MODULES 1-15 BIOL 503 KU

Nasal-associated lymphoid tissue (NALT) most closely resembles: A. BALT B. Peyer's patches C. Goblet cells D. Lamina propria

B. Peyer's patches

What mechanism is NOT used by epithelial cells to prevent the invasion of barrier tissues? A. Secretion of antimicrobial peptides. B. Phagocytosis of microbes. C. Production of mucus layer D. Use of beating cilia.

B. Phagocytosis of microbes.

Which enzyme's activity will trigger both Somatic Hypermutation and Class Switch Recombination? A. DNA ligase B. Mismatch repair C. Activation induced deaminase D. DNA polymerase I

C. Activation induced deaminase

Which of the following enzymes do you expect would be actively functioning in a B cell that had migrated to a germinal center and was undergoing somatic hypermutation? A. RAG1 B. Artemis C. Activation-induced cytidine deaminase (AID) D. Ku70

C. Activation-induced cytidine deaminase (AID)

Which of the following characteristics of HIV-1 make vaccine development challenging? A. A high mutation rate B. Limited animal model availability with high expense C. All of the above D. None of the above

C. All of the above

Which of the following is found in the respiratory tract - and NOT the gastrointestinal tract? A. Lamina propria B. Goblet cells C. Ciliated epithelial cells D. M cells

C. Ciliated epithelial cells

Naïve lymphocytes enter secondary lymphoid tissues via which of the following structures? A. afferent lymphatics B. efferent lymphatics C. HEVs D. marginal sinus

C. HEVs

Extravasation enables naïve lymphocytes to exit the _______ and enter the _______ to scan for antigen. A. blood vessel; lymph node B. blood vessel; bone marrow C. lymph node; blood vessel D. bone marrow; lymph node

A. blood vessel; lymph node

Which of the following molecules are key components of the humoral immune response? A. antibody B. B Cell C. immunoglobulin D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of these ways may a B cell encounter antigen? A. Small antigens may diffuse into the follicle and directly contact the B cell. B. A subcapsular sinus macrophage or follicular dendritic cell may present antigen to the B cell. C. A B cell may interact with antigen found in the fibroblastic reticular cell conduits. D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Syllabus question: What steps does Dr. Morgan recommend that you take to keep our classroom community healthy? A. Get vaccinated against COVID-19. B. Wear your mask indoors. C. Get tested so you don't spread the virus. D. All of the above!

D. All of the above!

ELISPOT assays: A. are modifications of the ELISA B. are used to detect individual cells C. involve the use of "capture" antibodies D. All of the answers are correct

D. All of the answers are correct

Monoclonal antibodies make effective clinical and research tools because: A. as products of a single B cell, they all have the same specificity. B. their specificity is stable over time. C. they are produced by transformed cells, and therefore, can be produced in large quantities D. All of the answers are correct

D. All of the answers are correct

Manipulation of costimulatory signals has potential to treat tumors because A. tumors that do not provide costimulation induce anergy instead. B. it is relatively easy to isolate and introduce genes to tumor cells. C. blockage of CTLA-4 on tumors will increase T-cell activation. D. All of the answers are correct.

D. All of the answers are correct.

Immunoediting does NOT A. lead to more agressive tumors by natural selection. B. lead to elimination of tumor cells. C. consist of elimination, equilibrium, and escape. D. All of the answers describe immunoediting.

D. All of the answers describe immunoediting.

Which of the following is NOT entirely a response of the innate immune system? A. Phagocytosis by macrophages B. Protection from infection by the skin C. Low pH in the stomach D. Antibody-mediated complement activation

D. Antibody-mediated complement activation

Which type(s) of mature B cell will respond to a PROTEIN antigen? A. B-1 B cells B. B-2 B cells C. Marginal Zone B cells D. B-2 B cells and Marginal Zone B cells

D. B-2 B cells and Marginal Zone B cells

Which of the following molecules is a key molecule in all three complement activation pathways? A. C1 B. IgM C. MBL D. C5 convertase

D. C5 convertase

Cell-mediated effector cells include: A. CTLs and NKT cells B. Plasma cells and dendritic cells C. CTLs and NK cells D. CTLs, NKT cells, and NK cells

D. CTLs, NKT cells, and NK cells

Which of the following receptors is responsible for transport of IgG across the placenta? A. FcµR B. FcεR C. FcαR D. FcRn

D. FcRn

In flow cytometry, in addition to fluorescent markers, forward (FSC) and side (SSC) scatter are measured, and: A. side scatter is a reflection of the size of the cell B. forward scatter is a measure of the amount of DNA in the cell C. All of the answers are correct D. None of the answers are correct

