatric patients is: a. cyanosis. b. accessory muscle use. c. seesaw breathing. d. decreased chest expansion.

c

A substance that provides an initial "rush" followed by a depressant effect on the nervous system is a: a. hallucinogen. b. narcotic. c. volatile chemical. d. downer.

c

A sudden loss of _______ mL (cc) of blood is considered serious in an average adult. a. 750 b. 250 c. 1,000 d. 500

c

A thrombus which has broken loose, moving with blood flow, is called a(n): a. occlusion. b. clot. c. embolism. d. thrombosis.

c

A traction splint can be used to immobilize: a. a hip fracture. b. a knee dislocation. c. a midshaft femur fracture. d. multiple leg fractures.

c

A trauma patient cannot feel anything from the nipple level down. You should suspect the injury to the spinal cord is at... a. C7. b. T1. c. T4. d. T10.

c

A typical protocol for a patient with burns that cover more than 10% of his body surface area are: a. Leave burns open to air, making sure to not cause any more damage. b. Cover burns with wet gauze or a wet blanket. c. Cover burns with sterile dry gauze. d. Cover burns with a petroleum or oil based, antibacterial/analgesic salve to minimize fluid loss and pain.

c

A weak and rapid pulse, low blood pressure, and clammy skin can be a sign of what type of diabetic emergency? a. none of these b. a diabetic coma c. hypoglycemia d. hyperglycemia

c

A wound caused by a handgun or shotgun would be considered a __________. a. very-high-velocity b. low-velocity c. medium-velocity d. high-velocity

c

According to your county's protocol, you as an EMT are required to request medical direction via radio prior to the administration of prescribed nitroglycerin. This is called: a. Differential diagnosing b. Off-line medical direction c. On-line medical direction d. Radio medical direction

c

An 87-year-old female presents in a nursing home bed with a rapid onset of confusion, screaming, and altered mental status. Staff reports that the patient is normally quiet and keeps to herself. She has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, Type 2 diabetes, and glaucoma. Her pulse rate is 90, her blood pressure is 200/104 mm Hg, and she's breathing at 20 breaths per minute. Her skin is pale, warm, and dry. You suspect that she's experiencing (A) acute hypoglycemia. (B) acute hyperglycemia. (C) a stroke. (D) a psychotic episode

c

An EMT is asked by a patient to help administer his prescribed nitroglycerin tablet. Which of the following is most appropriate? a. Refuse to administer the medication as this is outside the EMT's scope of practice. b. Check the medication expiration date, verify the prescription ownership, place a tablet in the patient's hand and help them guide it to their mouth. c. Apply gloves, check the medication expiration date, verify the prescription ownership, and administer the medication. d. Check the medication expiration date and administer the medication to the patient.

c

An EMT's obligation to provide patient care, which is defined by law and their departmental policies, is called ____. a. required duty b. scope of practice c. duty to act d. standard operating procedure

c

An abdominal aortic aneurysm often is accompanied by a _______ pain in the patient's back. a. dull b. cramping c. tearing d. diffuse

c

An abnormally fast heart rate is called: a. hypertension. b. hypotension. c. tachycardia. d. bradycardia.

c

An amateur runner collapses while running a marathon. He is alert, complaining of dizziness and weakness. His heart rate is 120 beats per minute, and his blood pressure is 106/78 mm Hg. His skin is cool and clammy. You suspect that he is experiencing (A) heat stroke. (B) heat cramps. (C) heat exhaustion. (D) heat intolerance

c

An assault victim you transported earlier in the shift was reported to have bilateral cerebral contusions. You recall that the patient was stuck on the right parietal portion of his head. With this knowledge, you suspect that this injury is __________________, due to both sides of the brain being injured. a. an intracranial hemorrhage b. coup c. coup-contrecoup d. an epidural hematoma

c

An automated external defibrillator (AED) will shock which of the following rhythms? a. sinus rhythm b. asystole c. ventricular fibrillation d. pulseless electrical activity

c

An early cold injury to the hands can be treated by: a. submersion in hot water. b. rubbing the injured area with snow. c. the patient holding them in his armpits. d. rubbing the injured area briskly.

c

An elderly female is unconscious to painful stimulus after a sudden collapse. You detect a pulse and a respiratory rate of 4 breaths per minute. Your partner begins to apply the AED pads to the patient's chest. You should (A) administer high-flow oxygen using a nonrebreather mask. (B) begin a secondary assessment. (C) stop your partner from applying the AED pads. (D) begin chest compressions.

c

An elderly male is unconscious, responding to painful stimuli with groaning. His family reports that he complained of a sudden onset of chest discomfort and nausea, and then lost consciousness. You note a weak carotid pulse of 92 and a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute. His skin is cool and diaphoretic, with peripheral cyanosis. You should first (A) administer aspirin. (B) assist the patient with his nitroglycerin. (C) administer oxygen. (D) determine his vital signs.

c

An elderly woman has fallen and injured her ribs. She is breathing very rapidly at a rate of 40 and shallow. How is this a serious life threat? a. Her minute volume may is excessive b. She is inhaling too much oxygen c. Her minute volume may be diminished d. She has exceeded her dead space

c

An exaggerated immune response to a substance the body was not previously exposed to is called an a. Allergic reaction b. Anaphylactic reaction c. Anaphylactoid reaction d. Immune mediated reaction

c

An important aspect of the scene size-up is deciding whether or not you have enough _______ to effectively respond to the incident. a. experience b. time c. resources d. courage

c

An infant has suffered full thickness burns to her entire head and neck. What is the estimated total body surface area (TBSA) burned? (A) 9 percent (B) 12 percent (C) 18 percent (D) 22 percent

c

An infant has suffered full thickness burns to the entirety of both of her legs. What is the estimated total body surface area (TBSA) burned? (A) 14 percent (B) 18 percent (C) 27 percent (D) 36 percent

c

An oral and nasal airway should be: a. Cleaned well for reuse after the run b. Inserted in all critically injured patients c. Used to keep the tongue from blocking the airway d. Used to prevent the need for suctioning

c

An oropharyngeal airway or OPA is used: a. as a one size fits all piece of curved plastic inserted into the throat and designed to maintain an open airway. b. as a small rubber device inserted into a patients nose and down into the throat in order to maintain an open airway. c. as a convenient way to maintain an open airway in an unconscious patient. d. as a simple way to provide oxygen to the body via oxygen tubing and a non rebreather mask.

c

An unconscious 25-year-old female has pale, cool, and diaphoretic skin. Her respiratory rate is 6 times a minute. You cannot hear lung sounds with a stethoscope. Your next step is to (A) administer abdominal thrusts. (B) administer high-flow oxygen. (C) ventilate with a bag-valve mask. (D) turn the patient onto her side.

c

Anemia, _______, and certain kinds of poisoning (such as carbon monoxide) can produce falsely high oxygen saturation readings. a. hypoperfusion b. hypoglycemia c. hypovolemia d. hypoxia

c

As a(n) _______, the EMT becomes the person who speaks up for the patient and protects his rights. a. partner b. guardian c. advocate d. friend

c

As an EMT it is beyond your scope of practice to: a. Assist in the blind insertion of a laryngotracheal device b. Prepare a patient for intubation c. Perform an emergency intubation d. Ventilate a patient who has been intubated

c

Common signs and symptoms of patients suffering from cardiac compromise include: a. dull aching chest pain, numbness in the extremities, cyanosis, decreased blood pressure, diminished bowel sounds b. crushing pain, tremulousness, lacrimation, dyspnea and alopecia c. dyspnea, chest pain that is described a squeezing dull or crushing, mild chest discomfort, sweating, nausea and vomiting d. dyspnea, complaints of dull chest pain, diarrhea, diaphoresis, cardiomyopathy

c

Completing a patient care report completely and accurately (A) keeps you from getting sued. (B) prevents employee discipline. (C) provides information to those responsible for the patient's care. (D) assures full reimbursement in billing.

c

Consuming _______ may increase the effects of some cardiac medications. a. lemons b. beets c. grapefruit juice d. whole milk

c

Continuous monitoring of a patient's mental status is best accomplished by a. repeatedly asking a patient's name and address b. continuously monitoring the patient's vital signs c. continuously interacting with the patient d. repeatedly assessing the peripheral circulation

c

Contrary to popular belief, tourniquets are not usually needed when controlling bleeding from amputations. The reason is: a. the bleeding is from tissue that is too deep for the tourniquet to control bleeding from. b. the patient has lost so much blood, there is no pressure left to cause severe bleeding. c. the injured vessels seal shut as a result of the spasms of the muscular walls of the vessels. d. there is no blood left in the amputated extremity.

c

Cor Pulmonale is: a. Extreme amounts of fluid in the lungs b. Death from a pulmonary condition c. Right heart failure because of pulmonary hypertension d. Complete failure of one or more lobes in a lung

c

Crowning during labor refers to ____. a. when a woman is fully dilated b. the baby moving into the pelvis c. the appearance of the baby's head at the vaginal opening d. thinning of the cervix

c

Dialysis is the process of (A) removing blood from the urine. (B) exchanging gases across a synthetic membrane. (C) removing water and waste products from the blood. (D) preventing seizures in a patient with kidney failure.

c

Dispatch has notified you that the patient has tuberculosis. What precaution should you take? a. Wear a HEPA respirator b. Wear a filtering face-piece c. Wear an N95 respirator d. Wear a surgical mask

c

During a HAZMAT incident, where are patients decontaminated? a. Hot zone b. Cold zone c. Warm zone d. Neutral zone

c

During delivery, if a prolapsed cord is present, you must: a. Open the vagina more to allow the baby to breathe, and to relieve pressure off of the umbilical cord. b. Massage the umbilical cord to promote blood flow. c. Cover the umbilical cord with sterile dressing that is moist with sterile saline solution, then take the pressure off of the cord by moving the baby off of the umbilical cord in utero while not harming the baby or mother. d. Lift the mother's legs up to relieve pressure from the umbilical cord. Place sterile dressing on it, and open the vagina as to allow for the baby to breathe.

c

Every drug is listed in the U.S. Pharmacopoeia by its generic name. An example of a generic name for a medication is: a. B-(3, 4 dihydroxyphenyl)-a-methylaminoethanol. b. Epi-Pen. c. epinephrine. d. Ana-kit.

c

Eviscerations are treated by: a. Placing gauze on the eviscerated organ, followed by bandages. b. Placing a sterile dressing, followed by a 3-sided occlusive dressing to let air out of the eviscerated organ. c. Placing a moist and sterile dressing, followed by an all-sided occlusive dressing. d. Wrap the eviscerated organ with bandaging tape.

c

External arterial bleeding differs from external bleeding from other blood vessels in that arterial bleeding is: a. the easiest type to control. b. slow and flowing. c. rapid and spurting. d. a slow "oozing."

c

Failure of which of the following organ systems most often results in cardiac arrest in the pediatric population? (A) Renal (B) Neurological (C) Respiratory (D) Endocrine

c

For the medication contained in a metered-dose inhaler to provide relief of asthma symptoms, it must come in contact with the... a. oral mucosa. b. trachea and main bronchi. c. bronchioles. d. alveoli.

c

For which of the following patients would a nonrebreather mask be most appropriate? (A) Conscious patient breathing 30 times a minute; breathing is shallow (B) Patient breathing 4 times a minute with adequate tidal volume (C) Unconscious patient breathing 12 times a minute with adequate tidal volume (D) Altered patient actively vomiting and breathing 20 times a minute

c

How does blood flow through the body (starting from the superior/inferior vena cava)? a. Left atrium → Left ventricle → pulmonary arteries → lungs → pulmonary veins → right atrium → right ventricle → aorta → systemic capillaries → back to superior/inferior vena cava b. Right atrium → right ventricle → aorta → systemic capillaries → pulmonary veins → left atrium → left ventricle → lungs → back to superior/inferior vena cava c. Right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary arteries → lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta → systemic capillaries → back to superior/inferior vena cava d. Right atrium → left atrium → pulmonary arteries → lungs → pulmonary veins → right ventricle → left ventricle → aorta → systemic capillaries → back to superior/inferior vena cava

c

Hyperventilation results in which of the following? a. A decrease in blood oxygen levels and an increase in blood carbon dioxide levels b. An increase in blood oxygen and carbon dioxide levels c. An increase in blood oxygen levels and a decrease in blood carbon dioxide levels. d. A decrease in blood oxygen and carbon dioxide levels

c

If a person was hit by an object described in the following, which would have the potential to cause the most damage? A. one-pound object traveling at 10 mph B. two-pound object traveling at 20 mph C. one-pound object traveling at 30 mph D. one-pound object traveling at 20 mph

c

If you are experiencing the signs and symptoms of stress, lifestyle changes that may help include: a. decreasing carbohydrate intake. b. increasing caffeine intake. c. deep-breathing exercises and meditation. d. working extra shifts when possible

c

If you do not know the injuries that a patient has sustained, the _______ will at least help to determine general injury patterns. a. patient b. receiving medical facility c. mechanism of injury d. USDOT EMS Handbook

c

If you forcibly transport a patient against his will, even though he is capable of refusing your services, you may be found guilty of (A) assault. (B) battery. (C) false imprisonment. (D) defamation

c

If your AED says, "no shock advised" because the patient's rhythm is asystole, what is your immediate next step? a. Begin CPR, starting with two quick breaths. b. No intervention is needed. c. Begin CPR, starting with compressions. d. Begin CPR, starting with heart auscultation.

c

If your patient who regained a pulse after being defibrillated goes back into cardiac arrest while en route to the hospital, you should: a. resume CPR and continue transport. b. stop the vehicle, begin CPR, and contact medical control. c. stop the vehicle and defibrillate if indicated. d. continue transport and defibrillate immediately

c

If, after you have applied a pressure dressing and bandage, the dressing becomes blood-soaked, you should: a. apply a tourniquet above the injury site. b. remove the dressing and apply a new, clean one. c. apply additional dressings on top of it, and hold them firmly in place. d. apply an ice pack to the site.

