MKTG Research Test 1

E

A _____ is an empirically testable though yet unproven statement developed in order to explain phenomena. A. construct B. law C. sample statistic D. fact E. hypothesis

A

A _____ is an observable item that is used as a measure on a questionnaire. A. variable B. construct C. quota D. hypothesis E. parameter

C

A conceptual model becomes a theoretical model when: A. a full-scale study is likely to cost more than an exploratory study. B. a literature review and the available secondary data are inadequate to suggest strong candidates for explaining dependent variables of interest. C. a literature review or an exploratory research is sufficient to support the model's pictured relationships between variables. D. the dependent variables identified in the model are constructs. E. the independent variables identified in the model are constructs.

C

A moderator's guide is: A. an interviewer's ability to articulate questions in a direct and clear manner. B. a note attached to the name tag of each participant. C. a detailed outline of the topics, questions, and subquestions used by the moderator to lead a focus group session. D. an interactive procedure in which the researcher and the moderator discuss the subjects' responses to the topics that outlined a focus group session. E. the systematic procedure of taking individual responses and grouping them into larger theme categories or patterns of expressions.

C

A new supermarket, The Deluxe Mart, collates its sales data using scanners at the point of purchase. It uses this data to identify the products to stock and the type of content and media to use to attract customers. In this scenario, The Deluxe Mart is most likely using: A. perceptual mapping. B. test marketing. C. retailing research. D. logistical assessment. E. concept testing.

B

A parameter is defined as the _____. A. true value of a null hypothesis B. true value of a variable C. estimate of an alternative hypothesis D. estimate of a sample statistic E. estimated value of a construct

C

A(n) _____ hypothesis is a statistical hypothesis that is tested for possible rejection under the assumption that it is true. A. marginal B. test C. null D. theoretical E. alternative

C

A(n) _____ hypothesis states that there is a relationship between two variables. A. null B. test C. alternative D. default E. limited

B

A(n) _____ is an unobservable concept that is measured by a group of related variables. A. quota B. construct C. alternative hypothesis D. parameter E. null hypothesis

A

Allen is conducting qualitative research. Which of the following is most likely to be the objective of his research? A. To probe into subconscious consumer motivations B. To make accurate predictions about relationships between market forces and purchase behavior C. To validate the relationship between advertising expenses and sales volume D. To make generalizable observations about a target population's buying behavior E. To test a hypothesis linking coupon value to brand preference

B

An in-depth interview: A. involves an extended contact with a natural setting, but without participation by a researcher. B. involves asking a respondent a set of semistructured, probing questions in a face-to-face setting. C. has a high likelihood of participants responding in a socially desirable manner. D. is a formalized process of bringing a small group together for discussion on a particular topic. E. is also called memoing.

C

Apex Corp. asks its consumers to determine how they perceive the similarities and dissimilarities among relevant product attributes for a group of competing brands. In this case, Apex Corp. is most likely using the technique of _____. A. concept testing B. behavioral targeting C. perceptual mapping D. bivariate regression analysis E. analysis of variance (ANOVA)

C

Assume that respondents aged 70 or older are only one-third as likely to be in an Internet sample as their actual incidence in the population. Using the propensity scoring method, their responses would be: A. excluded from the sample to avoid any potential bias. B. included as is (only once) to keep the data truly representative. C. counted three times in the sample. D. included selectively (about one-third of the time) in the sample. E. included alternatively.

C

Aura Inc. is a research firm that conducts store audits for a variety of retail stores. It follows an established, common approach in research design so the results of a study conducted for one client can be compared to norms from studies done for other clients. In the context of types of marketing research firms, Aura Inc. is a(n) _____. A. customized research firm B. internal research provider C. standardized research firm D. specialty market research firm E. brokerage firm

C

Causal research is most useful in _____. A. generating insights that help in defining a problem situation B. understanding consumer motivations and behavior that are not easy to access using other research methods C. understanding which variables result in the movement of a dependent variable D. analyzing historical data that has been previously collected for some research situation other than the current situation E. collecting quantitative data to answer research questions such as who, what, when, where, and how

D

Compared to lab experiments, field experiments: A. are less realistic. B. are more controllable. C. take lesser time to complete. D. are more expensive to conduct. E. are more effective in maintaining secrecy.

