Immunity Compilation
When could a "rebound" anaphylactic reaction occur after an initial attack even when epinephrine has been given? A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 3 hours D. 4 hours
D. 4 hours Rationale: A "rebound" anaphylactic reaction can occur 4 to 8 hours after an initial attack even when epinephrine has been given.
20. A patient with AIDS has developed CMV (cytomegalovirus). The nurse makes it priority to educate the patient about which of the following regarding CMV? A. Avoiding exposure to cat feces. B. Drinking water from clean sources only. C. Scheduling an eye appointment. D. Isolating for 14 days to prevent transmission of CMV to others.
The answer is C. CMV is an opportunistic infection that can develop in patients with AIDS. This virus can cause damage to the retina (hence retinitis) and lead to blindness. The nurse should educate the patient about scheduling an eye exam to monitor for this condition
__________ affects the cartilaginous joints of the spine and surrounding tissues making them rigid, decreasing mobility, and leading to kyphosis. (stooped position)
ankylosing spondylitis
Antiretroviral medications as post exposure prophylaxis for health care workers are started within ____ hours of exposure: a. 24 hours b. 72 hours c. 36 hours d. 12 hours
b. 72 hours
The body, when invaded by bacteria, viruses, or other pathogens, has three types of immune responses phagocytic, humoral or antibody, and ________
cellular
immune deficiency disorders may be caused by a defect in, or deficiency of phagocytic cells, B lymphocytes, T lymphocytes, or the __________ system.
compliment
_________________ is a clinical syndrome that is characterized by a progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and motor functions as a direct result of HIV infection: a. Cryptococcal meningitis b. Neuropathy c. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy d. HIV encephalopathy
d. HIV encephalopathy
HIV _______ is a clinical syndrome that is characterized by a progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and motor functions as a direct result of HIV infection.
encephalopathy
____________ refers to the body's specific protective response to an invading foreign agent or organism.
immunity
_________ are the first cells to arrive at the site in the body where inflammation occurs.
neutrophils
The major goal when caring for a patient with rheumatic disease is _______
pain control.
Temporary immunity transmitted from a source outside the body that has developed immunity through previous disease or immunization is called _________ acquired immunity.
passive
In patients with systemic lupus eryhtemouseus (SLE) ________ is the most common cardiac manifestation.
pericarditis
Nursing management of a patient who requires immunosuppression must include use of _________ precautions while providing care to prevent infection.
standard
The autoimmune reaction that causes RA originates in the ________ tissue.
synovial
B lymphocytes mature in the bone marrow and T-lymphocytes mature in the _________
thymus
A common complication of stage 3 HIV infection, ______ syndrome, is defined as a loss of more than 10% of the body's weight over a 30 day time frame.
wasting
-
-
Antiretroviral medications as post exposure prophylaxis for health care workers are started within ________ of exposure.
72
Modes of transmission for HIV include blood, semen, saliva, and casual contact.
False
The incidence of autoimmune disease decreases with age, possibly due to increased ability of antibodies to differentiate between self and non self.
False
The most definite indicator of RA is the RF which is present in 100% of all diagnosed patients.
False
s the following statement true or false?An antigen is a protein substance developed by the body in response to andinteracting with a specific antibody
False An antibody, not an antigen, is a protein substance developed by the body in response to and interacting with a specific antigen, not antibody
Is the following statement true or false? Immunity refers to the body's nonspecific protective response to an invadingforeign agent or organism
False Immunity refers to the body's specific, not nonspecific, protective response to aninvading foreign agent or organism
True or False Primary immune deficiency disorders result from external factors such asinfection
False Primary immune deficiency disorders are genetic
17. Select the criteria below that is used to help diagnosed a patient with Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS): A. CD4 count <200 cells/mm3 B. Presence of opportunistic infection C. CD4 count >1500 cells/mm3 D. WBC 9500 E. Absence of opportunistic infection
The answers are A and B. A patient is diagnosed with AIDS if: CD4 count drops to less than 200 cells/mm3 or an opportunistic infection is present
6 A patient with Systemic Lupus Erythematous (SLE) takes the medicationAzathioprine. Which statement by the patient requires re-education? a. "I've made sure all my vaccines are up-to-date, and I'm getting theShingles vaccine next week." b. "This medication can increase my chances for developing infection." c. "This medication is "steroid-sparing" meaning it may help lower theamount of steroids I may need to manage my lupus." d. "This medication lowers my immune system."
