Occ Med Spec Boards - Prevent/Assess/Recognize/Control

A pistol grip powertool is best suited for: A) Application on a vertical plane B) Application on a horizontal plane C) Assembly with screws D) Assembly of small parts

The correct answer is: A A pistol grip used on a vertical plane, such as a wall, allows the wrist to remain in the neutral position.

The primary problem of the shift worker is: A) Sleep loss B) Increased accident frequency C) Cardiovascular disturbance D) Psychosocial problems

The correct answer is: A Although B, C, and D are problems that are thought to be associated with shift work, sleep loss (both quantity and quality) is by far the primary problem.

Which of the following metals is implicated in hard metal disease and has been associated with cardiomyopathy in beer drinkers? A) Cobalt B) Copper C) Chromium D) Platinum

The correct answer is: A Cobalt is implicated in asthma and in the aggressive fibrosing lung disorder, hard metal disease.

Which of the following is associated with Degreasers' flush? A) Trichloroethylene B) Acetone C) Carbon disulfide D) Methylene chloride

The correct answer is: A Exposure to trichloroethylene vapors followed by ingestion of alcohol leads to the severe flushing reaction, known as Degreasers' flush. Trichloroethylene blocks the normal catabolism of alcohol, resulting in an accumulation of acetaldehyde which is believed to cause the flushing.

Health risk assessment is: A) The quantitative prediction of the probability of an adverse effect in a specific population B) The ongoing systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of health data for the purpose of planning, implementation, and evaluation of public health practice and the application of these data to prevention and control C) An approach to patient care that identifies and seeks to implement with minimal variation the best practices known to medicine across the entire continuum of care D) The process of communicating to workers, managers, local citizens, and/or to governmental bodies, the nature and extent of risks associated with a specific exposure situation

The correct answer is: A Health risk assessment is the quantitative prediction of the probability of an adverse effect in a specific population. Answer B is the CDC definition of surveillance. Answer C is the definition of disease management. Answer D is the definition of risk communication. Cassens, Preventive Medicine and Public Health, 2nd ed., 1992, p. 2; Last & Wallace, Public Health & Preventive Medicine, 13th ed., 1992, p. 16

Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) have been linked to which of the following? A) Neurobehavioral developmental delays B) Angiosarcoma of the liver C) Parkinsonism D) Cirrhosis

The correct answer is: A Infants may be exposed through maternal breast milk secondary to high concentration of PCBs in maternal breast milk.

What is the best use of Paraquat? A) Herbicide B) Insect Repellent C) Fungicide D) Insecticide

The correct answer is: A Paraquat is a toxic chemical that is widely used as an herbicide, primarily for weed and grass control. Paraquat was first produced for commercial purposes in 1961. Worldwide, paraquat is still one of the most commonly used herbicides. In the United States, paraquat is available primarily as a liquid in various strengths. It is classified as "restricted use," and due to its toxicity, is available for use only by commercially licensed users. LaDou, Pesticides, Chapter 31.

Night work is associated with: A) Increased accident frequency B) Decreased accident frequency C) Negligible changes in accident frequency D) Non-detectable changes in accident frequency

The correct answer is: A Shift workers have a difficult time sleeping during the day and, consequently, a more difficult time staying awake at night. This situation increases accident frequency. Although there is some agreement on this issue, (Konz, 1995, p162) states that "there is no firm evidence that safety is worse when shiftwork is used". Until more evidence is collected, the conservative approach is to view shift work with extra attention.

Argyria is linked to: A) Silver B) Tin C) Selenium D) Zinc

The correct answer is: A Silver accumulation in the skin, cornea, conjunctiva, and lens leads to argyria. The skin turns grayish-blue, especially over exposed areas. Pigment in the eye can cause problems with light adaptation.

The following are administrative controls that could be considered for the reduction or prevention of ergonomic injuries, with the exception of: A) Job expansion B) Tool changes C) Job rotation D) Rest periods

The correct answer is: B Tool changes are an engineering control, while job expansion, job rotation, schedule changes, and rest periods are administrative controls.

Potassium chloride and Prussian blue have been used to treat acute intoxication of which of the following? A) Silver B) Thallium C) Selenium D) Uranium

The correct answer is: B Treatment of acute thallium intoxication is controversial, but includes potassium chloride infusion to promote urinary excretion and Prussian blue to bind thallium in the gastrointestinal tract. Cathartics may be used as well.

A condition resulting from prolonged damp, cold exposure often at temperatures above freezing is best described as: A) Hypothermia B) Trench foot C) Frostbite D) Barotrauma

The correct answer is: B Trench foot, or immersion foot, results from prolonged damp, cold exposure and may develop, for example, in workers with prolonged immersion in cold water.

The hand is significantly more powerful when it turns in a _________ direction. A) Pronated B) Supinated C) Extended D) Flexed

The correct answer is: B pronation=180N, supination=1110N

A procedure to make a job safe by identifying hazards in each step of the job and developing measures to counteract those hazards is: A) Time and Motion B) Fault Tree C) Job Safety Analysis D) Probabilistic Risk Assessment

The correct answer is: C Job Safety Analysis examines job hazards during each step of the job.

The maximal annual permissible dose equivalent for occupational radiation exposure is: A) 1 rad B) 10 rads C) 5 rems D) 25 rems

The correct answer is: C 5 rems is the maximal annual permissible dose equivalent for occupational radiation exposure recommended by the International Council on Radiation Protection.

A variable geometry keyboard allows ___________. A) The worker to perform numerical functions better B) A visually impaired person to use the keyboard C) The worker to adjust the angle of the keyboard D) a patient with RSI or a physically challenged person to operate controls with limited body motion

The correct answer is: C A variable geometry keyboard is one of several experimental keyboards that can split down the middle and allow the worker to adjust the angle in an attempt to keep the wrist in a neutral position.

The best treatment for acute mountain sickness (AMS) is: A) Oxygen B) Dexamethasone C) Descent to lower altitude D) Acetazolamide

The correct answer is: C AMS may result from rapid ascent without time to acclimatize. Although acetazolamide and dexamthasone have been used to treat AMS, descent remains the treatment of choice when possible.

Which of the following is NOT used in the management of severe cyanide poisoning? A) Sodium thiosulfate B) Sodium nitrite C) Amyl nitrate D) Amyl nitrite

The correct answer is: C Amyl nitrite capsules and sodium nitrite infusions are used to induce methemoglobinemia, which pulls the CN moiety from cytochrome oxidase. Sodium thiosulfate is then used to bind irreversibly to cyanide, preventing further toxicity. Hyperbaric therapy, where available, is added to the treatment regimen.

Work conditioned pauses are defined as: A) Workers' occupying themselves with easier, routine tasks to relax from concentrating on the main jobs B) Breaks at certain times of the day prescribed by management C) Interruptions that arise either from the operation of a machine or organization of the work D) Pauses for rest that workers take on their own

The correct answer is: C Answer A is a "disguised" pause. Answer B is a prescribed pause. Answer D is a spontaneous pause.

Carbon disulfide exposure has been associated with all of the following EXCEPT: A) The production of viscose rayon B) Atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease with chronic exposure C) Leukemia with chronic exposure D) Peripheral neuropathy characterized by ascending symmetric muscle weakness and paresthesias with chronic exposure

The correct answer is: C Other signs and symptoms of carbon disulfide exposure may include (Acute exposure): respiratory irritation. (Chronic exposure): reproductive effects in both males and females; eye irritation and retinal microaneurysms; neurobehavioral changes including motor and sensory nerve conduction delays, impaired motor coordination, and extrapyramidal symptoms with a parkinsonian-type syndrome and cerebellar signs.

Which of the following is not an element of a risk assessment? A) Hazard identification B) Exposure assessment C) Risk communication D) Dose-response assessment

The correct answer is: C Risk communication is the process of informing the public in a understandable and effective manner of the potential harm from a given exposure situation and/or particular agent. Hazard identification, dose-response assessment, and exposure assessment are all elements of risk assessment. (Levy, Wegman, 3rd edition, pg. 299)

Dealing with the uncertainty and unpredictability of personal injury, property loss, business interruption, and liability is identified with: A) Casualty insurance B) Loss prevention C) Risk management D) Loss control management

The correct answer is: C Risk management is a decision-making process whose objective is to identify the proper mix of loss control, risk retention, and risk transfer that the organization should use in dealing with its risks of personal injury, property loss, and liability, including the expense and revenue losses associated with these exposures.

Conversion of TLV's in mg/m3 to PPM is found in the following formula: A) = (TLV in mg/m3 x 22.4)/ (Gram Molecular Weight of Substance) B) = (TLV in PPM x 24.45)/ (Gram Molecular Weight of Substance) C) = (TLV in mg/m3 x 24.45)/ (Gram Molecular Weight of Substance) D) = (Gram Molecular Weight of Substance)/ (TLV in mg/m3 x 24.45)

The correct answer is: C Since PPM is a volume/volume ratio, the mass must cancel out, leaving volume units. 24.45 is used for the molar volume since temperature is assumed to be 25° C, i.e., Normal Temperature and Pressure. *** Would be nice if they state in STP or NTP Anwser C is in NTP Answer A is in STP

A charcoal tube sample was taken by drawing 40 l of air through the tube which was then analyzed for benzene. If 0.5 mg of benzene was found on the tube, what was the concentration of benzene (in ppm) in the air sample assuming STP? (M.W.=78) A) 2.72 B) 3.35 C) 3.92 D) 4.10

The correct answer is: C Since there are 1000 liters in a cubic meter 40 liters = 0.040 m3 0.5 mg/.040 m3 = 12.5 mg/m3 To convert mg/m3 to ppm ppm = (mg/m3 x 24.45)/molecular weight ppm = (12.5 mg/m3 x 24.45)/78 = 3.92 ***Answer is the test bank may be wrong here. For STP, we use 22.4 For NTP (room), we use 24.45 ...see next question

Trimellitic anhydride (TMA) exposure has been associated with all of the following EXCEPT: A) Rhinitis B) Hemorrhagic pneumonitis C) Lung cancer D) Hemolytic anemia

The correct answer is: C TMA acts as a hapten, forming antigenic protein complexes with human proteins. Exposed individuals have developed rhinitis, asthma, hemorrhagic pneumonitis, and hemolytic anemia secondary to host immune response to these haptens. TMA has not been associated with lung cancer.

The balance between the left and right hand usage is optimized in the ___________ keyboard. A) Scholes B) Qwerty C) Dvorak D) Kroemer

The correct answer is: C The Dvorak keyboard is designed for the most frequently used letters in the English language to be better placed to correspond with the stronger fingertips.

When must employees who require medical surveillance under OSHA's Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response standard (HAZWOPER), 29 CFR 1910.120, receive it? A) Every 12 months B) Quarterly C) Before assignment and every 12 months D) Within 5 days of assignment and every year thereafter

The correct answer is: C The HAZWOPER standard requires that employees who are exposed at or above the PEL, who wear a respirator for 30 days or more per year, or who are members of HAZMAT teams receive medical surveillance before assignment and at least once every 12 months thereafter.

All of the following are true regarding the Haddon Matrix EXCEPT: A) It is a model for formulating potential interventions and preventive measures for certain types of injuries B) Key components of the matrix include agent, vector, host, and physical and social environmental factors C) It emphasizes the mechanism of injury relative to the injury event D) Pre-event strategies attempt to prevent occurrence of the injury-producing event by preventing the agent from reaching the susceptible host

The correct answer is: C The Haddon Matrix emphasizes timing of intervention and preventive strategies based on the injury-producing event. Pre-event strategies, such as lock-out/tag-out and enclosure of manufacturing processes, aim to prevent the agent from reaching or gaining access to the susceptible host. Event strategies, such as use of personal protective equipment minimize exposure to the host or minimize agent-host interaction. Post-event strategies, such as HIV post-exposure prophylaxis or chelation, seek to limit or repair adverse effects or sequelae already sustained. Cassens, Preventive Medicine and Public Health, 2nd ed., 1992, pp.200-201

Which of the following statements related to carbon monoxide exposure is FALSE: A) Headache is the most common presenting complaint B) Patients with coronary disease have been shown to experience angina at lower than usual exercise levels with small exposures C) The biologic half-life of carboxyhemoglobin is 1.5 hours D) Carbon monoxide causes a shift in the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve to the left

The correct answer is: C The biologic half-life of carboxyhemoglobin is 4 hours, or 60-90 minutes with 100% oxygen via face mask.