A

Computer-assisted telephone interviewing (CATI) refers to interviews in which: A. the interviewer reads questions from a computer screen to the respondent and directly keys in the responses. B. the interviewer calls up respondents, sends them an electronic survey, and assists them in completing the form. The respondents return the survey via e-mail. C. computer disks (CDs) are sent to respondents through mail. The respondents complete the survey on their own personal computers and return the CDs to the researcher through mail. D. a computer is used to dial and send a survey to potential respondents through fax. The respondents return the survey via fax or mail. E. the respondents are asked questions through mails.

E

Conceptualization of a model means developing a: A. research concept before developing a literature review. B. conceptual model of the geographic area from which the sample would be drawn. C. text-based model to do statistical testing of hypothesized relationships. D. conceptual model of a new product before it is tested in a lab setting. E. model that shows variables and hypothesized relationships between variables.

E

Content analysis is: A. an interviewer's ability to articulate questions in a direct and clear manner. B. the process of collecting both attitudinal and behavioral data from a subject that spans all time frames. C. a detailed outline of the topics, questions, and subquestions used by a moderator to lead a focus group session. D. an interactive procedure in which a researcher and moderator discuss the subjects' responses to the topics that outlined a focus group session. E. the systematic procedure of taking individual responses and grouping them into larger theme categories or patterns.

A

Data generalizability is the: A. extent to which the data is an accurate portrait of a defined target population. B. degree to which a specific question or an investigated issue leads a respondent to give a socially expected response. C. level of preparation required to create an appropriate environment for a respondent. D. degree to which respondents share certain similarities. E. percentage of the general population that is the subject of a market research survey.

E

Data precision is the: A. degree to which a specific question or an investigated issue leads a respondent to give a socially expected response. B. level of preparation required to create an appropriate environment for a respondent. C. degree to which respondents share certain similarities. D. percentage of the general population that is the subject of a market research survey. E. degree of accuracy of a response in relation to some other possible answer.

B

Evaluating secondary data based on the purpose criterion involves _____. A. ensuring accuracy of the secondary data B. ensuring the data is consistent with the research objectives at hand C. seeking multiple sources of the same data to assure consistency D. finding flaws in the methodological procedures used in collecting the data E. determining the underlying motivation or hidden agenda, if any, of the organization that collected the secondary data

D

Felix Corp. is a cookware manufacturer. It conducts market testing for a new appliance. JK Corp., a competitor of Felix, reduces its prices during the market test to prevent Felix from collecting accurate information. In this scenario, JK Corp. is engaging in a practice called _____. A. scaling B. pretesting C. clustering D. jamming E. positioning

A

Frugging means: A. claiming that a survey is for research purposes and then asking for a sale or donation. B. fully explaining to respondents any deception that was used during research. C. using data collection personnel to fill out surveys for fake respondents. D. combining different publicly available information on the Internet to determine consumers' identities. E. conducting research below professional standards.

C

Gatekeeper technologies are used to _____. A. prevent the introduction of new and creative marketing strategies B. help market researchers track the behavior of internet users C. protect one's privacy against intrusive marketing practices D. allow marketers to use traditional methods for contacting people E. simplify the process of getting user information using telemarketing

E

Identify the first phase in the process of developing a focus group interview. A. Conducting content analysis B. Conducting the focus group discussions C. Analyzing and reporting the results D. Asking questions including follow-up probing E. Planning the focus group study

E

In a census, a researcher attempts to _____. A. use the probability sampling technique B. define the known chance of selecting a subject C. use a small representative sample to generalize about a target population D. collect data from a small set of people from a target population E. question or observe all the members of a defined target population

D

In a research proposal, which of the following sections discusses the types of scales to be used for data collection? A. Definition of the target population B. Sample design C. Data collection method D. Specific research instruments E. Definition of the sample size

C

In the context of a drop-off survey, which of the following is true? A. It is a face-to-face personal interview that takes place in a shopping mall. B. It is a face-to-face structured question-and-answer exchange conducted in a respondent's home or at times in an office environment. C. In this survey, a representative of the researcher hand-delivers a self-administered questionnaire to selected respondents. D. FCC regulations prevent the use of drop-off surveys. E. In this survey, the researcher arranges for a computer-assisted telephone interview with the respondents.

D

In the context of data collection methods, which of the following statements is true of projective techniques? A. They are used to monitor and analyze social media sources to provide research insights. B. They involve recording human behavior in natural settings. C. They rule out subjectivity. D. They use indirect questioning methods. E. They are primarily used in quantitative research.

