Exams
Normal ratio of bicarbonate to dissolved carbon dioxide in arterial blood
20:1
This needle is the standard for routine venipuncture
21 gauge
Calculate the MCHC RBC 3.0 x 10^12/L Hgb 6 g/dL HCT 20%
30 g/dL
Additional platelets fist derived when the circulating count decreased
30% mature cells that are stored in the spleen
How long following transfusion must the recipient sample be stored
7 days
labs obtained on a patient PT 20 sec TT 13 sec APTT 55 sec APTT plus aged serum corrected APTT plus adsorbed plasma Not corrected
Factor 10
Which deficiencies prolongs the partial thromboplastin time but does not elad to abnormal bleeding
Factor 12
Which these factors may be deficient if both and PT and APTT are prolonged
Factor 2
Tissue factor
Factor 3
What factor is antihemophilic factor
Factor 8
Christmas factor
Factor 9
Lymphocytes typically contain many specific cytoplasmic granules
False
Macrophages are actually lymphocytes that have entered the tissue and body fluids via diapedesis
False
All casts typically contain
Tamm-Horsefall glycoprotein
Beriberi is associated with deficiency of
Thaimine
Urea is produced from
The catabolism of proteins and amino acids
The MIC result recorded in antimicrobial testing can be defined
The lowest antimicrobial agent concentration that completely inhibits visible bacterial growth
Which NPN is in the highest concentration in the blood
Urea
A gastroenterologist submits a gastric biopsy from a patient with a pepetic ulcer. To obtain presumptive evidence of Helicobacter pylori, a portion of the specimen should be added to which media
Urea broth
The lipoprotein fraction that carries most of the endogenous triglycerides
VLDL
Antimicrobial agents acts by inhbiting cell wall synthesis
Vancomycin
In an adult, hematopoiesis occurs in the marrow of which of the following bones
Vertebrae Skull Proximal ends of long bones
Which type of casts signals the presence of chronic renal failure
Waxy casts
Which procedure is popular confirmatory procedure for HIV
Western Blot
Primary clinical utility of measuring CEA
diagnosis of colorectal cancer
To prevent graft-versus-host disease, red blood cells prepared for intrauterine transfusions should be
irradiated
Minimum level of a particular factor will cause the APTT test to become prolonged
less than 40%
What is true regarding the mechanism of warm-reactive autoimmune hemolytic anemia
IgG autoantibodies cause extravsuclar hemolyssi
Which IgG subclass is most efficient at crossing the placenta
IgG1
Antibodies detected in the immediate spin crossmatch are usually of what Ig class
IgM
Most "naturally occurring" ABO system antibodies fall into which class
IgM
Patients with Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia exhibit abnormally large amounts of
IgM
The presence of this antibody usually indicates recent or active infection
IgM
A child has monotnous blasts in the peripheral blood that have scant blue cytoplasm. they are CALLa positive. What form of acute lymphoid leukemia is most likely
Immature B cell
Blood collection tubes are labeled
Immediately after specimen collection
Which platelet responses is most likely associated with Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
Markedly decreased aggregation to epinepthrin, ADP, and collagen
What would be expected screening test results for a patient with a fibrin stabilizing factor deficiency
PT and APTT normal
Given the following data: WBC 8.5 x 103/µL Differential Segs 56% Bands 2% Lymphs 30% Monos 6% Eos 6% What is the absolute lymphocyte count?
2550
A patient has a hgb of 9 g/dL. Using the rule of three what would you expect the hematocrite to be
27 +-3
Expected life span of a normal RBC
3-4 months
If a patient has a reticulocyte count of 7% and a Hct of 20%, what is the corrected reticulocyte count
3.1%
Absorbance reading of 0.2; 5 mg/dl standard used in the test gave an absorbance reading of 0.3
3.3
A 1:200 dilution of a patient's smaple was made and 336 red cells were counted in an area of 0.2 mm2. What RBc count?
3.36 x 10^12/L
A 300 ug dose of Rh immune globulin contains sufficient anti-D to protect against how much whole blood
30mL
Indirect antihuman globulin test is incubated at what temperature
37*C
A chemical has a relative flash point of below 73 degrees F. How would it show on NFPA symbol
4 in the red diamond
Infants do not require crossmatching if they are less than
4 months old
Scolex of Taenia saginata
4 suckers
How long before obtaining blood should drugs be stoped
4 to 24 hours
What is the molarity of a solution that contains 120.0 of NaOH in 1.00 L? GMW of NaOH = 40
4.0M
What percentage of serum calcium that is ionized
45%
Anaerobes grow best
5% to 10% hydrogen (H2), 5% to 10% Co2, 80% to 89% nitrogen (N2), and 0% O2
What percentage of dietary iron is normally absorbed daily
5% to 15%
The accepted interval between blood donations
56 dats
Normal pH for a healthy adults urine
6.0
What would be considered normal for a glucose level in cerebrospinal fluid
60 mg/dl
Calculate the MCV. RBC 3.0 x 10^12/L Hgb 6g/dL HCT 20%
67 fl
Which of the following best represents the reference range for arterial pH
7.35-7.45
How often can a person donate a unit of whole blood for a directed donation
8 weeks
After experiencing extreme fatigue and polyuria, a patient's basic metabolic panel is analyzed in the laboratory. Glucose is too high for instrument to read.
840 mg/dL
A 42 year old male of average body mass has a history of chronic anemia requiring transfusion support. Two units of Red Blood Cells are transfused. If the pretransfusion hemoglobin was 7.0 g/dL, the expected post transfusion hemoglobin concentration should be:
9 g/dL
How many grams of KCL should be dissolved in 250mls distilled water to prepare a 0.500M solution? GMW of KCL = 74.55
9.32g
In QC +- 2 SD from the mean includes what percent of the sample population
95
Two standard deviations comprise of what percent of normal distribution curve
95%
Many laboratory procedures are conducted at 37C is what in F
98.6
The ratio of whole blood to anticoagulant is very important in the PT assay. What which hematocrit lvel should the standard anticoagulant bolume be adjusted
>55%
Adult hemoglobin is made up of what composition
>95% HbA, <3.5 HbA2, <1-2% HbF
What must be labeled with a biohazard label or be colored red or orange to indicate it is a biohazard
A container that is used for disposal of needles in the blood collection area
What is the basic hemoglobin defect in the thalassemias
A structurally normal globin chain is absent or produced at lower levels
An individual presents with the following typing results: Anti-A =2+, Anti-B = 0, Anti-A,B = 4+, A1 cells = 1+, B cells = 4+ Which of the following is a possible cause of these typing results?
A2 with Anti A1
Which formula correctly described the relationsihp between absorbance and %T
A=2-log%T
A recipient with group A phenotype requires a transfusion of 2 units of frozen plasma.
