Exams

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Normal ratio of bicarbonate to dissolved carbon dioxide in arterial blood

20:1

This needle is the standard for routine venipuncture

21 gauge

Calculate the MCHC RBC 3.0 x 10^12/L Hgb 6 g/dL HCT 20%

30 g/dL

Additional platelets fist derived when the circulating count decreased

30% mature cells that are stored in the spleen

How long following transfusion must the recipient sample be stored

7 days

labs obtained on a patient PT 20 sec TT 13 sec APTT 55 sec APTT plus aged serum corrected APTT plus adsorbed plasma Not corrected

Factor 10

Which deficiencies prolongs the partial thromboplastin time but does not elad to abnormal bleeding

Factor 12

Which these factors may be deficient if both and PT and APTT are prolonged

Factor 2

Tissue factor

Factor 3

What factor is antihemophilic factor

Factor 8

Christmas factor

Factor 9

Lymphocytes typically contain many specific cytoplasmic granules

False

Macrophages are actually lymphocytes that have entered the tissue and body fluids via diapedesis

False

All casts typically contain

Tamm-Horsefall glycoprotein

Beriberi is associated with deficiency of

Thaimine

Urea is produced from

The catabolism of proteins and amino acids

The MIC result recorded in antimicrobial testing can be defined

The lowest antimicrobial agent concentration that completely inhibits visible bacterial growth

Which NPN is in the highest concentration in the blood

Urea

A gastroenterologist submits a gastric biopsy from a patient with a pepetic ulcer. To obtain presumptive evidence of Helicobacter pylori, a portion of the specimen should be added to which media

Urea broth

The lipoprotein fraction that carries most of the endogenous triglycerides

VLDL

Antimicrobial agents acts by inhbiting cell wall synthesis

Vancomycin

In an adult, hematopoiesis occurs in the marrow of which of the following bones

Vertebrae Skull Proximal ends of long bones

Which type of casts signals the presence of chronic renal failure

Waxy casts

Which procedure is popular confirmatory procedure for HIV

Western Blot

Primary clinical utility of measuring CEA

diagnosis of colorectal cancer

To prevent graft-versus-host disease, red blood cells prepared for intrauterine transfusions should be

irradiated

Minimum level of a particular factor will cause the APTT test to become prolonged

less than 40%

What is true regarding the mechanism of warm-reactive autoimmune hemolytic anemia

IgG autoantibodies cause extravsuclar hemolyssi

Which IgG subclass is most efficient at crossing the placenta

IgG1

Antibodies detected in the immediate spin crossmatch are usually of what Ig class

IgM

Most "naturally occurring" ABO system antibodies fall into which class

IgM

Patients with Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia exhibit abnormally large amounts of

IgM

The presence of this antibody usually indicates recent or active infection

IgM

A child has monotnous blasts in the peripheral blood that have scant blue cytoplasm. they are CALLa positive. What form of acute lymphoid leukemia is most likely

Immature B cell

Blood collection tubes are labeled

Immediately after specimen collection

Which platelet responses is most likely associated with Glanzmann's thrombasthenia

Markedly decreased aggregation to epinepthrin, ADP, and collagen

What would be expected screening test results for a patient with a fibrin stabilizing factor deficiency

PT and APTT normal

Given the following data: WBC 8.5 x 103/µL Differential Segs 56% Bands 2% Lymphs 30% Monos 6% Eos 6% What is the absolute lymphocyte count?

2550

A patient has a hgb of 9 g/dL. Using the rule of three what would you expect the hematocrite to be

27 +-3

Expected life span of a normal RBC

3-4 months

If a patient has a reticulocyte count of 7% and a Hct of 20%, what is the corrected reticulocyte count

3.1%

Absorbance reading of 0.2; 5 mg/dl standard used in the test gave an absorbance reading of 0.3

3.3

A 1:200 dilution of a patient's smaple was made and 336 red cells were counted in an area of 0.2 mm2. What RBc count?

3.36 x 10^12/L

A 300 ug dose of Rh immune globulin contains sufficient anti-D to protect against how much whole blood

30mL

Indirect antihuman globulin test is incubated at what temperature

37*C

A chemical has a relative flash point of below 73 degrees F. How would it show on NFPA symbol

4 in the red diamond

Infants do not require crossmatching if they are less than

4 months old

Scolex of Taenia saginata

4 suckers

How long before obtaining blood should drugs be stoped

4 to 24 hours

What is the molarity of a solution that contains 120.0 of NaOH in 1.00 L? GMW of NaOH = 40

4.0M

What percentage of serum calcium that is ionized

45%

Anaerobes grow best

5% to 10% hydrogen (H2), 5% to 10% Co2, 80% to 89% nitrogen (N2), and 0% O2

What percentage of dietary iron is normally absorbed daily

5% to 15%

The accepted interval between blood donations

56 dats

Normal pH for a healthy adults urine

6.0

What would be considered normal for a glucose level in cerebrospinal fluid

60 mg/dl

Calculate the MCV. RBC 3.0 x 10^12/L Hgb 6g/dL HCT 20%

67 fl

Which of the following best represents the reference range for arterial pH

7.35-7.45

How often can a person donate a unit of whole blood for a directed donation

8 weeks

After experiencing extreme fatigue and polyuria, a patient's basic metabolic panel is analyzed in the laboratory. Glucose is too high for instrument to read.

840 mg/dL

A 42 year old male of average body mass has a history of chronic anemia requiring transfusion support. Two units of Red Blood Cells are transfused. If the pretransfusion hemoglobin was 7.0 g/dL, the expected post transfusion hemoglobin concentration should be:

9 g/dL

How many grams of KCL should be dissolved in 250mls distilled water to prepare a 0.500M solution? GMW of KCL = 74.55

9.32g

In QC +- 2 SD from the mean includes what percent of the sample population

95

Two standard deviations comprise of what percent of normal distribution curve

95%

Many laboratory procedures are conducted at 37C is what in F

98.6

The ratio of whole blood to anticoagulant is very important in the PT assay. What which hematocrit lvel should the standard anticoagulant bolume be adjusted

>55%

Adult hemoglobin is made up of what composition

>95% HbA, <3.5 HbA2, <1-2% HbF

What must be labeled with a biohazard label or be colored red or orange to indicate it is a biohazard

A container that is used for disposal of needles in the blood collection area

What is the basic hemoglobin defect in the thalassemias

A structurally normal globin chain is absent or produced at lower levels

An individual presents with the following typing results: Anti-A =2+, Anti-B = 0, Anti-A,B = 4+, A1 cells = 1+, B cells = 4+ Which of the following is a possible cause of these typing results?

A2 with Anti A1

Which formula correctly described the relationsihp between absorbance and %T

A=2-log%T

A recipient with group A phenotype requires a transfusion of 2 units of frozen plasma.