Risk factors or predisposing factors for hypothermia include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Extremes of age B) Ethanol ingestion C) Treatment with ACE inhibitors D) Treatment with neuroleptic drugs

The correct answer is: C The elderly, infants less than 1 year of age, individuals consuming alcohol, and patients being treated with neuroleptic drugs appear to be at greater risk for hypothermia compared to the general population. Depending on the factor, certain mechanisms for maintaining thermoregulation may be impaired, e.g., vasoconstriction and thermogenesis by shivering.

The hierarchy of controls for tuberculosis prevention is: A) Environmental controls, source controls, PPE B) PPE, source controls, environmental controls C) Source controls, environmental controls, PPE D) Source controls, personnel controls, PPE

The correct answer is: C The hierarchy of controls for prevention of tuberculosis in health care facilities is source controls (identify, isolate, treat cases), environmental controls (ventilation, air cleaning, UV), and personal protective equipment (particulate respirators).

Which of the following agents causes upper airway irritation and green tongue? A) Copper B) Arsenic C) Vanadium D) Chromium

The correct answer is: C The most significant pattern of illness seen in workers exposed to vanadium dust is upper respiratory tract irritation. Cough, wheezing, and irritation of the eyes, nose, and throat can occur. With heavy exposure, a green discoloration of the tongue has been described. This is due to oral deposition of vanadium dust.

In converting milligrams per cubic meter to PPM, the number of liters of vapor per mole that is used in the calculation at 25°C and 760 mm Hg is: A) 22.4 B) 24.2 C) 24.45 D) 25.2

The correct answer is: C The number of liters that one mole of an ideal gas or vapor will occupy at 25°C and 760 mm Hg is 24.45. 22.4 is the volume on mole occupies at 0°C (i.e., STP).

Lifts __________ are most demanding in terms of energy expenditure and are least acceptable to workers. A) Over 51 pounds B) Between floor and knuckle height C) That use leg, low back, shoulder and arm muscles D) Outdoors

The correct answer is: C Whole body work or lifts below 30" are usually required when using these muscle groups but lifts above 30" use primarily just shoulder and arm muscles. Maximum energy expenditure is usually less for arm lifts than whole body lifts. See Revised NIOSH Lifting Equation Physiological criterion (2.2-4.7 kcal/min) for details.

Calculate the volume in liters of CO gas to be added to a 47 liter bottle in order to achieve a gas concentration of 100 ppm. A) 470 B) 47 C) 4.7 D) 0.0047

The correct answer is: D (100/106) = (X/47 liters) (47 liters x 100)/106 = .0047 liters Alternate explanation: 1 ppm of 47 liters = 47 liters / 106 is 0.000047 liters 100 ppm is 100 times 0.000047 liters = 0.0047 liters

The New York City Department of Health Guidelines on Assessment and Remediation of Fungi in Indoor Environments, recommend action based on: A) Health effects and symptoms displayed by building occupants B) A combination of building codes and the type of building use C) The results of air samples collected in the areas of complaint, control areas away from where occupants have complained and outside areas D) Visual assessment of the areas

The correct answer is: D ***Large chart does not cut/paste into Quizlet.

Exposure to 1,3-butadiene is clearly associated with all of the following effects EXCEPT: A) Frostbite B) Dermatitis C) Eye, nose, and throat irritation D) Lung cancer

The correct answer is: D 1,3-butadiene causes cancer in mice, but studies neither confirm nor refute the hypothesis that it is carcinogenic in humans. Exposure to liquid butadiene causes dermatitis and frostbite.

2,3,7,8-TCDD (dioxin) is: A) A common constituent found in polychlorinated biphenyls B) An insecticide used in Vietnam C) Readily removed from body stores with chelating agents D) A contaminant found in 2,4,5 T (trichlorophenoxy-acetic acid)

The correct answer is: D 2,3,7,8 TCDD is an unwanted byproduct in the production of trichlorophenol- which is used in the synthesis of 2,4,5 T. PCBs can be contaminated by dioxin isomers.

Convert 400 ppm of sulfur dioxide vapors to per cent by volume. Molecular weight of SO2=64 A) 40% B) 4% C) 0.4% D) 0.04%

The correct answer is: D 400 ppm/106 ppm x 100% = 0.04%

The ACGIH has established cold stress TLVs for workers in cold occupations. At what body core temperature (degrees F) is the worker in danger of developing severe hypothermia if his/her core temp drops further? A) 75° B) 80° C) 85° D) 91.4°

The correct answer is: D According to the 1996-7 TLV booklet, once the core body temperature falls below 91.4°F, severe hypothermia sets in rapidly. Normally the oral temperature is 98.6°F and rectal temperature is 99.6°F.

All of the following are examples of countermeasure strategies for the prevention of injuries EXCEPT: A) Prevent the production, development, or marshalling of the harmful agent B) Decrease the quantity or amount of the agent C) Eliminate inappropriate releases of the agent D) Never alter or modify release of the agent

The correct answer is: D Altering or modifying release of the agent is one of the ten countermeasure strategies for the prevention of injuries based on the Haddon Model. The other five countermeasures are: use of physical barriers to separate the host from the agent, modification of surfaces and basic structures, enhancement of resistance to injury, enhancement of emergency responses, and access to better medical care and rehabilitation services. Cassens, Preventive Medicine and Public Health, 2nd ed., 1992, p. 201

Under the Hazard Communication standard (HAZCOM), employers must do all of the following EXCEPT: A) Compile a list of each hazardous chemical known to be present in the workplace B) Ensure the labeling of each container of hazardous chemicals in the workplace with identity and hazard warnings C) Have a material safety data sheet (MSDS) for each hazardous chemical used in the workplace D) Ensure appropriate workers' compensation coverage of workers exposed to hazardous chemicals in the workplace

The correct answer is: D Although most states require workers' compensation coverage for workplaces with one or more employees, this requirement is not part of the HAZCOM standard.

The least important consideration in evaluating the length of time an air-purifying respirator can be used is the: A) Concentration of the contaminant B) Duration of exposure C) Type of cartridge used D) Toxicity of the contaminant

The correct answer is: D Although the toxicity of the contaminant is an important consideration when selecting a respirator, the length of time the respirator can be used is determined by the concentration, duration, and type of cartridge.

______ is the most important regulator of circadian rhythms. A) Bright light regardless of source B) Bright light from the sun C) Staying in a routine D) Blood levels of glucose

The correct answer is: A The human brain is less sensitive to light than other animal species. However, research has shown that bright light over 2,500 lux can have an effect on mood and over 10,000 lux can have an effect on alertness. Bright light from 5,000 to 10,000 lux and beyond has the power to reset the biological clock which is why bright light from any source is the correct answer. The biological clock in the human body is precisely synchronized with the timing of dawn and dusk. The brightness of light falling on the eyes is detected by the retina and this information is routed back to the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the brain. See "The Twenty Four Hour Society" by Martin Moore-Ede, Addison-Wesley Publishing.

The New York City Department of Health Guidelines on Assessment and Remediation of Fungi in Indoor Environments, recommend remediation action depending on the level or extent of contamination. All "levels" of remediation have certain recommendations that are the same, despite the size of contamination. Remediation recommendations that should be followed on all jobs include: A) Non-porous (e.g., glass, metals, etc.) and semi-porous (e.g., wood, concrete, etc.) materials that are structurally sound and moldy can be cleaned and reused B) Remediation workers should be provided with full-face respirators with high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) cartridges or supplied air respirators, disposable protective clothing from head to toe, and gloves C) The abatement area should be isolated with plastic sheeting sealed with duct tape, the establishment of negative pressure via use of an exhaust fan with a HEPA filter, airlocks and decontamination room D) Air monitoring should be conducted before occupancy to ensure the area is safe to reoccupy

The correct answer is: A The objective of remediation is to remove or clean contaminated materials in a way that prevents fungal contamination from leaving a work area and entering a clean area. In addition, the health of the workers performing the remediation should be protected. The NYC Guidelines outline recommendations based on the size of contamination ranging from small isolated areas of 10 ft2 (3 m2) or less (e.g., ceiling tiles, small areas on walls, etc.) to extensive contamination greater than 100 contiguous ft2 (30 m2 ) in any area. Answer A is the only recommendation that is true for all levels of remediation. The other answers outline recommendations for more extensive contamination Level 3 (30- 100 ft2 or 3- 30 m2) or Level 4 (greater than 100 contiguous ft2 or 30 m2). The following general remediation specifications are recommended for ALL remediation: * Non-porous (e.g., glass, metals, etc.) and semi-porous (e.g., wood, concrete, etc.) materials that are structurally sound and moldy can be cleaned and reused. * Cleaning of all mold contaminated surfaces should be done with a detergent solution. * Ceiling tiles, insulation, wallboard, and other porous materials with more than a small area of contamination should be removed and discarded. There are no special requirements for disposal of mold contaminated materials. * Assistance from a professional restoration consultant should be attained when restoring porous materials with more than a small area of contamination. * Materials to be reused should be dry and free from all visible molds. * The abatement area should be unoccupied and "high risk" persons (i.e. infants, persons recovering from recent surgery, immune- suppressed individuals, or individuals with chronic inflammatory lung disease) should be vacated from adjacent areas. Ref: New York City Department of Health. Bureau of Environmental & Occupational Disease Epidemiology. Guidelines on Assessment and Remediation of Fungi in Indoor Environments, November, 2000.

What is the most expedient method of protecting a worker from noise? A) Ear protection B) Limited exposure time C) Engineering controls D) Administrative Controls

The correct answer is: A The quickest way is to provide hearing protection. The most effective long term solution is to engineer out the source of the noise (if feasible).

Regarding wood dust exposure, which of the following statements is NOT TRUE? A) There is a marked increase of squamous cell carcinoma of the nose and sinuses from hardwood exposure B) Plicatic acid is the causative agent found in asthma due to red cedar dust inhalation C) Dust control offers the best means of reducing both acute and chronic effects D) Chronic effects include chronic obstructive lung disease and fibrosing alveolitis

The correct answer is: A There is a marked increase of ADENOCARCINOMA of the nose and sinuses with hardwood exposure.

Which seat angle (i.e., between seat pan and backrest) will cause the highest disc pressure at L3/L4? A) 80° B) 90° C) 110° D) 130°

The correct answer is: B 80 = 0.09MPa 90 = 0.1MPa 110 = -0.4MPa. 130 = -0.4MPa

The instrument used to measure a persons threshold of hearing (that is the minimum sound pressure level that is just audible) at selected frequencies is called a/an: A) Sound level meter B) Audiometer C) Octave band analyzer D) Audiogram

The correct answer is: B An audiometer presents tones of various frequencies to the subject through an earphone. A sound level meter measures noise levels. An octave band analyzer is a noise-measuring device that measures noise levels at different frequencies. An audiogram is the form or chart plotted from the results of audiometry. A Barany noise box is a tool that provides completed sounds when testing a patient's ability to hear spoken words.

Exposure to vinyl chloride is associated with all of the following EXCEPT: A) Angiosarcoma of the liver B) Aplastic anemia C) Raynaud's syndrome D) Acroosteolysis

The correct answer is: B Aplastic anemia and lung disease are not associated with vinyl chloride exposure.

Regarding benzene, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: A) Acute myelogenous leukemia has been linked to benzene overexposure B) Biologic monitoring for benzene is best accomplished using serum metabolite levels C) Benzene is a frequent contaminant of solvent mixtures, including technical grade toluene D) An increased number of sister chromatid exchanges, micronuclei, and chromosomal aberrations are found in persons exposed to benzene

The correct answer is: B Biologic monitoring for benzene is best accomplished using total urinary phenols for acute overexposure, and complete blood count with differential for compliance with OSHA mandated monitoring.

Grandjean defined slight effort as ____ of maximum voluntary force. A) 1/2 B) 1/3 C) 1/6 D) 1/8

The correct answer is: B In general terms, static effort can be said to be considerable under the following circumstances: * a high level of effort for 10 sec or more * a moderate effort for 1 min or more * a slight effort (about 1/3 of maximum force) for 5 min or more. See "Fitting the Task to the Human", K.H. E. Kroemer and Etienne Grandjean, Fifth Edition, Taylor & Francis.

Which of the following statements is true? A) It is easier to adjust to an advance in schedule B) It is easier to adjust to travel westwards C) Adaptation to eastward and westward travel is similar D) All of the above

The correct answer is: B It is easier to adapt to westward travel. (Just remember: "East is least, and West is best"). The human circadian period is actually about 25.2 hours rather than 24 hours. Therefore, it is easier to adapt to a delay, rather than an advance, in schedule.