AB and A
In which type of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn is the first-born affected
ABO
Which blood group system has been implicated in transfusion reactions on the first expsoure to imcompatible RBCs
ABO
what best describes the direct antiglobulin test principle
AHG detects antibody already coated to red cells
Two liver enzymes are seen elevated in hepatobiliary disease
ALP and GGT
Enterococci can be described
Able to grow in 6.5% NaCL
Hemoglobin H disease results
Absence of 3 of 4 alpha genes
What is associated with Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
Absence of clot retraction
What has rhizoids between the sporangiophores
Absidia
In absorption spectrophotometry
Absorbance is directly proportional to concentration
An assayed glucose control produces 62,65,62,65,62,64,63,64,64,64 run
Accuracy
What is the metabolite of ethanol
Acetaldehyde
Mycobacteria spp. can be detected by all of the floowing methods except 1. Ziehl-neelson 2. Auramine-rhodamine 3. Acridine orange 4. kinyoun
Acridine orange
Sediment with moderate hematuria and RBC casts mostly likely resutls from
Acute glomerulonephritis
Results - ALP increased - ALT increased - AST increased - GGT increased
Acute hepatitis
Chronic Myeloid leukemia often progresses to
Acute leukemia, either myeloid or lymphoid
Most common form of childhood leukemia
Acute lymphocytic leukemia
An adult patient has a WBC count of 80. the Differential has 92% Sudan Black B-positive blast and 8% lymphocytes
Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation
10% bleach solution for disinfecting countertops can be prepared by
Adding 10 mL bleach to 90mL water
The prinicple energy source for mature RBC
Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) generated from anaerobic glycolyssi
What is the target tissue in Addision's disease
Adrenal gland
The force of attraction between an atnibody and a single antigenic determinant
Affinity
What proteins have the fastest electrophoretic mobility
Albumin
In the liver, methanol is metabolized by what to form what
Alcohol dehydrogenase; formaldehyde
Which hormone controls sodium reabsorption
Aldosterone
Which of the following is the major mineralocorticoid
Aldosterone
WHich of the following conditions is associated iwth hypkalemia
Alkalosis
Patients with the highest risk of mortality from cytomegalovirus are
Allograft transplant, seronegative patients who receive tissue from a seropositive donor
After cleaning the venipuncture site with alcohol, the phlebotomist should
Allow the alcohol to dry completely
Polypeptide chains are found in normal audlt hemoglobin A
Alpha and beta
Immunoglobulin molecules is made up of both heavy and light chains. - the light chains can be comprised of
Alpha and lambda
What name is given to the type of hemolysis that produces incomplete hemolysis and greening discoloration of the medium
Alpha hemolysis
An alkaline urine with a white tubrbitiy may be present due to
Amorphous phosphates
Reagin is characterized as
An antibody directed against cardiolipin
Which group of antibodies generally reacts most strongly at 4 degrees C
Anti-A Anti-P1 Anti-Leb Anti-M
Why would a unit of group O blood never be administrated to a Bombay patient
Anti-H in patient
Given the following red cell antigen frequencies: K-10% E-30% k-90% P 1-80% Which of the following red cell alloantibodies would be responsible for incompatible crossmatches with one 1 of 10 random donor units?
Anti-K
ABO serum testing is not routinely performed on cord blood or neonatal specimens because
Antibodies detectable in infant's serum are usually of maternal origin
Equivalence occurs when the
Antibody-binding sites approximately equal the antigen-binding sites, and the largest complexes form
EDTA is an
Anticoagulant
What substances produced by Group A Strep is responsible for producing type specific immunity
Antigen
In indirect hemagglutination testing
Antigen passively attached to RBC are bound by antibodies
Select the test the use IgG-sensitized Red cells (check cells)
Antiglobulin test
Failure to mix a specimen prior to inserting the reagent strip will primarily affect the
Blood reading
What is part of primary hemostasis
Blood vessels
The health risk of a chemical can be found in which color section of the NFPA symbol
Blue
Creatinine excretion correlates best with which parameters
Body weight
The hh genotype
Bombay
Pertussis (whooping cought) an epidemic disease, is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused
Bordetella species
Bacillus GS characteristic
Boxcar shape
In the condition Kernicterus, the abnormal accumulation of bilirubin occurs in which tissue
Brain
Serum alkaline phophatase activity is derived from all of the following organs except
Brain
Nocardia GS characteristic
Branching
What is the primary stain used in acid-fast stain
Bromthymol blue
Using Weiner nomenclature, a patient is r'. What Rh antigens does the patient possess
C, e
Which of the following is the recognition unit in the classical complement pathway
C1q
Which of the following is cleaved as a result of activation of the classical complement pathway?
C4
What is the C3 activation unit in the calssical complement pathway
C4b, C2a
Fahrenheit to Celsius formula
C=5/9 (F-32)
Which of the following is the best analyte to monitor for recurrence of ovarian cancer
CA- 125
Collection of capillary puncture, which test specimen is collected first
CBC
Leukocyte adherence deficiency is due to defect in
CD 18
Which of the following is used for colon cancer
CEA
What is the proper designation for the pluripotential stem cell that is a precursor for both granulocytes and erythrocytes cell lines
CFU-GEMM
A meddle-aged man has a WBC count of 80x 10^9/L with 90% lymphocytes and many smudge cells
CHronic lymphocytic leukemia
Prothrombin time test requires that the patient's plasma be combined with
Calcium and Thromboplastin
Tiny colorless, dumbell-shaped crystals found in alkaline urine sediment
Calcium carbonate
Which crystals may be found in acidic urine
Calcium oxalate
A patient with Pseudogout would be expected to have what kind crystals in their synovial fluid
Calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate
An international normalized ratio of 6.5 is obtained on a patient taking warfarin. what should be done
Call health care provider immediately
A gram-stained sputum smear revealed 25-50 squamous epithelial cells and 10-25 polymorphonuclear leukocytes per 100x field, as a lancet-shaped, gram positive cocci. many gram neg rods. What best course of actions
Call nursing station and request a new specimen
Which characteristic is not associated with B lymphocytes
Can directly lyse a foreign antigen
Formation of germ tubes persumptively identifies
Candida albicans
Formation of germ tubes presumptively ID
Candida albicans
Which of the following organisms causes thrush
Candida albicans
What are reported as number per LPF?
Casts
When using the glass slide and coverslip method, what might be missed if the coverslip is overflowed
Casts
Streptococcus pneumoniae GS characteristic
Cat eyes
Incrased transitional cells are indicative of
Catheterization and Malignancy
Histamine can
Cause obstructed airflow to the bronchioles
Hemolysis is paroxysmal nocutrnal hemoglobinuria
Caused by a Red cell membrane defect
The name of the process that promotes the attraction of phagocytic cells toward a foreign particle
Chemotaxis
Primary infection with Vericella-zoster result
Chicken pox
Corneybacterium diphterhiae GS characteristic
Chinese letters
Of the following media, which provides the factors, necessay for the growth of Haemophilus spp.