The answer is A. Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant. Patients can have vaccines while taking this medication but NOT live vaccines...like shingles, MMR etc.
11 A patient is prescribed Belimumab for treatment of lupus. The patient has been taking the medication for one month. Which finding below during a patient assessment requires further evaluation? a. The patient reports trouble sleeping and loss of energy. b. The patient declines a flu shot via the intranasal route. c. The patient says they have not noticed a change in symptoms. d. The patient administers the medication in the subcutaneous tissue on the abdomen.
The answer is A. Belimumab is a Biologic that binds with a protein that supports the activity of B-cells to decrease the activity of B-cells, which decreases antibody attacks and decreases inflammation. Depression and suicide are serious side effects of this medication. Option A demonstrates the patient may be experiencing depression and further evaluation is needed. Option B is correct because the patient should avoid LIVE vaccines like the flu vaccine via the intranasal route, Option C is correct because this medication can take up to 6 months to start working, and Option D is correct because this medication can be given via injection (subq fat of the upper legs or abdomen) or infusion.
28. A 25-year-old female is about to deliver a baby. The patient is HIV-positive and has been taking antiretroviral therapy during the pregnancy. What steps can be taken to help prevent transmitting the virus to the baby after birth? A. Substitute formula for breastfeeding. B. Administer antiretroviral treatment to the newborn for 2 weeks after birth. C. Avoid kissing and hugging the newborn. D. Stop taking antiretroviral therapy for 2 months postpartum.
The answer is A. Breastmilk can transmit the HIV virus. The patient should avoid breastfeeding but use formula instead. Option B is wrong because the newborn should receive antiretroviral treatment for 4-6 weeks after birth (NOT 2 weeks). The mother can kiss and hug her newborn (this does NOT transmit the virus), and the patient should not quit taking antiretroviral therapy during the postpartum period.
5. The first step in the "Lifecycle of HIV" is the attachment step. During this step what co-receptors are also targeted so entry can be gained inside the cell? A. CCR5 or CXCR4 B. CD4 or CD2 C. CCR4 or CXCR5 D. CD8 or CD5
The answer is A: CCR5 or CXCR4. Attachment occurs when the glycoproteins (GP120) projections make contact and bind with a CD4 receptor. In addition, there is also binding with certain co-receptors called CCR5 or CXCR4 to gain entry into the cell.
13. Which HIV test can give the earliest test results? A. Nucleic Acid Test (NAT) B. Antibody HIV Test C. Combination HIV antigen/antibody test D. CD4 count
The answer is A: Nucleic Acid Test (NAT)
30. Which class of antiretroviral medications bind with the CD4 receptors and inhibit the HIV's glycoprotein from being able to activate and engage the co-receptors? A. Post-attachment Inhibitors B. Fusion Inhibitors C. Integrase Inhibitors D. Non-nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors
The answer is A: Post-attachment Inhibitors. Trogarzo (ibalizumab) is a type of post-attachment inhibitor. It is given IV every 2 weeks.
23. You're providing education to a patient with AIDS on how to prevent opportunistic infections. Which statement below requires the nurse to re-educate the patient about this topic? A. "I'm traveling to Puerto Rico next week and will be sure to pack bottled water." B. "I've switched to buying raw organic milk." C. "Last month I received the Pneumovax." D. "My neighbor bought a cat last week."
The answer is B. Patients with AIDS should AVOID raw, undercooked, and unpasteurized foods and beverages. These items could contain organisms that could cause serious infections to a person with a compromised immune system.
1. The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) mainly attacks what type of cells in the human body? A. Red Blood Cells B. CD4 positive cells C. Stem Cells D. Platelets
The answer is B. The HIV virus attacks the human body's immune system, specifically the CD4 positive cells...mainly the helper t cells. These cells are white blood cells that help the immune system fight infection.
26. A 25-year-old patient reports that they engage in high risk activities that could lead to an HIV infection. The patient's test results show the patient is HIV-negative. The nurse should provide the patient with education about? A. PEP B. PrEP C. Opportunistic Infections D. Nucleic Acid Test (NAT)
The answer is B. The nurse should provide the patient with education about PrEP (Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis). These medications are taken BEFORE a possible encounter with HIV, which helps prevent a possible HIV infection. The patient must be HIV-negative before taking these medications.