What is the best use of Diethyltoluamide (DEET)? A) Herbicide B) Insect Repellent C) Fungicide D) Insecticide

The correct answer is: B N,N-diethyl-m-toluamide (DEET) is an insect repellent that repels, but does not kill insects. Technical-grade DEET is a nearly colorless liquid with a faint odor, and is the active ingredient in many insect repellent products. DEET was first registered for use by the general public in 1957, and is widely used in the United States. Currently, there are over 225 commercially-available insect repellent products that contain DEET. Concentrations of DEET in these products range from 4-100% DEET. Current estimates suggest that approximately one-third of the U.S. population, including children, use products containing DEET each year. Individuals with abnormal or altered ammonia metabolism may experience increased susceptibility to adverse effects from DEET exposure. DEET is formulated to be applied directly to skin and/or clothing, or indirectly via products such as wristbands that are impregnated with DEET. Children are most likely to be exposed to DEET following dermal application of DEET insect repellents. Cases of accidental DEET ingestion by drinking DEET solutions, or exposure via inhalation or contact with eyes have also occurred. LaDou, Pesticides, Chapter 31. http://www.epa.gov/teach/chem_summ/DEET_summary.pdf

Nickel compounds can cause all of the following EXCEPT: A) Lung cancer B) Peripheral neuropathy C) Adult respiratory distress syndrome(ARDS) D) Contact dermatitis

The correct answer is: B Nickel compounds have not been found to cause peripheral neuropathy. Exposure to metallic nickel can cause contact dermatitis and airway irritation. Nickel carbonyl gas exposure can produce fulminant pneumonitis, encephalopathy, and ARDS. Late effects of nickel inhalation include cancers of the nose, nasal sinuses, and lungs.

A college student working as a pest control technician presents to your office complaining of sneezing, coughing, and has pain in the nose and throat. He is noted to be sweating, tachycardic, and has a fever. Which of the following agents was the most likely cause of his symptoms? A) Pentane B) Pentachlorophenol C) Perchloroethylene D) Pentaborane

The correct answer is: B Pentachlorophenol (PCP) is an insecticide used in termite control. It causes ocular and respiratory tract irritation and increases the body temperature and metabolic rate. Exposure to concentrations greater than 1 mg per cubic ml causes nose and throat pain, violent sneezing, and cough.

Phosphorus compounds can cause all of the following EXCEPT: A) Aseptic necrosis of bone B) Glomerulonephritis C) Pulmonary edema D) CNS depression

The correct answer is: B Phosphorus compounds can cause skin burns, ocular irritation, CNS depression, and pulmonary edema. Elemental phosphorus leads to progressive aseptic necrosis of bone. Glomerulonephritis has not been noted in phosphorus exposure.

Select the correct statement concerning models of prevention and control of injuries: A) Implementation of a single intervention is typically more effective than a combination of interventions B) Selection of interventions should be based primarily on their effectiveness in decreasing injuries C) Selection of interventions should be based primarily on the frequency, timing or relative importance of the causes of injuries D) Ergonomic interventions are not effective in the reduction of musculoskeletal disorders in the workplace

The correct answer is: B Selection of interventions should be based primarily on their effectiveness in decreasing injuries. Typically, a combination of interventions is more effective than a single strategy. For example, incidence of hepatitis B seroconversion can be reduced through a combination of interventions, including immunizations, implementation of universal precautions, employee education and training, and so forth. Cassens, Preventive Medicine and Public Health, 2nd ed., 1992, p. 200

Who gets more sleep, permanent night shift workers or workers on a rotating weekly schedule? A) Workers who rotate weekly get more sleep than shift workers B) Shift workers on permanent night shift get more sleep than those who rotate weekly C) Both get equal amounts of sleep D) Sleep is not dependant on the shift, but is up to the individual

The correct answer is: B Shift workers who stay on the same shift are able to get into a sleep pattern better than those who rotate weekly. Weekly rotation does not allow a person to get into a good sleep rhythm.

Americans with Disabilities Act (Refer to Scenario) A) I B) II C) III D) IV ---------- I. Purpose is to assure, so far as possible, every working person safe and healthful working conditions II. Prohibits Tom's employer from discriminating against him based on his HIV status III. Gave workers the right to organize and form unions; also formed the National Labor Relations Board IV. Sally, a railroad worker, is injured while repairing the tracks V. A maritime worker is killed at sea due to the shipowner's negligence in maintaining the ship in a seaworthy condition

The correct answer is: B The ADA prohibits employers from discriminating against employees or job applicants on the basis of disability.

The Bhopal tragedy was directly responsible for this major Federal law: A) TSCA B) SARA Title III C) EPA D) CERCLA

The correct answer is: B The Bhopal and Institute, West Virginia incidents caused the federal government to enact the SARA Title III statute which requires industry to notify local municipalities of their toxic chemicals. The companies and communities are required to perform emergency planning. The companies are also required to report releases of specific chemicals to the EPA.

Under NRC regulations, the annual maximum allowable whole-body dose for occupational exposures to ionizing radiation is: A) 0.5 rem B) 5 rem C) 50 rem D) 500 rem

The correct answer is: B The Nuclear Regulatory Commission sets standards for the commercial use of radioactive substances. These standards aim to limit exposure to radiation to levels that are as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA), balancing these limits against the societal benefits of radiation.

What is the most common physical complaint of shiftworkers? A) Gastrointestinal disturbance B) Sleepiness C) Tachycardia D) Palpitations

The correct answer is: B The most common complaint of shiftworkers is disturbed sleep and wakefulness, resulting in a reduced level of alertness.

Formaldehyde has been thought to cause all of the following EXCEPT: A) Respiratory tract irritation B) Nasopharyngeal cancer in lab rats C) Cancer of the larynx in humans D) Eczematous dermatitis

The correct answer is: C Cancer of the larynx has not been demonstrated in association with formaldehyde exposure. Formaldehyde is an acute irritant and can cause irritation of the skin, eyes, nose, and throat. Chronic eczematous dermatitis affects the hands and arms of exposed workers. There is evidence of a relationship between exposure to formaldehyde and cancer of the nasal cavities in Fisher rats.

All of the following are true regarding Cadmium EXCEPT: A) It is used in welding, electroplating, and the manufacture of metal alloys, glass, pigments, batteries, and electrical equipment B) Chronic exposure may lead to nephrotoxicity with impaired reabsorption in the proximal tubules C) Chelation with BAL is indicated in severe acute poisoning D) Acute exposure to cadmium oxide fumes can lead to fever, cough, chills, and dyspnea

The correct answer is: C Chelation with EDTA (calcium disodium edetate) may be indicated in cases of acute poisoning, but BAL is contraindicated.

According to Van Wely, if a dynamic effort of a repetitive nature is prolonged for more than 5 minutes, it should not exceed more than ___% of the maximum? A) 8 B) 18 C) 30 D) 50

The correct answer is: C Direct quote from research findings Van Wely, P., Design and Disease, Applied Ergonomics, 1, 262-269 (1970). (Nothing like being tested on direct quotes from 1970 research!)

Which of the following is NOT a known health effect of ethylene oxide exposure? A) Mixed motor-sensory peripheral neuropathy B) Nausea and vomiting C) Hepatic dysfunction D) Toxic encephalopathy

The correct answer is: C Ethylene oxide is a mucous membrane and skin irritant. High doses can cause an acute toxic encephalopathy and peripheral nervous system abnormalities. Nausea and vomiting, headache, and disorientation have also been seen with exposure. Hepatic dysfunction secondary to exposure has not been reported.

Form R in the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Program refers to: A) The Emergency and Hazardous Chemical Inventory form B) The Section 312 Tier I form C) The Toxic Chemical Release Inventory (TRI) form D) The Emergency Response form

The correct answer is: C Form R is also commonly referred to as the TRI report. The regulatory requirements for Form R submission can be found at 40 CFR Part 372. These regulations implement Section 313 of EPCRA, also known as SARA Title III, or just Title III, which was part of the comprehensive reauthorization of CERCLA ("Superfund") in 1986.

Research has been performed on the use of gloves versus task performance. One consistent finding regarding grip strength is: A) Properly fitting gloves cause no difference in grip strength B) Glove material makes no difference in grip strength C) Grip strength decreases when gloves are worn D) Grip strength increases when gloves are worn

The correct answer is: C Grip strength is reduced when wearing gloves. However, grip forces may increase because tactile sensitivity feedback is reduced especially when wearing improperly fitting gloves.(Sanders and McCormick, p401). This may cause the worker to grip the tools more firmly than necessary. On the other hand, grip forces could be reduced when handling slippery objects. When issuing or recommending the use of gloves, offer several sizes so that the employee can select the best fit.

An intervention strategy that aims to provide individuals with resistance to hazardous factors typically by modifying the environment to decrease the potential for harmful interactions with those factors is best described as: A) Disease management B) Health promotion C) Health protection D) Health risk assessment

The correct answer is: C Health protection is an intervention strategy that aims to provide individuals with resistance to hazardous factors typically by modifying the environment to decrease the potential for harmful interactions with those factors. Examples include personal protective equipment, engineering controls, immunizations, agency regulations, and so forth. Public Health, Turnock, 1997, pp. 82, 368-369

What is the best use of Maneb? A) Herbicide B) Insect Repellent C) Fungicide D) Insecticide

The correct answer is: C Maneb was first registered in the United States in 1962 for use on food and ornamental crops to prevent crop damage in the field and to protect harvested crops from deterioration in storage or transport. Maneb is a member of the ethylene bisdithiocarbamate (EBDC) group of fungicides, which includes the related active ingredients mancozeb and metiram. LaDou, Pesticides, Chapter 31. http://www.epa.gov/oppsrrd1/REDs/factsheets/maneb_fact.pdf

In general, the most significant source of occupational radiation exposure at nuclear power plants is: A) Gamma radiation from the core B) Long-lived fission product activity C) Neutron activation product activity D) Short-lived fission product activity

The correct answer is: C Most occupational exposure at a nuclear power plant is due to the buildup of activation products in the primary reactor system, most notably cobalt-60. The activation products, also known as "CRUD", tend to deposit in low flow and high differential pressure locations in the system, contributing largely to the external gamma photon fields. Although gammas and neutrons are significant in an operating reactor during the fission process, most exposure occurs during maintenance on the system when the reactor is in shutdown.

Keyboards and chairs should be arranged so that the wrist is in what position? A) Flexed B) Extended C) Neutral D) Supinated

The correct answer is: C Neutral is the desired position. Flexed, extended, and hyperextended positions are undesirable. Supination refers to the arm rotating so that the palm faces upward.

OSHA 1910.95 requires audiometric testing baselines on employees entered into hearing conservation programs within what timeframe? A) 1 month B) 3 months C) 6 months D) 1 year

The correct answer is: C OSHA 1910.95 requires audiometric testing of employees potentially exposed at or greater than 85 decibels for 8 hours within 6 months and annually thereafter.

Employees exposed to what minimum level of noise exposure must receive annual hearing conservation training? A) 90 dBA for 8 hours B) 85 dBA for 4 hours C) 85 dBA for 8 hours D) 85 dBA for 16 hours

The correct answer is: C OSHA 1910.95 requires employees to receive hearing conservation training if they are exposed to a 8-hour TWA of 85 dBA.

All of the following may be associated with carbon tetrachloride exposure EXCEPT: A) Centrilobular necrosis of the liver B) Acute tubular necrosis of the proximal tubules C) Supraventricular tachycardia D) Hepatocellular carcinoma

The correct answer is: C Once widely used as an industrial solvent and as a component of fire extinguisher fluid, carbon tetrachloride is both a hepatotoxin and a nephrotoxin. It acts synergistically with ethanol to enhance hepatotoxic effects. It is considered a probable human carcinogen.

Organophosphate pesticides cause all of the following EXCEPT: A) Chest tightness B) Abdominal cramps C) Increased salivation D) Aplastic anemia and myeloproliferative disorders

The correct answer is: D Aplastic anemia and myeloproloferative disorders are linked to organochlorine insecticides, especially chlordane and lindane.

Which of the following statements about arsenic is NOT correct? A) Arsenic causes both lung and skin cancer B) Arsenic has been shown to cause angiosarcoma of the liver in workers exposed to arsenical insecticides C) Peripheral vascular disease has been associated with arsenic exposure D) Arsenic has been shown to cause carcinoma of the bladder

The correct answer is: D Arsenic does not cause cancer of the bladder.

