PEDS EXAM 2 (edited)

Risk Factors for Respiratory Disorders

•Prematurity •Chronic illness (diabetes, sickle cell anemia, cystic fibrosis, congenital heart disease, chronic lung disease) •Developmental disorders (cerebral palsy) •Passive exposure to cigarette smoke •Immune deficiency •Crowded living conditions or lower socioeconomic status •Daycare attendance

A child is brought to the emergency department after sustaining a concussion. The child is to be discharged home with his parents. What would the nurse include in the child's discharge instructions? A) "Expect his headache to get worse initially and then disappear." B) "Wake him every 2 hours to check his movement and responses." C) "Call your medical provider if he vomits more than five times." D) "Any watery fluid draining from his ears is normal."

"Wake him every 2 hours to check his movement and responses." The nurse should instruct the parents to wake the child every 2 hours to ensure that he moves normally and wakes enough to recognize and respond appropriately to them. The parents should be instructed to call the physician or nurse practitioner or bring the child back to the emergency department if he experiences a constant headache that gets worse, vomits more than two times, or has oozing of blood or watery fluid from his ears or nose.

16. The mother of a school-age child brings the child to the clinic for evaluation because he is having difficulty reading. His last visual screening was normal. He also complains of headaches and dizziness. Which of the following would the nurse suspect? A) Astigmatism B) Myopia C) Hyperopia D) Nystagmus

A) Astigmatism Children with astigmatism often have blurry vision and difficulty seeing letters as a whole, affecting their reading ability. They may have headaches and dizziness and often learn to tilt their heads slightly so that they can focus more effectively (which leads to normal vision screenings). Children with myopia can see well at close range but have difficulty focusing well on the blackboard or other objects at a distance. Hyperopia is characterized by blurriness at close range, with the ability to see at a distance. Nystagmus is manifested by a very rapid irregular eye movement.

3. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old with allergic conjunctivitis. The nurse would be alert to the child's increased risk for which of the following? A) Atopic dermatitis B) Insect bite sensitivity C) Acute otitis media D) Frequent sore throats

A) Atopic dermatitis Atopic dermatitis is a risk factor specifically for allergic conjunctivitis because of repeated exposure to the particular allergens. Acute otitis media, insect bite sensitivity, and frequent sore throats can occur but are not related to the allergic conjunctivitis.

21. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a child who is admitted to the hospital for surgery. The child is visually impaired. Which of the following would be most appropriate for the nurse to include in the child's plan of care? Select all answers that apply. A) Explaining instructions using simple and specific terms the child understands B) Allowing the child to explore the postoperative equipment with his hands C) Touching the child on his shoulder before letting the child know someone is there D) Using the child's body parts to refer to the area where he may have postoperative pain E) Speaking to the child in a voice that is slightly louder than the usual tone of voice

A) Explaining instructions using simple and specific terms the child understands B) Allowing the child to explore the postoperative equipment with his hands D) Using the child's body parts to refer to the area where he may have postoperative pain When interacting with a visually impaired child, the nurse would make directions and instructions simple and specific, encourage exploration of objects such as postoperative equipment through touch, and use the parts of the child's body as reference points for the location of items or for this child, his postoperative pain. The nurse should identify him- or herself first before touching the child and speak in a tone of voice that is appropriate to the situation.

A 15-year-old adolescent is brought to the emergency department by his parents. The adolescent is febrile with chills that started suddenly. He states, "I had a sinus infection and sore throat a couple of days ago." The nurse suspects bacterial meningitis based on which findings? Select all that apply. A) Complaints of stiff neck B) Photophobia C) Absent headache D) Negative Brudzinski sign E) Vomiting

A, B, E In addition to the adolescent's complaints and history, other findings suggesting bacterial meningitis include complaints of a stiff neck, photophobia, headache, positive Brudzinski sign, and vomiting.

A child is diagnosed with Kawasaki disease and is in the acute phase of the disorder. What would the nurse expect the physician to prescribe? Select all that apply. A)Intravenous immunoglobulin B)Ibuprofen C)Acetaminophen D)Aspirin E)Alprostadil

A, C, D In the acute phase, high-dose aspirin in four divided doses daily and a single infusion of intravenous immunoglobulin are used. Acetaminophen is used to reduce fever. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents such as ibuprofen are avoided while the child is receiving aspirin therapy. Alprostadil is used to temporarily keep the ductus arteriosus patent in infants with ductal-dependent congenital heart defects.

A child with heart failure is receiving supplemental oxygen. The nurse understands that in addition to improving oxygen saturation, this intervention also has what effect? A)Cause vasodilation B)Increase pulmonary vascular resistance C)Promote diuresis D)Mobilize secretions

A. Cause vasodilation Oxygen improves oxygen saturation and also functions as a vasodilator and decreases pulmonary vascular resistance. Diuretics promote dieresis. Chest physiotherapy helps to mobilize secretions.

Origin: Chapter 18, 8 8. The nurse is educating the parents of a 7-year-old boy with asthma about the medications that have been prescribed. Which drug would the nurse identify as an adjunct to a b2-adrenergic agonist for treatment of bronchospasm? A) Ipratropium B) Montelukast C) Cromolyn D) Theophylline

Ans: A Feedback: Ipratropium is an anticholinergic administered via inhalation to produce bronchodilation without systemic effects. It is generally used as an adjunct to a b2-adrenergic agonist. Montelukast decreases the inflammatory response by antagonizing the effects of leukotrienes. Cromolyn prevents release of histamine from sensitized mast cells. Theophylline provides for continuous airway relaxation.

Origin: Chapter 18, 9 9. The nurse is caring for a 3-year-old girl with a respiratory disorder. The nurse anticipates the need for providing supplemental oxygen to the child when performing which action? A) Suctioning a tracheostomy tube B) Administering drugs with a nebulizer C) Providing tracheostomy care D) Suctioning with a bulb syringe

Ans: A Feedback: Supplemental oxygenation may be necessary before, and is always performed after, suctioning a child with a tracheostomy tube. Providing tracheostomy care, administering drugs with a nebulizer, and suctioning with a bulb syringe do not require supplemental oxygen.

2. The nurse is caring for an adolescent girl with anorexia nervosa. What findings would indicate to the nurse that the girl requires hospitalization? A) Weight gain of one-half pound per week B) Food refusal C) Body mass index of 18 D) Soft, sparse body hair and dry, sallow skin

Ans: B Feedback: Food refusal, severe weight loss, unstable vital signs, arrested pubertal development, and the need for enteral nutrition warrant hospitalization. Soft, sparse body hair and dry, sallow skin are signs of anorexia, but do not warrant hospitalization. A weight gain of one-half pound per week indicates progress toward therapeutic goals. A body mass index of 18 is on the low end of the normal range of body mass.

A 10-month-old is brought to the emergency department by her parents after they found her face down in the bathtub. The mother said, "I just left the bathroom to answer the phone. When I came back, I found her." Which assessment would be the priority? A) Airway, breathing, and circulation B) Level of consciousness C) Vital signs D) Pupillary response

Airway, breathing, and circulation With a submersion injury, hypoxia is the primary problem. Therefore, assessment of airway, breathing, and circulation are the priority assessments for which the nurse would institute resuscitative measures. Other assessments such as level of consciousness, vital signs, and papillary response would be done once the child's airway, breathing, and circulation are assessed and emergency interventions are instituted.

Origin: Chapter 18, 11 11. A child requires supplemental oxygen therapy at 8 liters per minute. Which delivery device would the nurse most likely expect to be used? A) Simple mask B) Venturi mask C) Nasal cannula D) Oxygen hood

Ans: A Feedback: A simple mask would be used to deliver a flow rate of 8 liters per minute. A Venturi mask would be used to deliver a specific percentage of oxygen, from 24% to 50%. A nasal cannula would be used to deliver no more than 4 liters per minute. An oxygen hood requires a liter flow of 10 to 15 liters per minute.

16. A child is receiving therapy in which he is learning to replace automatic negative thought patterns with alternative ones. The nurse interprets this as which type of therapy? A) Cognitive therapy B) Behavioral therapy C) Milieu therapy D) Individual therapy

Ans: A Feedback: Cognitive therapy teaches children to change reactions so that automatic negative thought patterns are replaced with alternative ones. Behavioral therapy uses stimulus and response conditioning to manage or alter behavior, reinforcing desired behaviors and replacing the inappropriate ones. Milieu therapy involves a specially structured setting designed to promote the child's adaptive and social skills. With individual therapy, the child and therapist work together to resolve the conflicts, emotions, or behavior problems.

