Pendergast VTNE

344. The visceral layer of the peritoneum covers which organ? a. Digestive b. Urinary c. Reproductive d. All of the above

d. All of the above

133. The average weight of an adult chinchilla ranges between: a. 400 g-600 g b. 200 g-400 g c. 600 g-900 g d. 800 g-1200 g

a. 400 g-600 g

30. Total blood volume in the reptilian patient is approximately what percentage of the body weight? a. 5%-8% b. 4%-6% c. 8%-10% d. 10%-12%

a. 5%-8%

103. When does the soft tissue phase occur in nuclear medicine? a. 5-10 minutes after injection b. Immediately during injection c. 2-3 hours after injection d. 48 hours after injection

a. 5-10 minutes after injection

54. Which of the following are daily maintenance fluid amounts for the avian patient? a. 50-60 mL/kg/day b. 10-20 mL/kg/day c. 75-100 mL/kg/day d. 100-150 mg/kg/day

a. 50-60 mL/kg/day

268. What is the gestational period for cats? a. 56- 69 days b. 271- 291 days c. 42 days d. 19- 20 days

a. 56- 69 days

583. How many cervical vertebrae do rabbits have? a. 7 b. 8 c. 13 d. 15

a. 7

297. With the exception of cats, most animals have a total blood volume equivalent to ___ of their body weight. a. 7% b. 15% c. 25% d. 40%

a. 7%

34. How many mammary glands are typically found on a bitch? a. 8- 12 b. 12- 14 c. 4- 6 d. 10- 16

a. 8- 12

249. A total of 99% of the domestic shorthair cats in the United States have which blood type? a. A b. B c. AB d. O

a. A

96. What NSAID is administered to cats with a dosing interval of 2 days or more? a. Aspirin b. Ibuprofen c. Carprofen d. Naproxen

a. Aspirin

421. Tums can be administered to supplement: a. Calcium b. Vitamin B c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin E

a. Calcium

254. In which portion of the kidney is the renal corpuscle located? a. Cortex b. Medulla c. Renal sinus d. Hilum

a. Cortex

139. Bilirubinuria is considered a normal finding in what species? a. Dogs b. Cats c. Horses d. Sheep

a. Dogs

331. Which species contains a bone within the penis that is known as the os penis? a. Dogs b. Cats c. Horses d. Ruminants

a. Dogs

361. What are chemicals that dissolve or mix well in water called? a. Hydrophilic b. Hydrophobic c. Solute d. Solvent

a. Hydrophilic

26. Which of the following is not present in the reptilian urinary system? a. Loop of Henle b. Nephrons c. Glomerulus d. Ureters

a. Loop of Henle

46. What size of power outlet is required to run a digital dental unit? a. 70 kV b. 110 V c. 110 kV d. 8 mA

b. 110 V

53. What percentage of body weight can be tube fed at any given time to a bird? a. 2% b. 5% c. 10% d. 12%

b. 5%

432. Glucosamine/Chondroitin is a nutraceutical that is used to treat: a. Anemia b. Arthritis c. Pruritus d. Urinary incontinence

b. Arthritis

367. Otodectes cynotis is a: a. Cestode b. Arthropod c. Nematode d. Trematode

b. Arthropod

306. What is the formation called when one bone connects to another bone by articulation? a. Hinge b. Arthrosis c. Cartilage d. Ossification

b. Arthrosis

241. The term for accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity is: a. Pleural effusion b. Ascites c. Abscess d. Pneumothorax

b. Ascites

631. The sacrum of dogs is cranial to what structure? a. Ligamentum nuchae b. Coccygeal c. Lumbar vertebrae d. Atlas

b. Coccygeal

529. The pygostyle found in birds is located distal to which of the following? a. Sternum b. Coccygeal vertebrae c. Tibiotarsus d. Hallux

b. Coccygeal vertebrae

337. What test is routinely used to diagnose equine infectious anemia? a. Indirect fluorescent antibody test b. Coggins test c. Coombs test d. Hemoglobin electrophoresis

b. Coggins test

652. Amphibians and reptiles are commonly referred to as ectothermic, which is correctly described by which of the following? a. Warm-blooded b. Cold-blooded c. Endothermic d. Behavioral thermoregulation

b. Cold-blooded

227. Before beginning other diagnostics of the urine, a ___ examination of urine is recommended. a. Darkfield b. Gross c. Taste d. Microscopic

b. Gross

45. Thiobarbiturates should be administered with great care, or not at all, to: a. Collies b. Greyhounds c. Rottweilers d. Spaniels

b. Greyhounds

388. Which nucleotide occurs in both DNA and RNA? a. Thiamine b. Guanine c. Uracil d. Thymine

b. Guanine

149. Scatter radiation has a ____________ wavelength than the primary beam used in an x-ray. a. Shorter b. Longer c. Wider d. Thinner

b. Longer

252. What is the basic functional unit of the kidney? a. Cortex b. Nephron c. Bowman's capsule d. Loop of Henle

b. Nephron

280. Which of the following is the basic functional unit of the kidneys? a. Cortex b. Nephron c. Medulla d. Renal pelvis

b. Nephron

173. In what type of blood cell can Döhle bodies be found? a. Erythrocytes b. Neutrophils c. Platelets d. Nucleated RBCs

b. Neutrophils

83. What special stain would be used in assessing anemia? a. Lactophenol cotton blue b. New methylene blue c. Gram d. Acridine orange

b. New methylene blue

129. Oral hypoglycemic drugs, such as glipizide (Glucotrol), are used to treat: a. Diabetic ketoacidosis b. Non-insulin-dependent diabetes c. Hypoglycemia d. Pancreatitis

b. Non-insulin-dependent diabetes

116. The term rostral refers to toward the ___________. a. Head b. Nose c. Tail d. Middle

b. Nose

18. A hospital-acquired disease is known as: a. Endemic b. Nosocomial c. Ergasteric d. Iatrogenic

b. Nosocomial

92. Crystals in urine sediment often indicate: a. Uroliths b. Nothing c. Inflammation d. Urethral blockage

b. Nothing

182. A skin scraping will diagnose which parasite? a. Bovicola b. Notoedres c. Otodectes d. Ctenocephalides

b. Notoedres

386. The molecular building blocks of nucleic acids are known as: a. Chromosomes b. Nucleotides c. Proteins d. Carbohydrates

b. Nucleotides

626. Which bone is the most caudal bone of the skull in small animals? a. Parietal bone b. Occipital bone c. Interparietal bone d. Temporal bone

b. Occipital bone

203. For a lateromedial view of the tarsal joint of a horse, the cassette should be placed in which position? a. On the lateral surface b. On the medial surface c. On the plantar surface d. On the plantaromedial surface

b. On the medial surface

261. Which of the following best defines the term cryptorchidism? a. Torsion of one or both testicles b. One or both testes do not fully descend into the scrotum c. The surgical removal of both testicles d. An inflammatory condition of the testis

b. One or both testes do not fully descend into the scrotum

238. When using a centrifuge, it is important to do all of the following each time it is used, except: a. Balance the tubes b. Open the lid as the centrifuge is in the process of stopping c. Set the timer d. Check tube holders for leaked liquid

b. Open the lid as the centrifuge is in the process of stopping

65. In the avian patient, what is the choana? a. Part of the urinary system where the ureter connects to the kidney b. Opening at the roof of the mouth that connects the trachea to sinuses and the nares c. The common holding area for urine, urates, and feces before being excreted from the body d. Small metacarpal bone in the distal wing

b. Opening at the roof of the mouth that connects the trachea to sinuses and the nares

433. What area is known as the blind spot of the eye? a. Optic nerve b. Optic disc c. Rod d. Cone

b. Optic disc

427. Which of the following contains receptor cells for hearing? a. Tympanic membrane b. Organ of Corti c. Vestibule d. Incus

b. Organ of Corti

379. Which type of diuretic is used to treat increased intracranial pressure? a. Loop b. Osmotic c. Potassium-sparing d. Thiazide

b. Osmotic

394. Which of the following ticks is considered a single host tick? a. Boophilus annulatus b. Otobius megnini c. Ixodid sp. d. Argasidae sp.

b. Otobius megnini

406. What parasite completes its life cycle on or in its host? a. Ctenocephalides species b. Otodectes species c. Hypoderma species d. Dermacentor species

b. Otodectes species

85. The mesovarium ligament supports which organ? a. Testicles b. Ovaries c. Oviduct d. Uterus

b. Ovaries

135. Which of the following could cause a false diagnosis of a pneumothorax on a radiograph? a. Underexposure of film b. Overexposure of film c. Panting d. Motion artifacts

b. Overexposure of film

522. During the estrus phase of the mare, which of the following occurs? a. Follicle development b. Ovulation c. Secretion of estrogen d. Estrus does not occur in the mare

b. Ovulation

138. Which of the following diets is most appropriate for a ferret? a. Oxbow Herbivore Care b. Oxbow Carnivore Care c. Ground alfalfa pellets d. Sweet potato baby food

b. Oxbow Carnivore Care

105. The reproductive organ in the male lizard consists of: a. Single phallus b. Paired hemipenes c. External testicles d. Bilobed phallus

b. Paired hemipenes

319. Which of the following is derived from the testicular veins, surrounds the testicular artery, and are described as multiple tiny veins? a. Spermatic cord b. Pampiniform plexus c. Cremaster plexus d. Vas deferens

b. Pampiniform plexus

112. The small intestine receives digestive enzymes from the: a. Kidney b. Pancreas c. Liver d. Spleen

b. Pancreas

80. The islets of Langerhans are found in the: a. Spleen b. Pancreas c. Liver d. Kidney

b. Pancreas

142. The only dental radiographic view that can be made with a true parallel technique is: a. Rostral maxillary b. Parallel mandibular view c. Rostral mandibular view d. Parallel oblique view

b. Parallel mandibular view

329. Which of these parasites is a tapeworm? a. Strongyloides westeri b. Paranoplocephala mamillana c. Parascaris equorum d. Oxyuris equi

b. Paranoplocephala mamillana

265. Eosinophilia is commonly seen with a: a. Bacterial infection b. Parasitic infection c. Viral infection d. Hormonal disorder

b. Parasitic infection

417. Spinal nerves from the sacral region carry which type of nerve fiber? a. Sympathetic nerve fibers b. Parasympathetic nerve fibers c. Both d. Neither

b. Parasympathetic nerve fibers

159. The hormone primarily responsible for preventing hypocalcemia is: a. T4 b. Parathyroid hormone c. Calcitonin d. Vitamin D

b. Parathyroid hormone

185. Which of the following options is not zoonotic? a. Toxoplasma b. Parvovirus c. Dipylidium d. Giardia

b. Parvovirus

177. Which of the following is the best technique to consider for an abdominal x-ray? a. Peak inspiration b. Peak expiration c. Panting d. Consideration of breathing techniques is not necessary for abdominal x-rays

b. Peak expiration

548. The vitreous humor in the posterior chamber of the eye contains a ribbonlike structure attached to the retina, and it is known as what? a. Nictitating membrane b. Pecten c. Third eyelid d. Optic nerve

b. Pecten

205. A skull suture is an example of what type of joint? a. Diarthrosis b. Synarthrosis c. Amphiarthrosis d. Cartilaginous

b. Synarthrosis

358. Which type of chemical reaction occurs in the body when the simple molecules absorbed during the digestive process are joined into larger molecules needed by cells for life processes? a. Decomposition reaction b. Synthesis reaction c. Exchange reaction d. None of the above

b. Synthesis reaction

553. The combined effect of air passing through the larynx and what other structure produces the characteristic sounds associated with the bird species? a. Glottis b. Syrinx c. Bronchi d. Choana

b. Syrinx

218. Which circulation system is under the highest pressure? a. Coronary circulation b. Systemic circulation c. Pulmonary circulation d. All of the circulatory systems are under the same pressure

b. Systemic circulation

281. A drug's package insert states that the drug is an anticestodal. Against what type of parasite will this drug be effective? a. Ascarids (Toxocara, Toxascaris) b. Tapeworms (Taenia) c. Protozoa (Eimeria, Giardia) d. Flukes (liver fluke, lung fluke)

b. Tapeworms (Taenia)

282. What cell is described as a central rounded area of hemoglobin surrounded by a clear zone, with a dense ring of hemoglobin around the periphery? a. Plasma cell b. Target cell c. Spherocyte d. Reticulocyte

b. Target cell

164. An example of a short bone would be a: a. Vertebra b. Tarsal bone c. Scapula d. Patella

b. Tarsal bone

84. What is the term used to describe a medical magnet's field strength? a. Gauss b. Tesla c. Polarity d. Precession

b. Tesla

22. Nonrenal causes of increased levels of urea might include: a. The amount of carbohydrate ingested b. The amount of protein ingested c. Insufficient insulin d. Insufficient ADH

b. The amount of protein ingested

386. Regarding the concentration of a solution, molality is known as: a. The number of moles per liter of solution b. The amount of solute per kilogram of solvent c. The grams per liter of solution d. The number of solute particles per liter

b. The amount of solute per kilogram of solvent

340. The dorsal body cavity contains which of the following structures? a. Brain b. Chest c. Spinal cord d. Both a and c

d. Both a and c

234. Which of the following is known as the largest gland in the body? a. Pancreas b. Thyroid c. Liver d. Spleen

b. Thyroid

173. Adult cattle have how many upper incisors? a. 6 b. 4 c. 0 d. 5

c. 0

150. What is the typical wavelength of a medical x-ray? a. 0.05-0.01 mm b. 0.05-0.01 m c. 0.05-0.01 nm d. 0.05-0.01 dm

c. 0.05-0.01 nm

428. What is the maximum rate at which you can administer IV potassium? a. 0.9 mEq/kg/hr b. 1.0 mEq/kg/hr c. 0.5 mEq/kg/hr d. 0.7 mEq/kg/hr

c. 0.5 mEq/kg/hr

20. Pulse wave imaging can detect velocities up to a maximum of __________ m/s. a. 0.5 b. 1.0 c. 1.4 d. 2.2

c. 1.4

31. Total blood volume in the avian patient is approximately what percentage of the body weight? a. 5% b. 7% c. 10% d. 12%

c. 10%

191. During an x-ray, a tabletop technique is most commonly used for exotic companion animals, except when the species' girth exceeds which diameter? a. 2-5 cm b. 5-10 cm c. 10-12 cm d. 12-15 cm

c. 10-12 cm

451. Atipamezole, when administered SC to rabbits, can reverse the effects of medetomidine within: a. 2-5 minutes b. 5-10 minutes c. 10-25 minutes d. 25-30 minutes

c. 10-25 minutes

607. At what age do the testes descend in the rabbit? a. Less than 10 days b. 8 weeks c. 12 weeks d. Rabbits' testes do not descend

c. 12 weeks

523. How long does the diestrus phase of the mare last? a. 7- 21 days b. 3- 5 days c. 14- 16 days d. 35 days

c. 14- 16 days

8. What is the speed of sound through fat tissue? a. 330 m/s b. 600 m/s c. 1460 m/s d. 1480 m/s

c. 1460 m/s

521. How long does the typical estrous cycle last in the mare? a. 5- 7 days b. 7- 14 days c. 17- 21 days d. 23- 31 days

c. 17- 21 days

443. How many ribs does the horse have? a. 5 b. 15 c. 18 d. 6

c. 18

348. In assessing titers, how long after the first serum sample is collected should the second sample be collected? a. 7 days b. 3 days c. 2 to 6 weeks d. 14 weeks

c. 2 to 6 weeks

512. At what age do the male testicles of the horse reach their full adult size? a. 6 months b. 1 year c. 2 years d. 5 years

c. 2 years

593. What is the average litter size of rabbits? a. 1- 2 b. 2- 3 c. 2- 7 d. 6- 12

c. 2- 7

435. What is the appropriate amount of time needed for antibiotics to dissolve struvite crystals? a. 3-5 days b. 10-14 days c. 2-3 months d. 6 months

c. 2-3 months

360. The doctor asks you to fill oral metronidazole, 10 mg/kg po BID for 7 days. The dog weighs 37.5 kg and you have 250-mg tablets available in the hospital. How many tablets do you fill? a. 7 b. 14 c. 21 d. 42

c. 21

304. How many milligrams are in each milliliter of a 24% solution? a. 24 b. 2.4 c. 240 d. 0.24

c. 240

255. Approximately what percentage of blood, pumped by the heart, goes to the kidneys? a. 5% b. 10% c. 25% d. 60%

c. 25%

281. What percentage of blood pumped from the heart travels to the kidneys? a. 1% b. 10% c. 25% d. 50%

c. 25%

6. Ten mL of a 2.5% solution of thiopentone contains: a. 2.5 mg of thiopentone b. 25 mg of thiopentone c. 250 mg of thiopentone d. 2500 mg of thiopentone

c. 250 mg of thiopentone

258. The ureters are composed of how many layers? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

c. 3

293. How many different cell shapes are found within the epithelial cells? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

c. 3

528. Most birds have _______ toes pointing forward. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. None

c. 3

568. How many lobes does the pancreas of birds have? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. None, birds do not have a pancreas

c. 3

358. The doctor ordered a patient to receive Unasyn, 1200 mg IV. After reconstitution, the Unasyn has a concentration of 375 mg/mL. How many mL will you administer? a. 0.31 mL b. 1.2 mL c. 3.2 mL d. 6.4 mL

c. 3.2 mL

310. Generally, 1 fluid ounce is equal to approximately how many milliliters of liquid? a. 1 b. 15 c. 30 d. 60

c. 30

34. When performing urinalysis testing, the sample should be analyzed within ___ minutes, or refrigeration is required. a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40

c. 30

138. How long should veterinary facilities maintain dosimetry reports? a. 5 years b. 20 years c. 30 years d. 1 year following separation of an employee

c. 30 years

619. After mating occurs in ferrets, ovulation occurs within: a. 30 minutes b. 1- 2 hours c. 30- 40 hours d. 3 days

c. 30- 40 hours

126. What is the range of the gestational period in a rabbit? a. 30-35 days b. 34-38 days c. 31-32 days d. 28-30 days

c. 31-32 days

52. A computer tomography x-ray tube can rotate how many degrees? a. 270 degrees b. 180 degrees c. 360 degrees d. None, it does not rotate

c. 360 degrees

345. The animal body is made up of ________ different tissues. a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8

c. 4

594. What is the weaning age of rabbits? a. 6- 8 weeks b. 3- 4 weeks c. 4- 6 weeks d. 18 days

c. 4- 6 weeks

206. Which breed of dog has the most problems with uric acid stones? a. Basenji b. German shepherd c. Dalmatian d. Shetland sheepdog

c. Dalmatian

18. The benzodiazepine derivative diazepam is often administered in combination with: a. Droperidol b. Morphine c. Ketamine d. Xylazine

c. Ketamine

384. L-asparaginase, a chemotherapeutic, is used most commonly for: a. Hemangiosarcoma b. Mast cell tumors c. Lymphoma d. Osteosarcoma

c. Lymphoma

648. The digestion of absorbed material is performed by which organelle? a. Peroxisomes b. Ribosomes c. Lysosomes d. Mitochondria

c. Lysosomes

70. Which of the red blood cell indices indicates cell size? a. MCH b. MCHC c. MCV d. MPV

c. MCV

9. The control of color changes in the pigment cells of reptiles, fish, and amphibians is associated with which hormone? a. FSH b. LH c. MSH d. TSH

c. MSH

643. Which of the following is the most proximal bone of the thoracic limb? a. Ulna b. Humerus c. Scapula d. Brachium

c. Scapula

405. Macrolides inhibit bacterial ribosomal action by binding which subunit? a. 30s b. 40s c. 50s d. 60s

50s

501. At what level of "fullness" does the horse's stomach empty? a. full b. full c. full d. Completely full

WTF?