D. None of the answers are correct

During an immune response to a virus, which of the following is recognized by the innate immune system resulting an immune response that will produce antiviral cytokines and trigger effector molecules? A. Complement B. IgA C. IL-2 D. PAMPs

D. PAMPs

During V(D)J recombination, the nonamer and heptamer portions of a recognition signal sequences (RSSs) are separated by spacers consisting of how many base pairs? A. 7 or 12 B. 12 or 23 C. 7 or 9 D. 7 or 23

B. 12 or 23

Which of the following statements about NKT cells is TRUE? A. NKT cells express all T cell lineage characteristics B. Activated NKT cells can act as helper T cells or cytotoxic T cells C. NKT cells exhibit memory D. The T-cell receptor on NKT cells recognizes peptide antigens presented via MHC class I and class II molecules.

B. Activated NKT cells can act as helper T cells or cytotoxic T cells

Agammaglobulinemias are characterized by a decrease or lack of at least one type of: A. T cell B. Antibody C. PRR D. NK cell

B. Antibody

What is the initial location of B-cell and T-cell development? A. Blood for B cell and thymus for T cell B. Bone marrow for both B cell and T cell C. Bone marrow for B cell and thymus for T cell D. Secondary lymphoid organs for B cell and thymus for T cell

B. Bone marrow for both B cell and T cell

To which of the following is MBL MOST structurally similar? A. C3b B. C1q C. Bb D. C5b

B. C1q

Which of these statements regarding chemokines is accurate? A. Chemokines have no relation to cytokines B. Chemokines in the lymph node follicle, T-cell zone and B-cell zone boundary, and T-cell zone are key in drawing B cells to the boundary of T-cell zone and follicle during B-cell activation. C. Chemokines prevent plasma cells from migrating to the bone marrow as they differentiate into long lived plasma cells. D. Chemokines interact directly with the B-cell receptor.

B. Chemokines in the lymph node follicle, T-cell zone and B-cell zone boundary, and T-cell zone are key in drawing B cells to the boundary of T-cell zone and follicle during B-cell activation.

Name that cell. I am a small cell found within the thymic cortex and express CD4 and CD8 on my cell surface. What am I? A.DN thymocyte B. DP thymocyte C. DN1 Cell D. DN4 cell

B. DP thymocyte

Which of the following statements about cross talk between the innate and adaptive immune systems is true? A. The innate and adaptive immune systems do not communicate. B. Dendritic cells present antigen from the site of infection to T cells in lymph nodes. C. Dendritic cells will inactivate T cells in the spleen. D. T cell activation by dendritic cells results in the production of one type of T cell: cytotoxic T cells.

B. Dendritic cells present antigen from the site of infection to T cells in lymph nodes.

Which of the following represents the EARLIEST stage in T-cell development? A. Double positive (DP) B. Double negative (DN) C. Single positive CD4+ D. Single positive CD8+

B. Double negative (DN)

Which of the following cell-surface receptors is involved in activating type I hypersensitivity reactions? A. LFA-1 B. Fc epsilon Receptor C. Notch D. Fc alpha Receptor

B. Fc epsilon Receptor

Which of the following statements about Fc receptors (FcR) is FALSE? A. Both FcRn and polyIgR groups of FcRs are capable of transporting antibodies across tissues. B. FcαRs, when bound to the Fc regions of antibodies that are cross-linked to parasitic worms, provide a very potent pro-inflammatory signaling cascade that results in degranulation. C. Multiple FcRs must be cross-linked with antibody-antigen complexes in order to provide a signal to initiate an effector response. D. Association of an FcR with an ITIM causes inhibition of the downstream signaling cascade and effector response suppression, while association with an ITAM increases the downstream signaling cascade, promoting effector response.

B. FcαRs, when bound to the Fc regions of antibodies that are cross-linked to parasitic worms, provide a very potent pro-inflammatory signaling cascade that results in degranulation.

Which response gives one reason that antigen-specific immune suppressants are the preferred strategy for immune suppression for transplant recipients? A. Generalized immune suppression increases risk of infectious disease and cancer. B. Generalized immune suppression is ineffective. C. Total lymphoid irradiation is too specific. D. Antigen-specific immune suppressants give the opportunity to suppress the entire adaptive immune response.