Origin: Chapter 14, 14 14. The nurse tells a joke to a 12-year-old to distract him from a painful procedure. What pain management technique is the nurse using? A) Relaxation B) Distraction C) Imagery D) Thought stopping

Ans: B Feedback: Distraction involves having the child focus on another stimulus, thereby attempting to shield him from pain. Humor has been demonstrated to be an effective distracting technique for pain management.

Origin: Chapter 14, 13 13. The nurse is assessing the pain of a postoperative newborn. The nurse measures the infant's facial expression, body movement, sleep, verbal or vocal ability, consolability, and response to movements and touch. Which behavioral assessment tool is being used by the nurse? A) Riley Infant Pain Scale B) Pain Observation Scale for Young Children C) CRIES Scale for Neonatal Postoperative Pain Assessment D) FLACC Behavioral Scale for Postoperative Pain in Young Children

Ans: A Feedback: The Riley Infant Pain Scale measures six parameters: facial expression, body movement, sleep, verbal or vocal ability, consolability, and response to movements and touch. The Pain Observation Scale for Young Children (POCIS) measures seven parameters: facial expression, cry, breathing, torso, arms and fingers, legs and toes, and state of arousal. The CRIES tool assesses five parameters: cry, oxygen required for saturation levels less than 95%, increased vital signs, facial expression, and sleeplessness. The FLACC tool measures five parameters: facial expression, legs, activity, cry, and consolability.

29. The nurse is caring for a child who takes dextroamphetamine for treatment of ADHD. Which comments by the patient or family would concern the nurse? Select all that apply. A) "I take my sustained released capsule at night before I go to bed." B) "We have noticed that our child shows very little emotion over the last few weeks." C) "I haven't noticed any difference in my appetite." D) "Sometimes my head hurts a little for a short time after I take my medicine." E) "We notice our child gets a little irritable occasionally."

Ans: A, B Feedback: Psychostimulants, such as dextroamphetamine, should be taken in the morning in order to avoid difficulty sleeping. A flat affect is a sign of dosages that are too high. Decreased appetite, headache, and irritability are common side effects.

Origin: Chapter 14, 30 30. The nurse is researching behavioral-cognitive pain relief strategies to use on a 5-year-old child with unrelieved pain. Which methods might the nurse choose? Select all that apply. A) Relaxation B) Distraction C) Thought stopping D) Massage E) Sucking

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: Common behavioral-cognitive strategies include relaxation, distraction, imagery, thought stopping, and positive self-talk. Sucking and massage are examples of biophysical interventions.

20. A nurse is preparing a teaching session for a group of parents with children newly diagnosed with attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). When explaining this disorder to the parents, what would the nurse include as being involved? Select all that apply. A) Impulsivity B) Inattention C) Distractibility D) Hyperactivity E) Defiance F) Anxiety

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: ADHD is characterized by inattention, impulsivity, distractibility, and hyperactivity. Anxiety disorder and oppositional defiant disorder may be comorbidities associated with ADHD.

Origin: Chapter 14, 6 6. The nurse caring for infants in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) relies on the use of behavioral and physiologic indicators for determining pain. Which examples are behavioral indicators? Select all that apply. A) The infant grimaces. B) The infant's heart rate is elevated. C) The infant flails his arms and legs. D) The infant's respiratory rate is elevated. E) The infant is crying uncontrollably. F) The infant's oxygen saturation is low.

Ans: A, C, E Feedback: In preterm and term newborns, behavioral and physiologic indicators are used for determining pain. Behavioral indicators include facial expression, body movements, and crying. Physiologic indicators include changes in heart rate, respiratory rate, blood pressure, oxygen saturation levels, vagal tone, palmar sweating, and plasma cortisol or catecholamine levels.

Origin: Chapter 18, 18 18. A group of nursing students are reviewing the medications used to treat asthma. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which agent as appropriate for an acute episode of bronchospasm? A) Salmeterol B) Albuterol C) Ipratropium D) Cromolyn

Ans: B Feedback: Albuterol is a short-acting b2-adrenergic agonist that is used for treatment of acute bronchospasm. Salmeterol is a long-acting b2-adrenergic agonist used for long-term control or exercise-induced asthma. Ipratropium is an anticholinergic agent used as an adjunct to b2-adrenergic agonists for treatment of bronchospasm. Cromolyn is a mast cell stabilizer used prophylactically but not to relieve bronchospasm during an acute wheezing episode.

Origin: Chapter 14, 10 10. When the nurse is assessing a child's pain, which is most important? A) Obtaining a pain rating from the child with each assessment B) Using the same tool to assess the child's pain each time C) Documenting the child's pain assessment D) Asking the parents about the child's pain tolerance

Ans: B Feedback: Although obtaining a pain rating, documenting the assessment, and asking the child's parents about the pain are important, the most important aspect of pain assessment is to use the same tool each time so that appropriate comparisons can be made and effective interventions can be planned and implemented. Consistency allows the most accurate assessment of the child's pain.

Origin: Chapter 18, 12 12. A group of nursing students are reviewing information about the variations in respiratory anatomy and physiology in children in comparison to adults. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which finding? A) Children's demand for oxygen is lower than that of adults. B) Children develop hypoxemia more rapidly than adults do. C) An increase in oxygen saturation leads to a much larger decrease in pO2 D) Children's bronchi are wider in diameter than those of an adult.

Ans: B Feedback: Children develop hypoxemia more rapidly than adults do because they have a significantly higher metabolic rate and faster resting respiratory rates than adults do, which leads to a higher demand for oxygen. A smaller decrease in oxygen saturation reflects a disproportionately much larger decrease in pO2. The bronchi in children are narrower than in adults, placing them at higher risk for lower airway obstruction.

Origin: Chapter 18, 20 20. A nursing instructor is preparing a class on chronic lung disease. What information would the instructor include when describing this disorder? A) It is a result of cystic fibrosis. B) It is seen most commonly in premature infants. C) It typically affects females more often than males. D) It is characterized by bradypnea.

Ans: B Feedback: Chronic lung disease, formerly known as bronchopulmonary dysplasia, is often diagnosed in infants who have experienced respiratory distress syndrome, most commonly seen in premature infants. Male gender is a risk factor for development. Tachypnea and increased work of breathing are characteristic of chronic lung disease.

7. A nurse is caring for a 5-year-old girl with depression. The girl is having difficulty coping with her feelings of sadness and fear, which stem from her parents' separation and recent divorce. The girl has been prescribed antidepressant medication but the mother thinks the girl would benefit from therapy. The nurse anticipates a referral to a therapist that specializes in: A) individual therapy. B) play therapy. C) behavioral therapy. D) hypnosis.

Ans: B Feedback: Play therapy is designed to change emotional status and encourages the child to act out feelings of sadness, fear, hostility, or anger. It is particularly beneficial for the younger child. Play therapy, rather than individual therapy, is recommended for the younger child. Hypnosis promotes deep relaxation, which is not the therapeutic goal for this child. Behavioral therapy is used to encourage appropriate behavior and would not address the girl's sadness.

30. The nurse working in a pediatric mental health clinic is assessing a 4-year-old child who has suffered from physical abuse. Which type of therapy does the nurse anticipate will be most helpful in developing a trusting relationship as well as assisting in determining the patient's current emotional state? A) Behavioral therapy B) Play therapy C) Cognitive behavioral therapy D) Family therapy

Ans: B Feedback: Play therapy will be most helpful, especially in the initial phase of assessment, because it encourages the child to act out feelings of sadness, fear, hostility, or anger.

Origin: Chapter 18, 3 3. The nurse is examining an 8-year-old boy with tachycardia and tachypnea. The nurse anticipates which test as most helpful in determining the extent of the child's hypoxia? A) Pulmonary function test B) Pulse oximetry C) Peak expiratory flow D) Chest radiograph

Ans: B Feedback: Pulse oximetry is a useful tool for determining the extent of hypoxia. It can be used by the nurse for continuous or intermittent monitoring. Pulmonary function testing measures respiratory flow and lung volumes and is indicated for asthma, cystic fibrosis, and chronic lung disease. Peak expiratory flow testing is used to monitor the adequacy of asthma control. Chest radiographs can show hyperinflation, atelectasis, pneumonia, foreign bodies, pleural effusion, and abnormal heart or lung size.

