Exam 5

A clinic nurse is about to meet with a client diagnosed with a gambling disorder. Which of the following symptoms and/or behaviors is the nurse likely to assess? (Select all that apply.) 1. Stressful situations precipitate gambling behaviors. 2. Anxiety and restlessness can only be relieved by placing a bet. 3. Winning brings about feelings of sexual satisfaction. 4. Gambling is used as a coping strategy. 5. Losing at gambling meets the client's need for self-punishment.

*ANS: 1,2,4,5* Rationale: *1. In gambling disorder, the preoccupation with and impulse to gamble intensifies when the individual is under stress.* *2. Many impulsive gamblers describe a physical sensation of restlessness and anticipation that can only be relieved by placing a bet.* 3. Winning brings feelings of special status, power, and omnipotence, not sexual satisfaction. *4. Gambling is used as a coping strategy for dealing with stress and disappointments.* *5. The gambler increasingly depends on this activity to cope with disappointments, problems, and negative emotional states.*

What should be the priority nursing diagnosis for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal? 1. Risk for injury R/T central nervous system stimulation 2. Disturbed thought processes R/T tactile hallucinations 3. Ineffective coping R/T powerlessness over alcohol use 4. Ineffective denial R/T continued alcohol use despite negative consequences

*ANS: 1* Rationale: *1 The priority nursing diagnosis for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal should be risk for injury R/T central nervous system stimulation. Alcohol withdrawal may include the following symptoms: course tremors of hands, tongue, or eyelids; nausea or vomiting; malaise or weakness; tachycardia; sweating; elevated blood pressure; anxiety; depressed mood; hallucinations; headache; and insomnia.* 2 Disturbed thought processes R/T tactile hallucinations is important, but is not the priority nursing diagnosis. 3 Ineffective coping R/T powerlessness over alcohol use is important, but is not the priority nursing diagnosis. 4 Ineffective denial R/T continued alcohol use despite negative consequences is important, but is not the priority nursing diagnosis.

A client diagnosed with chronic alcohol addiction is being discharged from an inpatient treatment facility after detoxification. Which client outcome, related to AA, would be most appropriate for a nurse to discuss with the client during discharge teaching? 1. After discharge, the client will immediately attend 90 AA meetings in 90 days. 2. After discharge, the client will rely on an AA sponsor to help control alcohol cravings. 3. After discharge, the client will incorporate family in AA attendance. 4. After discharge, the client will seek appropriate deterrent medications through AA.

*ANS: 1* Rationale: *1 The most appropriate client outcome for the nurse to discuss during discharge teaching is attending 90 AA meetings in 90 days after discharge. AA is a major self-help organization for the treatment of alcohol addiction. It accepts alcohol addiction as an illness and promotes total abstinence as the only cure.* 2 Relying on a sponsor does not hold the client accountable. 3 Encouraging family attendance at AA meetings does not hold the client accountable. 4 Seeking further deterrent medications does not hold the client accountable.

A client diagnosed with major depressive episode and substance use disorder has an altered sleep pattern and demands a psychiatrist to prescribe a sedative. Which rationale explains why a nurse should encourage the client to first try nonpharmacological interventions? 1. Sedative-hypnotics are potentially addictive, and their effectiveness will be compromised owing to tolerance. 2. Sedative-hypnotics are expensive and have numerous side effects. 3. Sedative-hypnotics interfere with necessary REM (rapid eye movement) sleep. 4. Sedative-hypnotics are known not to be as effective in promoting sleep as antidepressant medications.

*ANS: 1* Rationale: *1 The nurse should recommend nonpharmacological interventions to this client because sedative-hypnotics are potentially addictive, and their effectiveness will be compromised owing to tolerance. The effects of central nervous system depressants are additive with one another, capable of producing physiological and psychological addiction.* 2 These drugs do not have numerous side effects. 3 The drugs do not interfere with REM sleep. 4 These drugs are effective for inducing sleep.

A lonely, depressed divorcée has been self-medicating with small amounts of cocaine for the past year. Which term should a nurse use to best describe this individual's situation? 1. Psychological addiction 2. Codependence 3. Substance induced disorder 4. Social induced disorder

*ANS: 1* Rationale: *1 The nurse should use the term psychological addiction to best describe the client's situation. A client is considered to be psychologically addicted to a substance when there is an overwhelming desire to use a drug in order to produce pleasure or avoid discomfort.* 2 Codependence describes depending on others for decision-making. 3 Substance induced disorders are induced by the use of a drug or substance. 4 Social induced disorders describe using a drug or substance in the presence of others, or socially.