Convert 12 micrograms per cubic meter of phosgene gas to ppm. Phosgene= COCl2,atomic wts: Cl=35.5 O=16, C=12. Assume conditions of Normal Temperature and Pressure (NTP) A) 30 B) 5 C) 3 D) 0.003

The correct answer is: D At NTP, ppm=(mg/m3)(24.45)/M.W. Therefore, ppm = (0.012mg/m3)(24.45)/99 ppm = 0.003

All of the following statements are TRUE about hydrogen sulfide EXCEPT: A) In low concentrations it acts primarily as a respiratory irritant B) Mild forms of poisoning are characterized by irritation of the conjunctiva with photophobia C) Hydrogen sulfide is a powerful asphyxiant formed in processes in which sulfur is combined with organic chemicals at high temperatures D) Employees exposed to levels of 150 ppm or higher are alerted by the strong odor, and are able to escape further exposure

The correct answer is: D At exposure levels of 150 ppm or higher, olfactory nerve paralysis occurs and employees exposed may be unaware of danger.

In biosafety nomenclature which agent is the most hazardous? A) Class 1 B) Class 2 C) Class 3 D) Class 4

The correct answer is: D Biosafety agents range from Class 1 (safest) to Class 4 (most hazardous). Class 5 agents are foreign animal pathogens regulated by the USDA.

By the age of 60, muscle strength is approximately ___% of the maximum strength attained in the late twenties. A) 40 B) 50 C) 60 D) 80

The correct answer is: D By age 40, muscle strength is approximately 90-95% of the maximum attained in the late twenties. By age 50, 85% ,and by age 60, about 80%. Hand grip, however, seems to remain relatively strong in later years. Baily, p.91.

Which of the following statements about environmental exposure to aluminum is NOT correct? A) In the aluminum reduction process, "potroom asthma" occurs and is likely related to fluorides and other irritants B) The primary risk of aluminum exposure is the development of progressive pneumoconiosis with peripheral emphysema and frequent pneumothorax C) Some forms of aluminum related dementia may be reversed with desferrioxamine therapy D) Workers exposed to aluminum have been found to have increased risk of developing cancer of the nasal cavities and sinuses

The correct answer is: D Cancer of the nasal cavities and sinuses has been observed in workers exposed to chromium, nickel, wood, and leather dusts. Aluminum has not been connected to cancer of the nasal cavities and sinuses.

Signs and symptoms of carbon monoxide exposure may include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Headaches B) Elevated carboxyhemoglobin levels C) Cardiac ischemia D) Pneumonitis

The correct answer is: D Carbon monoxide binds intensely to hemoglobin, leading to the formation of carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) and shifting of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the left. COHb levels in nonsmokers are typically less than 2%, and in smokers, between 4-7%, although levels may reach as high as 10%.

All of the following are steps in a chemical risk analysis EXCEPT: A) Identification of risk B) Quantification C) Dose-response D) Personal protective equipment required

The correct answer is: D Chemical risk analyses classically involve risk identification, quantification, dose-response development, and exposure assessment.

"Green tongue" is associated with which of the following agents? A) Cobalt B) Mercury C) Vinyl chloride D) Vanadium

The correct answer is: D Chronic exposure to vanadium may lead to green discoloration of the tongue.

Commercial grade talc is heavily contaminated with: A) Zinc B) Tin C) Cobalt D) Asbestos

The correct answer is: D Commercial grade talc tends to be heavily contaminated with asbestos and sometimes silica.

What is the best measure of heat stress to the body? A) Pulse B) Oral temperature C) Blood pressure D) Rectal temperature

The correct answer is: D Rectal temperature/core temperature is the best estimate of heat stress. Pulse may also rise. Oral temperature is variable.

What is the best use of Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT)? A) Herbicide B) Insect Repellent C) Fungicide D) Insecticide

The correct answer is: D DDT was first used in the United States as an insecticide in 1939. From 1946 to 1972, DDT was one of the most widely used insecticides in the world. It was used for the control of insect pests such as the pink bollworm on cotton, codling moth on deciduous fruits, Colorado potato beetle, and European corn borer. In the public health field, DDT was used to control malaria, typhus, and other insect-transmitted diseases and to treat body lice. It was also used for mothproofing clothing. Its usage peaked in the 1960s, but in 1972, it was banned for the vast majority of uses in the United States. DDT is currently used in the United States only under Public Health Service supervision for public health emergencies and by the U.S. Department of Agriculture or U.S. military for health quarantine. It is also still used in many countries where malaria is endemic, as an insecticide to control mosquitoes. LaDou, Pesticides, Chapter 31. http://ntp.niehs.nih.gov/ntp/roc/twelfth/profiles/Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane.pdf

The Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986 (EPCRA) is also known as: A) Title III of SARA B) EPCRA C) Title III D) All of the above

The correct answer is: D EPCRA is also known as Title III of the Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA), or just Title III. EPCRA, or SARA, was one part of the comprehensive 1986 reauthorization of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA or "Superfund").

Carbon disulfide has been associated with all of the following EXCEPT: A) Atherosclerosis B) Peripheral neuropathy C) Psychosis D) Chemical pneumonitis

The correct answer is: D Elevated cholesterol levels and early atherosclerosis have been described in chronically exposed workers. Acute overexposure to high concentrations can result in severe toxic encephalopathy and with lower concentrations over longer periods, peripheral neuropathy. Optic neuritis has often been reported, as well as psychosis. Chemical pneumonitis has not been reported in conjunction with carbon disulfide exposure.

Carbon monoxide exposure has been associated with all of the following EXCEPT: A) Incomplete combustion B) Nonelectric fork lifts C) Cigarette smoke D) Ingestion of charred meats

The correct answer is: D Generated by incomplete combustion processes, carbon monoxide is the most common cause of death due to gas inhalation. Environmental exposures, rather than occupational exposures, account for the majority of deaths due to carbon monoxide asphyxiation.

Regarding methyl mercury poisoning, all of the following are possible sequelae EXCEPT: A) Fulminant chemical pneumonitis B) Fetotoxicity C) Speech disturbances D) Hemiparesis

The correct answer is: D Hemiparesis has not been linked to methyl mercury poisoning.

Personal protective equipment is NOT a solution for employee protection in which situation: A) Emergencies B) During periods when engineering controls are being installed or are out of order C) Non-routine tasks D) The hazard does not warrant the expense of engineering controls

The correct answer is: D If a hazard exists that requires PPE, then engineering controls should be used instead of PPE. Only during emergencies, non-routine tasks, and when engineering controls are being repaired or installed, should PPE be the preferred choice for employee protection.

What is the formula to convert from a mass based concentration (mg/m3) to a volume based concentration at NTP? A) ppm = mg/m3 x MW/22.4 B) ppm = mg/m3 x 22.4/MW C) ppm = mg/m3 x MW/24.45 D) ppm = mg/m3 x 24.45/MW

The correct answer is: D KNOW THIS FORMULA FOR THE EXAM! At Normal Temperature and Pressure (i.e., room air, or about 20°- 25°Celcius), the conversion of a mass based concentration to a volume based concentration is represented by the following equation: Volume Conc in ppm = Mass Conc in mg/m3 x 24.45/MW where MW is the molecular weight of the compound. Note that at Standard Temperature and Pressure (0°Celcius and 760 mm Hg), this equation is represented by the following equation: Volume Conc in ppm = Mass Conc in mg/m3 x 22.41/MW (You may often see 22.4 instead of 22.41 for the sake of simplicity).

What is the formula to convert from a volume based concentration (ppm) to a mass based concentration (mg/m3) at STP? A) mg/m3 = ppm x MW/22.45 B) mg/m3 = ppm x 24.45/MW C) mg/m3 = ppm x 22.4/MW D) mg/m3= ppm x MW/22.4

The correct answer is: D KNOW THIS FORMULA FOR THE EXAM! At standard temperature (0°Celsius) and pressure (760 mm Hg), the conversion of concentration units is represented by the following equation: Mass Conc. in mg/m3 = Volume Conc. in ppm x (MW/22.41) where MW is the molecular weight of the compound. For simplicity we use 22.4 rather than 22.41. Note that at Normal Temperature and Pressure (i.e., at room air, or about 20°-25°Celcius), the conversion is represented by the following equation: Mass Conc. in mg/m3=Volume Conc. in ppm x (MW/24.45)

Lead exposure has been associated with all of the following EXCEPT: A) Irritability B) Acute encephalopathy C) Abnormal spermatogenesis D) Symptoms of distal sensory loss

The correct answer is: D Lead exposure has been associated with neuropathy and slowing of motor nerve conduction. When the motor neuropathy is pronounced, wrist drop may develop. Symptoms of sensory loss are not a feature of lead neuropathy.

Responsibility for industrial hygiene at the operational level rests with: A) General Manager B) Safety Director C) Facilities department D) Line supervisor

The correct answer is: D Line supervisors are the responsible parties. Industrial hygiene is another aspect of the job of a supervisor and as with other support functions should be part of the supervisor's performance appraisal.

A term to measure system reliability is probability of successful performance. Another measure of reliability is: A) Psychosocial B) Human-machine coefficient of correlation C) Human factors D) Mean time to failure (MTF)

The correct answer is: D Mean time to failure (MTF) relates to the amount of time that a system or individual performs successfully until failure or between failures. This index is most applicable to continuous types of activities.

Symptoms of "Mill Fever" include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Fever B) Cough C) Chills D) Chest tightness

The correct answer is: D Mill fever is a self-limited flu-like illness seen in new cotton workers after exposure to high concentrations of cotton dust. Chest tightness is not associated with mill fever, as it is with acute byssinosis.

Under OSHA's hearing conservation standard published in 1983, employees must be included in an audiometric testing program if their 8hr TWA exposure to noise is greater than: A) 75 dbA B) 80 dBA C) 90 dBA D) 85 dBA

The correct answer is: D OSHA requires that employees be included in an audiometric testing program if their exposure is greater than 85 dBA (TWA).

Which of the following classes of pesticides causes allergic rhinitis, asthma, and contact dermatitis? A) Organophosphates B) Organochlorines C) Carbamates D) Pyrethrins

The correct answer is: D Pyrethrins are natural pesticides derived from chrysanthemum flowers and may cause asthma, allergic rhinitis, and contact dermatitis.

After the start of shift work, significant changes in a worker's circadian rhythms occur: A) After several months B) After several weeks C) After several nights D) Rarely are significant changes observed

The correct answer is: D Rarely are significant changes observed. The internal clock, which is driven by the bright light of the sun, does not change significantly for the shift worker.

In selecting appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) for your HAZMAT team, you would take into consideration all of the following EXCEPT: A) Identification of the hazards or suspected hazards B) Exposure routes of potential hazards C) Performance of the PPE materials and seams in providing a barrier to hazards to which employees will be exposed D) Compliance of PPE with NIOSH standards on chemical protective clothing

The correct answer is: D Selection of the appropriate PPE is a complex process which should take into consideration a variety of factors. Key factors include: identification of the hazards or suspected hazards, exposure routes of potential hazards, performance of the PPE materials and seams in providing a barrier to hazards to which employees will be exposed, and a matching of the PPE to employees' work requirements and task-specific conditions. It is important to note that the amount of protection provided by PPE is material-hazard specific. That is, protective equipment materials will protect well against some hazardous substances and poorly, or not at all, against others. In many instances, protective equipment materials cannot be found that will provide continuous protection from the particular hazardous substance. In these cases, the breakthrough time of the protective material should exceed the work durations. As an aid in selecting suitable chemical protective clothing, the National Fire Protection Agency (NFPA) has developed standards on chemical protective clothing.

Any given component in a system or facility would have some reasonably optimum location. What statement below is correct? A) The normal line of sight is usually considered to be about 25 degrees below the horizon B) The area for most convenient visual regard (and therefore preferred for visual displays) has generally been a circle or oval roughly 10 degrees to 15 degrees in radius around the normal line of sight C) There are indications that the area of most effective visual regard is not a circle or oval, but a rectangle D) The angle of the line of sight (from pupil to target) is preferable between 20 to 60 degrees below the ear-eye line plane

The correct answer is: D Several references cite 15 to 30 degrees from the horizontal line of sight as an acceptable viewing zone. K.H.E. Kroemer, in his book entitled, "Ergonomics, How to Design for Ease and Efficiency", cites that the angle of the line of sight should be preferably between 20 to 60 degrees below the ear-eye line plane or 40 degrees below the horizon if the head is held "straight up".