A

In the context of developing a conceptual model, a(n) _____ is the construct researchers are seeking to explain. A. dependent variable B. independent variable C. positive relationship D. negative relationship E. null hypothesis

C

In the context of developing a conceptual model, constructs are always measured by one or more _____. A. quota sheets B. consumer panels C. indicator variables D. focus groups E. convenience samples

A

In the context of experimental research, _____ refers to the extent to which a research design accurately identifies causal relationships. A. incidence rate B. data generalizability C. external reliability D. topic sensitivity E. internal validity

E

In the context of focus groups, journaling makes it possible for: A. interviewers to push or spawn websites to participants' browsers. B. interviewers to encourage groupthink among participants. C. participants to have a clear understanding of what they are responding to in a study. D. participants to avoid answering probing questions. E. participants to provide real-time feedback.

C

In the context of marketing research, curbstoning occurs when: A. a researcher does not maintain respondent confidentiality. B. a researcher deanonymizes information on the Internet by combining different publicly available records available at social networks. C. a researcher's trained interviewers or observers make up observed respondents' behaviors. D. a researcher fully explains to respondents any deception that was used during research. E. e-tailers display ads at one website based on a user's previous surfing behavior.

C

In the context of marketing research, the iceberg principle states that: A. a researcher must determine the types of data that will best answer each research question before redefining a problem into research questions. B. data becomes knowledge when someone, either a researcher or a decision maker, interprets the data and attaches meaning. C. managers are aware of just a small portion of the true problem, and this small portion is generally the visible symptom of a bigger underlying problem. D. 80 percent of the marketing research budget of a company is typically spent on solving 20 percent of the problems facing the company. E. the importance of marketing research is often underestimated in organizations, and what people see is only a small part of a much bigger support system.

E

In the context of marketing research, which of the following highlights problems and opportunities for marketers that are based on consumers' actual behavior? A. Deanonymizing data B. Situation analysis C. Curbstoning D. Sugging E. Ethnography

A

In the context of types of marketing research firms, external research suppliers: A. chosen by companies on a study-by-study basis help the companies gain greater flexibility. B. strictly perform only selected aspects of marketing research. C. are typically organizational units that reside within a company. D. provide research method consistency unlike internal research providers. E. are less objective in their approach and more subject to company politics and regulations than internal research providers.

C

In the information research process, examining measurement issues and scales involves _____. A. examining quantitative data to answer a research question and measure the sampling errors B. determining if the population represented by the secondary data is relevant to the current research problem C. identifying the concepts to study and measuring the variables related to a research problem D. specifying the research objectives and confirming the information value E. selecting the correct type, sequence, and format of questions

A

In the planning phase of a focus group interview, _____. A. appropriate participants are selected and recruited B. a moderator's guide is prepared to ensure that the actual focus group session is productive C. a researcher debriefs all the key players involved to compare notes D. the first topic area is introduced to the participants using a moderator's guide E. moderators give participants exercises to help stimulate conversation

D

Incidence rate is the: A. degree to which a specific question or an investigated issue leads a respondent to give a socially expected response. B. level of preparation required to create an appropriate environment for a respondent. C. degree to which respondents share certain similarities. D. percentage of the general population that is the subject of a market research study. E. degree of accuracy of a response in relation to some other possible answer.

C

Jenna participates in a face-to-face interview, which is part of a research study on sexually transmitted diseases. When the interviewer asks Jenna if she had any extramarital relationship in the last three years, Jenna lies to the interviewer saying that she does not engage in such relationships. In the context of survey research methods, which of the following characteristics is best exemplified in this scenario? A. Knowledge level B. Diversity C. Topic sensitivity D. Incidence rate E. Ability to participate

C

Katie, a researcher, submits a specific document to Sayeed, the marketing manager of GK Corp. The document serves as a written contract between Katie and Sayeed and lists the activities that will be undertaken by Katie to develop the needed information, the research deliverables, how long it will take, and what it will cost. In this scenario, Katie has most likely submitted _____. A. a methodology transcript B. a questionnaire design C. a research proposal D. the final research report E. the research design

A

Kiara, a market researcher, wants to study the relationship between childhood obesity and socioeconomic status. She has to decide whether to collect data on income from individuals or from a husband and wife representing the household. In this scenario, Kiara has to determine the _____. A. unit of analysis B. sampling technique C. secondary sources of data D. type of research method E. method of literature review