A nurse is assessing a pathological gambler. What would differentiate this client's behaviors from the behaviors of a non-pathological gambler? 1. Pathological gamblers have abnormal levels of neurotransmitters, whereas non-pathological gamblers do not. 2. Pathological gambling occurs more commonly among women, whereas non-pathological gambling occurs more commonly among men. 3. Pathological gambling generally runs an acute course, whereas non-pathological gambling runs a chronic course. 4. Pathological gambling is not related to stress relief, whereas non-pathological gambling is related to stress relief.

*ANS: 1* Rationale: *1 There is a correlation between pathological gambling and abnormalities in the serotonergic, noradrenergic, and dopaminergic neurotransmitter systems. This is not the case with non-pathological gambling.* 2 Pathological gambling occurs more commonly among men not women and generally runs a chronic, not acute course. 3 This statement is inaccurate regarding the pathological gambler. 4 For a pathological gambler, the preoccupation with and impulse to gamble intensifies when the individual is under stress.

A nursing instructor is teaching nursing students about cirrhosis of the liver. Which of the following statements about the complications of hepatic encephalopathy should indicate to the nursing instructor that further student teaching is needed? (Select all that apply.) 1. "A diet rich in protein will promote hepatic healing." 2. "This condition results from a rise in serum ammonia, leading to impaired mental functioning." 3. "In this condition, an excessive amount of serous fluid accumulates in the abdominal cavity." 4. "Neomycin and lactulose are used in the treatment of this condition." 5. "This condition is caused by the inability of the liver to convert ammonia to urea."

*ANS: 1* Rationale: *1. The nursing instructor should understand that further teaching is needed if the nursing student states that a diet rich in protein will promote hepatic healing. The treatment of hepatic encephalopathy requires abstention from alcohol and temporary elimination of protein from the diet.* 2. This statement indicates that teaching has been effective. 3. This statement indicates that no further education is required. 4. The instructor should interpret this statement as accurate.

Which of the following nursing statements exemplify the cognitive process that must be completed by a nurse prior to caring for clients diagnosed with a substance-related disorder? (Select all that apply.) 1. "I am easily manipulated and need to work on this prior to caring for these clients." 2. "Because of my father's alcoholism, I need to examine my attitude toward these clients." 3. "I need to review the side effects of the medications used in the withdrawal process." 4. "I'll need to set boundaries to maintain a therapeutic relationship." 5. "I need to take charge when dealing with clients diagnosed with substance disorders."

*ANS: 1,2,4* Rationale: *1. The nurse should complete a cognitive process prior to caring for clients diagnosed with substance-abuse disorders.* *2. It is important for nurses to identify potential areas of need within their own cognitions that may affect their relationships with clients diagnosed with this problem.* 3. This statement does not exemplify the cognitive process that must be completed by a nurse prior to client care. *4. Determining the need to set boundaries is an example of a cognitive process that must be completed by a nurse prior to client care.* 5. This statement does not exemplify the cognitive process that must be completed by a nurse prior to client care.

A nursing supervisor is offering an impaired staff member information regarding employee assistance programs. Which of the following facts should the supervisor include? (Select all that apply.) 1. A hotline number will be available in order to call for peer assistance. 2. A verbal contract detailing the method of treatment will be initiated prior to the program. 3. Peer support is provided through regular contact with the impaired nurse. 4. Contact to provide peer support will last for one year. 5. One of the program goals is to intervene early in order to reduce hazards to clients.

*ANS: 1,3,5* Rationale: *1. Most states provide either a hotline number that the impaired nurse may call or phone numbers of peer assistance committee members, which are made available for the same purpose.* 2. Typically, a written, not verbal, contract is drawn up, detailing the method of treatment, which may be obtained from various sources, such as employee assistance programs, Alcoholics Anonymous, Narcotics Anonymous, private counseling, or outpatient clinics. *3. Peer support is provided through regular contact with the impaired nurse.* 4. Peer support is usually for a period of two years, not one year. *5. The peer assistance programs strive to intervene early, to reduce hazards to clients, and increase prospects for the nurse's recovery.*

A nursing counselor is about to meet with a client suffering from codependency. Which of the following data would further support the assessment of this dysfunctional behavior? (Select all that apply.) 1. The client has a long history of focusing thoughts and behaviors on other people. 2. The client, as a child, experienced overindulgent and overprotective parents. 3. The client is a people pleaser and does almost anything to gain approval. 4. The client exhibits helpless behaviors but actually feels very competent. 5. The client can achieve a sense of control only through fulfilling the needs of others.