14. What would lead the nurse to suspect that an adolescent has bulimia? A) Body mass index less than 17 B) Calluses on back of knuckles C) Nail pitting D) Bradycardia

Ans: B Feedback: The adolescent with bulimia would exhibit calluses on the back of the knuckles and split fingernails and would be of normal weight or slightly overweight. A body mass index of 17, nail pitting, and bradycardia would suggest anorexia.

Origin: Chapter 18, 7 7. The nurse is assessing a 5-year-old girl who is anxious, has a high fever, speaks in a whisper, and sits up with her neck thrust forward. Based on these findings, what would be least appropriate for the nurse to perform? A) Providing 100% oxygen B) Visualizing the throat C) Having the child sit forward D) Auscultating for lung sounds

Ans: B Feedback: The child is exhibiting signs and symptoms of epiglottis, which can be life-threatening. Under no circumstances should the nurse attempt to visualize the throat. Reflex laryngospasm may occur, precipitating immediate airway occlusion. Providing 100% oxygen in the least invasive manner that is most acceptable to the child is a sound intervention, as is allowing the child to assume a position of sitting forward with the neck extended. Auscultation would reveal breath sounds consistent with an obstructed airway.

Origin: Chapter 18, 19 19. The nurse is preparing to perform a physical examination of a child with asthma. Which technique would the nurse be least likely to perform? A) Inspection B) Palpation C) Percussion D) Auscultation

Ans: B Feedback: When examining the child with asthma, the nurse would inspect, auscultate, and percuss. Palpation would not be used.

Origin: Chapter 18, 22 22. When performing the physical examination of a child with cystic fibrosis, what would the nurse expect to assess? A) Dullness over the lung fields B) Increased diaphragmatic excursion C) Decreased tactile fremitus D) Hyperresonance over the liver

Ans: C Feedback: Examination of a child with cystic fibrosis typically reveals decreased tactile fremitus over areas of atelectasis, hyperresonance over the lung fields from air trapping, decreased diaphragmatic excursion, and dullness over the liver when enlarged.

Origin: Chapter 14, 27 27. The nurse is preparing a child for a lumbar puncture. How far ahead of the procedure should the nurse apply the EMLA cream? A) 30 minutes B) 1 hour C) 3 hours D) 4 hours

Ans: C Feedback: For a deeper procedure such as a lumbar puncture, the nurse needs to apply the cream 2 to 3 hours before the procedure. For a superficial procedure, the EMLA cream should be applied at least 1 hour before the procedure.

Origin: Chapter 18, 4 4. The nurse is discussing discharge instructions with the parents of a 6-year-old who had a tonsillectomy. What is the most important thing to stress? A) Administer analgesics. B) Encourage the child to drink liquids. C) Inspect the throat for bleeding. D) Apply an ice collar.

Ans: C Feedback: Inspecting the throat for bleeding is the most important discharge information to give the parents. Hemorrhage is unusual postoperatively but may occur any time from the immediate postoperative period to as late as 10 days after surgery. The nurse should inspect the throat for bleeding. Mucus tinged with blood may be expected, but fresh blood in the secretions indicates bleeding. Administering analgesics, encouraging fluids and applying an ice color are important but not as important as assessing for bleeding.

Origin: Chapter 18, 15 15. A nurse is preparing a teaching program for a parenting group about preventing foreign body aspiration. What information would the nurse include? A) Avoid giving popcorn to children younger than the age of 2 years. B) Withhold peanuts from children until they are at least 5 years of age. C) If an object fits through a standard toilet paper roll, the child can aspirate it. D) Keep pennies and dimes out of the child's reach; quarters do not pose a problem.

Ans: C Feedback: Items smaller than 1.25 inches (3.2 cm) can be aspirated easily. A simple way for parents to estimate the safe size of a small item or toy piece is to gauge its size against a standard toilet paper roll, which is generally about 1.5 inches in diameter. If it fits through the roll, it can be aspirated. Popcorn and peanuts should not be given to children until they are at least 3 years old. All coins should be kept out of the reach of children.

Origin: Chapter 18, 6 6. Bacterial pneumonia is suspected in a 4-year-old boy with fever, headache, and chest pain. Which assessment finding would most likely indicate the need for this child to be hospitalized? A) Fever B) Oxygen saturation level of 96% C) Tachypnea with retractions D) Pale skin color

Ans: C Feedback: Pneumonia is usually a self-limiting disease. Children with bacterial pneumonia can be successfully managed at home if the work of breathing is not severe and oxygen saturation is within normal limits. Hospitalization would most likely be required for the child with tachypnea, significant retractions, poor oral intake, or lethargy for the administration of supplemental oxygen, intravenous hydration, and antibiotics. Fever, although common in children with pneumonia, would not necessitate hospitalization. An oxygen saturation level of 96% would be within normal limits. Pallor (pale skin color) occurs as a result of peripheral vasoconstriction in an effort to conserve oxygen for vital functions; this finding also would not necessitate hospitalization.

23. After teaching the parents of a child with attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder about ways to control the child's behavior, the nurse determines a need for additional teaching when the parents state: A) "If he starts to act out, we'll have him do a time-out to help him refocus." B) "We can use a reward system when he behaves appropriately." C) "If he misbehaves, we need to punish him instead of reward him." D) "We need to help him set realistic goals that he can achieve."

Ans: C Feedback: Punishment for misbehaving would be inappropriate because it would lead to negative feelings and further decrease self-esteem. Appropriate behavior management strategies include time-outs, positive reinforcement, reward or privilege withdrawal, or a token system. Setting realistic goals also is helpful to foster self-esteem and independence.

Origin: Chapter 18, 14 14. A parent asks the nurse about immunizing her 7-month-old daughter against the flu. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A) "She really doesn't need the vaccine until she reaches 1 year of age." B) "She will probably receive it the next time she is to get her routine shots." C) "Since your daughter is older than 6 months, she should get the vaccine every year." D) "The vaccine has many side effects, so she wouldn't get it until she's ready to go to school."

Ans: C Feedback: The current recommendations are for all children older than 6 months of age to be immunized yearly against influenza.

Origin: Chapter 14, 7 7. A nurse is providing teaching to the mother of an adolescent girl about how to manage menstrual pain nonpharmacologically. Which statements by the mother indicates a need for further teaching? A) "I need to help her learn techniques to distract her; card games, for example." B) "I need to be able to identify the subtle ways she shows pain." C) "I need to follow these instructions exactly for them to work properly." D) "I need to encourage her to practice and utilize these techniques."

Ans: C Feedback: The mother does not need to follow the instructions exactly; she needs to review the methods and modify them in a way that works best for her daughter. The other statements are correct.

Origin: Chapter 14, 21 21. The nurse has applied EMLA cream as ordered. How does the nurse assess that the cream has achieved its purpose? A) Assess the skin for redness. B) Note any blanching of skin. C) Lightly tap the area where the cream is. D) Gently poke the child with a needle.

Ans: C Feedback: The nurse should verify that sensation is absent by lightly tapping or scratching the area. Blanching or redness indicates that the medication has penetrated the skin adequately but does not indicate that sensation is absent. Using a needle to poke the skin would likely frighten the child.

Origin: Chapter 18, 2 2. The nurse hears wheezing when auscultating a 4-year-old. Which condition would the nurse most likely rule out based on the assessment findings? A) Bronchiolitis B) Asthma C) Influenza D) Cystic fibrosis

Ans: C Feedback: Wheezing typically is not associated with influenza. Wheezing is caused by an obstruction of the bronchioles that may be caused by bronchiolitis, asthma, cystic fibrosis, or chronic lung disease. In addition, if the bronchiolitis is due to influenza, wheezing may be heard.

Origin: Chapter 18, 24 24. A child is brought to the emergency department by his parents because he suddenly developed a barking cough. Further assessment leads the nurse to suspect that the child is experiencing croup. What would the nurse have most likely assessed? A) High fever B) Dysphagia C) Toxic appearance D) Inspiratory stridor

Ans: D Feedback: A child with croup typically develops a bark-like cough often at night. This may be accompanied by inspiratory stridor and suprasternal retractions. Temperature may be normal or slightly elevated. A high fever, dysphagia, and toxic appearance are associated with epiglottitis.

22. When assessing the adolescent with anorexia, what would the nurse expect to find? A) Tachycardia B) Hypertension C) Fever D) Sparse body hair

Ans: D Feedback: An adolescent with anorexia often exhibits a low body temperature; bradycardia; and hypotension; as well as soft, sparse body hair and thinning scalp hair.

