Extremity Procedures - Rad Review

In the 15° medial oblique projection of the ankle, demonstrates the entire: 1. talofibular joint. 2. tibiotalar joint. 3. ankle mortise.

1, 2, and 3

Muscles that contribute to the formation of the rotator cuff include the 1. subscapularis. 2. infraspinatus. 3. teres minor.

1, 2, and 3

Tangential axial projections of the patella can be obtained in which of the following positions? 1. supine flexion 45° (Merchant) 2. prone flexion 90° (Settegast) 3. prone flexion 55° (Hughston)

1, 2, and 3

A compression fracture of the posterolateral humeral head and associated with an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint is called a(an)?

Hill-Sachs defect

To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45 degrees?

toward the affected side

The first carpometacarpal joint is formed by the articulation of the base of the first metacarpal and the?

trapezium

Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals? 1. The heads of the first row of phalanges 2. The cuboid 3. The cuneiforms

2 and 3 only

Which of the following is (are) distal to the tibial plateau? 1. Intercondyloid fossa 2. Tibial condyles 3. Tibial tuberosity

2 and 3 only

Which of the following is (are) valid criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm? 1. The radius and ulna should be superimposed proximally and distally. 2. The coronoid process and radial head should be superimposed. 3. The radial tuberosity should face anteriorly.

2 and 3 only

Which of the following projection(s) require(s) that the shoulder be placed in internal rotation? 1. AP humerus 2. AP thumb 3. Lateral humerus

2 and 3 only

Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles be perpendicular to the IR? 1. AP humerus 2. Lateral forearm 3. Internal rotation shoulder

2 and 3 only

In the AP knee projection of an asthenic patient who measures less than 19 cm from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) to tabletop, the CR should be directed?

5 degrees caudad

The medical term for congenital clubfoot is?

talipes

The term varus refers to?

turned inward

The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the?

epiphysis

The functions of which body system include mineral homeostasis, protection, and triglyceride storage?

skeletal

For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?

0 degrees (perpendicular) -The knee is formed by the proximal tibia, the patella, and the distal femur, which articulate to form the femorotibial and femoropatellar joints. Body habitus will change the relationship of the knee-joint space with the tabletop/IR considerably. The CR should be directed to ½ inch below patellar apex (knee joint). The direction of CR depends on distance between the ASIS and tabletop/IR. When this distance is up to 19 cm (thin pelvis), the CR should be directed 3 to 5 degrees caudad; when the distance is between 19 to 24 cm, the CR is directed vertically/perpendicular (0 degrees); when the distance is greater than 24 cm (thick pelvis), the CR is directed 3 to 5 degrees cephalad.

A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees, with epicondyles perpendicular to IR. The CR is directed 45 degrees medially. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best? 1. Radial head 2. Capitulum 3. Coronoid process

1 and 2 only

An AP oblique (lateral rotation) of the elbow demonstrates which of the following? 1. Radial head free of superimposition 2. Capitulum of the humerus 3. Olecranon process within the olecranon fossa

1 and 2 only

Conditions in which there is a lack of normal bone calcification include 1. rickets. 2. osteomalacia. 3. osteoarthritis.

1 and 2 only

Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the 1. atlantoaxial joint 2. radioulnar joint 3. temporomandibular joint

1 and 2 only

In the lateral projection of the foot, the 1. plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR. 2. metatarsals are superimposed. 3. talofibular joint should be visualized.

1 and 2 only

When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained? 1. With humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular 2. With forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular 3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular

1 and 2 only

Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the knee joint? 1. Femur 2. Tibia 3. Patella

1 and 2 only

Adult orthoroentgenography, or radiographic measurement of long bones of an upper or lower extremity, requires which of the following accessories? 1. Bell-Thompson scale 2. Bucky tray 3. Cannula

1 and 2 only -Adult orthoroentgenography is the radiographic measurement of long-bone length. It can be required on adults or children having extremity length (especially leg) discrepancies. This can be performed most easily with the use of the metallic Bell-Thompson scale secured to the x-ray tabletop adjacent to the limb being examined (or between both limbs for simultaneous bilateral examination).

Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints? 1. The procedure is performed in the erect position. 2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints. 3. The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected.

1 and 2 only -Evaluation of the acromioclavicular joints requires bilateral AP or PA erect projections with and without the use of weights. Weights are used to emphasize the minute changes within a joint caused by separation or dislocation. Weights should be anchored from the patient's wrists rather than held in the patient's hands because this encourages tightening of the shoulder muscles and obliteration of any small separation.

Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa? 1. Prone, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa 2. Supine, IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia 3. Prone, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5 to 10 degrees lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint

1 and 2 only -Statement number 1 describes the PA axial projection (Camp-Coventry method) for demonstration of the intercondyloid fossa. Statement number 2 describes the AP axial projection (Béclère method) for demonstration of the intercondyloid fossa. The positions are actually the reverse of each other. Statement number 3 describes the method of obtaining a PA projection of the patella.

Which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle? 1. Clavicular body 2. Acromioclavicular joint 3. Sternocostal joint

1 and 2 only -The AP projection of the clavicle should demonstrate the clavicular body/shaft and its two extremities: the sternal extremity and its associated sternoclavicular articulation, and the acromial extremity and its associated acromioclavicular articulation. The sternocostal joint is the articulation between the sternum and rib and is not delineated in the AP clavicle image.

The following procedure can be employed to better demonstrate the carpal scaphoid: 1. elevate hand and wrist 20°. 2. place wrist in ulnar deviation. 3. angle CR 20° distally (toward fingers).

1 and 2 only -The carpal scaphoid is a curved, boat-shaped, bone, and is therefore superimposed on itself ("self-superimposition") in a routine PA projection. Since the scaphoid is the most frequently fractured carpal, special projections have been developed to help overcome self-superimposition. Stecher (in 1937) recommended elevating the hand and wrist 20° and using a perpendicular CR directed to the scaphoid. Effective variations of this position include employing ulnar deviation and angling the CR 20° proximally (toward the elbow). The 20° tube angulation would be used in place of the elevated hand/wrist.

In the AP projection of the ankle, the 1. plantar surface of the foot is vertical. 2. fibula projects more distally than the tibia. 3. calcaneus is well visualized.

1 and 2 only -To demonstrate the ankle joint space to best advantage, the plantar surface of the foot should be vertical in the AP projection of the ankle. Note that the fibula is the more distal of the two long bones of the lower leg and forms the lateral malleolus. The calcaneus is not well visualized in this projection because of superimposition with other tarsals.

Demonstration of the posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by 1. trauma or other pathology 2. greater than 90-degree flexion 3. less than 90-degree flexion

1 and 3 only

In the lateral projection of the ankle, the 1. talotibial joint is visualized. 2. talofibular joint is visualized. 3. tibia and fibula are superimposed.

1 and 3 only

Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise? 1. Talotibial 2. Talocalcaneal 3. Talofibular

1 and 3 only

Which of the following is (are) located on the distal aspect of the humerus? 1. Capitulum 2. Intertubercular groove 3. Coronoid fossa

1 and 3 only

Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic? 1. Knee 2. Intervertebral joints 3. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

1 and 3 only -Diarthrotic, or synovial, joints, such as the knee and the TMJ, are freely movable. Most diarthrotic joints are associated with a joint capsule containing synovial fluid. Diarthrotic joints are the most numerous in the body and are subdivided according to type of movement

In the lateral projection of the scapula, the 1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed. 2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed. 3. inferior angle is superimposed on the ribs.

1 only

The carpal scaphoid can be demonstrated in which of the following projection(s) of the wrist? 1. PA oblique 2. PA with radial flexion 3. PA with elbow elevated 20 degrees

1 only

Which of the following is (are) located on the anterior aspect of the femur? 1. Patellar surface 2. Intertrochanteric crest 3. Linea aspera

1 only

Which of the following is (are) located on the proximal aspect of the humerus? 1. Intertubercular groove 2. Capitulum 3. Coronoid fossa

1 only

Which of the following projections require(s) that the shoulder be placed in external rotation? 1. AP humerus 2. Lateral forearm 3. Lateral humerus

1 only

In which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis? 1. Supine flexion 45 degrees (Merchant) 2. Prone flexion 90 degrees (Settegast) 3. Prone flexion 55 degrees (Hughston)

1 only -The tangential axial projections of the patella are also often referred to as sunrise or skyline views. The supine flexion 45-degree (Merchant) position requires a special apparatus, and the patellae can be examined bilaterally. This position also requires patient comfort without muscle tension—muscle tension can cause a subluxed patella to be pulled into the intercondyler sulcus, giving the appearance of a normal patella. The two prone positions differ according to the degree of flexion employed. The 90-degree flexion (Settegast) position must not be employed with suspected patellar fracture.

A modified axiolateral inferosuperior projection of the femoral neck is particularly useful: 1. when the "cross-table" axiolateral is contraindicated. 2. for patients with bilateral hip fractures. 3. for patients with limited movement of the unaffected leg.