D

Liam, a market researcher, is preparing a research proposal. He wants to mention that he will use exploratory techniques and collect primary data for the study. In the context of the sections in a research proposal, Liam is most likely to include this information under _____. A. definition of the target population B. specific research instruments C. purpose of the study D. type of study E. profile of the company capabilities

B

Marilynn Castillo is a marketing manager at Gordon Corp. She debates whether or not to conduct a marketing research study before commercializing a product. After a brief analysis, she realizes that conducting the study will cost approximately $100,000. If she launches the product without conducting the study and the product fails, her firm could suffer a loss of $2 million. In this scenario, Marilynn conducts a(n) _____. A. assessment on time availability B. cost-benefit assessment C. assessment on research designs D. assessment on information availability E. market-sensitivity assessment

A

Marketing to consumers based on research of the entire process consumers go through when making a purchase is termed: A. shopper marketing. B. behavioral targeting. C. retailing research. D. test marketing. E. a benefit and lifestyle study.

C

Neptune Inc., a cosmetics company, has come up with a new bodywash. The marketing department of Neptune conducts market research to determine an appropriate price for the product. The representatives of the company go to various malls and sell the product at different prices. The sales volume for each price is measured, and they are compared to determine the optimal price. This is an example of: A. laboratory experimentation. B. a drop-off survey. C. test marketing. D. a mail panel survey. E. a wireless phone survey.

A

Purposive sampling means: A. selecting sample members to study because they possess attributes important to understanding a research topic. B. selecting sample members so that groups can be compared. C. selecting sample members based on earlier interviews. D. selecting particular types of participants because they can minimize cross talk during the discussions of a research topic. E. selecting sample participants who can generate spontaneous discussion on a research topic.

D

Quantitative research is most likely to be used when: A. the objective is to identify new ideas and thoughts for a product. B. the main goal is to uncover unanticipated findings and reactions. C. the objective is to understand hidden underlying psychological processes. D. the objective is to validate relationships and test hypotheses. E. one has access to small samples.

D

Research depicts the typical Saturn dirt bike shopper as a middle-aged person with an income of $75,000 per annum. This is an example of: A. positioning research. B. retailing research. C. focus group research. D. market segmentation research. E. pricing strategy research.

C

Research investigations that focus on topics such as trade area analysis, store image/perception, in-store traffic patterns, and location analysis are collectively called: A. perceptual mapping. B. positioning research. C. retailing research. D. test marketing. E. focus group research.

C

Sally browses through different articles featured on Pop.com. She notices ads for skirts that she recently viewed on Trendz.com, an online apparel store, being displayed on Pop.com. In this scenario, Trendz.com is using the technique of _____. A. perceptual mapping B. test marketing C. behavioral targeting D. theoretical sampling E. concept positioning

B

Services provided by standardized research firms that include data made or developed from a common data pool or database are called _____ services. A. debriefed B. syndicated business C. customized D. highly tailored E. branded "black-box"

B

Test marketing _____. A. identifies two or more segments within the market for a particular company's products B. provides information for decisions on product improvements and new-product introductions C. includes choosing and evaluating locations, channels, and distribution partners D. focuses on database development through optical scanning at the point of purchase E. involves understanding how one's target consumers behave as shoppers, in different channels and formats, and leveraging this intelligence to the benefit of all stakeholders

E

The North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) codes are designed to _____. A. index major market research reports for a variety of private institutions B. index online publications available up to the current month and year C. provide the statistical foundation for the information available on the U.S. population D. provide a detailed profile of economic activity within a given geographic area E. promote uniformity in data reporting by government sources and private businesses

A

The application of technological tools to identify, extract, and quantify subject information in textual data is called: A. sentiment analysis. B. scanner-based research system. C. listening post. D. netnography. E. content analysis.

B

The difference between social media monitoring and private communities is that in social media research _____. A. the sample of people interacting about a product is a self-selected sample that is representative of consumer reactions in a target market B. the data already exists and is not created by interaction with researchers C. the primary purpose is research D. most companies outsource community development to a provider because of the start-up costs involved E. researchers cannot observe people interacting with each other unprompted by the potential bias of interviewers and questions

B

The first task in the information research process is to _____. A. specify research objectives and confirm the information value B. identify and clarify information needs C. determine measurement issues and scales D. develop the sampling plan and sample size E. determine the research design and data sources

A

The iceberg principle helps researchers _____. A. distinguish between the symptoms and the causes of a problem B. select the appropriate research design for a problem C. execute a research design D. conduct a review of the literature E. determine the types of data that will best answer each research question

D

The interactive procedure in which a researcher and a moderator discuss the subjects' responses to the topics that outlined a focus group session is called: A. content analysis. B. sentiment analysis. C. groupthink. D. debriefing analysis. E. listening post.

