MB-200 Study Guide

How can a user make a pivot chart refresh automatically?

Right click on the pivot chart, select pivot chart options and then in the data tab you can select the option to refresh the data every time the file is opened.

On a dashboard what are interactive tiles useful for?

Showing an aggregated view of data across queues/views Selecting a tile to drill to underlying records

How is latency checked in dynamics?

Using the diagnostics tool in Dynamics 365. To run the Customer Engagement apps Diagnostics tool, follow these steps. On the user's computer or device, start a web browser, and sign in to a Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement apps organization. Enter the following URL, https://myorg.crm.dynamics.com/tools/diagnostics/diag.aspx, where myorg.crm.dynamics.com is the URL of your Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement apps organization. Click Run.

Which is true about word templates? (A) They are solution aware. (B) They can be migrated to other environments. (C) A word template can be used from a workflow. (D) Templates are limited to 5000 records

C: You can also use a Word template from a workflow. In the workflow definition, select Perform Action. From there select the SetWordTemplate item. As this uses a global action, you will need to drill into the definition to set the properties.

True or False: To enable OneNote integration, you need to configure server-based SharePoint Integration

True

True or False: Wait and timeout conditions cannot be used in real-time workflows

True

True or False: Business process flow steps support custom controls for rich visualizations.

True: Business process flow steps also support custom controls for rich visualizations in the form of sliders, radial knobs, the LinkedIn control, and more. This feature is only available in the Unified Interface.

True or False: Using the bulk delete wizard can trigger workflows in mass and cause performance issues.

True: Delete actions can trigger workflows, business rules and other automations if they are set to trigger on delete of that record type. Using the bulk delete wizard could trigger these processes in mass and cause performance issues.

When should a real time workflow be used?

When a business process requires someone to immediately see the results of the process or you want the ability to cancel an operation.

Can business process flows be run concurrently?

Yes multiple business process flows can run concurrently, however only one is visible on a record at a time. To switch between business process flows click the switch process flow button on the ribbon.

Your organization wants to use the built-in help that comes included with Dynamics 365, however they already have a custom help site they want to use for one particular entity. Can they link their custom help site to that one entity and use the default help for all of the other entities?

Yes, custom help can be set at the global or entity level. Enable custom help at the system level and then in the specific entity settings include the custom help site url. Source: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/dynamicscrm-2016/administering-dynamics-365/dn832079(v=crm.8)

The solutions framework automatically tracks dependencies for solution components. As a result of dependency tracking, what three behaviors are enforced?

1) Deleting a component is prevented if another component in the system depends on it. 2) Exporting a solution warns the user if there are any missing components that could potentially cause failure when importing that solution in another system. 3) Importing a solution fails if all required components aren't included in the solution and also don't exist in the target system.

What are the 7 important items to consider before starting a deployment process?

1) Environment Discovery 2) Single sign-on 3) Integration with Office 365 Applications 4) Administrative roles in the Microsoft Online Services environment 5) Security Roles in CE Apps 6) Importing Data 7) Product updates All of these are important considerations to make because they will determine the cost and complexity of the project.

What are two reasons that a process template would be helpful?

1: You want to allow users to create their own workflows but give them a starting point. 2: ISVs can also ship their solution with a process template allowing their customers to quickly implement workflows form a starting point they provided.

What are the two main reasons for avoiding excessive use of wait conditions in a workflow?

1: performance implications 2: If you change the logic in your workflow and republish (like update the text of the email sent to your client), it does not change waiting workflow instances

Which customizations are currently unsupported in the Dynamics 365 app for Outlook? (A) Customization of the site map for the App for Outlook app module (B) Remove default entities from the app aren't used (C) Enable a custom entity to show up in the app (D) Changing the App for Outlook default dashboard (E) Configure which views appear in the App for Outlook (F) Configure searching on custom fields (G) Customize the track regarding card

A & D: The following customizations are not currently supported and may result in an unstable app: Customization of the site map for the App for Outlook app module Changing the App for Outlook default dashboard.

What is an entity relationship diagram?

A data model describing how entities relate to one another. They can be used to understand the business domain, clarify business terminology, and connect business concepts to database structure.