1, 2, and 3

For the AP projection of the scapula, the 1. patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body. 2. patient's elbow is flexed. 3. exposure is made during quiet breathing.

1, 2, and 3

In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the 1. fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia. 2. patellofemoral joint should be visualized. 3. femoral condyles should be superimposed.

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following articulations participate in the formation of the elbow joint? 1. Between the humeral trochlea and the semilunar/trochlear notch 2. Between the capitulum and the radial head 3. The proximal radioulnar joint

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following is (are) valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm? 1. The radius and the ulna should be superimposed distally. 2. The coronoid process and the radial head should be partially superimposed. 3. The humeral epicondyles should be superimposed.

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint? 1. Scapular Y projection 2. Inferosuperior axial 3. Transthoracic lateral

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint? 1. Scapular Y projection 2. Inferosuperior axial 3. Transthoracic lateral

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following statements regarding the Norgaard method, "Ball-Catcher's position," is (are) correct? 1. Bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained. 2. It is used for early detection of rheumatoid arthritis. 3. The hands are obliqued about 45 degrees, palm up.

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture? 1. Fractured lateral malleolus 2. Fractured medial malleolus 3. Fractured posterior tibia

1, 2, and 3 -A trimalleolar fracture involves three separate fractures. The lateral malleolus is fractured in the "typical" fashion, but the medial malleolus is fractured on both its medial and posterior aspects. The trimalleolar fracture frequently is associated with subluxation of the articular surfaces.

To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, the required exposure(s) must include 1. epicondyles perpendicular to the IP 2. hand pronated 3. hand supinated as much as possible

1, 2, and 3 -Although routine elbow projections may be essentially negative, conditions may exist (such as an elevated fat pad) that seem to indicate the presence of a small fracture of the radial head. To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, four exposures are made with the elbow flexed 90 degrees and with the humeral epicondyles superimposed and perpendicular to the IP—one with the hand supinated as much as possible, one with the hand lateral, one with the hand pronated, and one with the hand in internal rotation, thumb down. Each maneuver changes the position of the radial head, and a different surface is presented for inspection.

A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate 1. a fracture 2. a foreign body 3. soft tissue

2 and 3 only

AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed 1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula 2. following inversion or eversion injuries 3. to demonstrate a ligament tear

2 and 3 only

Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include: 1. only the joint closest to the injured site must be supported during movement. 2. both joints must be included in long bone studies. 3. two views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required.

2 and 3 only

In the 45-degree medial oblique projection of the ankle, the 1. talotibial joint is visualized 2. tibiofibular joint is visualized 3. plantar surface should be vertical

2 and 3 only

The AP oblique projection (medial rotation) of the elbow demonstrates which of the following? 1. Radial head free of superimposition 2. Olecranon process within the olecranon fossa 3. Coronoid process free of superimposition

2 and 3 only

To better demonstrate the interphalangeal joints of the toes, which of the following procedures may be employed? 1. Angle the CR 15 degrees caudad. 2. Angle the CR 15 degrees cephalad. 3. Place a sponge wedge under the foot with the toes elevated 15 degrees.

2 and 3 only

Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm requires that 1. the epicondyles be parallel to the IR. 2. the radius and ulna be superimposed distally. 3. the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly.

2 and 3 only

Which of the following statements regarding the PA oblique scapular Y projection of the shoulder is (are) true? 1. The midsagittal plane should be about 60 degrees to the IR. 2. The scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft. 3. An oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained.

2 and 3 only

Shoulder arthrography is performed to 1. evaluate humeral luxation 2. demonstrate complete or partial rotator cuff tear 3. evaluate the glenoid labrum

2 and 3 only - transthoracic humerus or scapular Y projection would be used to demonstrate luxation (dislocation).

Which of the following is (are) associated with a Colles' fracture? 1. Transverse fracture of the radial head 2. Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid 3. Posterior or backward displacement

2 and 3 only -A Colles fracture usually is caused by a fall onto an outstretched (extended) hand to "brake" a fall. The wrist then suffers an impacted transverse fracture of the distal inch of the radius with an accompanying chip fracture of the ulnar styloid process. Because of the hand position at the time of the fall, the fracture usually is displaced backward approximately 30 degrees.

Skeletal conditions characterized by faulty bone calcification include: 1. osteoarthritis. 2. osteomalacia. 3. rickets.