C

The major reason for using government documents as secondary data sources is that they _____. A. are easily available in all marketing blogs B. provide predefined categories of variables that always meet user requirements C. are detailed, complete, and consistent D. provide the most up-to-date information E. are available for a wide range of topics

C

The objective of descriptive research is to: A. test cause-and-effect relationships between specifically defined marketing variables. B. explicitly define the research question and variables. C. collect information that provides answers to research questions. D. choose the type of individuals who will best represent the target population of interest. E. ascertain how much detail of a behavior needs to be recorded.

C

The practice of data collection personnel filling out surveys for fake respondents is called _____. A. sugging B. frugging C. curbstoning D. debriefing E. deanonymizing data

D

The process of fully explaining to respondents any deception that was used during research is known as _____. A. the practice of sugging B. the practice of frugging C. rocking-chair interviewing D. subject debriefing E. deanonymizing data

A

The process of selecting sample members so that groups can be compared is known as _____. A. stratified purposive sampling B. simple random sampling C. convenience sampling D. accidental sampling E. opportunity sampling

B

The three most common research tasks in integrated marketing communications are advertising effectiveness studies, sales tracking, and: A. in-store traffic patterns. B. attitudinal research. C. location analysis. D. trade area analysis. E. store image studies.

D

The use of quantitative measures of sentiment is still limited because: A. their use requires deep engagement with one or more social media communities. B. sentiment analysis relies on the emerging field of natural language processing. C. most social media monitoring tools seek to seamlessly mix qualitative and quantitative analyses. D. a large amount of data is currently unclassifiable or incorrectly classified with current automation tools. E. researchers prefer to collect data from higher traffic forums.

D

Unlike descriptive research, causal research requires researchers to: A. establish a negative relationship between two dependent variables X and Y. B. collect data using experimental designs. C. establish a positive relationship between two independent variables X and Y. D. collect data using surveys. E. frame broad research questions.

E

Unlike management decision-makers, marketing researchers _____. A. focus on information about past behaviors B. want information that allows certainty C. tend to reject the information when they are surprised D. are not results oriented E. are not cost conscious with additional information

B

Unlike purposed communities, private communities are: A. developed primarily for marketing. B. developed primarily for research. C. online social networks. D. outsourced to a provider. E. brand communities.

E

When compared with mall-intercept interviews, in-house interviews: A. are person-administered surveys. B. are face-to-face interviews. C. are conducted in environments that are unfamiliar to respondents. D. are less expensive. E. are less convenient for researchers.

C

Which of the following characteristics of observation describes the degree to which a researcher or trained observer actually observes a behavior or an event as it occurs? A. Awareness B. Structure C. Directness D. Observing mechanism E. Reference

E

Which of the following data collection techniques is used in exploratory research studies? A. Image assessment surveys B. Customer satisfaction surveys C. Narrative surveys D. Cause-and-effect studies E. Pilot studies

A

Which of the following helps generate insights that will help define the problem situation confronting a researcher? A. Exploratory research B. Descriptive research C. Causal research D. Demographic research E. Narrative research

C

Which of the following hypotheses is always tested by statisticians and market researchers? A. Test hypothesis B. Alternative hypothesis C. Null hypothesis D. Theoretical hypothesis E. Rejection hypothesis

C

Which of the following illustrates an unethical activity of research users? A. Decision makers requesting detailed research proposals from research providers B. Not using the designated sample of respondents but rather anyone who is conveniently available to complete a survey C. Obtaining first drafts of questionnaires and using the information to perform the research project themselves D. Prohibiting market researchers from deanonymizing data E. Not following up on the established callback procedures indicated in the research procedure

B

Which of the following illustrates the abuse of respondents in marketing research? A. Selling unnecessary or unwarranted research services B. Not providing the promised incentive for completing interviews or questionnaires C. Having friends and relatives fill out surveys D. Not using the designated sample of respondents but rather anyone who is conveniently available to complete a survey E. Revealing one's clients to respondents

A

Which of the following is a characteristic of management decision makers? A. Their dominant concern is market performance. B. They prefer abstractions over information that allows for certainty. C. They tend to readily accept the information when they are surprised. D. Their dominant concern is to conduct continuous inquiries into market component changes. E. Their dominant concern is to ensure completeness by conducting prolonged investigations.