AB and A

In which type of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn is the first-born affected

ABO

Which blood group system has been implicated in transfusion reactions on the first expsoure to imcompatible RBCs

ABO

what best describes the direct antiglobulin test principle

AHG detects antibody already coated to red cells

Two liver enzymes are seen elevated in hepatobiliary disease

ALP and GGT

Enterococci can be described

Able to grow in 6.5% NaCL

Hemoglobin H disease results

Absence of 3 of 4 alpha genes

What is associated with Glanzmann's thrombasthenia

Absence of clot retraction

What has rhizoids between the sporangiophores

Absidia

In absorption spectrophotometry

Absorbance is directly proportional to concentration

An assayed glucose control produces 62,65,62,65,62,64,63,64,64,64 run

Accuracy

What is the metabolite of ethanol

Acetaldehyde

Mycobacteria spp. can be detected by all of the floowing methods except 1. Ziehl-neelson 2. Auramine-rhodamine 3. Acridine orange 4. kinyoun

Acridine orange

Sediment with moderate hematuria and RBC casts mostly likely resutls from

Acute glomerulonephritis

Results - ALP increased - ALT increased - AST increased - GGT increased

Acute hepatitis

Chronic Myeloid leukemia often progresses to

Acute leukemia, either myeloid or lymphoid

Most common form of childhood leukemia

Acute lymphocytic leukemia

An adult patient has a WBC count of 80. the Differential has 92% Sudan Black B-positive blast and 8% lymphocytes

Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation

10% bleach solution for disinfecting countertops can be prepared by

Adding 10 mL bleach to 90mL water

The prinicple energy source for mature RBC

Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) generated from anaerobic glycolyssi

What is the target tissue in Addision's disease

Adrenal gland

The force of attraction between an atnibody and a single antigenic determinant

Affinity

What proteins have the fastest electrophoretic mobility

Albumin

In the liver, methanol is metabolized by what to form what

Alcohol dehydrogenase; formaldehyde

Which hormone controls sodium reabsorption

Aldosterone

Which of the following is the major mineralocorticoid

Aldosterone

WHich of the following conditions is associated iwth hypkalemia

Alkalosis

Patients with the highest risk of mortality from cytomegalovirus are

Allograft transplant, seronegative patients who receive tissue from a seropositive donor

After cleaning the venipuncture site with alcohol, the phlebotomist should

Allow the alcohol to dry completely

Polypeptide chains are found in normal audlt hemoglobin A

Alpha and beta

Immunoglobulin molecules is made up of both heavy and light chains. - the light chains can be comprised of

Alpha and lambda

What name is given to the type of hemolysis that produces incomplete hemolysis and greening discoloration of the medium

Alpha hemolysis

An alkaline urine with a white tubrbitiy may be present due to

Amorphous phosphates

Reagin is characterized as

An antibody directed against cardiolipin

Which group of antibodies generally reacts most strongly at 4 degrees C

Anti-A Anti-P1 Anti-Leb Anti-M

Why would a unit of group O blood never be administrated to a Bombay patient

Anti-H in patient

Given the following red cell antigen frequencies: K-10% E-30% k-90% P 1-80% Which of the following red cell alloantibodies would be responsible for incompatible crossmatches with one 1 of 10 random donor units?

Anti-K

ABO serum testing is not routinely performed on cord blood or neonatal specimens because

Antibodies detectable in infant's serum are usually of maternal origin

Equivalence occurs when the

Antibody-binding sites approximately equal the antigen-binding sites, and the largest complexes form

EDTA is an

Anticoagulant

What substances produced by Group A Strep is responsible for producing type specific immunity

Antigen

In indirect hemagglutination testing

Antigen passively attached to RBC are bound by antibodies

Select the test the use IgG-sensitized Red cells (check cells)

Antiglobulin test

Failure to mix a specimen prior to inserting the reagent strip will primarily affect the

Blood reading

What is part of primary hemostasis

Blood vessels

The health risk of a chemical can be found in which color section of the NFPA symbol

Blue

Creatinine excretion correlates best with which parameters

Body weight

The hh genotype

Bombay

Pertussis (whooping cought) an epidemic disease, is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused

Bordetella species

Bacillus GS characteristic

Boxcar shape

In the condition Kernicterus, the abnormal accumulation of bilirubin occurs in which tissue

Brain

Serum alkaline phophatase activity is derived from all of the following organs except

Brain

Nocardia GS characteristic

Branching

What is the primary stain used in acid-fast stain

Bromthymol blue

Using Weiner nomenclature, a patient is r'. What Rh antigens does the patient possess

C, e

Which of the following is the recognition unit in the classical complement pathway

C1q

Which of the following is cleaved as a result of activation of the classical complement pathway?

C4

What is the C3 activation unit in the calssical complement pathway

C4b, C2a

Fahrenheit to Celsius formula

C=5/9 (F-32)

Which of the following is the best analyte to monitor for recurrence of ovarian cancer

CA- 125

Collection of capillary puncture, which test specimen is collected first

CBC

Leukocyte adherence deficiency is due to defect in

CD 18

Which of the following is used for colon cancer

CEA

What is the proper designation for the pluripotential stem cell that is a precursor for both granulocytes and erythrocytes cell lines

CFU-GEMM

A meddle-aged man has a WBC count of 80x 10^9/L with 90% lymphocytes and many smudge cells

CHronic lymphocytic leukemia

Prothrombin time test requires that the patient's plasma be combined with

Calcium and Thromboplastin

Tiny colorless, dumbell-shaped crystals found in alkaline urine sediment

Calcium carbonate

Which crystals may be found in acidic urine

Calcium oxalate

A patient with Pseudogout would be expected to have what kind crystals in their synovial fluid

Calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate

An international normalized ratio of 6.5 is obtained on a patient taking warfarin. what should be done

Call health care provider immediately

A gram-stained sputum smear revealed 25-50 squamous epithelial cells and 10-25 polymorphonuclear leukocytes per 100x field, as a lancet-shaped, gram positive cocci. many gram neg rods. What best course of actions

Call nursing station and request a new specimen

Which characteristic is not associated with B lymphocytes

Can directly lyse a foreign antigen

Formation of germ tubes persumptively identifies

Candida albicans

Formation of germ tubes presumptively ID

Candida albicans

Which of the following organisms causes thrush

Candida albicans

What are reported as number per LPF?

Casts

When using the glass slide and coverslip method, what might be missed if the coverslip is overflowed

Casts

Streptococcus pneumoniae GS characteristic

Cat eyes

Incrased transitional cells are indicative of

Catheterization and Malignancy

Histamine can

Cause obstructed airflow to the bronchioles

Hemolysis is paroxysmal nocutrnal hemoglobinuria

Caused by a Red cell membrane defect

The name of the process that promotes the attraction of phagocytic cells toward a foreign particle

Chemotaxis

Primary infection with Vericella-zoster result

Chicken pox

Corneybacterium diphterhiae GS characteristic

Chinese letters

Of the following media, which provides the factors, necessay for the growth of Haemophilus spp.