112. The muscular layer that makes up the majority of the heart mass is the: a. Myocardium b. Endocardium c. Myometrium d. Pericardium

a Myocardium

417. Which statement concerning fleas is true? a. "Flea dirt" is flea feces b. Fleas are host specific c. Adults cannot survive for long periods without feeding d. Flea eggs are not sticky and they fall off into the environment

a. "Flea dirt" is flea feces

606. Rabbits have _______ renal medullary pyramid( s). a. 1 b. 2 c. 6 d. 9

a. 1

443. How quickly must slides evaluating bone marrow samples be made if EDTA is used? a. 1 hour b. Immediately c. 15 minutes d. EDTA cannot be used for bone marrow samples

a. 1 hour

495. How much are the occlusal surfaces worn down every year in the horse? a. 1- 2 mm b. 5- 10 mm c. 10- 20 mm d. None, they continuously grow and are never worn down

a. 1- 2 mm

220. In what animal is the use of enrofloxacin safest? a. 1-year-old Dutch rabbit b. 3-month-old Doberman puppy c. 6-month-old quarter horse colt d. 2-year-old Siamese cat

a. 1-year-old Dutch rabbit

142. Sasha, an 11-year-old spayed female domestic shorthair cat, was accidentally overhydrated with IV fluids. What would you expect her urine specific gravity to be? a. 1.002 b. 1.012 c. 1.030 d. 1.060

a. 1.002

140. Sadie, a 17-year-old spayed female domestic shorthair cat, is in the final stages of chronic renal failure. On presentation, you anticipate that her urine specific gravity will probably be a. 1.012 b. 1.030 c. 1.040 d. 1.060

a. 1.012

36. The average urine specific gravity for a healthy adult dog is __________. a. 1.025 b. 1.035 c. 1.040 d. 1.045

a. 1.025

127. What is the normal rectal temperature range in the rabbit? a. 101° F-104° F b. 99.5° F-102.5° F c. 100° F-103° F d. 98.5° F-100.5° F

a. 101° F-104° F

292. What do 15 gr and 10 g mean on a prescription? a. 15 grains and 10 grams b. 15 grains and 10 grains c. 15 grams and 10 grams d. 15 grams and 10 grains

a. 15 grains and 10 grams

208. To obtain a dorsopalmar view of the interphalangeal joint, what should the primary beam angle be proximal to distal? a. 15-20 degrees b. 30-45 degrees c. 45-60 degrees d. 90 degrees

a. 15-20 degrees

27. What is the maximum number of focal points that are recommended for use in ultrasound? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

a. 2

556. During the respiration process of birds, air circulates continuously and passes through the lungs ______ times. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

a. 2

363. Which of the following levels is considered the most acidic of the pH scale? a. 2.5 b. 5 c. 7 d. 12

a. 2.5

484. What is the normal heart rate for a horse at rest? a. 25- 42 bpm b. 40- 140 bpm c. 48- 84 bpm d. 260- 600 bpm

a. 25- 42 bpm

592. What is the gestational period of rabbits? a. 28- 32 days b. 111 days c. 63 days d. 19- 21 days

a. 28- 32 days

620. What is the average gestational period of a ferret? a. 28- 32 days b. 42 days c. 63 days d. 111 days

a. 28- 32 days

140. The proper diet in a ferret contains: a. 30%-40% protein and 15%-30% fat b. 50%-60% protein and 15%-30% fat c. 40%-50% protein and 15%-30% carbohydrates d. 25%-30% protein and 50% carbohydrates

a. 30%-40% protein and 15%-30% fat

42. What is the speed of sound through air? a. 330 m/s b. 600 m/s c. 1540 m/s d. 4080 m/s

a. 330 m/s

588. What is the normal respiratory rate of rabbits? a. 35- 60 breaths/ min b. 40- 80 breaths/ min c. 100- 250 breaths/ min d. 90- 150 breaths/ min

a. 35- 60 breaths/ min

28. Which of the following frequencies will allow for the deepest level of penetration in ultrasound? a. 4 MHz b. 5 MHz c. 9 MHz d. 12 MHz

a. 4 MHz

19. Leukopenia is defined as: a. A decrease in white blood cells b. An increase in white blood cells c. A bone marrow disease d. A type of blood cancer

a. A decrease in white blood cells

30. Horses typically have higher _____ values than other species. a. AST b. ALP c. ALT d. GGT

a. AST

122. What is the actual true stomach called in ruminants? a. Abomasum b. Reticulum c. Rumen d. Omasum

a. Abomasum

207. Keeping the urine ____________ will keep struvite crystals dissolved in solution. a. Acidic b. Basic c. Isosthenuric d. Dilute

a. Acidic

196. A cat is given methionine to alter the pH of his urine in an effort to dissolve his struvite stones. The drug has which of the following intended effects? a. Acidification of the urine b. Alkalinization of the urine c. Dilution of urine d. Concentration of the urine

a. Acidification of the urine

337. In a dog with a bite wound on the forelimb, which of the following will increase blood flow and thus delivery of a drug to the area of interest? a. Acute inflammation b. Shock c. Necrosis d. Hemorrhage

a. Acute inflammation

346. An owner gives you a list of products and asks you which is most likely to prevent her dog from acquiring Rocky Mountain spotted fever. What would you advise her? a. Advantix b. Heartgard c. Revolution d. Interceptor

a. Advantix

324. A drug's tendency to bind to a receptor is called its: a. Affinity b. Efficacy c. Specificity d. Effective dose

a. Affinity

11. Where should the cassette be held when obtaining a dorsomedial-palmarolateral oblique view of the carpus of a horse? a. Against the palmarolateral aspect of the leg b. Against the medial aspect of the leg c. Against the palmaromedial aspect of the leg d. Against the palmar aspect of the carpus

a. Against the palmarolateral aspect of the leg

209. Which of the following clinical tests may be influenced when a toxic dose of acetaminophen has been ingested? a. Alanine aminotransferase b. Ammonia c. Blood pH d. Calcium

a. Alanine aminotransferase

254. In dogs and cats, the blood chemistry tests most commonly used to evaluate liver function are: a. Alanine transaminase and aspartate aminotransferase b. Electrolytes and blood urea nitrogen c. Gamma-glutamyl transferase and sorbitol dehydrogenase d. Amylase and lipase

a. Alanine transaminase and aspartate aminotransferase

413. An intestinal fluke is of the: a. Alaria species b. Fascioloides species c. Stephanurus species d. Metastrongylus species

a. Alaria species

314. Which of the following medications was approved for use in the United States in 2014 and is being compared to propofol? a. Alfaxalone b. Etomidate c. Thiopental d. Telazol

a. Alfaxalone

50. Intradermal injections are used primarily for: a. Allergy testing b. Antibiotics c. Insulin d. Vaccinations

a. Allergy testing

48. Which endocrine cells of the pancreatic islets produce the hormone glucagon? a. Alpha cells b. Beta cells c. Delta cells d. Somatostatin

a. Alpha cells

530. Which of the following structures is the first digit in birds? a. Alula b. Major metacarpal c. Tarsometatarsus d. Hallux.

a. Alula

93. Which of the following species lacks an epiglottis? a. Amazon parrot b. German shepherd c. Persian cat d. New Zealand white rabbit

a. Amazon parrot

62. In what class of antibiotic drugs are nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity potential side effects? a. Aminoglycosides b. Barbiturates c. Dissociative anesthetics d. Phenothiazine tranquilizers

a. Aminoglycosides

162. Which of the following drugs is used to treat feline hypertension? a. Amlodipine b. Erythromycin c. Amitriptyline d. Atropine

a. Amlodipine

60. Serum chemistry tests for acute pancreatitis include: a. Amylase and lipase b. Lipase and trypsin c. Amylase and trypsin d. Amylase, lipase, and trypsin

a. Amylase and lipase

266. When an animal is said to be in a period of temporary ovarian inactivity, this is known as: a. Anestrus b. Diestrus c. Pseudocyesis d. Heat

a. Anestrus

205. Antimicrobial drugs that work against bacterial deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) have the potential for causing birth defects or other problems in the host animal if they also alter mammalian DNA. One group of antimicrobial agents known for this tendency is: a. Antifungals b. Antibacterials c. Antivirals d. Antiprotozoals

a. Antifungals

6. An iodine scrub on skin would result in: a. Antisepsis b. Disinfection c. Fumigation d. Sterilization

a. Antisepsis

74. Butorphanol tartrate is an example of a drug that functions on more than one body system. It is both an analgesic and a(n) ________. a. Antitussive b. Expectorant c. Tranquilizer d. Emetic

a. Antitussive

265. What type of medication is sucralfate (Carafate)? a. Antiulcer b. Antidiarrheal c. Antibloat d. Anticonstipation

a. Antiulcer

100. Which of the following is not a controlled substance? a. Apomorphine b. Diazepam c. Ketamine d. Hydromorphone

a. Apomorphine

64. What does the acronym ALARA stand for? a. As low as reasonably achievable b. Animal limited anatomical radiation assessment c. As large as radiation accepts d. None of the above

a. As low as reasonably achievable

271. Which of the following is most likely to cause gastrointestinal ulcerations? a. Aspirin b. Deracoxib c. Carprofen d. Meloxicam

a. Aspirin

150. A client is advised to discontinue aspirin therapy in his dysplastic dog before the dog undergoes surgery to remove a mammary tumor. The client asks you why this request was made. You tell him: a. Aspirin decreases platelet aggregation and may increase the likelihood of hemorrhage b. Aspirin may result in gastrointestinal ulceration c. Aspirin may adversely affect hepatic biotransformation d. Aspirin has an anti-inflammatory effect

a. Aspirin decreases platelet aggregation and may increase the likelihood of hemorrhage

255. To obtain a lateral projection of the pelvis, which area should be used for measurement? a. At the highest level of the trochanter b. The thickest part of the pelvis c. The thinnest part of the pelvis d. The level of the 7th vertebrae

a. At the highest level of the trochanter

79. The P wave component of a QRS complex usually corresponds to: a. Atrial contraction b. Ventricular contraction c. Atrial relaxation d. Electrical conduction in Purkinje fibers

a. Atrial contraction

490. On an electrocardiogram, the P wave is most closely associated with: a. Atrial depolarization b. Atrial repolarization c. Ventricular depolarization d. Ventricular repolarization

a. Atrial depolarization

2. All of the following are important functions of bacterial fimbriae, except: a. Attachment b. Locomotion c. Ion transport d. Antibiotic resistance

a. Attachment

158. Kidney disease results in accumulation of metabolic waste in the blood, a condition known as: a. Azotemia b. Bilirubinemia c. Hypernatremia d. Hyperkalemia

a. Azotemia

319. What cells are chiefly concerned with the production and secretion of antibodies? a. B lymphocytes b. T lymphocytes c. Neutrophils d. Monocytes

a. B lymphocytes

48. What biochemical tests are not considered part of a primary hepatic profile? a. BUN and creatinine b. Cholestatic enzymes c. Hepatocellular leakage enzymes d. Total protein and albumin

a. BUN and creatinine

1. What is the morphology of Vibrio spp. bacteria? a. Bacillus b. Coccus c. Spirochete d. Coccobacillus

a. Bacillus

381. A large ciliate protozoa that may be found in swine feces is: a. Balantidium species b. Trichomonas species c. Giardia species d. Histomonas species

a. Balantidium species

183. Which contrast is commonly used for GI studies when perforation is not suspected? a. Barium sulfate b. Meglumine diatrizoate c. Sodium diatrizoate d. Betadine

a. Barium sulfate

474. Which of the following structures of the horse's hoof allows for expansion and provides strength? a. Bars b. Frog c. Sole d. Coronet

a. Bars

312. The trade name for diphenhydramine is: a. Benadryl b. Prozac c. Dulcolax d. Panacur

a. Benadryl

608. The female rabbit has which type of uterus? a. Bicornuate b. Didelphic c. Unicornuate d. Septate

a. Bicornuate

287. Which of the following is a breakdown product of hemoglobin? a. Bilirubin b. Erythropoietin c. Urea d. Carotene

a. Bilirubin

322. Cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) is associated with: a. Blood flow to the kidney b. Healing c. Inflammation d. Pain

a. Blood flow to the kidney

212. Which fluid sample is the major vehicle for the transporting of toxicants within the body? a. Blood/plasma b. Feces c. Hair d. Urine

a. Blood/plasma

68. Which of the following types of tissue absorb the most radiation? a. Bone b. Soft tissue c. Fat d. Bone, fat, and soft tissue absorb the same amount of radiation

a. Bone

178. What caudal landmark is used when obtaining a lateral x-ray of the pelvis? a. Border of the ischium b. Wings of the ilium c. The xiphoid process d. The greater trochanter of the femur

a. Border of the ischium

55. The etiologic agent of Lyme disease is: a. Borrelia burgdorferi b. Coronavirus c. Lentivirus d. Pasteurella multocida

a. Borrelia burgdorferi

542. For a bird to land, the tail is used as a __________, and the wings are extended into a stall position. a. Brake b. Guide c. Thrust d. Perch

a. Brake

15. What is the correct definition of the abbreviation B-mode in ultrasound? a. Brightness b. Bits c. Binary d. Power mode

a. Brightness

419. Aminophylline is known as a: a. Bronchodilator b. Decongestant c. Expectorant d. Mucolytic

a. Bronchodilator

240. Drugs used to increase airflow, through respiratory passageways narrowed by the relaxation of smooth muscle around them, are called: a. Bronchodilators b. Expectorants c. Antitussives d. Antihistamines

a. Bronchodilators

125. Male rabbits are referred to as: a. Bucks b. Hobbs c. Toms d. Colts

a. Bucks

380. Which of the following medications is an opioid? a. Buprenorphine b. Carprofen c. Lidocaine d. Naloxone

a. Buprenorphine

58. A drug that has extreme potential for abuse and no approved medicinal purpose in the United States is classified as: a. C-I b. C-II c. C-IV d. C-V

a. C-I

187. Which of the following clinical signs may indicate that an animal is experiencing lidocaine toxicity? a. CNS signs: drowsiness, ataxia, muscle tremors b. Renal signs: oliguria c. Hepatic signs: jaundice, clotting problems d. Respiratory signs: labored respirations, bronchoconstriction

a. CNS signs: drowsiness, ataxia, muscle tremors

215. Which of the following is not considered an electrolyte? a. Calcium b. Sodium c. Potassium d. Chloride

a. Calcium

146. In an animal with a history of bone resorption or convulsions, blood chemistry analysis is commonly performed to measure blood levels of: a. Calcium and phosphorus b. Urea nitrogen and creatinine c. Aspartate aminotransferase and alanine transaminase d. Sodium and potassium

a. Calcium and phosphorus

313. Which of the following will not be used to decrease the potassium in a cat with a urethral obstruction? a. Calcium gluconate b. Dextrose c. Insulin d. Sodium bicarbonate

a. Calcium gluconate

4. Which of the listed diseases best fits the statement that follows?It is most commonly transmitted by aerosol exposure, but it can also be spread by direct contact with conjunctival and nasal exudates, urine, feces, skin, and sometimes fomites. The incubation period is generally 7 to 10 days in the ferret. The disease spreads by viremia after it is in the body, and it is almost always fatal. a. Canine distemper virus b. Influenza B c. Pneumocystis carinii d. Cryptococcosis

a. Canine distemper virus

444. Which of the following can affect drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination? a. Cardiac disease b. Kidney disease c. Liver disease d. Pancreatic disease

a. Cardiac disease

136. The best urine collection method to assess the patency of the urethra is: a. Catheterization b. Manual expression c. Free catch d. Cystocentesis

a. Catheterization

305. Haemobartonella felis is seen most commonly in the erythrocytes of: a. Cats b. Cattle c. Dogs d. Horses

a. Cats

424. What species should receive prednisolone instead of prednisone? a. Cats b. Cows c. Dogs d. Swine

a. Cats

120. Erythropoietin is primarily used in the following feline patients: a. Cats with anemia because of chronic renal failure b. Cats with anemia resulting from rodenticide toxicity c. Cats with aortic thromboembolism secondary to cardiomyopathy d. Cats suffering from Tylenol toxicity

a. Cats with anemia because of chronic renal failure

393. Bloat-Pac is indicated for frothy bloat in: a. Cattle b. Dogs c. Pigs d. Horses

a. Cattle

682. Which vein returns deoxygenated blood from the pelvic region, hind limbs, and abdominal viscera? a. Caudal vena cava b. Aorta c. Iliac veins d. Pulmonary vein

a. Caudal vena cava

33. Which of the following is the correct abbreviation to perform a caudalocranial radiograph? a. CdCr b. Dpa c. CrCd d. Cr

a. CdCr

120. Night feces in the rabbit are also referred to as: a. Cecotrophs b. Cecumliths c. Fusustrophs d. Colonoliths

a. Cecotrophs

504. All of the following are part of the small intestine, except: a. Cecum b. Duodenum c. Jejunum d. Ileum

a. Cecum

402. The mechanism of action of beta-lactams is interference with: a. Cell wall synthesis b. Protein synthesis c. The uptake of nutrients d. DNA synthesis

a. Cell wall synthesis

141. When obtaining a caudocranial view of the scapula of a small animal, where should the central ray be located? a. Center of the scapula b. Center of the humerus c. At the level of the eighth rib d. At the first thoracic vertebral body

a. Center of the scapula

213. To obtain a dorsoventral view of the thorax of a rabbit, where should the center of the beam be focused? a. Centered over the heart b. Centered over the liver c. Center of the body cranial to caudal d. Centered over the thoracolumbar area

a. Centered over the heart

15. What system is anatomically composed of the brain and spinal cord? a. Central nervous system b. Peripheral nervous system c. parasympathetic nervous system d. Sympathetic nervous system

a. Central nervous system

203. An example of an irregular bone is: a. Cervical vertebra 1 b. Metacarpal 3 c. Ulna d. Scapula

a. Cervical vertebra

79. The captive diet of sugar gliders includes all of the following except: a. Chicken b. Insects c. Fruits d. Nectar

a. Chicken

46. What drug is not used in the treatment of glaucoma? a. Chloramphenicol b. Carbachol c. Latanoprost d. Pilocarpine

a. Chloramphenicol

350. Which of the following should be avoided or at least diluted out 1 : 100 when cleaning an ear? a. Chlorhexidine b. Saline solution c. Vinegar and water d. Cleaning solution

a. Chlorhexidine

414. Plavix is the brand name for: a. Clopidogrel b. Nitroprusside c. Sildenafil d. Tadalafil

a. Clopidogrel

86. Which of the following is the causative agent of Tyzzer's disease? a. Clostridium piliforme b. Escherichia coli c. Lawsonia intracellularis d. Francisella tularensis