Chocolate agar
Which disease states are teardrop cells and abnormal paltelets most chracteristically seen
Chronic Myelocytic leukemia
A patient has an increased red count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit. What points to secondary polycythemia over polycythemia vera
Decreased arterial O2 saturation
Lab findings in hereditary spherocytosis don't include
Decreased osmotic fragility
Which platelet responses is most likely associated with Bernard soulier syndrome
Decreased platelet aggregation to ristcetin
Which of the following is likely to occur first in IDA
Decreased serum ferritin
Primary function of leukocytes as a whole
Defend body from nonself agents
Increased serum albumin concentrations are seen in which of the following conditions
Dehydration
Tuberculin skin test or PPD is based on
Delayed hypersensitivity cell-mediated immunity to certain antigenic components of the organism
Gram stain from a swab of a hand wound reveals Moderate gram positive coccii n chains Moderate large gram negative bacilli
PEA MacConkey
The use of the direct antiglobulin test is indicated in
Detection of alloantibodies in serum
Which of the following conditions is associated with hypernaturemia
Diabetes insipidus
A flagellate trophozoite that can be described as 9 to 12 um, with one to two nuclei with no nuclear pheripheral chromatin, a karyosome composed of four to eight large granules and ginely granular cytoplasm would most likely be
Dientamoeba fragillis
A urine's specific gravity is directly proportional to
Dissolved solids
Most appropriate screening test for detecing. Hemoglobin S
Dithionite solubility
Beta hemolytic, catalase positive, gram pos cocci is coagulase negative by slide coagulase test. What is next course of action
Do a tube coag test
Distinguish between an A1 and A2 blood type, which reagent is used
Dolichos biflorus lectin
You must draw a protime specimen from a patient with IVs in both arms. Which of the following is the best course of action
Draw below the IV
Which of the following best describes the correct collection and handling conditions for a blood ammonia measurement
Draw heparin tube, keep on ice, test immediately
Antibodies to which of teh following blood group system show dosage
Duffy
Which procedure is considered to be a screening procedure for the detection of HIV
ELISA
True concerning the Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
ESR is decreased during inflammatory conditions
Primary characteristic used to identify renal tubular epithelial cells
Eccentically located nucleus
The active accumulation of fluid within body cavities that caused by infection, malignancies, or inflammation damaging the vascular wall is known
Effusion
Which of the following would you find in a primry hyperparathyroidism case
Elevated serum calcium and decreased serum phophorus
A patient is suspected of having amebic dysentery. Upon microscopic examination of a fresh fecal specimen for ova and parasite, the following data were obtained: - Trophozoite of 25 µm - Progressive crawl - Evenly distributed peripheral chromatin - Finely granular cytoplasm This information probably indicates:
Entamoeba histolytica
Class of bacteria that is Gram negatve - normal flora of GI tract, gastroenteritis and enteric fevers, UTI and bacterial pneumonia
Enterobacteriaceae
An alpha-hemolytic streptococcus isolated from a wound is resistant to optochin and bacitracin, grows in 6.5% NaCl broth, and is PYR positive
Enterococcus
Bacterial species that can be described as able to grow in 6.5% NaCL and 40% bile, part of normal fecal flora of animals and humans, usually nonhemolytic and a major cause of nosocomial infections
Enterococcus faecalis
Which hormone is produced by the kidney and influences erythrocyte production
Erythropoietin
A patient has a platelet count of 1200. Many platelets are giant and have abnormal shapes. A mild anemia is present. Bone marrow has increased megakaryocytes in clusters; iron stores are present
Essential thrombocythemia
Select the main estrogen that is produced by the ovaries and is used to evaluate ovarian function
Estradiol
When a purified enzyme is used as a reagent, such as urease in the measurement of urea, the enzyme must be what concentration so that the reaction follows what order kinetics
Excess; first
Latent infections
Exist as a silent phase in which the agent is causing no notable effect
Celcius to Fahrenheit
F=9/5C+32
What important function does 2,3-biphosphoglycerate perform
Facilitates the delivery of oxygen to tissue
Fibrinogen factor
Factor 1
Stuart-Prower factor
Factor 10
How does hemophilia A differ from B
Factor 8 is deficient in Hem A and Factor 9 is deficient in Hem B
Which factor are found only in the alternative pathway
Factor B
What is used in the treatment of hemophilia A
Factor VIII concentrate
One of the key biochemical characteristic by Escherichia coli serogroup 0157 can be screened from stool specimen
Failure to ferment sorbitol
A patient has 30% Hemoglobin F. What can be eliminated
Four missing genes for alpha chain production
Which of the following forms of calcium is biologically active
Free ionized calcium
A completely Sickled cell is most commonly seen in which of these conditions
Homozygous HbSS
A transufsion reaction investigation should include all of the following except
Human leukocyte antigen type
What is the reagent used in the catalase test
Hydrogen peroxide
Calcium - 14mg/dl Phosphorus - 1mg/dl Most compatible diagnosis
Hyperparathyroidism
Which of the following is the primary mechanism of compension for metabolic acidosis
Hyperventilation
Hyperparathyroidism is most consistently associated with
Hypophosphatemia
A patient demonstrated the following symptoms: hyptension, tachycardia, cold or clammy skin, and cyanosis
Hypovolemic shock
Cold autoantibodies are typically of which specificity
I
Which of the following methods is commonly used for potassium measurment
ISE
What is the diagnosis of a child who has onset of bleeding signs and symptoms. Normal CBC and physical examination No family history
ITP
THe antibody that primarily protects body surfaces lined with mucous membranes such as the eyes and intestines
IgA
Group O patient was crossmatched with group B RBC. What phase of the corssmatch will first detect this incompatiblity
Immediate spin
Actions would be appropriate for the investigation of an initially prolonged PT test except
Immediately cancel the test and request a new sample
A transfusion reaction to erythrocyte antigens will activate what immunopathologic mechanisms
Immune cytolysis
Most useful classification system for acute lymphoid leukemia is based on
Immunophentoyping
One specific agar for Mycobacterium spp
Lowenstein-jennings
Cell-mediated immune responses such as attacking and killing microorganisma or host cells damaged or infected are carried out by
Lymphocytes of the T
What method is not used to detect and differentiate white blood cells in most hematology analyzer
Lysis of white cells with subsequent conversion to hemiglobincyanide followed by clorimetric determination
What test is used along with the MCV to morphologically classify anemias
MCHC
A thorough donor history is the only way to prevent
Malaria
What is the gold standard methodlogy for toxicology testing
Mass Spectrometry
What anomali is an autosomal dominant disorder characteried by irregularly sized in polymorphonuclear neutrophils abnormal giant platelets and often thrombocytopenia
May-Hegglin
Tests of pancreatic exocrine function include
Measurement of serum amylase and lipase activity
Which is the proper vein selection for venipuncture
Median cubital, cephalic, basilic
WHich is associated iwth Chediak-Higashi syndrome
Membrane defect of lysosomes
What cells are most common nucleated cell in normal adult bone marrow
Metamyelocyte
The form of hemoglobin that contains iron in the ferric rather than the ferrous state
Methemoglobin
WHat is the pathogenesis of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
Microthrombi and fibrin formed on damaged endothelail cells trap and break red cells
What is the purpose of a royal blue top
Minimize trace element contamination
Ringed sideroblasts are a reflection of iron-laden
Mitochondria
RBC indices obtained MVB = 88 fL MCH = 30 pg MCHC = 34 g/dL
Normocytic, normochromic
What is true of megakaryocytes as they mature
Nucleus becomes polyploidy
Which ABO phenotype selection contains the most H antigen and the least H antigen, respectively on the red cell's surface
O, A1B
If an individual has blood type O, what is a possivle genotype
OO only
A patient is observed to have a rise in temperature and chills during a transfusion. Transfusion is stopped and a posttrsfusion blood sample is carefully drawn.