B

Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with quantitative survey research designs? A. Concepts and relationships that are not directly measurable cannot be studied using quantitative survey designs. B. It is difficult to attain in-depth data with quantitative survey designs. C. They cannot identify small differences. D. Producing precise estimates can be a problem. E. They do not facilitate advanced statistical analysis.

A

Which of the following is a disadvantage of online surveys? A. They result in high nonresponse bias. B. They result in high cost per completed interview. C. They involve slow data acquisition. D. They prevent the use of visual stimuli. E. They require coding.

C

Which of the following is a disadvantage of telephone interviews? A. They make the supervision of interviewers difficult. B. They are more time consuming than in-home interviews. C. They result in high refusal rates. D. They are more expensive than in-home interviews. E. They use random digit dialing, which adversely affects the ability to generalize survey results.

C

Which of the following is a disadvantage of the mall-intercept interview method? A. It is more expensive than an in-home interview. B. It is more time consuming than an in-home interview. C. Mall patrons are less likely to be representative of the target population. D. It is relatively less convenient for a researcher. E. Mall-intercept interviews require researchers to spend a lot of time securing a person's agreement to participate in interviews.

A

Which of the following is a major advantage of in-depth interviews over focus group interviews? A. They decrease the likelihood of participants responding in a socially desirable manner because there are no other participants to impress. B. They allow researchers to observe the social influence process that affects consumer behavior and attitudes because group members interact with each other. C. They eliminate the need for a trained interviewer. D. They increase the likelihood of cross talk, thus creating synergy among participants and encouraging them to talk in detail about a topic. E. They eliminate the need for asking probing questions.

D

Which of the following is a technique that is used to picture the relative position of products on two or more product dimensions important to consumer purchase decisions? A. Retailing wheel B. Optical scanning C. Store image studies D. Perceptual mapping E. Behavioral targeting

E

Which of the following is an advantage of conducting a wireless phone survey? A. It allows researchers to use the autodialing feature. B. It ensures that there is no time delay between questions and receipt of responses. C. It provides relatively large sample sizes. D. It is most suitable for research involving long and complex questions. E. It allows researchers to obtain representative samples.

D

Which of the following is an advantage of person-administered survey methods? A. They eliminate the possibility of the interviewer-respondent interaction error. B. They ensure that there are no recording errors. C. Overall cost of data collection using an interviewer is lower than other data collection methods. D. Interviewers can help ensure respondents are screened to represent the target population. E. In-home and in-office interviews are less time consuming.

C

Which of the following is an advantage of qualitative research? A. It allows researchers to make accurate predictions about relationships between market factors and behaviors. B. It is considered more reliable than quantitative research. C. It provides preliminary insights useful in developing ideas about how variables are related. D. It eliminates the need for well-trained investigators and interviewers. E. It allows for generalizability of research findings unlike quantitative research.

B

Which of the following is an advantage of self-administered surveys? A. They allow researchers to obtain additional in-depth data. B. They eliminate interviewer-respondent bias. C. They eliminate potential response errors. D. They result in high response rates. E. They are quicker in obtaining data than other data collection methods.

D

Which of the following is ethical in marketing research practices? A. Sugging B. Frugging C. Rocking-chair interviewing D. Subject debriefing E. Deanonymizing data

E

Which of the following is true about nonsampling errors? A. They are not controllable. B. They can be directly measured. C. They can be minimized by increasing the sample size. D. They occur as a result of the difference between the findings based on the sample and the true values for a population. E. They cannot be statistically measured.

D

Which of the following is true about quantitative survey research designs? A. They have high response rates. B. Concepts and relationships that are not directly measurable cannot be studied using quantitative research designs. C. It is easy to collect in-depth data using quantitative research designs. D. They facilitate advanced statistical analysis. E. They cannot produce precise estimates to identify small differences.

A

Which of the following is true about research based on a sample? A. It involves a small number of members of a target population from which a researcher collects data. B. It involves selecting each member from a target population for observation. C. It is the best approach for small populations. D. It eliminates the need to identify a target population. E. It limits the generalizability of the research findings as probability sampling plans cannot measure sampling errors.

A

Which of the following is true about sampling errors? A. They are caused by the size of the sample. B. They can be reduced by decreasing the sample volume. C. They cannot be measured statistically. D. They cannot be measured directly. E. They occur when the findings based on the sample and the true values for a population overlap.