You are creating a goal that will be used to track the total value of Opportunities that are closed by individual sales staff members. Which metric type would you select in the Goal Metric Field? (A) Count (B) Total (C) Value (D) Amount

A goal metric is the numeric measurement that is based on a value in a specific record type, Goal Metrics, are defined at an organization level and are not specific to any users. They are two types of metrics that can be defined based on your individual needs. Amount is used when you want to create a metric that will be used with dollar amount values. Count is used when you want to simply identify the total number of records that meet a specific criterion.

What is a managed solution? Can it be uninstalled?

A managed solution is a set of components added on top of the default solution rather than into the default solution. This allows the user to uninstall the solution and remove any components that were packaged with it.

What is a weak entity?

A type of entity that doesn't have its key attribute. It can be identified uniquely by the primary key of another entity.

True or False: Changes made in Customer Engagement apps will instantly synchronize with the Relevance search azure service.

False: Changes made in Customer Engagement apps may take up to 15 minutes to appear in the search service. It may take up to up to an hour or more to complete a full sync for average to large size organizations.

True or False: Common Data Service for Apps supports server-side synchronization with Exchange online even if the CDS is in a different tenant

False: Common Data Service for Apps supports server-side synchronization with Exchange Online only in the same tenant. Connecting Common Data Service with Exchange Online in a different tenant is not supported.

True or False: If a bulk delete job fails, any records that were successfully deleted before the failure are rolled back.

False: If a bulk delete job fails, any records successfully deleted before the failure remain deleted and are not rolled back.

What are the 4 mandatory attributes that must be set for a custom interactive dashboard?

Filter Entity: The visual filters and global filter attributes are based on this entity. Entity View: The visual filters are based on this view. Filter By: The field that the time frame filter applies to. Time Frame: The default time frame filter value for the Filter By field.

You have just imported a dataset into dynamics with the import tool. You navigate to the entity in dynamics and it shows all of the active records. However, it only shows the name of the record and the date it was created on. You want to add some fields to this view. How do you do it?

In settings you go to customizations. Find the entity on the left sidebar. Then go to views and edit the active entity view. Then add some fields, save and publish.

Where can an admin manage the applications/solutions for Dynamics 365?

In the Dynamics 365 Administation Center in the applications tab

Where can an admin manage their Dynamics 365 instances?

In the Dynamics 365 Administration Center

When two or more solutions define solution components differently, Dynamics for CE apps resolve the conflict using what two strategies?

Merge and Top Wins

Is instance to instance migration for Excel Templates supported in Dynamics?

No it is not currently supported.

Do mailboxes store any information about tracked activities?

No, Mailboxes in Common Data Service for Apps are used to connect user and queue records with their respective mailboxes on the email server for the purpose of tracking activities such as emails or appointments. They do not store any information about the tracked activities themselves.

By default does Dynamics 365 for CE enforce an inactivity session timeout?

No, To enforce users to automatically signed out after a pre-determined period of inactivity, admins can set an inactivity timeout period for each of their Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement instances. The application signs out the user when the inactivity session expires.

A sales team has a major opportunity requiring input from several people who don't have access to Dynamics 365. How can they collaborate/share documents, conversations, meetings, and notes?

Office 365 Groups For example, use Office 365 Groups when a sales team has a major opportunity requiring input from several people who don't have access to Dynamics 365. Office 365 Groups provide a single location to share documents, conversations, meetings, and notes.

In a business process flow workflows can be triggered when?

On stage entry or exit.

Which of the following cannot be added to a quick form? (A) IFRAME (B) Fields (C) Tabs (D) Script

A: An IFRAME cannot be added to a quick form.

You are using Organization Insights to monitor storage and want a more granular view of between date ranges on your storage consumption what should you do? (A) Change filters (B) Change tabs (C) Go to Data Integrations (D) Go to Data Policies

A: Changing filters is how you would get a more granular view.

You need to configure Common Data Service to work with Microsoft Exchange on-premise. When configuring the email server profile what server type should you specify? (A) Hybrid. (B) POP3/SMTP. (C) On-premise. (D) Exchange Web Services.

A: Configure the email server profile to Hybrid so Common Data Service works with Microsoft Exchange on-premise.

