Final Exam Questions

The nurse working with oncology clients understands that which age-related change increases the older clients susceptibility to infection during chemotherapy? a. Decreased immune function b. Diminished nutritional stores c. Existing cognitive deficits d. Poor physical reserves

ANS: A As people age, there is an age-related decrease in immune function, causing the older adult to be more susceptible to infection than other clients. Not all older adults have diminished nutritional stores, cognitive dysfunction, or poor physical reserves.

A nurse cares for a client with ulcerative colitis. The client states, I feel like I am tied to the toilet. This disease is controlling my life. How should the nurse respond? a. Lets discuss potential factors that increase your symptoms. b. If you take the prescribed medications, you will no longer have diarrhea. c. To decrease distress, do not eat anything before you go out. d. You must retake control of your life. I will consult a therapist to help.

ANS: A Clients with ulcerative colitis often express that the disorder is disruptive to their lives. Stress factors can increase symptoms. These factors should be identified so that the client will have more control over his or her condition. Prescription medications and anorexia will not eliminate exacerbations. Although a therapist may assist the client, this is not an appropriate response.

A nurse reviews the chart of a client who has Crohn's disease and a draining fistula. Which documentation should alert the nurse to urgently contact the provider for additional prescriptions? a. Serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L b. Client ate 20% of breakfast meal c. White blood cell count of 8200/mm3 d. Clients weight decreased by 3 pounds

ANS: A Fistulas place the client with Crohn's disease at risk for hypokalemia which can lead to serious dysrhythmias. This potassium level is low and should cause the nurse to intervene. The white blood cell count is normal. The other two findings are abnormal and also warrant intervention, but the potassium level takes priority.

A nurse assesses a client who has appendicitis. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find? a. Severe, steady right lower quadrant pain b. Abdominal pain associated with nausea and vomiting c. Marked peristalsis and hyperactive bowel sounds d. Abdominal pain that increases with knee flexion

ANS: A Right lower quadrant pain, specifically at McBurney's point, is characteristic of appendicitis. Usually if nausea and vomiting begin first, the client has gastroenteritis. Marked peristalsis and hyperactive bowel sounds are not indicative of appendicitis. Abdominal pain due to appendicitis decreases with knee flexion.

A woman diagnosed with breast cancer had these laboratory tests performed at an office visit: Alkaline phosphatase: 125 U/L Total calcium: 12 mg/dL Hematocrit: 39% Hemoglobin: 14 g/dL Which test results indicate to the nurse that some further diagnostics are needed? a. Elevated alkaline phosphatase and calcium suggests bone involvement. b. Only alkaline phosphatase is decreased, suggesting liver metastasis. c. Hematocrit and hemoglobin are decreased, indicating anemia. d. The elevated hematocrit and hemoglobin indicate dehydration.

ANS: A The alkaline phosphatase (normal value 30 to 120 U/L) and total calcium (normal value 9 to 10.5 mg/dL) levels are both elevated, suggesting bone metastasis. Both the hematocrit and hemoglobin are within normal limits for females.

A nurse teaches a client who has viral gastroenteritis. Which dietary instruction should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. Drink plenty of fluids to prevent dehydration. b. You should only drink 1 liter of fluids daily. c. Increase your protein intake by drinking more milk. d. Sips of cola or tea may help to relieve your nausea.

ANS: A The client should drink plenty of fluids to prevent dehydration. Milk products may not be tolerated. Caffeinated beverages increase intestinal motility and should be avoided.

A nurse is caring for four clients with leukemia. After hand-off report, which client should the nurse see first? a. Client who had two bloody diarrhea stools this morning b. Client who has been premedicated for nausea prior to chemotherapy c. Client with a respiratory rate change from 18 to 22 breaths/min d. Client with an unchanged lesion to the lower right lateral malleolus

ANS: A The client who had two bloody diarrhea stools that morning may be hemorrhaging in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and should be assessed first. The client with the change in respiratory rate may have an infection or worsening anemia and should be seen next. The other two clients are not a priority at this time.

A client has been admitted after sustaining a humerus fracture that occurred when picking up the family cat. What test result would the nurse correlate to this condition? a. Bence-Jones protein in urine b. Epstein-Barr virus: positive c. Hemoglobin: 18 mg/dL d. Red blood cell count: 8.2/mm3

ANS: A This client has possible multiple myeloma. A positive Bence-Jones protein finding would correlate with this condition. The Epstein-Barr virus is a herpesvirus that causes infectious mononucleosis and some cancers. A hemoglobin of 18 mg/dL is slightly high for a male and somewhat high for a female; this can be caused by several conditions, and further information would be needed to correlate this value with a specific medical condition. A red blood cell count of 8.2/mm3 is also high, but again, more information would be needed to correlate this finding with a specific medical condition.