2 and 3 only -Rickets and osteomalacia are skeletal disorders characterized by abnormal calcification processes. In osteomalacia, bones become soft and are easily misshapen. Rickets affects the growing bones of children and is also characterized by soft, misshapened bones—as a result of calcium salts not being deposited in bone matrix. Osteoarthritis is a degeneration of articular cartilage; when these surfaces then attempt to articulate and move, bone friction and pain occur.

Ulnar deviation will best demonstrate which carpal(s)? 1. Medial carpals 2. Lateral carpals 3. Scaphoid

2 and 3 only -The carpal scaphoid is somewhat curved and consequently foreshortened radiographically in the PA position. To better separate it from the adjacent carpals, the ulnar deviation maneuver is employed frequently. In addition to correcting foreshortening of the scaphoid, ulnar deviation opens the interspaces between adjacent lateral carpals. Radial deviation is used to better demonstrate medial carpals.

To demonstrate the glenoid fossa in profile, the patient is positioned?

45 degrees oblique, affected side down

The greater tubercle should be visualized in profile in which of the following? A. AP shoulder, external rotation B. AP shoulder, internal rotation C. AP elbow D. Lateral elbow

A. AP shoulder, external rotation

Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process? A. Avulsion fracture B. Torus fracture C. Comminuted fracture D. Compound fracture

A. Avulsion fracture

Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the mortise? A. Medial oblique 15 to 20 degrees B. Lateral oblique 15 to 20 degrees C. Medial oblique 45 degrees D. Lateral oblique 45 degrees

A. Medial oblique 15 to 20 degrees

When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, A. the AP projection requires two separate positions and exposures. B. the AP projection is made through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular to IR. C. the AP projection is made through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR parallel to the humerus. D. the AP projection is eliminated from the routine.

A. the AP projection requires two separate positions and exposures

Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the?

AP projection

The lesser tubercle of the humerus will be visualized in profile in the?

AP shoulder internal rotation radiograph

With which of the following does the trapezium articulate? A. Fifth metacarpal B. First metacarpal C. Distal radius D. Distal ulna

B. First metacarpal

In the lateral projection of the knee, the central ray is angled 5° cephalad to prevent superimposition of which of the following structures on the joint space? A. Lateral femoral condyle B. Medial femoral condyle C. Patella D. Tibial eminence

B. Medial femoral condyle

Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity? A. Ewing sarcoma B. Osgood-Schlatter disease C. Gout D. Exostosis

B. Osgood-Schlatter disease

In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges? A. Dorsoplantar metatarsals/toes B. Tangential metatarsals/toes C. 30-degree medial oblique foot D. 30-degree lateral oblique foot

B. Tangential metatarsals/toes

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation? A. AP B. 90 degrees mediolateral C. 45-degree internal rotation D. 45-degree external rotation

C. 45-degree internal rotation -In the AP projection, the proximal fibula is at least partially superimposed on the lateral tibial condyle. Medial rotation of 45 degrees will "open" the proximal tibiofibular articulation. Lateral rotation will obscure the articulation even more.

Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition? A. Radial flexion/deviation B. Ulnar flexion/deviation C. AP (medial) oblique D. AP (lateral) oblique

C. AP (medial) oblique -In the direct PA projection of the wrist, the carpal pisiform is superimposed on the carpal triquetrum. The AP oblique projection (medial surface adjacent to the IR) separates the pisiform and triquetrum and projects the pisiform as a separate structure. The pisiform is the smallest and most palpable carpal.

Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot? A. Invert the foot. B. Evert the foot. C. Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly. D. Angle the CR 10 degrees anteriorly.

C. Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly -In the dorsoplantar projection of the foot, the CR may be directed perpendicularly or angled 10 degrees posteriorly. Angulation serves to "open" the tarsometatarsal joints that are not well visualized on the dorsoplantar projection with perpendicular ray. Inversion and eversion of the foot do not affect the tarsometatarsal joints.

With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best? A. Radial head B. Ulnar head C. Coronoid process D. Olecranon process

C. Coronoid process

Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the coronoid process free of superimposition and the olecranon process within the olecranon fossa? A. AP B. Lateral C. Medial oblique D. Lateral oblique

C. Medial oblique

Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the distal tibiofibular joint? A. Medial oblique 15° to 20° B. Lateral oblique 15° to 20° C. Medial oblique 45° D. Lateral oblique 45°

C. Medial oblique 45°

All of the following bones are associated with condyles except the A. femur. B. tibia. C. fibula. D. mandible.