*ANS: 1,3,5* Rationale: *1. The codependent person has a long history of focusing thoughts and behavior on other people and is able to achieve a sense of control only through fulfilling the needs of others.* 2. They usually have experienced abuse or emotional neglect as a child. *3. Codependent clients are "people pleasers" and will do almost anything to get the approval of others.* 4. They outwardly appear very competent, but actually feel quite needy, helpless, or perhaps nothing at all. *5. Codependent clients achieve a sense of control when they are fulfilling the needs of others.*

It is believed that a patient's migraine headaches are caused by vascular constriction. Which medication should the nurse expect to be prescribed for this patient? 1 Citalopram (Celexa) 2 Imipramine (Tofranil) 3 Amlodipine (Norvasc) 4 Lamotrigine (Lamictal)

*ANS: 2* Antihypertensive medications such as amlodipine (Norvasc), a calcium channel blocker, prevents vasoconstriction or vasodilation in the cerebral blood vessels.

A nurse is reviewing the stat laboratory data of a client in the emergency department. At what minimum blood alcohol level should a nurse expect intoxication to occur? 1. 50 mg/dL 2. 100 mg/dL 3. 250 mg/dL 4. 300 mg/dL

*ANS: 2* Rationale: Feedback 1 Intoxication would not occur at this blood alcohol level. *2 The nurse should expect that 100 mg/dL is the minimum blood alcohol level at which intoxication occurs. Intoxication usually occurs between 100 and 200 mg/dL.* 3 Blood alcohol would have to be higher for intoxication to occur. 4 While the client would be intoxicated, this is not the minimum level at which intoxication would occur.

A client with a history of heavy alcohol use is brought to an emergency department (ED) by family members who state that the client has had nothing to drink in the last 48 hours. When the nurse reports to the ED physician, which client symptom should be the nurse's first priority? 1. Hearing and visual impairment 2. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg 3. Mood rating of 2/10 on numeric scale 4. Dehydration

*ANS: 2* Rationale: 1 Hearing and visual impairment are not life threatening and do not indicate alcohol withdrawal. *2 The nurse should recognize that high blood pressure is a symptom of alcohol withdrawal syndrome and should promptly report this finding to the physician. Complications associated with alcohol withdrawal syndrome may progress to alcohol withdrawal delirium in about the second or third day following cessation of prolonged alcohol use.* 3 A mood rating of 2/10 on numeric scale is not life threatening and does not indicate alcohol withdrawal. 4 Dehydration is not life threatening and does not indicate alcohol withdrawal.

A nurse evaluates a client's patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump and notices 100 attempts within a 30-minute period. Which is the best rationale for assessing this client for substance addiction? 1. Narcotic pain medication is contraindicated for all clients with active substance use disorders. 2. Clients who are addicted to alcohol or benzodiazepines may develop cross-tolerance to analgesics and require increased doses to achieve effective pain control. 3. There is no need to assess the client for substance addiction. There is an obvious PCA malfunction, because these clients have a higher pain tolerance. 4. The client is experiencing alcohol withdrawal symptoms and needs accurate assessment.

*ANS: 2* Rationale: 1 Narcotic pain medication should never be held because a client has a substance abuse disorder. *2 The nurse should assess the client for substance addiction, because clients who are addicted to alcohol or benzodiazepines may have developed cross-tolerance to analgesics and require increased doses to achieve effective pain control. Cross-tolerance is exhibited when one drug results in a lessened response to another drug.* 3 The client should be assessed for a substance abuse disorder as needed, so that proper follow up can be arranged for the client. 4 In this scenario, the client is not exhibiting signs of substance abuse withdrawal.

A nursing instructor is teaching about the impaired nurse and the consequences of this impairment. Which statement by a student indicates that further instruction is needed? 1. "The state board of nursing must be notified with factual documentation of impairment." 2. "All state boards of nursing have passed laws that, under any circumstances, do not allow impaired nurses to practice." 3. "Many state boards of nursing require an impaired nurse to successfully complete counseling treatment programs prior to a return to work." 4. "After a return to practice, a recovering nurse may be closely monitored for several years."