B

Which of the following is true of frugging? A. It occurs when research firms do not fully disclose how the methodology works. B. It creates a negative impact on the entire industry. C. It must be conducted at the end of any study involving deception. D. It occurs when anyone who is conveniently available completes a survey. E. It occurs when different publicly available information are combined to determine consumers' identities.

A

Which of the following is true of independent variables? A. Their values are directly manipulated by a researcher. B. Their values remain constant throughout an experiment. C. They are also called criterion variables. D. Their values change only with changes in the values of dependent variables. E. They do not affect the outcome of an experiment.

A

Which of the following is true of marketing research? A. It draws heavily on the social sciences both for methods and theory. B. It is exclusively used by large businesses. C. It solely relies on quantitative techniques. D. It solely relies on qualitative techniques. E. It involves management of the activities in a supply chain to maximize product value.

A

Which of the following is true of qualitative research methods? A. Qualitative data may be analyzed qualitatively or quantitatively. B. Qualitative researchers must be able to translate numerical data into meaningful narrative information. C. Qualitative researchers seek to fit the answers of research participants into predetermined categories rather than to understand them. D. Qualitative research is used when the objective is to validate facts. E. Qualitative researchers emphasize their samples are made up of representative rather than relevant consumers.

B

Which of the following is true of quantitative research? A. It enables researchers and clients to get closer to their customers and potential customers than does qualitative research. B. It uses formal questions and predetermined response options in questionnaires administered to large numbers of respondents. C. Quantitative analysis techniques cannot be applied to qualitative data. D. It can be superior for studying topics that involve complex psychological motivations. E. Quantitative researchers usually collect detailed data from relatively small samples, which limit a researcher's ability to generalize quantitative data to the population.

E

Which of the following is true of the guidelines developed by the Marketing Research Association (MRA) for Internet marketing research issues? A. It states that researchers must deanonymize data on the Internet by combining different publicly available records available at social networks. B. It encourages the use of digital technologies such as GPS as they do not result in privacy-related issues. C. It does not allow clickstream tracking. D. It prohibits the use of cookies. E. It states that researchers must discontinue follow-up e-mails if requested to by respondents.

D

Which of the following pertains to the creation of a perceptual map? A. Retailers focus on database development through optical scanning at the point of purchase. B. Marketers have to work on branding of both new and existing products. C. Marketing research considers the total performance of a promotional program as each effort often affects others in the promotional mix. D. Consumers have to indicate how similar or dissimilar a group of relevant brands or products is to each other. E. Consumer behavior activities embedded in a cultural context are studied by marketers using ethnographic research.

A

Which of the following situations treats "deal proneness" as a dependent variable in a relationship? A. Deal proneness is predicted by a person's household income. B. Deal proneness results in greater price sensitivity. C. Deal proneness predicts the time spent by a person shopping. D. Deal proneness does not depend on a person's age. E. Deal proneness leads to greater brand loyalty.

A

Which of the following statements is true about consumer panels? A. They provide accurate and specific reporting of socially sensitive expenditures. B. They are more expensive than primary data collection methods. C. They provide information that is limited to the data collected at the point of purchase. D. They only provide information about the intentions or propensities to purchase. E. They are the most readily available sources of secondary data.

C

Which of the following statements is true about the information research process? A. It narrows the applicability of the research process in solving organizational problems and creating opportunities. B. A more appropriate name for the information research process is now the traditional marketing research process. C. It is a systematic approach to collecting, analyzing, interpreting, and transforming data into decision-making information. D. It is especially useful when costs outweigh the value of the research. E. It serves as a written contract between the decision maker and the researcher.

E

Which of the following statements is true of internal secondary data? A. It is expensive to access the sources of internal secondary data. B. Internal secondary data cannot be used by decision makers in planning new-product introductions. C. It can be easily obtained from scholarly and government sources. D. Internal sources of secondary data are accessed only after getting useful information from external sources of secondary data. E. Internal secondary data are the most readily available.

B

Which of the following statements is true of mail panel surveys? A. They usually result in low response rates. B. They can be used for longitudinal research. C. The panel cannot be tested prior to a survey. D. They ensure that participants are representative of the target population at large. E. They are person-administered surveys.