9 Which medication below used to treat Systemic Lupus Erythematosus decreases inflammation quickly, is not for long-term usage, and can lead to weight gain, susceptibility to infection, diabetes, and osteoporosis? a. Hydroxychloroquine b. Prednisone c. Azathioprine d. Belimumab
The answer is B. The question above is describing steroids. Prednisone is a steroid medication. These are medications used to treat lupus. They decrease inflammation quickly, are not for long-term usage, and can lead to weight gain, susceptibility to infection, diabetes, and osteoporosis.
19. What sign and symptoms in your patient with HIV indicates the disease is worsening and the immune system is severely compromised? A. Open, oozing lesions around the mouth B. White hair like spots on the side of the tongue C. Cheesy white film on the tonsils and inside cheeks D. Vision changes
The answer is B. This is known as oral hairy leukoplakia. It occurs when the immune system is extremely compromised like with HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus. It is a signal the HIV is getting worse.
16. A 48-year-old patient is HIV positive. The patient has no signs and symptoms and has a CD4 count of 400 cells/mm3. In addition, no opportunistic infections or diseases are present. These findings correlate with what stage of HIV? A. Acute B. Chronic C. AIDS
The answer is B: Chronic. These findings correlate with the Chronic Stage (also called the Asymptomatic Stage) of HIV. Signs and symptoms may not be experienced, the viral load is lower than the Acute Stage, but the virus is still replicating and destroying the cells. The patient can still transmit the virus to others. In addition, the CD4 count should be more than 200 cells/mm3 to about 500 cells/mm3. In addition, no opportunistic infections or diseases should be present.
5 A patient is diagnosed with Systemic Lupus Erythematous (SLE). You note the patient has a red rash that starts on the nose and expands onto the cheeks of the face. This is known as what type of rash? a. Discoid b. Malar c. Miliaria d. Eczema
The answer is B: Malar (it's also called a butterfly rash).
12. The physician orders a combination HIV antigen/antibody test on a patient. The patient was potentially exposed to HIV 3 weeks ago. What HIV antigen does this test assess for? A. GP120 B. p24 C. GP41 D. P35
The answer is B: p24
3. Which statement below is not true regarding the role of the helper t cell? A. The helper T cell releases cytokines to help activate other immune system cells. B. The helper T cell is part of the adaptive immune system. C. The helper T cell is cytotoxic and kills invaders. D. The helper T cell has CD4 receptors found on its surface.
The answer is C. All the other options are true statements about the helper T cell. Option C is NOT true. Helper T cells are not cytotoxic and kill invaders (this is another type of t cells called cytotoxic t cell). Helper T cells are "helpers" in that they HELP the immune system by releasing cytokines, which help activate other immune system cells.
13 You're providing education to a Systemic Lupus Erythematosus support group about preventing flares. Which statement by a participant requires re-education about this topic? a. "Emotional stress and illness are triggers for a flare-up." b. "I always wear large-brimmed hats and long sleeves when I'm outside." c. "Exercise should be avoided due to the physical stress it causes on thebody." d. "I will make it priority to receive my yearly influenza vaccine.
The answer is C. Exercise is a very important step in preventing lupus flares. It helps maintain joint stability and manages weight. Exercise should not be limited but encouraged to as much as the patient can tolerate. Remember LESS for less flares: Lower stress (avoid overworking, emotional, illness, and use techniques to have prevent stress), Exercise (helps joints and manages weight), Sleep (need more than 8 hours to prevent the body from getting too exhausted), Sun Protection (sunscreen and large-brimmed hats...sunlight can activate a flare).
During the death process of a cell, which immune system cell is responsible for ingesting the fragments of the dying cell? a. T-cells b. B-cells c. Macrophages d. Neutrophils
The answer is C. Macrophages (also known as phagocytes) digest the tiny fragments of the dying cell called apoptotic bodies. In lupus, this process is either occurring too slowly or not performed correctly (but either way the immune system sees the nuclear material from these bodies as foreign "antinuclear antigens" and forms autoantibodies against them and this causes immune complexes to form...and inflammation of body systems).
36. A patient with HIV is prescribed to start antiretroviral therapy. The nurse is providing education about these medications. Which statement below by the patient indicates they need re-education on these medications? A. "If I take these medications as prescribed by viral load will become undetectable, and I have a low risk of transmit the virus to others." B. "Drug resistance is likely to develop if I'm non-compliant with my medications." C. "I currently take a medication called St. John's Wort to treat depression." D. "This therapy does not cure me from HIV but helps me live a healthier and longer life."
The answer is C. Patients who take ART should be educated about how these medications can interact with over-the-counter medications, especially herbal supplements like St. John's Wort. This medication is used to treat depression. The patient should be re-educated about this topic.