*ANS: 2* Rationale: 1 This is an accurate statement regarding impaired nurses. *2 Several state boards of nursing have passed diversionary laws that allow impaired nurses to avoid disciplinary action by agreeing to seek treatment. This may require successful completion of inpatient, outpatient, group, or individual counseling treatment program(s); evidence of regular attendance at nurse support groups or 12-step program; random negative drug screens; and employment or volunteer activities during the suspension period.* 3 This statement does not indicate that further education is required. 4 This statement indicates that teaching has been effective.

A nursing supervisor is about to meet with a staff nurse suspected of diverting client medications. Which of the following assessment data would lead the supervisor to suspect that the staff nurse is impaired? (Select all that apply.) 1. The staff nurse is frequently absent from work. 2. The staff nurse experiences mood swings. 3. The staff nurse makes elaborate excuses for behavior. 4. The staff nurse frequently uses the restroom. 5. The staff nurse has a flushed face.

*ANS: 2,3,4,5* Rationale: 1. There may be high absenteeism if the person's source is outside the work area. *2. Mood swings can be a sign of substance abuse.* *3. The impaired nurse may make elaborate excuses for behavior.* *4. The impaired nurse will frequently use the restroom.* *5. A flushed face is a sign of drug use.*

On the first day of a client's alcohol detoxification, which nursing intervention should take priority? 1. Strongly encourage the client to attend 90 Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) meetings in 90 days. 2. Educate the client about the biopsychosocial consequences of alcohol abuse. 3. Administer ordered chlordiazepoxide (Librium) in a dosage according to protocol. 4. Administer vitamin B1 to prevent Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.

*ANS: 3* Rationale: 1 Encouraging AA meetings is important, but the administration of medication to prevent alcohol withdrawal takes priority due to client safety. 2 Education is important, but the administration of medication to prevent alcohol withdrawal takes priority due to client safety. *3 The priority nursing intervention for this client should be to administer ordered chlordiazepoxide in a dosage according to protocol. Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine and is often used for substitution therapy in alcohol withdrawal to reduce life-threatening complications.* 4 Vitamin B1 administration is important, but the administration of medication to prevent alcohol withdrawal takes priority due to client safety.

A client diagnosed with a gambling disorder asks the nurse about medications that may be ordered by the client's physician to treat this disorder. The nurse would give the client information on which medications? 1. Escitalopram (Lexapro) and clozapine (Clozaril) 2. Citalopram (Celexa) and olanzapine (Zyprexa) 3. Lithium carbonate (Lithobid) and sertraline (Zoloft) 4. Naltrexone (ReVia) and ziprasidone (Geodon)

*ANS: 3* Rationale: 1 Escitalopram (Lexapro) and clozapine (Clozaril) would not effectively treat this client. 2 Citalopram (Celexa) and olanzapine (Zyprexa) are not treatments of choice for this disorder. *3 Lithium carbonate (Lithobid) and sertraline (Zoloft) have been used successfully in the treatment of pathological gambling as a form of obsessive-compulsive disorder.* 4 Naltrexone (ReVia) and ziprasidone (Geodon) would not appropriately treat this client.

A client presents with symptoms of alcohol withdrawal and states, "I haven't eaten in three days." A nurse's assessment reveals BP 170/100 mm Hg, P 110, R 28, and T 97°F (36°C) with dry mucous membranes and poor skin turgor. What should be the priority nursing diagnosis? 1. Knowledge deficit 2. Fluid volume excess 3. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements 4. Ineffective individual coping

*ANS: 3* Rationale: 1 Knowledge deficit is incorrect because it does not address the client's statement regarding lack of nutritional intake for three days. 2 Fluid volume excess is incorrect because it does not address the client's statement regarding lack of nutritional intake for three days. *3 The nurse should assess that the priority nursing diagnosis is imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements. The client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of malnutrition, as well as alcohol withdrawal. The nurse should consult a dietitian, restrict sodium intake to minimize fluid retention, and provide small, frequent feedings of nonirritating foods.* 4 Ineffective individual coping is incorrect because it does not address the client's statement regarding lack of nutritional intake for three days.

A client's wife has been making excuses for her alcoholic husband's work absences. In family therapy, she states, "His problems at work are my fault." Which is the appropriate nursing response? 1. "Why do you assume responsibility for his behaviors?" 2. "I think you should start to confront his behavior." 3. "Your husband needs to deal with the consequences of his drinking." 4. "Do you understand what the term enabler means?"