Observe the color of serum and perform a direct antiglobulin test
Once a patient is stabilized on warfarin therapy , how often should they be monitored
Once a month
A semen sample for semen analysis should generally be received at the testing site within what peroid of time
One hour
What has a pyknowtic nucleus
Orthrochromic normoblast
Most appropriate screening test for hereditary spherocytosis
Osmotic fragility
Creatinine is formed from
Oxidation of creatine
A very samll, single-stranded DNA virus that causes a febrile illness with a rash and is called the fifth childhood disease after rubella, varicella and roseola
Parvovirus
Which type of immunity can create immediate protection
Passive artificial
Which type of immunity can create immediate protection?
Passive artificial
Rh immune globulin therapy in postpartum women provides
Passive protection
A gram negative rod was isolated from a wound infection caused by a bite from a pet cat
Pasteurella Multocida
Which of the following bacterial species is part of animal flora and is transmitted to humans during close animal contact, including bites
Pasteurella multocida
What test should be performed on a regular basis on patients receiving therapeutic heparin
Patial thromboplastin Time and platelet count
The drug choice for most streptococcal infections
Penicillin
An antibody screen on a patient with a prior history of transfusion was negative. The crossmatch, performed at immediate spin and antihuman globulin, was incompatible with 1 unit selected. The next step in the investigation would be to:
Perform a direct antiglobulin test on the incompatible unit
Ten days after the transfusion of 2 units, a patient had a 2 g/dL drop in hemoglobin and was slightly jaundice. No bleeding was found. What tests would indicate delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
Perform an antibody screen on the posttransfusion sample
The swarming gram-negative bacillus that can be described as oxidase-negative, nitrate-positive, indole-negative, H2S positive
Proteus mirabilis
Which test is most affected by tissue fluid contamination
Protime
Which organisms is most likely to be assocated with gas gangrene
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
The following urine results were obtained on a 25-year-old female: Color= amberAppearance = cloudySpecific Gravity= 1.015pH= 5.0Protein= 1+Glucose= negativeBlood= smallMicroscopic:Bacteria= manyWBC casts= fewWBC/HPF= 30-40 The results are most compatible with:
Pyelonephritis
WBC casts are primarily associated with
Pyelonephritis
Using Wiener nomenclature, a patient has D, C, e. how can be writen
R1
Why does plasmodium flaciparum infection resultresult in the most serious hemolysis of the various forms of malaria
RBC of all ages are invaded
Erysipelothrix infections in human characteristically produce
Raised lesions on skin
A chemistry analyzer that can perform multiple analyses on a single specimen during one run is referred to
Random access analyzer
Rh system antibodies characteristically given
Reactions that are enhanced with enzymes
The substance detected by the RPR assay?
Reagin
What urien color is produced by the presence of Porphobilinogen
Red
Antibody screening of the recipient is performed as a component of compatibility testing to detect
Red cell alloantibodies
Condition that cause an increased anion gap
Renal failure
Patient ahs a sudden drop in blood pressure. What is the sequence of RAAS
Renin, Angiotensinogen, angiotensin I, ACE, angiotensin II, Aldosterone, ADH
All of the following are pre-analytical factors EXCEPT
Reporting results
Why is glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase importatn for normal RBC survival
Required to regenerate reduced gluathione
A patient's blood gas results are - pH =7.26 - dco2 = 2.0mmol/L - HCO3= 29 mmol/L
Respiratory acidosis
If polychromasia is increased in the peripheral smear, the _____________ should be eleveated
Reticulocyte count
The philadelphia chromosome
Reults in a chimeric gene
Which conditions is associated with hypophosphatemia
Rickets
TRH stimulation test rules out the diagnosis of mild or subclinical hyperthyroidism if TRH infusion cause
Rise in plasma TSH
Which of the following would be considered most significant as it relates to serological testing
Rise of antibody titers is diagnostic
Which specimen collection shouldn't be used if urine cultures is also required
Routinely voided
What is the potential effect in a tube agglutination test if a red cell suspension with a concentration greater than 5% is used
False negative
When an antibody-coated antigen is phagocytized, what component of the antibody molecule must fit into a receptor on the phagocytic cell
Fc region
Leukocyte-poor RBCs are indicated for patients
Febrile transfusion reactions
Which of the following deficiencies is associated iwth neutral tube defects
Folate
Coefficient variation equation
SD/mean x 100
Presence of excessive rouleaux formation on a blood smear is often accompanied by an icnreased
SED rate
SDS shall be maintained and available to employees in the
Safety cabinet
The gram-negative bacillus that can be described as oxidase-negative, nitrate positive, indole-negative, citrate-positive, methyl red-positive, urease-negative, H2S-postiive
Salmonella enteritidis
ABH soluble antigens are determined by the presence of
Se gene
Which represents characteristic features of iron metaboilism in patients iwth anemia of a chronic disorder
Serum iron is decreased, transferrin saturation is decreased, TIBC is normal or decreased
Mature T cells with cerebrigorm, clefted nuclei found int he fskin and peripheral blood describe
Sezary cells
What condition is most associated iwth autosplenectomy
Sickle cell anemia
Speckled pattern relates to
Sm, RNP, SS-A, SS-B, hnRNP, others
Chemical symbol Na stands
Sodium
WHich electrolyte level best correlates with plasma osmolality
Sodium
Proteolytic enzymes should not be used to screen for antibodies
Some antigens are destroyed enzymes, which would cause the antibodies to be missed
If a 2.0M solution is diluted 1:10, which of the following is ture
The concentration of the dilution is 0.2M
The serum of some group A individuals may agglutinate group A1 cells
True
When maternal antibody strength using a doubling dilutions, an increase in titer from 8 to 32 is considered a signfiicant rise in titer
True
The etiologic agent for Chagas disease
Trypanosoma cruzi
When performing a Kovac's indole test, the substrate must contain
Tryptophane
A nonphotochromogen that grows best at 42* and is highly resistant to antibiotics is Mycobacterium
Tuberculosis
In an antibody ID panel, only one red cell was negative at the antihuman globulin phase. On ruling out and matching the pattern, an anti-k was ID
Two more k-negative cells should be tested
A 16 year old female was taken to the emergency room in a coma by her mother. She had lost 25 pounds in 2 months; she was always thirsty; drinking a lot of water and running to the bathroom. Her laboratory results are shown below. - Results: (indicates reference range)pH: 7.21 (7.35-7.45)pCO2: 23 mm Hg (35-45 mm Hg)Glucose: 742 mg/dL (60-110 mg/dL)Urine ketone: positiveUrine glucose: large
Type I diabetes melitus
How would you interpret the results if both the anti-D reagent and the Rh control were 2+ agglutination reactions
Unable to determine without further testing
What error was probably made if red cells are seen when attempting to manually count white blood cells on a hemocytometer
Unopete was not allowed to sit for 10 Minuetes for complete RBC lysis
Bilirubin is reduced to what in the small intestine
Urobilinogen
A 44-year-old woman has a hemoglobin level of 6.1 g/dL. White blood cell and platelet counts are within normal levels. The patient is group O D-negative with a negative antibody screen. Crossmatches are compatible. However, 15 minutes after the first transfusion is started, she experiences erythema and hives. What type of transfusion reaction is occurring?