c

In a multiple-casualty situation, the lowest priority would be assigned to a patient who: a. has moderate burns b. is in respiratory distress c. has died d. is in shock

c

In reference to chest trauma in the preschool population: a. Organ damage is unlikely because of fatty cushioning b. Rib fractures are more common than internal organ damage c. Internal injury may occur without significant external signs d. Pneumothorax is more likely because of penetration by fractured ribs

c

In school-age children between 6 and 12, the leading cause of death is ____. a. choking b. child abuse c. unintentional injuries d. cancer

c

In which of these situations should you wear a gown over your uniform? a. A 35-year-old male is suspected of having a myocardial infarction b. the victim of a fall has no obvious wounds but is still unresponsive. c. a full-term pregnant woman is experiencing crowning with contractions. d. a 72-year-old female is experiencing dizziness and difficulty breathing

c

In which situation should you determine the patients blood pressure through palpation? a. your patient is under 1 year old b. the setting is unusually quiet, such as a private home c. your patients pulse is really weak and difficult to hear d. your patient can't tolerate pressure to the carotid artery

c

Injury to which portion of the spine can cause priapism? a. Thoracic spine b. Lumbar spine c. Cervical spine d. Sacral spine

c

Insulin promotes utilization of glucose by the cells. What would happen if a patient had a low level of insulin? a. Glucose would remain in the cell and would not be functional. b. The level of insulin outside of the cell would be insufficient and would not break down the glucose. c. Glucose would remain on the outside of the cell and would not be broken down. d. The level of insulin inside the cell would be insufficient and would not break down the glucose.

c

Localized cold injuries are classified as: a. light or heavy. b. surface or complete. c. superficial or deep. d. partial- or full-thickness.

c

Lung sounds that resemble low-pitched snoring or rattling are called: a. rancor. b. stridor. c. rhonchi. d. crackles.

c

Some situations relating to prior medical history deserve special attention because the patient may carry part of the treatment with him. These include a patient: a. with a seizure disorder who carries anticonvulsive medication with him. b. who is diabetic and has insulin with him. c. with an allergic reaction who carries an epinephrine autoinjector with him. d. with a psychiatric problem who carries antidepressant medication with him.

c

Statements from patients are used as assessment tools. Which statement about stroke symptoms would cause the clinician to use a higher index of suspicion? a. My head is throbbing. b. This headache is behind my right eye. c. This is the worst headache I have ever had. d. Bright light causes my head to hurt worse.

c

Stridor is a sign of a. mucus in the lower airway b. accessory muscle use c. upper airway obstruction d. altered mental status

c

Suctioning is used to: a. to vacuum the periphery of the airway in order to eliminate possible future lung infections. b. provide the negative pressure necessary to deflate the lungs after ventilation. c. remove small debris and liquid from a patient's airway. d. remove any debris that may have gotten into the patient's lungs and which may interfere with artificial ventilation.

c

Suicide is the third leading cause of death in what age group? a. 65-72 b. 24-32 c. 15-24 d. 40-49

c

Swelling in trauma-related injuries is caused by: a. the release of histamine and heparin into the tissues. b. the steady contractions of torn muscle tissue. c. damaged capillaries. d. severe dilation of the blood vessels.

c

TB has an incubation period of a. 14-24 days b. weeks to months, depending on the type c. 2-6 weeks d. 4-8 months

c

The 2015 guidelines mention extracorporeal CPR. This refers to: a. Compression-only CPR b. CPR by a mechanical device outside the body c. Passing blood through an external device to provide oxygen d. Cooling the body during resuscitation to reduce oxygen demand

c

The National Highway Safety Act charged the ______ with developing EMS standards and assisting the states to upgrade the quality of their prehospital emergency care. a. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration b. Federal Emergency Management Agency c. U.S. Department of Transportation d. National Registry of EMTs

c

The acronym ROSC means ____. a. rapid oxygen saturation complex b. respiratory oxygen sequence circuit c. return of spontaneous circulation d. return of standard circulation

c

The anatomy of the airway consists of the upper and lower airways. The upper airway starts at the mouth and nares and ends at the _________? a. thyroid cartilage b. epiglottis c. cricoid cartilage d. vocal cords

c

The appropriate respiratory protection to be worn when tuberculosis is suspected in a patient is a(n): a. surgical mask. b. self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA). c. N95 or HEPA respirator. d. none of the above.

c

The average length of labor for a woman's first baby: a. 45-60 min b. 2-3 hrs c. 12-18 hrs d. more than 24 hrs

c

The bones of the fingers and the bones of the toes have the same name. They are called the: a. carpals. b. tarsals. c. phalanges. d. metatarsals.

c

The book you may consult for information on where to park your vehicle at the scene of a hazardous materials release is the: a. EMT textbook. b. U.S. Pharmacopoeia. c. Emergency Response Guidebook. d. none of the above.

c

The condition of excessive fluid buildup in the lungs because of the inadequate pumping of the heart is called: a. angina pectoris. b. coronary artery disease. c. congestive heart failure. d. myocardial infarction.

c

The correct depth of compression for an adult patient is: a. 1.5 to 2 inches b. 2 inches c. 2 to 2.4 inches d. 2.5 to 3 inches

c

The correct way to select the size of a nasopharyngeal airway is to measure: a. from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw b. from the earlobe to the corner of the jaw c. the diameter of the patient's little finger d. from the chin to the Adam's apple

c

The deadly form of hepatitis, for which there is no vaccine, that infects many EMS providers is: a. hepatitis A. b. hepatitis B. c. hepatitis C. d. hepatitis D.

c

The device that is connected to a colostomy or ileostomy and collects fecal drainage is a(n): a. gastric tube. b. central catheter. c. ostomy bag. d. urinary catheter.

c

The diaphragm contracts and moves _____________ to create negative pressure in the thorax (chest cavity). This action expands the volume of the thorax, allowing air to rush into the lungs. a. The diaphragm does not move, the chest wall expands. b. Upward c. Downward d. Outward

c

The division of the nervous system that controls involuntary motor functions and affects digestion and heart rate is the: a. motor nervous system. b. sensory nervous system. c. autonomic nervous system. d. central nervous system

c

The first set of vital signs you obtain are called the: a. focused vitals. b. initial vitals. c. baseline vitals. d. basic vitals.

c

The five divisions of the spine, in order from top to bottom, are: a. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, coccyx, and sacral. b. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, pelvic, and coccyx. c. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx. d. cervical, abdominal, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx

c

The focused history for patients with altered mental status should include questions about a history of trauma, diabetes, seizures and which of the following? A. heart disease B. pregnancy C. fever D. stress

c

The ilium, ischium, and pubis are all parts of the: a. skull. b. hip joint. c. pelvis. d. spine.

c

What is emphysema, and what are the signs and symptoms associated with it? a. Emphysema is a constriction of the bronchioles. It is a type of COPD, and is characterized by cyanosis, productive coughing, stridor, and altered mental status. b. Emphysema is an infection of the lower respiratory tract. It is a type of OPD. It is characterized by hypoxia, fever, coughing, and chest pain. c. Emphysema is a reduction in the surface area of the alveoli, which causes decreased elasticity of the lungs and an increase in airway resistance. It is a type of COPD. It is characterized by a pink complexion, nonproductive cough, barrel chest, and wheezing upon auscultation of chest sounds. d. Emphysema is an allergic reaction of the lower airway that causes edema in bronchioles, mucus obstruction, and bronchospasms. It is a type of OPD. It is caused by wheezing, nonproductive cough, signs of a runny nose and sneezing.

c

What is hypoxic drive? a. This occurs when the patient has low levels of oxygen in the body, and therefore has poor circulation. b. This occurs when a patient is driven to breathe spontaneously by increased CO2 levels in the arterial blood, this leads to an increase in the rate of ventilation. This is a normal process in the human body that is not under stress. c. This occurs when a patient is driven by oxygen levels in arterial blood, rather than CO2 in arterial blood, in order to incite spontaneous inspiration. This occurs often in COPD patients. This is not a normal process in the human body that is not under stress. d. This occurs only in COPD patients. It is when the body responds to CO2 levels in the arterial blood to regulate breathing rates, as opposed to oxygen levels as it normally would.

c

What is meant by respiratory distress? a. When breathing completely stops. b. When the body gets too much oxygen, which creates a hypoxic drive. c. An increase in breathing effort, accompanying a feeling of being short of breath. d. When breathing, for whatever reason, decreases to a point of where the body can not get enough oxygen.

c

What is respiration? a. the way the body uses carbon dioxide to maintain metabolism. b. the process by which the body removes excess moisture and cools the body through evaporation. c. the process by which the body uses oxygen and expels carbon dioxide. d. when oxygen is perfused with the blood and carbon monoxide is removed.

c

What is the best step for a responsive cardiac emergency patient with palpable pulses? a. Check vitals and apply an AED if the heart rate is bradycardic. b. Begin CPR, starting with respirations. c. Do not use the AED. d. Attach and apply the AED immediately.

c

What is the correct procedure for a patient who has secretions or emesis that suctioning cannot easily remove? a. insert an oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal airway immediately b. suction for 15 seconds, ventilate for two minutes, and then repeat c. logroll the patient and clear the oropharynx and nasopharynx d. hyperventilate the patient with a bag valve mask unit

c

What is the environmental emergency where the body temperature rises due to a breakdown of compensatory cooling measures? a. Heat syncope b. Heat cramps c. Heat stroke d. Heat exhaustion

c

What is the final stage of hyperthermia? a. Heat cramps b. Heat exhaustion c. Heat stroke d. Heat faint

c

What is the first stage of shock? a. Decompensated shock b. Reversible shock c. Compensatory shock d. Irreversible shock

c

What is the first step in artificial ventilation with a bag valve-mask unit in patients with no suspected trauma? a. Position the mask correctly on the face using both hands. b. Insert an airway adjunct and select the correct mask size. c. Place the patient's head in a hyperextended, sniffing position. d. Have an assistant squeeze the bag until the patient's chest rises.

c

What is the importance of personal protective equipment (PPE)? a. It protects the patient from your bacteria and infections. b. It eases the patient's mind that you are wearing precautionary equipment while treating them. c. It protects the patient from your bacteria and infections, and it keeps you isolated from the patient's body substances. d. It keeps you isolated from the patient's body substances.

c

What is the major difference between bronchitis and pneumonia?" a. Bronchitis is caused by a bacterial/viral infection that mainly affects the alveoli. Pneumonia is mainly caused by bacterial infections that affect the bronchioles. b. Bronchitis is caused by viral infections only, that mainly affect the bronchioles. Pneumonia is mainly caused by bacterial infections that affect the alveoli. c. Bronchitis is caused by a bacterial/viral infection that mainly affects the bronchioles. Pneumonia is mainly caused by bacterial infections that affect the alveoli. d. Bronchitis is caused by a bacterial/viral infection that mainly affects the bronchioles. Pneumonia is mainly caused by viral infections that affect the alveoli.

c

What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient? a. vomitus b. mucous c. the tongue d. blood

c

What is the most effective mode of transmission for hepatitis C? a. oral and nasal secretions b. airborne droplets or respiratory secretions c. contact with blood d. contact with contaminated objects

c

What is the most significant advantage of the two-person method of providing positive pressure ventilation via bag-valve-mask? a. It is the best means to reduce the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood stream. b. It is the quickest way to ensure that all personnel are involved in the rescue situation. c. It is the best means to maintain an adequate airtight seal and increase the amount of positive pressure provided. d. It is the best means to decrease the amount of gastric distention.

c

What is the number one cause of death for adolescents in the 12-18 year age group? a. homicide b. suicide c. accidents d. heart disease

c

What is the paramedic's final step following the immobilization of an extremity fracture to the lower right arm? a. Ensuring the splint is applied tightly. b. Placing the hand in the position of function. c. Assessing presence of distal motor, sensory, and perfusion. d. Placing the immobilized extremity below the level of the heart

c

What is the pericardium? a. The cavity in the chest that contains the heart b. The muscle of the heart c. A fluid filled sack surrounding the heart d. The nerves surrounding the heart

c

When receiving orders from Medical Direction (a physician) over the radio, what should you do after receiving the orders? a. State that you understand, and immediately begin the care as the patient is in critical condition. b. Hang up the call, and proceed with the patient care that you were instructed with. c. Repeat what the physician said to you, over the radio. Receive confirmation that it is correct, then proceed with the specified actions. d. Hang up and do your own thing. The doctor does not know what to do because he is not physically there with you.

c

When should you call for immediate assistance? a. Your patient is a child with fever who has had a brief seizure. b. Your patient is a 26-year-old woman in active labor. c. You must care for two critical patients with gunshot wounds. d. Your partner is needed to stabilize the cervical spine.