A. Generalized immune suppression increases risk of infectious disease and cancer.

Which of the following is packaged within basophil and mast cell granules? A. Histidine B. Histamine C. Leukocytidines D. H1 receptor

B. Histamine

The effects of histamine in allergic reactions are primarily attributable to its binding which of the following histamine receptors? A. H1 B. H5 C. HA D. None of the answers are correct

A. H1

Which of the following statements BEST differentiates innate and adaptive immune responses? A. Innate responses are faster and stronger during the early primary response and less important during the secondary response, whereas adaptive responses are slower during primary responses and fast and strong during secondary responses. B. Innate responses are weaker during the primary response and more robust during the secondary response, whereas adaptive responses are less robust during primary responses and stronger during secondary responses. C. Innate responses are slower and weaker than adaptive responses D. Adaptive responses are required for effective immune responses, whereas innate responses are not required.

A. Innate responses are faster and stronger during the early primary response and less important during the secondary response, whereas adaptive responses are slower during primary responses and fast and strong during secondary responses.

Which type of B-cell response would you expect from a Marginal Zone B cell that is activated via a pattern recognition receptor by a bacterial cell wall component? A. T-independent Type 1 B. T-independent Type 2 C. T-dependent D. All of the above

A. T-independent Type 1

Which type of T helper cell produces TNF as an effector cytokine? A. TH1 B. TH2 C. TH17 D. TREG

A. TH1

Which type of T helper cell protects against intracellular pathogens (including viruses)? A. TH1 B. TH2 C. TH17 D. TREG

A. TH1

Polyclonal antibodies differ from monoclonal antibodies in all ways EXCEPT which of the following? A. They generally have fewer cross-reactivities B. They are generally better for immunoprecipitation C. They can vary from preparation to preparation D. All of the answers are true

A. They generally have fewer cross-reactivities

Which type of immune response is most likely to induce the cell-mediated branch of the adaptive immune response? A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type A D. Type B

A. Type 1

Where would you MOST likely find a TLR that recognizes RNA? A. On the cell surface B. In an endosome or lysosome C. In the nucleus D. In the mitochondria

B. In an endosome or lysosome

Which of the following reactions includes mast cell degranulation as one of its key features? A. Type I hypersensitivity B. Type II hypersensitivity C. Type III hypersensitivity D. Type IV hypersensitivity

A. Type I hypersensitivity

Which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions is associated with IgE? A. Type I hypersensitivity B. Type II hypersensitivity C. Type III hypersensitivity D. Type IV hypersensitivity

A. Type I hypersensitivity

The function of somatic hypermutation is BEST described by which of the following statements? A. Increasing junctional diversity in immunoglobulin heavy and light chain variable regions. B. Increasing the affinity of immunoglobulins for their antigen. C. Irreversibly changing the isotype of immunoglobulin. D. All of the above

B. Increasing the affinity of immunoglobulins for their antigen.

Hematopoietic tumors include all but which of the following? A. Myeloma B. Lung cancer C. Leukemia D. Lymphoma

B. Lung cancer

A new pathogenic bacterium has been discovered. It is an intracellular pathogen and can prevent MHC molecules from being properly made in infected cells. Which of the following cell types would be MOST effective at fighting this pathogen? A. CTL B. NK cell C. B cell D. Dendritic cell

B. NK cell

Syllabus question: Imagine you have a B going into the final exam period. You have calculated that there is no way to raise that grade to an A. You would like to spend more time studying for your human anatomy final exam, where you do have a chance to raise your grade. Do you have to take the Immunology final? A. Yes B. No

B. No

Place the Class I processing pathway in the correct order: A. Peptides exported from the ER by TAP > peptides are digested by the proteasome > peptides are loaded onto class I > class I is exported to the cell surface B. Proteins are digested by the proteasome > peptides are imported into the ER by TAP > peptides are loaded onto MHC class I > class I is exported to the cell surface C. MHC class I moves from the cell surface to the lysosome by endocytosis > class I bound peptides are replaced with antigenic peptides in the lysosome > class I returns to the cell surface D. Proteins are degraded by TAP > peptides are imported into the lysosome by the proteasome > peptide-MHC class I complexes are exported to the cell surface

B. Proteins are digested by the proteasome > peptides are imported into the ER by TAP > peptides are loaded onto MHC class I > class I is exported to the cell surface

Which of the following enzymes is expressed specifically in lymphocytes, binds to the recombination signal sequences (RSSs), and cuts DNA to enable V(D)J recombination? A. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT) B. RAG1/2 C. V(D)J nuclease D. RSS recombinase

B. RAG1/2

Syllabus question: What day of the week are the practice questions and extra credit assignments due? A. Friday B. Saturday C. Sunday D. Monday