The student nurse studying stomach disorders learns that the risk factors for acute gastritis include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Alcohol b. Caffeine c. Corticosteroids d. Fruit juice e. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

ANS: A, B, C, E Risk factors for acute gastritis include alcohol, caffeine, corticosteroids, and chronic NSAID use. Fruit juice is not a risk factor, although in some people it does cause distress.

A nurse assesses a client with peritonitis. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.) a. Distended abdomen b. Inability to pass flatus c. Bradycardia d. Hyperactive bowel sounds e. Decreased urine output

ANS: A, B, E A client with peritonitis may present with a distended abdomen, diminished bowel sounds, inability to pass flatus or feces, tachycardia, and decreased urine output secondary to dehydration. Bradycardia and hyperactive bowel sounds are not associated with peritonitis.

A student studying leukemias learns the risk factors for developing this disorder. Which risk factors does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. Chemical exposure b. Genetically modified foods c. Ionizing radiation exposure d. Vaccinations e. Viral infections

ANS: A, C, E Chemical and ionizing radiation exposure and viral infections are known risk factors for developing leukemia. Eating genetically modified food and receiving vaccinations are not known risk factors.

The nurse is caring for a patient with an advanced stage of breast cancer and the patient has recently learned that her cancer has metastasized. The nurse enters the room and finds the patient struggling to breath and the nurse's rapid assessment reveals that the patient's jugular veins are distended. The nurse should suspect the development of what oncologic emergency? a. Increased intracranial pressure b. Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) c. Spinal cord compression d. Metastatic tumor of the neck

ANS: B

What virus can cause cervical cancer? a) Herpes simplex virus type 2 b) Human papillomavirus c) Epstein-Barr Virus d) Hepatitis B virus

ANS: B

After teaching a client who is recovering from laparoscopic cholecystectomy surgery, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. Drinking at least 2 liters of water each day is suggested. b. I will decrease the amount of fatty foods in my diet. c. Drinking fluids with my meals will increase bloating. d. I will avoid concentrated sweets and simple carbohydrates.

ANS: B After cholecystectomy, clients need a nutritious diet without a lot of excess fat; otherwise a special diet is not recommended for most clients. Good fluid intake is healthy for all people but is not related to the surgery. Drinking fluids between meals helps with dumping syndrome, which is not seen with this procedure. Restriction of sweets is not required.

A client had an upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage and now has a nasogastric (NG) tube. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Lavaging the tube with ice water b. Performing frequent oral care c. Re-positioning the tube every 4 hours d. Taking and recording vital signs

ANS: B Clients with NG tubes need frequent oral care both for comfort and to prevent infection. Lavaging the tube is done by the nurse. Re-positioning the tube, if needed, is also done by the nurse. The UAP can take vital signs, but this is not a comfort measure.

A nurse in a hematology clinic is working with four clients who have polycythemia vera. Which client should the nurse see first? a. Client with a blood pressure of 180/98 mm Hg b. Client who reports shortness of breath c. Client who reports calf tenderness and swelling d. Client with a swollen and painful left great toe

ANS: B Clients with polycythemia vera often have clotting abnormalities due to the hyperviscous blood with sluggish flow. The client reporting shortness of breath may have a pulmonary embolism and should be seen first. The client with a swollen calf may have a deep vein thrombosis and should be seen next. High blood pressure and gout symptoms are common findings with this disorder.

The family of a neutropenic client reports the client is not acting right. What action by the nurse is the priority? a. Ask the client about pain. b. Assess the client for infection. c. Delegate taking a set of vital signs. d. Look at todays laboratory results.

ANS: B Neutropenic clients often do not have classic manifestations of infection, but infection is the most common cause of death in neutropenic clients. The nurse should assess for infection. The nurse should assess for pain but this is not the priority. The nurse should take the clients vital signs instead of delegating them since the client has had a change in status. Laboratory results may be inconclusive.

A nurse cares for a client with a new ileostomy. The client states, I don't think my friends will accept me with this ostomy. How should the nurse respond? a. Your friends will be happy that you are alive. b. Tell me more about your concerns. c. A therapist can help you resolve your concerns. d. With time you will accept your new body.

ANS: B Social anxiety and apprehension are common in clients with a new ileostomy. The nurse should encourage the client to discuss concerns. The nurse should not minimize the clients concerns or provide false reassurance.