Urticarial
What transfusion reactions has the highest incidence
Urticarial
The radioallergosorbent test
Uses antigen specific IgE antibody
What characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus
Usually occurs after age 40
The selective medium thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose agar is especially formulated for isolating what pathogen from stool cultures
Vibrio
Scurvy is associated with deficiency of
Vitamin C
Oral anticoagulation is based
Vitamin K antagonism
Which one of the following vitamins would be least affected by long peroids of fat malabsorption
Vitmaine C
On what does factor 8 depend on for stability
Von Willebrand factor
Results obtained on a patient with inherited autosomal dominant trait Normal PT and APTT Prolonged Bleeding Time Abnormal Platelet adhesiveness
Von Willebrand's disease
What is necessary for platelet adhesion to collegan
Von willebrand factor
A person submitted a urine specimen following a strenuous exercise routine. What would be normally seen except 1. Hyaline casts 2. Granular casts 3. RBC casts 4. WBC casts
WBC casts
A test that can be used as a confirmatory test for urobilinogen
Watson-Schwartz test
Which of the following is not a cause of donor deferral 1. Weighs 112 pounds 2. Currently pregnant 3. Donated blood 45 days ago 4. lived in UK from 1980 to 1996
Weighs 112 pounds
When using low-protein anti-D reagents an Rh control is indicated
When a sample/donor unit types as AB positive
Graft between individuals of different species
Xenograft
A 32-year-old male was seen in the ER with symptoms of lower right quadrant abdominal pain and diarrhea. A CBC showed a leukocytosis with an increased number of neutrophils. He was admitted, and a stool culture was obtained. The culture showed many bipolar-staining, gram negative bacilli, which were oxidase negative, citrate negative, and indole negative. The TSI reaction was acid over acid, but there was no evidence of gas or H2S production. The organism was positive for urease and ONPG and negative for phenylalanine. The characteristic symptomatology and the biochemical reactions confirmed that the etiologic agent was:
Yersinia enterocolitica
Trace element plays a key role in protein and nucleic acid synthesis
Zinc
Weak D test detects
weak D antigen
Antibody class and antibody subclass are determined by
constant region of heavy chain
An India Ink preparation is used to ID
cryptococcus neoformans in CSF
Convert 250 microliters to mililiters
0.25 ml
What is the most common infective agent to be transmitted through blood transfusion that results in morbidity and mortality
Bacteria
Which organisms is not an aerobic organism
Bacteroides
The IMViC reaction of ++-- is characteristic
E.. coli
Which of the following will give the best overall picture of a patient's iron stores
Ferritin
Which is decrased in disseminated intravascular coagulation
Fibrinogen
Phenotypes is heterozygous
Fy(a+b+)
What is a characteristic of Bernard-Soulier Syndrome
Giant platelet
Creatinine clearance is used to estimate the
Glomerular filtration rate
Spotted reaction on the reagent strip reaction for blood indicates
Hematuria
A wet mount and gram stain of vaginal secretions from a patient who has bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerdella vaginalis will reveal
Large, squamous epithelial cells with numberous attached pleomorphic gram-variable or gram-negative coccobacilli and rods
A patient has 20% eosinophils. What can't it be
Pertussis
Which of the following readies the uterus for implantation of an embryo
Progesterone
Inappropriate formation ofplatelets or fibrin clots that obstructs blood vessels
Thrombosis
Patients who have a deficiency of prtoein C or protein S have which type of disorder
Thrombotic
Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with autoantibodies 1. acquired hemolytic anmeia 2. chronic thyroidits 3. Lupus erythematosus 4. transfusion reaction
Transfusion reaction
Which of the following test requires a fasting specimen
Triglyceridies
What would be a probable diagnosis for a habitual alcoholic with slight elevations in PT and APTT tests
Liver disease
What are the major heatopoietic sites in fetus and adult
Liver/Bone marrow
Jaffee alkaline picrate reaction for creatinine can be made more specific for creatinine with the use
Lloyd's reagent
What would not be represented in the usual classification of anemia
Normocytic, hyperchromic
Sulfosalicylic acid can be used to confirm the result of which test on the urine reagent strip
Protein
Aids in preventing excess clotting
Protein C
Patient ab - .740 Standard AB - .860 Concentration of standard - 200mg/dl What is the concentration of the unknown
172 mg/dL
According to CLSI, a heel puncture lancet should not puncture deeper than
2.0
Convert 10 mg/dL of calcium to mmole/L (mw-40)
2.5
Which of the following values is the threshold critical value for low plasma potassium
2.5mmol/L
How many mililters of 0.5 M NaOH are required to make 50 mililiters of 0.2M NaOH
20
How many militers of 0.25 NaOH are needed to make 100ml of a 0.05M solution of NaOH
20
Calculate the MCH. RBC 3.0 x 10^12/L Hgb 6g/dL HCT 20%
20 fg
An unexpected finding in chronic myeloid leukemia
20% blasts in the peripheral blood
What substances are not allowed to filter through glomerulus in significant amounts
Proteins and cells
a 1:100 dilution is made and the 4 cornor squaares are counted. 95 WBC are counted on one side and 89 on the other side
23 X 10^9/L
According to AABB standards, fresh frozen plasma must be infused within what peroid of time following thawing
24 hours
Difinition of agglutination
- Visible expression of the aggregation of antigens and antibodies - Formation of a framework in which antigen particles or molecules alternate with antibody molecules - Describe the aggregation of particulate test antigens
Which temperatures can be used to store fresh frozen plasma
-20C
The storage temperature for frozen RBC
-80
What is the MCH if the hematocrite is 20%, the RBC is 2.4 and the hemoglibn is 5 g/dL
21 pg
The optimum storage temperature for platelets
22C
Which of the following is the average volume of urine excreted by an andult in 24 hours
1500ml
When a unit of packed RBC's is split using the open system, each half-unit must be issued within:
24 hours
Calculate LDL cholesterol concentration if total cholesterol is 230 mg/dL Triglyceride is 140 mg/dL and the HDL cholesterol is 50.0
152 mg/dL
Examine the minimum inhibitory concentration tray shown blow and determine the MIC for gentamicin
16 g/ml
Tourniquet must not be on longer than
1 min
Total WBC count is 22. 25 nRBC per 100 WBCs are seen. What is the corrected WBC count
17.6 x 10^9/L
Using Rosenfield terminology, a patient has Dce/dCe. how would it be right
1, 2, -3, 4, 5
Which factors are consumed in clotting and therefore absent in serum
1,2,5,8,13
To dilute a serum specimen 1 to 5 there would be what parts serum what parts DI water.