c

When suctioning a patient's airway, you should suction slowly as you: a. insert the tip into the patient's mouth. b. insert and withdraw the tip from the patient's mouth. c. withdraw the tip from the patient's mouth. d. any of the above is acceptable

c

When was the EMT code of Ethics written? a. 1938 b. 1958 c. 1978 d. there is no specific document called the EMT code of Ethics

c

Where is a detailed physical exam typically performed? a. at the scene of the accident or injury b. in the hospital emergency department c. in the ambulance during transport d. in the triage area of the trauma center

c

Which occurs during capillary-cellular exchange? a. oxygen enters the capillaries as carbon dioxide enters the alveoli b. oxygen-poor blood from the capillaries passes into the alveoli c. body cells give up carbon dioxide and capillaries give up oxygen d. body cells obtain nourishment from the capillaries

c

Which of the following are differences between the respiratory systems of the adult and the child? a. an adult's tongue is proportionately larger than that of a child b. the upper and lower airways of the adult are more flexible than those of a child c. the upper and lower airways of an adult are larger than those of a child d. all of the above

c

Which of the following best defines expressed consent? a. Consent given by law allowing you to treat a mentally incompetent patient b. Consent rendered for patients under the legal age c. Consent given by a competent adult d. Consent given by law when treating an unconscious patient

c

Which of the following interventions is of highest priority in a patient who is experiencing a probable myocardial infarction? a. Administer NTG b. Administer oxygen c. Attach AED and analyze rhythm d. Insert OPA

c

Which of the following is NOT a branch of a single incident command system in the national incident management system? a. Operations b. Planning c. Organization d. Finance/administration

c

Which of the following is NOT a consequence of over exposure to a high concentration of oxygen? a. Infant eye damage b. Air sac collapse c. Spontaneous pneumothorax d. Respiratory arrest

c

Which of the following is a common sign of ischemic stroke? (A) Equal strength in both arms (B) Projectile vomiting (C) Slurred speech (D) Tachycardia

c

Which of the following is a sign of increased pressure in the circulatory system? a. flat neck veins b. palpable carotid pulse c. distended jugular veins d. decreased radial pulse

c

Which of the following is an example of a closed soft tissue injury? (A) Laceration (B) Avulsion (C) Contusion (D) Puncture

c

Which of the following is an example of a symptom? a. your patients blood pressure is 90/65 and falling b. your patients skin color is slightly jaundiced c. your patient is complaining of pain and nausea d. your patient has a 102 degree fever

c

Which of the following is an indication for the use of an epinephrine autoinjector? (A) Tachycardia (B) Itching (C) Hypotension (D) Hives

c

Which of the following is not a symptom of hypoxia? a. cyanosis b. confusion c. bradypnea d. tachycardia

c

Which of the following is part of the NEXUS criteria for identifying patients with spine injury? a. Verifying distal pulses b. Inability to ambulate c. Determining if the patient is intoxicated d. Pain or tenderness of the spine with motion

c

Which of the following is the best indicator that ventilation with a bag-valve mask is correcting hypoxia? (A) Normal chest rise and fall (B) Ventilation rate of 12 per minute (C) Increasing SpO2 (oxygen saturation level) (D) Pulse of 88/minute and regular

c

Which of the following is the most likely indicator your patient suffers from emphysema? a. Use of home oxygen b. Use of multiple metered-dose inhalers c. Increased anterior-posterior chest diameter d. Productive cough with a change in sputum color

c

Which of the following is true regarding using a pocket mask to ventilate a nonbreathing patient? a. there is direct contact between the rescuer and the patient's mouth b. oxygen cannot be connected to the mask c. a one-way valve prevents exhaled air from contacting the rescuer d. oxygen levels of 100% may be achieved

c

Which of the following is your primary ethical consideration when caring for a patient? a. The well-being of your partner b. The safety of bystanders c. The care and well-being of the patient d. Your personal safety

c

Which of the following patients should be connected to the AED? a. 70 year old male with a history of angina and a prescription for nitroglycerin; he is experiencing mild chest pain on exertion b. 68 year old female experiencing severe, crushing chest pain; she is breathing on her own and has an irregular pulse c. 56 year old male who suddenly collapsed; he is not breathing on his own, and there is no carotid pulse d. 80 year old female who suddenly collapsed; her breathing is shallow, and there is a weak carotid pulse

c

Which of the following patients would you most expect to be experiencing delirium tremens? (A) A 16-year-old male who ingested alcohol for the first time (B) A 24-year-old college student who drank heavily last night (C) A 62-year-old alcoholic who has not had a drink in three days (D) A 42-year-old male who quit drinking "cold turkey" three years ago and hasn't had a drink since

c

Which of the following represents proper communication with the patient? a. when talking to a 12 year old female. "Do you want to hold your mommy's hand while I bandage you?" b. when talking to an intoxicated 27 year old male. "Get up. You are intoxicated and are not injured." c. when talking to a 75 year old female. "Ma'am, we think you should go to the hospital to make sure your okay. Will you come with us?" d. when talking to a 4 year old male. "I think you've fractured your femur. We'll stabilize you here and transport you to the hospital for surgery."

c

Which of the following results in bradycardia in the pediatric patient? (A) Fear (B) Fever (C) Hypoxia (D) Hypovolemia

c

Which of the following serves as a blind insertion airway device (BIAD) that properly seals off the esophagus (preventing gastric reflux) and provides a proper airway? a. Endotracheal tube b. Tracheo-esophageal tube c. Dual lumen airway d. Nasal cannula

c

Which of the following signs are potential indicators of respiratory emergencies that can be observed during primary assessment? a. medical history of respiratory conditions b. tachycardia c. labored breathing d. high BP e. head trauma

c

Which of the following signs can indicate imminent respiratory arrest in a patient experiencing acute respiratory distress? a. hypoxia b. confusion c. cyanosis d. rales e. anaphylaxis

c

Which of the following would best indicate that you should not begin resuscitative efforts in a cardiac arrest? (A.) Absence of a pulse (B.) No pupil response (C.) Rigor mortis (D.) Unresponsiveness

c

Which of these is the most likely indication of a head injury? a. eye hyphema b. impaled object in scapula c. unequal pupil dilation d. epistaxis

c

Which patient is at highest risk for hidden injury? a. 9 year old child who fell seven feet off a swing set onto mulch covered ground b. 30 year old female who got out of her car after a low speed collision c. 45 year old male who was ejected from his car after a high speed collision d. 25 year old male who fell 12 feet from a low angle roof onto the grass

c

Which patient is showing signs and symptoms of cardiac compromise? a. 85 year old male: difficulty breathing, high fever, rapid pulse b. 72 year old female: wheezing, labored breathing, tightness in throat c. 53 year old female: dull chest pain, sudden sweating, difficulty breathing d. 51 year old male: headache, dizziness, gagging, chest pain

c

Which patient should receive only a focused physical exam and a SAMPLE history? a. 46 year old male, unresponsive after falling from a 10 meter scaffold b. 80 year old male, responsive to painful stimuli after being hit by a car c. 5 year old female, responsive and in pain after falling from a standing position d. 16 year old female, responsive to verbal stimuli after a gunshot wound

c

Which patient would be most likely to have a barrel chest? a. 10 month old male: premature birth and history of respiratory problems b. 6 year old female: history of asthma and frequent respiratory infections c. 58 year old male: history of emphysema and years of smoking d. 70 year old female: recent history of pneumonia and bronchitis

c

Which set of vitals signs suggests early hypothermia? a. pulse, 56 and faint; respirations, 9/min, shallow; BP, 96/60; cyanotic; sluggish pupils b. pulse, 74; respirations, 16/min, strong; BP 124/80; cool, dry skin; reactive pupils c. pulse, 92; respirations, 26/min; BP, 118/76, flushed (red) skin, reactive pupils d. pulse, 68; respirations, 13/min, irregular; BP 110/70; hot, moist skin; reactive pupils

c

Which stage of labor is associated with placental delivery? (A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth

c

Which statement correctly differentiates between a subdural and epidural hemorrhage? a. Subdural bleeding is usually arterial b. Subdural hematoma patients have a classic lucid period c. Epidural hemorrhage may result from a blow to the temple d. Epidural hemorrhage develops more slowly than subdural hemorrhage.

c

Which vital sign would indicate that a patient has entered the decompensated stage of shock? a. Heart rate 64, respirations of 8, and a blood pressure of 82/40 mmHg b. Heart rate of 110, respirations of 24, and a blood pressure of 128/90 mmHg c. Heart rate of 128, respirations of 26, and a blood pressure of 82/62 mmHg d. Heart rate of 92, respirations of 18, and a blood pressure of 124/72 mmHg

c

While performing one-person CPR on a patient, you should use a ______ ratio for compressions to ventilation for the adult patient and a _____ ratio for a child patient. a. 15:2, 3:1 b. 15:2, 5:1 c. 30:2, 30:2 d. 30:2, 5:1

c

While you're transporting a terminally ill patient from her doctor's office to her home, she states, "You know, I regret that I never traveled to Europe." This statement suggests that the patient is in which of the following stages of grief? (A) Anger (B) Bargaining (C) Depression (D) Acceptance

c

Why does an EMT need to be careful to avoid hyperventilating infants and children? a. Hyperventilation causes oxygen toxicity. b. Hyperventilation causes chemical imbalances in the brain. c. Hyperventilation causes gastric distention, which increases the risk of aspiration if vomiting occurs. d. Hyperventilation can alter the patient's electrolytes.

c

With medical direction you may administer epinephrine from a patient's own autoinjector if the patient displays signs and symptoms of respiratory distress or: a. cardiac arrest b. diabetic emergency c. hypoperfusion d. poisoning

c

You and your partner are caring for an elderly patient with chest pain when he suddenly becomes unresponsive. He is not breathing and has no pulse. Your next, most immediate steps are to (A) suction the airway and provide supplemental oxygen. (B) open the airway and ventilate the patient with a bag-valve mask. (C) begin chest compressions while attaching automated external defibrillator (AED) pads to the patient's chest. (D) provide two ventilations, and then begin chest compressions.

c

You and your partner are performing CPR on a cardiac arrest patient. You administer a defibrillation and complete five cycles of CPR. Your patient is now breathing and has a pulse. The AED is telling you to "push the analyze button." You should (A) push the analyze button. (B) continue CPR. (C) turn the AED off. (D) remove the defibrillation pads from the patient.

c

You are an off-duty EMT who is playing at the park with your children. You are pushing your daughter on a swing, and you notice a young boy fall four feet off a play structure, striking his head on the soft ground. You run over to the child and begin an assessment, as his mother approaches the child. You explain that you are an EMT, and ask if you can assess her child. She agrees and tells you her son is five years old. Your patient opens his eyes spontaneously, is confused when speaking, and obeys your commands. What is the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score? a. 11 b. 15 c. 14 d. 13

c

You are approached by a journalist and asked whether you transported Jane Doe to the emergency department. You should (A) give the journalist any information he needs. (B) confirm that you did transport the patient, but not give any additional information. (C) inform the journalist that you cannot talk about any patients you care for. (D) direct the journalist to the emergency department staff.

c

You are assessing a patient who has blunt chest trauma. You auscultate diminished sounds over the left side of his chest. Which of the following should lead you to suspect hemothorax over pneumothorax? a. Difficulty breathing b. Distended neck veins c. Hyporesonance to percussion d. Diminished sounds are in the apex of the lung

c

You are assessing a patient with an altered mental status who you believe is postictal. Which of the following most strongly suggests that the patient had a seizure? (A) Cold, dry skin and bradycardia (B) Bilateral pinpoint (2-millimeter) pupils (C) Bowel and bladder incontinence (D) Bradycardia and hypotension

c

You are assisting with childbirth in the field. As the infant's head is delivered, you discover that the umbilical cord is wrapped tightly around the neck. You should immediately: a. place the mother on her side and transport rapidly b. deliver the infant with the cord wrapped around its neck c. clamp the cord in two places and cut it between clamps d. suction the infant's mouth and nose to clear secretions

c

You are attending to an 80-year-old female who seems distracted and even nods off while you are asking questions. To what area of the brain does this patient most likely have an injury or dysfunction? a. Cerebellum b. Pituitary gland c. Reticular activating system d. Lateral ventricles

c

You are called to a store where a holdup has been committed. Police are already on the scene searching for the gunman. Through the store window, you see the store manager, who has been shot. You should: a. enter the store immediately to care for the manager b. leave immediately and seek cover a distance away c. wait until the police tell you it is safe to enter the scene d. request medical direction to determine if you can enter

c

You are called to a supermarket for a 70-year-old male complaining of chest pain. Your patient describes his pain as a sudden onset with excruciating pain between the shoulder blades and stabbing pain in his chest. He has a history of high blood pressure and recently stopped taking his meds because they made him feel strange. You suspect he may have a dissecting aortic aneurysm. What might you find in his vital signs that will differentiate an aortic aneurysm from an acute myocardial infarction (AMI)? a. a difference in blood pressure between arms or a diminished pulse in the upper extremities b. a difference in blood pressure between arms or an increased pulse in the lower extremities c. a difference in blood pressure between arms or a diminished pulse in the lower extremities d. a difference in blood pressure between arms or an increased pulse in the upper extremities

c

You are called to assist a 60 year old female who complains of a severe headache. Upon entering the home, you smell a strong odor of natural gas. What is your first action? a. Check the patients airway, breathing, and circulation b. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assess vital signs c. Remove the patient from the house to your ambulance d. Open all windows and determine the source of the gas leak

c

You are called to assist a 60 year old female who complains of a severe headache. Upon entering the home, you smell a strong odor of natural gas. What is your first action? a. check the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation b. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assess vital signs c. remove the patient from the house to your ambulance d. open all windows and determine the source of the gas leak

c

You are called to the scene of a 21-year-old male patient who has an elevated pulse. When asked what he was doing, he replies, "I was just running". What do you suspect? a. The patient needs the AED b. The patient needs a nitro tablet c. Nothing, this is normal at this point d. The patient needs to be transported

c

You are caring for a patient who is suffering from a heart attack. You will most likely transport her to a(n) (A) stroke center. (B) pediatric center. (C) cardiac center. (D) obstetrical center

c

You are dispatched to a HazMat incident. How should you approach the scene? a. Drive the ambulance downwind, downhill, and/or down river. b. Drive the ambulance upwind, downhill, and/or upriver. c. Drive the ambulance up wind, uphill, and/or upriver. d. Drive the ambulance downwind, uphill, and/or down river.

c

You are interviewing a patient who tells you he had a previous surgical history of cholecystectomy. What is this patient referring to? a. The removal of a gastric ulcer b. The removal of a portion of his colon c. The removal of his gallbladder d. The removal of a cyst from his colon

c

You are on scene with a 44-year-old female who is complaining of feeling anxious and states, "I can't breathe." You should do the following: a. Place a non-rebreather mask and turn the flow to 6 LPM. b. Perform an abdominal thrust; she may be choking. c. Assess her respiratory rate and rhythm, check her oxygen saturation, and listen to her lungs. d. Immediately start manually ventilating since she said she can't breathe.