A client has a recurrence of gastric cancer and is in the gastrointestinal clinic crying. What response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Do you have family or friends for support? b. I'd like to know what you are feeling now. c. Well, we knew this would probably happen. d. Would you like me to refer you to hospice?

ANS: B The nurse assesses the clients emotional state with open-ended questions and statements and shows a willingness to listen to the clients concerns. Asking about support people is very limited in nature, and yes-or-no questions are not therapeutic. Stating that this was expected dismisses the clients concerns. The client may or may not be ready to hear about hospice, and this is another limited, yes-or-no question.

An older client has gastric cancer and is scheduled to have a partial gastrectomy. The family does not want the client told about her diagnosis. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask the family why they feel this way. b. Assess family concerns and fears. c. Refuse to go along with the familys wishes. d. Tell the family that such secrets cannot be kept.

ANS: B The nurse should use open-ended questions and statements to fully assess the family's concerns and fears. Asking why questions often puts people on the defensive and is considered a barrier to therapeutic communication. Refusing to follow the family's wishes or keep their confidence will not help move this family from their position and will set up an adversarial relationship.

A client with peptic ulcer disease asks the nurse about taking slippery elm supplements. What response by the nurse is best? a. Slippery elm has no benefit for this problem. b. Slippery elm is often used for this disorder. c. There is no evidence that this will work. d. You should not take any herbal remedies.

ANS: B There are several complementary and alternative medicine regimens that are used for gastritis and peptic ulcer disease. Most have been tested on animals but not humans. Slippery elm is a common supplement used for this disorder. *Exam said marshmallow root.*

A client has a serum ferritin level of 8 ng/mL and microcytic red blood cells. What action by the nurse is best? a. Encourage high-protein foods. b. Perform a Hemoccult test on the clients stools. c. Offer frequent oral care. d. Prepare to administer cobalamin (vitamin B12).

ANS: B This client has laboratory findings indicative of iron deficiency anemia. The most common cause of this disorder is blood loss, often from the GI tract. The nurse should perform a Hemoccult test on the clients stools. High-protein foods may help the condition, but dietary interventions take time to work. That still does not determine the cause. Frequent oral care is not related. Cobalamin injections are for pernicious anemia.

The nurse is caring for a client with peptic ulcer disease who reports sudden onset of sharp abdominal pain. On palpation, the clients abdomen is tense and rigid. What action takes priority? a. Administer the prescribed pain medication. b. Notify the health care provider immediately. c. Percuss all four abdominal quadrants. d. Take and document a set of vital signs.

ANS: B This client has manifestations of a perforated ulcer, which is an emergency. The priority is to get the client medical attention. The nurse can take a set of vital signs while someone else calls the provider. The nurse should not percuss the abdomen or give pain medication since the client may need to sign consent for surgery.

A client has Hodgkins lymphoma, Ann Arbor stage 1B. What "B symptoms" should the nurse assess the client? (Select all that apply.) a. Headaches b. Night sweats c. Persistent fever d. Urinary frequency e. Weight loss

ANS: B, C, E In stage 1, the disease is located in a single lymph node region or a single nonlymph node site. The client displays "B" symptoms which are night sweats, persistent fever, and weight loss. Headache and urinary problems are not related.

A nurse assesses a client who has ulcerative colitis and severe diarrhea. Which assessment should the nurse complete first? a. Inspection of oral mucosa b. Recent dietary intake c. Heart rate and rhythm d. Percussion of abdomen

ANS: C Although the client with severe diarrhea may experience skin irritation and hypovolemia, the client is most at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias secondary to potassium and magnesium loss from severe diarrhea. The client should have her or his electrolyte levels monitored, and electrolyte replacement may be necessary. Oral mucosa inspection, recent dietary intake, and abdominal percussion are important parts of physical assessment but are lower priority for this client than heart rate and rhythm.

After teaching a client who has diverticulitis, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. I'll ride my bike or take a long walk at least three times a week. b. I must try to include at least 25 grams of fiber in my diet every day. c. I will take a laxative nightly at bedtime to avoid becoming constipated. d. I should use my legs rather than my back muscles when I lift heavy objects.

ANS: C Laxatives are not recommended for clients with diverticulitis because they can increase pressure in the bowel, causing additional outpouching of the lumen. Exercise and a high-fiber diet are recommended for clients with diverticulitis because they promote regular bowel function. Using the leg muscles rather than the back for lifting prevents abdominal straining.

A 25-year-old client has recently been diagnosed with testicular cancer and is scheduled for radiation therapy. Which intervention by the nurse is best? a. Ask the client about his support system of friends and relatives. b. Encourage the client to verbalize his fears about sexual performance. c. Explore with the client the possibility of sperm collection. d. Provide privacy to allow time for reflection about the treatment.