1,4
The TORCH IgM and IgG assay includes detection of all of the following except 1. Infectious mononucleosis 2. Cytomegalovirus 3. Epstein-barr virus 4. rubella
1. Infectious mononucleosis
Unacceptable quality control reesults for the antiglobulin test performed in est tubes may be noticed
1. the reagent used were improerly stored 2. Technologist performing the test was never trained 3. Preventive meaintenance has not be perfomred on the cell washer
Calculate the absolute lymphocyte count. RBC 3.0 x 10^12/L WBC 7.0 x 10 ^9/L Neutrophils 56% Lyphocytes 23% Monocytes 14% Eosinophil 6% Basophil 1%
1.6 x 10^9/L
A three-fold serial dilution is performed using 5 tubes. The first tube contains undiluted sample and dilution for tube 5.
1/81
How much HCL is needed to make 100 mL of a 0.1 M solution of HCL from a 1.0 M solution of HCL
10 mL
How many grams of H2SO4 are in 750mL of 3M H2SO4
120g
A 1:10 dilution is made of a CSF sample. Four squares for a total 8 squres and a total 100 cells what is count
1250
Frequency of the D-negative phenotype in the population
15%
Patient M.M. was admitted to the hospital with acute bleeding. Anti-E was detected in the patient's serum. Four E-negative units of blood were crossmatched for the patient. The units were compatible at immediate spin and following the antiglobulin test. After the antiglobulin test was performed, IgG sensitized red cells gave a 2+ agglutination reaction. The proper interpretation of this 2+ agglutination reaction is the:
Antihuman globuin washing procedure was adequate
Which of the following would be considered a significant finding in Grave's disease
Antithyoglobulin antibody
Which apoprotein is inversely related to risk for coronary heart disease
Apoprotein A-1
Synovial fluid is collected
Arthrocentesis
Anaphylaxis is characterized by all except 1. Associtated with a significant increase in eosinophils in the circulating blood 2. It can cause death due to asphyxiation 3. Massive release of histaine from mast cells and basophil 4. Prior sensitization to an allergen
Associtated with a significant increase in eosinophils in the circulating blood
Which of the following vitamins is not a fat-soluble vitamin
B1
Which assay is performed to diagnose congestive heart failure
BNP
What are the possible ABo genotypes of offspring from parents whose genotypes are OO and AB
BO and AO
Suspect spore-forming gram-positive bacilli that are hemolytic, motile, and penicillin-resistant - produce a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar
Bacillus Cereus
luid from a cutaneous black lesion was submitted for routine bacteriological culture. After 18 hours of incubation at 35C there was no growth on MacConkey agar, but 3+ growth on sheep blood agar. The colonies were nonhemolytic, 4-5 mm in diameter, and off-white with a ground glass appearance. Each colony had an irregular edge with comma-shaped outgrowths that stood up like "beaten egg whites" when gently lifted with an inoculating loop. A gram-stained smear of a typical colony showed large, gram positive, rectangular rods.
Bacillus anthracis
When a leukocyte differential smear made from a cerebrospinal fluid specimen with an elevated leukocyte count reveals an increase in polymorphonuclear cells, may indicate
Bacterial
Toxic granulation, Dhole bodies and vacuolization in neutrophils are often found in
Bacterial infection
Why is the absolute neutrophil count monitored closely in patients receiving chemotherapy
Bacterial infection becomes a possiblity when the ANC is <1.0 x 109/L
The organism that is a strict anaerobe, non-motile gram-negative bacillus, occuring in abscesses and associated with peritonitis
Bacteroides
What is not a componenent of a basic single beam spectrophotometer
Beam splitter
Lymphocytes become transformed when they are
Being stimulated by an antigen
Amber color of urine is primarily due to
Bilirubin
Which of the following urine results is most apt to be changed by prolonged exporure to light
Bilirubin
Epstein-barr virus is transmitted primarily by
Close contact with infectious oral-pharyngeal secretions
CCFA is used in the isolation of
Clostridium botulinum
An anaerobic, spore-forming, gram positive bacillus isolated from a deep wound of the leg is most probably
Clostridum perfringens
Staphylococcus GS characteristic
Cluster of grapes
Renal threshold is best described as
Concentration as which substance in the blood spills into urine
Which disease is characterized by primary hyperaldosteronism caused by adrenal adenoma, carcinoma, or hyperplasia
Conn's disease
Aerobic bottle has Staph epi on 7 day subcultre Indicates
Contaminant
Urine reagent strips should be stored in a
Cool dry air
Clinitest reaction is based on which principle
Copper reduction
Which organism that is commonly cultured from the nasopharynx of healthy people but is rarely pathogenic
Corneybacterium species
Which of the following is known to cause Q fever
Coxiella
Which blood componenet contains the most factor VIII concentration relative to the unit volume
Cryoprecipitated AHF
An HIV-positive patient began to show signs of menigitis. SPinal fluid was colelcted and cultured for bacteria and fungus. A budding, encapsulated yeast was recovered. Which organism is consistent with this information
Cryptococcus neoformans
Iontophoresis is a the tecnique used in the diagnosis of
Cystic fibrosis
Which of the following is an abnormal crystal described as a hexagonal plate
Cystine
To be considered a candidate for Rh immune globulin, the moster is _______ and the infant is ____
D-negative, D-positive
A patient's blood smear shows a moderate number of spherocytes and polychromasia. - Distinguish warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia from herediatary spherocytosis
DAT
Patient PT and APTT prolonged Decraesed fibrinogen Decrased platelets Increased fibrin split products
DIC
Howell-jolly bodies are composed of
DNA
Megaloblastic anemias are caused by a defect in the synthesis
DNA
What set of laboratory results is consistent with hemolytic anemia
Decrased erythrocyte survival; increased catabolism of heme; decreased haptoglobin levels
Pancytopenia is a term that means
Decrease in all cells
Most sensitive marker for alcoholic liver disease
GGT
Platelet membrane receptor binds fibrinogen and supports platelet aggregation
GP IIb/IIIa
Zollinger-ellison syndrome is characterized by large elevation
Gastrin
Which antimicrobial agent acts by inhbiting protein synthesis
Gentamicin
Which of these tests are most affected if the patient is not fasting
Glucose and Triglycerides
Which enzyme is responsible for the conjugation of bilirubin
Glucuronyl transferase
Staphylococcus Description
Gram positive cocci, Usually in clusters
Enterococcus Description
Gram positive cocci, ususally in chains
Corynebacterium description
Gram positive rods, non-spore forming
Bacillus description
Gram positive rods, spore forming
Organisms belonging to the genus Neisseria
Gram-negative diploccci
An individual presents with the following typing results: Anti-A = 4+, Anti-B = 0, Anti-A,B = 4+, A1 cells = 0, B cells = 4+ Correctly interpret the ABO type of this patient.
Group A
Beta-hemolytic streptococci that are bacitracin-sensitive and CAMP negative
Group A
Given the following ABO phenotyping data: FORWARD - Anti-A: 2+mF - Anti -B: O REVERSE - A1 cells: 0 - B cells: 3+ \ What could be a plausible explanation for this discrepancy?