B. Saturday

Which of type of graft rejection occurs when the recipient has previously received a graft from the same tissue donor? A. First-set rejection B. Second-set rejection C. Hyperacute rejection D. Chronic rejection

B. Second-set rejection

Which of the following mechanisms would NOT allow microbial pathogens to evade the complement system? A. Removal of IgG by staphylokinase B. Secretion of C3a and C5a by S. aureus C. Disruption of binding between C2 and C4 by parasite proteins D. Production of proteases that degrade C1q and C3/C3b

B. Secretion of C3a and C5a by S. aureus

Which of the following effects is NOT a result of histamine binding to histamine receptors? A. Smooth muscle contraction B. Suppression of mast cell degranulation C. Increased vascular permeability D. Increased mucus secretion

B. Suppression of mast cell degranulation

V(D)J recombination and B-cell receptor expression are tightly regulated. Which of the following statements about these regulatory mechanisms is true? A. V(D)J recombination may only occur between gene segments located in the same chromatin rosette. B. Allelic exclusion ensures that each B cell can express multiple different B-cell receptors. C. Receptor editing requires turning off the recombination machinery to ensure that no additional V(D)J recombination occurs. D. During V(D)J recombination, the DNA involved will remain tethered at the nuclear lamina throughout the process.

A. V(D)J recombination may only occur between gene segments located in the same chromatin rosette.

Which of the following events would NOT cause a change in MHC expression? A. Viral infection B. IFN-alpha and TNF-alpha cytokine signaling during early infection stages C. Corticosteroids and prostaglandins administered medicinally D. Sleeping 8 hours

A. Viral infection

Primary immunodeficiencies: A. are inherited B. always alter the complement pathway C. are contagious D. can be caused by an external agent like an immunosuppressive drug

A. are inherited

Regions of T-cell receptors and B-cell receptors that are particularly variable in their amino acid sequences are known for: A. binding to antigen or peptides from processed antigen B. sticking to denatured proteins C. spanning the plasma membrane D. becoming phosphorylated

A. binding to antigen or peptides from processed antigen

Which of the following is a type of protein used by immune cells to communicate during an immune response? A. cytokine B. transcription factor C. leukocyte D. myeloid

A. cytokine

Each subset of effector T helper cells has three distinguishing properties: ________, master gene regulator, and a signature set of effector cytokine(s). A. polarizing cytokine set B. Pattern Recognition Receptor set C. PAMP set D. ICAM receptor set

A. polarizing cytokine set

Which of the following parts of the human body is the best example of a barrier organ? Correct answer: A.skin B. liver C. kidneys D. spleen

A.skin

Which of the following options correctly groups the B-cell response type with cells, receptors, and antigens involved? A. T-independent Type 1: Marginal Zone B cells, B cell receptor only, polymeric protein antigen that crosslinks receptors B. T-dependent: B-2 B cells, B cell receptor, soluble protein antigen C. T-dependent: B-1 B cells, B cell receptor and innate immune receptor, LPS antigen D. T-independent Type 2: B-1 B cells, innate immune receptor only, polymeric protein antigen that crosslinks receptors

B. T-dependent: B-2 B cells, B cell receptor, soluble protein antigen

Which type of T helper cell is produced as a result of the presence of IL-4 alone as a polarizing cytokine? A. TH1 B. TH2 C. TH17 D. TREG

B. TH2

Which type of T helper cell protects against extracellular pathogens (including worms)? Hint: First consider the type of response 1 or 2, that would be involved. A. TH1 B. TH2 C. TH17 D. TREG

B. TH2

Given what you know about the evolution of the complement system, which of the following statements is true? A. The classical pathway arose first as it is the simplest pathway. B. The classical pathway arose last, which is consistent with the later evolution of the adaptive immune response. C. The alternative pathway arose last, which is consistent with its activation via spontaneous hydrolysis. D. The membrane attack complex is present in all animals, suggesting an early point of evolution and consistent with its early discovery by scientists studying complement.

B. The classical pathway arose last, which is consistent with the later evolution of the adaptive immune response.

Why did scientists suspect that something unusual was occurring in the organization and expression of B and T cell receptors? A. B cell receptors and T cell receptors appeared similar in structure and function. B. The number of unique B cell receptors and T cell receptors produced far exceeded the possible number of genes encoding these receptors. C. B cell receptors could be identified in either transmembrane or secreted form. D. B cell receptors bind directly to antigen while T cell receptors bind to antigen presented via MHC.