The chronicity index is a measure of the ___________ of a chemical. A) Exposure risk B) Margin of safety C) Relative potency D) Cumulative effect

The correct answer is: D Since the chronicity index is defined as the 90 day LD50 divided by the one day LD50, it is a measure of the cumulative effects of a chemical.

The most desirable method of employee protection would be: A) Engineering controls such as ventilation B) Education/training C) Respiratory protection D) Substitution of the process or material

The correct answer is: D Substitution is the best method of employee protection since it eliminates the hazard. Ventilation, administrative controls, education, and respiratory protection help to protect the worker from the hazard, but elimination of the hazard, when possible, is always the best solution.

A process requires the wet polishing of beryllium-copper parts. Which of the following engineering controls is most preferable? A) Local exhaust ventilation B) Isolation of the process C) Respiratory protection and dry polishing instead of the wet process D) Substitution of bronze parts

The correct answer is: D Substitution of a less hazardous material for a more hazardous material is always better than trying to control the hazard. Wet polishing, however, would probably not require exhaust or personal protective equipment since the potential dust becomes trapped in the polishing liquid. Isolation is the next best alternative if the hazard cannot be eliminated. Job rotation is an administrative, not an engineering, control. ***Terrible question. We are led to believe the process and part are "required", and the explanation should read replacement of a MORE hazardous material for a LESS hazardous material...

Which of the following agents is associated with garlic breath? A) Cadmium B) Chromium C) Lead D) Tellurium

The correct answer is: D Tellurium exposure may occur in the rubber, electronics, glass and ceramics industries. Routes of exposure are generally via inhalation or ingestion. The characteristic garlic odor results from metabolism of tellurium to dimethyl telluride. Acute exposure may lead to garlicky odor of the breath and sweat, blue-black skin discoloration, fatigue, and nausea. Chronic exposure may lead to garlicky odor of the breath, metallic taste, fatigue, somnolence, dry mouth, and anhidrosis (marked deficiency of sweating).

Which of the following statements is TRUE about tetraethyl lead? A) It is absorbed through the skin and is a potent skin sensitizer B) Alkyl lead exposure is best monitored by blood lead levels C) Wrist drop, lead colic, lead line, and basophilic stippling of red blood cells are manifestations of tetra-ethyl lead toxicity D) Symptoms of severe toxicity include delusions, hallucinations, hyperactivity, and loud shouting and laughing

The correct answer is: D Tetraethyl lead is not a potent skin sensitizer. It is best monitored by following urine lead levels. Wrist drop, lead colic, lead line and basophilic stippling are manif

Personal Protective Equipment recommendations for bioaerosol remediation personnel include: A) Minimum requirements of dust masks for these naturally occurring and ubiquitous material B) N95 disposable respirator and gloves for "minimal" fungal growth C) HEPA filtered, half-mask air purifying respirator; eye protection; and full body coveralls for "moderate and extensive" fungal growth D) Both B and C

The correct answer is: D The AIHA recommends that the following minimum PPE be worn by any individuals who are completing fungal growth remediation to minimize inhalation or contamination of skin or clothing. For "minimal" fungal growth that is defined as Level I, Level II, or Level III in the NYC Guidelines, a N95 disposable respirator and gloves (latex or similar material) For "moderate and extensive" fungal growth that is defined as Level IV in the NYC Guidelines, a HEPA filtered, half-mask air purifying respirator; eye protection; and full body coveralls (i.e. Tyvek coveralls) American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists, Bioaerosols: Assessment and Control.

Biosafety is currently regulated primarily by which federal agency? A) NIOSH B) NIEHS C) FDA D) CDC

The correct answer is: D The Center for Disease Control and Prevention's Office of Biosafety has developed most of the Biosafety programs now in use. EPA does have some authority concerning the release of bioengineered organisms to the environment.

The Hazard Communication Standard (HAZCOM): A) Applies to any biological agent which is known to be present in the workplace in such a manner that employees may be exposed under normal conditions of use or in a foreseeable emergency. B) Applies to any consumer product or hazardous substance as those terms are defined in the Consumer Product Safety Act. C) Applies to ionizing and nonionizing radiation. D) Requires employers to ensure that each container of hazardous chemicals is labeled, marked or tagged with the identity of the hazardous chemical and appropriate hazard warnings.

The correct answer is: D The HAZCOM standard requires chemical manufacturers or importers to assess the hazards of the chemicals which they produce or import, and all employers to provide information to their employees about the hazardous chemicals to which they are exposed, by means of a hazard communication program, labels and other forms of warning, material safety data sheets, and information and training. This standard applies to any chemical which is known to be present in the workplace in such a manner that employees may be exposed under normal conditions of use or in a foreseeable emergency.

Jones Act (Refer to Scenario) A) I B) II C) III D) V ---------- I. Purpose is to assure, so far as possible, every working person safe and healthful working conditions II. Prohibits Tom's employer from discriminating against him based on his HIV status III. Gave workers the right to organize and form unions; also formed the National Labor Relations Board IV. Sally, a railroad worker, is injured while repairing the tracks V. A maritime worker is killed at sea due to the shipowner's negligence in maintaining the ship in a seaworthy condition

The correct answer is: D The Jones Act provides workers' compensation for injured maritime workers.

"Community Right-To-Know" is associated with what legislative act? A) TSCA B) RCRA C) HMTA D) SARA Title III

The correct answer is: D The Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA) Title III (The Emergency Planning and Community Right-To-Know Act of 1986) sets extensive reporting requirements and requires emergency planning for over 360 extremely hazardous substances. The purpose of SARA Title III is to ensure a free flow of accurate information within the community so that an appropriate emergency response can be planned and executed.

The action level for an OSHA-defined hearing conservation program is: A) 70 dBA B) 75 dBA C) 80 dBA D) 85 dBA

The correct answer is: D The action level for a hearing conservation program is 85 dBA, while the 8 hour time- weighted-average (TWA) permissible exposure limit (PEL) is 90 dBA.

If a number of samples were collected for a specific operation over a period of three consecutive days, and given a TWA for lead oxide of 0.09 mg/m3; (TLV = 0.05 mg/m3; PEL = 0.2 mg/m3), you should: A) Close down the operation B) Take no further action because you are in compliance with the law (OSHA PEL) C) Recommend rotation of workers D) Recommend respirators until engineering controls can be implemented

The correct answer is: D The air sample does not exceed the OSHA limit, but it does exceed the TLV. As an interim solution you should recommend PPE and follow through with a permanent, engineered solution. Rotating the workers would reduce exposure by spreading it over more employees. It is legally acceptable, but is not the most effective method of hazard control and requires much management attention to ensure effective implementation.

Which of the following is a late manifestation of dysbarism seen in workers after repeated episodes of mild decompression sickness: A) Osteomyelitis B) Bone cancer C) Osteomalacia D) Bone necrosis

The correct answer is: D The condition is generally asymptomatic, except when the joint is involved. A period of 3-4 months after injury is usually required before necrosis is seen on x-ray.

The most important consideration in the selection of personal protective equipment for use during emergencies is: A) The number of victims and transport vehicles available and the respiratory hazards of the materials contaminating the victims B) Size and number of responders and proximity to fire of the emergency operations C) The location of the incident and time of day and the toxicity of the materials involved D) The respiratory hazards associated with the emergency, the physical hazards of any hazardous materials and protection from a potential fire

The correct answer is: D The most important considerations in selection of personal protective equipment in an emergency (particularly a hazardous materials related incident) are respiratory protection, chemical protection and thermal protection.

With respect to radiation exposure, why are the dose equivalent limits for occupationally exposed persons so much higher than those set for members of the general public? A) Radiation workers are paid enough to compensate for the risk B) Radiation workers have continuous monitoring of their exposure and the work environment is continuously monitored C) Radioactive materials licensees only hire workers with a limited knowledge of radiological principles D) The number of radiation workers is very low compared to the population so the total risk is very small

The correct answer is: D The number of radiation workers is very low compared to the population so the total risk is very small. In Cost-Benefit analysis in radiation protection, the benefit of an implemented process, technology, etc. must outweigh the detriment. For a benefit to an entire population, the total radiation detriment is small, since radiation workers comprise such a small percentage of the total population.

The roentgen is a unit used to express: A) Energy deposited per unit weight B) Ionization in air C) Biological effectiveness D) Ionization in air due to gamma radiation

The correct answer is: D The roentgen is a unit of measure of the ionization produced by gamma rays in air. The rem incorporates an estimate of biological effectiveness.

Examples of interventions for the prevention and control of injuries include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Engineering controls B) Economic interventions C) Enforcement of laws and regulations D) Pre-employment screening for carpal tunnel syndrome

The correct answer is: D There is no evidence that pre-employment screening for carpal tunnel syndrome reduces the incidence of work-related CTDs. On the other hand, engineering controls (e.g., workstation re-design and substitution of powered tools for manual tools), economic interventions (e.g., lower workers' compensation premiums for companies with safety programs), enforcement of laws and regulations (e.g., OSHA regulations, seatbelt laws), and education and training may all potentially reduce the incidence of injuries. It should be noted that of the four interventions listed above, education is usually the least effective strategy, particularly if used in isolation. Cassens, Preventive Medicine and Public Health, 2nd ed., 1992, p. 200

What are zeitgebers? A) A cyclic change in the level of a measure of hormones in the body B) Unit used to measure intensity of light C) Measures of energy demand D) Internal, or endogenous, or external, or exogenous, cues that determine biological rhythms

The correct answer is: D These may be natural phenomena such as light/dark, thermal conditions, sleeping, and diet that trigger or cue biological rhythms.

Decompression sickness is due to formation of _________ gas bubbles in the blood and other tissues. A) Carbon monoxide B) Carbon dioxide C) Oxygen D) Nitrogen

The correct answer is: D Upon rapid decompression, nitrogen comes out of solution, forming gas bubbles in the blood and other body tissues.

The MOST EFFECTIVE parameter in biological monitoring for xylene is: A) Complete blood count B) Liver function tests C) Urinary acetic acid D) Urinary methyl-hippuric acid

The correct answer is: D Urinary methyl-hippuric acid is the most effective method in biological monitoring for xylene exposure.

Starting at what percent of MAX HR (maximum heart rate) is a worker likely to fatigue? A) > 5% B) > 8% C) > 15% D) > 33%

The correct answer is: D When more than 33% of "maximum heart rate range" is required during the shift, the worker is likely to fatigue.

What is a Roentgen? A) The amount of X or gamma radiation that produces ionization resulting in 1 electrostatic unit of change in 1 cm3 of dry air at STP B) Absorption of 100 ergs of energy from any radiation in 1 gm of any material C) The "biological" dose to living tissue D) Equivalent to Rem

The correct answer is: A A Roentgen is a measurement of exposure as defined in Answer A. The measurement of absorbed dose, i.e., the definition of rads, is given in Answer B. A rem is the biological dose.

The major source of radiation exposure averaged over the United States population is from: A) Natural background radiation B) Diagnostic medical applications C) Therapeutic medical applications D) Fallout from nuclear weapons

The correct answer is: A According to NCRP Report No. 93 (1987), of the 360 mrem annual average exposure to the population of the U.S., 300 mrem is due to natural radiation. The components of natural radiation include cosmic and terrestrial sources. The largest contributor is radon/thoron daughters, at about 200 mrem.

Which radioactive emission is the easiest one to shield against? A) Alpha B) Beta C) Neutron D) Gamma

The correct answer is: A Alpha particles are relatively easy to shield against. Paper is an effective alpha shield. The other answers (beta, neutron, and Gamma) are more difficult to shield against.

What type of radiation presents the greatest internal hazard? A) Alpha B) Beta C) Gamma D) Positron

The correct answer is: A Alpha particles can cause extensive ionization in tissues. They are not normally absorbed by the skin, but rather inhaled.

Biological exposure indices (BEI) help to measure employees' exposure to all of the following, EXCEPT: A) Biohazards B) Chemical exposure via dermal routes C) Chemical exposure via ingestion D) Chemical exposure via non-occupational routes

The correct answer is: A Biohazards are potentially infectious agents of biological origin which are not addressed by the biological exposure indices for exposure to chemical substances by dermal, ingestion, and non-occupational exposure routes.