12. When reviewing the medical record of a child, what would the nurse interpret as the most sensitive indicator of intellectual disability? A) History of seizures B) Preterm birth C) Vision deficit D) Language delay

Ans: D Feedback: Due to the extent of cognition required to understand and produce speech, the most sensitive early indicator of intellectual disability is delayed language development. A history of seizures, preterm birth, and vision deficit may be associated with intellectual disability but are not the most sensitive indicators.

Origin: Chapter 18, 21 21. A nurse is teaching the parents of a child diagnosed with cystic fibrosis about medication therapy. Which would the nurse instruct the parents to administer orally? A) Recombinant human DNase B) Bronchodilators C) Anti-inflammatory agents D) Pancreatic enzymes

Ans: D Feedback: Pancreatic enzymes are administered orally to promote adequate digestion and absorption of nutrients. Recombinant human DNase, bronchodilators, and anti-inflammatory agents are typically administered by inhalation.

Origin: Chapter 18, 10 10. The nurse is examining a 5-year-old boy. Which sign or symptom is a reliable first indication of respiratory illness in children? A) Slow, irregular breathing B) A bluish tinge to the lips C) Increasing lethargy D) Rapid, shallow breathing

Ans: D Feedback: Tachypnea, or increased respiratory rate, is often the first sign of respiratory illness in infants and children. Slow, irregular breathing and increasing listlessness are signs that the child's condition is worsening. Cyanosis (a bluish tinge to the lips) or the degree of cyanosis present is not always an accurate indication of the severity of respiratory involvement.

Origin: Chapter 14, 9 9. The nurse is using the acronym QUESTT to assess the pain of a child. Which is an accurate descriptor of this process? A) Question the child's parents. B) Understand the child's pain level. C) Establish a caring relationship with the child. D) Take the cause of pain into account when intervening.

Ans: D Feedback: The acronym QUESTT stands for the following: Question the child. Use a reliable and valid pain scale. Evaluate the child's behavior and physiologic changes to establish a baseline and determine the effectiveness of the intervention. The child's behavior and motor activity may include irritability and protection as well as withdrawal of the affected painful area. Secure the parent's involvement. Take the cause of pain into account when intervening. Take action.

Origin: Chapter 18, 13 13. The nurse is providing care to several children who have been brought to the clinic by the parents reporting cold-like symptoms. The nurse would most likely suspect sinusitis in which child? A) A 2-year-old with thin watery nasal discharge B) A 3-year-old with sneezing and coughing C) A 5-year-old with nasal congestion and sore throat D) A 7-year-old with halitosis and thick, yellow nasal discharge

Ans: D Feedback: The frontal sinuses, those most commonly associated with sinus infection, develop by age 6 to 8 years. Therefore, the 7-year-old would most likely experience sinusitis. In addition, this child also exhibits halitosis and a thick, yellow nasal discharge, other findings associated with sinusitis. Thin watery discharge in a 2-year-old is more likely to indicate allergic rhinitis. A 3-year-old with coughing and sneezing or a 5-year-old with nasal congestion and sore throat suggests the common cold.

Origin: Chapter 14, 11 11. Which tool would be the least appropriate scale for the nurse to use when assessing a 4-year-old child's pain? A) FACES pain rating scale B) Oucher pain rating scale C) Poker chip tool D) Numeric pain intensity scale

Ans: D Feedback: The numeric pain intensity scale can be used with children as young as 5 years of age, but the preferred minimum age for using this tool is 7 years. The FACES and Oucher pain rating scales and the poker chip tool are appropriate pain assessment tools for a 4-year-old.

Origin: Chapter 14, 15 15. The nurse is providing instructions to a mother on how to use thought stopping to help her child deal with anxiety and fear associated with frequent painful injections. Which statement indicates the mother understands the technique? A) "We will imagine that we are on the beach in Florida." B) "We can talk about our favorite funny movie and laugh." C) "She can let her body parts go limp, working from head to toe." D) "We'll repeat 'quick stick, feel better, go home soon' several times."

Ans: D Feedback: Thought stopping is a technique that involves the use of short, concise phrases of positive ideas. Doing so helps to promote the child's sense of control. Imagining a favorite beach in Florida is using imagery. Talking about a favorite funny movie involves humor. Letting body parts go limp is a relaxation technique.

Origin: Chapter 14, 12 12. The nurse uses the FLACC behavioral scale to assess a 6-year-old's level of postoperative pain and obtains a score of 9. The nurse interprets this to indicate that the child is experiencing: A) little to no pain. B) mild pain. C) moderate pain. D) severe pain.

Ans: D Feedback: With the FLACC behavioral scale, five parameters are measured and scored as 0, 1, or 2. They are then totaled to achieve a maximum score of 10. The higher the score, the greater the pain. A score of 9 indicates severe pain.

A group of students are preparing for a class exam on skin disorders. As part of their preparation, they are reviewing information about acne vulgaris and its association with increased sebum production. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which areas as having the highest sebaceous gland activity? Select all that apply. A) Face B) Upper chest C) Neck D) Back E) Shoulders

Ans: A, B, D The face, upper chest, and back are the areas of highest sebaceous activity and thus the most common areas for acne lesions to occur. The neck and shoulders are not typical areas involved with acne.

A nurse is inspecting the skin of a child with atopic dermatitis. What would the nurse expect to observe? A) Erythematous papulovesicular rash B) Dry, red, scaly rash with lichenification C) Pustular vesicles with honey-colored exudates D) Hypopigmented oval scaly lesions

Ans: B Atopic dermatitis or eczema is characterized by a dry, red, scaly rash with lichenification and hypertrophy. An erythematous papulovesicular rash is associated with contact dermatitis. Pustules and vesicles with honey-colored exudates suggest nonbullous impetigo. Hypopigmented oval scaly lesions are associated with tinea versicolor.

A nurse is assessing the skin of a child with cellulitis. What would the nurse expect to find? A) Red, raised hair follicles B) Warmth at skin disruption site C) Papules progressing to vesicles D) Honey-colored exudate

Ans: B Cellulitis is manifested by erythema, pain, edema, and warmth at the site of skin disruption. Red raised hair follicles would indicate folliculitis. Papules progressing to vesicles and a honey-colored exudate would suggest nonbullous impetigo.

A 3-year-old child has sustained severe burns and is ordered to receive 100% oxygen. What would the nurse use to administer the oxygen? A) Nasal cannula B) Venturi mask C) Nonrebreather mask D) Oxygen hood

Ans: C All children with severe burns should receive 100% oxygen via a nonrebreather mask or bag-valve-mask ventilation. A nasal cannula provides only low oxygen concentrations (22% to 44%); a Venturi mask provides only 24% to 50% oxygen concentrations. An oxygen hood is used for infants only.

After teaching a class about the differences in the skin of infants and adults, the nurse determines that additional teaching is necessary when the class states: A) "An infant's skin is thinner than an adult's, so substances placed on the skin are absorbed more readily." B) "The infant's epidermis is loosely connected to the dermis, increasing the risk for breakdown." C) "The infant has a lower risk for damage from ultraviolet radiation because the skin is more pigmented." D) "An infant has less subcutaneous fat, which places the infant at a higher risk for heat loss."

Ans: C Infants have less pigmentation in their skin, placing them at increased risk for skin damage from ultraviolet radiation. The infant's skin is thinner, the epidermis is loosely connected, and there is less subcutaneous fat.

A 4-year-old is brought to the emergency department with a burn. What would alert the nurse to the possibility of child abuse? A) Burn assessment correlates with mother's report of contact with a portable heater. B) Parents state that the injury occurred approximately 15 to 20 minutes ago. C) Clear delineations are noted between burned and nonburned skin areas. D) The burn area appears asymmetric and nonuniform.

Ans: C Suggested signs of a burn resulting from possible child abuse include a uniform appearance of the burn with clear delineations of burned and nonburned areas. Abuse would also be suspected if the report of the injury was inconsistent with burn injury or there was a delay in seeking treatment. An asymmetric nonuniform burn often correlates with a splatter-type burn resulting from the child pulling a source of hot fluid onto himself or herself.

A 6-year-old boy has been admitted to the hospital with burns. The nurse notes carbonaceous sputum. What action would be the priority? A) Determining the burn depth B) Eliciting a description of the burn C) Estimating burn extent D) Ensuring a patent airway

Ans: D Carbonaceous sputum is a sign of potential airway injury due to smoke inhalation. Therefore, the nurse should ensure a patent airway while obtaining a brief history and simultaneously evaluating the child and providing emergency care. If the burn does not pose an immediate, life-threatening risk, the nurse would obtain an in-depth history and elicit a description of the burn. Determining the burn depth and extent are part of the secondary survey.