Chocolate agar

Which disease states are teardrop cells and abnormal paltelets most chracteristically seen

Chronic Myelocytic leukemia

A patient has an increased red count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit. What points to secondary polycythemia over polycythemia vera

Decreased arterial O2 saturation

Lab findings in hereditary spherocytosis don't include

Decreased osmotic fragility

Which platelet responses is most likely associated with Bernard soulier syndrome

Decreased platelet aggregation to ristcetin

Which of the following is likely to occur first in IDA

Decreased serum ferritin

Primary function of leukocytes as a whole

Defend body from nonself agents

Increased serum albumin concentrations are seen in which of the following conditions

Dehydration

Tuberculin skin test or PPD is based on

Delayed hypersensitivity cell-mediated immunity to certain antigenic components of the organism

Gram stain from a swab of a hand wound reveals Moderate gram positive coccii n chains Moderate large gram negative bacilli

PEA MacConkey

The use of the direct antiglobulin test is indicated in

Detection of alloantibodies in serum

Which of the following conditions is associated with hypernaturemia

Diabetes insipidus

A flagellate trophozoite that can be described as 9 to 12 um, with one to two nuclei with no nuclear pheripheral chromatin, a karyosome composed of four to eight large granules and ginely granular cytoplasm would most likely be

Dientamoeba fragillis

A urine's specific gravity is directly proportional to

Dissolved solids

Most appropriate screening test for detecing. Hemoglobin S

Dithionite solubility

Beta hemolytic, catalase positive, gram pos cocci is coagulase negative by slide coagulase test. What is next course of action

Do a tube coag test

Distinguish between an A1 and A2 blood type, which reagent is used

Dolichos biflorus lectin

You must draw a protime specimen from a patient with IVs in both arms. Which of the following is the best course of action

Draw below the IV

Which of the following best describes the correct collection and handling conditions for a blood ammonia measurement

Draw heparin tube, keep on ice, test immediately

Antibodies to which of teh following blood group system show dosage

Duffy

Which procedure is considered to be a screening procedure for the detection of HIV

ELISA

True concerning the Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

ESR is decreased during inflammatory conditions

Primary characteristic used to identify renal tubular epithelial cells

Eccentically located nucleus

The active accumulation of fluid within body cavities that caused by infection, malignancies, or inflammation damaging the vascular wall is known

Effusion

Which of the following would you find in a primry hyperparathyroidism case

Elevated serum calcium and decreased serum phophorus

A patient is suspected of having amebic dysentery. Upon microscopic examination of a fresh fecal specimen for ova and parasite, the following data were obtained: - Trophozoite of 25 µm - Progressive crawl - Evenly distributed peripheral chromatin - Finely granular cytoplasm This information probably indicates:

Entamoeba histolytica

Class of bacteria that is Gram negatve - normal flora of GI tract, gastroenteritis and enteric fevers, UTI and bacterial pneumonia

Enterobacteriaceae

An alpha-hemolytic streptococcus isolated from a wound is resistant to optochin and bacitracin, grows in 6.5% NaCl broth, and is PYR positive

Enterococcus

Bacterial species that can be described as able to grow in 6.5% NaCL and 40% bile, part of normal fecal flora of animals and humans, usually nonhemolytic and a major cause of nosocomial infections

Enterococcus faecalis

Which hormone is produced by the kidney and influences erythrocyte production

Erythropoietin

A patient has a platelet count of 1200. Many platelets are giant and have abnormal shapes. A mild anemia is present. Bone marrow has increased megakaryocytes in clusters; iron stores are present

Essential thrombocythemia

Select the main estrogen that is produced by the ovaries and is used to evaluate ovarian function

Estradiol

When a purified enzyme is used as a reagent, such as urease in the measurement of urea, the enzyme must be what concentration so that the reaction follows what order kinetics

Excess; first

Latent infections

Exist as a silent phase in which the agent is causing no notable effect

Celcius to Fahrenheit

F=9/5C+32

What important function does 2,3-biphosphoglycerate perform

Facilitates the delivery of oxygen to tissue

Fibrinogen factor

Factor 1

Stuart-Prower factor

Factor 10

How does hemophilia A differ from B

Factor 8 is deficient in Hem A and Factor 9 is deficient in Hem B

Which factor are found only in the alternative pathway

Factor B

What is used in the treatment of hemophilia A

Factor VIII concentrate

One of the key biochemical characteristic by Escherichia coli serogroup 0157 can be screened from stool specimen

Failure to ferment sorbitol

A patient has 30% Hemoglobin F. What can be eliminated

Four missing genes for alpha chain production

Which of the following forms of calcium is biologically active

Free ionized calcium

A completely Sickled cell is most commonly seen in which of these conditions

Homozygous HbSS

A transufsion reaction investigation should include all of the following except

Human leukocyte antigen type

What is the reagent used in the catalase test

Hydrogen peroxide

Calcium - 14mg/dl Phosphorus - 1mg/dl Most compatible diagnosis

Hyperparathyroidism

Which of the following is the primary mechanism of compension for metabolic acidosis

Hyperventilation

Hyperparathyroidism is most consistently associated with

Hypophosphatemia

A patient demonstrated the following symptoms: hyptension, tachycardia, cold or clammy skin, and cyanosis

Hypovolemic shock

Cold autoantibodies are typically of which specificity

I

Which of the following methods is commonly used for potassium measurment

ISE

What is the diagnosis of a child who has onset of bleeding signs and symptoms. Normal CBC and physical examination No family history

ITP

THe antibody that primarily protects body surfaces lined with mucous membranes such as the eyes and intestines

IgA

Group O patient was crossmatched with group B RBC. What phase of the corssmatch will first detect this incompatiblity

Immediate spin

Actions would be appropriate for the investigation of an initially prolonged PT test except

Immediately cancel the test and request a new sample

A transfusion reaction to erythrocyte antigens will activate what immunopathologic mechanisms

Immune cytolysis

Most useful classification system for acute lymphoid leukemia is based on

Immunophentoyping

One specific agar for Mycobacterium spp

Lowenstein-jennings

Cell-mediated immune responses such as attacking and killing microorganisma or host cells damaged or infected are carried out by

Lymphocytes of the T

What method is not used to detect and differentiate white blood cells in most hematology analyzer

Lysis of white cells with subsequent conversion to hemiglobincyanide followed by clorimetric determination

What test is used along with the MCV to morphologically classify anemias

MCHC

A thorough donor history is the only way to prevent

Malaria

What is the gold standard methodlogy for toxicology testing

Mass Spectrometry

What anomali is an autosomal dominant disorder characteried by irregularly sized in polymorphonuclear neutrophils abnormal giant platelets and often thrombocytopenia

May-Hegglin

Tests of pancreatic exocrine function include

Measurement of serum amylase and lipase activity

Which is the proper vein selection for venipuncture

Median cubital, cephalic, basilic

WHich is associated iwth Chediak-Higashi syndrome

Membrane defect of lysosomes

What cells are most common nucleated cell in normal adult bone marrow

Metamyelocyte

The form of hemoglobin that contains iron in the ferric rather than the ferrous state

Methemoglobin

WHat is the pathogenesis of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

Microthrombi and fibrin formed on damaged endothelail cells trap and break red cells

What is the purpose of a royal blue top

Minimize trace element contamination

Ringed sideroblasts are a reflection of iron-laden

Mitochondria

RBC indices obtained MVB = 88 fL MCH = 30 pg MCHC = 34 g/dL

Normocytic, normochromic

What is true of megakaryocytes as they mature

Nucleus becomes polyploidy

Which ABO phenotype selection contains the most H antigen and the least H antigen, respectively on the red cell's surface

O, A1B

If an individual has blood type O, what is a possivle genotype

OO only

A patient is observed to have a rise in temperature and chills during a transfusion. Transfusion is stopped and a posttrsfusion blood sample is carefully drawn.