D

Which of the following statements is true of qualitative research methods? A. Most practitioners regard qualitative research as being more reliable than quantitative research. B. Qualitative data collection occurs over long time periods. C. Qualitative researchers emphasize their samples are made up of representative rather than relevant consumers. D. Qualitative researchers usually collect detailed data from relatively small samples by asking questions. E. Qualitative research methods allow researchers to generalize findings to a larger population unlike quantitative research methods.

D

While collecting and preparing data, a difference between questioning and observation is that questioning approaches _____. A. need fewer researchers than observation approaches B. need not examine data for data-entry errors and inconsistencies C. do not allow researchers to collect information about factors such as motivation and past behavior D. enable researchers to collect a wider array of data E. focus on collecting data that does not need coding

C

While designing a study, a researcher is wondering if she should ask the respondents their age and gender. She is not sure if she would need that information later in the research process. She is trying to _____. A. determine the correct unit of analysis for her study B. conduct a situation assessment for her study C. determine the relevant variables for her study D. identify the symptoms and underlying problems for her study E. confirm the information value

C

While evaluating secondary data based on the accuracy criterion, researchers must _____. A. seek out multiple sources to check consistency of the data B. evaluate the data collection method C. evaluate whether or not the data is out of date D. carefully evaluate the data on how it relates to the current research objective E. determine the hidden agenda of the company that collected the secondary data

E

Who among the following is most likely to be conducting qualitative research? A. Ricardo, who is performing a multiple regression analysis B. Zainab, who is developing questionnaires C. Phillip, who is conducting a census D. Mariam, who is conducting surveys E. Katie, who is conducting focus group interviews

B

Zephyr Corp. manufactures air purifiers. It comes up with an idea for a new range of air purifiers called alpha purifiers. Before launching the range of purifiers, Zephyr lets some people try out the product and then collects feedback from them to identify any problems with it. Which of the following is best exemplified in this scenario? A. Curbstoning B. Concept testing C. Perceptual mapping D. Behavioral targeting E. Branded "black-box" methodology

A

Zephyr, a hotel chain, hires Symphony Inc., a market research firm, to analyze the customer reviews and identify ways to improve the brand image. To familiarize itself with the overall complexity of the problem, the market research team from Symphony decides to gather and synthesize background information including events and factors that led to the current problem at Zephyr. In this scenario, Symphony Inc. is conducting a _____. A. situation analysis B. symptomatic analysis C. variable analysis D. sampling analysis E. screening analysis

B

_____ are sources of external secondary data. A. Customer letters B. U.S. census reports C. Accounts receivable reports D. Warranty cards E. Sales invoices

D

_____ are sources of internal secondary data. A. U.S. government documents B. Articles on Lexus/Nexus C. Marketing blogs D. Sales invoices E. Newspaper websites

B

_____ consist of large samples of households that have agreed to provide detailed data for an extended period of time. A. Netnographers B. Consumer panels C. Focus groups D. Ethnographers E. Mystery shoppers

A

_____ data is market research data that is collected, packaged, and sold to many different firms. A. Syndicated B. Noncommercial C. Open source D. Government E. Standardized

A

_____ is a comprehensive examination of available information that is related to a research topic. A. A literature review B. A conjoint analysis C. A situation analysis D. Concept testing E. Cluster sampling

D

_____ is an observational research technique that requires deep engagement with one or more social media communities. A. Sugging B. Debriefing analysis C. Randomization D. Netnography E. Fugging

C

_____ is collected by outside organizations such as federal and state governments, trade associations, nonprofit organizations, marketing research services, or academic researchers. A. Internal primary data B. Internal secondary data C. External secondary data D. External primary data E. Internal tertiary data

A

_____ is information collected specifically for a current research problem or opportunity. A. Primary data B. Alternate data C. Secondary data D. Warehouse data E. Backup data

E

_____ is the degree to which a specific survey question leads a respondent to give a socially acceptable response. A. Incidence rate B. Response rate C. Data generalizability D. Data precision E. Topic sensitivity

A

_____ is the value of a variable that is estimated from a sample. A. Sample statistic B. Parameter statistic C. Alternative statistic D. Sample parameter E. Alternative parameter

E

_____ obtains information from people representative of those who will be questioned in an actual survey. A. Random-digit dialing B. Jamming C. Positioning D. Scaling E. Pretesting

C

_____ specifies whether data should be collected about individuals, households, organizations, departments, geographical areas, or some combination. A. Situation analysis B. Cost-benefit analysis C. The unit of analysis D. Symptom analysis E. Integrated analysis