C. fibula

All the following structures are associated with the posterior femur except A. popliteal surface B. intercondyloid fossa C. intertrochanteric line D. linea aspera

C. intertrochanteric line

The best projection to demonstrate the articular surfaces of the femoropatellar articulation is the A. AP knee. B. PA knee. C. tangential ("sunrise") projection. D. tunnel view

C. tangential ("sunrise") projection

All of the following statements regarding the inferosuperior axial (nontrauma, Lawrence method) projection of the shoulder are true, except A. the coracoid process and lesser tubercle are seen in profile. B. the arm is abducted about 90° from the body. C. the arm should be in internal rotation. D. the CR is directed medially 25° to 30° through the axilla.

C. the arm should be in internal rotation -The inferosuperior axial (nontrauma, Lawrence method) projection of the shoulder demonstrates the glenohumeral joint and adjacent structures. The patient is supine with arm abducted 90°, and in external rotation. The (horizontal) CR is directed medially 25° to 30° through the axilla. The coracoid process and lesser tubercle are seen in profile.

All the following can be associated with the elbow joint except A. the capitulum. B. the trochlea. C. the tubercles. D. the epicondyles.

C. the tubercles

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate acromioclavicular separation? A. AP recumbent, affected shoulder B. AP recumbent, both shoulders C. AP erect, affected shoulder D. AP erect, both shoulders

D. AP erect, both shoulders

With which of the following does the lateral extremity of the clavicle articulate? A. Manubrium B. Coracoid process C. Coronoid process D. Acromion process

D. Acromion process

Which of the following articulates with the base of the fifth metatarsal? A. First cuneiform B. Third cuneiform C. Navicular D. Cuboid

D. Cuboid

Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the radial head free of ulnar superimposition? A. AP B. Lateral C. Medial oblique D. Lateral oblique

D. Lateral oblique

Which of the following is most useful for bone age evaluation? A. Lateral skull B. PA chest C. AP pelvis D. PA hand

D. PA hand

Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation? A. Tangential B. AP axial C. Transthoracic lateral D. PA oblique scapular Y

D. PA oblique scapular Y -The scapular Y position is employed to demonstrate anterior (subcoracoid) or posterior (subacromial) humeral dislocation.

Which of the following positions will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna? A. AP B. Lateral C. Medial oblique D. Lateral oblique

D. lateral oblique

In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated?

Lateral oblique foot

Posterior displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the?

Lateral projection

Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch?

Lateral weight-bearing

In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated? A. AP B. Lateral oblique C. Medial oblique D. Lateral

Medial oblique

In which projection of the foot are the sinus tarsi, cuboid, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal best demonstrated?

Medial oblique foot

What process is best seen using a perpendicular CR with the elbow in acute flexion and with the posterior aspect of the humerus adjacent to the image receptor?

Olecranon -When the elbow is placed in acute flexion with the posterior aspect of the humerus adjacent to the image receptor and a perpendicular CR is used, the olecranon process of the ulna is seen in profile. The coronoid process is best visualized in the medial oblique position. The coracoid and glenoid are associated with the scapula

Cells concerned with the formation and repair of bone are?

Osteoblasts

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the carpal scaphoid? A. Lateral wrist B. Ulnar deviation C. Radial deviation D. Carpal tunnel

Ulnar deviation

What is the most superior structure of the scapula?

acromion process

The relationship between the ends of fractured long bones is referred to as?

apposition -The term apposition is used to describe the alignment, or misalignment, between the ends of fractured long bones

Synovial fluid is associated with the?

bony articulations

Impingement on the wrist's median nerve causing pain and disability of the affected hand and wrist is known as?

carpal tunnel syndrome

In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin?

compound

The instrument that is used frequently in quality-control programs to measure varying degrees of x-ray exposure is the?

densitometer

Which surface of the forearm must be adjacent to the IR to obtain a lateral projection of the fourth finger with optimal spatial resolution?

medial -A lateral projection of the fourth finger is best obtained if the finger is positioned so that there is as little OID as possible. Therefore, with only the fourth finger extended in the lateral position, the arm is positioned on the ulnar (medial) surface. This places the finger closer to the IR than if it were positioned radial side down. Excessive magnification distortion is avoided, and better spatial resolution is obtained.

A spontaneous fracture most likely would be associated with?

pathology -Spontaneous fractures most often affect bone weakened by a pathologic condition, for example, metastatic bone disease. The spontaneous fracture occurs suddenly, without trauma. One measure of a good radiographer is his or her ability to be cautious and resourceful when examining injured or debilitated patients having pathologic or traumatic conditions such as metastatic bone disease, arthritis, or bone fractures.