Observe the color of serum and perform a direct antiglobulin test

Once a patient is stabilized on warfarin therapy , how often should they be monitored

Once a month

A semen sample for semen analysis should generally be received at the testing site within what peroid of time

One hour

What has a pyknowtic nucleus

Orthrochromic normoblast

Most appropriate screening test for hereditary spherocytosis

Osmotic fragility

Creatinine is formed from

Oxidation of creatine

A very samll, single-stranded DNA virus that causes a febrile illness with a rash and is called the fifth childhood disease after rubella, varicella and roseola

Parvovirus

Which type of immunity can create immediate protection

Passive artificial

Which type of immunity can create immediate protection?

Passive artificial

Rh immune globulin therapy in postpartum women provides

Passive protection

A gram negative rod was isolated from a wound infection caused by a bite from a pet cat

Pasteurella Multocida

Which of the following bacterial species is part of animal flora and is transmitted to humans during close animal contact, including bites

Pasteurella multocida

What test should be performed on a regular basis on patients receiving therapeutic heparin

Patial thromboplastin Time and platelet count

The drug choice for most streptococcal infections

Penicillin

An antibody screen on a patient with a prior history of transfusion was negative. The crossmatch, performed at immediate spin and antihuman globulin, was incompatible with 1 unit selected. The next step in the investigation would be to:

Perform a direct antiglobulin test on the incompatible unit

Ten days after the transfusion of 2 units, a patient had a 2 g/dL drop in hemoglobin and was slightly jaundice. No bleeding was found. What tests would indicate delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction

Perform an antibody screen on the posttransfusion sample

The swarming gram-negative bacillus that can be described as oxidase-negative, nitrate-positive, indole-negative, H2S positive

Proteus mirabilis

Which test is most affected by tissue fluid contamination

Protime

Which organisms is most likely to be assocated with gas gangrene

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

The following urine results were obtained on a 25-year-old female: Color= amberAppearance = cloudySpecific Gravity= 1.015pH= 5.0Protein= 1+Glucose= negativeBlood= smallMicroscopic:Bacteria= manyWBC casts= fewWBC/HPF= 30-40 The results are most compatible with:

Pyelonephritis

WBC casts are primarily associated with

Pyelonephritis

Using Wiener nomenclature, a patient has D, C, e. how can be writen

R1

Why does plasmodium flaciparum infection resultresult in the most serious hemolysis of the various forms of malaria

RBC of all ages are invaded

Erysipelothrix infections in human characteristically produce

Raised lesions on skin

A chemistry analyzer that can perform multiple analyses on a single specimen during one run is referred to

Random access analyzer

Rh system antibodies characteristically given

Reactions that are enhanced with enzymes

The substance detected by the RPR assay?

Reagin

What urien color is produced by the presence of Porphobilinogen

Red

Antibody screening of the recipient is performed as a component of compatibility testing to detect

Red cell alloantibodies

Condition that cause an increased anion gap

Renal failure

Patient ahs a sudden drop in blood pressure. What is the sequence of RAAS

Renin, Angiotensinogen, angiotensin I, ACE, angiotensin II, Aldosterone, ADH

All of the following are pre-analytical factors EXCEPT

Reporting results

Why is glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase importatn for normal RBC survival

Required to regenerate reduced gluathione

A patient's blood gas results are - pH =7.26 - dco2 = 2.0mmol/L - HCO3= 29 mmol/L

Respiratory acidosis

If polychromasia is increased in the peripheral smear, the _____________ should be eleveated

Reticulocyte count

The philadelphia chromosome

Reults in a chimeric gene

Which conditions is associated with hypophosphatemia

Rickets

TRH stimulation test rules out the diagnosis of mild or subclinical hyperthyroidism if TRH infusion cause

Rise in plasma TSH

Which of the following would be considered most significant as it relates to serological testing

Rise of antibody titers is diagnostic

Which specimen collection shouldn't be used if urine cultures is also required

Routinely voided

What is the potential effect in a tube agglutination test if a red cell suspension with a concentration greater than 5% is used

False negative

When an antibody-coated antigen is phagocytized, what component of the antibody molecule must fit into a receptor on the phagocytic cell

Fc region

Leukocyte-poor RBCs are indicated for patients

Febrile transfusion reactions

Which of the following deficiencies is associated iwth neutral tube defects

Folate

Coefficient variation equation

SD/mean x 100

Presence of excessive rouleaux formation on a blood smear is often accompanied by an icnreased

SED rate

SDS shall be maintained and available to employees in the

Safety cabinet

The gram-negative bacillus that can be described as oxidase-negative, nitrate positive, indole-negative, citrate-positive, methyl red-positive, urease-negative, H2S-postiive

Salmonella enteritidis

ABH soluble antigens are determined by the presence of

Se gene

Which represents characteristic features of iron metaboilism in patients iwth anemia of a chronic disorder

Serum iron is decreased, transferrin saturation is decreased, TIBC is normal or decreased

Mature T cells with cerebrigorm, clefted nuclei found int he fskin and peripheral blood describe

Sezary cells

What condition is most associated iwth autosplenectomy

Sickle cell anemia

Speckled pattern relates to

Sm, RNP, SS-A, SS-B, hnRNP, others

Chemical symbol Na stands

Sodium

WHich electrolyte level best correlates with plasma osmolality

Sodium

Proteolytic enzymes should not be used to screen for antibodies

Some antigens are destroyed enzymes, which would cause the antibodies to be missed

If a 2.0M solution is diluted 1:10, which of the following is ture

The concentration of the dilution is 0.2M

The serum of some group A individuals may agglutinate group A1 cells

True

When maternal antibody strength using a doubling dilutions, an increase in titer from 8 to 32 is considered a signfiicant rise in titer

True

The etiologic agent for Chagas disease

Trypanosoma cruzi

When performing a Kovac's indole test, the substrate must contain

Tryptophane

A nonphotochromogen that grows best at 42* and is highly resistant to antibiotics is Mycobacterium

Tuberculosis

In an antibody ID panel, only one red cell was negative at the antihuman globulin phase. On ruling out and matching the pattern, an anti-k was ID

Two more k-negative cells should be tested

A 16 year old female was taken to the emergency room in a coma by her mother. She had lost 25 pounds in 2 months; she was always thirsty; drinking a lot of water and running to the bathroom. Her laboratory results are shown below. - Results: (indicates reference range)pH: 7.21 (7.35-7.45)pCO2: 23 mm Hg (35-45 mm Hg)Glucose: 742 mg/dL (60-110 mg/dL)Urine ketone: positiveUrine glucose: large

Type I diabetes melitus

How would you interpret the results if both the anti-D reagent and the Rh control were 2+ agglutination reactions

Unable to determine without further testing

What error was probably made if red cells are seen when attempting to manually count white blood cells on a hemocytometer

Unopete was not allowed to sit for 10 Minuetes for complete RBC lysis

Bilirubin is reduced to what in the small intestine

Urobilinogen

A 44-year-old woman has a hemoglobin level of 6.1 g/dL. White blood cell and platelet counts are within normal levels. The patient is group O D-negative with a negative antibody screen. Crossmatches are compatible. However, 15 minutes after the first transfusion is started, she experiences erythema and hives. What type of transfusion reaction is occurring?