B. The number of unique B cell receptors and T cell receptors produced far exceeded the possible number of genes encoding these receptors.

If a human were unable to produce lymphoid progenitor cells, predict which part of the immune system would be MOST greatly impacted? A. innate immunity B. adaptive immunity C. Both innate and adaptive immunity would be equally impacted D. Neither innate or adaptive immunity would be impacted

B. adaptive immunity

Which of the following terms describes a group of cytokines that will direct movement of immune cells? A. leukocyte B. chemokine C. interleukin D. Toll-like receptors

B. chemokine

All of the following are true regarding B-cell development except: A. B cells complete maturation in the spleen. B. B cells are mostly developed (immature) when they leave the bone marrow. C. B cells, like T cells, are MHC class restricted. D. Self-reactive B cells may be eliminated through apoptosis.

C. B cells, like T cells, are MHC class restricted.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding microfold (M) cells and goblet cells? A. Only M cells can transport antigens. B. Only goblet cells can transport antigens. C. Both M cells and goblet cells move antigens by transcytosis. D. Neither M cells nor goblet cells move antigens by transcytosis.

C. Both M cells and goblet cells move antigens by transcytosis.

How do natural killer cells kill their targets? A. By lysing them B. By inducing inflammation C. By inducing apoptosis D. By causing them to leave the bloodstream and be trapped by the liver

C. By inducing apoptosis

Which of the following responses correctly matches a complement activation pathway with its appropriate activation trigger (Pathway: Activation Trigger)? A. Classical: PAMPs, Lectin: Antigen-Antibody immune complexes, Alternative: Spontaneous hydrolysis B. Classical: Spontaneous hydrolysis, Lectin: PAMPs, Alternative: Antigen-Antibody immune complexes C. Classical: Antigen-Antibody immune complexes, Lectin: PAMPs, Alternative: Spontaneous hydrolysis D. Classical: PAMPs, Lectin: Spontaneous hydrolysis, Alternative: Antigen-Antibody immune complexes

C. Classical: Antigen-Antibody immune complexes, Lectin: PAMPs, Alternative: Spontaneous hydrolysis

Bonds formed between a T cell and a dendritic cell are relatively weak. Which of the following interactions within the pSMAC helps to strengthen this association? A. CD28/LFA-5 B. CD28/CD28 C. ICAM-1/LFA-1 D. IL-2R/IL-2

C. ICAM-1/LFA-1

Which cytokine is known for its antiviral properties? A. IL-2 B. IL-4 C. IFN-alpha D. TNF-alpha

C. IFN-alpha

T-cell activation is often influenced by cytokines. Which of the following is an example of how cytokines can influence T-cell activity in the presence of MHC presentation and costimulatory ligand interaction? A. CD28 causes memory NK cells to be produced B. CD8 triggers apoptosis in T cells that recognize self-antigens C. IL-2 triggers T-cell proliferation D. Opsonins recruit eosinophils to present carbohydrate antibodies to naïve Tc cells

C. IL-2 triggers T-cell proliferation

You need to evaluate whether an individual is producing antibodies to SARS-CoV-2. Which of the following methods is best suited to achieve your goal? A. Inbred animal models B. Flow cytometry C. Indirect ELISA D. ELISPOT

C. Indirect ELISA

Which of the following vaccine formats carries the risk of reverting to a pathogenic form? A. Toxoid B. Subunit C. Live attenuated D. Inactivated

C. Live attenuated

Which of the following is a trend in immune cell signaling? A. Ligands are mostly membrane-bound B. Receptors work in isolation of each other. C. Signaling pathway members are clustered together by adapter proteins. D. Transcription factors such as AP-1, NFAT, and NFkappaB are commonly inactivated as a result of antigen-induced signaling.

C. Signaling pathway members are clustered together by adapter proteins.

Which of the following gene segments are required to form the complete light chain of the B-cell receptor? A. V, D, J, and C gene segments B. V, D, and J gene segments C. V, J, and C gene segments D. V and J gene segments

C. V, J, and C gene segments

Multiple germ-line V(D)J gene segments are used to encode receptors of: A. B cells only B. T cells only C. both B and T cells D. neither B nor T cells

C. both B and T cells

Immunotoxins work by A. inducing apoptosis in the target cells B. recruiting complement to kill the target cells C. delivering toxic chemicals specifically to the target cells D. recruiting NK cells

C. delivering toxic chemicals specifically to the target cells

Tumor-associated antigens: A. are not normal cellular proteins. B. are viral proteins. C. have abnormal expression patterns. D. All of the answers are correct.