Group O blood produces given to group A
Given the following ABO phenotyping data Forward - Anti-A 2+mf - Anti-B: 0 Reverse: A1 cells: 0 - B cells: 3+
Group O blood products given to group A
What type of blood should be given in an emergency transfusion when there is no time to type the recipient's sample
Group O, Rh negative packed cells
A catheterized urine sample was inoculated using 0.01 ml loop - 68 colonies grew after 48 hours - small translucent nonhemolytic organism grew on blood agar but not MAC - small gram positive, catalase negative cocci
Growth of 6800 CFU/mL of strep Sp
The antigen marker most closely associated with transmissibiity of HBV infections
HBe
Which of the following statements about high-frequency antigens is correct?
High-frequency antigens are common, but it's difficult to ID their corresponding antibodies
Granules that basophils contain are composed
Histamine
A Beta-Lactamase test is performed routinely on what organism
Haemophilus influenzae
SIngle most important way to prevent the spread of infection in healthcare facility
Handwashing
A traveler is being evaluated at a local hospital for gastroinestinal pain, fever and diarrhea. They just came back from Central America. Increased ALT, AST, and Bilirubin
Hav-IgM
An ammonia-liek odor is characteristically associated with urine from patients who
Have a proteus sp infection
Which hepatitis B serologic marker is the classic first indication of a hepatitis B infection?
HbsAg
What patietns represents an acceptable donor
Hct is 41, BP is 110/80, Temp is 99.4, Pulse is 65, Age is 55, and Sex is male
Prolonged tourniquet application may cause a change in blood composition primarily becuase
Hemoconcnetration
Iron is physiologically active only in the ferrous form
Hemoglobin
A 4 year old child becomes very sick after eating undercooked ground beef. kidney function is elevated. Thrombocytopenia and few schistocytes
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Renal failure is a prominent feature
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Patient Bleeding time and PT normal APTT prolonged APTT 1:1 mixing study corrected platlet aggregation Normal with ristocetin, ADP, Collagen and epinephrine
Hemophilia A
Only acceptable anticoagulant for a calcium determination
Heparin
Thrombin time will be prolonged in the resence of all the following except 1. elevated fibrinogen degradation products 2. heparin 3. Factor 1 deficiency 4. Factor 2 deficiency
Heparin
Which anticoagulant inhibits thrombin
Heparin
PST tube contains
Heparin and gel
Blood ammonia levels are usually measure in order to evaluate
Hepatic coma
Nucleic acid tests are used to screen
Hepatitis C virus, West nile virus and HIV
Moderate to marked target cells are found on a blood smear. What can be eliminated
Hereditary Spherocytosis
Cells with a slit instead of a round central pallor can be found in all of the following
Hereditary spherocytosis
Varicella-zoster virus, Epstein-Barr virus, and cytomegalovirus are included in this widely disseminated group of viruses
Herpes viruses
Which of the following is the reference method for measuring serum glucose
Hexokinase
The M:E ratio in chronic myelocytic leukemia
High
Systemic lupus erythrematosus patients often have which of the following test results
High titers of DNA antibody
Patients who develop severe sepsis or septic shock commonly have what plasma lactic acid values
Increased
WHat do all chronic myeloproliferative disorders share
Increased blood cells; overlapping clinical and laboratory features
Major actions of angiotensin II inculde
Increased vasoconstriction
In a patient with suspected primary hyperthroidism associated with Graves' diease, one would expect the following laboratory serum results: T4 _________ TSH ___________
Increased, Decreased
Lipemic sample
Indicates non fasting sample
The phase of the agglutination reaction is important in the interpretation of the antibody screen or antibody ID panel
Indicates the class of atnibody
In a competitive immunoassay the final reaction product is _________ proportional to the amount of patient atnigen?
Indirectly
Factors commonly involved in producing anemia in patients with chronic renal disease include
Ineffective erythropoiesis
WHy are infants with beta-thalassemia major not ill until approximately 6 months of age
Infants are protected by their high concentration of fetal hemoglobin
An increased reticulocyte count may be found in all conditions except 1. hemolytic anemias 2. following acute hemorrhage 3. Satisfactory response to therapy for pernicious anemia 4. inflammatory response
Inflammatory response
Artificial passive immunity is achieved by
Injection of specific antibody
The presence of schistocytes in the peripheral blood indicates which processes
Intravascular hemolysis
Absorption of Vitamin B12 in the stomach and gut requires the presence
Intrinsic factor
POCT tests classified as waived by government standards don't include
Ionized calcium
Transferrin receptors can be measured and are elevated when
Iron stores are decreased
When 5 grams of glucose is added to 100 mL of water
It is a w/v solution
All of the following are true statements about IgM except 1. It is produced during a primary antibody response 2. It is capable of crossing the maternal-fetal placental barrier 3. It has the largest molecular weight of al the immunoglboulin classes 4. fixes complment
It is capable of crossing the maternal-fetal placental barrier
Plasma proteins are primarily synthesized in the
Liver
What organ is associated with production of majority of clotting factor
Liver
RA can be distringuished from SLE on the basis of which of the following
Joint pain
Which of the following bacteria is positive for oxidase?
Klebsiella pneumonia
Most likely cause for serum/plasma to appear "milky" is the presence of
LDL
A person who inherits the Le, Se, and H genes will have red cells that phenotype
Le(a-b+)
Which one of the following crystals is NOT found in normal urine 1. Triple phosphate 2. Ammonium biurate 3. Calcium oxalate 4. Leucine
Leucine
A patient admitted to the hospital for ongoing fever produces the following laboratory results: RBC count: 3.56 x 1012/L WBC count: 57.5 x 109/L Platelet count: 375,000/uL Differential count: 3 blasts, 10 myelocytes, 6 metamyelocytes, 12 bands, 64 segs, 4 lymphocytes, and 1 monocyteLAP score = 155 Which of the following conditions correlates closely with this patient's results?
Leukemoid reaction
THe leukocyte alkaline phosphatase activity is increased
Leukemoid reaction
Which of the following is characteristic of an exudates effusion
Leukocyte count greater than 1000 WBC/uL
What is generally considered equivalent to CMV seronegative RBC for use in an exchange transfusion to a newborn
Leukoreduced RBC
For which of the following tubes is the blood-to-additive ratio most critical
Light blue top
Which of the following tubes contains an anticoagulant that works by binding calcium
Light blue top
WHich of the following tubes are in the proper order of draw for the vacuated tube method
Light blue, red, green
Which bacteria exhibit a tumbling motility
Listeria monocytogenes
Isolation of a small gram-positive, catalase-postive rod with a narrow zone of beta hemolysis isolated from blood or CSF should be used as strong presumptive evidence
Listerosis
Which of the following is used primarily for the treatment of manic-depression
Lithium
What is characteristic of platelet disorders
Mucous membrane hemorrhages
Malignant proliferation of plasma cells with osteolytic bone lesions and the presence of monoclonal immunoglobulin in the serum
Multiple myeloma
All are capable of causing tuberculosis except 1. Mycobacterium avium 2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 3. Mycobacterium bovis 4. Mycobacterium africanum
Mycobacterium avium
Which agent lacks a cell wall and is the smallest known free-living form?