a. Clostridium piliforme

419. The urine of an animal with hematuria is likely to be: a. Cloudy and red b. Clear and brown c. Red and clear d. Brown and cloudy

a. Cloudy and red

336. Hemagglutination is: a. Clumping of erythrocytes b. Lysing of erythrocytes c. Crenation of erythrocytes d. Swelling of erythrocytes

a. Clumping of erythrocytes

426. Which of the following is part of the inner ear? a. Cochlea b. Malleus c. Incus d. Tympanic membrane

a. Cochlea

131. In a dorsoventral view on a small animal x-ray, which organ appears in the shape of a question mark? a. Colon b. Spleen c. Right kidney d. Diaphragm

a. Colon

5. A bacterial genus can best be described as: a. Composed of one or more species b. Composed of classes c. Composed of families d. Belonging to a species

a. Composed of one or more species

215. Systole is: a. Contraction of the atria and ventricles b. Relaxation of the atria and ventricles c. Contraction of the atria and relaxation of the ventricles d. Relaxation of the atria and contraction of the ventricles

a. Contraction of the atria and ventricles

324. What serologic test is used for the diagnosis of autoimmune hemolytic anemia? a. Coombs test b. Coggins test c. Intradermal testing d. Latex agglutination test

a. Coombs test

642. The junction between the bone and the cartilage of the ribs is referred to as the: a. Costochondral junction b. Xiphoid process c. Asternal ribs d. Manubrium

a. Costochondral junction

143. Ruminants have what type of placentation? a. Cotyledonary b. Zonary c. Diffuse d. Discoid.

a. Cotyledonary

126. Which of the following are ways to determine if the animal is properly positioned in the lateral view? a. Coxofemoral joints are superimposed b. Intervertebral foramina are different sizes c. Rib heads are perpendicular d. Transverse processes are perpendicular at the origin from the vertebral bodies

a. Coxofemoral joints are superimposed

557. The air in the ______ air sac passes straight through the lungs and out. a. Cranial b. Thoracic c. Abdominal d. Humerus

a. Cranial

210. To obtain a caudocranial view of the femorotibial joint of the horse, the cassette should be placed against which surface? a. Cranial aspect b. Caudal aspect c. Lateral aspect d. Medial aspect

a. Cranial aspect

113. The abbreviation CrCd refers to which of the following? a. Craniocaudal b. Mediolateral c. Dorsopalmar d. Dorsoplantar

a. Craniocaudal

289. Which structure of the male reproductive system is responsible for adjusting the location of the testis based on temperature? a. Cremaster muscle b. Spermatic cord c. Scrotum d. Inguinal rings

a. Cremaster muscle

330. Which of these parasites is classified as coccidia? a. Cryptosporidium parvum b. Bunostomum phlebotomum c. Moniezia expansa d. Haemonchus contortus

a. Cryptosporidium parvum

62. Which of the following best describes the word tomography? a. Cut or section b. Whole c. Point of interest d. A series of boxes or individual shades of information

a. Cut or section

376. The drug that treats autoimmune diseases and pruritus associated with atopic dermatitis is known as: a. Cyclosporine b. Interferon omega c. Ketoconazole d. Phytosphingosine

a. Cyclosporine

87. What are the two diagnostic forms of Giardia? a. Cysts and trophozoites b. Merozoites and schizonts c. Oocysts and sporocysts d. Ova and L3 larvae

a. Cysts and trophozoites

436. Prerenal azotemia is: a. Dehydration without true impaired kidney function b. Stage 1 renal disease c. Urinary tract infection that is affecting kidney function d. Dehydration with true impaired kidney function

a. Dehydration without true impaired kidney function

178. Griseofulvin is used in cats, dogs, and horses to treat which of the following disorders? a. Dermatophytosis b. Staphylococcal pyoderma c. Rickettsial disease d. Nematode infection

a. Dermatophytosis

292. Which layer of skin contains the hair follicles, sebaceous glands, and sweat glands? a. Dermis b. Epidermis c. Hypodermis d. Both a and b

a. Dermis

107. For which gas does anesthesia demand the greatest degree of patient monitoring, because the anesthetic depth changes occur most rapidly? a. Desflurane b. Sevoflurane c. Halothane d. Isoflurane

a. Desflurane

105. A recent graduate veterinary technician is concerned that a sedated patient has a heart rate of 50 beats/min when the heart rate in a dog is normally 60 to 120 beats/min. She also mentions that the blood pressure is normal. You ask her which sedative the veterinarian used and you were not surprised when she told you that the drug used was________________. a. Dexmedetomidine b. Diazepam c. Ketamine d. Acepromazine

a. Dexmedetomidine

131. A deficiency in antidiuretic hormone causes: a. Diabetes insipidus b. Diabetes mellitus c. Cushing's disease d. Pancreatic insufficiency

a. Diabetes insipidus

195. Which of the following drugs is used for its sedative, antiseizure, and appetite-stimulant effects? a. Diazepam b. Cyproheptadine c. Ketamine d. Potassium bromide

a. Diazepam

31. All of the following are types of chorion attachments, except: a. Diffuse b. Cotyledonary c. Zonary d. Polycyton

a. Diffuse

416. Which of the following drugs can be used for atrial fibrillation? a. Digoxin b. Hydralazine c. Lidocaine d. Pimobendan

a. Digoxin

173. The term drug compounding refers to which of the following activities? a. Diluting or combining drugs for ease of administration b. Delivering a drug via a different route than is directed on the label c. Delivering a drug at a different dose than is directed on the label d. Delivering the drug to a different species than is directed on the label

a. Diluting or combining drugs for ease of administration

194. A dog diagnosed with a mast cell tumor is scheduled for surgery. The veterinarian chooses to pretreat the dog with an H1 blocker to prevent the negative effects of histamine release when the tumor is manipulated. Which of the following drugs may be chosen? a. Diphenhydramine b. Methimazole c. Vincristine d. Sulfasalazine

a. Diphenhydramine

137. Which of the following is not a sign of dental disease in chinchillas, rabbits, and guinea pigs? a. Discharge from the ears b. Drooling c. Anorexia d. Overgrooming

a. Discharge from the ears

255. Spironolactone, chlorothiazide, and furosemide are classified as: a. Diuretics b. Positive inotropes c. Antiarrhythmics d. Vasodilators

a. Diuretics

137. A stool softener that often helps patients recovering from anal surgery is: a. Docusate sodium succinate (DSS) b. Magnesium hydroxide c. Mineral oil d. Bran

a. Docusate sodium succinate (DSS)

327. Which of the following animals does NOT have bulbourethral glands? a. Dog b. Cat c. Horse d. Ram

a. Dog

395. Cheyletiella mites use ___ as their hosts. a. Dogs, cats, and rabbits b. Dogs, rabbits, and birds c. Cats, birds, and rodents d. Cats, dogs, and rodents

a. Dogs, cats, and rabbits

539. Which side of the wing does air pass over more quickly? a. Dorsal b. Ventral c. Proximal d. Distal

a. Dorsal

662. Where do the epaxial muscles lie? a. Dorsal to the transverse process of the vertebrae b. Ventral to the transverse process of the vertebrae c. Between the thoracic and abdominal cavity d. Along each side of the linea alba

a. Dorsal to the transverse process of the vertebrae

37. Which of the following radiographic terms describes the view when the primary x-ray beam enters the dorsal surface and exits the ventral surface of the patient? a. Dorsoventral b. Ventrodorsal c. Craniocaudal d. Caudocranial

a. Dorsoventral

75. Meters to measure the rate of exposure is also known as: a. Dosimeter b. Fluoroscopy c. Collimation d. Shielding

a. Dosimeter

685. A venous shunt within the liver that connects the umbilical vein to the caudal vena cava is known as what? a. Ductus venosus b. Ligamentum arteriosus c. Foramen ovale d. Ductus arteriosus

a. Ductus venosus

432. Painful urination is recorded as: a. Dysuria b. Hematuria c. Pyuria d. Proteinuria

a. Dysuria

625. The incus, malleus, and stapes are all bones that create the ________ in small animals. a. Ear b. Face c. Foot d. Cranium

a. Ear

397. People may serve as the intermediate hosts of: a. Echinococcus granulosus b. Anoplocephala magna c. Taenia pisiformis d. Moniezia benedeni

a. Echinococcus granulosus

8. Which of the following is a microsporidium obligate intracellular protozoan parasite that causes neurologic disease in rabbits? a. Encephalitozoon cuniculi b. Baylisascaris procyonis c. Toxoplasma gondii d. Pasteurella multocida

a. Encephalitozoon cuniculi

28. To achieve a normal pregnancy, the blastocyst attaches to what structure? a. Endometrium b. Placenta c. Oviduct d. Cervix

a. Endometrium

320. What is the storage site for sperm after they detach from the Sertoli cells? a. Epididymis b. Vas deferens c. Visceral vaginal tunic d. Pampiniform plexus

a. Epididymis

36. The neurotransmitter that is most responsible for the "flight or fight" reaction is: a. Epinephrine b. Acetylcholine c. Dopamine d. Serotonin

a. Epinephrine

82. Scooter, a 13-year-old miniature schnauzer, has arrested under anesthesia for routine dentistry. You run to the crash cart and grab what you know to be the drug of choice for cardiac arrest, which is: a. Epinephrine b. Lidocaine c. Sodium bicarbonate d. Dobutamine

a. Epinephrine

98. In growing bone, where does lengthening take place? a. Epiphyseal plate b. Metaphysis c. Diaphysis d. Periosteal plane

a. Epiphyseal plate

280. What part of the CBC cannot be done manually with adequate accuracy? a. Erythrocyte count b. Leukocyte count c. Packed cell volume d. WBC differential

a. Erythrocyte count

440. What does an iohexol clearance test determine? a. Estimated GFR in dogs and cats b. Liver function c. Blood glucose values d. Food sensitivity

a. Estimated GFR in dogs and cats

27. The hormone produced by a developing ovarian follicle is: a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Prolactin d. Oxytocin

a. Estrogen

148. The time period from the beginning of one heat cycle to the beginning of the next is called: a. Estrous b. Estrus c. Ovulation d. The mating cycle

a. Estrous

390. Which of the following anesthetics has the fewest cardiorespiratory effects? a. Etomidate b. Propofol c. Ketamine d. Thiopental

a. Etomidate

591. What is the length of the estrous cycle in rabbits? a. Every 4 days b. Every 30- 35 days c. Every 15- 16 days d. Every 4- 6 days

a. Every 4 days

71. Guaifenesin is an example of a(n): a. Expectorant b. Antitussive c. Bronchodilator d. Decongestant

a. Expectorant

332. Diffusion of a drug molecule that involves a carrier protein but does not require energy is known as: a. Facilitated b. Passive c. Active d. Pinocytosis

a. Facilitated

121. Which of the following drugs is used to decrease gastric acid production by blocking histamine receptors in the stomach? a. Famotidine b. Sucralfate c. Omeprazole d. Misoprostol

a. Famotidine

88. A pulse taken from the inguinal area of a dog would be from the: a. Femoral artery b. Axillary artery c. Popliteal artery d. Saphenous artery

a. Femoral artery

103. An opioid analgesic often used in transdermal patches to control postsurgical pain is: a. Fentanyl b. Pentazocine c. Meperidine d. Butorphanol

a. Fentanyl

307. Which of the following joints are immovable and are connected by dense fibrous connective tissue? a. Fibrous joints b. Cartilaginous joints c. Synovial joints d. None, all joints are moveable

a. Fibrous joints

185. The leg bone responsible for minimal support is the: a. Fibula b. Femur c. Tibia d. Humerus

a. Fibula

43. Which of the following is the best time to collect a urine sample to evaluate the specific gravity of a canine patient? a. First morning sample b. Midday sample c. Late afternoon sample d. Last sample of the day

a. First morning sample

649. ____________ move cells through fluid. a. Flagella b. Cilia c. Basal bodies d. Centrioles

a. Flagella

69. Antimicrobial drugs such as enrofloxacin, marbofloxacin, and orbifloxacin all belong to which group of antibiotics? a. Fluoroquinolones b. Cephalosporins c. Penicillins d. Aminoglycosides

a. Fluoroquinolones

151. What primary ovarian structure is responsible for the release of estrogen? a. Follicle b. Placenta c. Corpus hemorrhagicum d. Corpus luteum

a. Follicle

67. Which of the following dissections could be made without cutting through a bone-to-bone joint? a. Forelimb from the body b. Hind limb from the body c. Head from the neck d. Tail from the body

a. Forelimb from the body

61. Pollakiuria is defined as: a. Frequent urination with small volume voided b. Complete lack of urine production c. Excessive drinking and urinating d. Excessive urination at night

a. Frequent urination with small volume voided

486. Which sinus lies in the dorsal part of the skull medial to the orbit? a. Frontal sinus b. Two maxillary sinuses c. Oropharynx d. Nasopharynx

a. Frontal sinus

18. What is the most common cause of alopecia and dermatitis in the pet mouse? a. Fur mites b. Dermatophytes c. Contact dermatitis caused by pine shavings d. Endoparasites

a. Fur mites

92. What does MRI require to highlight injections, tumors, or vascular disease? a. Gadolinium b. Iodine contrast c. Barium d. None of the above

a. Gadolinium

403. The parasite whose eggs are cemented to the hair of horses is: a. Gasterophilus species b. Hypoderma species c. Oestrus species d. Cuterebra species

a. Gasterophilus species

44. The H2 receptors are found in the: a. Gastric mucosa b. Saliva c. Carotid arteries d. Aortic arch

a. Gastric mucosa

131. Resuspension of NPH insulin is achieved by: a. Gently rolling the bottle b. Vigorously shaking the bottle c. Gently heating the bottle in warm water d. Refrigerating the bottle

a. Gently rolling the bottle

287. Which portion of the digestive system in birds is responsible for grinding food products? a. Gizzard b. Proventriculus c. Glandular stomach d. All of the above

a. Gizzard

179. The renal corpuscle is composed of the: a. Glomerulus and Bowman's capsule b. Collecting ducts and proximal convoluted tubule c. Descending and ascending loops of Henle d. Collecting ducts and afferent arteriole

a. Glomerulus and Bowman's capsule

69. The glucose absorbed from the GI tract may be stored in the liver as glycogen through a process known as what? a. Glycogenesis b. Gluconeogenesis c. Glycogenolysis d. Fatty acid synthesis

a. Glycogenesis

114. Diets high in purines cause which of the following diseases? a. Gout b. Heart failure c. Salmonellosis d. Liver failure

a. Gout

239. An unossified carpal or tarsal bone describes which grade level on the ossification index for newborn foals? a. Grade 1 b. Grade 2 c. Grade 3 d. Grade 4

a. Grade 1

215. Which should be avoided when manually restraining a bird? a. Grasping the patient around the neck b. Grasped by the mandibular articulation c. Grasping the feet and gently stretching the bird d. All of the above should be avoided

a. Grasping the patient around the neck

414. Systems of folds located within the cerebrum are known as which of the following? a. Gyri b. Sulci c. Meninges d. Arachnoid villi.

a. Gyri

110. Heating a reptile cage safely can be accomplished by all of the following except: a. Heat rock b. Heater under tank c. Ceramic radiant heating element outside the cage d. Incandescent light bulb placed outside the cage

a. Heat rock

269. Denatured hemoglobin found in erythrocytes is referred to as a/an: a. Heinz body b. Howell-Jolly body c. Anaplasma body d. Spherocyte

a. Heinz body

253. Laser-flow technology is used in: a. Hematology analyzers b. Chemistry analyzers c. Coagulation analyzers d. Electrolyte analyzers

a. Hematology analyzers

297. Which tissue is responsible for forming bone marrow within the long bones and for the formation of the blood cells? a. Hemopoietic tissue b. Areolar tissue c. Cartilage d. Bone

a. Hemopoietic tissue

76. The anticoagulant diluted in saline or sterile water for injection to form a flush solution for preventing blood clots in intravenous catheters is: a. Heparin b. EDTA c. Coumarin d. Acid citrate dextrose (ACD)

a. Heparin

121. Why is hay an important part of the rabbit diet? a. High in calories and vitamin C b. High in digestible fiber and helps wear the teeth c. Contains indigestible fiber that helps with weight management, dental disease, and gut health d. Helps maintain gut motility and is high in vitamins A, D, and E

a. High in calories and vitamin C

2. Systemic circulation is under: a. High pressure b. Low pressure c. Partial pressure d. Equilibrium

a. High pressure

639. Which animal contains the highest number of sacral vertebrae? a. Horse b. Dog c. Cat d. Pig

a. Horse

290. Rouleaux formation is most commonly seen on blood smears from: a. Horses b. Goats c. Dogs d. Cats

a. Horses

276. In what species might dexamethasone administration lead to abortion during the last few weeks of gestation? a. Horses and cattle b. Pigs and dogs c. Dogs and cats d. Horses and cats

a. Horses and cattle

125. What characteristic is not found in toxic neutrophils? a. Howell-Jolly bodies b. Vacuolated cytoplasm c. Döhle bodies d. Basophilic cytoplasm

a. Howell-Jolly bodies

440. Which of the following bones is located immediately distal to the scapula of the horse? a. Humerus b. Metacarpus c. Femur d. Ulna

a. Humerus

445. Which of the following bones is considered one of the strongest bones in the horse? a. Humerus b. Carpus c. Scapula d. Patella

a. Humerus

91. Glucocorticoids have different durations of activity, a fact that plays an important role in their risk of side effects with long-term use. Which of the following glucocorticoids has the shortest duration of activity? a. Hydrocortisone b. Prednisone c. Dexamethasone d. Triamcinolone

a. Hydrocortisone

161. What is a potential electrolyte imbalance that can occur as a result of administering a loop diuretic to a small animal? a. Hypokalemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hypercalcemia d. Hypocalcemia

a. Hypokalemia

410. Which of the following can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity? a. Hypokalemia b. Hypochloremia c. Hyponatremia d. Hypocalcemia

a. Hypokalemia

62. The neurohypophysis is an anatomic section of which of the following? a. Hypothalamus b. Adrenal gland c. Pancreas

a. Hypothalamus

237. Red blood cell production is stimulated by: a. Hypoxia and erythropoietin b. Erythropoietin and thrombocytes c. Fibrinogen and acetylcholine d. Leukocytes

a. Hypoxia and erythropoietin

198. Which of the following are not observed when a patient is in DIC? a. Icterus b. Hemorrhage c. Thrombocytopenia d. Prolonged activated clotting time

a. Icterus

309. Which immunoglobulin is most abundant in the serum and plays the major role in humoral immunity? a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgD

a. IgG

311. Which immunoglobulin is the only one that can cross the placenta? a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgD

a. IgG

82. A left shift refers to increased numbers of: a. Immature neutrophils b. Immature RBCs c. Immature platelets d. Immature lymphocytes

a. Immature neutrophils

103. The normal dentition pattern for an adult cat is a. Incisor 3/ 3, Canine 1/ 1, Premolar 3/ 2, Molar 1/ 1 b. Incisor 3/ 3, Canine 1/ 1, Premolar 4/ 3, Molar 2/ 2 c. Incisor 2/ 2, Canine 1/ 1, Premolar 3/ 2, Molar 2/ 1 d. Incisor 2/ 2, Canine 1/ 1, Premolar 4/ 4, Molar 1/ 1