12 A 26-year-old female with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus has been hospitalized with a flare-up. The patient is now recovered and is about to be discharged. The patient expresses that she wants to have a baby soon. How long should the woman be advised to be in remission of this condition before trying to conceive a baby? a. 2 months b. 2 years c. 6 months d. 1 year
The answer is C. Women with lupus, who want to become pregnant, need to make sure their lupus has been in control (hence remission....no flare-ups) for at least 6 months before conceiving. This is because there is a risk of miscarriage and clotting issues. Pregnancy and the post-partum period can cause flares.
15. What is a normal CD4 count? A. 200-500 cells/mm3 B. 1500-3500 cells/mm3 C. 500-1500 cells/mm3 D. <200 cells/mm3
The answer is C: 500-1500 cells/mm3
What is the name of the process in the body that is responsible for the death of a cell? a. Mitosis b. Osmosis c. Apoptosis d. Meiosis
The answer is C: Apoptosis. In lupus, this process is not occurring effectively, specifically the phagocytosis of the apoptotic bodies.
32. The patient is prescribed to take Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon). The nurse prepares to administer this medication via? A. Intravenous route B. Oral route C. Topical Route D. Subcutaneous Route
The answer is D.
27. Which patient below is a candidate for PEP (Post-exposure Prophylaxis)? A. A 32-year-old patient who reports sharing IV drug injection devices with a person who is HIV-positive 5 days ago. B. A 28-year-old patient who engages in high risk activities on a regular basis that could lead to an HIV infection. C. A 55-year-old who is HIV-positive. D. A 30-year-old who was sexually assaulted two days ago.
The answer is D. PEP (post-exposure prophylaxis) is medication that is taken AFTER an encounter with an HIV infected person. These medications can help prevent becoming infected with HIV, if started within 72 HOURS of the exposure (option A is not a candidate). These medications are NOT for routine usage but for emergencies (sexual assault, needle stick etc.). If a patient is at high risk (as with the patient in option B), they should consider PrEP (pre-exposure prophylaxis). PEP is taken for 28 days.
22. Which type of opportunistic infection occurs from inhaling a parasitic organism that can be found in cat and bird feces? A. Histoplasmosis B. Crytococcosis C. Mycobacterium Avium complex D. Toxoplasmosis
The answer is D. Toxoplasmosis is a protozoal parasitic infection that is found in cat and bird feces along with undercook meat, such as pork and red meat.
14. A patient, who is in the Chronic Stage of HIV, has a CD4 count ordered. What does this test measure? A. Red blood cells B. B cells C. Cytotoxic T cells D. Helper T cells
The answer is D: Helper T cells
18. A patient with AIDS has dark purplish brown lesions on the mucus membranes of the mouth. As the nurse you know these lesions correlate with what type of opportunistic disease? A. Epstein-Barr Virus B. Herpes Simplex Virus C. Cytomegalovirus D. Kaposi's Sarcoma
The answer is D: Kaposi's Sarcoma
29. Which statement below is not a true statement about Antiretroviral Treatment? A. "The patient starts out taking 3 medications from at least 2 drug classes." B. "ART decreases the amount of virus in the blood within about 6 months." C. "ART helps decrease the risk of developing an opportunistic infection." D. "Antiretroviral medications are taken when signs and symptoms appear and then tapered off."
The answer is D: This option is false and all the others are true regarding ART. ART must be taken EXACTLY as prescribed (everyday, at the same time, at the right dosage etc.). It is not taken when signs and symptoms appear and tapered off. If ART is not taken as prescribed or doses are missed, drug resistance can develop. In other words, the medications will stop being effective against the HIV.
25. TRUE OR FALSE: The Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends that all people between the ages of 13-64 be tested at least once for HIV during a routine health visit, regardless of risk factors.
The answer is TRUE.
1. Which statements below are INCORRECT about Systemic Lupus Erythematosus? (Select all that apply) a. Lupus mainly affects Black, Asian, and Hispanic men. b. Lupus is a chronic condition that has periods of flare-ups and remission. c. The joints and skin are rarely affected in lupus. d. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is the most common form of lupus.
The answers are A and C. Options B and D are correct statements about lupus. Option A is wrong because lupus mainly affects Black, Asian, and Hispanic WOMEN (not men). Option C is wrong because lupus DOES affect the joints and skin along with many other systems of the body (heart, lungs, kidneys, blood system, brain etc.).