*ANS: 3* Rationale: 1 Stating, "Why do you assume responsibility for his behaviors?" may come across as confrontational, and may cause the client's wife to avoid interaction with the nurse. 2 Stating, "I think you should start to confront his behavior." may come across as confrontational, and may cause the client's wife to avoid interaction with the nurse. *3 The appropriate nursing response is to use confrontation with caring. The nurse should understand that the client's wife may be in denial and enabling the husband's behavior. Codependency is a typical behavior of spouses of alcoholics. Partners of clients with substance addiction must come to realize that the only behavior they can control is their own.* 4 Stating, "Do you understand what the term enabler means?" may come across as confrontational, and may cause the client's wife to avoid interaction with the nurse.

Which term should a nurse use to describe the administration of a central nervous system (CNS) depressant during the substance induced disorder of alcohol withdrawal? 1. Antagonist therapy 2. Deterrent therapy 3. Codependency therapy 4. Substitution therapy

*ANS: 4* Rationale: 1 Antagonist therapy does not accurately describe this CNS depressant medication. 2 Deterrent therapy does not accurately describe this CNS depressant medication. 3 Codependency therapy does not accurately describe this CNS depressant medication. *4 Various medications have been used to decrease the intensity of symptoms in an individual who is withdrawing from, or who is experiencing the effects of excessive use of, alcohol and other drugs. This is called substitution therapy and may be required to reduce the life-threatening effects of alcohol withdrawal.*

Which client statement indicates a knowledge deficit related to a substance use disorder? 1. "Although it's legal, alcohol is one of the most widely abused drugs in our society." 2. "Tolerance to heroin develops quickly." 3. "Flashbacks from lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) use may reoccur spontaneously." 4. "Marijuana is like smoking cigarettes. Everyone does it. It's essentially harmless."

*ANS: 4* Rationale: 1 Cannabis is the second most widely abused drug in the United States. 2 This statement does not indicate a knowledge deficit. 3 This statement is true regarding LSD. *4 The nurse should determine that the client has a knowledge deficit related to substance use disorders when the client compares marijuana to smoking cigarettes and claims it to be harmless.*

Which medication orders should a nurse anticipate for a client who has a history of benzodiazepine-withdrawal delirium? 1. Haloperidol (Haldol) and fluoxetine (Prozac) 2. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) and donepezil (Aricept) 3. Disulfiram (Antabuse) and lorazepan (Ativan) 4. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) and phenytoin (Dilantin)

*ANS: 4* Rationale: 1 Haloperidol (Haldol) and fluoxetine (Prozac) would not effectively treat the client and are not appropriate. 2 Carbamazepine (Tegretol) and donepezil (Aricept) would not effectively treat the client and are not appropriate. 3 Disulfiram (Antabuse) and lorazepan (Ativan) would not effectively treat the client and are not appropriate. *4 The nurse should anticipate that a physician would order chlordiazepoxide and phenytoin for a client who has a history of benzodiazepine-withdrawal delirium. It is common for long-lasting benzodiazepines to be prescribed for substitution therapy.*

A nurse holds the hand of a client who is withdrawing from alcohol. What is the nurse's rationale for this intervention? 1. To assess for emotional strength 2. To assess for Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome 3. To assess for tachycardia 4. To assess for fine tremors

*ANS: 4* Rationale: 1 The nurse is not checking for emotional strength by holding the client's hand. 2 The nurse is not assessing for Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. 3 The nurse is not assessing for tachycardia. *4 The nurse is most likely assessing the client for fine tremors secondary to alcohol withdrawal. Withdrawal from alcohol can also cause headache, insomnia, transient hallucinations, depression, irritability, anxiety, elevated blood pressure, sweating, tachycardia, malaise, and coarse tremors.*

Which client statement demonstrates positive progress toward recovery from a substance use disorder? 1. "I have completed detox and therefore am in control of my drug use." 2. "I will faithfully attend Narcotic Anonymous when I can't control my cravings." 3. "As a church deacon, my focus will now be on spiritual renewal." 4. "Taking those pills got out of control. It cost me my job, marriage, and children."