a. Incisor 3/ 3, Canine 1/ 1, Premolar 3/ 2, Molar 1/ 1

689. When an animal becomes severely dehydrated, it loses both tissue fluid and plasma fluid. What effect would this have on the hematocrit and the PCV? a. Increase both values b. Decrease both values c. Increase the hematocrit but no effect on the PCV d. No change in either value

a. Increase both values

69. To make a smear with anemic blood, a. Increase the angle of the pusher slide b. Decrease the angle of the pusher slide c. Use a larger drop of blood d. Wait for the drop of blood to dry partially

a. Increase the angle of the pusher slide

79. The function of epinephrine is to: a. Increase the heart rate b. Decrease the heart rate c. Decrease the blood pressure d. Reverse the effects of acepromazine

a. Increase the heart rate

89. In a healthy animal, diminished water intake or loss of water would result in ___ urine specific gravity. a. Increased b. Decreased c. Isosthenuric d. Isotonic

a. Increased

40. In the healthy awake cat, the primary stimulus within blood for respiration is: a. Increased CO2 b. Decreased O2 c. Increased lactic acid d. Increased K +

a. Increased CO2

237. Which of the following is not considered a key radiographic feature of carpal or tarsal bone immaturity? a. Increased calcification b. Increased number of visible vascular canals causing increased porosity c. Abnormally tapered profile d. One or more fringed margins

a. Increased calcification

27. With significant dehydration in an otherwise healthy patient, which of the following would likely appear on a urinalysis and CBC? a. Increased urine SG and increased PCV b. Increased urine SG and decreased PCV c. Decreased urine SG and decreased PCV d. Decreased urine SG and increased PCV

a. Increased urine SG and increased PCV

81. Cosmo, an 11-year-old M/C pug, has been diagnosed with mitral insufficiency and was referred to a veterinary cardiologist. The specialist decided to initiate treatment with digoxin, which is a positive inotrope and negative chronotrope. This means that it: a. Increases the force of contraction and decreases the heart rate b. Increases the peripheral vascular resistance and decreases the cardiac output c. Increases the blood pressure and decreases the cardiac output d. Increases the heart rate and decreases the blood pressure

a. Increases the force of contraction and decreases the heart rate

82. Hedgehogs are which of the following, requiring a high-protein diet? a. Insectivores b. Strict carnivores c. Herbivores d. Nectarivores

a. Insectivores

133. What hormone is produced by the beta cells in the pancreas? a. Insulin b. Glucagon c. Glycogen d. Somatostatin

a. Insulin

76. Which of the following lowers blood glucose? a. Insulin b. Glucagon c. Epinephrine d. Glucocorticoids

a. Insulin

77. Which system is considered to be the largest and most extensive organ system in the body? a. Integument b. Cardiovascular c. Digestive d. Central nervous system

a. Integument

147. Which of the following drugs is considered a biologic response modifier? a. Interferon b. Streptokinase c. Cephalosporin d. EDTA

a. Interferon

32. Electrolytes are commonly measured by what method? a. Ion-specific electrodes b. Refractometry c. Adsorption d. Enzymatic digestion

a. Ion-specific electrodes

400. An aerotolerant organism is one that: a. Is not affected by the presence or absence of oxygen b. Can tolerate elevated temperatures c. Prefers an environment that is dehydrated d. Is tolerant of environments lacking moisture

a. Is not affected by the presence or absence of oxygen

313. What type of muscle contraction occurs when a muscle actually moves or shortens? a. Isotonic contraction b. Muscle tone c. Isometric contraction d. None of the above

a. Isotonic contraction

440. Alpha-tocopherol is also known as: a. Vitamin E b. Vitamin D2 c. Vitamin D3 d. Vitamin B2

a. Vitamin E

29. Which of the following statements is true regarding an iodophor? a. It has a longer action than basic iodine compounds b. Organic materials do not inactivate it c. It is not an irritant at concentrations generally used d. It provides adequate disinfection with a single application

a. It has a longer action than basic iodine compounds

284. Birds contain an uropygial or preen gland located on the dorsal surface at the upper base of the tail. For what is this structure responsible? a. It secretes an oily, fatty substance that spreads throughout the feathers to clean and waterproof them b. It is responsible for the mating process c. It is responsible for the growth of feathers d. It is a scent gland

a. It secretes an oily, fatty substance that spreads throughout the feathers to clean and waterproof them

64. Which of the following options is another term for icterus? a. Jaundice b. Xanthochromia c. Ketonemia d. Hemoglobinuria

a. Jaundice

194. The middle portion of the small intestine is the: a. Jejunum b. Jejunem c. Jajunem d. Jujunem

a. Jejunum

165. The mucin clot test is performed on: a. Joint fluid b. Plasma c. Serum d. Urine

a. Joint fluid

75. Which of the following vessels are most commonly used for collection of a complete blood count (CBC) and chemistry panel in the sugar glider? a. Jugular vein, cranial vena cava, medial tibial artery b. Lateral saphenous vein, femoral vein, medial tibial artery c. Cranial vena cava, cephalic vein, and lateral saphenous vein d. Jugular vein, femoral vein, lateral tail veins

a. Jugular vein, cranial vena cava, medial tibial artery

90. The pectoral muscles in a bird attach to which of the following anatomical structures? a. Keel b. Pygostyle c. Notarium d. Synsacrum

a. Keel

330. Levetiracetam is the active ingredient in: a. Keppra b. Valium c. Luminal d. Zonegran

a. Keppra

171. Claws, hooves, and horns are made up of which type of cell? a. Keratinized b. Agglutinated c. Calcified d. Crystallized

a. Keratinized

111. What organ conserves nutrients, removes waste products, maintains blood pH, and controls blood pressure? a. Kidney b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Spleen

a. Kidney

634. A space within the lacrimal bones houses which of the following structures? a. Lacrimal sac b. Maxillary sinuses c. Hard palate d. Nasal cavity

a. Lacrimal sac

690. Which of the following is a short irregular tube of cartilage and muscle that connects the pharynx with the trachea? a. Larynx b. Epiglottis c. Bronchi d. Esophagus

a. Larynx

328. Furosemide is the active ingredient in: a. Lasix b. Osmitrol c. Aldactone d. HydroDIURIL

a. Lasix

458. Metatarsal IV in the horse is also known as: a. Lateral splint bone b. Cannon bone c. Talus d. Hock

a. Lateral splint bone

18. Which radiographic view provides the best accuracy for evaluating major fracture dislocation and conformational abnormalities in horses? a. Lateral view b. Medial oblique view c. The flexed lateral view d. Dorsopalmar view

a. Lateral view

26. Which of the following is the best view for judging a major fracture dislocation and conformational abnormalities? a. Lateral view b. Flexed lateral view c. Medial oblique d. Dorsopalmar view

a. Lateral view

267. Basophilic stippling is often associated with: a. Lead poisoning b. Autoimmune disease c. Anemia d. Neoplasia

a. Lead poisoning

40. When scanning in the sagittal plane, where is the cranial aspect of the patient's body displayed on the ultrasound monitor? a. Left side of the monitor b. Right side of the monitor c. Top of the monitor d. Bottom of the monitor

a. Left side of the monitor

216. The aorta leaves the heart from the: a. Left ventricle b. Right ventricle c. Left atrium d. Right atrium

a. Left ventricle

117. The median plane divides the body into which of the following? a. Left/right portions b. Anterior/posterior portions c. Cranial/caudal portions d. None of the above

a. Left/right portions

87. For an animal that had lost RBCs to a moderate hookworm infection, one would expect the capillary refill time to be: a. Less than 2 seconds b. Greater than 4 seconds c. Greater than 2 minutes d. Greater than 4 minutes

a. Less than 2 seconds

261. Nits are considered: a. Lice eggs b. Fly larvae c. Flea feces d. Seed ticks

a. Lice eggs

144. The principal site of drug biotransformation is the: a. Liver b. Kidney c. Stomach d. Small intestine

a. Liver

230. Albumin is produced in the: a. Liver b. Red bone marrow c. Lymph nodes d. Pancreas

a. Liver

51. Most biotransformation of drugs occurs in the: a. Liver b. Kidney c. Lungs d. Skin

a. Liver

191. Why is it an accepted practice for cats receiving aspirin therapy to be dosed on a 2-day interval schedule only (i.e., a minimal dose every 2 days)? a. Liver metabolism of salicylates occurs at a very slow rate in comparison to other species, thereby making cats extremely susceptible to overdose in comparison to dogs. b. Salicylates cause severe respiratory depression in cats. c. Salicylates often result in severe hypertension. d. Salicylates may result in hypercoagulable states in cats.

a. Liver metabolism of salicylates occurs at a very slow rate in comparison to other species, thereby making cats extremely susceptible to overdose in comparison to dogs.

130. All of the following organs are seen on ultrasound, except: a. Lungs b. Adrenal glands c. Pancreas d. Gallbladder

a. Lungs

178. What term indicates an abnormally high lymphocyte count? a. Lymphocytosis b. Leukosis c. Lymphocytopenia d. Lymphosarcoma

a. Lymphocytosis

104. Large femoral pores in the iguana are indicative of: a. Male lizard b. Systemic infection c. Juvenile lizard d. Breeding female

a. Male lizard

461. Where is the insertion of the sternocephalicus muscles of the horse? a. Mandible b. Humerus c. Spine of the scapula d. Proximal tibia

a. Mandible

426. Which of the following can be used to decrease intraocular volume (via dehydration of the vitreous humor) as treatment for glaucoma? a. Mannitol b. Methazolamide c. Pilocarpine d. Timolol

a. Mannitol

343. What cells are sensitized by IgE to produce large quantities of histamines? a. Mast cells and basophils b. Eosinophils and basophils c. Monocytes and lymphocytes d. Neutrophils and eosinophils

a. Mast cells and basophils

172. What measure determines the average size of an erythrocyte? a. Mean corpuscular volume b. Packed cell volume (PCV) c. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) d. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin

a. Mean corpuscular volume

257. To obtain a CdCr projection of the humerus of small animals, where should the measurement be taken? a. Measure from the table to the midshaft humerus b. Measure the thickest part of the humerus c. Measure on the dorsal side from the table to the height of the scapula d. Measure the midshaft humerus

a. Measure from the table to the midshaft humerus

302. The thorax is divided into right and left sides by a connective tissue septum known as the: a. Mediastinum b. Pericardium c. Pulmonary pleura d. Sternum

a. Mediastinum

117. A progestin was often used in the past for the treatment of inappropriate elimination in cats, and it has now fallen out of favor because of serious potential side effects, including mammary hyperplasia and adenocarcinoma. This drug is known as: a. Megestrol acetate b. Oxazepam c. Amitriptyline d. Fluoxetine

a. Megestrol acetate

180. Which of the following drugs is used as an adulticide to treat a heartworm-positive dog? a. Melarsomine b. Ivermectin c. Milbemycin d. Moxidectin

a. Melarsomine

104. What microorganism is an etiologic agent of ringworm? a. Microsporum sp. b. Mycobacterium sp. c. Micrococcus sp. d. Moraxella sp.

a. Microsporum sp.

252. When obtaining a VD projection of the skull of small animals, where should the centering of the image occur? a. Midway between the tip of the nose and just caudal to the occipital protuberance at the base b. Lateral canthus of the eye socket c. Between the eyes d. Above the base of the tongue and just below the palate, approximately at the commissure of the mouth

a. Midway between the tip of the nose and just caudal to the occipital protuberance at the base

445. A canine patient experiencing high triglycerides may have serum that is colored: a. Milky b. Yellow c. Red d. Clear

a. Milky

123. Pain in the rabbit is often exhibited by all of the following except: a. Moaning b. Bruxism c. Anorexia d. Reduced grooming and activity

a. Moaning

579. Which type of vision do rabbits have? a. Monocular b. Binocular c. 3D d. Both a and b

a. Monocular

295. What is normally the largest mature blood cell in the peripheral blood of domestic species? a. Monocyte b. Neutrophil c. Eosinophil d. Lymphocyte

a. Monocyte

225. Efferent neurons are part of what system? a. Motor b. Interneuron c. Sensory d. Extraneuron

a. Motor

69. Moldy peanuts are a common cause of which of the following in the avian patient? a. Myotoxicity b. Salmonella c. Escherichia coli d. Clostridium difficile

a. Myotoxicity

158. The reversal agent used for opioid toxicity is: a. Naloxone (Narcan) b. Yohimbine c. Acetylcysteine d. Diazepam

a. Naloxone (Narcan)

39. On inspiration, the pressure in the thoracic cavity, as compared with ambient air pressure, is a. Negative b. Positive c. Same as the ambient air pressure d. Fluctuating

a. Negative

81. Which of the following is the basic functional unit of the kidney? a. Nephron b. Calyces c. Hilus d. Medulla

a. Nephron

264. Which stain is referred to as a supravital stain? a. New methylene blue b. Camco Quik c. Eosin d. Sudan III or IV

a. New methylene blue

354. Which of the following are considered major elements found in the body? a. Nitrogen b. Calcium c. Magnesium d. Potassium

a. Nitrogen

34. Pain receptors are known as: a. Nociceptors b. C fibers c. Proprioceptors d. Prostaglandins

a. Nociceptors

301. What structure is normally found in the nuclei of immature blood cells? a. Nucleolus b. Golgi apparatus c. Heinz body d. Döhle body

a. Nucleolus

647. Which part of the cell contains and processes genetic information and controls cell metabolism? a. Nucleus b. Cell membrane c. Cilia d. Chromatin

a. Nucleus

373. What condition does dirlotapide treat? a. Obesity in dogs b. Obesity in cats c. Anorexia in dogs d. Anorexia in cats

a. Obesity in dogs

68. If you were to grasp your hands behind your head at the base of your skull, your hands would be over which bone of the skull? a. Occipital b. Frontal c. Temporal d. Parietal

a. Occipital

73. Which of the following is a common cause of upper respiratory disease in the prairie dog? a. Odontoma b. Mast cell tumor c. Adenocarcinoma d. Spindle cell sarcoma

a. Odontoma

69. For a mediolateral view of the tarsal joint of a horse, the cassette should be placed in which position? a. On the lateral surface b. On the medial surface c. On the plantar surface d. On the plantaromedial surface

a. On the lateral surface

305. Cells that are responsible for laying down new bone are known as: a. Osteoblasts b. Osteoclasts c. Ossification d. Hemopoiesis

a. Osteoblasts

195. What large cell with multiple separate nuclei is found in bone marrow? a. Osteoclast b. Megakaryocyte c. Osteoblast d. Monoblast

a. Osteoclast

160. The bone cells responsible for the removal of bone are: a. Osteoclasts b. Osteoblasts c. Chondroblasts d. Chondroclasts

a. Osteoclasts

168. When obtaining a lateral view of the cervical vertebrae of a small animal, which of the following techniques should not be performed? a. Overextend the limbs caudally b. Place a pad beneath the mandible to superimpose the wings of the atlas c. Place a pad under the neck to prevent sagging of the spine d. Place the wings of the atlas and center of the spine of the scapula in the longitudinal center of the primary beam

a. Overextend the limbs caudally

101. The term gravid is used for reptiles that are: a. Oviparous b. Viviparous c. Ovoviviparous d. Sterile

a. Oviparous

203. Which urolith is becoming quite common in cats? a. Oxalate b. Silica c. Urate d. Cystine

a. Oxalate

244. The islets of Langerhans are associated with which organ? a. Pancreas b. Liver c. Kidneys d. Adrenal glands

a. Pancreas

88. Which of these tissues is not a normal site for drugs to accumulate to be released later, thereby prolonging the effect of the drug? a. Pancreas b. Fat c. Bone d. Liver

a. Pancreas

358. Which virus causes warts? a. Papilloma b. Variola c. Herpes d. Pox

a. Papilloma

29. Giving birth is known as: a. Parturition b. Gestation c. Lactation d. Estrous

a. Parturition

63. Which of the following diseases causes upper respiratory tract signs including sinusitis, rhinitis, excessive tearing, snorting, sniffling, and nasal exudate? a. Pasteurella multocida b. Bacterial enteritis c. Allergic dermatitis d. Pneumonia

a. Pasteurella multocida

248. To decrease magnification of an x-ray, which of the following would help? a. Patients are positioned as close to the x-ray cassette as possible b. Patients are positioned are far away from the x-ray cassette as possible c. There should be as much collimation as possible d. There should be as little collimation as possible

a. Patients are positioned as close to the x-ray cassette as possible

115. Acepromazine should be avoided in: a. Patients with a history of seizures b. Aggressive patients c. Geriatric patients d. Doberman pinschers

a. Patients with a history of seizures

335. With regard to the plasma concentration of a drug, what is the highest point in the concentration called? a. Peak b. Max c. Trough d. Min

a. Peak

44. In the avian patient, into which of the following muscles are intramuscular injections generally administered? a. Pectoral b. Epaxial c. Biceps d. Quadriceps

a. Pectoral

99. What layer of bone tissue is necessary for the attachment of ligaments and tendons? a. Periosteum b. Endosteum c. Cartilage d. Meniscus

a. Periosteum

85. Which type of magnet consists of two slabs of magnetic material facing each other? a. Permanent magnets b. Electromagnets c. Resistive magnets d. Superconducting magnets

a. Permanent magnets

169. The main function of the neutrophil is: a. Phagocytosis b. Hypersensitivity reaction c. Allergic reaction d. Immune response

a. Phagocytosis

638. The two small pterygoid bones support the lateral walls of what structure? a. Pharynx b. Mandibular symphysis c. Nasal septum d. Nasal conchae

a. Pharynx

226. Which drug will have a prolonged half-life when used with chloramphenicol? a. Phenobarbital b. Penicillin c. Sulfadimethoxine d. Tetracycline

a. Phenobarbital

138. The most widely used type of antiemetic drug to prevent motion sickness in dogs and cats is the: a. Phenothiazine b. Antihistamine c. Anticholinergic d. Antispasmodic

a. Phenothiazine

125. Which of the following drugs can cause severe tissue necrosis if administered perivascularly? a. Phenylbutazone b. Oxymorphone c. Dexmedetomidine d. Ketamine

a. Phenylbutazone

278. Which NSAID, when administered perivascularly in horses, can cause skin necrosis and sloughing? a. Phenylbutazone b. Etodolac c. Carprofen d. Meclofenamic acid

a. Phenylbutazone

174. Which of the following drugs is most commonly used to treat urinary incontinence in dogs? a. Phenylpropanolamine b. Diethylcarbamazine c. Acepromazine d. Bethanechol

a. Phenylpropanolamine

601. All of the following are true about rabbits, except: a. Rabbits are omnivores b. Rabbits are hindgut fermenters c. Rabbits are monogastric d. All of the above are true about rabbits

a. Rabbits are omnivores

87. Which of the following correctly defines the term shims in reference to MRI? a. Pieces or plates of metal used to correct the magnetic field within the magnet b. Coils or assemblies within the magnetic bore that enable the machine to create images in any plane c. Devices that receive radio-wave signals from a body part that is covered or contained by them d. None of the above

a. Pieces or plates of metal used to correct the magnetic field within the magnet

425. Which of the following is a cartilaginous funnel that collects sound waves and directs them medially into the external auditory canal? a. Pinna b. Eustachian tube c. Cochlea d. Tympanic membrane

a. Pinna

13. Which of the following radiographic terms describes the caudal surface of the hind limb distal to the carpus? a. Plantar b. Dorsopalmar c. Palmar d. Caudocranial

a. Plantar

338. The back of the hind leg distal to the tarsus is known as: a. Plantar b. Palmar c. Lateral d. Medial

a. Plantar

284. What is the major difference between serum and plasma? a. Plasma has higher protein levels. b. Serum has higher electrolyte levels. c. Plasma has a darker color. d. Serum will clot.

a. Plasma has higher protein levels.