Urticarial

What transfusion reactions has the highest incidence

Urticarial

The radioallergosorbent test

Uses antigen specific IgE antibody

What characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus

Usually occurs after age 40

The selective medium thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose agar is especially formulated for isolating what pathogen from stool cultures

Vibrio

Scurvy is associated with deficiency of

Vitamin C

Oral anticoagulation is based

Vitamin K antagonism

Which one of the following vitamins would be least affected by long peroids of fat malabsorption

Vitmaine C

On what does factor 8 depend on for stability

Von Willebrand factor

Results obtained on a patient with inherited autosomal dominant trait Normal PT and APTT Prolonged Bleeding Time Abnormal Platelet adhesiveness

Von Willebrand's disease

What is necessary for platelet adhesion to collegan

Von willebrand factor

A person submitted a urine specimen following a strenuous exercise routine. What would be normally seen except 1. Hyaline casts 2. Granular casts 3. RBC casts 4. WBC casts

WBC casts

A test that can be used as a confirmatory test for urobilinogen

Watson-Schwartz test

Which of the following is not a cause of donor deferral 1. Weighs 112 pounds 2. Currently pregnant 3. Donated blood 45 days ago 4. lived in UK from 1980 to 1996

Weighs 112 pounds

When using low-protein anti-D reagents an Rh control is indicated

When a sample/donor unit types as AB positive

Graft between individuals of different species

Xenograft

A 32-year-old male was seen in the ER with symptoms of lower right quadrant abdominal pain and diarrhea. A CBC showed a leukocytosis with an increased number of neutrophils. He was admitted, and a stool culture was obtained. The culture showed many bipolar-staining, gram negative bacilli, which were oxidase negative, citrate negative, and indole negative. The TSI reaction was acid over acid, but there was no evidence of gas or H2S production. The organism was positive for urease and ONPG and negative for phenylalanine. The characteristic symptomatology and the biochemical reactions confirmed that the etiologic agent was:

Yersinia enterocolitica

Trace element plays a key role in protein and nucleic acid synthesis

Zinc

Weak D test detects

weak D antigen

Antibody class and antibody subclass are determined by

constant region of heavy chain

An India Ink preparation is used to ID

cryptococcus neoformans in CSF

Convert 250 microliters to mililiters

0.25 ml

What is the most common infective agent to be transmitted through blood transfusion that results in morbidity and mortality

Bacteria

Which organisms is not an aerobic organism

Bacteroides

The IMViC reaction of ++-- is characteristic

E.. coli

Which of the following will give the best overall picture of a patient's iron stores

Ferritin

Which is decrased in disseminated intravascular coagulation

Fibrinogen

Phenotypes is heterozygous

Fy(a+b+)

What is a characteristic of Bernard-Soulier Syndrome

Giant platelet

Creatinine clearance is used to estimate the

Glomerular filtration rate

Spotted reaction on the reagent strip reaction for blood indicates

Hematuria

A wet mount and gram stain of vaginal secretions from a patient who has bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerdella vaginalis will reveal

Large, squamous epithelial cells with numberous attached pleomorphic gram-variable or gram-negative coccobacilli and rods

A patient has 20% eosinophils. What can't it be

Pertussis

Which of the following readies the uterus for implantation of an embryo

Progesterone

Inappropriate formation ofplatelets or fibrin clots that obstructs blood vessels

Thrombosis

Patients who have a deficiency of prtoein C or protein S have which type of disorder

Thrombotic

Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with autoantibodies 1. acquired hemolytic anmeia 2. chronic thyroidits 3. Lupus erythematosus 4. transfusion reaction

Transfusion reaction

Which of the following test requires a fasting specimen

Triglyceridies

What would be a probable diagnosis for a habitual alcoholic with slight elevations in PT and APTT tests

Liver disease

What are the major heatopoietic sites in fetus and adult

Liver/Bone marrow

Jaffee alkaline picrate reaction for creatinine can be made more specific for creatinine with the use

Lloyd's reagent

What would not be represented in the usual classification of anemia

Normocytic, hyperchromic

Sulfosalicylic acid can be used to confirm the result of which test on the urine reagent strip

Protein

Aids in preventing excess clotting

Protein C

Patient ab - .740 Standard AB - .860 Concentration of standard - 200mg/dl What is the concentration of the unknown

172 mg/dL

According to CLSI, a heel puncture lancet should not puncture deeper than

2.0

Convert 10 mg/dL of calcium to mmole/L (mw-40)

2.5

Which of the following values is the threshold critical value for low plasma potassium

2.5mmol/L

How many mililters of 0.5 M NaOH are required to make 50 mililiters of 0.2M NaOH

20

How many militers of 0.25 NaOH are needed to make 100ml of a 0.05M solution of NaOH

20

Calculate the MCH. RBC 3.0 x 10^12/L Hgb 6g/dL HCT 20%

20 fg

An unexpected finding in chronic myeloid leukemia

20% blasts in the peripheral blood

What substances are not allowed to filter through glomerulus in significant amounts

Proteins and cells

a 1:100 dilution is made and the 4 cornor squaares are counted. 95 WBC are counted on one side and 89 on the other side

23 X 10^9/L

According to AABB standards, fresh frozen plasma must be infused within what peroid of time following thawing

24 hours

Difinition of agglutination

- Visible expression of the aggregation of antigens and antibodies - Formation of a framework in which antigen particles or molecules alternate with antibody molecules - Describe the aggregation of particulate test antigens

Which temperatures can be used to store fresh frozen plasma

-20C

The storage temperature for frozen RBC

-80

What is the MCH if the hematocrite is 20%, the RBC is 2.4 and the hemoglibn is 5 g/dL

21 pg

The optimum storage temperature for platelets

22C

Which of the following is the average volume of urine excreted by an andult in 24 hours

1500ml

When a unit of packed RBC's is split using the open system, each half-unit must be issued within:

24 hours

Calculate LDL cholesterol concentration if total cholesterol is 230 mg/dL Triglyceride is 140 mg/dL and the HDL cholesterol is 50.0

152 mg/dL

Examine the minimum inhibitory concentration tray shown blow and determine the MIC for gentamicin

16 g/ml

Tourniquet must not be on longer than

1 min

Total WBC count is 22. 25 nRBC per 100 WBCs are seen. What is the corrected WBC count

17.6 x 10^9/L

Using Rosenfield terminology, a patient has Dce/dCe. how would it be right

1, 2, -3, 4, 5

Which factors are consumed in clotting and therefore absent in serum

1,2,5,8,13

To dilute a serum specimen 1 to 5 there would be what parts serum what parts DI water.