What would you use to expose service-related data on a customer facing website to provide customers with the ability to view items like open service requests and knowledge base articles? (A) Dynamics 365 Portals (B) Power Apps (C) Microsoft Teams integration (D) Dynamics 365 Customer Insights

A: Dynamics 365 Portals is an add-on solution that provides the ability to expose Dynamics 365 data externally. This provides the ability for customers to access information, such as cases and knowledge management articles.

For an organization-owned entity what are the options for the scope of a workflow? (A) Organization (B) Parent: Child Business Units (C) Business Unit (D) User (E) All of the above

A: For Organization-owned entities the only option is Organization. For user-owned entities, options are Organization, Parent: Child Business Units, Business Unit, or User.

Which of the following admin roles can assign admin permission to other users in Microsoft 365 admin center? (A) Global Admin (B) User Management Admin (C) Billing Admin (D) Dynamics 365 Service Admin

A: Global admins are the only admins who can assign other admin roles, and only global admins can manage the accounts of other global admins.

You have just created a Goal for a Sales person that will track the total revenue generated by their opportunities for the Year. Which field would likely be used for tracking the data that is considered In Progress? (A) Est. Revenue (B) Actual Revenue (C) Budget (D) Calculation Method

A: Goal records are made up of three numeric values that are used together to track progress against goals, Target Values, The target value that the owner of the goal is trying to achieve, Actual Values, Based on the Actual Rollup Field on the Goal Metric, and in the case of Opportunity Revenue would be based on the Actual Revenue, and In-Progress Values, Based on the In-Progress Rollup Field and in this case would be based on the Estimated Revenue Field on the Opportunity.

For a workflow with a scope of business unit, which record field indicates the records that will be exposed to the workflow? (A) Owner (B) Territory (C) Business unit (D) Scope

A: Owner is the record field that is exposed to workflow.

What is the total number of business processes that can be active on an entity? (A) Ten (B) Thirty (C) Five (D) Two

A: Ten business processes can be active on an entity.

Which of the following features is only available on the Dynamics 365 App for Outlook? (A) Tracking from Outlook for MAC (B) Offline Mode (C) Email Templates (D) Set Regarding

A: The Dynamics 365 App for Outlook is the only client that can track from Outlook for MAC.

Which of the following mobile apps is used to run a model-driven app? (A) Dynamics 365 for phones (B) PowerApps player (C) Azure Authenticator (D) Microsoft Flow

A: The Dynamics 365 for phones app runs model-driven apps. Power Apps player runs canvas apps.

What is an unmanaged solution? Can it be uninstalled?

An unmanaged solution is a set of components that are added to the default solution. No, components cannot be removed by uninstalling the solution.

Unlike Word templates, which are generated from a specific record, Excel templates are only generated from __________. Fill in the blank. (A) Tabs. (B) Views. (C) Sections. (D) Forms.

B: Excel templates are only generated from Views.

Which type of workflow runs independent of other workflows and plugins? (A) Real-Time workflow (B) Background workflow (C) Parent workflow (D) Child workflow

B: Background workflows run independently of other workflows and plugins.

Which is true about excel templates? (A) Excel templates are solution aware (B) Pivot charts are not refreshed automatically. (C) Excel templates are either generated from a specific record or a view. (D) Excel templates can be migrated to other environments.

B: By default, pivot chart data is not refreshed automatically. To enable automatic refresh, right click on the pivot chart, select pivot chart options and then on the data tab select the option to refresh the data when opening the file.

Which tracking method is not supported with Dynamics 365 for Outlook? (A) Folder-level tracking (B) Category-based Tracking (C) Correlation tracking (D) Tracking Token (E) Smart Matching

B: Category-based tracking is not supported with Dynamics 365 for Outlook and it's recommended not to enable it on a Common Data Service apps organization set up to use Dynamics 365 for Outlook.

Which of the following Dynamics 365 record types will be used for controlling access to Microsoft Portals? (A) Users (B) Contacts (C) Accounts (D) Connections

B: During sign-up, the user has the option of creating a local account (providing a username and password) or selecting an external identity from a list of identity providers. If an external identity is selected, the user is required to sign in through the chosen identity provider to prove that they own the external account. In either case, the user is immediately registered and authenticated with the portal. A new contact record is created in the Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement organization upon sign-up.