A nurse is caring for a 14-year-old girl who received an electrical burn. The nurse would anticipate preparing the girl for which diagnostic tests as ordered? A) Pulse oximetry B) Fiberoptic bronchoscopy C) Xenon ventilation-perfusion scanning D) Electrocardiographic monitoring

Ans: D Electrocardiographic monitoring is important for the child who has suffered an electrical burn to identify possible cardiac arrhythmias, which can be noted for up to 72 hours after a burn injury. Fiberoptic bronchoscopy and xenon ventilation-perfusion scanning may be ordered to evaluate an inhalation injury, not an electrical burn. Pulse oximetry is used to evaluate pulmonary function and would not be indicated in the case of an electrical burn.

A child is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. Which laboratory test would the nurse expect the child to undergo to provide additional evidence for this condition? A) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate B) Potassium hydroxide prep C) Wound culture D) Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) level

Ans: D IgE levels are often used to evaluate for atopic dermatitis. IgE levels are elevated in this condition. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate may be used but this test is nonspecific and only indicates infection or inflammation. Potassium hydroxide prep is used to identify fungal infections. Wound culture would be done to identify a specific organism if an infection occurs with atopic dermatitis.

The nurse determines that it is necessary to implement airborne precautions for children with which infection? A)Measles B)Streptococcus group A C)Rubella D)Scarlet fever

Ans:A Airborne precautions are designed to reduce the risk of infectious agents transmitted by airborne droplet nuclei or dust particles such as for children with measles, varicella, or tuberculosis. Droplet precautions would be used for children with streptococcal group A infections, rubella, and scarlet fever.

The nurse is teaching the student nurse the factors that affect the pharmacodynamics of the drugs they are administering. What is a factor affecting this property of drugs? A)Immature body systems B)Weight C)Body surface D)Body composition

Ans:A Although a drug's mechanism of action is the same in any individual, the physiologic immaturity of some body systems in a child can affect a drug's pharmacodynamics (behavior of the medication at the cellular level). The child's age, weight, body surface area, and body composition also can affect the drug's pharmacokinetics (movement of drugs throughout the body via absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion).

After teaching a class on the role of white blood cells in infection, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the class identifies which type of white blood cells as important in combating bacterial infections? A)Neutrophils B)Eosinophils C)Basophils D)Lymphocytes

Ans:A Elevations in certain portions of the white blood cell count reflect different processes occurring in the body. Neutrophils function to combat bacterial infection. Eosinophils function in allergic disorders and parasitic infections. Basophils combat parasitic infections and some allergic disorders. Lymphocytes function in viral infections.

The nurse is administering a crushed tablet to an 18-month-old infant. What is a recommended guideline for this intervention? A)Mix the crushed tablet with a small amount of applesauce. B)Place the crushed tablet in the infant's formula. C)Mix the crushed tablet with the infant's cereal. D)Crushed tablets should only be mixed with water.

Ans:A If a tablet or capsule is the only oral form available for children younger than 6 years, it needs to be crushed or opened and mixed with a pleasant-tasting liquid or a small amount (generally no more than a tablespoon) of a nonessential food such as applesauce. The crushed tablet or inside of a capsule may taste bitter, so it should never be mixed with formula or other essential foods. Otherwise, the child may associate the bitter taste with the food and later refuse to eat it.

The nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a diabetic child. Which would be the recommended route for this administration? A)Subcutaneous B)Intradermal C)Intramuscular D)Oral

Ans:A Subcutaneous (SQ) administration distributes medication into the fatty layers of the body. It is used primarily for insulin administration, heparin, and certain immunizations, such as MMR. Intradermal administration is used primarily for tuberculosis screening and allergy testing. Intramuscular administration is used to administer certain medications, such as many immunizations. Insulin is not administered orally.

A physician orders a medication dosage that is above the normal dosage. The nurse administers the medication without questioning the dosage. What error did the nurse make? A)The nurse violated one of the "rights" of medication administration. B)The nurse performed an act outside the scope of practice for nursing. C)The nurse has not made an error, but the physician did by ordering the wrong dosage of medication. D)The nurse has committed an act of maleficence by administering the medication.

Ans:A The nurse violated one of the "rights" of medication administration, the right dosage, because the nurse is responsible for being aware and questioning an incorrect dosage of medication. Medication administration is within the scope of nursing practice. Maleficence is performing a harmful act intentionally.

A nurse suspects that an adolescent may have community-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CAMRSA). What would the nurse expect to assess? Select all that apply. A)Participation in contact sport B)Recent cut on the lower leg C)History of a recent sore throat D)Raised fluctuant lesions E)Erythematous rash over the trunk and face

Ans:A, B, D With CAMRSA, skin and tissue infections are common, often appearing as a bump or skin area that is red, swollen, painful, and warm to the touch. There also may be fluctuance and purulent drainage. Participation in contact sports, openings in the skin such as abrasions and cuts, contact with contaminated items and surfaces, poor hygiene, and crowded living conditions are risk factors for CAMRSA. Recent sore throat and an erythematous rash on the trunk, face, and possibly the extremities are associated with scarlet fever.

The parents of a 7-month-old child with an infection ask the nurse about how to treat their child's fever. After providing teaching, the parents voice understanding with which statements? Select all that apply A)"Unless my child develops a fever over 102.2°F , I don't need to make an appointment with the physician." B)"Having a temperature over 38°C puts my child at risk for the infection spreading to the bloodstream." C)"I can use acetaminophen to help with the symptoms of the infection but it won't get rid of the infection." D)"Even though people get frightened, fevers are not a bad thing during an infection unless it gets too high." E)"Any fever is dangerous and can cause serious damage to brain cells if it goes on too long."

Ans:A, C, D In infants older than 3 months of age, fever less than 39°C (102.2°F) usually does not require treatment by a physician. Antipyretics, such as acetaminophen, provide symptomatic relief but do not change the course of the infection. A fever can actually enhance various components of the immune response. Infants younger than 3 months of age with a rectal temperature greater than 38°C should be seen by a physician or nurse practitioner because of increased risk of sepsis.

The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an 8-month-old infant. Which site would the nurse select? A)Rectus femoris B)Vastus lateralis C)Dorsogluteal muscle D)Deltoid

Ans:B The preferred injection site in infants is the vastus lateralis muscle. An alternative site is the rectus femoris. The dorsogluteal site is not used in children until the child has been walking for at least 1 year. The deltoid muscle is used as a site in children after the age of 4 or 5 years.

The nurse is caring for a neonate who is suspected of having sepsis. Which assessment findings would the nurse interpret as most indicative of sepsis? A)Rash on face B)Edematous neck C)Hypothermia D)Coughing

Ans:C Hypothermia is a sign of sepsis in neonates. A rash on the face is a symptom of scarlet fever. An edematous neck is a sign of diphtheria. Paroxysmal coughing is a symptom of pertussis.

The nurse is administering immunizations to children in a neighborhood clinic. What is the most frequent route of administration? A)Oral B)Intradermal C)Intramuscular D)Topical

Ans:C Intramuscular (IM) administration delivers medication to the muscle. In children, this method of medication administration is used infrequently because it is painful and children often lack adequate muscle mass for medication absorption. However, IM administration is used to administer certain medications, such as many immunizations.

A child is diagnosed with scarlet fever. The nurse is reviewing the child's medical record, expecting which medication to be prescribed for this child? A)Ibuprofen B)Acyclovir C)Penicillin V D)Doxycycline

Ans:C Penicillin V is the antibiotic of choice for the treatment of scarlet fever. Ibuprofen is used to treat fever. Acyclovir is used to treat viral infections. Doxycycline, a tetracycline, is the drug of choice for treating Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

A group of nursing students are reviewing information about childhood infectious diseases. The students demonstrate understanding of this information when they identify which disease as a common childhood exanthema? A)Mumps B)Rabies C)Rubella D)West Nile virus

Ans:C Rubella is a common childhood exanthema. Mumps is a viral infection. Rabies is a zoonotic infection. West Nile virus is a vector-borne disease.

When describing the differences affecting the pharmacokinetics of drugs administered to children, which would the nurse include? A)Oral drugs are absorbed more quickly in children than adults. B)Absorption of intramuscularly administered drugs is fairly constant. C)Topical drugs are absorbed more quickly in young children than adults. D)Absorption of drugs administered by subcutaneous injection is increased.