C. have abnormal expression patterns.

Which of the following characteristics of HIV-1 make an infection difficult to treat? A. Ability of the provirus to become latent in infected cells B. High mutation rate of HIV-1 leading to resistance against drug treatments C. HIV-1 kills CD4+ T cells that are key in regulating adaptive immune response D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following is a step of NETosis? A. Cell death of a neutrophil B. Cytoplasm and nucleoplasm are expelled to form a NET C. Pathogens will be trapped by NETs D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following responses are mechanisms by which cancer cells evade the immune system? A. Reduced MHC expression B. Subversion of apoptotic signals C. Poor costimulatory signals from tumor cells D. All of the answers are correct

D. All of the answers are correct

Why is peripheral tolerance critical to barrier immunity? A. Because it counters inappropriate activation B. Because overactivation can lead to chronic inflammation and disease C. Because microbes that colonize areas like the skin and intestines are never harmful D. Because it both counters inappropriate activation, and overactivation can lead to chronic inflammation and disease

D. Because it both counters inappropriate activation, and overactivation can lead to chronic inflammation and disease

TSST-1 is a protein produced by some species of bacteria that acts as a superantigen. What ligand does TSST-1 bind? A. T-cell receptor B. MHC class I C. MHC class II D. Both T-cell receptor and MHC class II

D. Both T-cell receptor and MHC class II

By which mechanisms can bacterial pathogens evade a host immune response? A. Avoiding phagocytosis by the production of a capsule. B. Escape from phagocytic cells. C. None of the above D. Both answers are correct

D. Both answers are correct

Which of the following is required for T-cell activation? A. Only antigen-specific T-cell receptor binding to a peptide presented via MHC B. Only expression of IL-2 C. Only interaction of costimulatory receptors and their ligands D. Both antigen-specific T-cell receptor binding to a peptide presented via MHC and interaction of costimulatory receptors and their signals are required

D. Both antigen-specific T-cell receptor binding to a peptide presented via MHC and interaction of costimulatory receptors and their signals are required

Which of the following enzymes act in the amplification step of the complement cascade? A. C1r2s2 B. MASP-1 and MASP-2 C. Properdin and Factors B and D D. C3 and C5 convertases

D. C3 and C5 convertases

Which of the following complement regulatory mechanisms describes a specific or active mechanism for regulating complement activity? A. Cell surface composition of pathogens and self-cells differ B. Short half-life of C5 convertase C. Promotion of lysis D. Cleavage of the anaphylatoxins

D. Cleavage of the anaphylatoxins

Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. MHC genes are inherited in linked groups called haplotypes. B. Each individual inherits one haplotype from each parent. C. Humans are typically heterozygous for MHC genes. D. During transplantation, matching MHC gene patterns will result in tissue rejection.

D. During transplantation, matching MHC gene patterns will result in tissue rejection.

Which of the following statements about vaccination is FALSE? A. The first attempts at vaccination were conducted in Turkey and China in the fifteenth century to protect against smallpox. B. Widespread use of a vaccine has eradicated smallpox. C. Herd immunity protects children too young to be vaccinated, elderly people whose immune system is no longer as effective, and healthy vaccinated individuals whose immune system did not effectively respond to the vaccine. D. Herd immunity requires only about 10% of individuals to have received a vaccine or previously been infected.

D. Herd immunity requires only about 10% of individuals to have received a vaccine or previously been infected.Which of the following molecules are key components of the humoral immune response?

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes mediate a powerful and lethal immune response to infected host cells. Which of the following steps is NOT involved with CTL activation and function? A. Antigen presented via MHC class I is recognized by CTLs. B. APC presentation occurs to both TC and TH cells. C. Fas-FasL signaling pathway is activated, triggering apoptosis in target cell. D. Histamine is released from cytoplasmic granules, recruiting macrophages to the site of infection.