Mycoplasma
Which of the following is known as "walking pneumonia"
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
What is the earliest ID cell in the granulcoyte maturation sequence
Myelocyte
Which of the following is the earliest biochemical marker of mycardial infraction
Myoglobin
Respiratory Syncytial virus is best isolated using
Nasopharyngeal aspirate
Which immune system cells destroy infected or malignant host cell
Natural killer cells
The antiglobulin test was performed using gel technology. A button of cells was observed at the bottom of the microtube following centrifugation.
Negative reaction
Test results are characteristic of DIC except
Negative test for degradation products
Bone marrow slide shows foam cells ranging from 20 to 100 um in size with vacuolated cytoplasm containing sphingomyelin and is faintly PAS psotive. Cell type is most characteristic of
Neimann-Pick disease
Oval fat bodies and fatty casts are characteristic urine sediment constituents in patients
Nephrotic syndrome
Which patient group is most susceptible to bleeding because of a deficiency of vitamin K-dependent proteins
Newborns
When the glucose result on a urine specimen from an infant is negative on the urine chemical reagent strip. Can the specimen be negative for other reducing substances
No
A patient has a plasma myoglobin level of 10ug/L at admission. Three hours later its at 14 and troponin I is 0.04
No evidence of myocardial or skeletal muscle injury
A technologist was being trained in a different area of the blood bank and noticed that the person training her had not recorded the results of a test. To be helpful, she carefully recorded the results she saw at a later time, using the technologist's initials. Is this acceptable procedure?
No; she should have brought the error to the technologist's attention
When group O blood is not available for transfusion, what is the next alternative
None
Evaluation of adrenal function - found that morning eval is higher then evening
Normal findings
A patient has a WBC of 15.0. Correct interpretation
Normal for an infant, leukocytosis for an adult
How would the RBCs appear on the peripheral blood smear if the red cell indices obtained on a patient are as follows: MCV 88.5 f1 MCH 30.2 pg MCHC 33.1 %
Normochromic, Normocytic
Which condition produces the highest elevation of serum lactate dehydrogenase
Pernicious anemia
The anticonvulsant used to control tonic-clonic seizures is
Phenytoin
Which is an example of the most common type of error associated with fatal transfusion reactions
Phlebotomist labels Mr. Smith's tubes with Mr. Johnson's information
What is most common clot detection principle used for coagulation testing
Photo-optical
Temperature of a shipment of RBC units that were received from the local blood center was recorded as 8*C.
Place the units in inventory because the temperature is acceptable
Regan isoenzyme has the same properties as alkaline phosphatase that origninates in
Placenta
The difference between serum and plasma
Plasma contains fibrinogen
What substance digests the fibrin clot after healing
Plasmin
In which malaria species do you see a characteristic band in the trophozoite stage
Plasmodium malariae
What is normal in a patient regularly taking aspirin
Platelet count
ID the platelet receptor and and plasma protein required for normal platelet adhesion
Platelet receptor GP Ib/IX/V plasma protein von WIllebrand factor
A bleeding time is used to evaluate the activity
Platelets
Which products are tested for bacterial contmaination following storage
Platelets
What is the last erythrocyte precursor capable of cell division
Polychromatic normoblast
What reagent contains antibodies to multiple antigenic epitopes
Polyclonal-based
How should the production of a blue or purple color on the test pad of an Ictotest be interpreted
Positive for bilirubin
What condition is suggested by jaundiced patient experiencing a marked rise in alkaline phosphatase, cojugated bilirubin and a slight rise in ALT
Post-hepatic obstruction
Not safe site for heel puncutre
Posterior curvature of the heel
An electrolyte panel consits of
Potassium, Sodium, Chloride, Carbon dioxide
Results of patient PT normal BT normal Prolonged APTT APTT 1:1 mixing study no correction
Presence of a circulating inhibitor
Pernicious anemia can be distinguished from folate deficiency by
Presence of autoantibodies to intrinsic factor
An antiglycolytic agent
Prevents the breakdown of glucose
The serum TSH level is decreased
Primary hyperhyroidism
The structure that represents the sequence of a polypeptide chian
Primary structure
What special handling does a bilirubin specimen requrire
Protection from light
Rose gardener's diseae is cause
Sporothrix schenckii
Largest cells in the urine sediment
Squamous epithelial cells
Which bacteria is associated with dog
Staph intermedius
Novobiocin susceptiblity test is used for the ID
Staphylococcus saphrophytcus
Choose the group of bacteria that is described as catalse-postive, gram positive cocci that grow facultatively anaerobic and that form
Staphylococus
Ethylhydrocupreine hydrochloride (optochin) is a chemical used to differentiate
Steptococcus pneumonia from alpha hemolytic streptococci
Bacterial species that can be described as able to hydrolyze hippurate, beta hemolytic, a major cause of neonatal menigitis and spesis and producer of CAMP factor
Strep Agalactiae
This product of Group A strep is responsible for the beta hemolysis on the blood agar plate
Streptolysin S
Streptococcus GS characteristic
String of pearls
What is the one test reuslt that is most specific in establishing an ID of Staph Aureus
Strongly coagulase positive
The most common larvae found in stool specimens
Strongyloides stercoralis
Qualitative hemoglobinopathies cause disease by producing hemoglobin chains that are
Structurally altered
A 15 year old boy presents complaining of severe headaches; he has a white count of 76.0 x 10^9/L, and a hematocrit of 33%. When a white cell differential is performed, most of the nucleated cells are blasts CD2, CD4, and CD8
T cell acute lymphoid leukemia
A two year old child with a decreased serum T4 is described as bing somewhat dwarfed, stocky and overweight and having coarse features.
TSH
A technologist IDs an anti-E. The only antibody not yet ruled out is anti-c. What steps taken next?
Test the patients serum against additional cells that are c+ and E-
Why is incubation omitted in the direct antihuman globulin test
The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo
Facility does not validate a refrigerator before use What is a potential outcome
The facility is in violation of current good manufacturing practices and could be cited by the food and drug administration
Three sets of blood cultures were obtained. The aerobic bottle of one set had grwoth of Staph epidermidis on the 7 day subculture
The organism is most likely a contaminant
Why is it dangerous to transfuse a person with type O blood with A unit
The patient's anti-A would destroy the donor's cells with severe consequences to patient
Chloride is the major extracellular anion in plasma
True
Nosocominal infections are those that
are contracted in the hospital environment
Urine specimen comes to the laboratory 7 hours after it is obtained. it is acceptable for cultureif
at 4-7C
Depletion of serum haptoglobin indicates
intravascular hemolysis
Which is the first detectable viral antibody in the blood of a patient with HIV infection?
p24
The most valuable initial aid for the ID of crystals in a urine specimen
pH
Which of the following would be affected by allowing a urine specimen to remain at room temp for 3 hours
pH
Fletcher factor
prekallikrein
Compatibility procedures will address all of the following except to:
prevent antibody formation
Increases in blood ammonia levels would be expected in which of the following conditions
reye's syndrome
What phenotypes will react with anti- f
rr
The most appropriate screening test for paroxysmal nocturanl hemoglobinuria
sucrose hemolysis
Two CSF specimen Tube 1 = lots of RBCs Tube 2 = less RBCs
traumatic tap