c

You are performing CPR on a pulseless patient. He vomits copious amounts of fluid that can't be cleared in 15 seconds. You should... a. stop suctioning and ventilate for 30 seconds. b. stop suctioning and ventilate for 2 minutes. c. continue suctioning until the pharynx is clear of vomit. d. continue CPR and do not ventilate.

c

You are performing CPR on an elderly patient. The patient's son arrives and announces that the patient has a DNR. You should (A) stop CPR. (B) stop CPR and ask to see the DNR. (C) continue CPR and ask to see the DNR. (D) continue CPR and inform the son that once you start you cannot stop.

c

You are transporting a perfectly stable patient, and are having a nice conversation with him in the back of the ambulance. As you unload the patient and go into the hospital, you notice that the hospital is very busy. As you find the patient's room, you try your absolute best to look for a nurse so that you may notify the hospital of the patient's presence. You are unable to find a nurse that you can transfer the paperwork and care over to. The patient seems to be in stable condition, so you unload the patient from your gurney, help him to a chair, high-five him, and tell him that a nurse will see him shortly to help him to his room. You leave the paperwork with the patient to give to the nurse. You then exit the scene and go back to your ambulance with your partner to prepare for your next call. You have just committed: a. Medical malpractice b. Negligence c. Abandonment d. HIPAA violation

c

You are treating a 17-year-old male who has had a sudden onset of shortness of breath. The patient's father tells you that his son has a history of Marfan's syndrome. The patient is dyspneic and has decreased lung sounds on the left side of his chest. What is responsible for the patient's shortness of breath? a. Pneumonia b. Congenital lung disease c. Spontaneous pneumothorax d. Pulmonary embolis

c

You are treating a 3-year-old female patient with known asthma and a severe allergy to shellfish. She is experiencing shortness of breath and you can hear wheezing sounds every time she exhales. She has not recently eaten any shellfish. What is the appropriate field diagnosis and action? a. Anaphylaxis; administer prescribed epinephrine auto-injector b. Acute asthma attack; administer prescribed epinephrine auto-injector c. Acute asthma attack; administer prescribed albuterol inhaler d. Anaphylaxis; administer prescribed albuterol inhaler

c

You are treating an 18-year-old male with asthma. The patient states he is out of his medications and has been wheezing for the last 2 hours. The patient is breathing 38 times per minute, his blood pressure is 136/84, heart rate 118/min, and pulse oximeter reading is 97%. You auscultate breath sounds and hear slight wheezing in the upper lung fields. The patient complains of chest pain and tingling in his arms. He also says that he feels very short of breath. What would be the next course of action for this patient? a. Insert a nasal airway b. Insert an oral airway c. High-flow oxygen therapy d. Ventilate with a bag-valve-mask

c

You are treating an adult patient who is unresponsive and just vomited. You need to suction his airway. You should suction the patient's airway for no more than ____ seconds at a time. a. < 5 seconds b. as long as it takes to remove all of the vomit from the airway c. 10—15 seconds d. 15—20 seconds

c

You are using OPQRST acronym to assess a responsive medical patient. What question would you ask to assess the P component? a. what were you doing when the pain started? b. Can you describe the character of the pain for me? c. What makes the pain feel worse or better? d. On a scale of 1 to 10, how would you rank the pain?

c

You are using the OPQRST acronym to assess a responsive medical patient. What question would you ask to assess the P component? a. what were you doing when the pain started b. can you describe the character of the pain for me c. what makes the pain feel worse or better d. on a scale of 1-10, how would you rank the pain

c

You are ventilating a patient in respiratory failure with a bag-valve mask when you notice that his abdomen is becoming distended. You should (A) increase tidal volume. (B) increase the oxygen concentration. (C) decrease the ventilation pressure. (D) decrease the ventilatory rate.

c

You arrive at the scene of a 75-year-old female patient who is experiencing extreme chest pain, and trouble breathing. This patient is an over-weight high-capacity chain-smoker. What is the patient suffering? a. Pulmonary Edema b. Ventricular Fibrillation c. Coronary Artery Disease d. Pulseless Electrical Activity

c

You arrive on scene and find a 32-year-old man 20 yards from where his motorcycle collided with a minivan. The victim is wearing a helmet, his pulse is 80bpm and he seems to breathing normally, but you are unsure because the helmet is too large. Should you remove his helmet? Why or why not? a. Yes, because the patient may go into cardiac arrest b. No, because removing the helmet may complicate a spinal injury which is likely in a collision involving a motorcycle. c. Yes, because you need to access his airway and the helmet is not fit snuggly. d. No, because the patient is not in cardiac arrest and he can be immobilized without removing the helmet.

c

You arrive on scene to a patient who has fallen off of a roof. You dictate that the patient needs to be treated for apnea. What is the proper way to open the patient's airway? a. Head-tilt/chin-lift b. Place your fingers at the teeth and push the mouth open c. Jaw thrust d. Slowly tilt the head as to not compromise the spine

c

You arrive on scene to a possible drug overdose. What is the first step you take after assuring the scene is safe and donning the appropriate PPE? a. Wash the affected area with cool water for 15 minutes. b. Administer charcoal immediately to soak up poison and contact medical direction for further orders. c. If there are any dry or solid toxins/chemicals present on any bodily surface, brush/remove them while accounting for your own safety (using PPE). d. Position the patient in the lateral recumbent position (for recovery).

c

You arrive on scene where a 3-year-old male patient is experiencing stridorous breathing sounds and shortness of breath. The patient does not have a fever and his mother reports he has not been ill for several months and does not have a history of asthma. What is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms? a. Epiglottitis b. New onset asthma c. Foreign body airway obstruction d. Upper respiratory infection

c

You arrive on scene where an unconscious 55-year-old female is lying on the floor of her kitchen with an irregular heart rate and a respiration rate of 20 breaths per minute. Her husband tells you that she has a previous medical history of CAD and a prescription for NTG and Aspirin. Which of the following interventions should you decide NOT to perform? a. Attach AED b. Provide oxygen c. Administer one 81mg baby Aspirin d. Call advanced life support

c

You arrive on-scene to find your patient frantically struggling to remain above water in a deep channel about 5 feet from a dock. You should (A) remove heavy clothing and enter the water to rescue him. (B) stay in your ambulance and call for a water rescue team. (C) stand on the dock and extend an object for the patient to grab. (D) use a nearby canoe to paddle out to the patient

c

You respond to a call where a 17-year-old male patient is confused, dizzy and vomiting. He was at football practice in 90-degree weather when he began feeling ill. His coach tells you he did not hit his head. What is the optimal intervention? a. Offer the patient water and load the patient onto a gurney. Pack ice around the patient's heat sensitive areas and move patient to a cool environment such as the back of the air-conditioned ambulance. Supply supplemental oxygen at 15lpm and rapidly transport the patient to the nearest hospital. b. Have your partner hold c-spine while you load the patient onto a gurney. Pack ice around the patient's heat sensitive areas and move the patient to a cool environment such as the back of the air-conditioned ambulance. Supply supplemental oxygen at 15lpm and rapidly transport the patient to the nearest hospital. c. Load the patient onto a gurney and pack ice around the patient's heat sensitive areas. Move the patient to a cool environment such as the back of the air-conditioned ambulance. Supply supplemental oxygen at 15lpm and rapidly transport the patient to the nearest hospital. d.Supply supplemental oxygen at 15lpm and stay with the patient until symptoms subside.

c

You respond to a call where a 26-year-old female is in the fetal position on her bathroom floor. She is complaining of severe abdominal pain that is global and accompanied by vaginal bleeding. She says she is unsure how she ended up on the floor and is feeling lightheaded. She does not have a fever. What diagnosis does her presentation best suggest? a. Placental abruption b. Appendicitis c. Ectopic pregnancy d. Peritonitis

c

You respond to a patient who seems to be experiencing a diabetic emergency. She has no previous history of diabetes, and is experiencing nausea and altered mental state. Should you administer glucose (with the approval of medical direction)? Why? a. No; although this patient is most likely experiencing a diabetic emergency related to hyperglycemia, oral glucose is contraindicated by nausea and an altered mental status. b. Yes; because this patient is most likely experiencing a diabetic emergency related to hypoglycemia. c. No; although this patient is most likely experiencing a diabetic emergency related to hypoglycemia, oral glucose is contraindicated by nausea and an altered mental status. d. Yes; because this patient is most likely experiencing a diabetic emergency related to hyperglycemia.

c

You should apply an AED to a. adult patients experiencing chest discomfort b. adult patients with significant traumatic injuries c. adult patients without respirations or a pulse d. adult patients with low blood pressure

c

You should apply an AED to: a. adult patients experiencing chest discomfort b. adult patients with significant traumatic injuries c. adult patients without respirations or a pulse d. adult patients with low blood pressure

c

You should assess skin color by examining an adult patient's a. extremities b. face c. nailbeds d. palms

c

You should elevate a patient's leg to control bleeding only if: a. medical direction has refused permission to apply PASGs b. no other method successfully stops the bleeding c. there are no signs or symptoms of skeletal injury d. arterial bleeding is present

c

You should not suction a patient's airway for more than 15 seconds because: a. the patient's tongue may be injured b. the suction unit's battery may drain too quickly c. the patient will become hypoxic during this time d. you may cause the patient to vomit

c

You should remove your patient's dentures in order to provide ventilation when: a. head trauma has occurred b. it is necessary to insert an oral airway c. they become dislodged d. begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation

c

You try to realign a severely angulated lower leg injury but meet significant resistance. You should (A) force the leg into realignment. (B) increase the amount of force you are providing. (C) splint the leg in the position found. (D) have the patient straighten her leg.

c

Your 59-year-old female patient presents with chest pain and dyspnea. She states that the discomfort has been present for about an hour and started after carrying the laundry upstairs. She describes her pain as dull and rates it at 6/10. She denies any radiation of the pain and says it gets worse on exertion. Your patient has a blood pressure of 156/90, a heart rate of 108, and a respiratory rate of 20. What would be your initial diagnostic impression for this patient? a. Aortic aneurysm b. Congestive heart failure c. Angina d. Acute myocardial infarction

c

Your EMT certification is due to expire in six months. Who is responsible for ensuring that you have met all of your recertification requirements? (A) Your physician medical director (B) Your supervisor (C) You (D) The local EMS regulatory agency

c

Your first priority as an EMT when called to a scene involving violence is: a. subduing the violent person. b. immediate care of the patient. c. making certain the scene is safe before entering. d. removing weapons from the scene.

c

Your newborn patient has a pulse of 84 after attempts to stimulate the baby. You should: a. Continue to stimulate the newborn b. Ventilate at 12-20/minute c. Ventilate at 40-60/minute d. Begin chest compressions

c

Your patient has been stung by a bee, and the stinger is present in the wound. You should attempt to remove it by: a. grabbing it with sterile tweezers b. cutting around it with a knife c. scraping it away with a rigid object d. grabbing it with your fingers

c

Your patient has just injected a drug that his friends believe was heroin. Which of the following vital signs most suggests the drug was actually heroin? a. A pulse rate of 82 b. An irregular pulse rate of 180 c. A respiratory rate of 8 d. A respiratory rate of 42

c

Your patient is a 28 year old male who appears intoxicated. Bystanders report that the man seemed fine but suddenly began "acting strange." You should first suspect: a. alcohol abuse b. poisoning c. diabetic emergency d. allergic reaction

c

Your patient is a 52-year-old male with a history of alcoholism. He is vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. The most likely cause of this is (A) pancreatitis. (B) abdominal aortic aneurysm. (C) esophageal varices. (D) ulcers.

c

Your patient is a 6 year old who fell off her bicycle. She has a suspected broken ankle, no respiratory compromise, and no suspected internal injuries. After providing necessary care at the scene, you are transporting the child and her father to the hospital. The father loudly insists that you use your siren and lights en-route. You should a. request medical direction in dealing with the father b. request permission from dispatch to use lights and sirens c. refuse, because it may cause an unnecessary hazard d. comply it will relax the father and comfort the patient

c

Your patient is a 68 year old obese male who lives in an attic room. It is a summer day, and the patient is complaining of weakness, muscle and abdominal cramps, and rapid heartbeat. You should suspect: a. cardiac emergency b. respiratory emergency c. hyperthermia d. hypoglycemia

c

Your patient is an 11 month old female. How can you determine if she has a decreased mental status and is responsive to verbal stimuli? a. she will be upset when you take her from her mother's arms b. she will be unable to tell you how old she is if you ask her c. she will attempt to locate her parents' voices when they speak d. she will try to pull away from a painful stimulus on her toe

c

Your patient is an 11 month old female. How can you determine if she has a decreased mental status and is responsive to verbal stimuli? a. she will be upset when you take her from her mothers arms b. she will be unable to tell you how old she is if you ask her c. she will attempt to locate her parents voices when they speak d. she will try to pull away from a painful stimulus on her toe

c

Your patient is an 84 year old female having difficulty breathing. Her daughter age 45, is with her. When communicating with this patient, you should assume that she is: a. incompetent speak directly with the daughter b. hard of hearing, speak extremely slowly and loudly c. competent and able to understand; speak respectfully d. confused explain your treatment clearly to the daughter

c

Your patient is bleeding profusely from a wound on her right forearm. Where is the pressure point: a. carotid artery b. ulnar artery c. brachial artery d. femoral artery

c

Your patient is complaining of chest pain. Which question would you ask to assess the O part of the OPQRST algorithm? a. what were you doing when the pain started? b. what does the pain feel like? c. how long ago did the pain begin? d. how bad is the pain now?