4. Identify the correct statements about the anatomy of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). Select all that apply: A. HIV is a retrovirus. B. Inside the virus is packaged DNA. C. The protein projections found on the virus' surface play a key role in attaching to the receptors on the helper t-cell. D. The glycoproteins (specifically GP140) are vital for engaging the receptors on the targeted cell.
The answers are A and C. Options B is an incorrect statement, it should say "Inside the virus is packaged RNA (not DNA)", and Option C is incorrect because it should say "The glycoproteins (specifically GP120...NOT GP140) are vital for engaging the CD4 receptor on the targeted cell.
Which statements are true about the pathogenesis of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus? (Select all that apply) a. The phagocytosis process is not occurring properly, which causes the nuclear material inside the dying cell to be seen as a foreign invader and antinuclear antibodies are created. b. During cell death the nucleus of the cell fails to condense, which leads to the development of autoantibodies. c. Immune complexes form and attach within the structures of important organs, joints, and tissues, and this causes inflammation d. Neutrophil activity is decreased and this causes B-cells to attack phagocytes and nuclear material within the cells, which leads to the activation of the complement cascade system and inflammation
The answers are A and C. These are correct statements about the pathogenesis of SLE. In a nutshell, apoptosis is ineffective (specifically how the macrophages/phagocytes consume the fragmented parts of the dying cell during apoptosis). These fragmented parts of the dying cell are not consumed (either the consumption by the macrophages is too slow or they are not consumed), and the nuclear material inside the small bodies spill into the extracellular space. The immune system recognizes this as an antigen "antinuclear antigens" and forms antinuclear antibodies to attack them. The antibodies attack the antigens and form immune complexes. These immune complexes now start to "float" around in the body and get stuck in various organs, joints, and tissues. This leads to the activation of the complement system and causes inflammation. This inflammation damages the structure (hence the organs/tissues/joint)s.
11. A patient arrives to the clinic and requests an HIV test. The patient had unprotected sexual intercourse 2 days ago with a person who may have HIV. As the nurse you know there is a window period for detecting an infection of HIV. What statements should you provide to the patient about this window period and testing for HIV? Select all that apply: A. No test is available at this time to show immediate infection. B. The window period is the time when you become infected with HIV to when a test can deliver positive results. C. Window periods vary depending on the type of HIV test administered. D. The absolute earliest an HIV test can detect HIV is about 3 months.
The answers are A, B, C. These are correct statement. Option D is incorrect because the NAT (nucleic acid test) can detect HIV the earliest of all the test types. It can detect around 10 days after exposure for some patients. It assesses for the virus' genetic material and measures the amount of virus present in the blood. It is not commonly ordered and is used only for high risk patients.
24. The nurse plays a vital role in screening patients for a possible HIV infection. What questions below could the nurse ask to help identify a patient who is at risk for HIV? Select all that apply: A. "How often do you use alcohol or drugs?" B. "Have you recently experienced an abusive relationship?" C. "If you are sexually active, do you or your partner use protection?" D. "In the past month, have you felt sad or unable to get out of bed?" E. "Have you ever been treated for a sexually transmitted infection?" F. "Do you ever experience intrusive or unwanted thoughts?"
The answers are A, C, E. The nurse should screen patients for HIV. Questions about sexual behavior (if the patient is sexually active, how often, treatment for STI, barrier devices used, and number of partners), drug/alcohol usage, and if they've had a blood transfusion before 1985, can all help the nurse identify patients who may need to undergo HIV testing.
8 A patient with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus is experiencing acomplication called Lupus Nephritis. What are some signs and symptoms that correlate with this complication of SLE? (Select all that apply) a. Decreased Creatinine b. Increased BUN c. 48 hour urinary output of 720 mL d. Proteinuria e. Weight loss f. Edema in upper and lower extremities
The answers are B, C D, and F. Lupus nephritis is a serious complication of SLE. It is a condition that affects the functional units of the kidneys called the nephrons. In severe cases, renal failure develops which leads to an INCREASED BUN/Creatinine, low UOP (<30 mL/hr), proteinuria, weightGAIN, and swelling in the upper and lower extremities.