33. Oral examinations are most commonly performed in snakes using which of the following? a. Plastic spatula b. Gauze strips c. Tape strips d. Metal specula

a. Plastic spatula

147. The upper and lower shells of a turtle are referred to as: a. Plastron and carapace b. Anterior shell and posterior shell c. Epiplastral and endoplastral d. Hypoplastral and xiphiplastral

a. Plastron and carapace

444. What does the buccal mucosa bleeding time test assess? a. Platelet function b. Prothrombin time (PT) c. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) d. Fibrinogen

a. Platelet function

192. Which of the following is not associated with a responsive anemia? a. Poikilocytosis b. Reticulocytosis c. Anisocytosis d. Polychromasia

a. Poikilocytosis

73. Reticulocytes on a modified Wright stain (e.g., Diff-Quik) appear a. Polychromatic b. Hypochromic c. Hyperchromic d. Crenated

a. Polychromatic

23. Cattle and swine display what type of estrous cycle? a. Polyestrous b. Seasonally polyestrous c. Diestrous d. Monoestrous

a. Polyestrous

273. Predictable, short-term side effects of glucocorticoid therapy of which every client should be aware include: a. Polyuria and polydipsia b. Cough and nasal discharge c. Anorexia and diarrhea d. Dry skin and skin irritations

a. Polyuria and polydipsia

235. What error is not detectable through the use of a quality-control program? a. Poor technique b. Sample quality c. Equipment malfunctions d. Reagent contamination or degeneration

a. Poor technique

491. Lymph nodes found on the caudal aspect of the leg at the level of the patella are the: a. Popliteal nodes b. Inguinal nodes c. Mandibular nodes d. Prescapular nodes

a. Popliteal nodes

368. The doctor expresses concern that a patient's cardiac output is poor and he is considering something to increase the contractility of the heart. You know he will want to use a: a. Positive inotrope b. Negative inotrope c. Positive chronotrope d. Negative chronotrope

a. Positive inotrope

55. Aqueous humor is formed in which chamber of the eye? a. Posterior chamber b. Anterior chamber c. Canal of Schlemm d. Cornea

a. Posterior chamber

93. What drug is not an NSAID? a. Prednisone b. Flunixin c. Phenylbutazone d. Aspirin

a. Prednisone

121. What is unique about the ruminant oral cavity? a. Presence of a dental pad b. Absence of salivary glands c. Absence of molars d. Presence of needle teeth

a. Presence of a dental pad

41. The normal feces of a parrot contain which of the following? a. Primarily Gram-positive organisms b. Primarily Gram-negative organisms c. An equal mixture of Gram-positive and Gram-negative organisms d. The feces are mostly sterile and do not contain bacteria

a. Primarily Gram-positive organisms

141. Which of the following feathers are trimmed as part of the avian wing trim? a. Primary feathers b. Secondary feathers c. Tertiary feathers d. Tail feathers

a. Primary feathers

240. False decreases in serum glucose levels can be caused by: a. Prolonged contact with red blood cells before separating the serum b. Refrigerating the serum sample before analysis c. Freezing the serum sample before analysis d. A lipemic sample

a. Prolonged contact with red blood cells before separating the serum

203. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is a significant problem in veterinary medicine. What factor is not considered to be a significant contributor to the development of bacterial resistance? a. Prolonged levels of higher-than-recommended dosages of antibiotics b. Normal dosages of antibiotics for half the recommended duration c. Low dosages of antibiotics in the feed for prolonged periods d. Antibiotics that do not reach the infection site in concentrations that exceed MIC

a. Prolonged levels of higher-than-recommended dosages of antibiotics

219. What organ blocks the entrance of many drugs because of a barrier similar to the blood-brain barrier? a. Prostate gland b. Thyroid gland c. Pancreas d. Spleen

a. Prostate gland

451. Which bone forms the floor of the pelvis of the horse? a. Pubis b. Ischium c. Ilium d. Tuber coxae

a. Pubis

677. The _____________ artery carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs. a. Pulmonary b. Carotid c. Subclavian d. Renal

a. Pulmonary

341. Gram-positive microorganisms stain ____________ using a Gram stain. a. Purple b. Red c. Orange d. Lavender

a. Purple

12. The muscular sphincter located between the stomach and the duodenum is the: a. Pylorus b. cardia c. Chyme d. Rugae

a. Pylorus

195. What is the amount used to express the dose equivalent that results from exposure to ionizing radiation known as? a. REM b. ALARA c. MPD d. Sv

a. REM

146. The degree of blackness on a radiograph is described as: a. Radiographic density b. Radiographic contrast c. Focal-film distance d. Radiographic fogging

a. Radiographic density

129. Which of the following animals does not have molars that grow continuously throughout life? a. Rats b. Rabbits c. Chinchillas d. Guinea pigs

a. Rats

347. Which types of cells carry oxygen throughout the body? a. Red blood cells b. White blood cells c. Nerve cells d. All cells carry oxygen

a. Red blood cells

176. The area of the kidney where urine collection occurs before entering the ureter is known as the: a. Renal pelvis b. Hilus c. Cortex d. Medulla

a. Renal pelvis

3. Bacterial endospores are: a. Resistant to heat and desiccation b. A form of asexual reproduction c. A consequence of mating d. Highly susceptible to antiseptics

a. Resistant to heat and desiccation

277. What is the name for a nonnucleated, immature erythrocyte found in small numbers in the peripheral blood of dogs? a. Reticulocyte b. Metarubricyte c. Rubriblast d. Rubricyte

a. Reticulocyte

186. A reported side effect of fluoroquinolone administration (Baytril) in cats given SID dosing at a higher dosing schedule is: a. Retinal damage b. Hypertension c. Renal failure d. Hepatic failure

a. Retinal damage

386. The parasite also known as a brown dog tick is: a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus b. Ixodes dammini c. Dermacentor variabilis d. Dermacentor albipictus

a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus

370. Of the following molecules, which is not a lipid? a. Ribose b. Triglycerides c. Prostaglandins d. Steroids

a. Ribose

163. Dioctophyma renale is often found in the ___ of dogs. a. Right kidney b. Left kidney c. Urinary bladder d. Ureters

a. Right kidney

251. Coagulation tests would be useful for diagnosing: a. Rodenticide poisoning b. Thyroid function c. Adrenal function d. Ethylene glycol poisoning

a. Rodenticide poisoning

64. To proceed from a point between the eyes to the tip of a dog's nose, you would move a. Rostrally b. Cranially c. Caudally d. Laterally

a. Rostrally

37. In the healthy heart, the heartbeat is initiated by the: a. SA node b. Purkinje fibers c. Vagus nerve d. AV node

a. SA node

392. The parasite that burrows into the skin is: a. Sarcoptes species b. Demodex species c. Chorioptes species d. Otodectes species

a. Sarcoptes species

45. Within the eye, the choroid is located between which two structures? a. Sclera and retina b. Iris and pupil c. Lens and cornea d. Optic nerve and fovea centralis

a. Sclera and retina

145. Sperm cells are produced by the: a. Seminiferous tubule b. Epididymis c. Vas deferens d. Seminal vesicles

a. Seminiferous tubule

323. Where does spermatogenesis take place? a. Seminiferous tubules b. Epididymis c. Spermatic cord d. Pampiniform plexus

a. Seminiferous tubules

10. A lactating doe presents to the clinic for anorexia, depression, lethargy, and fever. What is the most likely the cause of her symptoms? a. Septic mastitis b. Nonseptic cystic mastitis c. GI stasis d. Cellulitis

a. Septic mastitis

232. Which of the following does not describe an old carpal chip seen on x-ray in horses? a. Sharp fragment margination b. Decreased adjacent bone density c. Presence of osteoarthritis d. Normal or cool surrounding tissue

a. Sharp fragment margination

190. The deltoid muscles allow fine movements of the: a. Shoulder b. Hip c. Elbow d. Jaw

a. Shoulder

88. Compared to roundworm ova, coccidia appear: a. Smaller b. The same size c. Twice as large d. Three times as large

a. Smaller

166. The bones known collectively as the ossicles include all of the following except the: a. Sphenoid b. Malleus c. Stapesus d. Incus

a. Sphenoid

224. What organ is most commonly associated with the capacity for extramedullary hematopoiesis if necessary? a. Spleen b. Pancreas c. Lung d. Prostate

a. Spleen

230. What organ has both lymphatic and hematologic functions? a. Spleen b. Pancreas c. Tonsil d. Liver

a. Spleen

231. What organ has storage sinuses that hold blood and release it into circulation when the need for oxygen is increased? a. Spleen b. Pancreas c. Parathyroid d. Liver

a. Spleen

334. What is one possible site of extramedullary hematopoiesis in times of increased blood cell production? a. Spleen b. Kidney c. Umbilicus d. Bone cortex

a. Spleen

520. The mare is considered a/ an ___________ ovulator, which means she will ovulate without the stimulus of mating. a. Spontaneous b. Polyestrous c. Anestrous d. Multiparous

a. Spontaneous

134. Which epithelial cell is the largest of the cells found in urine? a. Squamous epithelial cells b. Caudate epithelial cells c. Transitional epithelial cells d. Renal epithelial cells

a. Squamous epithelial cells

361. Cardiac drugs that belong in class IB act by: a. Stabilizing myocardial cells b. Blocking beta receptors c. Decreasing myocardial automaticity d. Blocking calcium channels

a. Stabilizing myocardial cells

165. Nitroglycerin is administered primarily to achieve which of the following effects? a. Vasodilation b. Vasoconstriction c. Antiarrhythmic effect d. ACE inhibitor effect

a. Vasodilation

212. To obtain a caudocranial view of the tibia of a small animal, the patient should be in which of the following positions? a. Sternal recumbency b. Dorsal recumbency c. Right lateral recumbency d. Left lateral recumbency

a. Sternal recumbency

378. Which types of lipids take the form of four interlocking hydrocarbon rings? a. Steroids b. Triglycerides c. Prostaglandins d. Phospholipids

a. Steroids

262. Which parasite could cause anemia in horses through blood sucking? a. Strongylus vulgaris b. Parascaris equorum c. Anoplocephala perfoliata d. Dictyocaulus arnfieldi

a. Strongylus vulgaris

135. The most common uroliths found in feline and canine urine are: a. Struvite b. Calcium oxalate c. Urate d. Cystine

a. Struvite

65. A useful group of broad-spectrum drugs, whose popularity has recently declined because of numerous potential side effects, including keratoconjunctivitis sicca, polyarthritis (especially in Doberman pinschers), hematuria, allergic reactions, thrombocytopenia, and leukopenia, is the: a. Sulfonamides b. Macrolides c. Tetracyclines d. Fluoroquinolones

a. Sulfonamides

217. For a ventrodorsal avian radiographic view, the keel should be in which position related to the spine? a. Superimposed b. Lateral c. Caudal d. Cranial

a. Superimposed

374. When two monosaccharides are jointed together, what type of reaction occurs? a. Synthesis reaction b. Hydrolysis reaction c. Decomposition reaction d. Exchange reaction

a. Synthesis reaction

188. Exposing a reptile to cool conditions, such as a cool metal surface, will cause what? a. Temporary lethargy and immobility b. Temporary excitement c. Rapid breathing d. Aggressiveness

a. Temporary lethargy and immobility

438. Which of the following hormones are the main hormones produced by the testicles? a. Testosterone b. Luteinizing hormone c. Estrogen d. Progesterone

a. Testosterone

189. The class of antibiotics most commonly prescribed to treat rickettsial infections, such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever, is: a. Tetracyclines b. Penicillins c. Aminoglycosides d. Sulfonamides

a. Tetracyclines

127. Secondary hemostasis refers to: a. The coagulation cascade b. Vascular spasm c. Clot lysis d. Platelet plug formation

a. The coagulation cascade

109. Radiographic projections are named according to which of the following? a. The direction in which the central beam anatomically enters the body parts, followed by the area of exit of the x-ray beam b. The direction in which the central beam anatomically leaves the body parts, followed by the area of entrance of the x-ray beam c. The side of the patient to which the film is closest, followed by the exposed side d. Radiation that bounces off objects

a. The direction in which the central beam anatomically enters the body parts, followed by the area of exit of the x-ray beam

56. When a drug is said to have a narrow therapeutic range, it means that: a. The dose range that is effective is small b. It may be used for treatment of a few disorders only c. It must be dosed frequently d. It must be given in greater concentrations to be effective

a. The dose range that is effective is small

285. The vane is which part of the feather? a. The flattened weblike part of each side of the rachis b. The main feather shaft c. The opening of the feather shaft d. The opening at the base of the feather

a. The flattened weblike part of each side of the rachis

190. Which statement is true about Dirofilaria infection in the cat? a. The life span of heartworms in cats is shorter than in dogs b. Microfilariae are commonly seen in cat infections c. Adult worm burden in cats is similar in numbers to that in dogs d. Dirofilaria causes a severe anemia in cats

a. The life span of heartworms in cats is shorter than in dogs

121. For a lateromedial view of the metacarpus of a horse, which surface should the cassette be on? a. The medial aspect b. The palmar aspect c. The palmaromedial aspect d. The palmarolateral aspect

a. The medial aspect

435. What happens to the iris of the eye in dim light? a. The muscles relax, allowing the pupil to dilate b. The muscles contract, allowing the pupil to constrict c. The muscles constrict, closing the pupil d. Nothing, light does not affect the iris of the eye

a. The muscles relax, allowing the pupil to dilate

154. The therapeutic range of a drug refers to which of the following? a. The plasma concentration at which therapeutic benefits should be observed b. The relationship of a drug's ability to achieve a desired effect versus causing a toxic effect c. The range of curative properties that a drug may exhibit d. The frequency of idiosyncratic reactions

a. The plasma concentration at which therapeutic benefits should be observed

21. Which of the following best describes the Nyquist point in ultrasound? a. The point at which the maximum blood velocity is reached b. The point of deepest penetration c. The point at which a drop-out signal is reached and an image is no longer produced d. The Nyquist point is not an ultrasound concern

a. The point at which the maximum blood velocity is reached

61. Which of the following best describes the term fulcrum? a. The point of interest b. The distortion of the resolution of anatomy above and below the region of interest c. A series of boxes or individual shades of information d. None of the above

a. The point of interest

236. What causes the gallbladder to contract? a. The release of CCK b. The release of glucagon c. The production of bile d. The gallbladder contracts involuntarily after it is filled

a. The release of CCK

244. Methylxanthines are often used to improve breathing in cardiac patients and patients with respiratory disease. Which of the following drugs are methylxanthines used for this purpose? a. Theophylline and aminophylline b. Codeine and dextromethorphan c. Hydrocodone and butorphanol d. Guaifenesin and propranolol

a. Theophylline and aminophylline

90. The linea alba on a standing cat is ____________ to the spinal cord. a. Ventral b. Dorsal c. Medial d. Contralateral

a. Ventral

421. Which of the following cranial nerves is a sensory nerve? a. Vestibulocochlear b. Accessory c. Trochlear d. Hypoglossal

a. Vestibulocochlear

212. Aminoglycoside antibiotics (e.g., amikacin and gentamicin) are powerful agents against bacteria. Unfortunately, they do not seem to work well in deep puncture wounds or in the lumen of the colon. Why? a. These are anaerobic sites, and bacteria require oxygen to take up aminoglycosides. b. These sites often have enzymes that inactivate aminoglycosides. c. Gram-positive bacteria commonly infect these sites, and aminoglycosides are ineffective against gram-positive bacteria. d. The DNA of bacteria at these sites is resistant to aminoglycosides.

a. These are anaerobic sites, and bacteria require oxygen to take up aminoglycosides.