1,4

The TORCH IgM and IgG assay includes detection of all of the following except 1. Infectious mononucleosis 2. Cytomegalovirus 3. Epstein-barr virus 4. rubella

1. Infectious mononucleosis

Unacceptable quality control reesults for the antiglobulin test performed in est tubes may be noticed

1. the reagent used were improerly stored 2. Technologist performing the test was never trained 3. Preventive meaintenance has not be perfomred on the cell washer

Calculate the absolute lymphocyte count. RBC 3.0 x 10^12/L WBC 7.0 x 10 ^9/L Neutrophils 56% Lyphocytes 23% Monocytes 14% Eosinophil 6% Basophil 1%

1.6 x 10^9/L

A three-fold serial dilution is performed using 5 tubes. The first tube contains undiluted sample and dilution for tube 5.

1/81

How much HCL is needed to make 100 mL of a 0.1 M solution of HCL from a 1.0 M solution of HCL

10 mL

How many grams of H2SO4 are in 750mL of 3M H2SO4

120g

A 1:10 dilution is made of a CSF sample. Four squares for a total 8 squres and a total 100 cells what is count

1250

Frequency of the D-negative phenotype in the population

15%

Patient M.M. was admitted to the hospital with acute bleeding. Anti-E was detected in the patient's serum. Four E-negative units of blood were crossmatched for the patient. The units were compatible at immediate spin and following the antiglobulin test. After the antiglobulin test was performed, IgG sensitized red cells gave a 2+ agglutination reaction. The proper interpretation of this 2+ agglutination reaction is the:

Antihuman globuin washing procedure was adequate

Which of the following would be considered a significant finding in Grave's disease

Antithyoglobulin antibody

Which apoprotein is inversely related to risk for coronary heart disease

Apoprotein A-1

Synovial fluid is collected

Arthrocentesis

Anaphylaxis is characterized by all except 1. Associtated with a significant increase in eosinophils in the circulating blood 2. It can cause death due to asphyxiation 3. Massive release of histaine from mast cells and basophil 4. Prior sensitization to an allergen

Associtated with a significant increase in eosinophils in the circulating blood

Which of the following vitamins is not a fat-soluble vitamin

B1

Which assay is performed to diagnose congestive heart failure

BNP

What are the possible ABo genotypes of offspring from parents whose genotypes are OO and AB

BO and AO

Suspect spore-forming gram-positive bacilli that are hemolytic, motile, and penicillin-resistant - produce a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar

Bacillus Cereus

luid from a cutaneous black lesion was submitted for routine bacteriological culture. After 18 hours of incubation at 35C there was no growth on MacConkey agar, but 3+ growth on sheep blood agar. The colonies were nonhemolytic, 4-5 mm in diameter, and off-white with a ground glass appearance. Each colony had an irregular edge with comma-shaped outgrowths that stood up like "beaten egg whites" when gently lifted with an inoculating loop. A gram-stained smear of a typical colony showed large, gram positive, rectangular rods.

Bacillus anthracis

When a leukocyte differential smear made from a cerebrospinal fluid specimen with an elevated leukocyte count reveals an increase in polymorphonuclear cells, may indicate

Bacterial

Toxic granulation, Dhole bodies and vacuolization in neutrophils are often found in

Bacterial infection

Why is the absolute neutrophil count monitored closely in patients receiving chemotherapy

Bacterial infection becomes a possiblity when the ANC is <1.0 x 109/L

The organism that is a strict anaerobe, non-motile gram-negative bacillus, occuring in abscesses and associated with peritonitis

Bacteroides

What is not a componenent of a basic single beam spectrophotometer

Beam splitter

Lymphocytes become transformed when they are

Being stimulated by an antigen

Amber color of urine is primarily due to

Bilirubin

Which of the following urine results is most apt to be changed by prolonged exporure to light

Bilirubin

Epstein-barr virus is transmitted primarily by

Close contact with infectious oral-pharyngeal secretions

CCFA is used in the isolation of

Clostridium botulinum

An anaerobic, spore-forming, gram positive bacillus isolated from a deep wound of the leg is most probably

Clostridum perfringens

Staphylococcus GS characteristic

Cluster of grapes

Renal threshold is best described as

Concentration as which substance in the blood spills into urine

Which disease is characterized by primary hyperaldosteronism caused by adrenal adenoma, carcinoma, or hyperplasia

Conn's disease

Aerobic bottle has Staph epi on 7 day subcultre Indicates

Contaminant

Urine reagent strips should be stored in a

Cool dry air

Clinitest reaction is based on which principle

Copper reduction

Which organism that is commonly cultured from the nasopharynx of healthy people but is rarely pathogenic

Corneybacterium species

Which of the following is known to cause Q fever

Coxiella

Which blood componenet contains the most factor VIII concentration relative to the unit volume

Cryoprecipitated AHF

An HIV-positive patient began to show signs of menigitis. SPinal fluid was colelcted and cultured for bacteria and fungus. A budding, encapsulated yeast was recovered. Which organism is consistent with this information

Cryptococcus neoformans

Iontophoresis is a the tecnique used in the diagnosis of

Cystic fibrosis

Which of the following is an abnormal crystal described as a hexagonal plate

Cystine

To be considered a candidate for Rh immune globulin, the moster is _______ and the infant is ____

D-negative, D-positive

A patient's blood smear shows a moderate number of spherocytes and polychromasia. - Distinguish warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia from herediatary spherocytosis

DAT

Patient PT and APTT prolonged Decraesed fibrinogen Decrased platelets Increased fibrin split products

DIC

Howell-jolly bodies are composed of

DNA

Megaloblastic anemias are caused by a defect in the synthesis

DNA

What set of laboratory results is consistent with hemolytic anemia

Decrased erythrocyte survival; increased catabolism of heme; decreased haptoglobin levels

Pancytopenia is a term that means

Decrease in all cells

Most sensitive marker for alcoholic liver disease

GGT

Platelet membrane receptor binds fibrinogen and supports platelet aggregation

GP IIb/IIIa

Zollinger-ellison syndrome is characterized by large elevation

Gastrin

Which antimicrobial agent acts by inhbiting protein synthesis

Gentamicin

Which of these tests are most affected if the patient is not fasting

Glucose and Triglycerides

Which enzyme is responsible for the conjugation of bilirubin

Glucuronyl transferase

Staphylococcus Description

Gram positive cocci, Usually in clusters

Enterococcus Description

Gram positive cocci, ususally in chains

Corynebacterium description

Gram positive rods, non-spore forming

Bacillus description

Gram positive rods, spore forming

Organisms belonging to the genus Neisseria

Gram-negative diploccci

An individual presents with the following typing results: Anti-A = 4+, Anti-B = 0, Anti-A,B = 4+, A1 cells = 0, B cells = 4+ Correctly interpret the ABO type of this patient.

Group A

Beta-hemolytic streptococci that are bacitracin-sensitive and CAMP negative

Group A

Given the following ABO phenotyping data: FORWARD - Anti-A: 2+mF - Anti -B: O REVERSE - A1 cells: 0 - B cells: 3+ \ What could be a plausible explanation for this discrepancy?