D. Histamine is released from cytoplasmic granules, recruiting macrophages to the site of infection.

Which of the following is NOT a standard therapy for cancer? A. Chemotherapies B. Targeted therapies C. Immunotherapies D. Homeopathic remedies

D. Homeopathic remedies

Which of the following isotypes of antibodies would you expect to undergo transcytosis into the mucosal tissues of the gut? A. IgM B. IgE C. IgD D. IgA

D. IgA

Of the cells listed below, predict which is LEAST likely to be presenting antigens by MHC II during an immune response to an extracellular pathogen. A. Dendritic cells B. Macrophages C. B cells D. Intestinal epithelial cells

D. Intestinal epithelial cells

Which of the following responses correctly groups MHC molecule, expression pattern, antigen type, and T cell type? A. MHC Class I, antigen presenting cells, exogenous/extracellular antigen, CD4+ T cell B. MHC Class II, antigen presenting cells, endogenous/intracellular antigen, CD8+ T cell C. MHC Class II, all nucleated cells, exogenous/extracellular antigen, CD8+ T cell D. MHC Class I, all nucleated cells, endogenous/intracellular antigen, CD8+ T cell

D. MHC Class I, all nucleated cells, endogenous/intracellular antigen, CD8+ T cell

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for ensuring complement cascade is only activated on microbial surfaces (and not on self-cells)? A. C1NH binds to C1r2s2, causing its inactivation and dissociation from C1q B. DAF promotes dissociation of the C3 convertases C4b2a and C3bBb C. Factor I degrades C3b and C4b with its partners MCP and CR1 D. Protectin (CD59) promotes the MAC attack by recruiting C9 to the membrane

D. Protectin (CD59) promotes the MAC attack by recruiting C9 to the membrane

Which of the following is NOT a cancer immunotherapy? A. Therapeutic vaccines B. mAb therapy C. Checkpoint inhibitors D. Radiation therapy

D. Radiation therapy

Which of the following complement regulatory mechanism describes a passive or general mechanism for regulating complement activity? A. Dissociation of C1 components B. Cleavage of the anaphylotoxins C. Inhibition of lysis D. Short half-life of C3 convertase

D. Short half-life of C3 convertase

Which of the following responses accurately describes a combined immunodeficiency disease? A. Antibody responses are normal, but macrophages are missing B. T cells are functioning normally, but antibodies are absent C. The adaptive immune response is normal, but innate immune response is poor D. The adaptive immune response is disrupted as T cells are absent or dysfunctional and antibody responses are also impaired

D. The adaptive immune response is disrupted as T cells are absent or dysfunctional and antibody responses are also impaired

Which of the following responses is NOT a reason why autografts are typically accepted? A. They are from the same individual. B. They are MHC matched. C. They do not trigger an immune response. D. They are blood group mismatched.

D. They are blood group mismatched.

Which of the following responses incorrectly pairs families of cytokines with their features? A. Interleukin-1 family cytokines promote inflammation and are stimulated by viral, parasitic or bacterial antigens. B. Class 1 family cytokines are grouped together based on structure and have diverse functions. C. The Interferon family of cytokines includes interferon alpha and interferon beta, which have antiviral effects. D. Tumor necrosis factor cytokines are always membrane bound and have anti-inflammatory properties.

D. Tumor necrosis factor cytokines are always membrane bound and have anti-inflammatory properties.

Receptors of the innate immune system can be found: A. spanning the plasma membrane B. in the cytoplasm C. in the nucleus D. all of the above

D. all of the above

Which of the following molecules will act as a serine protease in the complement activation pathways? A. C1r B. C1s C. MASP-1 D. all of the above

D. all of the above

Which of the following is NOT a category of human pathogen detected by our immune system? A. bacteria B. fungi C. viruses: D. asthma

D. asthma

Which of the following is NOT a type of memory T cell? A. Stem cell memory T cell B. central memory T cell C. resident memory T cell D. naïve memory T cell

D. naïve memory T cell

_____ describes the action of antibodies whereby antibodies bind to a pathogen and prevent the pathogen from interacting with cell receptors. A. antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) B. opsonization C. complement fixation D. neutralization

D. neutralization

In mammals, T-cell development occurs in the _____, whereas B-cell development occurs predominantly in the _____. A. thymus; bursa of Matricius B. bone marrow; mesenteric lymph nodes C. bone marrow; thymus D. thymus; bone marrow

D. thymus; bone marrow

The use of tumor-specific T cells reintroduced to patients requires all of the following EXCEPT A. tumor-specific cells being isolated. B. tumor-specific cells being activated to overcome tumor-induced anergy. C. the patient being lympho-depleted to facilitate reintroduction. D. tumor-specific cells being depleted of autoreactive clones

D. tumor-specific cells being depleted of autoreactive clones

Which of the following types of immunodeficiencies is best treated by intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)? A. Agammaglobulinemias B. Combined immunodeficiencies C. Complement immunodeficiencies D. Immune regulation immunodeficiencies

A. Agammaglobulinemias

Which of the following is an example of a passive immunization? A. Antibodies against rabies given to someone who was bitten by a potentially rabid dog. B. Heat-killed flu antigen grown in chicken eggs is injected into an individual. C. Live viral antigen given on a sugar cube to protect against polio. D. All of the above are correct