When attempting to reduce ergonomic injuries, which of the following actions is the most proactive? A) Design reviews B) Injury/illness data reviews C) Medical surveillance D) Audits/assessments

The correct answer is: A Design reviews allow for ergonomic issues to be identified and eliminated before workers are exposed, which is the most proactive step. Reviewing injury/illness data, conducting medical surveillance, and audits detect the problem once it has occurred or is occurring. Pre-placement lumbar films have poor predictive value for future injuries.

What type of canister respirator would you use if you were working in a parking garage with a gas-fired engine? A) Blue B) Black C) Green D) Red

The correct answer is: A Gas fired engines emit carbon monoxide as a by-product. The correct canister color for carbon monoxide is blue. Black is for organic vapors, green is for ammonia, and red is for all types of contaminants.

Intact skin is sufficient to shield which type of ionizing radiation? A) Alpha B) Beta C) Gamma D) X-rays

The correct answer is: A Intact skin is sufficient to shield alpha radiation. Because of their mass and charge, alpha particles can only travel a few centimeters in air and have limited ability to penetrate the skin. However, once emitted in body tissue, alpha particles cause dense ionization and significant local damage.

What is the usual unit of measurement for laser radiation? A) J/cm2 or W/cm2 B) H/cm2 or E/cm2 C) g/cm2 or m/cm2 D) J/min or W/min

The correct answer is: A Normally equated to the aperture of the eye, i.e., 7 mm, the limits of the laser are generally expressed as joules/cm2 or watts/cm2.

Which of the following would be the most appropriate test to assess possible parathion intoxication? A) Delta cholinesterase test B) Liver function test C) Liver biopsy D) White cell count

The correct answer is: A Parathion is an organophosphorus pesticide which acts as a cholinesterase inhibitor. Therefore, Answer A is the simplest and most direct method of assessment.

For the rotating shiftworker, the shift schedule most tolerable is: A) Morning-afternoon-night B) Afternoon-morning-night C) Night-afternoon-morning D) Night-morning-afternoon

The correct answer is: A Schedules that rotate clockwise (morning-afternoon-night) are preferred to those that rotate counterclockwise. Night shifts should be placed at the end of the shift cycle.

Which of the following control methods would not be effective in controlling exposure to radon? A) Mechanical air filters B) Building pressurization C) Increasing dilution ventilation in building D) Increasing natural ventilation in building

The correct answer is: A Since radon is a gas, mechanical filtering devices would not be a good control method. Pressurizing the building, increasing dilution ventilation, and natural ventilation would be methods for controlling radon gas exposure.

A sound level measurement of 100 dB is taken three feet from the source. What will the sound level be 12 feet from the source? A) 88 dB B) 89 dB C) 90 dB D) 91 dB

The correct answer is: A The formula for calculating sound level, based upon distance, is based on the inverse square law. LP2= LP1-20log(r2/r1), where LP2= the sound level at distance r2, LP1= the measured sound at distance r1. In this case, LP2=100-20 log 12/3=88 dB. A rule of thumb for calculating this is each doubling of distance from the source results in -6 dB.

Video display terminals have received much attention for their possible association with reproductive effects. The reproductive effects have been attributed to ionizing radiation and: A) Low frequency pulsed magnetic fields B) Thermal stress C) Microwave emissions D) Characteristic x-rays

The correct answer is: A The main area of discussion has been the possible effects of low level pulsed magnetic fields. There have been several animal studies that have shown the waves to have potential teratgenic effects. The results have been difficult to replicate and some other exposures were not accounted for in the studies. This area will continue to be controversial.

If sound pressure levels are measured using the A, B, and C weighted scales and the differences are negligible then the predominant frequencies of the sound are: A) >1000 Hz B) 20-250 Hz C) 500- 900 Hz D) < 750 Hz

The correct answer is: A The only part of the spectrum where the A, B, and C weighting systems produce similar results is in the > 1000 frequencies.

Thermal radiation is the transmission of energy by means of electromagnetic radiation, the wavelengths of which are ________ visible light. A) Longer than B) Shorter than C) The same wavelength as D) Both longer and/or shorter than

The correct answer is: A Thermal radiation has wavelengths longer than those of visible light.

What potential optical radiation hazards are there to laser operators other than those from the laser beam itself? A) UV B) IR C) Microwave/RF D) Visible/red

The correct answer is: A Ultraviolet radiation emitted from laser discharge tubes, pumping lamps, and plasma (from laser welding), may have sufficient UV content to cause a potential hazard.

Which of the following will penetrate dermal tissue the greatest? A) Visible light B) UVC C) UVB D) UVA

The correct answer is: A Visible light will penetrate dermal tissue the greatest, but will interact the least with the tissue. UVC will interact with the skin, causing erythema. UVB is the major cause of sunburn.

X-ray fluorescence is a technique that has been used to analyze metals in renal, pulmonary, etc, tissue. It is a technique that analyzes the _______________ the metal after exposure to x-rays. A) Radiation emitted from B) Radiation absorbed by C) Gamma rays produced by nuclear decay of D) Beta particle spectrum produced by

The correct answer is: A X-ray fluorescence, as the name implies, is the process of analyzing the fluorescence of atoms after exposure to x-rays. It is not a measure of x-ray absorption, nor does the exposure to x-rays cause nuclear decay. X-rays are produced by removal and rearrangement of high energy electrons.

Work efficiency of a person can be computed using the following basic equation. A) Efficiency (%)=(Work input/Work output) x 100 B) Efficiency (%)=(Work output/energy consumption) x 100 C) Efficiency (%)=(Work input/energy consumption) x 100 D) Efficiency (%)=(Work output/Work input) x 100

The correct answer is: B All energy expended by a person does not end up in useful work. Most of it (about 70%) is transformed into heat--other energy is wasted movement or static movement.

Which two instruments are commonly used to measure heat stress according to the ACGIH TLV"S? A) Anemometer and globe thermometer B) Globe thermometer and wet bulb thermometer C) RH meter, velometer D) Thermoanometer(Class IV)

The correct answer is: B A dry bulb thermometer would also be required if major radiant heat loads are present.

When the employee's exposure cannot be reduced to permissible safe levels through engineering controls, then which of the following would least likely be the next control method considered: A) Administrative controls B) Personal Protective Equipment C) Changing production schedules D) Job rotation

The correct answer is: B Administrative controls are methods for controlling employee exposures to contaminants or excess noise by limiting the duration of an individual's exposure by job rotation, work assignment, or time periods away from the contaminant or noise source. Personal Protective Equipment should be considered only after engineering and administrative control options have been exhausted.

When designing an ergonomically desirable work place which of the following is a good design practice? A) Allowing room for employees to lean forward or to the side to reach objects B) Designing the work so that employees can move about and use different muscle groups C) Placing objects within close reach to discourage movement D) Designing work which requires the arms to be held up or out

The correct answer is: B Allowing employees freedom of movement and the use of different muscle groups helps prevent overuse of any one muscle group. Leaning, restricted movement, and extension of arms all can cause injury over the long-term. The center of the work screen should be just below eye level.

Which type of equipment is most often used to measure vibration? A) Vibration exciter B) Accelerometer C) Strobe light D) Volt meter

The correct answer is: B An accelerometer is used to measure vibration.

Measurement of zinc protoporphyrin in the blood to evaluate potential workplace lead exposure is an example of: A) Industrial hygiene B) Biological monitoring C) Health monitoring D) Biochemical evaluation

The correct answer is: B An action plan for dealing with abnormal results must be formulated prior to conducting biological monitoring. Also be aware that for some exposures, there may be prescribed legal or regulatory requirements, such as the OSHA lead standard, which includes, among other things, provisions for treatment and medical removal of workers with elevated lead levels.

Regarding workspaces and specifically workspace envelopes, Pheasant (1986) describes the zone of convenient reach as: A) All shelves, tool bins, and manual and power tools within convenient reach of an operator at a workstation B) The space in which an object may be reached without undo exertion, i.e., within arm's reach C) Cutting a half circle in the workstation worktable in order to make reaches convenient D) The height at which shelves and work bins are located to reduce ulnar deviation

The correct answer is: B Answer A is incorrect. While this might be a characteristic, it is not the best definition.

BEI's are limits recommended by the ACGIH. They are direct measures of ______ rather than indirect measurements such as those relating to air concentrations. A) Exposure B) Body burden C) LD50 D) PEL

The correct answer is: B Biological Exposure Indices (BEI) provide a direct estimate of body burden from a chemical or its metabolite. The measurement will account for exposures from multiple routes of entry, such as skin, inhalation, and ingestion.

All of the following statements regarding biological monitoring are true EXCEPT: A) It has gained wider acceptance in the workplace as a tool for accurately determining exposure B) It directly assesses the health effects from a potential exposure C) It should be used in conjunction with other tools for exposure assessment, such as environmental monitoring and occupational and environmental history D) Interventions resulting from abnormal biological monitoring results should generally be instituted based on multiple measurements rather than a single measurement

The correct answer is: B Biological monitoring evaluates level of exposure to toxic agents in the workplace. Therefore, it is only an indirect assessment of the health effects of those toxic agents.

The total body burden (in radiation terminology) is measured in which of the following units? A) Ions per milligram body tissue B) Curies C) Radiation absorbed dose D) Roentgen equivalent man

The correct answer is: B Body burden is the total number of curies of a radionuclide in the body.

A disposable dust mask has a protection factor of approximately: A) 2 B) 5 C) 10 D) 50

The correct answer is: B Disposable respirators, such as dust masks, have protection factors of 5. The protection factor is the ratio of the concentration outside the mask compared to the concentration inside the mask. Two (2) is less than most respirators, ten (10) is the protection factor for half mask cartridge respirators, and fifty (50) is the protection factor of demand supplied air respirators.

Every human action is an opportunity for error. Failing to perform a task correctly is called: A) Error of omission B) Error of commission C) Sequence error D) Timing error

The correct answer is: B Errors of commission include sequence errors and timing errors.

The early 1900's work that included the study of skill, performance, fatigue, and the design of work environments was completed by: A) Fredrick Taylor B) Frank and Lillian Gilbreth C) H. Heinrich D) P. Fungelli

The correct answer is: B Frank and Lillian Gilbreth were known for development of motion study techniques used in the detailed analysis of work. Best known examples are hand/wrist motion studies of surgeons and brick layers. The Gilbreths are also noted for their 17 micro element descriptions (reach, search, grasp, position, hold, inspect, etc.) also known as "Therbligs" (Gilbreth spelled backwards). Therbligs, when combined with predetermined time systems, can be used to measure work method efficiencies.

Gamma rays acquire their energy from: A) Electrons outside the nucleus B) Nuclear disintegration C) Cosmic rays that change as they enter the atmosphere D) High energy meson particles

The correct answer is: B Gamma rays are similar to X-rays but differ in origin and wavelength. Gamma rays acquire their energy from nuclear disintegration, while X-rays are produced from dislodging inner electrons.

The primary function of a Geiger counter is to measure: A) Alpha, beta, gamma B) Gamma only C) Beta distinguished from gamma D) Alpha distinguished from beta

The correct answer is: B Geiger counters can separate beta from gamma with a cover on the thin window, but the primary function is to detect gammas. Proportional counters can separate alphas from betas, and ionizing region detectors measure alpha, beta, and gamma.

Which professional has traditionally been responsible for recognizing, evaluating, and controlling workplace hazards? A) Human resources B) Industrial hygienist C) Occupational health nurse D) Occupational medicine physician

The correct answer is: B Industrial hygienists (IHs) are specially trained in the recognition, evaluation, and control of workplace hazards. Some of the IH's functional areas include sampling and evaluation, hearing conservation, ergonomics, manual materials handling, training and education of workers, development of health and safety policy, and so forth.

Recirculation of ventilated air which has been passed through a scrubber is not advisable primarily because: A) Recirculated air is corrosive B) It adds moisture to the air C) Air is too cool for reuse D) Air is too warm for reuse

The correct answer is: B It is possible that recirculation could bring back contaminated air. However, even if all the contaminants were removed, it would still be unacceptable because the air is saturated with moisture.

A biological monitoring program which evaluates urinary creatinine, pH, and Beta-2-microglobulin is mandated for workers exposed (at or above the action level) to: A) Lead B) Cadmium C) Arsenic D) Benzene

The correct answer is: B OSHA requires medical surveillance for all workers exposed at or above the action level (2.5 µg cadmium/m3 of air 8-hr TWA) thirty or more days annually. Chronic exposure may result in, among other things, renal dysfunction, respiratory impairment, emphysema, anemia, and lung cancer. 29 CFR 1910.1027

A positron is the same mass as the: A) Proton B) Beta particle C) Charged nucleon D) Neutron

The correct answer is: B Positrons and beta particles differ in charge, not mass. Positrons are positively charged electrons of nuclear origin.