c

Your patient is hypotensive. Which of the following is most likely to cause this condition? a. Increased heart rate b. Increased stroke volume c. Decreased vasomotor tone d. Decreased parasympathetic nervous system activity

c

Your patient is outside, sitting on her lawn watching her house burn down. She looks up at you with a sooty face. You see her eyebrows and hair have been singed. Your assessment reveals no other signs of trauma or distress. What following statement makes the most sense? a. Get her in contact with local social-services to help her find a place to sleep and deal with the loss of her home. b. Move on to focused history and physical exam. c. Complete the rapid assessment. Load the patient in your rig. Reassess per protocol on the way to the hospital. d. You ask the patient if she wants to go get checked out at the hospital in case she needs to speak with a counselor.

c

Your patient is sitting and complains of chest pain and dizziness. He has a history of diabetes, hypertension, and angina. His skin is cool, pale, and diaphoretic. His pulse is 102, his blood pressure is 76/34 mm Hg, and his respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute and deep. You should (A) assist the patient with his prescribed nitroglycerin. (B) administer oral glucose. (C) lay the patient supine. (D) assist his ventilations with a bag-valve mask.

c

Your patient is supine on the sidewalk. As you approach, you observe an open wound to the anterior chest wall. You should first (A) administer oxygen. (B) dress and bandage the wound. (C) apply an occlusive dressing. (D) determine his heart rate.

c

Your patient is unconscious and is breathing 4 times a minute. She gags after you insert an oropharyngeal airway. You should immediately (A) hold it in place. (B) ventilate with a bag mask. (C) remove the oropharyngeal airway. (D) insert a nasopharyngeal airway.

c

Your patient presents complaining of cloudy, foul-smelling urine, pain with urination, and left flank pain. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these symptoms? (A) Kidney stones (B) Peritonitis (C) Urinary tract infection (D) Kidney failure

c

Your patient presents responsive to pain by withdrawing, and muttering incomprehensible sounds. His Glasgow Coma Scale score is (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9

c

Your patient presents unconscious with a metal rod impaled through her jaw. Her respirations are slow and shallow; she is cyanotic. Because of the rod, you can't form an adequate seal with the bag-valve mask. You should (A) administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. (B) administer oxygen via blow-by. (C) remove the object. (D) call advanced life support (ALS) to perform a surgical airway

c

Your patient presents with a fractured pelvis. He has a blood pressure of 132/84 mm Hg and a heart rate of 108. You should (A) apply and inflate the pneumatic anti-shock garment (PASG). (B) apply a traction splint. (C) wrap the pelvis with a sheet. (D) splint with a sling and swathe.

c

Your patient presents with altered mental status, an oxygen saturation level (SpO2 ) of 71 percent on room air, and labored, shallow breathing at a rate of 24 times a minute. You should (A) take cervical spine precautions and administer high-flow oxygen. (B) give one breath every 5 seconds with a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) unit. (C) match his respiratory rate and assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. (D) administer oral glucose with a tongue depressor, and administer low-flow oxygen.

c

Your patient presents with difficulty breathing and feeling faint. He had returned from the dentist's office, where he'd taken a dose of antibiotics after a surgical procedure. You can auscultate wheezes in both lungs; his pulse rate is 120, and his blood pressure is 88/50 mm Hg. You should (A) contact the dentist to determine the type of antibiotics. (B) help the patient sit up to help his breathing. (C) help administer the patient's prescribed epinephrine autoinjector. (D) administer continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).

c

An EMT who attended to a patient who died at the hospital after being in a motor vehicle collision is being sued. What must the family of the deceased individual prove in order to show that the EMT was at fault? a. Guilt b. Malpractice c. Responsibility d. Negligence

d

A 22-year-old male is unconscious after being stung by a bee. He has a weak radial pulse, and his skin is cool, pale, and diaphoretic. You auscultate wheezes in both lung fields. Which of the following would most likely correct the underlying problem? (A) Administration of the patient's prescribed metered-dose inhaler (B) Ventilation with a bag-valve-mask device (C) Oxygen administration (D) Administration of the patient's prescribed epinephrine autoinjector

d

A 23-year-old male presents with stridor and difficulty breathing after being stung by a bee. He is breathing 28 times a minute, he has a heart rate of 108, and his blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. You should first (A) ventilate with a bag-valve mask. (B) insert an oropharyngeal airway. (C) listen to lung sounds. (D) administer his epinephrine auto-injector.

d

A 25-year-old male has multiple stab wounds to his lower right abdominal quadrant. There is little bleeding you can see. Lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. His skin is cool, pale, and diaphoretic. His blood pressure is 60/40 mm Hg and his heart rate is 112. You should (A) apply direct pressure over the injury site. (B) cover the stab wounds with occlusive dressings. (C) apply moist dressings to the wounds. (D) treat for shock.

d

A 27-year-old male complains of itching and coughing after a meal. You observe hives on the patient's face and arms. His blood pressure is 160/92 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 90, and he's breathing 22 times per minute. Lung sounds are clear bilaterally; the patient is alert, anxious, and agitated. What should you do next? (A) Assist the patient in administering his prescribed epinephrine autoinjector. (B) Administer an oral dose of diphenhydramine (Benadryl). (C) Administer syrup of ipecac. (D) Prepare for transport

d

A 32-year-old female presents complaining of dark blood in her urine after being punched in the abdomen and back during a domestic dispute. She has most likely sustained an injury to her (A) uterus. (B) liver. (C) spleen. (D) kidney

d

A 32-year-old male is found unresponsive on the floor of his apartment. There are no signs of trauma. His blood pressure is 168/108 mm Hg, his heart rate is 50 beats per minute and bounding, and he is breathing 9 times per minute and irregularly. You note a medical alert bracelet that states he has hemophilia. You should first (A) administer high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. (B) transport immediately. (C) perform a detailed physical exam to detect possible injuries. (D) assist his ventilations with a bag-valve mask with high-flow oxygen.

d

A 32-year-old male patient was riding a motorcycle when he collided with a car. He is found conscious, 10 yards from the motorcycle, and has a bleeding laceration on his torso. When you assess his mental status, you find that he is A/O x1. This is a finding consistent with: a. Respiratory arrest b. Organ failure c. Myocardial infarction d. Brain injury

d

A 33 year old male has rapid, shallow respiration and a history of chronic bronchitis and heart failure. His skin is pale. He is sitting in a chair but cannot keep his head upright. You should first... a. assess his SpO2 level. b. administer oxygen by venturi mask. c. administer oxygen by non rebreather mask. d. assist his ventilation with a BVM.

d

A 34-year-old female presents conscious and alert, complaining of difficulty breathing. You note a respiratory rate of 22 per minute with deep tidal volume, and her skin is cool, pale, and diaphoretic. You should immediately (A) insert an oropharyngeal airway. (B) suction her airway. (C) assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. (D) administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask.

d

A 44-year-old male complains of a sudden onset of "the worst headache of my life." Which of the following is the most likely cause of this headache? (A) Transient ischemic attack (B) Cerebral embolism (C) Ischemic stroke (D) Hemorrhagic stroke

d

A 50-year-old male patient in respiratory distress notes a sharp pain in the center of his chest upon inhalation. He also reports a swollen and painful left lower leg, and his wife tells you they have just returned from the airport after a vacation to Europe. What is the best field diagnosis for this patient? a. Acute MI b. CHF c. COPD d. Pulmonary embolism

d

A 53-year-old female presents lying on her couch. She responds to verbal stimulus by moaning. Her husband reports she has been feeling "weak" for the past three days, sleeping on the couch. Her pulse is 104, her blood pressure is 106/82 mm Hg, and her breathing rate is 18 per minute, with deep breaths. Her skin is warm, flushed, and dry. She has a history of Type 2 diabetes and hypertension. You should (A) administer oral glucose. (B) assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. (C) assist the husband with administering the patient's diabetic medications. (D) prepare the patient for immediate transport.

d

A 54 year old female complained of difficulty breathing before becoming unresponsive. You attempted to place an oropharyngeal airway, but she started gagging. In which position should you position her? a. Prone b. Supine c. Semi-Fowler's d. Laterally recumbent

d

A 56-year-old male with a history of asthma complains of substernal chest pressure that radiates to his jaw. He is alert, with cool, pale, and diaphoretic skin. His respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and lung sounds are clear. You should (A) assist his breathing with a bag-valve mask. (B) assist with the patient's multidose inhaler (MDI). (C) lay the patient supine with his legs elevated. (D) administer supplemental oxygen using a nasal cannula.

d

A 6-month-old male has a two-day history of low-grade fever, tachypnea, and wheezing. Auscultation of lung sounds reveals inspiratory and expiratory wheezes to all lobes bilaterally. You suspect that the patient has (A) epiglottitis. (B) pneumonia. (C) croup. (D) bronchiolitis.

d

A 6-month-old male with no medical history has a two-day history of lowgrade fever, tachypnea, and wheezing. Auscultation of lung sounds reveals inspiratory and expiratory wheezes to all lobes bilaterally. This is most consistent with (A) asthma. (B) pneumonia. (C) croup. (D) bronchiolitis.

d

A 62-year-old male complains of substernal chest pain radiating to his jaw. His pulse is 100, his respirations are 16 per minute with adequate tidal volume, his pulse oximetry equals 96 percent on room air, and his blood pressure is 88/40 mm Hg. He is allergic to aspirin. You should (A) assist him with his prescribed nitroglycerin. (B) administer oxygen. (C) administer 320 milligrams of baby aspirin. (D) transport him to a hospital.

d

A 72-year-old female with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents unconscious and apneic with a strong and rapid radial pulse. Her family describes a 4-hour history of increasingly difficult breathing, unrelieved with her home nebulizer and metered-dose inhalers. You should immediately (A) administer continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP). (B) ventilate the patient with a bag-valve mask. (C) assist the patient with her albuterol metered-dose inhaler. (D) insert an oropharyngeal airway.

d

A ____ is an accumulation of blood beneath the dura mater but outside the brain. a. epidural hematoma b. subarachnoid hematoma c. intracerebral hemorrhage d. subdural hematoma

d

A contusion refers to a a. cut b. deformity c. scrape d. bruise

d

A critical incident stress debriefing is usually held within _____ hours of a critical a. 72-96 b. 1-2 c. 12-18 d. 24-72

d

A device that provides constant pressure, through a tube and mask, to prevent airway passages from collapsing at the end of a breath is a(n): a. SHUNT. b. LVAD. c. AICD. d. CPAP.

d

A drug that will inhibit certain clotting factors is: a. aspirin. b. Plavix. c. Coumadin. d. all of the above.

d

A finding of negligence against an EMT requires that certain circumstances be proved, including that the: a. EMT deliberately caused harm to the patient. b. EMT's training did not meet DOT minimum curriculum requirements. c. harm caused by the EMT's actions were physical in nature. d. EMT did not provide the standard of care.

d

A form of distributive shock where the blood vessels _________ is anaphylactic shock. a. Semipermeable b. Leak c. Constrict d. Dilate

d

A hydrocele would be found in the: a. Brain b. Colon c. Neck d. Scrotum

d

A laceration, spurting bright red blood is indicative of what type of injury? a. Amputation b. Capillary c. Venous d. Arterial

d

A man who claims to be the father of an 8-year-old patient that you transported earlier requests information regarding the incident. You should (A) provide the person with any information he requires. (B) establish that the person is the patient's legal guardian. (C) refer the person to the emergency department that provided care. (D) inform the father that you are not permitted to release patient information.

d

A nasal canula is meant to deliver oxygen concentrations of: a. 8 - 15% b. 4 - 8% c. 2 - 6% d. 24 - 44%

d

A pathogen is: a. a disease transmitted by blood only. b. an alternative to latex gloves. c. the virus which causes AIDS. d. a disease-causing organism.

d

A patient attached to a home ventilator appears to be restless, and you hear the ventilator alarm going off. You observe some cyanosis on the patient's fingers and lips. The caretaker tells you he just suctioned the patient. What initial action should be taken for this patient? a. Ask the caretaker if he can fix the ventilator b. Determine if there is a backup ventilator c. Disconnect the ventilator and administer supplemental oxygen d. Disconnect the ventilator and assist his ventilations with a BVM

d

A patient complaining of facial paralysis on one side of his face with tearing, localized pain, and sensitivity may be suffering from the most common form of facial paralysis called a. dystonia b. muscular dystrophy c. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis d. Bell's palsy

d

A patient complaining of facial paralysis on one side of his face with tearing, localized pain, and sensitivity may be suffering from the most common form of facial paralysis called: a. dystonia b. muscular dystrophy c. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) d. Bell's Palsy

d

A patient has been assaulted with a metal bar. You see bruises to the left side of his head, the left lateral chest wall, and the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. His blood pressure is 98/68 mm Hg, he has a heart rate of 136 beats per minute, and he has a respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute with equal, clear lung sounds. His skin is cool, diaphoretic, and pale. Which injury would most likely cause his presentation? (A) Hemothorax (B) Brain injury (C) Ruptured spleen (D) Lacerated liver

d

A patient has rapid, shallow respirations and speaks with a hoarse voice after being trapped in a house fire. You should (A) suction the airway. (B) obtain a set of vital signs. (C) administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. (D) assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask.

d

A patient in unstable condition should be assessed for vital signs at least every ____ minutes. a. 8 b. 2 c. 10 d. 5

d

A patient is experiencing a heart attack. Which of the following medications, if taken on a regular basis, is known for helping a patient during a heart attack, and why? a. Acetaminophen, because it reduces the heart pain and therefore will help cure the heart attack. b. Nitroglycerin, because it vasodilates the blood vessels and allows for more blood flow to the heart. c. Epinephrine, because it will constrict blood vessels and increase the heart rate, which increases blood flow. d. Aspirin, because it reduces platelet aggregation, and therefore reduces blood clotting and thins the blood.

d

A patient may refuse the right to care if: a. The patient is slightly conscious and alert. b. The patient is old enough to understand the consequences of this action and logically comes to the conclusion that the care is not needed. c. The patient refuses, plain and simple. Every patient, no matter mental or physical condition, by law, has the right to refuse medical care. d. The patient is an adult who is alert and oriented completely, has no mental deterioration, and fully understands the consequences of declining the medical care.