ANS: C Sperm collection is a viable option for a client diagnosed with testicular cancer and should be completed before radiation therapy, chemotherapy, or radical lymph node dissection. The other options would promote psychosocial support but are not the priority intervention.

The nurse caring for clients with gastrointestinal disorders should understand that which category best describes the mechanism of action of sucralfate (Carafate)? a. Gastric acid inhibitor b. Histamine receptor blocker c. Mucosal barrier fortifier d. Proton pump inhibitor

ANS: C Sucralfate is a mucosal barrier fortifier (protector). It is not a gastric acid inhibitor, a histamine receptor blocker, or a proton pump inhibitor.

A nurse teaches a client who is at risk for colon cancer. Which dietary recommendation should the nurse teach this client? a. Eat low-fiber and low-residual foods. b. White rice and bread are easier to digest. c. Add vegetables such as broccoli and cauliflower to your new diet. d. Foods high in animal fat help to protect the intestinal mucosa.

ANS: C The client should be taught to modify his or her diet to decrease animal fat and refined carbohydrates. The client should also increase high-fiber foods and Brassica vegetables, including broccoli and cauliflower, which help to protect the intestinal mucosa from colon cancer.

A nurse assesses a client who is hospitalized with an exacerbation of Crohn's disease. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find? a. Positive Murphy's sign with rebound tenderness to palpitation b. Dull, hypoactive bowel sounds in the lower abdominal quadrants c. High-pitched, rushing bowel sounds in the right lower quadrant d. Reports of abdominal cramping that is worse at night

ANS: C The nurse expects high-pitched, rushing bowel sounds due to narrowing of the bowel lumen in Crohn's disease. A positive Murphy's sign is indicative of gallbladder disease, and rebound tenderness often indicates peritonitis. Dullness in the lower abdominal quadrants and hypoactive bowel sounds are not commonly found with Crohn's disease. Nightly worsening of abdominal cramping is not consistent with Crohn's disease.

A nurse works with clients who have alopecia from chemotherapy. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Helping clients adjust to their appearance b. Reassuring clients that this change is temporary c. Referring clients to a reputable wig shop d. Teaching measures to prevent scalp injury

ANS: D All of the actions are appropriate for clients with alopecia. However, the priority is client safety, so the nurse should first teach ways to prevent scalp injury.

After teaching a client with diverticular disease, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which menu selection made by the client indicates the client correctly understood the teaching? a. Roasted chicken with rice pilaf and a cup of coffee with cream b. Spaghetti with meat sauce, a fresh fruit cup, and hot tea c. Garden salad with a cup of bean soup and a glass of low-fat milk d. Baked fish with steamed carrots and a glass of apple juice

ANS: D Clients who have diverticular disease are prescribed a low-residue diet. Whole grains (rice pilaf), uncooked fruits and vegetables (salad, fresh fruit cup), and high-fiber foods (cup of bean soup) should be avoided with a low-residue diet. Canned or cooked vegetables are appropriate. Apple juice does not contain fiber and is acceptable for a low-residue diet.

A nursing student is struggling to understand the process of graft-versus-host disease. What explanation by the nurse instructor is best? a. Because of immunosuppression, the donor cells take over. b. Its like a transfusion reaction because no perfect matches exist. c. The client's cells are fighting donor cells for dominance. d. The donors cells are actually attacking the client's cells.

ANS: D Graft versus host disease is an autoimmune-type process in which the donor cells recognize the client's cells as foreign and begin attacking them. The other answers are not accurate.

The nurse assesses a clients oral cavity and makes the discovery shown in the photo below: What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Encourage the client to have genetic testing. b. Instruct the client on high-fiber foods. c. Place the client in protective precautions. d. Teach the client about cobalamin therapy (vitamin B12)

ANS: D This condition is known as glossitis, and is characteristic of B12 anemia. If the anemia is a pernicious anemia, it is treated with cobalamin. Genetic testing is not a priority for this condition. The client does not need high-fiber foods or protective precautions.

Doctors at a local church are holding a health fair, where they are giving classes on how to perform breast self examination. What type of cancer prevention is being offered? a) Secondary prevention b) Tertiary prevention c) Primary prevention d) Post surgical prevention

a) Secondary prevention

A 68 year-old male client is embarrassed about having bilateral breast enlargement. Which statement by the nurse is the most appropriate? a) Breast cancer in men is quite rare b) It is good that you came to be carefully evaluated c) Gynecomastia usually comes from overeating d) When you get older, the male breast always enlarges

b) It is good that you came to be carefully evaluated