Ans:C Topical absorption of drugs is increased in infants and young children because the stratum corneum is thinner and well hydrated. The absorption of oral drugs is slowed by slower gastric emptying, increased intestinal motility, a proportionately larger small intestine surface area, high gastric pH, and decreased lipase and amylase secretion. The absorption of drugs given intramuscularly or subcutaneously is erratic and may be decreased.

The nurse is administering acetaminophen PRN to a 9-year-old child on the pediatric ward of the hospital. Which answers reflect nursing actions that follow the rules of the 'eight rights' of pediatric medication administration? Select all that apply. A)The nurse identifies the child by checking the name on the child's chart. B)The nurse makes sure the medication is given within the hour of the ordered time. C)The nurse checks the documented time of the last dosage administered. D)The nurse calculates the dosage according to the child's weight. E)The nurse explains the therapeutic effects of the medication to the child and parents. F)The nurse administers the medication even though the child is adamant about not taking it.

Ans:C, D, E Following the 'right patient' rule, the nurse checks the documented time of the last dosage administered. For the 'right dose,' the nurse calculates the dosage according to the child's weight. For the 'right to be educated,' the nurse explains the therapeutic effects of the medication to the child and parents. To ensure the 'right patient,' the nurse confirms the child's identity and then checks with the caregivers for further identification. To administer at the 'right time,' the nurse gives the medication within 20 to 30 minutes of the ordered time, and to protect the child's 'right to refuse,' the nurse respects the child's or parents' option to refuse.

The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a child with infective endocarditis. What would the nurse expect to find? Select all that apply. A)White blood cell count revealing leukopenia B)Microscopic hematuria with urinalysis C)Electrocardiogram with prolonged PR interval D)Lungs clear on auscultation E)Petechiae on palpebral conjunctiva

B, C, E With infective endocarditis, leukocytosis, microscopic hematuria, prolonged PR interval, adventitious lung sounds, and petechiae on the palpebral conjunctiva are noted.

The nurse caring for a 6-year-old patient enters the room to administer an oral medication in the form of a pill. The dad at the bedside looks at the pill and tells the nurse that his daughter has a hard time swallowing pills. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse? A)Ask the child to try swallowing the pill and offer a choice of drinks to take with it. B)Crush the pill and add it to applesauce. C)Request that the physician prescribe the medication in liquid form. D)Call the pharmacy and ask if the pill can be crushed.

Ans:D The father is the best source of knowledge on medication administration for the child. The pharmacy should be called to determine if the pill might be crushed. Asking the child to try swallowing the pill disregards the information the father has just given. Requesting that the physician order the medication in liquid form is not necessary at this point.

The nurse is administering a liquid medication to a 3-year-old using an oral syringe. Which action would be most appropriate? A)Direct the liquid toward the anterior side of the mouth. B)Keep the child's hand away from the oral syringe when squirting the medication. C)Give all of the drug in the syringe at one time with one squirt. D)Allow the child time to swallow the medication in between amounts.

Ans:D When using an oral syringe to administer liquid medications, give the drug slowly in small amounts and allow the child to swallow before placing more medication in the mouth. The syringe is directed toward the posterior side of the mouth. The toddler or young preschooler may enjoy helping by squirting the medication into his or her mouth.

27. A child is diagnosed with bacterial conjunctivitis and is prescribed topical antibiotic therapy. The child's mother asks when he can return to school. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A) "You need to wait until you finish the entire prescription of antibiotic." B) "Once the drainage is gone, he can go back to school." C) "You can send him to school this afternoon after his first dose of antibiotic." D) "He needs to be symptom-free for at least 72 hours."

B) "Once the drainage is gone, he can go back to school." For the child with bacterial conjunctivitis, the child may safely return to school or day care when the mucopurulent drainage is no longer present, usually after 24 to 48 hours of treatment with the topical antibiotic. There is no need to wait until the prescription is finished. The antibiotic is being given topically, not systemically. One dose of antibiotic is not sufficient to eradicate the infection. Typically 24 to 48 hours of treatment is needed to stop the drainage, which, when no longer present, indicates that the child can return to school.

14. After teaching a group of new parents about their newborns' eyes and vision, which statement by the group indicates effective teaching? A) "Our newborn can see at distances of about 1 to 2 feet." B) "We won't know the baby's eye color until he's at least 6 months old." C) "A baby can easily distinguish colors, but they must be bright colors." D) "A newborn can focus with both eyes at the same time shortly after birth."

B) "We won't know the baby's eye color until he's at least 6 months old." The eye color of an infant is determined by 6 to 12 months of age. A newborn sees best at distances of about 8 to 10 inches. The optic nerve is not completely myelinated, so color discrimination is incomplete. The rectus muscles are uncoordinated at birth and mature over time, so binocular vision may be achieved by 4 months of age

24. A mother brings her child to the health care clinic because she thinks that the child has conjunctivitis. Which assessment finding would lead the nurse to suspect bacterial conjunctivitis? Select all answers that apply. A) Itching of the eyes B) Inflamed conjunctiva C) Stringy discharge D) Photophobia E) Mild pain F) Tearing

B) Inflamed conjunctiva E) Mild pain terial conjunctivitis is manifested by inflamed conjunctiva, a purulent or mucoid discharge, mild pain, and occasional eyelid edema. Itching and a stringy discharge suggest allergic conjunctivitis. Photophobia and tearing suggest viral conjunctivitis

18. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a child with hearing loss and notes that the child's hearing loss is in the range 40 to 60 decibels (dB). The nurse interprets this as indicating which of the following? A) Mild loss B) Moderate loss C) Severe loss D) Profound loss

B) Moderate loss A hearing loss of 40 to 60 decibels (dB) indicates a moderate loss; 20 to 40 dB indicates a mild loss; 60 to 80 dB indicates a severe loss; and greater than 80 dB indicates a profound loss.

15. Assessment of a child leads the nurse to suspect viral conjunctivitis based on which of the following? A) Mild pain B) Photophobia C) Itching D) Watery discharge

B) Photophobia Viral conjunctivitis is characterized by lymphadenopathy, photophobia, and tearing. Mild pain is associated with bacterial conjunctivitis. Itching and watery discharge are associated with allergic conjunctivitis.

17. Which of the following would the nurse include when teaching parents how to prevent otitis externa? A) Daily ear cleaning with cotton swabs B) Wearing ear plugs when swimming C) Using a hair dryer on high to dry the ear canals D) Using hydrogen peroxide to dry the canal skin

B) Wearing ear plugs when swimming To prevent otitis externa, the nurse would teach parents and children to wear earplugs when swimming and to avoid use of cotton swabs, headphones, and earphones. A hair dryer on a low setting can be used to dry the ear canals. A mixture of half rubbing alcohol and half vinegar can be used to dry the canal and alter the pH to discourage organism growth.

The nurse is caring for a child that just returned from a coronary arteriogram in which the catheter was placed through the left femoral artery. Which nursing actions demonstrate knowledge of the procedure? Select all that apply. A)The nurse allows the patient up to the bathroom only. B)The nurse assesses the dorsalis pedis pulse in the left foot. C)The nurse assesses the puncture site frequently. D)The nurse tells the parents that the physician will discuss the results of the procedure with them. E)The nurse assesses the patient's vital signs every 8 hours.

B, C, D The nurse must assess the pulse distal to the puncture site to determine that circulation remains adequate to the extremity. Assessing the puncture site ensures early recognition of bleeding from the site. The physician will be able to inform the parents regarding the results of the procedure after completion. The child should be kept on bedrest for a specified period of time, so they cannot be up to the bathroom. Vital signs will need to be taken more frequently than every 8 hours for early detection of complications.

The nurse is caring for a newborn diagnosed with an atrial septal defect (ASD). The parents voice concern and state, "I can't believe this is happening. Will our child be okay?" What is the nurse's best response? A)"If the defect isn't treated it can cause problems such as pulmonary hypertension, heart failure, atrial arrhythmias, or stroke." B)"While each case is different, the majority of these defects correct on their own. Let's see what the tests show, then speak with the doctor." C)"Since there are no symptoms being exhibited right now, your child will likely not require surgery until the age of 3 years." D)"Most children have no symptoms of this defect."

B. "While each case is different, the majority of these defects correct on their own. Let's see what the test show, then speak with the doctor." While all responses supply correct information about the disorder, the best response is, "While each case is different, the majority of these defects correct on their own. Let's see what the tests show, then speak with the doctor." This individualizes the response to this child, offers realistic hope, and verifies that the physician will need to be consulted to answer questions regarding prognosis.