617. The lumbar vertebra of the ferret is located distal to the: a. Thoracic vertebrae b. Sacrum c. Coccygeal vertebrae d. Pelvis

a. Thoracic vertebrae

19. When a stimulus is strong enough to cause complete depolarization, it has reached: a. Threshold b. Repolarization c. Refractory period d. Action potential

a. Threshold

149. The gland that is evaluated by measuring blood levels of T3 and T4 is the: a. Thyroid gland b. Pancreas c. Pituitary gland d. Thymus

a. Thyroid gland

151. Blood chemistry analysis is commonly performed to evaluate function of the ______ in an animal showing lethargy, obesity, mild anemia, infertility, and alopecia. a. Thyroid gland b. Pancreas c. Thymus d. Adrenal glands

a. Thyroid gland

47. What is the purpose of the foil backing found on dental x-ray film? a. To absorb exiting remnant radiation b. To be able to mold to the shape of the tooth c. To create a waterproof barrier around the film d. None of the above

a. To absorb exiting remnant radiation

363. The doctor orders a dose of calcium gluconate be administered to a patient. In addition to drawing up the medication, what other procedure should you prepare for? a. To monitor an EKG b. To monitor the BP c. To monitor the SpO2 d. To monitor the temperature

a. To monitor an EKG

91. What is the function of the operculum found in some psittacines? a. To prevent the inhalation of foreign bodies b. To humidify the air c. To absorb saline from the nostrils d. To connect the sinuses to the choanal slit

a. To prevent the inhalation of foreign bodies

119. When viewing a lateral radiograph, the cranial part of the animal is in which direction in relation to the illuminator? a. To the left b. To the right c. To the top d. To the bottom

a. To the left

10. Which parasite only uses the cat as its definitive host? a. Toxoplasma gondii b. Giardia lamblia c. Isospora rivolta d. Balantidium coli

a. Toxoplasma gondii

7. Which of the following would be a parenteral route of pathogen transmission? a. Transfusion b. Contaminated food c. Droplet infection d. Direct contact

a. Transfusion

220. How do transfusion reactions in the cat differ from transfusion reactions in the dog? a. Transfusions are more severe in the cat b. Transfusions are more acute in the dog c. Cats suffer from severe pruritus d. Transfusions are more severe in the dog

a. Transfusions are more severe in the cat

243. Terbutaline, albuterol, and metaproterenol are used in veterinary medicine to: a. Treat feline asthma or other bronchoconstrictive diseases b. Treat low blood pressure caused by shock c. Suppress a productive cough, such as in bronchopneumonia d. Stimulate secretions within the respiratory tree to aid the mucociliary apparatus

a. Treat feline asthma or other bronchoconstrictive diseases

326. Which of these pig parasites can be diagnosed by muscle biopsy? a. Trichinella spiralis b. Oesophagostomum dentatum c. Eimeria suis d. Fasciola hepatica

a. Trichinella spiralis

399. What parasite ova have bipolar plugs? a. Trichuris species b. Taenia species c. Alaria species d. Moniezia species

a. Trichuris species

382. The parasite diagnosed by vaginal washing is: a. Tritrichomonas species b. Dictyocaulus species c. Dioctophyma species d. Anaplasma species

a. Tritrichomonas species

207. Muscles and ligaments attach to structures on bony surfaces. Which of the following is not one of these found in the forelimb? a. Trochanter b. Tuberosity c. Spine d. Epicondyle

a. Trochanter

156. Skeletal muscles are: a. Under voluntary control b. Nonstriated c. Under involuntary control d. Found in the walls of hollow organs

a. Under voluntary control

166. Which of the following conditions results from uneven development of film? a. Uneven chemical levels b. Low-grade light leak in the darkroom c. Film developed in chemicals that are too cold d. Underexposed film

a. Uneven chemical levels

22. Dental film should be placed in the mouth with the dimple facing: a. Up and pointing rostrally b. Up and pointing caudally c. Down and pointing rostrally d. Down and pointing caudally

a. Up and pointing rostrally

193. The dorsal plane divides the: a. Upper and lower halves of the body b. Front and back halves of the body c. Head from the rest of the body d. Right and left sides of the body

a. Upper and lower halves of the body

26. Which of the following substances is used to evaluate kidney filtration and function, is excreted, and then is reabsorbed? a. Urea b. Creatinine c. Glucose d. Sodium

a. Urea

24. Which of the following values is used to evaluate renal function in the avian patient? a. Uric acid b. BUN c. Creatinine d. BUN, creatinine, and uric acid

a. Uric acid

429. An alkaline urine pH can be the result of: a. Urinary tract obstruction b. Uncontrolled diabetes c. Prolonged diarrhea d. Starvation

a. Urinary tract obstruction

62. The most common neoplasia in the unspayed female rabbit is: a. Uterine adenocarcinoma b. Mast cell tumors c. Squamous cell carcinoma d. Osteosarcoma

a. Uterine adenocarcinoma

377. Acquired active immunity results from: a. Vaccination b. Antitoxin administration c. Ingestion of colostrum d. Administration of gamma globulin

a. Vaccination

575. Which structure connects the testes of birds to the cloaca? a. Vas deferens b. Magnum c. Infundibulum d. Ureters

a. Vas deferens

29. Glycosuria exists: a. When blood glucose levels exceed the renal threshold for absorption of glucose b. When blood glucose levels are lower than the renal threshold for absorption of glucose c. When urine glucose levels are lower than the renal threshold for absorption of glucose d. When urine glucose levels are higher than the serum threshold for absorption of glucose

a. When blood glucose levels exceed the renal threshold for absorption of glucose

85. Which of the following diseases in the hedgehog is characterized by progressive ataxia, weight loss, paralysis, and eventual death? a. Wobbling hedgehog syndrome b. Tubulointerstitial nephritis c. Hepatic adenocarcinoma d. Plasmacytoma

a. Wobbling hedgehog syndrome

13. Which of the following can be used specifically to diagnose porphyrins in the rabbit's urine? a. Wood's lamp b. Urine dipstick c. Microscopic examination d. Urine sedimentation examination

a. Wood's lamp

52. The vagus nerve is cranial nerve ________. a. X b. XII c. V d. VI

a. X

170. The most caudal portion of the sternum is called the: a. Xiphoid b. Coccyx c. Manubrium d. Costal

a. Xiphoid

337. The caudal end of the sternum is referred to as the: a. Xiphoid process b. Trochanter c. Calcaneus d. Cannon bone

a. Xiphoid process

139. The emetic of choice in cats is: a. Xylazine b. Syrup of ipecac c. Apomorphine d. Hydrogen peroxide

a. Xylazine

24. To what color does "icteric serum" refer? a. Yellow b. Red c. Brown d. Green

a. Yellow

32. A pregnant bitch has what kind of placentation? a. Zonary b. Cotyledonary c. Diffuse d. Discoid

a. Zonary

8. A pregnant queen has what kind of placentation? a. Zonary b. Cotyledonary c. Diffuse d. Discoid

a. Zonary

55. Anything below what Hounsfield unit is displayed as black on CT imaging? a. −750 HU b. 0 HU c. 250 HU d. None; black is not displayed on CT

a. −750 HU

517. The ovaries of the mare are largely inactive until sexual maturity, which occurs at what age? a. 6 months b. 1- 2 years c. 3- 5 years d. 7 years

b. 1- 2 years

442. What is the half-life of fructosamine? a. 3-5 days b. 1-2 weeks c. 3-5 months d. more than 6 months

b. 1-2 weeks

37. The average urine specific gravity for a healthy adult cat is ___________. a. 1.025 b. 1.030 c. 1.035 d. 1.040

b. 1.030

43. A healthy bird can only lose ≤10% of its blood volume safely. You have been asked to draw a blood sample from a 1-kg macaw. What is the maximum amount of blood that can be taken from this patient safely? a. 1 mL b. 10 mL c. 15 mL d. 5 mL

b. 10 mL

294. Which of the following is a concentration of a drug solution? a. 15 mg/kg b. 1000 U/mL c. 20 gr/mg d. 250 g/lb

b. 1000 U/mL

270. Fresh frozen plasma can be stored up to _________ and still contain clotting factors. a. 1 month b. 12 months c. 36 months d. 60 months

b. 12 months

584. How many thoracic vertebrae does the rabbit have? a. 7 b. 12- 13 c. 4 d. 8

b. 12- 13

11. _________ is the temperature that must be reached and maintained for 13 minutes in a steam autoclave to destroy microorganisms. a. 110° C b. 121° C c. 170° C d. 240° C

b. 121° C

296. How many cubic centimeters are in a tablespoon? a. 5 b. 15 c. 25 d. 30

b. 15

614. Ferrets have _______ thoracic vertebrae. a. 7 b. 15 c. 5- 6 d. 3

b. 15

541. If the angle of tilt of a bird's wing is greater than _______, then lift is reduced. a. 5 degrees b. 15 degrees c. 25 degrees d. 45 degrees

b. 15 degrees

60. When using the shaded-surface display process with CT, which Hounsfield units should be selected to view bone? a. −750 HU b. 160 HU c. −200 HU d. −800 HU

b. 160 HU

494. At what age do wolf teeth develop in the horse? a. Less than 12 months b. 18 months to 5 years c. 5- 10 years d. Greater than 10 years

b. 18 months to 5 years

9. At what age in foals does the closure of the proximal growth plate of P2 occur? a. 4-22 weeks b. 18-30 weeks c. 22-38 weeks d. 18-38 weeks

b. 18-30 weeks

339. An animal's body consists of how many main body cavities? a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 8

b. 2

99. How many chambers does the fish heart contain? a. 4 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5

b. 2

207. To obtain a dorsopalmar view of the fetlock joint of a horse, the primary beam needs to be angled _______ degrees proximal to distal. a. 10 b. 20 c. 45 d. 60

b. 20

398. The doctor asks you to administer 5 g of 25% mannitol to a patient. How many mL do you give? a. 5 mL b. 20 mL c. 40 mL d. 25 mL

b. 20 mL

142. How much urine do horses produce a day? a. 10 mL/ kg/ day b. 20 mL/ kg/ day c. 40 mL/ kg/ day d. 60 mL/ kg/ day

b. 20 mL/ kg/ day

510. How many mL of urine does an equine patient produce per day of body weight? a. 10 mL/ kg/ day b. 20 mL/ kg/ day c. 45 mL/ kg/ day d. 60 mL/ kg/ day

b. 20 mL/ kg/ day

67. A 50-lb dog is to be given 1 mg/kg dose of diazepam. How many milligrams should he receive? a. 50 mg b. 22.7 mg c. 500 mg d. 2.27 mg

b. 22.7 mg

589. What is the average heart rate of rabbits? a. 250- 500 bpm b. 220 bpm c. 130- 190 bpm d. 260- 450 bpm

b. 220 bpm

196. The protective lead equipment required for wear during x-ray exposure can decrease the primary beam exposure by how much? a. 15% b. 25% c. 50% d. 100%

b. 25%

188. How many muscle heads are in the canine triceps brachii group? a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1

b. 3

212. What is the value of X in this cow's dentition chart? I 0/ 3; C 0/ 1; P 3/ 3; M X/ 3 a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1

b. 3

387. The doctor asks you to start a fentanyl CRI at 3 mcg/kg/hr in a 50-kg dog. The fentanyl you have available in the hospital is 50 mcg/mL. What will the rate per hour be? a. 1 mL/hr b. 3 mL/hr c. 5 mL/hr d. 50 mL/hr

b. 3 mL/hr

368. Monosaccharides contain how many carbon atoms in a chain? a. 2- 5 b. 3- 7 c. 5- 10 d. 10- 15

b. 3- 7

162. The red-top Vacutainer tube should sit at room temperature for ___ before centrifugation, allowing a clot to form. a. 5 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 1 hour d. 0 minutes (No clot will form)

b. 30 minutes

128. What percentage is the normal range for packed cell volume (PCV) in the rabbit? a. 25%-35% b. 33%-45% c. 44%-50% d. 50%-57%

b. 33%-45%

587. What is the normal body temperature of rabbits? a. 36.2 ° C- 37.5 ° C b. 38.3 ° C c. 38.3 ° C- 39.2 ° C d. None of the above

b. 38.3 ° C

43. When using a dental x-ray unit, the end of the cone should be positioned at ______ inches from the patient's anatomy. a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 10

b. 4

602. Hard fibrous pellets from the digestive system of rabbits are produced within ______ hours of eating. a. 3 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8

b. 4

292. If you count 40 reticulocytes per 1000 erythrocytes, what is the observed reticulocyte count? a. 2% b. 4% c. 20% d. 40%

b. 4%

509. How many grams does the average equine kidney weigh? a. 100- 200 g b. 400- 600 g c. 800- 1000 g d. 1000- 1500 g

b. 400- 600

153. The average gestational length in the ferret is: a. 69 days b. 42 days c. 151 days d. 20 days

b. 42 days

133. When do fetal skeletons of small animals become visible on x-ray? a. 20-25 days b. 42-45 days c. 55-60 days d. 65-70 days

b. 42-45 days

171. How long must the typical microhematocrit tube be centrifuged for packed cell volume determination? a. 1 minute b. 5 minutes c. 10 minutes d. 15 minutes

b. 5 minutes

333. The veterinarian asks you to fill metronidazole 250 mgs po BID for 6 days. You have 500 mg tablets in stock. How many tablets will you fill? a. 3 b. 6 c. 12 d. 24

b. 6

106. What is the half-life of the radioisotope Technetium Tc 99m used in nuclear medicine studies? a. 1 hour b. 6 hours c. 24 hours d. 48 hours

b. 6 hours

364. A puppy infected with Dirofilaria immitis the day it is born will not test positive for heartworm microfilariae until it is _______ old. a. 12 months b. 6 to 7 months c. 3 to 4 months d. 1 month

b. 6 to 7 months

611. How long is the gestational period of guinea pigs? a. 28- 32 days b. 63 days c. 111 days d. 19- 21 days

b. 63 days

293. Most pharmaceutical agents that are measured in grains have how many milligrams per grain? a. 32.4 b. 64.8 c. 100 d. 120

b. 64.8

5. In ferrets, the heart is best auscultated between which of the following ribs? a. 5th and 7th b. 6th and 8th c. 2nd and 4th d. 1st and 3rd

b. 6th and 8th

167. How many cervical vertebrae does the cat have? a. 13 b. 7 c. 3 d. 10

b. 7

640. How many cervical vertebrae does the cat have? a. 3 b. 7 c. 13 d. 18

b. 7

211. Horses have how many cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae? a. 7, 13, 7 b. 7, 18, 7 c. 6, 7, 18 d. 7, 18, 4

b. 7, 18, 7

273. Frozen fresh plasma (FFP) must be separated and frozen within ____ hours to maintain all coagulation factors in normal concentrations. a. 2 b. 8 c. 12 d. 6

b. 8

425. The doctor would like to place a patient on a metoclopramide CRI at 2 mg/kg/day. He would like this added to a 1-L bag of fluids that will last 24 hr. The patient weighs 20 kg. How many mL of 5-mg/mL metoclopramide should be added to the bag? a. 2 mL b. 8 mL c. 20 mL d. 40 mL

b. 8 mL

66. A dog that weighs 10 kg would have approximately how much blood? a. 50 mL b. 800 mL c. 1.5 L d. 2 L

b. 800 mL

395. Plasma is composed of what percentage of water? a. 7% b. 92% c. 1% d. Plasma does not contain water

b. 92%

367. Esmolol is: a. A nonselective beta blocker b. A beta-1 blocker c. A beta-2 blocker d. Not a beta blocker

b. A beta-1 blocker

321. Which fibers in the central nervous system are responsible for sharp, localized pain? a. A b. A delta c. C d. C delta

b. A delta

220. Which of these is not a characteristic of lymph? a. Tissue fluids b. A large number of neutrophils c. B cells d. Part of the circulatory system

b. A large number of neutrophils

58. What does the term pitch refer to in CT imaging? a. The calculation of an unknown value based on two known values on either side b. A ratio between the table movement in mm and the CT slice thickness c. A type of helical scanning d. None of the above

b. A ratio between the table movement in mm and the CT slice thickness

189. Fascia is described as: a. The facial muscular surface b. A tough sheet of fibrous connective tissue c. A broad band of muscle fiber d. A lacy network of connective tissue

b. A tough sheet of fibrous connective tissue

110. The term ventral recumbency refers to the patient lying on the __________________. a. Back b. Abdomen c. Right side d. Left side

b. Abdomen

303. Which cavity lies immediately caudal to the thoracic cavity? a. Pelvic cavity b. Abdominal cavity c. Pleural cavity d. None of these

b. Abdominal cavity

211. To obtain a craniocaudal view of the brachioantebrachial joint of a horse, how should the leg be positioned? a. Adducted b. Abducted c. Extended cranially d. Extended caudally

b. Abducted

148. Where is the heart located in the snake? a. In the middle of the body, similar to a monitor lizard b. About 25% down the length of the body from the nares c. Just below the base of the skull d. About 2 inches below the skull

b. About 25% down the length of the body from the nares

152. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) is an antidote for what type of drug toxicity? a. Opioid b. Acetaminophen c. Lidocaine d. Digoxin

b. Acetaminophen

9. The nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is extremely toxic to cats is: a. Aspirin b. Acetaminophen c. Carprofen d. Flunixin

b. Acetaminophen

355. A nosocomial infection is always: a. Present but not apparent at the time of hospitalization b. Acquired during the course of hospitalization c. Caused by medical personnel d. Acquired during surgery

b. Acquired during the course of hospitalization

219. When restraining a sedated bird for a lateral x-ray, where should the wings be properly taped? a. On the most distal end b. Across the humerus c. Across the radius-ulna d. The wings should not be taped

b. Across the humerus

310. Immunity that is generated by an animal's immune system following exposure to a foreign antigen is referred to as: a. Passive immunity b. Active immunity c. Responsive immunity d. Colostral immunity

b. Active immunity

288. The following information was provided for a prescription written by a veterinarian: "Canine patient, Amoxicillin 100 mg tablets, Sig: 1 tab q8h po prn 2 refills. Date: 1/5/16." In the prescription what does po mean? a. Administer every other day b. Administer by mouth c. Administer as needed d. Administer on an empty stomach

b. Administer by mouth

328. Which of the following is least likely to cause vaccine failure? a. Improper storage b. Administration during anesthesia c. Interference by maternal antibodies d. Improper route of administration

b. Administration during anesthesia

134. Which hormone stimulates the growth and development of the cortex of the adrenal gland and release of some of its hormones? a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone c. Prolactin d. Follicle-stimulating hormone

b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone

200. When obtaining a lateromedial view of the carpus of a horse, where should the cassette be held? a. Against the palmarolateral aspect of the leg b. Against the medial aspect of the leg c. Against the palmaromedial aspect of the leg d. Against the palmar aspect of the carpus

b. Against the medial aspect of the leg

230. What are trimethoprim and ormetoprim? a. Agents that are growth regulators b. Agents that enhance bactericidal activity of sulfonamides c. Agents that enhance the spectrum of the activity of penicillins d. Agents that reduce the risk of liver damage from hepatotoxic drugs

b. Agents that enhance bactericidal activity of sulfonamides

401. Where does gas exchange occur in the lungs? a. Bronchi b. Alveolus c. Alveolar duct d. Larynx

b. Alveolus

43. Which of the following nutrients can be used for gluconeogenesis? a. Long-chain fatty acids b. Amino acids c. Vitamin C d. Iron

b. Amino acids

285. What insecticide is effective in treating demodectic mange? a. Fenoxycarb b. Amitraz c. Pyrethrin d. Allethrin

b. Amitraz

300. When a drug is used by an alternative route in a species, or for an indication other than what is specified by the manufacturer, this use is termed: a. A felony offense b. An extra-label use c. Prohibited by the AVMA d. An implied consent from the manufacturer

b. An extra-label use

77. Postrenal azotemia refers to: a. An increase in BUN resulting from severe liver disease b. An increase in BUN resulting from the inability to urinate c. A decrease in BUN resulting from severe renal disease d. An increase in BUN resulting from dehydration

b. An increase in BUN resulting from the inability to urinate

270. Which of the following conditions does the term mastitis refer to? a. The production of colostrum from the mammary gland b. An infection of a mammary gland c. The mammary glands in male species only d. A hormone produced to allow for the production of milk

b. An infection of a mammary gland

272. The testes are responsible for producing which of the following hormones? a. Estrogen b. Androgen c. Progestin d. Sex hormones

b. Androgen

217. A false positive test result is one in which the: a. Animal is affected and the test is negative b. Animal is not affected and the test is positive c. Animal is not affected and the test is negative d. Animal is affected and the test is positive

b. Animal is not affected and the test is positive

276. A variation in erythrocyte size is known as: a. Polycytosis b. Anisocytosis c. Poikilocytosis d. Erythrocytosis

b. Anisocytosis

671. Which muscle flexes the hock and rotates the paw medially? a. Gastrocnemius b. Anterior tibialis c. Pectineus d. Gracilis

b. Anterior tibialis

274. Which of the following stimulates antibody production? a. Immunoglobulin b. Antigen c. T cell d. Plasma cell

b. Antigen

305. What class of drugs generally poses the greatest potential health threat to those handling the medication? a. Antibiotic b. Antineoplastic c. Antinematodal d. Antiprotozoal

b. Antineoplastic

228. What fatal reaction to chloramphenicol has been reported in cats and people? a. Kidney failure b. Aplastic anemia c. Pulmonary edema d. Liver failure

b. Aplastic anemia

110. The front surface of the lens is in contact with which of the following? a. Vitreous humor b. Aqueous humor c. Retina d. Sclera

b. Aqueous humor

53. Repository forms of parenteral drugs: a. Contain a special coating that protects the drug from the harsh, acidic environment of the stomach b. Are formulated to prolong absorption of the drug from the site of administration c. Are composed of specially prepared plant or animal parts rather than being manufactured from chemicals d. Are extremely irritating to the tissues

b. Are formulated to prolong absorption of the drug from the site of administration