*ANS: 4* Rationale: 1 This statement does not demonstrate positive progress in recovery. 2 Attending meetings infrequently puts the client at risk for relapse. 3 This statement does not indicate reflection and understanding on the impact of substance abuse. *4 A client who takes responsibility for the consequences of substance use disorder or substance addiction is making positive progress toward recovery. This would indicate completion of the first step of a 12-step program.*

Order the following stages of the codependency recovery process according to Cermak. ________ The Core Issues Stage ________ The Reintegration Stage ________ The Survival Stage ________ The Reidentification Stage

*ANS: The correct order is 3, 4, 1, 2* Rationale: Cermak in 1986 identified four stages in the recovery process for individuals with codependent personality. During the survival stage, the codependent must begin to let go of denial. During the reidentification stage, the individual begins to glimpse their true selves. During the core issues stage, the individual must face the fact that relationships cannot be managed by force or will. During the reintegration stage, control is achieved through self-discipline and self-confidence. 1. The Survival Stage 2. The Reidentification Stage 3. The Core Issues Stage 4. The Reintegration Stage

The concept of _______________________ arose out of a need to define the dysfunctional behaviors that are evident among members of the family of a chemically dependent person.

*ANS: codependency* Rationale: The concept of codependency arose out of a need to define the dysfunctional behaviors that are evident among members of the family of a chemically dependent person. The term has been expanded to include all individuals from families that harbor secrets of physical or emotional abuse, other cruelties, or pathological conditions.

Cranial Nerve IV: Trochlear

EOM

Cranial Nerve VI: Abducens

EOM

Cranial Nerve III: Oculomotor

Extraocular movements (EOM)

Cranial Nerve IX: Glossopharyngeal

Gag, swallow, and cough reflexes, voice quality

Cranial Nerve VIII: Acoustic

Hearing ability

Cranial Nerve V: Trigeminal

Movement of eyelids, ability to clench jaw

Cranial Nerve VII: Facial

Movement of eyelids, facial symmetry

Cranial Nerve XI: Spinal Accessory

Neck strength and shoulder shrug

Cranial Nerve X: Vagus

Same as CN IX (Gag, swallow, and cough reflexes, voice quality), regulation of HR and GI motility

Cranial Nerve XII: Hypoglossal

Tongue movement

Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

a chronic CNS disorder in which myelin and nerve axons in brain and spinal cord are destroyed; there are four forms based on rate of progression: benign, relapsing-remitting, primary progressive, and secondary progressive

Myasthenia Gravis

a chronic progressive disorder of peripheral NS affecting transmission of nerve impulses to voluntary muscles; causes muscle weakness and fatigue that increases with exertion and improves with rest; eventually leads to fatigue not relieved by rest

Stroke

a condition in which neurologic deficits occur because of decreased blood flow to a localized area of brain; hypertension, diabetes mellitus, sickle-cell disease, substance abuse, atrial fibrillation, and atherosclerosis are risk factors; onset may be rapid or gradual

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

a progressive neurodegenerative disease. The upper and lower motor neurons degenerate and form scar tissue, disrupting nerve transmission and leading to muscle atrophy. Results in swallowing and breathing difficulty. A genetic link is suspected as the cause. Onset is usually between ages 40 and 70 years and more prevalent in men than in women; survival varies from 3-10 years or more.

Parkinson's disease

a progressive, degenerative neurologic disease characterized by bradykinesia, muscle rigidity, and nonintentional tremor; affects older adults most often, with a mean incidence of 60 years of age; affects men more than women

Cranial Nerve I: Olfactory

ability to smell

Guillan-Barre Syndrome (GBS)

an acute, rapidly progressive inflammation of peripheral motor and sensory nerves characterized by motor weakness and paralysis that ascends from lower extremities in a majority of cases; outcome is generally excellent if care is appropriate

Ischemic Stroke

is a brief period of neurologic deficits that resolve within 24 hours; is a frequently precursor to a permanent CVA; causes of TIAs may be inflammatory arterial disorders, sickle-cell anemia, atherosclerosis in cerebral vessels, thrombosis, and emboli

Hemorrhagic Stroke

or intracranial hemorrhage occurs when a blood vessel ruptures; most often occurs with long-term, poorly controlled hypertension; other risk factors include a ruptured intracranial aneurysm, embolic CVA, tumor, AVM, anticoagulant therapy, liver disease, and blood disorders (such as disseminated intravascular coagulopathy [DIC], thrombocytopenia, or hypocoagulable state); this form of CVA is most often fatal because of rapidly increasing ICP; onset of symptoms is rapid; loss of consciousness occurs in about half the cases

Cranial Nerve II: Optic

visual fields, visual acuity