After teaching a class about the hemodynamic characteristics of congenital heart disease, the instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the class identifies which defect as an example of a disorder involving increased pulmonary blood flow? A)Tetralogy of Fallot B)Atrial septal defect C)Hypoplastic left heart syndrome D)Transposition of the great vessels

B. Atrial septal defect Atrial septal defect is an example of a disorder involving increased pulmonary blood flow. Tetralogy of Fallot is a defect involving decreased pulmonary blood flow. Transposition of the great vessels and hypoplastic left heart syndrome are examples of mixed disorders.

The nurse is caring for an infant with suspected patent ductus arteriosus. Which assessment finding would the nurse identify as helping to confirm this suspicion? A)Thrill at the base of the heart B)Harsh, continuous, machine-like murmur under the left clavicle C)Faint pulses D)Systolic murmur best heard along the left sternal border

B. Harsh, continuous, machine-like murmur under the left clavicle With patent ductus arteriosus, a harsh, continuous, machine-like murmur (usually loudest under the left clavicle) is heard at the first and second intercostal spaces. A thrill at the base, faint pulses, and systolic murmur heard best along the left sternal border point to aortic stenosis.

The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for the parents of a child who has been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. What would the nurse be least likely to include? A)Daily weight assessment B)Maintenance of strict bed rest C)Prevention of infection D)Signs of complications

B. Maintenance of strict bed rest A child with congenital heart disease should be allowed to engage in activity as tolerated, with rest periods frequently throughout the day to prevent overexertion. Daily weights, infection prevention measures, and signs of complications are all appropriate to include when teaching parents of a child with a congenital heart defect.

The nurse is assessing a child with suspected infective endocarditis. Which assessment finding would the nurse interpret as a sign of extracardiac emboli? A)Pruritus B)Roth spots C)Delayed capillary refill D)Erythema marginatum

B. Roth spots Roth spots are splinter hemorrhages with pale centers on the sclerae, palate, buccal mucosa, chest, fingers, or toes, and are signs of extracardiac emboli. Delayed capillary refill time does not point to extracardiac emboli. Wheezing and pruritus are indicative of a hypersensitivity reaction. Erythema marginatum is a classic rash associated with acute rheumatic fever.

When conducting a physical examination of a child with suspected Kawasaki disease, which finding would the nurse expect to assess? A)Hirsutism or striae B)Strawberry tongue C)Malar rash D)Café au lait spots

B. Strawberry tongue Dry, fissured lips and a strawberry tongue are common findings with Kawasaki disease. Acne, hirsutism, and striae are associated with anabolic steroid use. Malar rash is associated with lupus. Café au lait spots are associated with neurofibromatosis

A nurse is caring for a newborn with congenital heart disease (CHD). Which finding would the nurse interpret as indicating distress? A)Reduced respiratory rate during feeding B)Subcostal retraction at the time of feeding C)Perspiration on body after feeding D)Feeding lasting for 15-20 minutes

B. Subcostal retraction at the time of feeding. Subcostal retraction during feeding is indicative of distress associated with feeding in newborn infants with CHD. Feeding can be a stress to newborns with CHD who are seriously compromised. Additional features indicating distress in infants with CHD include increased respiratory rate, perspiration along the hairline during feeding and feeding time longer than 30 minutes.

9. The nurse is taking a health history for a 9-year-old girl. Which finding would alert the nurse to a possible risk factor specifically associated with visual impairment? A) Being born at 39 weeks' gestation B) Having several hours of homework daily C) Being of African American heritage D) Being active in sports

C) Being of African American heritage African American heritage is a risk factor specifically for visual impairment. Although family history of the disorder, genetic syndrome, and previous medication use are risk factors for visual impairment, they are also risk factors for hearing impairment.

29. After teaching a group of students about visual disorders, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as the most common cause of visual difficulties in children? A) Astigmatism B) Strabismus C) Refractive errors D) Nystagmus

C) Refractive errors The most common cause of visual difficulties in children is refractive errors. Astigmatism, strabismus, and nystagmus are other common visual disorders in children but are less common than refractive errors.

A child with a suspected cardiovascular disorder is to undergo diagnostic testing and is scheduled for an echocardiogram. When explaining this test to the child, what would the nurse most likely include? A)"This test will check the pattern of how your heart is beating." B)"They'll take a picture of your chest to look at the heart's size." C)"A special wand that picks up sound is used to check your heart." D)"Small patches are attached to your chest to check the heart rhythm."

C. "A special wand that picks up sound is used to check your heart." An echocardiogram is a noninvasive ultrasound procedure using a gel-coated wand that assesses the heart wall thickness, the size of the chambers, valve and septal motion, and the relationship of the great vessels to other cardiac structures. An electrocardiogram reveals the pattern or rhythm of the heart's beating and involves small patches or electrodes attached to the chest. A chest radiograph involves a radiographic film of the chest to determine the size of the heart and its chambers.

A 9-year-old child has undergone a cardiac catheterization and is being prepared for discharge. The nurse is instructing the parents and child about postprocedure care. Which statement by the parents indicates that the teaching was successful? A)"This pressure dressing needs to stay on for 5 days from now." B)"He can't eat but he can drink fluids for the next 24 hours." C)"He should avoid taking a bath for about 3 days but he can shower." D)"It's normal if he says he feels like his heart skipped a beat."

C. "He should avoid taking a bath for about 3 days but he can shower." After a cardiac catheterization, the child should avoid tub baths for about 3 days but he can shower or use sponge baths. The pressure dressing should be removed the day after the procedure and a dry sterile dressing or adhesive bandage is applied for the next several days. After the procedure, the child can resume his usual diet. Any reports of fluttering or the heart skipping a beat should be reported.

The nurse is caring for a 2-month-old infant who has been diagnosed with acute heart failure. The nurse is providing teaching about nutrition. Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further teaching? A)"The baby may need as much as 150 calories/kg/day." B)"Small, frequent feedings are best if tolerated." C)"I need to feed him every hour to make sure he eats enough." D)"Gavage feedings may be required for now."

C. "I need to feed him every hour to make sure he eats enough." Although offering small frequent feedings is appropriate if the infant tolerates them, feeding every hour is not necessary. During the acute phase, continuous or intermittent gavage feedings may be needed to help the infant maintain or gain weight. Due to the increased metabolic demands, the infant may require as much as 150 calories/kg/day.

The mother of a 4 week old infant is tearful. She reports the physician has told her that her son has a small atrial septal defect. She reports she is worried and asks the nurse more about the condition. Which statement by the parents best indicates an understanding of the nurse's teaching? A)"This greatly places my son at risk for cardiac failure." B)"If this does not resolve by the time my child is 1 year old he will likely need surgery." C)"Most of the time this condition spontaneously resolves." D)"Since the surgery to correct this condition can be risky my son will need to be at least 40 pounds."

C. "Most of the time this condition spontaneously resolves." Atrial septal defects in children most likely resolve without treatment. Those that are not corrected by the age of 18 months will likely require surgical intervention. When planned, surgery is not usually performed until the child is at least 3 years of age. There is no indication other problems are present so the child is not at an increased risk for cardiac failure.

13. A nurse develops a plan of care for a child that includes patching the eye. This plan of care would be most appropriate for which condition? A) Astigmatism B) Hyperopia C) Myopia D) Amblyopia

D) Amblyopia Eye patching is used for amblyopia or any condition that results in one eye being weaker than the other. Corrective lenses would be appropriate for astigmatism, hyperopia, and myopia.

6. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old boy with infectious conjunctivitis. Which intervention would be least appropriate to include in the child's plan of care? A) Rinsing the eye with cool water B) Educating the family about the disease C) Encouraging frequent hand washing D) Promoting eye safety

D) Promoting eye safety Promoting eye safety would be appropriate if the child had an eye injury. Rinsing the eye with cool water, educating the family about the disorder, and encouraging frequent hand washing are interventions for infectious conjunctivitis.

26. A group of students are reviewing information about the anatomic differences in the eyes and ears of a child in comparison to an adult. The students demonstrate a need for additional study when they identify which of the following? A) Hearing is completely developed at the time of birth. B) Visual acuity develops from birth throughout childhood. C) Binocular vision is usually achieved by 2 months of age. D) The ability to discriminate colors is completed by birth.

D) The ability to discriminate colors is completed by birth. The optic nerve is not completely myelinated at birth, so color discrimination is incomplete. Hearing is intact at birth and visual acuity develops from birth throughout childhood. Binocular vision is achieved by 4 months of age.