Group O blood produces given to group A

Given the following ABO phenotyping data Forward - Anti-A 2+mf - Anti-B: 0 Reverse: A1 cells: 0 - B cells: 3+

Group O blood products given to group A

What type of blood should be given in an emergency transfusion when there is no time to type the recipient's sample

Group O, Rh negative packed cells

A catheterized urine sample was inoculated using 0.01 ml loop - 68 colonies grew after 48 hours - small translucent nonhemolytic organism grew on blood agar but not MAC - small gram positive, catalase negative cocci

Growth of 6800 CFU/mL of strep Sp

The antigen marker most closely associated with transmissibiity of HBV infections

HBe

Which of the following statements about high-frequency antigens is correct?

High-frequency antigens are common, but it's difficult to ID their corresponding antibodies

Granules that basophils contain are composed

Histamine

A Beta-Lactamase test is performed routinely on what organism

Haemophilus influenzae

SIngle most important way to prevent the spread of infection in healthcare facility

Handwashing

A traveler is being evaluated at a local hospital for gastroinestinal pain, fever and diarrhea. They just came back from Central America. Increased ALT, AST, and Bilirubin

Hav-IgM

An ammonia-liek odor is characteristically associated with urine from patients who

Have a proteus sp infection

Which hepatitis B serologic marker is the classic first indication of a hepatitis B infection?

HbsAg

What patietns represents an acceptable donor

Hct is 41, BP is 110/80, Temp is 99.4, Pulse is 65, Age is 55, and Sex is male

Prolonged tourniquet application may cause a change in blood composition primarily becuase

Hemoconcnetration

Iron is physiologically active only in the ferrous form

Hemoglobin

A 4 year old child becomes very sick after eating undercooked ground beef. kidney function is elevated. Thrombocytopenia and few schistocytes

Hemolytic uremic syndrome

Renal failure is a prominent feature

Hemolytic uremic syndrome

Patient Bleeding time and PT normal APTT prolonged APTT 1:1 mixing study corrected platlet aggregation Normal with ristocetin, ADP, Collagen and epinephrine

Hemophilia A

Only acceptable anticoagulant for a calcium determination

Heparin

Thrombin time will be prolonged in the resence of all the following except 1. elevated fibrinogen degradation products 2. heparin 3. Factor 1 deficiency 4. Factor 2 deficiency

Heparin

Which anticoagulant inhibits thrombin

Heparin

PST tube contains

Heparin and gel

Blood ammonia levels are usually measure in order to evaluate

Hepatic coma

Nucleic acid tests are used to screen

Hepatitis C virus, West nile virus and HIV

Moderate to marked target cells are found on a blood smear. What can be eliminated

Hereditary Spherocytosis

Cells with a slit instead of a round central pallor can be found in all of the following

Hereditary spherocytosis

Varicella-zoster virus, Epstein-Barr virus, and cytomegalovirus are included in this widely disseminated group of viruses

Herpes viruses

Which of the following is the reference method for measuring serum glucose

Hexokinase

The M:E ratio in chronic myelocytic leukemia

High

Systemic lupus erythrematosus patients often have which of the following test results

High titers of DNA antibody

Patients who develop severe sepsis or septic shock commonly have what plasma lactic acid values

Increased

WHat do all chronic myeloproliferative disorders share

Increased blood cells; overlapping clinical and laboratory features

Major actions of angiotensin II inculde

Increased vasoconstriction

In a patient with suspected primary hyperthroidism associated with Graves' diease, one would expect the following laboratory serum results: T4 _________ TSH ___________

Increased, Decreased

Lipemic sample

Indicates non fasting sample

The phase of the agglutination reaction is important in the interpretation of the antibody screen or antibody ID panel

Indicates the class of atnibody

In a competitive immunoassay the final reaction product is _________ proportional to the amount of patient atnigen?

Indirectly

Factors commonly involved in producing anemia in patients with chronic renal disease include

Ineffective erythropoiesis

WHy are infants with beta-thalassemia major not ill until approximately 6 months of age

Infants are protected by their high concentration of fetal hemoglobin

An increased reticulocyte count may be found in all conditions except 1. hemolytic anemias 2. following acute hemorrhage 3. Satisfactory response to therapy for pernicious anemia 4. inflammatory response

Inflammatory response

Artificial passive immunity is achieved by

Injection of specific antibody

The presence of schistocytes in the peripheral blood indicates which processes

Intravascular hemolysis

Absorption of Vitamin B12 in the stomach and gut requires the presence

Intrinsic factor

POCT tests classified as waived by government standards don't include

Ionized calcium

Transferrin receptors can be measured and are elevated when

Iron stores are decreased

When 5 grams of glucose is added to 100 mL of water

It is a w/v solution

All of the following are true statements about IgM except 1. It is produced during a primary antibody response 2. It is capable of crossing the maternal-fetal placental barrier 3. It has the largest molecular weight of al the immunoglboulin classes 4. fixes complment

It is capable of crossing the maternal-fetal placental barrier

Plasma proteins are primarily synthesized in the

Liver

What organ is associated with production of majority of clotting factor

Liver

RA can be distringuished from SLE on the basis of which of the following

Joint pain

Which of the following bacteria is positive for oxidase?

Klebsiella pneumonia

Most likely cause for serum/plasma to appear "milky" is the presence of

LDL

A person who inherits the Le, Se, and H genes will have red cells that phenotype

Le(a-b+)

Which one of the following crystals is NOT found in normal urine 1. Triple phosphate 2. Ammonium biurate 3. Calcium oxalate 4. Leucine

Leucine

A patient admitted to the hospital for ongoing fever produces the following laboratory results: RBC count: 3.56 x 1012/L WBC count: 57.5 x 109/L Platelet count: 375,000/uL Differential count: 3 blasts, 10 myelocytes, 6 metamyelocytes, 12 bands, 64 segs, 4 lymphocytes, and 1 monocyteLAP score = 155 Which of the following conditions correlates closely with this patient's results?

Leukemoid reaction

THe leukocyte alkaline phosphatase activity is increased

Leukemoid reaction

Which of the following is characteristic of an exudates effusion

Leukocyte count greater than 1000 WBC/uL

What is generally considered equivalent to CMV seronegative RBC for use in an exchange transfusion to a newborn

Leukoreduced RBC

For which of the following tubes is the blood-to-additive ratio most critical

Light blue top

Which of the following tubes contains an anticoagulant that works by binding calcium

Light blue top

WHich of the following tubes are in the proper order of draw for the vacuated tube method

Light blue, red, green

Which bacteria exhibit a tumbling motility

Listeria monocytogenes

Isolation of a small gram-positive, catalase-postive rod with a narrow zone of beta hemolysis isolated from blood or CSF should be used as strong presumptive evidence

Listerosis

Which of the following is used primarily for the treatment of manic-depression

Lithium

What is characteristic of platelet disorders

Mucous membrane hemorrhages

Malignant proliferation of plasma cells with osteolytic bone lesions and the presence of monoclonal immunoglobulin in the serum

Multiple myeloma

All are capable of causing tuberculosis except 1. Mycobacterium avium 2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 3. Mycobacterium bovis 4. Mycobacterium africanum

Mycobacterium avium

Which agent lacks a cell wall and is the smallest known free-living form?