Which of the following abilities is a direct feature of Dynamics 365's Universal Resource Scheduling solution? (A) The ability to generate work orders on a predefined schedule. (B) The ability to identify qualified resources based on skills. (C) The ability to generate project schedules and timelines. (D)The ability to define service boundaries.

B: Dynamics 365 Universal Resource Scheduling provides the ability to schedule resources for items such as work orders, projects, or other predefined information. Resources can be identified based on the skills that they possess and then scheduled to work on items accordingly.

You log into Dynamics 365 for tablets and notice that two dashboards you have access to on the web client are missing. What is likely the cause? (A) Your user account doesn't have Dynamics 365 for mobile privilege (B) The dashboards are not mobile enabled (C) Only system dashboards are available in Dynamics 365 for tablets (D) The dashboards reference entities that are not mobile enabled

B: Dynamics 365 for tablets can show multiple dashboards (personal, and system) but the dashboards will only appear if they are enabled for mobile.

What would a sales representative do to a lead after they have determined that the lead is a good fit for the organization as well as the organization being a good fit for the lead? (A) The Lead is disqualified (B) The Lead is qualified (C) The Lead is converted into an order (D) The Lead is activated

B: Lead qualification is the process of determining if the lead is someone that the organization would be interested in pursuing a potential relationship with. After it has been identified that the lead is a good fit, they are qualified in the system and converted to an Opportunity.

Which of the following statements is true regarding administration mode? (A) Updates are released quarterly and installed automatically into every instance (B) Major updates and Minor Service updates are installed automatically and don't scheduled downtime. (C) Only Minor Service updates are installed automatically. Major updates need to be approved and scheduled before they are installed. (D) Updates are released twice a year and customers can delay the installation of updates for up to a year

B: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Update Policy states - Customer Driven Updates (CDU) are no longer available. The major updates will be deployed similar to our Minor Service Update experience we are delivering today and won't require you to schedule downtime. And also Microsoft will deliver two major updates per year, in April and October, offering new capabilities and functionality. These updates will be backward compatible, so your apps and customizations will continue to work post-update.

When an asynchronous workflow is triggered by a change in data, whose security roles are used to give the security context? (A) The owner of the record. (B) The owner of the workflow. (C) The system administrator. (D) The user modifying the record.

B: The owner's security role is used for asynchronous workflow.

With a business process flow users may trigger _________ by entering or exiting a stage. (A) Reports (B) Workflows (C) Templates (D) Synchronization

B: Workflows are triggered by entering or exiting a stage.

Which of the following is a feature available only to Sandbox instances? (A) Editable URL (B) Administration Mode (C) Security Group access control (D) Scheduled updates

B: You can only place Sandbox instances in Administration Mode because when you place a Sandbox instance in administration mode only users with Customer Engagement apps System Administrator or System Customizer security roles will be able to sign in to that instance.

If you need to display form data on a dashboard, what form type should you use? (A) Quick view (B) Main (C) Card (D) Quick create

C: Use the card form type to display form data on a dashboard.

How many stages can a business process flow have? (A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 31 (D) 50

C: When creating a new business process flow, the first stage is created by default. Although up to 30 more stages can be added, most business process flows have fewer than ten stages.

How do you apply stage gating to a business process flow? (A) Configure a business rule. (B) Configure the stage as required. (C) Mark one of the steps in the stage as required. (D) Create an action step.

C: Stage gating requires one step to be marked as required.

Which of the following statements is true regarding security privileges to access to the mobile app? (A) The privilege is pre-configured for all roles (B) The privilege is not pre-configured by default for all roles (C) The privilege is pre-configured for Sales roles, but not other security roles (D) The privilege is pre-configured for System Administrators only

C: The privilege to access mobile apps is pre-configured for sales roles but not other roles within the organization. It needs to be added to other roles so non-sales users can connect to Dynamics 365 with the mobile apps.

You are wanting to work with files from SharePoint from within Dynamics 365. Where can you access SharePoint files from in the Dynamics 365 Interface? (A) From the command menu. (B) SharePoint Tab on a form. (C) Documents Tab on a form. (D) From the main menu.

C: Access SharePoint files from the Documents tab in Dynamics 365.