391. Which type of blood vessel carries blood away from the heart? a. Veins b. Arteries c. Capillaries d. Vena cava

b. Arteries

139. What is the best exposure time for a thoracic radiograph? a. At any point during the respiratory cycle b. At maximum inspiration c. At maximum expiration d. While the patient is panting

b. At maximum inspiration

168. The first cervical vertebra, C1, is referred to as the: a. Axis b. Atlas c. Arch d. Auricle

b. Atlas

438. What are two examples of anticholinergic drugs? a. Propofol and ketamine b. Atropine and glycopyrrolate c. Cyclosporine and mycophenolate d. Dexdomitor and antisedan

b. Atropine and glycopyrrolate

27. Many species of lizards can "drop" or detach their tails if they are grabbed or restrained too tightly. This natural predatory response is referred to as: a. Autolysis b. Autotomy c. Amputation d. Dysecdysis

b. Autotomy

12. With which of the following is the humoral immune system involved? a. Monocytes b. B cells c. T cells d. Erythrocytes

b. B cells

428. The vestibular sense is responsible for: a. Taste b. Balance and head position c. Vision d. Hearing

b. Balance and head position

360. Which of the following is NOT an example of an organic compound? a. Proteins b. Bases c. Lipids d. Carbohydrates

b. Bases

533. As feathers mature in birds, what happens to the rachis? a. Fills with blood b. Becomes hollow c. Molts d. Nothing, it stays the same throughout life

b. Becomes hollow

482. Which area is the blind spot for a horse? a. In front of the muzzle b. Behind the ears c. Right side of face d. Left side of face

b. Behind the ears

361. On a blood agar plate, an area of complete hemolysis is classified as: a. Alpha b. Beta c. Gamma d. Delta11

b. Beta

245. Which cells within the pancreas produce insulin? a. Alpha cells b. Beta cells c. Delta cells d. All of the cells within the pancreas produce insulin

b. Beta cells

156. Where is the grid located in reference to an x-ray machine? a. Below the cassette b. Between the patient and the cassette c. On top of the patient d. Within the housing unit

b. Between the patient and the cassette

51. The current test of choice for evaluating liver function is: a. Ammonia assay b. Bile acids c. Bilirubin d. Alanine aminotransferase

b. Bile acids

545. Predator birds have which type of vision? a. Monocular b. Binocular c. 3D d. None of the above

b. Binocular

612. Ferrets have which type of vision? a. Monocular b. Binocular c. 3D d. Both a and b

b. Binocular

7. The percentage of the total dose that ultimately reaches the bloodstream is called: a. Absorption b. Bioavailability c. Clearance d. Distribution

b. Bioavailability

401. Some bacteria have an outer layer defined as a biopolymer matrix. This layer is called the: a. Cell wall b. Biofilm c. Matrix layer d. Bio layer

b. Biofilm

347. What is the predominant method for the transmission of feline immunodeficiency virus in cats? a. Grooming b. Bite wounds c. Urine d. Feces

b. Bite wounds

91. How does cerebrospinal fluid appear on a true T1-weighted image of MRI? a. White b. Black c. Different shades of gray d. None of the above

b. Black

257. Impedance is: a. Used in analytic instruments to stop a test b. Blockage of light or electric current in analytic instruments c. Lack of synchronicity between the jugular pulse and the heartbeat d. Inability to feel pedal pulses

b. Blockage of light or electric current in analytic instruments

370. Cardiac drugs that belong in class II act by: a. Stabilizing myocardial cells b. Blocking beta receptors c. Decreasing myocardial automaticity d. Blocking calcium channels

b. Blocking beta receptors

117. Arterial blood is most commonly used to analyze: a. Hematology b. Blood gases c. Blood chemistry d. Organ function tests

b. Blood gases

394. Which of the following is the first main branch of the aorta? a. Left subclavian artery b. Brachiocephalic trunk c. The left common carotid artery d. Superior mesenteric artery

b. Brachiocephalic trunk

460. Which muscle is responsible for movement of the head and neck of the horse? a. Rhomboideus b. Brachiocephalicus c. Splenius d. Deltoid

b. Brachiocephalicus

128. A good presurgical screening test for von Willebrand disease is a(n): a. Total platelet count b. Buccal mucosal bleeding time c. Activated clotting time d. Activated partial thromboplastin time

b. Buccal mucosal bleeding time

332. What structure can cause the male dog to become stuck or "tied" to the female during breeding? a. Testicles b. Bulb of the glans c. Os penis d. None of the above

b. Bulb of the glans

135. Psyllium and Metamucil are examples of: a. Saline cathartics b. Bulk laxatives c. Lubricants d. Irritant cathartics

b. Bulk laxatives

256. What controlled substance rating indicates a drug with the greatest potential for abuse? a. C-III b. C-II c. C-V d. C-IV

b. C-II

684. Which of the following are present in all organs/ tissues and are the sites of exchange between blood and tissue fluid? a. Venules b. Capillaries c. Valves d. Lymph

b. Capillaries

365. Which of the following is an example of a buffer? a. Lemons b. Carbonic acid c. Ammonia d. Vinegar

b. Carbonic acid

192. The two gastric sphincters of the canine are: a. Rectal and cecal b. Cardiac and pyloric c. Cardiac and rectal d. Pyloric and rectal

b. Cardiac and pyloric

94. Which of the following in birds is the final holding area for urine, urates, feces, and eggs before excretion from the body? a. Choana b. Cloaca c. Cecum d. Vent

b. Cloaca

120. Under the microscope you observe a leukocyte that you identify as an eosinophil. The eosinophil cytoplasm contains numerous rod-shaped granules. From which species was this sample most likely collected? a. Dog b. Cat c. Horse d. Cow

b. Cat

95. The species that generally clears NSAIDs most slowly is: a. Dog b. Cat c. Horse d. Ruminant

b. Cat

194. Which of the following contains a filament consisting of a tightly coiled tungsten wire and is the site of electron generation in the x-ray tube? a. Anode b. Cathode c. B-mode d. Transducer

b. Cathode

100. Fat droplets in urine samples are most commonly seen in: a. Dogs b. Cats c. Horses d. Cows

b. Cats

405. Which of the following animals do not have upper incisor teeth? a. Dogs b. Cattle c. Cats d. Horses

b. Cattle

111. The abbreviation Cd in x-ray positioning refers to which of the following? a. Cranial b. Caudal c. Ventral d. Palmar

b. Caudal

190. When positioning a lizard in right lateral recumbency before taking an x-ray, the left limbs are always ____________ to the right limbs. a. Cranial b. Caudal c. Lateral d. Medial

b. Caudal

508. The left kidney of the horse lies __________ to the right kidney, is located ventral to the last rib, and is near the first two or three lumbar transverse processes. a. Cranial b. Caudal c. Lateral d. Medial

b. Caudal

216. For a lateral avian view, where would the left wings and limbs be positioned? a. Cranially to the right wings and limbs b. Caudally to the right wings and limbs c. Lateral to the right wings and limbs d. Superimposed to the right wings and limbs

b. Caudally to the right wings and limbs

252. Drugs classified as ACE inhibitors have what effect on the body? a. Increase the strength of heart contractions b. Cause vasodilatation c. Cause bronchodilatation d. Increase the heart rate

b. Cause vasodilatation

254. Nitroglycerin is sometimes used as a paste applied to the pinna or to the abdominal skin in dogs with cardiovascular disease. Nitroglycerin has what therapeutic effect? a. Increases strength of heart contractions b. Causes vasodilation c. Causes bronchodilation d. Decreases the heart rate

b. Causes vasodilation

665. Which opening lies within the central tendon and transmits the caudal vena cava? a. Aortic hiatus b. Caval foramen c. Esophageal hiatus d. Foramen magnum

b. Caval foramen

599. The ileum in rabbits terminates at which of the following structures? a. Ileocecal tonsil b. Cecum c. Rectum d. Duodenum

b. Cecum

222. A monolayer of cells on a blood smear is best described as: a. A feathered edge b. Cells with no overlapping or touching c. Cells touching each other very closely with some overlapping d. The body of the blood smear

b. Cells with no overlapping or touching

169. What is the topographic radiographic landmark for the caudal cervical vertebrae? a. Base of the skull b. Center of the spine of the scapula c. At the C4 level d. At the T4 level

b. Center of the spine of the scapula

6. To obtain a dorsoventral view of the abdomen of a rabbit, where should the center of the beam be focused? a. Center over the heart b. Center over the liver c. Center of the body cranial to caudal d. Center over the thoracolumbar area

b. Center over the liver

177. Which of the following antibiotics should not be given to an animal that demonstrates an allergic response to penicillin administration? a. Clindamycin b. Cephalosporins c. Sulfonamides d. Fluoroquinolones

b. Cephalosporins

413. What is the largest most rostral part of the brain? a. Cerebellum b. Cerebrum c. Thalamus d. Brainstem

b. Cerebrum

318. Maropitant is the active ingredient in: a. Carafate b. Cerenia c. Flagyl d. Reglan

b. Cerenia

416. Which portion of the spinal cord is located at the .cranial end? a. Sacral b. Cervical c. Thoracic d. Lumbar

b. Cervical

109. What serum component can be used as a screening test for hypothyroidism? a. ALT b. Cholesterol c. Total protein d. Creatine kinase

b. Cholesterol

84. Fat in the lymph would most likely be associated with: a. Micelles b. Chylomicrons c. VLDL cholesterol d. LDL cholesterol

b. Chylomicrons

407. After food leaves the stomach, it is referred to as which of the following terms? a. Rugae b. Chyme c. Rumen d. Bile

b. Chyme

295. Epithelial cells that contain tiny hairlike projections that move foreign particles along the epithelial surface are known as: a. Simple columnar epithelium b. Ciliated epithelium c. Stratified epithelium d. Transitional epithelium

b. Ciliated epithelium

300. What anticoagulant is used to determine activated partial thromboplastin time and one-stage prothrombin time? a. Heparin b. Citrate c. Fluoride d. EDTA

b. Citrate

61. An example of an antibiotic that is considered to be a βeta-lactamase inhibitor is: a. Amoxicillin b. Clavamox c. Tetracycline d. Penicillin

b. Clavamox

209. What is added to amoxicillin to make it resistant to the penicillin-destroying β-lactamase enzymes produced by some bacteria? a. Trimethoprim b. Clavulanic acid c. Piperonyl butoxide d. Ormetoprim

b. Clavulanic acid

245. Films that are properly collimated will have which of the following appearances? a. Black, fully exposed edges of the film of a finished radiograph b. Clear, unexposed areas on all four edges of the film of a finished radiograph c. Clear, unexposed areas of the 2 long edges of a finished radiograph d. Clear, unexposed areas of the 2 short edges of a finished radiograph

b. Clear, unexposed areas on all four edges of the film of a finished radiograph

566. Which structure is located distal to the cecum of birds? a. Gizzard b. Cloaca c. Proventriculus d. Crop

b. Cloaca

232. What organ releases T cells? a. Thyroid b. Thymus c. Splenic trabeculae d. Tonsils

b. Thymus

63. The best means of assuring that a particular antibiotic treatment will be successful is to: a. Treat for no less than a full 2-week course b. Collect a sample from the infected area for culture and sensitivity c. Use the highest dose that is considered nontoxic d. Use a broad-spectrum antibiotic

b. Collect a sample from the infected area for culture and sensitivity

366. Potassium-sparing diuretics, such as Spirolactone, act on what part of the kidneys? a. Loop of Henle b. Collecting duct c. Proximal tubule d. Bowman capsule

b. Collecting duct

282. What breed of dog has a blood-brain barrier that allows ivermectin to reach toxic concentrations within the brain more readily than in other breeds? a. German shepherd b. Collie c. Schnauzer d. Cocker spaniel

b. Collie

409. Which is the longest segment of the large intestines? a. Ileum b. Colon c. Cecum d. Rectum

b. Colon

32. Which of the following ultrasound artifacts will likely be produced when the sound wave strikes a metal object or a pocket of air? a. Edge shadowing b. Comet tail c. Mirror image d. Acoustic enhancement

b. Comet tail

37. Sexing a tortoise is generally easy. The plastron in the male tortoise is usually: a. Convex b. Concave c. Wider and thicker compared to the female d. Narrower compared to the female

b. Concave

226. A feature of digital radiography that is related to the bit depth of each pixel and the software that accompanies the digital-imaging system is referred to as which of the following? a. Spatial resolution b. Contrast optimization c. Dynamic range d. Exposure latitude

b. Contrast optimization

375. Lactulose can be given to a patient with a portosystemic shunt to help: a. Decrease gastrointestinal transit time b. Convert ammonia to ammonium c. Prevent diarrhea d. Prevent water loss though the colon

b. Convert ammonia to ammonium

429. The clear window on the rostral portion of the eye is known as: a. Eyelids b. Cornea c. Iris d. Sclera

b. Cornea

130. The structure produced immediately after an ovarian follicle has ruptured and released its ovum is the: a. Corpus callosum b. Corpus luteum c. Corpus albicans d. Graafian follicle

b. Corpus luteum

346. What is the main purpose of the epithelial tissue? a. Provides support for the body b. Covers body surfaces c. Provides movement of structures d. Controls the body function

b. Covers body surfaces

329. Bulbourethral glands are also known as? a. The prostate b. Cowper's glands c. Roots d. Seminal glands

b. Cowper's glands

334. The thoracic cavity is considered to be in what anatomical direction from the abdomen? a. Caudal b. Cranial c. Dorsal d. Ventral

b. Cranial

336. A horse's shoulder is located in which anatomical direction to its hip? a. Caudal b. Cranial c. Proximal d. Ventral

b. Cranial

681. Which artery supplies the small intestines with blood? a. Celiac artery b. Cranial mesenteric artery c. Caudal mesenteric artery d. Femoral artery

b. Cranial mesenteric artery

149. What muscle is responsible for pulling the testicles closer to the body? a. Retractor penis muscle b. Cremaster muscle c. Kegel muscle d. Retractor testicle muscle

b. Cremaster muscle

318. Which muscle is responsible for adjusting the testes to regulate temperature? a. Inguinal ring b. Cremaster muscle c. Levator ani d. Psoas muscle

b. Cremaster muscle

104. In the avian species, the ventral wall of the esophagus is greatly expanded to form the: a. Proventriculus b. Crop c. Gizzard d. Duodenum

b. Crop

565. Food passes down the esophagus on the right side of the neck of birds and enters what structure? a. Gizzard b. Crop c. Duodenum d. Proventriculus

b. Crop

193. Triple sulfas were developed to the avert _________ that was/were seen with single sulfonamide toxicity. a. Diarrhea b. Crystalluria c. Bronchospasms d. Seizures

b. Crystalluria

377. Atopica is the brand name for: a. Anzemet b. Cyclosporine c. Dolasetron d. Furosemide

b. Cyclosporine

650. What is the fluid of a cell called? a. Cytoplasm b. Cytosol c. Cytoskeleton d. Tubulins

b. Cytosol

362. Of the fluids listed, which has the lowest sodium content? a. 0.9% NaCl b. D5W c. 0.45% NaCl d. Lactated ringers

b. D5W

199. Digital radiography, CT, MRI, and ultrasound are stored using a universally accepted format known as? a. CCD b. DICOM c. MOD d. PACS

b. DICOM

218. What drugs are considered fluoroquinolones? a. Oxytetracycline, doxycycline b. Danofloxacin, enrofloxacin c. Sulfadimethoxine, sulfamethazine d. Chloramphenicol, lincomycin

b. Danofloxacin, enrofloxacin

316. The specific treatment for malignant hyperthermia is: a. Dexmedetomidine b. Dantrolene c. Diazepam d. Acepromazine

b. Dantrolene

34. Which of the following is the correct definition for the ultrasound term hypoechoic? a. Bright gray b. Dark gray c. White d. Black

b. Dark gray

409. In geriatric patients, drug doses are generally: a. The same as in puppies b. Decreased c. Increased d. The same as in adults

b. Decreased

303. What is the most common cause of hypochromia in erythrocytes? a. Hypertonic drugs b. Decreased hemoglobin c. Iron toxicity d. Increased erythrocyte production

b. Decreased hemoglobin

433. Pancytopenia is characterized by: a. Decreased numbers of white blood cells b. Decreased numbers of all blood cells c. Decreased numbers of red blood cells d. Decreased numbers of granulocytes and monocytes

b. Decreased numbers of all blood cells

416. The parasite also known as the large American liver fluke is of the: a. Alaria species b. Fascioloides species c. Stephanurus species d. Metastrongylus species

b. Fascioloides species

164. The category of drugs classified as ACE inhibitors has which of the following effects on the body? a. Increases preload and afterload on the heart b. Decreases preload and afterload on the heart c. Enhances fluid retention in the body d. Enhances the production of angiotensin II

b. Decreases preload and afterload on the heart

470. Which of the following tendons flexes the toe in horses? a. Suspensory ligament b. Deep digital flexor tendon c. Superficial digital flexor tendon d. Lateral digital extensor tendon

b. Deep digital flexor tendon

187. In which of the following circumstances should water-soluble organic iodides be avoided? a. Suspected bowel perforation b. Dehydrated patients c. Overhydrated patients d. Kidney failure

b. Dehydrated patients

375. When water is extracted from saccharides, it is known as: a. Hydrolysis b. Dehydration synthesis c. Decomposition reaction d. Synthesis reaction

b. Dehydration synthesis

63. The portal vein: a. Carries blood from the spleen to the heart b. Delivers blood to the liver c. Delivers blood to the kidney d. Carries blood from the lungs to the heart

b. Delivers blood to the liver

393. The parasite that lives in hair follicles is: a. Sarcoptes species b. Demodex species c. Chorioptes species d. Otodectes species

b. Demodex species

61. An owner calls the clinic regarding her sick guinea pig. She tells you that her pet has not eaten in 16 hours and has been "picky" with her food during the previous few weeks. She has noticed drooling, overgrooming, and small-sized feces. It sounds as if the veterinarian should examine the guinea pig. Although a diagnosis can't be made on the phone, what is the most likely cause of the animal's signs? a. Cystic ovaries b. Dental disease c. Pasteurella multocida d. Trichobezoar

b. Dental disease

106. All of the following drugs are antagonists and are used to reverse the effects of another drug, except: a. Yohimbine b. Detomidine c. Flumazenil d. Naloxone

b. Detomidine

580. Mature female rabbits develop a large fold of skin under the chin that is known as the: a. Philtrum b. Dewlap c. Crepuscular d. None of the above

b. Dewlap

430. Which of the following is primarily used as a sedative that can also be used to increase the duration of an epidural? a. Bupivacaine b. Dexmedetomidine c. Hydromorphone d. Morphine

b. Dexmedetomidine

72. Which of the following drugs is available over the counter as an antitussive? a. Codeine b. Dextromethorphan c. Hydrocodone d. Butorphanol

b. Dextromethorphan

108. Which muscle is the main muscle for inspiration? a. Epaxial muscle b. Diaphragm c. Internal abdominal oblique d. Hypaxial muscles

b. Diaphragm

526. What division are birds missing that is normally seen between the thorax and abdomen of other animals? a. Lungs b. Diaphragm c. Liver d. Keel