Mycoplasma

Which of the following is known as "walking pneumonia"

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

What is the earliest ID cell in the granulcoyte maturation sequence

Myelocyte

Which of the following is the earliest biochemical marker of mycardial infraction

Myoglobin

Respiratory Syncytial virus is best isolated using

Nasopharyngeal aspirate

Which immune system cells destroy infected or malignant host cell

Natural killer cells

The antiglobulin test was performed using gel technology. A button of cells was observed at the bottom of the microtube following centrifugation.

Negative reaction

Test results are characteristic of DIC except

Negative test for degradation products

Bone marrow slide shows foam cells ranging from 20 to 100 um in size with vacuolated cytoplasm containing sphingomyelin and is faintly PAS psotive. Cell type is most characteristic of

Neimann-Pick disease

Oval fat bodies and fatty casts are characteristic urine sediment constituents in patients

Nephrotic syndrome

Which patient group is most susceptible to bleeding because of a deficiency of vitamin K-dependent proteins

Newborns

When the glucose result on a urine specimen from an infant is negative on the urine chemical reagent strip. Can the specimen be negative for other reducing substances

No

A patient has a plasma myoglobin level of 10ug/L at admission. Three hours later its at 14 and troponin I is 0.04

No evidence of myocardial or skeletal muscle injury

A technologist was being trained in a different area of the blood bank and noticed that the person training her had not recorded the results of a test. To be helpful, she carefully recorded the results she saw at a later time, using the technologist's initials. Is this acceptable procedure?

No; she should have brought the error to the technologist's attention

When group O blood is not available for transfusion, what is the next alternative

None

Evaluation of adrenal function - found that morning eval is higher then evening

Normal findings

A patient has a WBC of 15.0. Correct interpretation

Normal for an infant, leukocytosis for an adult

How would the RBCs appear on the peripheral blood smear if the red cell indices obtained on a patient are as follows: MCV 88.5 f1 MCH 30.2 pg MCHC 33.1 %

Normochromic, Normocytic

Which condition produces the highest elevation of serum lactate dehydrogenase

Pernicious anemia

The anticonvulsant used to control tonic-clonic seizures is

Phenytoin

Which is an example of the most common type of error associated with fatal transfusion reactions

Phlebotomist labels Mr. Smith's tubes with Mr. Johnson's information

What is most common clot detection principle used for coagulation testing

Photo-optical

Temperature of a shipment of RBC units that were received from the local blood center was recorded as 8*C.

Place the units in inventory because the temperature is acceptable

Regan isoenzyme has the same properties as alkaline phosphatase that origninates in

Placenta

The difference between serum and plasma

Plasma contains fibrinogen

What substance digests the fibrin clot after healing

Plasmin

In which malaria species do you see a characteristic band in the trophozoite stage

Plasmodium malariae

What is normal in a patient regularly taking aspirin

Platelet count

ID the platelet receptor and and plasma protein required for normal platelet adhesion

Platelet receptor GP Ib/IX/V plasma protein von WIllebrand factor

A bleeding time is used to evaluate the activity

Platelets

Which products are tested for bacterial contmaination following storage

Platelets

What is the last erythrocyte precursor capable of cell division

Polychromatic normoblast

What reagent contains antibodies to multiple antigenic epitopes

Polyclonal-based

How should the production of a blue or purple color on the test pad of an Ictotest be interpreted

Positive for bilirubin

What condition is suggested by jaundiced patient experiencing a marked rise in alkaline phosphatase, cojugated bilirubin and a slight rise in ALT

Post-hepatic obstruction

Not safe site for heel puncutre

Posterior curvature of the heel

An electrolyte panel consits of

Potassium, Sodium, Chloride, Carbon dioxide

Results of patient PT normal BT normal Prolonged APTT APTT 1:1 mixing study no correction

Presence of a circulating inhibitor

Pernicious anemia can be distinguished from folate deficiency by

Presence of autoantibodies to intrinsic factor

An antiglycolytic agent

Prevents the breakdown of glucose

The serum TSH level is decreased

Primary hyperhyroidism

The structure that represents the sequence of a polypeptide chian

Primary structure

What special handling does a bilirubin specimen requrire

Protection from light

Rose gardener's diseae is cause

Sporothrix schenckii

Largest cells in the urine sediment

Squamous epithelial cells

Which bacteria is associated with dog

Staph intermedius

Novobiocin susceptiblity test is used for the ID

Staphylococcus saphrophytcus

Choose the group of bacteria that is described as catalse-postive, gram positive cocci that grow facultatively anaerobic and that form

Staphylococus

Ethylhydrocupreine hydrochloride (optochin) is a chemical used to differentiate

Steptococcus pneumonia from alpha hemolytic streptococci

Bacterial species that can be described as able to hydrolyze hippurate, beta hemolytic, a major cause of neonatal menigitis and spesis and producer of CAMP factor

Strep Agalactiae

This product of Group A strep is responsible for the beta hemolysis on the blood agar plate

Streptolysin S

Streptococcus GS characteristic

String of pearls

What is the one test reuslt that is most specific in establishing an ID of Staph Aureus

Strongly coagulase positive

The most common larvae found in stool specimens

Strongyloides stercoralis

Qualitative hemoglobinopathies cause disease by producing hemoglobin chains that are

Structurally altered

A 15 year old boy presents complaining of severe headaches; he has a white count of 76.0 x 10^9/L, and a hematocrit of 33%. When a white cell differential is performed, most of the nucleated cells are blasts CD2, CD4, and CD8

T cell acute lymphoid leukemia

A two year old child with a decreased serum T4 is described as bing somewhat dwarfed, stocky and overweight and having coarse features.

TSH

A technologist IDs an anti-E. The only antibody not yet ruled out is anti-c. What steps taken next?

Test the patients serum against additional cells that are c+ and E-

Why is incubation omitted in the direct antihuman globulin test

The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo

Facility does not validate a refrigerator before use What is a potential outcome

The facility is in violation of current good manufacturing practices and could be cited by the food and drug administration

Three sets of blood cultures were obtained. The aerobic bottle of one set had grwoth of Staph epidermidis on the 7 day subculture

The organism is most likely a contaminant

Why is it dangerous to transfuse a person with type O blood with A unit

The patient's anti-A would destroy the donor's cells with severe consequences to patient

Chloride is the major extracellular anion in plasma

True

Nosocominal infections are those that

are contracted in the hospital environment

Urine specimen comes to the laboratory 7 hours after it is obtained. it is acceptable for cultureif

at 4-7C

Depletion of serum haptoglobin indicates

intravascular hemolysis

Which is the first detectable viral antibody in the blood of a patient with HIV infection?

p24

The most valuable initial aid for the ID of crystals in a urine specimen

pH

Which of the following would be affected by allowing a urine specimen to remain at room temp for 3 hours

pH

Fletcher factor

prekallikrein

Compatibility procedures will address all of the following except to:

prevent antibody formation

Increases in blood ammonia levels would be expected in which of the following conditions

reye's syndrome

What phenotypes will react with anti- f

rr

The most appropriate screening test for paroxysmal nocturanl hemoglobinuria

sucrose hemolysis

Two CSF specimen Tube 1 = lots of RBCs Tube 2 = less RBCs

traumatic tap


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