Bulk deleting one record causes deletion of related records. What is the reason? (A) Bulk delete is configured to also delete the related records. (B) Bulk deletion triggers a workflow and the workflow deletes the related records. (C) Cascade Delete is configured on the entity relationship. (D) All of the above.

C: Cascade Delete is configured on the entity relationship.

Which is true about working offline in Dynamics 365 for Outlook? (A) Users cannot work offline (B) Users can work offline with all data. Changes to the data are tracked and played back when the user connects to the server. (C) Users can take a subset of the overall data offline. Changes to the data are tracked and played back when the user connects to the server.

C: Dynamics 365 for Outlook has the ability to take a subset of the overall data offline. Changes to the offline data are tracked and played back when the user connects to the server. To use this feature, you must define what data to take offline and the user must have the Go Offline privilege. To define the subset of data Offline Filters are configured for the user.

The ability to display items such as organizational news, existing connections, and leads are all examples of what? (A) Playbooks. (B) Sales AI. (C) Widgets in Sales Navigator add-on. (D) Embedded Intelligence.

C: Dynamics 365's integration with LinkedIn Sales navigator provides the ability to add Widgets to Dynamics 365 forms that surface Sales Navigator data in Dynamics 365. These widgets include the Top Cards, News, Connections, and Related Leads widgets.

What is the term used to describe the time period required to create goals? (A) Goal Date (B) Date Range (C) Fiscal Period (D) Goal Period

C: Each goal must specify a particular fiscal period or a custom time period first before it can be saved

Which of the following statements is true regarding mobile offline synchronization? (A) All Dynamics 365 entities are enabled for offline access by default (B) No Dynamics 365 entities are enabled for offline access by default (C) Some Dynamics 365 entities are enabled for offline access by default (D) Offline access can only be enabled for custom entities

C: One of the first things that you need to do is enable entities that will be available to mobile users when they're using the mobile app in offline mode. Any entity that is enable for mobile can also be enabled for mobile offline. By default, 20 entities are enabled for mobile offline access by default.

Some system views, such as accounts ':' no campaign activities in last 3 months, can be exported only to what type of Excel file? (A) Excel online (B) Excel Dynamics worksheet (C) Static Excel worksheet (D) None of the above

C: Only Static Excel worksheet will work for this export.

You have a workflow with a wait condition that waits for a specific status reason value. What step would you use to ensure that the process does not wait indefinitely? (A) Synchronous Wait step using process Start time property. (B) Change Status step to update status reason value to the one matching wait condition. (C) Parallel Wait step using Timeout property of the process. (D) You cannot simultaneously wait on multiple conditions.

C: Parallel wait step using a Timeout property ensures the process does not wait indefinitely.

Which of the following is an authentication process that enables a user to access multiple systems or services through a single set of credentials? (A) Administrative Roles (B) Non-Interactive User (C) Single sign-on (D) Multi-factor authentication

C: Single sign-on automatically signs users in when they are on their corporate devices connected to your corporate network. When enabled, users don't need to type in their passwords to sign in to Azure AD, and usually, even type in their usernames to access multiple systems or services.

Which statement best describes a Goal Metric? (A) The specific numeric item that we want to measure. (B) The specific target value for a specific time period. (C) The specific person that the goal applies to. (D) The specific criteria used to define a goal.

D: A goal metric is the numeric measurement that is based on a value in a specific record type, Goal Metrics, are defined at an organization level and are not specific to any users. Once a Goal Metric is defined, all new goals will be based on existing goal metrics and will have specific targets and owners defined.

You want to be able to create goals that will be used to track the total value of Opportunities that are closed by individual sales staff members. Which metric type would you use? (A) Count (B) Total (C) Value (D) Amount

D: A goal metric is the numeric measurement that is based on a value in a specific record type, Goal Metrics, are defined at an organization level and are not specific to any users. They are two types of metrics that can be defined based on your individual needs. Amount is used when you want to create a metric that will be used with dollar amount values. Count is used when you want to simply identify the total number of records that meet a specific criterion.

What is an editable grid? (A) A form used to display a dashboard. (B) A function to create new fields. (C) A specific form type that can be used to edit and create new fields. (D) Special controls for editing select fields from a view without having to open the specific record.