10. A 30-year-old patient is in the Acute Stage of HIV. What findings below correlate with this stage of HIV? Select all that apply: A. CD4 level <500 cells/mm3 B. No present of Opportunistic Infections C. High viral load D. Patient reports flu-like symptoms E. Patient is asymptomatic
The answers are B, C, and D. The Acute Stage of HIV is the first stage and tends to occur a couple of weeks to a month after becoming infected. The patient's viral load is very HIGH during this time, but the CD4 count should be greater than 500 cells/mm3. Therefore, NO opportunistic infections are present during this time (the CD4 count is high enough to fight off these types of infections/diseases). In addition, the patient may report flu-like symptoms (aches, joint pain, headache, fever, fatigue, sore throat, swollen lymph nodes, GI upset, and rash). The patient is usually asymptomatic in the 2nd stage (Chronic Stage of HIV).
7 A patient is undergoing testing for the evaluation of Systemic Lupus Erythematous. What lab findings below are associated with this condition? (Select all that apply) a. Decreased ESR and CRP b. Positive ANA c. Positive Anti-dsDNA d. Negative Anti-Sm e. Low C3 and C4
The answers are B, C, and E. A positive ANA (anti-nuclear antibodies) demonstrates there are autoantibodies the body created against the nuclei of the dying cells (almost all patient with lupus will have a positive ANA), but these anti-nuclear antibodies can also be present with other autoimmune disorders. A positive anti-dsDNA (anti-double stranded DNA anti-body) is a particular anti-nuclear antibody found in some patients with lupus and is not typically present in patients who don't have lupus. An INCREASE in ESR and CRP would be found in a patient with lupus (especially during a flare) along with a POSITIVE Anti-Sm antibody (which is a particular antibody found in the nucleus that is present in lupus).
21. Your patient is in the last stage of HIV. The patient CD4 count is 100 cells/mm3. Which of the following FUNGAL infections if your patient at risk for? Select all that apply: A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Candidiasis C. Coccidioidomycosis D. Toxoplasmosis E. Histoplasmosis
The answers are B, C, and E. Candidiasis, Coccidioidomycosis, Histoplasmosis are all FUNGAL infections. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a bacterial infection, and Toxoplasmosis is a protozoal (parasitic type) infection.
10 A patient with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus is prescribed Hydroxychloroquine. Select all the educational points you will include in the patient's education about this medication: a. Hydroxychloroquine is considered a Biologic medication. b. It is used long-term to help prevent flares. c. This medication doesn't produce results immediately. Therefore, the patient may not see results for a couple of months. d. This medication binds with a protein that supports the activity of B-cells, which decreases the activity of B-cells. e. The patient must have their eyes checked regularly to monitor the retina while taking this medication
The answers are B, C, and E. Hydroxychloroquine is an antimalarial medication. It decreases antibodies attacking the body (option D describes a biologic like Belimumab). If used long-term it can damage the retinas of the eyes (the patient needs a minimum of 1 eye exam per year while taking this med). It also takes a couple of months to start working.
2. The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) can NOT be spread in what type of fluid below? Select all that apply: A. Breastmilk B. Blood C. Tears D. Semen E. Vaginal Fluid F. Sweat
The answers are C and F. HIV can NOT be spread in tears or sweat (unless blood is present which rarely occurs). HIV is spread in the following fluids: breastmilk, blood, semen, and vaginal fluid.
A hallmark of rheumatologic diseases is autoimmunity, where the body mistakenly recognizes its own tissue as a foreign pathogen (antigen).
True
Alkylating agents and purine analogues are the first line of pharmacologic therapy for people with systemic lupus eryhtematus because of their effect on overall immune function.
True
Gout is the most common form of inflammatory arthritis.
True
Many patients with PIDDs have comorbid autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, RA, cytopenias, and IBD.
True
Nurses need to be nonjudgemental in order to be effective in educating the LGBT community about HIV/AIDs prevention methods.
True
Nursing management of patients with HIV include educating the patient to recognize the signs and symptoms of infection.
True
RF for RA and its progression include older age, and nulliparity, and obesity.
True
T lymphocytes are responsible for cellular immunity.
True
The majority of lymphocytes in the blood which play a major roll in cell medicated immune responses are T cells.
True
The majority of primary immune deficiency disorders are diagnosed during infancy.
True
The structural part of invading or attacking organism that is responsible for stimulating antibody production is called an antigen.
True
lupus erythematosus, RA, multiple scheloriss, and psoriasis are examples of autoimmune disorders.
True
Is the following statement true or false? Polyarticular refers to a rheumatic disease affecting more than one joint
True Monoarticular (affecting a single joint) Polyarticular (affecting multiple joints)
Three distinct characteristics of the pathophysiology of rheumatic diseases include inflammation, autoimmunity, and _________
degeneration