d

An asthma attack is often triggered by: a. an allergic reaction. b. emotional stress. c. strenuous exercise. d. all of the above.

d

A patient with a broken leg refuses to be transported to the hospital. He appears to be heavily intoxicated, and you determine that he is alert to person but not to place or time and doesn't remember how he broke his leg. You should (A) ask a police officer to arrest the patient. (B) have the patient sign a refusal form. (C) have the patient's girlfriend sign a refusal form. (D) transport the patient under the concept of implied consent.

d

A patient with localized severe burns states that he feels no pain at all. How is this possible? a. The patient suffers from first degree burns, which destroy sensory nerves. b. The patient suffers from second degree burns, which are burns that reach the dermis (destroy the epidermis layer) layer containing blood vessels and nerve endings. c. The patient suffers from severe burns and should actually feel pain. There is something wrong with his peripheral nervous system. d. The patient suffers from third degree burns, which destroys the dermis completely (which contains sensory nerve endings) and reaches the hypodermis.

d

A pregnant female who is about to deliver a baby should be positioned: a. on her right side with legs apart b. in a sitting position on the stretcher c. in the knee-chest position d. supine with knees drawn up and spread apart

d

A prolapsed umbilical cord, where the cord is pinched between the vaginal wall and the presenting part of the baby, is handled by: a. positioning the mother with her head down and buttocks raised with a blanket or pillow. b. providing the mother with high-concentration oxygen. c. inserting several fingers into the mother's vagina and gently pushing the presenting part off the cord. d. all of the above.

d

A sign of generalized cold emergency, or hypothermia, is cool skin on the: a. feet or hands b. ears c. face d. abdomen

d

A sign of inadequate breathing found especially in infants and children is: a. abdominal breathing. b. uneven chest movements. c. the inability to speak full sentences. d. nasal flaring.

d

A surgically created connection directly between an artery and a vein used for hemodialysis is called a a. Thrill b. Shunt c. Port d. Fistula

d

A syncopal episode is most likely to occur when the patient is in which position? (A) Supine (B) Kneeling (C) Sitting (D) Standing

d

Abnormal breathing can be termed: a. apnea b. bradypnea c. tachypnea d. all of the above

d

About how much total blood volume would a 3-year-old patient who weighed about 30 pounds have? a. 300 mL b. 500 mL c. 750 mL d. 1000 mL

d

Administration of which of the following medications will result in bronchodilation? (A) Alpha-1 antagonist (B) Alpha-2 agonist (C) Beta-1 antagonist (D) Beta-2 agonist

d

After assisting a patient to administer nitroglycerin, you should: a. transport the patient immediately b. place the patient in Trendelenburg position c. give a second dose two minutes later d. reassess vital signs and chest pain

d

After receiving three consecutive "no shock indicated" messages on the AED, you should do which of the following? a. consult medical control for direction b. check the AED battery/power supply c. check for a pulse and begin CPR d. begin transporting to the hospital

d

After releasing care of a possible child abuse victim over to the emergency department staff, you are having a discussion with another ambulance crew who was not present at the incident. One of the child's family members overhears when you talk about your suspicion that the child's mother is the culprit of child abuse. What kind of legal violation have you committed? a. Malfeasance b. Libel c. Negligence d. Slander

d

All of the following field diagnoses are possible in a patient with unequal breath sounds, EXCEPT: a. Hemopneumothorax b. Hemothorax c. Traumatic asphyxia d. Commotio cordis

d

All of the following may be signs of allergic reaction EXCEPT: a. headache and dizziness b. rapid, labored breathing c. decreased blood pressure d. decreased heart rate

d

Although laws may vary from state to state, EMTs in all states must report which of the following circumstances to proper authorities? (A) Elder abuse (B) Drug use (C) Domestic violence (D) Child abuse and neglect

d

An 8-year-old male is slumped in a chair, responsive to pain only. His mother describes an acute onset of his asthma that was unrelieved with his metered-dose inhaler. He has a shallow respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute, a brachial pulse of 64, and wheezes to all lung fields. You should first (A) start CPR. (B) assist with his metered-dose inhaler. (C) administer bag-valve mask ventilations. 2(D) lay the patient supine and pad behind his shoulders.

d

An 8-year-old patient has ingested a medication unfamiliar to you. On-scene, your best source of information regarding the medication itself is (A) the Internet. (B) the patient's family. (C) the patient's physician. (D) poison control.

d

An 80-year-old female has a sudden syncopal episode while sitting and watching television. She is now awake and lying on her couch, complaining of "achiness" in her epigastric region. She is also nauseous. Her blood pressure is 132/86 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 60, and her respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute. She ate a normal meal about 2 hours earlier. Bowel and urine output have been normal. What underlying condition do you suspect? (A) Dehydration (B) Peptic ulcer (C) Angina pectoris (D) Myocardial infarction

d

An EMT assessing a patient with a continuous pumping left ventricular assist device (LVAD) should expect which finding? a. the inability to assess breath sounds b. the inability to obtain a blood pressure. c. decreased neurologic status d. the inability to palpate pulses

d

An EMT can participate in quality improvement by: a. becoming a member of the QI committee. b. continuing your education. c. performing proper documentation. d. all of the above.

d

Describe a patent airway. a. an airway that is blocked and must be cleared with a series of abdominal thrusts. b. an airway that requires either the jaw thrust or the head tilt chin lift maneuver. c. an airway that is mostly clear, but contains a small yet irremovable obstruction that does not interfere with ventilation. d. an airway that is open and clear, and that will remain so, so that air may freely pass in and out of the lungs.

d

Describe agonal respirations or breaths: a. It is when the patient has wheezing in the bronchioles, slow breathing, and hypoxia. b. It is when the patient has stridor noises, absent lung sides upon auscultation, and signs of inadequate perfusion such as blue skins. c. It is when the patient has crowing noises, fast breathing, and shallow breaths. d. It is when the patient has gasping breathing noises, labored breathing, and strange vocalizations.

d

During the physical assessment of a patient with chest injuries, you palpate the chest and feel crepitus. What does this indicate? a. pulmonary hematoma b. lack of blood flow c. pulmonary embolism d. bones grinding together

d

During the time that a woman is giving birth, regular contractions of the uterus cause the cervix to thin and dilate, and help the baby descend into the birth canal. One of the complications of birth is a possible rupturing of the uterus. Which of the following is not indicative of this occurrence? a. Sudden onset of sharp abdominal pain that does not subside with contractions b. Chest pain c. Hypovolemic shock d. Intense headache

d

Elderly males in the United States are more likely to: a. require intubation. b. develop colitis. c. neglect their health. d. commit suicide.

d

Emergency care for an infant when meconium is present in the amniotic fluid includes: a. stimulating the infant to cough to expel the meconium b. performing gas valve mask ventilation to improve lung compliance c. performing back blows and chest thrusts to remove the meconium d. suctioning and notifying the hospital that meconium was present

d

Epinephrine, given for severe allergic reactions, helps reverse the effects of the allergic reaction by: a. constricting the bronchioles. b. increasing the heart rate. c. dilating the blood vessels. d. dilating the bronchioles.

d

Family members report that an elderly male who has a history of diabetes and hypertension has garbled speech, difficulty swallowing, and a right-sided facial droop. They also report a similar episode a week earlier that went away on its own. What is the most appropriate treatment plan? a. Perform a detailed physical examination to determine whether there are any related injuries, immobilize if necessary, and transport to the patient's preferred hospital. b. Encourage the patient to drink orange juice to increase his blood sugar level, reevaluate mental status, and transport if necessary. c. Suggest that the patient is experiencing a transient ischemic attack (TIA) and assist in making arrangements to have patient seen at an urgent care center. d. Suggest immediate transport to an emergency department capable of managing acute stroke. Skip

d

Females with an unknown source of abdominal pain should be considered for: a. Meconium b. Pre-eclampsia c. Internal organ damage d. Ectopic pregnancy

d

Food enters the digestive system by way of the: a. small intestine. b. trachea. c. nasopharynx. d. mouth

d

For the blood to clot, it needs: a. aspirin. b. plasma. c. white blood cells. d. platelets.

d

For which of these procedures should you wear gloves, gown, mask, and protective eyewear? A. performing endotracheal intubation B. performing oral/nasal intubation C. cleaning contaminated instruments D. bleeding control with spurting blood

d

Guidelines that define the extent and limits of the job the EMT does are referred to as: a. off-line medical control. b. standing orders. c. on-line medical control. d. a scope of practice.

d

Normal breathing means: a. a breathing rate within the normal range. b. the patient is not using accessory muscles to breathe. c. the chest moves an average depth with each breath. d. all of the above

d

Identify the sequential links of the chain of survival for cardiac emergencies. a. Activate EMS and basic and advanced EMS, identify early warning signs, CPR, and AED use. b. Activate EMS and identify early warning signs, AED use, basic and advanced EMS, ALS, and post-arrest care. c. Identify early warning signs and activate EMS, CPR, basic and advanced EMS, ALS, and post-arrest care. d. Identify early warning signs and activate EMS, CPR, AED use, basic and advanced EMS, ALS, and post-arrest care.

d

If a patient tenses his muscles as you are reaching to palpate his abdomen, he is said to be: a. distending. b. inflecting. c. regulating. d. guarding.

d

If an AED analyzes a patient and finds pulseless electrical activity, how is it programmed to respond? a. It will remain in the "analyze" mode. b. It will indicate "shock advised." c. It will instruct the operator to "check the pads." d. It will indicate "no shock advised."

d

If manually ventilating a patient, you should squeeze the bag every ____ seconds for an adult and every ____ seconds for a child. a. 8 to 10, 6 to 8 b. 2 to 3, 6 to 8 c. 5 to 6, 5 to 6 d. 5 to 6, 3 to 5

d

If you are using a flow-restricted oxygen-powered ventilation device (FROPVD) on a patient with _______, you should be careful not to overinflate. a. pneumonia b. COPD c. an aortic aneurysm d. chest trauma

d

If you attempt to restrain a patient, but do it improperly, it can result in: a. positional asphyxia b. criminal charges c. civil liability d. all of the above

d

If your initial assessment reveals an unstable patient, splinting of extremity injuries: a. with a traction splint is done to all injured extremities as soon as possible. b. is done during the assessment of circulation during the initial assessment. c. must be done to each individual injury site before transport. d. becomes a low priority.

d

If your patient has an altered mental status and a history of diabetes, you may give him: a. activated charcoal. b. nitroglycerin. c. epinephrine. d. oral glucose.

d

Immediate recognition and activation of the emergency medical system and early CPR are the first two steps in the chain of survival of a patient who is experiencing cardiac arrest. Which of the following is not one of the final three steps? a. Effective advanced life support b. Integrated post cardiac care c. Rapid defibrillation d. Bystander cooperation

d

Immediately after delivering a shock with an AED to a patient in cardiac arrest, you should: a. check for a pulse b. check breathing and provide rescue breaths as necessary c. analyze with the AED and shock again if indicated d. do CPR

d

Immediately after delivering a shock with an AED to a patient in cardiac arrest, you would a. check for a pulse b. check breathing and provide rescue breaths as necessary c. analyze with the AED and shock again if indicated d. do CPR

d

In a multiple-casualty situation, which patient should be assigned the highest priority? a. adequate breathing, responsive, venous bleeding b. adequate breathing, responsive, suspected spinal injury c. inadequate breathing, responsive, suspected broken tibia d. inadequate breathing, unresponsive, suspected internal bleeding

d

In a traumatic event where there is tissue damage that causes bleeding, the bleeding needs to be controlled. What are the proper steps to control bleeding? a. Direct pressure, pressure dressing, tourniquet b. Tourniquet, elevation, pressure dressing, direct pressure c. Direct pressure, elevation, tourniquet, digital pressure d. Direct pressure, digital pressure, elevation, tourniquet

d

In addition to caring for injuries, emergency care for a rape victim should focus on which of the following? A. performing a pelvic or rectal exam on the patient B. collecting evidence of the rape and bagging it in plastic C. allowing the patient to shower and change clothes D. preserving evidence in a paper bag and reassuring the victim

d

In severe head trauma injuries, you will likely notice in a patient: a. An altered mental status. b. Ecchymosis (battle signs) behind the ears. c. Facial deformities, and a clear, milky fluid leakage at the ears and nose. d. All of these answer choices are correct.

d

In which situation is the use of a flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device (FORPVD) contraindicated? a. In a patient without a suspected spine injury b. In a patient with a suspected spine injury c. In a geriatric patient d. In a child or infant

d

Insulin is used to help transfer ________ into the cells. a. insulin b. blood c. water d. glucose

d

Interventions you should check during your assessment include: a. the delivery of oxygen to the patient. b. bandaging, to check for continued bleeding. c. splints, to ensure they are still secure. d. all of the above.

d

It is thought that your 72-year-old female patient may have an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). Which of the following signs and symptoms support a AAA? a. Low lumbar pain b. Tearing pain c. Absent femoral pulse on one extremity d. All of the above

d

Judgment based on experience in observing and treating patients is called: a. observational judgment. b. experiential judgment. c. categorical judgment. d. clinical judgment.

d

Modern cars are often fitted with supplemental restraint systems. What system is this referring to? a. automatic seat belts b. child seat using factory installed mounting points c. child booster seat d. air bags

d

Most states require EMTs to report certain types of incidents to law enforcement. These include patients: a. under the age of 21 who have been drinking alcohol. b. transported from extended-care facilities. c. under the age of 18 who are pregnant. d. who are victims of domestic abuse.

d

Newton's Third Law of Motion states a. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, but can be changed in form b. A body at rest will stay at rest and a body in motion will remain in motion unless acted upon by an outside force c. Kinetic energy is determined by an object's mass and velocity d. For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction

d

Noisy breathing is an indication of a(n): a. infection. b. foreign body. c. airway injury. d. obstruction.