D: An editable grid is a special control for editing fields from a view without opening the record.

You have setup the integration between Dynamics 365 and Groups. People with the Sales role have full access to all the functionality offered in Groups from within Dynamics 365. For some reason people that have the customer service role are having problems. What should you check? (A) Check that the Customer Service role has Modify Customizations constraints privilege. (B) Check that the Customer Service role has Activate Real-time Processes privilege. (C) Check that the Customer Service role has Web Resources privilege. (D) Check that the Customer Service role has ISV Extensions privilege.

D: Check to ensure the Customer Service role has ISV Extensions privilege.

One of the main reasons people use Common Data Service for Apps is to store all customer __________________ in one place, so anyone with the appropriate permissions can see all relevant customer records. Fill in the blank. (A) Emails. (B) Letters. (C) Notes. (D) Communications.

D: Common Data Service for Apps allows us to store all customer communications in one place.

A workflow process is deactivated. What happens to workflows currently in process at the time of deactivation? (A) Current workflows enter a waiting status and can be resumed later. (B) Asynchronous workflows are paused, changes made by synchronous workflows are rolled back. (C) Current workflows are canceled. (D) Nothing. Workflows previously triggered will run to completion or cancelation.

D: Previously triggered workflows will continue to run to completion or cancelation.

Which of the following statements is true regarding multi-instance deployments? (A) All instances within a tenant share the same database (B) Users are only licensed to access one instance on the tenant (C) Users need a separate set of credentials to access every instance on the tenant (D) Available Storage is shared amongst all instances within a tenant

D: Storage is shared across the primary instance and any additional instances. All instances for a single customer tenant will be set up in the geography where they initially signed up for their account. Storage consumption is totaled and tracked across all the instances attached to a customer tenant.

What happens when data is entered in a field on a form that also has a business process flow with the same fields represented within a stage? (A) Data only appears on the form. (B) Data only appears on the business process flow. (C) Nothing. (D) The data appears in both the form and the business process flow.

D: The data appears in both the form and the business process flow.

A user can configure in personal setting what emails they would like to track. What are the available options? (A) All email messages. (B) Email messages in response to Dynamics 365 email. (C) Email messages from Dynamics 365 records that are email enabled. (D) All of the above.

D: Users can track all emails, emails in response to Dynamics 365 email, and email messages from Dynamics 365 records that are email enabled.

Which of these views is NOT a specialty view? (A) Quick Find (B) Advanced Find (C) Associated (D) Lookup (E) Quick View

E

Why use custom actions in dynamics 365?

Either to create a new operation that is not available in Common Data Service or D365 for CE or to combine multiple operations into a single operation.

You want to hide the social security number field on the Account entity for everyone but the head of the HR department. How can you accomplish this?

Enable field level security for the entity. Then go to settings->security and go to field security profiles. Make a new profile and add the head of the HR to the profile. Then grant read access to the head of HR and save.

What does every business rule start with?

Every business rule must start with a condition.

When can a workflow be edited?

Only while the workflow is deactivated can it be edited.

A business wants to manage its leads and opportunities in dynamics. It also wants to require certain fields to be filled out before a salesman moves onto the next step. How can they do this?

They should edit the default lead to opportunity business process flow or create a new one. Then they should use a technique called stage-gating where a salesman cannot move on to the next stage until certain required fields are completed.

A car can only be registered in one person's name but a person can have multiple cars registered in their own name? What kind of relationship is this?

This is a one-to-many relationship

What are the 3 high-level steps for integrating Microsoft Teams and Dynamics 365?

The following are the high-level steps to enable the integration for users: 1. In Dynamics 365 system settings enable the Microsoft Teams preview. 2. From Microsoft Teams, install the Dynamics 365 Teams App. 3. Create teams and configure a tab to connect to a Common Data Service record.

What is the definition of latency?

The time required for a signal to travel from one point on a network to another, and it is a fixed cost between two points.

What is the definition of bandwidth?

The width or capacity of a specific communications channel.

How do you enable onedrive for business?

You can enable OneDrive for Business as follows. 1. Click Settings > Document Management > Enable OneDrive for Business. 2. Click Enable OneDrive for Business to enable it, and then choose OK. Note: Each user must have a sharepoint license