A 4-year-old boy has a history of seizures and has been started on a ketogenic diet. Which food selection would be most appropriate for his lunch? A) Fried eggs, bacon, and iced tea B) A hamburger on a bun, French fries, and milk C) Spaghetti with meatballs, garlic bread, and a cola drink D) A grilled cheese sandwich, potato chips, and a milkshake

Fried eggs, bacon, and iced tea The ketogenic diet involves a high intake of fats, adequate protein intake, and a very low intake of carbohydrates, resulting in a state of ketosis. The child is kept in a mild state of dehydration. Eggs and bacon are high in fat; the tea does not contain any carbohydrates. Therefore, this is the best choice. The hamburger is fat and protein, the bun is a carbohydrate, and the French fries and the milk both contain fat and protein, but both contain a lot of carbohydrates. The pasta and the sauce for the spaghetti are carbohydrates, the meatballs are protein, and the garlic bread is a carbohydrate, as is the cola drink. The grilled cheese sandwich has the fat and protein from the cheese, but the bread and chips are primarily carbohydrates, and the milkshake has fat, protein, and carbohydrates. Only the selection in A contains a ketogenic meal.

The nurse knows that children have larger heads in relation to the body and a higher center of gravity. When developing a teaching plan for parents, the nurse includes information about an increased risk for which problem? A) Febrile seizures B) Head trauma C) Caput succedaneum D) Posterior plagiocephaly

Head trauma The larger head size in relation to the body, coupled with a higher center of gravity, causes children to hit their head more readily when involved in motor vehicle accidents, bicycle accidents, and falls. Febrile seizures are not related to anatomy or physiology. Caput succedaneum is an edematous area on the scalp caused by pressure of the uterus or vagina during head-first delivery. Posterior plagiocephaly is caused by early closure of the lamboid suture.

The nurse is caring for a child hospitalized with Reye syndrome who is in the acute stage of the illness. The nurse would assess the child most carefully for what finding? A) Indications of increased intracranial pressure B) An increase in the blood glucose level C) A decrease in the liver enzymes D) A presence of protein in the urine

Indications of increased intracranial pressure Reye syndrome is characterized by brain swelling, liver failure, and death in hours if treatment is not initiated. Therefore, increased intracranial pressure could occur. Liver enzyme levels typically increase. Blood glucose levels and protein in the urine are not characteristic of this illness.

When providing care to a newborn infant who was born at 29 weeks' gestation, the nurse integrates knowledge of potential complications, being alert for signs and symptoms of what condition? A) Neonatal conjunctivitis B) Facial deformities C) Intracranial hemorrhage D) Incomplete myelinization

Intracranial hemorrhage Premature infants have more fragile capillaries in the periventricular area than term infants, which puts them at greater risk for intracranial hemorrhage. Neonatal conjunctivitis can occur in any newborn during birth and is caused by viruses, bacteria, or chemicals. Facial deformities are typical of babies of alcoholic mothers. Incomplete myelinization is present in all newborns.

A group of students are reviewing information about head injuries in children. The students demonstrate understanding of this information when they identify what as the most common type of skull fracture in children? A) Linear B) Depressed C) Diastatic D) Basilar

Linear The most common type of skull fracture in children is a linear skull fracture, which can result from minor head injuries. Other, less common types of skull fractures in children include depressed, diastatic, and basilar.

Hydrocephalus is suspected in a 4-month-old infant. Which would the nurse expect to assess? A) Sunken fontanels B) Diminished reflexes C) Lower extremity spasticity D) Skull symmetry

Lower extremity spasticity Hydrocephalus is manifested by spasticity of lower extremities, bulging fontanels, brisk reflexes, and skull asymmetry.

A group of nursing students are reviewing information related to seizures that occur in infants and children. The students demonstrate a need for additional review when they identify which type as common in neonates? A) Tonic B) Focal clonic C) Multifocal clonic D) Myoclonic

Myoclonic Five major types of seizures have been recognized in the neonatal period: subtle, tonic, focal clonic, multifocal clonic, and myoclonic. Of these, myoclonic seizures rarely occur during the neonatal period. Subtle seizures affect preterm and full-term neonates. Tonic seizures primarily occur in preterm neonates. Focal clonic and multifocal clonic are more common in full-term neonates.

The nurse assesses a child's level of consciousness, noting that the child falls asleep unless he is stimulated. The nurse documents this finding as: A) Confusion B) Obtunded C) Stupor D) Coma

Obtunded Obtunded is a state in which the child has limited responses to the environment and falls asleep unless stimulation is provided. Confusion involves disorientation; the child may be alert but responds inappropriately to questions. Stupor exists when the child responds only to vigorous stimulation. Coma is a state in which the child cannot be aroused even with painful stimuli.

A nurse is preparing a school-aged child for a lumbar puncture. The nurse would expect to position the child in which manner? A) On her side with the head flexed forward and knees flexed to the abdomen B) Sitting upright with the head flexed forward to the chest C) Supine with arms and legs pronated and extended D) Prone with the arms flexed under the chest

On her side with the head flexed forward and knees flexed to the abdomen When a lumbar puncture is performed on a child, the child is placed on his or her side with the head flexed forward and knees flexed to the abdomen. An infant would be positioned sitting upright with the head flexed forward. A supine position with the arms and legs pronated and extended suggests decerebrate posturing. A prone position is not used for a lumbar puncture.

A child with increased intracranial pressure is being treated with hyperventilation. The nurse understands the need for this treatment is based on what? A) PaCO2 levels decrease, causing vasoconstriction. B) Drainage of cerebrospinal fluid occurs. C) Activity is controlled via a stimulator. D) Hyperexcitability of the nerves is reduced.

PaCO2 levels decrease, causing vasoconstriction. Hyperventilation decreases PaCO2, which results in vasoconstriction and therefore decreases intracranial pressure. A shunt would allow for drainage of cerebrospinal fluid. A vagal nerve stimulator is used to provide an appropriate dose of stimulation to manage seizure activity. Anticonvulsants decrease the hyperexcitability of nerves.

What finding would lead the nurse to suspect that a child is beginning to develop increased intracranial pressure? A) Bradycardia B) Cheyne-Stokes respirations C) Fixed, dilated pupils D) Projectile vomiting

Projectile vomiting Projectile vomiting is an early sign of increased intracranial pressure. Bradycardia, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, and fixed dilated pupils are late signs of increased intracranial pressure.

A 4-year-old boy has a febrile seizure during a well-child visit. What action would be a priority? A) Hyperextending the child's head while placing him on his side B) Using a tongue blade to pry open the child's jaw C) Loosening the child's clothing to ensure a patent airway D) Protecting the child from harm during the seizure

Protecting the child from harm during the seizure During a seizure, the child should not be held down in a specific position. Protecting the child's head and body during the seizure is the priority. Ensuring a patent airway is an important intervention but is not accomplished by loosening the child's clothing or hyperextending his head. The child should be placed on his side and nothing should be inserted into his mouth to forcibly open the jaw.

A nurse is preparing a presentation for a local health fair about meningitis and has developed a display that lists the following causes: Streptococcus group B Haemophilus influenzae type B Streptococcus pneumoniae Neisseria meningitidis What would the nurse highlight as the most common cause of meningitis in newborns? A) Streptococcus group B B) Haemophilus influenzae type B C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Neisseria meningitides

Streptococcus group B Meningitis due to Streptococcus group B along with Escherichia coli is most common in newborns and infants. H. influenzae type B is a common cause in infants between the ages of 6 and 9 months. S. pneumoniae and N. meningitides are common causes in children older than 3 months and in adults.

A 16-year-old boy reports to the school nurse of headaches and a stiff neck. Which sign or symptom would alert the nurse that the child may have bacterial meningitis? A) Fixed and dilated pupils B) Frequent urination C) Sunset eyes D) Sunlight is "too bright"

Sunlight is "too bright" Photophobia, or intolerance of light, is another symptom of bacterial meningitis. Fixed and dilated pupils are a symptom of head trauma and warrant prompt intervention. Frequent urination is a symptom of a type I Arnold-Chiari malformation. Sunset eyes indicate increased intracranial pressure typical of hydrocephalus.

A 10-year-old boy is seen in the emergency department after falling down a flight of stairs and hitting his head. The child will be monitored overnight for complications. Which occurrence in the coming hours will warrant further assessment? A) The child reports a backache. B) The child is increasingly irritable with his mother and caregivers. C) The child refuses offers of snacks. D) The child reports his stomach is upset.

The child is increasingly irritable with his mother and caregivers. After a head injury the patient should be closely observed for neurological changes. Behavioral changes such as lethargy and irritability should be evaluated for the potential development of complications.