d

What is a major concern with expecting mothers who have placenta previa? a. It is an extremely painful condition, so mothers will be in dire pain which makes the delivery process harder. b. This is indicative of an ectopic pregnancy, which can be fatal since it can cause so much bleeding and internal trauma. c. This is indicative of an early pregnancy which may result in deformities of the child. d. This is a condition in which the placenta is in the wrong position, leading to the placenta tearing off of the uterine wall and causing massive bleeding.

d

What is a pulmonary embolism? a. Swelling in the pulmonary arteries that causes a clot. b. Gas gets trapped in the arteries, causing poor perfusion and therefore a lack of oxygen to the heart. c. It is caused by CHF, where the heart cannot pump blood and therefore causes pulmonary back up. d. Obstruction in pulmonary arteries. High risk for immobile patients, recent surgery, deep vein thrombosis, and other conditions where blood clot is likely.

d

What is a very late sign of an ectopic pregnancy? a. Vaginal bleeding b. Acute abdominal pain c. Irregular pulse d. Low blood pressure

d

What is angina pectoris? a. When part of the heart muscle dies due to lack of oxygen. b. Chest pain due to a pulmonary embolism. c. Low blood pressure that causes head dizziness and chest pain. d. Chest pain due to constricted blood vessels and inadequate perfusion to the heart.

d

What is considered the single most important thing an EMT can do when treating a patient in cardiac arrest? a. administer oxygen at 15 lpm via non-re-breather mask. b. thump the chest to stimulate the heart. c. begin CPR immediately. d. administer early defibrillation in the field.

d

What is coronary blood flow, and why is it important? a. Coronary blood flow is the blood supplied to the brain. Without blood flow to the brain, oxygen does not get there, and brain cells will begin to die. b. Coronary blood flow is the blood supplied to the coronus meniscus. Without it, the heart will stop functioning. c. Coronary blood flow is the blood supplied to the body. It is another term used to describe bodily blood flow. d. Coronary blood flow is the blood supplied to the heart itself. The heart is an organ and just like any other organ, without a blood supply, it will die due to lack of oxygen.

d

What is diabetes? a. When the body produces too little glucose, resulting in hypoglycemia. b. When the body produces too much glucose, causing hyperglycemia. c. The inability of the body to convert proteins into sugars, leading to decreased insulin production. d. Is either caused by decreased insulin production or the cells' inability to use insulin, resulting in hyperglycemia.

d

What is meant by BVM? a. Breathing and Ventilation Maneuvers b. Bilateral (lungs) Ventilation Machine c. A device for measuring minute volume. d. Bag Valve Mask

d

What is meant by artificial ventilation? a. when a machine does the breathing for a patient that can still breathe on normally their own. b. breathing assistance for a patient that has a slow heart rate. c. the insertion of an oropharyngeal bag valve mask to provide negative air flow and proper suction. d. the forcing of air or oxygen into the lungs when a patient cannot breathe for themselves at all.

d

What is most commonly associated with cardiac arrest in infants and children? a. sepsis b. accidental poisoning c. seizures d. respiratory failure and respiratory arrest

d

What is primarily responsible for crashes in a modern ambulance? a. other vehicles b. increased vehicle traffic c. high speed driving d. distracted driving

d

What is the coup-contrecoup injury caused by? a. When a patient falls off of a ladder and sustains an impact to the head that fractures the skull. There is no significant movement of the head. b. When a patient breaks their ankle. c. It is caused by a concussion, which results from the stretching and tearing of brain tissue. d. When a patient is in a severe car accident, in which there was lots of head movement with great force.

d

What is the difference between oxygenation and respiration? a. Oxygenation is the process of providing oxygen to body tissues or cells. Respiration is the act of breathing. b. Oxygenation is the process of inhalation and exhalation. Respiration is used to describe how fast one inhales and exhales. c. Oxygenation is the process of the entire process of gas exchange that occurs at the alveoli and body capillaries. Respiration is the act of breathing. d. Oxygenation is the process of providing oxygen to body tissues or cells. Respiration is the process of gas exchange that occurs at alveoli and body capillaries.

d

What is the difference between respiratory distress and respiratory failure? a. respiratory distress occurs when there is a mismatch between ventilation and perfusion, while respiratory failure is when the breathing stops altogether b. respiratory distress is apnea or an absence of breathing, while respiratory failure occurs when apnea leads to a ceasing of brain function c. respiratory distress is inadequate respiration while respiratory failure occurs when the heart function ceases d. respiratory distress occurs when more respiratory effort is required due to impaired respiratory function, while respiratory failure occurs when compensatory mechanisms begin to fail and respiration becomes inadequate e. all of the above

d

What is the earliest and most prominent finding in a crush injury? a. Paralysis b. Paresthesia c. Pulselessness d. Pain

d

What is the first step in treating any heat emergency? a. Cool the patient b. Provide fluids to the patient c. Apply cold packs in the armpits and groin d. Remove the patient from the heat

d

What is the first step to consider in the process of caring for a patient in extreme cold with exposure? a. Check the patient's airway and stabilize. b. Assess MOI and begin warming the patient. c. Obtain the patient's temperature and begin warming the patient. d. Prepare to prevent personal harm from cold exposure.

d

What is the maximum flow rate for a nasal cannula? a. 2 LPM b. 8 LPM c. 12 LPM d. 6 LPM

d

What is the name of the reference used to determine the initial response to a Hazardous Materials (HazMat) incident? a. the Shipping Paper b. CHEMTREC c. the Safety Data Sheet d. the DOT Emergency Response Guide

d

What is the normal heart rate for a child over the age of 6? a. 100 - 120 b. 120 - 140 c. 140 - 160 d. 80 - 100

d

Which side of the heart is larger and why? a. Right side, because it pumps blood to the more resistant pulmonary arteries and therefore has to have more muscle to develop more pressure per contraction. b. Right side, because it pumps blood to the less resistant pulmonary arteries, and has to develop more pressure for it. c. Left side, because it pumps blood to the less resistant aortic arteries, and has to develop more pressure for it. d. Left side, because it pumps blood to the more resistant, larger arterial system and therefore, has to have more musculature to force blood out against the greater systemic pressure.

d

Which statement about patient confidentiality is correct? a. patients who are cared for in a public place lose their right to confidentiality b. the right to confidentiality does not apply to minors or to wards of the state c. the patient who signs a statement releasing confidential information relinquishes all rights to privacy d. a patient must sign a written release before any confidential information can be disclosed

d

Which type of energy transfer is a motor vehicle crash (MVC) with frontal impact, unrestrained driver with bent steering wheel, and spidered windshield? a. Decelerating b. High velocity penetrating c. Low velocity penetrating d. Blunt

d

Which type of energy transfer is a motor vehicle crash (MVC) with frontal impact, unrestrained driver with bent steering wheel, and spidered windshield? a. Low velocity penetrating b. Decelerating c. High velocity penetrating d. Blunt

d

Which valve of the heart lies between the right atrium and right ventricle? a. Aortic Valve b. Bicuspid Valve c. Pulmonic Valve d. Tricuspid Valve

d

While dealing with a patient presenting with abnormal behavior, you should: a. consider whether the patient is capable of giving consent b. administer care that is in the best interest of the patient c. consult medical direction d. all of the above

d

While transporting a patient with a vaginal hemorrhage, you note that the sanitary napkin that was placed over her vagina has become soaked with blood. Your best next step would be to (A) discard the soaked napkin. (B) pack the vagina with a new napkin. (C) place another napkin directly on top of the first one. (D) remove the first napkin and place a new napkin over the vaginal opening.

d

Who inhales poisons to get high? a. Sniffers b. Puffers c. Inhalers d. Huffers

d

Who is responsible for the daily inspection of an ambulance? a. the staff who last used the vehicle b. the chief or supervisor c. the government licensing authority d. the staff assigned to the vehicle for that shift

d

Why should you never massage or rub a frozen part of a patient's body? a. Reintroduction of circulation can cause severe shock. b. Blood vessels can constrict, decreasing blood flow to the affected area. c. The body part can easily be cracked or broken. d. Microscopic ice crystals can cause serious tissue damage.

d

Yellow-tinted skin is an indication of: a. lack of oxygen in the red blood cells. b. congestive heart failure. c. severe blood loss. d. liver abnormalities.

d

You and your partner are at the station when you hear a frantic knock on the front door. A man says his three-year-old daughter is in his car's back seat, with a sudden onset of difficulty breathing, sore throat, and a high fever. As you approach the patient, you notice she is in the tripod position on her mom's lap, she looks very ill, and is drooling. What problem do you suspect and how would you treat her? a. Epiglottitis. The best treatment is to treat the patient gently and do not cause them to cry. Transport in the supine position with high-flow oxygen, if tolerated. Transport rapidly with lights and siren. b. Pneumonia. The best treatment is to administer oral fluids, high-flow oxygen, and transport in a position of comfort. c. Croup. The best treatment is to administer humidified oxygen and transport rapidly. d. Epiglottitis. The best treatment is to treat the patient gently and do not cause them to cry. Transport in a position of comfort with high-flow oxygen, if tolerated. Transport rapidly, but quietly, so as not to alarm the child.

d

You and your partner are preparing to transport a 56 year old male who has hand pain. The patient tells you he wants to sit on the bench seat instead of the stretcher. Your partner states, "Sure, that's fine." You should... a. accept the wishes of your partner. b. allow the patient to sit on the bench but use a seat belt. c. talk to your partner after the call and express your disagreement. d. tell your partner you are uncomfortable transporting the patient on the bench seat.

d

You and your partner witness a patient suffer cardiac arrest. You should immediately (A) administer two breaths with a bag-valve mask and begin chest compressions. (B) place the patient in the recovery position and check for a pulse. (C) place the AED on the patient and analyze the heart rhythm. (D) begin chest compressions and place the AED on the patient.

d

You are alone and find a child or infant patient in unwitnessed cardiac arrest. You don't have a mobile phone or defibrillator. You should: a. Immediately go for help and an AED b. Perform two ventilations over 1 second and look for signs of life. Then go for help c. Perform one cycle of 30:2 CPR then go for help d. Perform two minutes of CPR then go for help

d

You are an EMT, eating lunch with your partner at a local park when a panicked lady runs towards you, holding a baby in obvious respiratory distress. She tells you that she's babysitting the 10-month-old female and saw the baby's three-year-old brother shove a whole grape into her mouth, and she started choking on it. The babysitter tells you she doesn't know what to do. What treatment would you immediately provide? a. Perform five back slaps followed by five abdominal thrusts, repeating until the grape is dislodged or the patient becomes unresponsive. b. Perform five abdominal thrusts followed by five chest thrusts, repeating until the grape is dislodged or the patient becomes unresponsive. c. Perform ten back slaps followed by five chest thrusts, repeating until the grape is dislodged or the patient becomes unresponsive. d. Perform five back slaps followed by five chest thrusts, repeating until the grape is dislodged or the patient becomes unresponsive

d

You are assessing the airway of a patient you are about to ventilate with a bag-valve mask. She has dentures, which are firmly in place. You should (A) remove the upper denture. (B) remove the lower denture. (C) remove both the upper and lower dentures. (D) leave the dentures in place.

d

You are attending to a 34-year-old male patient who has fallen down the stairs. When you arrive, he is alert and oriented, and his pulse is 88bpm. You decide to transport him to the nearest hospital anyway since there is a large bruise on his head. En route he becomes altered and when you reassess his vitals his blood pressure is 210/105, his pulse is 56, and one of his pupils is unequal and nonreactive to light. What is this patient most likely suffering from? a. Epidural hematoma b. Subdural hematoma c. Intracerebral hematoma d. All of the listed types of hematomas are likely

d

You are called to a chemical plant for a patient exposed to an unknown substance. Upon arrival, you find a 23-year-old male who had a chemical splash into his right eye. He is unsure what the substance might be; however, there is tearing, redness, and matter forming on the eye's cornea. What sort of treatment should you perform? a. Perform a vision test b. Scrape the matter off the cornea c. Cover the injured eye and encourage the patient to look around with the uninjured eye d. Flush the eye with water or normal saline

d

You are called to a nursing home for a patient with black, tarry stools. She is conscious but confused. The staff at the nursing home tell you that this mental status is normal for her due to her Alzheimer's disease. Her skin is warm and dry. Her mucous membranes are dry and ashen. Her blood pressure is 98/62 mm Hg, and her radial pulse is 114 beats per minute. Her respiratory rate is 16 per minute. Upon assessing your patient, she vomits a substance that looks like coffee grounds. What condition is this patient most likely suffering from? a. Bowel obstruction b. Gastroenteritis c. Lower GI bleed d. Upper GI bleed

d

You are called to an assisted living facility where you find an 86-year-old male who is pulseless and apneic. Your partner starts compressions while you manage the airway. You are ready to place an oropharyngeal airway and notice the patient has dentures that are firmly intact. What would you do before proceeding with the OPA? a. Remove the dentures. b. Place the OPA and then remove the dentures. c. Switch to a nasopharyngeal airway. d. Leave the dentures in place

d

You are called to the home of a 90-year-old male who is having trouble breathing and is confused. The friend who called said the patient has cancer and they think he is on hospice and has a DNR. The patient becomes apneic and loses his pulse. You should ____. a. Assume he has a DNR order and do nothing. b. Call hospice and clarify the situation. c. Provide limited resuscitation efforts until you contact family to determine his wishes. d. start CPR

d

You are called to the scene and find a 10-year-old boy on the ground experiencing severe generalized muscle twitching. His mother states he has a diagnosis of epilepsy and his seizure started four minutes ago. He is most likely experiencing what type of seizure? a. a simple partial seizure b. an aura c. status epilepticus d. generalized tonic-clonic seizure

d

You are caring for a 4-year-old female with severe head trauma after a fall from a significant height. The patient's mother asks you, "Is my daughter seriously injured?" The best reply is (A) "No, she is not seriously injured." (B) "I do not know how badly she is injured." (C) "The doctor at the hospital will be better able to talk with you about this." (D) "Yes, your daughter is seriously injured, and we are doing everything we can for her."