Radon is a gas that is produced from the natural decomposition of _________ in several types of rock. A) Radium B) Uranium C) Plutonium D) Americium

The correct answer is: B Radon gas is a natural product of the radioactive decay of uranium. Uranium is contained in granite, shale, phosphate, and pitchblende rocks. It may also be found in soils contaminated with byproducts from phosphate mining.

Both reactive and proactive worksite analysis approaches are used when identifying existing ergonomic hazards and conditions, operations that create hazards, and areas where ergonomic hazards may develop. The best example of a proactive approach is which of the following? A) Analysis of plant medical records, WC insurance claims, absentee records, and OSHA 300 logs to identify past injury/illness trends B) Active health surveillance that includes use of employee symptom surveys to identify problem jobs and tasks C) Use of a medical history questionnaire to identify workers with a past history of disease D) Utilization of a strength testing protocol to select workers based on physical demands of the job

The correct answer is: B Reactive (with respect to worksite analysis) by definition means analysis of past incidences while proactive means identification of problem jobs and tasks before injury or illness has occurred. Reviewing past injury records is an example of a passive or reactive approach as you are analyzing incidences which have already occurred. Symptom surveys are used to identify workers who might be in pain but have not yet reported an injury. Ergonomic interventions can be implemented before an injury occurs. Medical histories and strength testing are often used to screen workers who might be at risk of injury but there is little data to show these techniques are effective.

In the beta particle decay of strontium the following occurs: 90Sr 38 -> Beta electron + xx Y zz What is the "XX" value for yttrium (Y)? A) 91 B) 90 C) 88 D) 87

The correct answer is: B The "XX" refers to the mass number for Yttrium. As beta decay causes no change in the mass number--it remains at 90 for Yttrium.

The 1991 committee for the Revised NIOSH Lifting Equation chose a physiological criterion that represented the capacity of the following population: A) 50th percentile young female B) 50th percentile 40-year-old female C) 40-year-old, 70 kg male D) 75th percentile female

The correct answer is: B The 1991 NIOSH committee reduced the baseline aerobic capacity from 10.5 kcal/min down to 9.5 kcal/min. This value assumed the mean aerobic lifting capacity of the 50th percentile 40 year old female. ---------- Scientific Support Documentation for the Revised 1991 NIOSH Lifting Equation: Technical Contract Reports, May 8, 1991; NTIS No. PB-91-226-274. Revised NIOSH equation for the design and evaluation of manual lifting tasks. Waters, Putz-Anderson, Garg and Fine; Ergonomics; 1993 Jul; 36(7):749-76. http://www.cdc.gov/niosh/docs/94-110/pdfs/94-110.pdf

The A-weighted sound level measurement is the preferred scale of measure because: A) It distinguishes intermittent and impact noise B) Weighting is related to effects of noise on the ear C) It filters high frequency background noise D) It can assess temperature and pressure

The correct answer is: B The A-weighting most closely weights the sound to the injurious effects of the noise on the ear.

The TLV (published and copyrighted by the ACGIH) for UV light applies to all of the following except: A) Germicidal lamps B) UV lasers C) Solar radiation D) Incandescent sources

The correct answer is: B The Ultraviolet Light TLV applies to "radiation from arcs, gas and vapor discharges, fluorescent and incandescent sources, and solar radiation but does not apply to ultraviolet lasers". There are important differences between the potential hazards of UV in lasing operations versus the hazards in non-lasing UV operations.

Guidelines to counter the effects of shift work include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Night shifts should be placed at the end of the shift cycle B) The speed of rotation should be 7-10 days on each shift C) Free time between shifts should not be less than 16 hours D) The duration of the night shift should not exceed 8 hours

The correct answer is: B The speed of the rotation should be rapid; two to three days on each shift.

Which of the following wavelengths of UV light are of greatest health concern? A) 100-280 nm B) 280-320 nm C) 320-400 nm D) 400-580 nm

The correct answer is: B UV radiation has wavelengths between 100-400 nm and lies between visible radiation and ionizing radiation on the electromagnetic spectrum. Wavelengths under 200 nm are generally only seen in vacuums, due to intense atmospheric absorption. The wavelengths from 280-320 (UVB) are capable of causing skin cancer, photokeratitis, and erythema.

Which of the following does not fall completely within the nonionizing radiation portion of the electromagnetic spectrum? A) Microwaves B) Ultraviolet C) Infrared D) Visible light

The correct answer is: B Ultraviolet falls partially within the ionizing radiation portion and partially within the non-ionizing portion of the electromagnetic spectrum.

The best method for reducing hazards in the workplace is: A) Train employees B) Design out hazards C) Use engineering controls D) Use personal protective equipment

The correct answer is: B When hazards are designed out of the product or process, employees do not have to be trained to protect themselves, and engineering controls to abate a hazard are not necessary. Personal protective equipment is also not needed.

When hazards cannot be eliminated, ________ provides the best protection against potential failure of workers to utilize equipment correctly. A) Training B) Guarding C) Personal protective equipment D) Administrative controls

The correct answer is: B Where hazards cannot be eliminated, guarding provides protection against potential failure of workers to utilize equipment correctly. Both safe design and guarding minimize the effect of individual differences on accident frequency or severity.

In conducting a safety and health audit at a plant owned by your company, you find a solvent of high potential hazard. What is your first course of action? A) Stop the operation B) Recommend the solvent be changed C) Take air samples for analysis D) Initiate actions to effect engineering controls

The correct answer is: C The first course of action is to take air samples for analysis and determination of whether further action is warranted.

A respirator that uses various chemical substances to purify inhaled air which contains certain contaminant gases and vapors is defined as a: A) Chemically reactive air-purifying respirator B) CHP respirator C) Chemical cartridge air-purifying respirator D) Chemical air-purifying respirator

The correct answer is: C A chemical cartridge air-purifying respirator is a respirator that uses various chemical substances to purify inhaled air which contains certain contaminant gases and vapors.

Which of the following might support causal association of a cluster of cancer cases to occupational exposure among a baseline population of 100 workers employed at the same facility? A) Five individuals in the same workplace have different types of cancer. B) Ten individuals had previously been treated for cancer prior to employment at this site. C) All four individuals who developed bladder cancer worked on the same production process. D) Exposure assessment fails to identify a potential source of exposure to carcinogens.

The correct answer is: C A cluster is a concentration of an adverse health outcome over space and time. An unusually high incidence of a disease and the presence of a homogeneous condition (rather than a variety of adverse health outcomes) support-albeit do not prove-a causal relationship of cluster cases to occupation; therefore answer A would be less likely to indicate a "true cluster." Moreover, nature and duration of exposure should correlate with what is known about the progression of the disease and latency periods. Therefore, answers B and D fail to support a causal association.

A radium decay scheme is represented by the following: 226Ra 88 -> Alpha particle + xxx Rn xx What does "XX" represent? A) 88 B) 87 C) 86 D) 85

The correct answer is: C An alpha particle contains 2 neutrons and 2 protons. Therefore, the release of one alpha particle decreases the element's atomic number by 2 as only protons are counted for atomic number.

Arranging components in the workspace requires the availability of relevant data in the use of certain methods in applying the data. Which one of the following is not a type of data that is relevant for use in arranging components? A) Basic data about human beings B) Task analysis data C) Company data D) Workers' compensation data

The correct answer is: C Anthropometric and biomechanical data are useful data about human beings as is task analysis data or data about the work activities of people who would be involved in the specific system. Environmental data such as illumination, noise, etc. are also important. Workers' compensation data may point to areas with high rates of injuries that can be ameliorated through redesign of the workspace.

Left hand people make up about _____ percent of the world population? A) 2 to 3 B) 5 to 6 C) 8 to 10 D) 12 to 14

The correct answer is: C Approximately 90% of the population is right handed. Left handed workers are often overlooked or ignored by hand tool designers and industrial engineers when designing workstations, layouts, and tools.

A sound pressure level was measured to be 73 dB at 600 ft. What is the SPL at 150 ft? A) 75 dB B) 78 dB C) 85 dB D) 90 dB

The correct answer is: C For each halving of the distance you must add 6 dB. There were two halvings of the distance therefore add 12 dB. Answer = 85 dB

For employees with a significant threshold shift, hearing protector attenuation must be sufficient to reduce exposure to a time-weighted average of: A) 75dB B) 80dB C) 85dB D) 90dB

The correct answer is: C For employees with a significant threshold shift, hearing protector attenuation must be sufficient to reduce exposure to a time-weighted average of 85dB.

For an 8 hour duration, energy expenditure for males and females respectively should not exceed? A) 5.0 and 3.5 Kcal/min B) 10 and 7.5 Kcal/min C) 3.1 and 2.2 Kcal/min D) 7.5 and 5.0 Kcal/min

The correct answer is: C From the 1991 Revised NIOSH Lifting Equation. A value of 9.5 Kcal/min was selected by the 1991 Committee as the baseline aerobic capacity that could be adjusted to accommodate different lifting conditions. This is representative of an average (50th percentile) 40 year old female. Adjustments were made for whole body work for lifts below waist level (i.e., leg, low back, and shoulder lifts @ 30 inches and below) and above waist level for arm lifts (over 30 inches). The 1991 committee recommended a 30% reduction in the energy expenditure limit of 9.5 kcal/min for upper body lifts above 30 inches. Other adjustments in the energy expenditure values were recommended for aerobic demands posed by different durations of repetitive lifting tasks; 50% off the 9.5 kcal/min for durations 1 hour or less, 40% for 1 to 2 hours and 33% for durations lasting 2 to 8 hours.

The strength of individuals varies widely. Chaffin and Andersson (1991) found the strength of the strongest person can be 6 to 8 times that of the weakest person. Which of the following is not a personal factor that affects strength? A) Gender B) Motivation C) Height of individual D) Age

The correct answer is: C Height is not a personal factor that affects strength. Answer A, gender, accounts for the largest difference in mean values of strength. Answer B, motivation, is a personal factor affecting strength. Answer D is incorrect as maximum strength reaches its peak between 25 and 35 years of age, after which, there is a slow decrease through the 40's, followed by an accelerated decrease.

Ionizing radiation is defined as: A) X-rays and gamma rays B) X-rays, gamma rays, cosmic rays C) Any particle or photon with enough energy to ionize D) Alpha, beta, gamma, x-rays

The correct answer is: C Ionizing radiation can be electromagnetic with enough energy per photon to cause ionization such as x-ray, gamma ray, or cosmic ray. Also any particle with enough energy (10 keV or greater) to cause ionization is considered ionizing radiation, e.g., an accelerated electron at 100 keV.

The LONG TERM effect of radiation which presents the greatest risk to the exposed person is: A) Cataracts B) Failure of gastrointestinal lining C) Cancer D) Genetic defects

The correct answer is: C Long term effects of radiation exposure include stochastic effects such as cancer, genetic effects, and life-shortening. These are stochastic, rather than non-stochastic, effects.

If you were designing a biological monitoring program for employees working with styrene, which metabolite would you be measuring? A) Hippuric acid B) Methyl hippuric acid C) Mandelic acid D) Zinc protoporhyrin (ZPP)

The correct answer is: C Mandelic acid is the metabolite of interest in biological monitoring for styrene exposure. Hippuric acid is a metabolite of toluene, methyl hippuric acid is a metabolite of xylene, and ZPP is a metabolite of lead. Carboxyhemoglobin is a useful determinant of exposure to carbon monoxide or methylene chloride.

In the design of work, muscular work can be maintained for several hours per day without symptoms of muscle fatigue if the force exerted does not exceed approximately ____% of the maximum voluntary force of the muscle involved. A) 5 B) 8 C) 10 D) 18

The correct answer is: C Many experts are of the opinion that work can be maintained for several hours per day without symptoms of fatigue if the force exerted does not exceed about 10% of the maximum force of the muscle involved. See "Fitting the Task to the Human", K.H.E. Kroemer and Etienne Grandjean, fifth edition, Taylor & Francis.

When a nucleus of an atom undergoes nuclear fission, the nucleus releases from 1 to 3 _______. A) Protons B) Beta particles C) Neutrons D) Pi Mesons

The correct answer is: C Nuclear fission of a nucleus causes the release of 1-3 neutrons. These neutrons impact other nuclei, causing them to undergo nuclear fission with a resultant release of another 1-3 neutrons. As you can see, nuclear fission is a chain reaction. In an atomic reactor, graphite, cadmium, or boron rods are used to slow the reaction by capturing the neutrons.