A. Antibodies against rabies given to someone who was bitten by a potentially rabid dog.

Virally infected host cells are tagged with antigen-antibody complexes. These complexes recruit NK cells that trigger apoptosis in the infected host cell. This is an example of: A. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity B. Complement fixation C. Neutralization D. Opsonization

A. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of events linking the innate immune response to the adaptive immune response? A. Antigen uptake > antigen processing > APC migration to lymph nodes > antigen presentation B. APC migration to lymph nodes > antigen uptake > antigen processing > antigen presentation C. APC migration to lymph nodes > antigen presentation > antigen uptake > antigen processing D. Antigen uptake > antigen processing > antigen presentation > APC migration to lymph nodes

A. Antigen uptake > antigen processing > APC migration to lymph nodes > antigen presentation

Which of these statements is NOT an essential tenet of the clonal selection hypothesis? A. B cells must be activated by antigen with help from T cells. These helper T cells will interact with the B cell via a T cell receptor and CD40L. B. Immature B lymphocytes bear immunoglobulin receptors on their cell surfaces. All receptors on a single B cell have identical specificity for antigen. C. On antigen stimulation, the B cell will mature and migrate to the lymphoid organs where it will replicate. Its clonal descendants will bear the same receptor as the parental B cell and secrete antibodies with an identical specificity for antigen. D. At the close of the immune response, more B cells bearing receptors for the stimulating antigen will remain in the host than were present before the antigenic challenge. These memory B cells will then be capable of mounting an enhanced secondary response.

A. B cells must be activated by antigen with help from T cells. These helper T cells will interact with the B cell via a T cell receptor and CD40L.

Which of the following BEST describes how cytokines are released from activated T cells? A. Cytokines are released in a localized manner near where T-cell receptors are clustered at the interface with the antigen presenting cell. B. T cells release cytokines on the side of the cell opposite the microtubule organizing center (MTOC) to more efficiently distribute the response around the cell's surface. C. T cells release cytokines evenly around the cell. D. Cytokines are released in whatever direction the MTOC happens to be facing upon T-cell receptor activation.

A. Cytokines are released in a localized manner near where T-cell receptors are clustered at the interface with the antigen presenting cell.

Which of the following could be an outcome of an immune response triggered by antigen-induced cell signaling? A. Dendritic cells are brought to the site of infection B. Cytokine production is halted C. Phagocytic cells are inhibited D. MHC Class I and II proteins are degraded

A. Dendritic cells are brought to the site of infection

A hypothesis put forth in 1965 proposed that antibody heavy and light chains are encoded in two separate segments in the germ-line genome. In order to form one complete polypeptide encoding gene, in B cell DNA, one variable (V)-region must be brought together with a conserved (C) region. This is known as the: A. Dryer and Bennett hypothesis B. The "12/23 Rule" C. The "germ-line" hypothesis D. The RAG1/2 theory

A. Dryer and Bennett hypothesis

Which of the following processes accounts for the transition from membrane-bound IgM to secreted IgM? A. CSR B. Affinity maturation C. Alternative splicing D. Additional modification of nuclear DNA via RAG1/2

C. Alternative splicing

Which of the following is the BEST example of self-MHC restriction of T cells? A. A T cell is deleted when it binds too tightly to self-MHC. B. A T cell responds more vigorously to a self-peptide than a foreign peptide. C. A T cell recognizes foreign MHC. D. A T cell only recognizes foreign peptides when presented by self-MHC.

D. A T cell only recognizes foreign peptides when presented by self-MHC.

Which of the following accurately describes an adjuvant? A. A compound included in the vaccine to eliminate the requirement for cold-chain distribution. B. A compound included in the vaccine to eliminate the risk of adverse side effects. C. A compound included in the vaccine to prevent reversion in certain vaccine formats. D. A compound included in the vaccine to enhance the immune response to the vaccine.

D. A compound included in the vaccine to enhance the immune response to the vaccine.

Isografts are NOT usually rejected because: A. they are between genetically identical individuals. B. they are MHC matched. C. they do not trigger an immune response. D. All answers are correct

D. All answers are correct

Immature B cells in the bone marrow whose B-cell receptors react to self-antigen undergo which of the following? A. Clonal deletion B. Light chain receptor editing C. Development of anergy D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following cell types are targets of the products of mast-cell degranulation? A. Smooth muscle B. Nervous tissue C. Epithelial cells D. All of the above

D. All of the above