d

You are dispatched to a residence, where a woman suffers from chest pain and has called for an ambulance. Upon knocking on the door, you are met by a large man who yells at you to leave. He is threatening you and looks malicious. What do you do, and why? a. Barge past the man and help the woman in the home, because leaving the scene is an act of abandonment. b. Have the man sign for patient's refusal "against medical advice", because this means that the patient wants no medical attention. c. Leave the scene, because you are allowed to do this if the patient or associated people are rude or abusive. d. Return to your ambulance, drive to a safe location, and contact the police to help. Leaving the scene would be negligent.

d

You are dispatched to the local YMCA for a 56-year-old male complaining of chest pain. During your assessment, the patient tells you he has a past medical history of high cholesterol and takes Lipitor® daily. He tells you he had a procedure to unblock an artery one year ago and was diagnosed with ____. a. acute coronary syndrome b. thromboembolism c. acute myocardial infarction d. atherosclerosis

d

You are managing a 23-year-old male patient who has been stabbed in the chest. Their ability to breathe is jeopardized because: a. Air rushes in through the stab wound, making the positive pressure necessary for exhalation impossible to create. b. Air rushes in through the stab wound, making the negative pressure necessary for exhalation impossible to create. c. The patient's ability to breathe is not jeopardized. d. Air rushes in through the stab wound, making the negative pressure necessary for inhalation impossible to create.

d

You are manually ventilating a patient using a bag valve mask (BVM). The patient is connected to pulse oximetry and the oxygen saturation reading is 80. You do not see the chest rise. What steps can you take? a. Squeeze the bag much faster. b. Put down the ambu bag and start mouth to mouth resuscitation using a barrier device. c. Do a finger sweep of the mouth to make sure it's clear. d. Reposition the head and make sure you have a tight seal with the mask.

d

You are performing CPR on a patient in cardiac arrest. His wife asks you, "Is my husband dead?" Of the following, which is the best answer? (A) "The doctor at the emergency department will be able to tell you." (B) "No, your husband is not dead." (C) "Could you please step away and let us work?" (D) "Your husband's heart has stopped beating, and he is not breathing."

d

You are planning to have a continuing education seminar with your service's medical director. He asks you to define normal behavior after you both decide that behavioral emergencies need to be addressed. What would you reply? a. Behavior that does not hurt anyone b. A person's observable conduct or activity c. Behavior that the person believes is normal d. Behavior that society views as acceptable

d

You are responding to a motor vehicle accident in which the driver of a car that collided head on with a semi-truck has been extricated. How should this patient be transported? a. In a position of comfort b. On their left side c. On a gurney d. Immobilized on a long backboard, wearing a C-collar

d

You are transporting a 48-year-old male patient between medical facilities... While obtaining the patient's history, you learn that the patient was involved in a fall at work and suffered a hip fracture and a head injury. The patient is now presenting with labored breathing at 30/min that has progressively worsened over the last 24 hours, a heart rate of 104, and a blood pressure of 98/70. On auscultation, you hear diffuse rales. The patient denies any complaints of pain other than those related to his recent fall. What is the most likely cause of the patient's respiratory distress? a. Cardiogenic shock b. Congestive heart failure c. Acute bronchitis d. Adult respiratory distress syndrome

d

You are transporting an elderly male patient in respiratory distress with a history of COPD... The patient has very shallow, rapid respirations with minimal chest wall motion and slight wheezing in the upper lung fields. Given this situation, what would you expect the arterial carbon dioxide levels to be? a. Not enough information to determine b. Normal c. Lowered d. Elevated

d

You are treating a 49-year-old patient who complains of intense pain between his shoulder blades radiating to his lower back. The pain began 10 minutes before your arrival while he was eating and has been constant. He rates the pain as a 10 out of 10 and describes it as a sharp, tearing pain. The patient's blood pressure is 130/76 mm Hg in the right arm and 78/48 mm Hg in the left arm, radial pulse in his right arm is 98 beats per minute and regular, and respiratory rate is 20 per minute and non-labored. He has no significant past medical history. What condition would you most likely suspect? a. Congestive heart failure b. Myocardial infarction c. Angina pectoris d. Aortic dissection

d

You are treating a 70-year-old male who is experiencing chest pain, and has a history of cardiac problems. What is the maximum dosage of nitroglycerin to be given without additional medical direction? a. 5 tablets b. 2 tablets c. 4 tablets d. 3 tablets

d

You are treating a conscious, alert, and oriented 64-year-old male for a suspected heart attack. He refuses transport to the hospital. You should (A) explain that once you start treatment you cannot stop. (B) physically force the patient to go to the emergency department. (C) have the patient's wife take the patient to his personal physician. (D) inform the patient of the risks of not seeking medical attention.

d

You are treating a conscious, alert, and oriented 64-year-old male for a suspected heart attack. He refuses transport to the hospital. You should (A) explain to the patient that once you start treatment you can't stop. (B) force the patient to go to the emergency department. (C) have the patient's wife take the patient to his personal physician. (D) inform the patient of the risks of not seeking medical attention.

d

You are treating an 85-year-old female patient with chest pain. She has a history of angina pectoris. She also has a prescription for nitroglycerin. You measure her vitals to be 107bpm, her respiratory rate to be 20 breaths per minute and her blood pressure to be 133/80. Which intervention would be your first priority? a. Administration of aspirin b. Administration of oxygen via non-rebreather mask c. Administration of albuterol d. Administration of nitroglycerin

d

You are treating an adult patient with partial thickness burns covering his left arm and leg. What percentage of this patient's body is burned (use the "rule of nines") and what makes this patient's burns partial thickness? a. 27%; The skin appears black without blisters and there is a chance that tissue beneath the skin is burned. b. 36%; The skin appears deep red and blistered and the outer layer and second layer of the skin is burned. c. 36%; The skin appears black without blisters and there is a chance that tissue beneath the skin is burned. d. 27%; The skin appears deep red and blistered and the outer layer and second layer of the skin is burned.

d

You are treating an injury to the right knee due to a motorcycle collision. There is severe hemorrhage from the extremity at the site of deformity. You should... a. apply direct pressure over the site. b. apply direct pressure over the right femoral artery in the inguinal fold. c. splint the fracture in the position of function. d. apply a tourniquet to the right thigh.

d

You arrive at a house fire. Firefighter/first responders have rescued a young man who was asleep in his room. He is unconsious, and has a GCS of 11. His vitals are 134/78, 99.1-114-28. His skin is dry. Cyanosis is present around the mouth. There are no signs of burn trauma. Which following statement makes the most sense: a. You suspect smoke inhalation. b. You suspect hypoglycemia. c. You suspect carbon monoxide poisoning. d. You administer high flow O2 and transport code 3.

d

You arrive at a motor vehicle crash to find one conscious, alert, adult patient. You ask the patient if you may help him. He says, "Yes." This is an example of: a. formal consent. b. legal consent. c. implied consent. d. expressed consent.

d

You arrive at an apartment where a 60-year-old male is seated on the couch grasping his chest. He complains of chest pain, dyspnea, nausea, and is diaphoretic. Which of these symptoms is the most common indicator of acute coronary syndrome? a. Dyspnea b. Nausea c. Diaphoresis d. Chest pain

d

You arrive in scene to see a lineman for the telephone company laying supine on the ground. First responder firefighters have secured the scene and there is no danger. Your patient is already in C-Spine and is breathing, but unconscious. You see obvious burn marks on his right hand and his right boot, What comes next? a. Begin the assessment, check the patient's LOC and try to get a complete SAMPLE survey. Assess the patient for PERRLA, CSM in all extremities. Check for clear lung sounds. Once the patient is considered stable, transport code three. b. Ask the first responders if they can tell you the specific amps and voltage this man has endured as this will determine your treatment protocol. c. Intubate the patient. Prepare to perform an emergency tracheotomy. Draw up atropine and epinephrine if you are working with a paramedic. Transport code three. d. Check for fractures, anticipate airway issues, cardiac issues, possible shock, and seizures. Load the patient on a back board and go.

d

You arrive on scene and find a 46-year-old male with difficulty breathing and an altered level of consciousness. He is tachypneic, pale, diaphoretic, and has tachycardia. What are your patient's respirations per minute? a. 12-15 b. 18-20 c. 15-18 d. greater than 20

d

You arrive on scene where a 45-year-old male patient is lying unconscious on the ground. His wife tells you that he has an AICD. After verifying that he is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless you begin compressions. How should your care of this patent differ from the care of a patient without an AICD? a. You should only do compressions and ventilations, as shocking a patient with an AICD poses a threat to both you and the patient. b. You should attach the AED, but not press "shock" until you have been given permission to do so by medical direction. c. You should do compressions and ventilations for an extended period of time, as shocking this patient will pose an additional threat to him since he has an AICD. d. Your resuscitation of this patient should not differ from the resuscitation of any other patient.

d

You arrive on scene where a 50-year-old male patient is sitting on a park bench. He complains of dyspnea, chest pain, and abdominal pain, but mentions that the chest pain is bothering him the most. Which of these symptoms would you consider as this patient's chief complaint? a. Dyspnea b. Abdominal pain c. All three symptoms would make up this patient's chief complaint d. Chest pain

d

You arrive on scene, and during your medical assessment, you notice that the patient has hot core body temperatures, muscle cramps, altered mental status, general body weakness, a headache, bradycardia, and bradypnea (slow breathing rate). These are signs of: a. Early hypothermia b. Late hypothermia c. Early hyperthermia d. Late hyperthermia

d

You arrive on the scene of a reported assault, where a 19-year-old male has been beaten with a bat. After confirming that the scene is safe, you find the patient unresponsive, apneic, bleeding into the airway, with white milky fluid leaking from his ears. What is your first priority in the care of this patient? a. Apply a C-collar and have your partner maintain stabilization of the cervical spine. b. Ventilate using a bag-valve mask with the assistance of your partner. c. Provide high flow oxygen via nonrebreather mask. d. Suction the airway

d

You come upon a patient in cardiac arrest. You can treat this patient based on: a. consent of incapacity. b. expressed consent. c. formal consent. d. implied consent.

d

You delivered a baby who has meconium staining on his face. The baby has some peripheral cyanosis and is moving and crying slightly. You should: a. Suction with a bulb syringe b. Suction with a meconium aspirator c. Begin positive pressure ventilations d. Warm, dry and stimulate the baby

d

You elevate the feet of a patient who is in shock. This is called: a. recovery position. b. Fowler's position. c. prone position. d. Trendelenburg position

d

You encounter a 4-month-old infant in cardiac arrest of unknown cause. Of the following options, which defibrillator is the preferred EMS option? a. Any AED b. Defibrillation is not indicated on this client. c. AED without pediatric dose attenuator d. AED with pediatric dose attenuator

d

You have a patient who has a history of asthma and is having shortness of breath. The patient has a doctor's prescription to take 4 puffs of an Albuterol MDI every four hours as needed. Your local EMS policies allow you to help a patient self administer the MDI. What side effect should you watch for from the MDI? a. bradycardia b. sleepiness c. diarrhea d. increased heart rate

d

You have been dispatched to a private residence for a 24-year-old male having a seizure. Upon arrival at the scene, you find the patient lying on the living room floor in a postictal state. As you approach the patient, you note that he is breathing at 14 breaths per minute. The victim's sister stated that she called 911 after she walked into the house and found her brother lying on the ground seizing. Your initial approach to this patient should include: a. Placing a nasopharyngeal airway and perform bag-valve assisted ventilations at a rate of 10-12 per minute. b. Placing an oropharyngeal airway and perform bag-valve assisted ventilations at a rate of 10 to 12 per minute. c. Opening the airway using the modified jaw-thrust maneuver followed by bag-valve assisted ventilations. d. Opening the airway using the modified jaw-thrust maneuver followed by the administration of high-flow oxygen through a nonrebreather mask.

d

You have just defibrillated a cardiac arrest patient, and after 2 minutes of CPR, he is now breathing and you find a carotid pulse. You are attempting to obtain his blood pressure when you note that he stops breathing. You should (A) begin chest compressions. (B) ventilate the patient with a bag-valve mask. (C) analyze the cardiac rhythm with an automated external defibrillator (AED). (D) check for a pulse.

d

You have just witnessed an adult patient go into cardiac arrest. You are alone. You should immediately (A) listen to lung sounds. (B) begin chest compressions. (C) administer two breaths with a bag-valve mask. (D) place the AED on the patient and analyze the heart rhythm.

d

You have responded to a nursing home for a 76-year-old female patient who is cyanotic. Her respiratory rate is 26 per minute with adequate tidal volume. Cyanosis and an increase in respiratory rate were noticed approximately five minutes before the nurse requested an ambulance. History reveals deep vein thrombosis and severe Alzheimer s disease. The patient's eyes open spontaneously; however, she does not speak. The attending nurse states that her mental status has been unchanged from her normal state. Her lungs are clear and equal bilaterally. Her blood pressure is 142/88 mm Hg with a pulse rate of 86 beats per minute. Which of the following choices represents the best initial treatment? a. Administer oxygen by nasal cannula at 2 L/min b. Place a nasal airway and provide ventilatory assistance c. Provide chest compressions to circulate oxygen throughout her body d. Administer oxygen by nonrebreather at 15 L/min

d

You may skip doing a focused physical exam because: a. your patient has a noncritical trauma for which the detailed physical exam would not be useful. b. it is often not necessary on a medical patient. c. you are too busy taking care of life-threatening problems. d. all of the above.

d

You respond to a call for a man with an ALOC. When you arrive on scene, you find a male patient who is behaving erratically. He is screaming and pacing. Witnesses say he is threatening to "kill someone." You should immediately ____. a. Approach him and quickly administer a sedative so he can relax. b. Approach the man and try to verbally de-escalate the situation. c. Place restraints on the man to make sure he does not hurt himself or others. d. Call for law enforcement backup before approaching the man.

d