If an employee is exposed to continuous noise at the level of 90 dBA averaged over the eight hour workday the least likely requirement of the employer is: A) Implement feasible engineering or administrative controls B) Include the employee in a Hearing Conservation Program C) Medically remove employee from the workplace for 1 week D) Establish a Hearing Conservation Program

The correct answer is: C OSHA's Noise Exposure Standard requires that feasible administrative of engineering controls be implemented if exposure is > 90 dBA. If > 85 dBA then a hearing conservation program must be established and any exposed employees must be enrolled in it. There is no medical removal provision.

In older terminology, an exposure was measured in rems. Today the SI unit for this type of exposure is the Sievert (Sv). An exposure of 5000 rem would be equivalent to ____ Sieverts. A) 0.5 B) 5 C) 50 D) 500

The correct answer is: C One Sievert is equivalent to 100 rem, therefore 5000 rem is equivalent to 50 Sv.

All human blood and certain human body fluids shall be treated as if known to be infectious for HIV, HBV, and other bloodborne pathogens. This concept is known as: A) Industrial hygiene B) Bloodborne control C) Universal precautions D) Sanitation engineering

The correct answer is: C The OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens standard, 29 CFR 1910.1030, specifies universal precautions as a key approach to preventing contact with blood and other potentially infectious materials.

An air-purifying, half-face piece respirator has a protection factor of: A) 1 B) 5 C) 10 D) 50

The correct answer is: C The half-face piece air-purifying respirator has a protection factor of 10.

Which of the following quantities cannot be measured directly by instruments? A) Roentgen B) Rad C) Rem D) X-rays

The correct answer is: C The rem is not generally measured directly, while the exposure (roentgen) and absorbed dose (rad) are quantities which can be measured directly by instruments. The rem incorporates a quality factor to weight the measured radiation for effect.

Which instrument is required for assessing an individual's hearing ability? A) Sound level meter B) Octave band analyzer C) Audiometric booth D) Noise dosimeter

The correct answer is: C The sound level meter and octave band analyzer are used for area sound measurements. The noise dosimeter is used for making noise dose measurements in the individual's hearing zone. The only way to assess hearing is with an audiometric booth.

Given a challenge atmosphere of 150 ppm and a quantitative fit test result of 3 ppm measured inside the respirator, what is the protection factor (PF) for that respirator? A) 0.02 B) 3 C) 50 D) 147

The correct answer is: C To calculate the PF: PF = outside concentration / inside concentration PF = 150 ppm / 3 ppm PF = 50

In which of the following situations may an air-purifying respirator be worn safely? A) Odor threshold is greater than the allowable level B) Odor threshold is equal to the allowable level C) Odor threshold is less than the allowable level D) Odor threshold is at least 4 times the allowable level

The correct answer is: C To wear an air-purifying respirator safely, the worker must be able to detect the material at a safe level. If the odor threshold is greater than the allowable level (e.g., the odor threshold is 20 ppm, while the allowable level is 10 ppm), the worker will not know the material is getting through until PEL/TLV levels are reached or exceeded.

Which of the following is ionizing radiation? A) UVC B) UVB C) UVA D) Actinic UV

The correct answer is: C (?) UVA is the longest wavelength ultraviolet and is non-ionizing radiation. Actinic range UV is in the ionizing radiation band.

1 Gy is equivalent to: A) 0.01 rem B) 0.01 rad C) 100 rem D) 100 rad

The correct answer is: D 1 Gray (Gy) = 100 rad. A rad, or radiation absorbed dose, is the dose of radiation absorbed by tissue.

A biological monitoring program should consist of all of the following elements EXCEPT: A) The substance being monitored must be present in some biological medium, such as blood, urine, or exhaled air B) The substance being monitored must be suitable for sampling, and the sampling method must be acceptable to the target population C) The results from the monitoring program must be valid and reproducible over the range of concentrations in which the substance is present D) An intervention plan to respond to abnormal results should be developed subsequent to conducting the monitoring

The correct answer is: D An action plan for dealing with abnormal results must be formulated prior to conducting biological monitoring. Also be aware that for some exposures, there may be proscribed legal or regulatory requirements, such as the OSHA lead standard, which includes, among other things, provisions for treatment and medical removal of workers with elevated lead levels.

When establishing a biological monitoring program for workers exposed to benzene, one would look for the metabolite __________ in the urine. A) Hippuric acid B) Mandelic acid C) Isopropanol D) Phenol

The correct answer is: D Benzene is oxidized by the p-450 monoxygenase system in the liver and ultimately converted to phenol. To assess for benzene exposure, therefore, one could measure for excess phenol in the urine.

Which of the following forms of ionizing radiation are considered electromagnetic? A) Alpha and Beta B) Beta and X C) Gamma and Beta D) X and Gamma

The correct answer is: D Beta and alpha radiation are considered particulate, as sub-atomic particles are involved. X and gamma radiation are electromagnetic radiation, so Answer D is correct.

Clearance heights for standing workplaces or doorways would accommodate what percent of the potential workforce? A) 50% B) 60% C) 75% D) 80%

The correct answer is: D Ergonomics is the science of fitting jobs to people. The discipline encompasses a body of knowledge about physical abilities and limitations as well as other human characteristics that are relevant to job design. Essentially, ergonomics is the relationship between the worker and the job and focuses on the design of work areas to enhance job performance. Ergonomics can help prevent injuries and limit secondary injuries as well as accommodate individuals with various disabilities, including those with musculoskeletal disorders (MSDs). Doors and other standing workplaces would fit the greatest number of workers in the population as possible. http://www.jan.wvu.edu/media/Ergonomics.pdf

Which of the following statements describes Ergonomics/Human Factors Engineering (HFE)? I. Engineering something for the population that will use it II. Designing a system so that machines, human tasks, and the environment are compatible with the capabilities and limitations of people in order to minimize error III. Designing the system to fit the characteristics of people rather than retrofitting people into the system A) I B) II C) III D) I, II, and III

The correct answer is: D Ergonomics/HFE is a multidisciplinary activity dealing with interactions between people and their total working environment plus stresses related to such environmental elements as atmosphere, heat, light, and sound, as well as workplace tools and equipment.

Good ergonomic design for standing workstations would include the following EXCEPT: A) Opportunity for frequent adjustments in posture B) Anti-fatigue floor mats C) Foot rests or a bar rail D) Foot controls for adjustments of work

The correct answer is: D Foot controls should be avoided for standing work-stations since this can cause shifting of weight to one leg and abnormal postures. Frequent adjustments, floor mats, and foot rests allow the employee to pick and choose the most comfortable positions as needed.

When using a compound such as isoamyl acetate to test the fit of a respirator, one of the limitations is that the individual being fitted: A) Is at an increased risk of cancer B) May have olfactory fatigue C) May not give an honest response D) B and C

The correct answer is: D For fitting of the respirator to be effective, the person being fitted must detect the odor and inform the tester. This requires that the sense of smell not be fatigued and that the person give an honest answer.

The most serious form of heat disease is considered to be: A) Heat stress B) Heat syncope C) Prickly heat D) Heat stroke

The correct answer is: D Heat stroke is life threatening and therefore the most serious. The body temperature rises to dangerous levels causing potential irreversible damage and possibly death.

Following exposure to benzene in an emergency situation, a worker undergoes biological monitoring. The results of urine testing show phenol levels to be 50 mg/ L of urine. The employer must: A) Remove the worker from the exposure B) Provide for a monthly CBC for three months C) Provide for monthly liver function tests for three months D) No actioin is required

The correct answer is: D In accordance with the OSHA standard, if the level of phenol is below 75 mg/L of urine, no action is required. If, however, results are 75 mg/L of urine or higher, the standard requires that a CBC be drawn at monthly intervals for a duration of three months post-exposure. 29 CFR 1910.1028

If engineering controls fail to bring noise levels within non-hazardous levels, at what point are hearing protectors required for employees? A) 95 decibels or greater B) 90 decibels or greater C) 85 decibels or greater D) 90 decibels equivalent or greater for 8 hours

The correct answer is: D OSHA 1910.95 requires employees exposed above 90 decibels equivalent or greater for eight hours to wear hearing protection until administrative or engineering controls are implemented.

How long must employee noise exposure measurement records be kept on file? A) Duration of employment B) 30 years C) 5 years D) 2 years

The correct answer is: D OSHA requires employee noise exposure measurement records to be kept on file for two years. Note, however, that audiometric test records must be retained for the duration of the employee's employment.

All of the following standards call for the use of respirators in the event of an over-exposure EXCEPT: A) Lead B) Asbestos C) Benzene D) Carbon dioxide

The correct answer is: D OSHA standards exist that apply to the use of lead, asbestos, and benzene. In each standard there is mention of respiratory protection. There is no standard for carbon dioxide.

Electromagnetic energy: A) Is not important in heat stress B) Is best controlled by absorbing materials C) Is controlled by cool air blasts D) Does not heat the air in the room as it passes through

The correct answer is: D Radiant heat is a form of electromagnetic energy. It is a major input in heat stress equations. It is best controlled by shielding and heats the air through which it passes only insignificantly.

Two cost effective means available to test for radon gas in a building are: A) Geiger-Mueller Counter, alpha track detector B) Scintillation counter, charcoal canister C) Proportional counter, alpha track detector D) Alpha track detector, charcoal canister

The correct answer is: D Radon gas is an alpha emitter. Since ambient levels are extremely low, traditional grab sampling techniques are very expensive. The two most cost effective methods for measuring radon in buildings are charcoal canister and alpha track detector. Both devices are left exposed to the ambient air in the building for 3-7 days and 2-4 weeks, respectively.

All of the following are effective measures to minimize the effects of shiftwork EXCEPT: A) Rotating shifts clockwise B) Limiting the night shift to no more than 8 hours C) Sleeping in a dark, quiet, comfortable place D) Taking sleeping pills for the first year of shift work

The correct answer is: D Sleeping pills are not recommended for long-term use. The role of other interventions, such as bright lights during waking hours and melatonin, continue to undergo investigation.

Hand-Arm vibration has been established as a risk factor for a disease called Vibration White Finger, as well as other cumulative trauma diseases such as carpal tunnel syndrome and thoracic outlet syndrome. The ACGIH issued guidelines to evaluate vibration exposure which considers the following aspects of vibration: A) Acceleration B) Duration C) Frequency D) All of the above

The correct answer is: D The ACGIH TLV suggests guidelines that allow a maximum acceleration level of 12 meters per second squared (12 m/s2), with lower levels suggested as the duration of exposure to vibration increases during the day. The vibration levels are measured through the Hand-Arm weighting network (or filter), which considers the vibration frequency, attenuating those originally thought not as damaging. In addition to acceleration, duration and frequency of the vector direction of the vibration (i.e., X, Y, and Z direction) are considered when using the TLV.

Basic ionizing radiation control measures include all of the following except: A) Minimize time of exposure B) Increase distance C) Use shielding D) Change the source

The correct answer is: D The basic philosophy in reducing ionizing radiation exposures is Time, Distance, and Shielding. Keep time of exposure as low as possible, increase distance as much as possible, and shield (not change) the source with an effective shielding material.

All of the following agents would be appropriate for biological monitoring EXCEPT: A) Lead B) PCBs C) Cholinesterase D) Ozone

The correct answer is: D The most appropriate substances for biological monitoring include those that are (1) cumulative toxins; i.e., tissue-bound metals (e.g., lead, mercury, cadmium) and fat soluble and/or poorly metabolized organics (e.g., PCBs, dioxin), or (2) agents with shared biochemical effects (e.g., cholinesterase).

The rule of thumb for predicting combined decibel readings from two separately measured noise sources, where the two sources differ by 3 decibels is: A) Multiply by 2 B) Multiply by 3 C) Add 1 D) Add 2

The correct answer is: D The rule of thumb for combining decibels where the two sources differ from 2-5 decibels, is adding 2 to the higher decibel level.

Of the following cell types, which is LEAST radiosensitive? A) Lymphocytes B) Endothelial cells C) Epithelial cells D) Nerve cells

The correct answer is: D Using the Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau and the heirarchy of effects from the Acute Radiation Syndrome, it becomes easy to select cells in their order of radiosensitivity. CNS Syndrome occurs at the highest dose after acute exposure. Also, nerve cells are non-dividing, highly specialized, and very mature.