b. Diaphragm

136. What is not a potential side effect of the phenothiazine antiemetics? a. CNS depression b. Diarrhea c. Lowering of the seizure threshold d. Hypotension

b. Diarrhea

383. The parasite diagnosed by tracheal wash is: a. Tritrichomonas species b. Dictyocaulus species c. Dioctophyma species d. Anaplasma species

b. Dictyocaulus species

317. Diffusion of drug molecules across the cell membrane that does not require energy, and is a result of a difference in the concentration of that drug on the inside side of the cell versus the outside, is called: a. Active transport b. Diffusive transport c. Passive transport d. Facilitated transport

b. Diffusive transport

527. Which of the following is responsible for the perching reflex in birds? a. Tibiotarsus b. Digital flexor tendon c. Craniofacial hinge d. Supracoracoid muscle

b. Digital flexor tendon

26. Which reaction is the result of sympathetic nervous system stimulation? a. Decreased heart rate b. Dilated pupils c. Increased GI activity d. Increased salivation

b. Dilated pupils

166. For cats diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, a calcium channel blocker is often prescribed to relax the heart in an attempt to improve cardiac output. Which of the following drugs falls in this category? a. Procainamide b. Diltiazem c. Lidocaine d. Digoxin

b. Diltiazem

279. One of the following anti-inflammatory drugs is sometimes applied topically. Care must be taken to clean the area where it is applied because it readily penetrates the skin and can carry bacterial toxins or other chemicals with it into the body. What drug is this? a. Dexamethasone b. Dimethyl sulfoxide c. Flunixin meglumine d. Hydrocortisone

b. Dimethyl sulfoxide

132. When using Diff-Quik to stain bone marrow smears, it is especially important to: a. Use freshly filtered stain b. Dip the smear twice as long as blood smears c. Rinse thoroughly with distilled water d. Let the smear dry for 30 minutes before staining

b. Dip the smear twice as long as blood smears

454. The femoral condyle is located ______________ to the head of the femur in a horse. a. Proximal b. Distal c. Lateral d. Medial

b. Distal

236. For proper calibration, what solution should be used to calibrate a refractometer? a. Tap water b. Distilled water c. Plasma d. Urine

b. Distilled water

413. Low molecular weight heparin is different from unfractionated heparin in that it: a. Is less pure than unfractionated heparin b. Does not block the activity of thrombin whereas unfractionated heparin does c. Is less expensive than unfractionated heparin d. Is more likely to cause hemorrhage than unfractionated heparin

b. Does not block the activity of thrombin whereas unfractionated heparin does

263. All of the following common domestic animals have a bulbourethral gland (Cowper's gland) except: a. Cat b. Dog c. Horse d. Cow

b. Dog

235. Bile is produce by which of the following organs? a. Gallbladder b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Spleen

b. Liver

411. While drawing up injectable Amikacin for a patient, you note that it has developed a pale yellow color. What should you do? a. Discard the rest of the bottle b. Don't be concerned because you know this can be normal c. Dilute it with saline d. Dilute it with sterile water

b. Don't be concerned because you know this can be normal

28. Which of the following is most commonly used to obtain a heart rate in a reptilian patient? a. Ultrasound b. Doppler c. Stethoscope d. Palpation of pulse

b. Doppler

16. Which of the following best describes the use for Doppler ultrasound? a. Doppler uses a motion mode that simultaneously creates a B-mode image while displaying the motion of the tissues over a two-dimensional scale b. Doppler is used to image the flow of blood and other liquids as well as to measure their velocity c. Doppler units display the different shades of gray d. None of the above

b. Doppler is used to image the flow of blood and other liquids as well as to measure their velocity

38. To obtain a craniocaudal view of the tibia of a small animal, that patient should be in which of the following positions? a. Sternal recumbency b. Dorsal recumbency c. Right lateral recumbency d. Left lateral recumbency

b. Dorsal recumbency

538. Which surface of the wing is longer and convex? And which surface is shorter and more concave? a. Ventral/ dorsal b. Dorsal/ ventral c. Proximal/ distal d. Distal/ proximal

b. Dorsal/ ventral

229. Which radiographic view of the carpal joint of a horse provides the best view to judge the width of the cartilage spaces? a. Lateral b. Dorsopalmar c. Medial oblique d. Flexed lateral

b. Dorsopalmar

49. Which of the following radiographic terms describes the radiographic views distal to the carpus obtained by passing the primary x-ray beam from the dorsal direction to the palmar surface of the forelimb? a. Plantar b. Dorsopalmar c. Palmar d. Caudocranial

b. Dorsopalmar

105. Which of the following is the correct abbreviation to perform a dorsopalmar radiograph? a. CdCr b. Dpa c. CrCd d. Cr

b. Dpa

14. In the rabbit, pregnancy toxemia is most likely to occur during which week(s) of gestation? a. During the first 2 weeks b. During the last week c. During the 6th week d. During the 5th week

b. During the last week

130. To keep the skin and coat healthy, a chinchilla should be offered a daily: a. Multivitamin b. Dust bath c. Vitamin C tablet d. Handful of dried papaya

b. Dust bath

57. The regulatory agency that oversees the development and approval of animal topical pesticides is the: a. FDA b. EPA c. USDA d. DEA

b. EPA

71. A correction for nucleated red blood cells (nRBC) is done to avoid a falsely: a. Elevated PCV b. Elevated WBC count c. Decreased PCV d. Decreased WBC count

b. Elevated WBC count

128. Which of the following is a ductless system? a. Exocrine system b. Endocrine system c. Lymphatic system d. All of the above systems contain ducts

b. Endocrine system

322. ELISA is an acronym for: a. Electro-linked immunosorbent assay b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay c. Enzyme-linked immunoassay d. Electrolytic isoantibody assay

b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

673. The _______________ is a projection of bone on the lateral edge above its condyle. a. Foramen b. Epicondyle c. Head d. Periosteum

b. Epicondyle

290. Which layer of the skin is the most superficial? a. Dermis b. Epidermis c. Hypodermis d. None of these

b. Epidermis

291. Which layer of skin is composed of multiple layers of cells that are continually renewed? a. Dermis b. Epidermis c. Hypodermis d. All of the above

b. Epidermis

97. Mucus is normally seen in _________ urine. a. Canine b. Equine c. Feline d. Bovine

b. Equine

196. What marrow finding is consistent with a responsive anemia? a. Myeloid hypoplasia b. Erythroid hyperplasia c. Erythroid hypoplasia d. Myeloid metaplasia

b. Erythroid hyperplasia

175. The term for red blood cell formation is: a. Erythropoietin b. Erythropoiesis c. Hematopoietin d. Leukopoiesis

b. Erythropoiesis

239. Drugs that reduce the viscosity of secretions in the respiratory tract are called: a. Anti-inflammatories b. Expectorants c. Antitussives d. Antihistamines

b. Expectorants

222. When obtaining a dorsoventral view of the whole body of a rodent, how should the front legs be positioned? a. Extended caudally b. Extended cranially c. Superimposed d. Abducted from the body

b. Extended cranially

663. Which muscle originates from the caudal border of one rib and inserts on the cranial border of the rib behind it? a. Internal intercostals b. External intercostals c. External abdominal oblique d. Internal abdominal oblique

b. External intercostals

111. Rostral abrasions in the captive lizard are most commonly caused by: a. Fungal infections b. Facial impact with terrarium walls c. Trauma from cage mates d. Trauma from feeding live prey

b. Facial impact with terrarium walls

434. Because sucralfate is more effective in an acidic environment, it should be administered before: a. Cisapride b. Famotidine c. Lactulose d. Metoclopramide

b. Famotidine

13. Which of the following is a lentivirus? a. Coronavirus b. Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV) c. Herpes virus d. Parvovirus

b. Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)

365. The ELISA heartworm test kit detects the antigens of: a. Heartworm microfilariae b. Female adult heartworms c. Adult heartworms and microfilariae d. Toxins produced by adult heartworms

b. Female adult heartworms

315. Malignant hyperthermia is a possible side effect of which of the following? a. Etomidate b. Fentanyl c. Halothane d. Propofol

b. Fentanyl

447. Which of the following joints lies between the cannon bone and the long pastern? a. Stifle joint b. Fetlock joint c. Pastern joint d. Carpal joint

b. Fetlock joint

77. Sox, a 10-year-old M/C Siamese X, was brought to the emergency hospital, crying in pain and unable to walk. He was diagnosed with an aortic thromboembolism secondary to cardiomyopathy. The drug class used to treat this condition is: a. Anticoagulant b. Fibrinolytic c. Hematinic d. Hemostatic

b. Fibrinolytic

201. Which statement best describes short bones? a. Greater size in one dimension than another b. Filled with spongy bone and marrow spaces c. Thick outer layer of compact bone d. Irregularly shaped bones that make up the spinal column

b. Filled with spongy bone and marrow spaces

198. Which type of monitoring badge is the most common method of monitoring ionizing radiation? a. Thermoluminescent dosimeters b. Film badges c. Optically stimulated luminescence badges d. Ion chambers

b. Film badges

99. Which of the following is the best view for detecting distal corner fractures? a. Lateral view b. Flexed lateral view c. Medial oblique d. Dorsopalmar view

b. Flexed lateral view

23. Which class of antibiotics, when administered to juvenile animals, can impair cartilage development? a. Cephalosporins b. Fluoroquinolones c. Macrolides d. Penicillins

b. Fluoroquinolones

260. Bots are: a. Lice eggs b. Fly larvae c. Flea feces d. Seed ticks

b. Fly larvae

150. Not all follicles that were activated in a particular ovarian cycle fully develop and ovulate. This is known as: a. Ovulation b. Follicular atresia c. Graafian follicle d. Corpus albicans

b. Follicular atresia

477. What provides nourishment to the digital cushion and functions with the frog in the horse's foot? a. Sole corium b. Frog corium c. Laminar corium d. Perioplic corium

b. Frog corium

58. The most common cause for penile prolapse in the chinchilla is: a. Malnutrition b. Fur ring formation c. Improper breeding with female d. Bacterial infection

b. Fur ring formation

136. Scruffing is not recommended in chinchillas because of which of the following potential issues: a. It is painful for them b. Fur slip c. Scruffing is actually fine in chinchillas d. Chinchillas do not have enough skin around the neck region to scruff them properly

b. Fur slip

235. Which of the following is not a radiographic characteristic of the bones of a newborn foal? a. Smooth b. Fused c. Round d. Wider joint spaces

b. Fused

7. Which of the following areas contains more than half of all lymphoid tissue in the rabbit? a. Nervous system b. GI tract c. Urinary tract d. Heart and lungs

b. GI tract

478. The sequence in which a horse lifts its feet from the ground is described as what? a. Trot b. Gait c. Gallop d. Canter

b. Gait

120. What abdominal organ is absent in the horse and rat? a. Right kidney b. Gallbladder c. Pancreas d. Cecum

b. Gallbladder

555. The 9 different air sacs within birds are responsible for all of the following, except: a. Lightening the weight of the skeleton b. Gaseous exchange c. As a reservoir for air d. The bellows Effect

b. Gaseous exchange

97. The most common side effect of NSAIDs is: a. Polyuria b. Gastrointestinal ulceration c. Diarrhea d. Constipation

b. Gastrointestinal ulceration

3. Which of the following are common presenting signs in a ferret with ibuprofen toxicity? a. Arrhythmias and vomiting b. Generalized neurologic signs c. Heart failure d. Excessive drooling and tachycardia

b. Generalized neurologic signs

214. What antibiotic is most likely to cause damage to the ear? a. Amoxicillin b. Gentamicin c. Tetracycline d. Enrofloxacin

b. Gentamicin

383. Functional proteins are also known as: a. Structural proteins b. Globular proteins c. Fibrous proteins d. None of the above

b. Globular proteins

669. Which muscle group extends the hip joint and abducts the thigh? a. Sartorius b. Gluteals c. Quadriceps femoris d. Gastrocnemius

b. Gluteals

645. All of the following are lipids, except: a. Steroids b. Glycogen c. Triglycerides d. Prostaglandins

b. Glycogen

448. Which drug is preferred over Atropine for use in rabbits, because Atropine is less predictable in this species? a. Acepromazine b. Glycopyrrolate c. Diazepam d. a and b

b. Glycopyrrolate

356. Generally, endotoxins are products of: a. Viruses b. Gram-negative bacteria c. Gram-positive bacteria d. Fungi

b. Gram-negative bacteria

94. What is the name for the large, flat projection located lateral to the head of the femur? a. Lesser trochanter b. Greater trochanter c. Trochanteric fossa d. Tubercle

b. Greater trochanter

176. What is the caudal landmark for obtaining an abdominal x-ray in the lateral position? a. Three rib spaces cranial to the xiphoid b. Greater trochanter of the femur c. The ilium wings d. The manubrium

b. Greater trochanter of the femur

25. What color are blood collection tubes that contain heparin? a. Purple b. Green c. Blue d. Gray

b. Green

307. Controlled substances are drugs that: a. Cannot be used in any animal intended for use as human food b. Have a high potential for abuse c. Are very hazardous to anyone handling them d. Are environmentally hazardous

b. Have a high potential for abuse

34. Which of the following sites are commonly used for venipuncture in the snake? a. Heart and ventral abdominal vein b. Heart and caudal tail vein c. Heart only d. Caudal tail vein and ventral abdominal vein

b. Heart and caudal tail vein

430. Blood in the urine is reported as: a. Dysuria b. Hematuria c. Pyuria d. Proteinuria

b. Hematuria

44. Mr. Downing has brought in a urine sample from Cleo, his 6-year-old female spayed cocker spaniel. The color of the urine appears red. On centrifugation of the sample, you find that the supernatant is now clear. What was the most likely cause of the red color? a. Hemoglobinuria b. Hematuria c. Myoglobinuria d. Uroglobinuria

b. Hematuria

397. Which protein gives erythrocytes their red color? a. Granulocytes b. Hemoglobin c. Fibrinogen d. Eosinophil

b. Hemoglobin

92. Yellow mucous membranes would suggest: a. Renal disease b. Hepatic disease c. Shock d. Dehydration

b. Hepatic disease

97. Clinical signs in a bird that include loose green feces, green urates, lethargy, inappetence, ascites, abnormal beak and nails, and poor feather quality are often indicative of: a. Renal failure b. Hepatic disease c. Fungal overgrowth d. Cardiac disease

b. Hepatic disease

21. An intact male African hedgehog of unknown age presents to the clinic with a 3-day history of lethargy, inappetence, icterus, and diarrhea. Which of the following diseases is most likely to cause these symptoms? a. Acute renal failure b. Hepatic lipidosis c. Bacterial pneumonia d. Glomerulosclerosis

b. Hepatic lipidosis

115. Which structure drains blood from the stomach, intestine, and pancreas and flows directly to the liver? a. Hepatic veins b. Hepatic portal vein c. Hepatic artery d. Portosystemic shunt

b. Hepatic portal vein

144. Which of the following leukocytes are usually the most numerous cells in avian blood? a. Eosinophils b. Heterophils c. Basophils d. Lymphocytes

b. Heterophils

123. Which of the following will help prevent motion artifacts? a. Low milliamperage b. High milliamperage c. Higher kVp d. Lower kVp

b. High milliamperage

251. The indented area on the medial side of the kidney is known as the: a. Porta hepatis b. Hilum c. Convex d. Cortex

b. Hilum

141. The point at which blood vessels, nerves, and ureters enter and leave the kidneys is known as: a. Medulla b. Hilus c. Cortex d. Pelvis

b. Hilus

340. During an allergic response, what do sensitized cells produce in abnormal quantities when an allergen reappears after an initial exposure? a. Antihistamines b. Histamine c. Toxins d. Lysins

b. Histamine

621. A castrated male ferret is referred to as a: a. Jill b. Hobble c. Hob d. Gelding

b. Hobble

473. A protective external capsule, called the __________, surrounds the internal structures of the foot on a horse. a. Frog b. Hoof c. Horseshoe d. Sole

b. Hoof

420. Calcium carbonate crystals are often seen in ___ urine. a. Dog b. Horse c. Cat d. Cattle

b. Horse

94. Flunixin meglumine (Banamine) is an NSAID most commonly used in: a. Dogs for the treatment of chronic osteoarthritis b. Horses for the treatment of colic c. Horses for reducing fever d. Dogs for its anticoagulant activity

b. Horses for the treatment of colic

101. What is the term used to describe an area that indicates higher radiation has been emitted in nuclear medicine? a. Cold spot b. Hot spot c. Gamma photon burst d. None of the above

b. Hot spot

272. What appears as a blue spherical nuclear remnant seen in some Wright-stained erythrocytes? a. Reticulocyte b. Howell-Jolly body c. Heinz body d. Leptocyte

b. Howell-Jolly body

449. The glenoid cavity is located immediately proximal to which of the following bones of the horse? a. Scapula b. Humerus c. Ulna d. Cannon bone

b. Humerus

76. Which of the following is the best method for storing lead x-ray gowns? a. Folded and kept in a drawer to prevent overexposure b. Hung up by the shoulders when not in use c. Draped across the table with the tail end hanging off the side d. None of the above

b. Hung up by the shoulders when not in use

423. Visceral sensations include which of the following? a. Heat and cold b. Hunger and thirst c. Odors d. Touch and pressure

b. Hunger and thirst

183. Which of the following is the largest intermediate form of a tapeworm? a. Cysticercus b. Hydatid cyst c. Coenurus d. Cysticercoid

b. Hydatid cyst

89. Chronic use of moderate-to-high doses of glucocorticoids may result in the development of: a. Hypoadrenocorticism b. Hyperadrenocorticism c. Hypothyroidism d. Hyperthyroidism

b. Hyperadrenocorticism

266. What is the underlying cause of icterus? a. Anemia b. Hyperbilirubinemia c. Ketonuria d. Hyperhemoglobinemia

b. Hyperbilirubinemia

202. For glucosuria to occur, which of the following must also be present? a. Uremia b. Hyperglycemia c. Ketonemia d. Azoturia

b. Hyperglycemia

338. When reviewing a blood smear, you come across an erythrocyte that does not contain its full amount of hemoglobin. What is this known as? a. Polychromasia b. Hypochromasia c. Basophilia d. Hyperchromasia

b. Hypochromasia

404. The parasite whose larvae form warbles in subcutaneous tissue along the backs of cattle is: a. Gasterophilus species b. Hypoderma species c. Oestrus species d. Cuterebra species

b. Hypoderma species

213. All of the following samples should be submitted when acetaminophen is suspected to have been ingested, except: a. Plasma (EDTA or heparin preserved) b. Liver biopsy c. Urine d. Blood Smear

b. Liver biopsy

23. An Amazon parrot presents to the hospital with the following clinical signs: blunted choanal papillae, plantar erosions on the planter surfaces of the feet, poor-quality feathering, and poor skin. Diet consists of seeds only. Which of the following diseases is most likely to cause these signs? a. Hypovitaminosis C b. Hypovitaminosis A c. Hypocalcemia d. Candidiasis

b. Hypovitaminosis A

339. A patient is hospitalized for vomiting and diarrhea. The doctor orders metronidazole to be given BID. What is the most likely route the doctor will use? a. PO b. IV c. IM d. SQ

b. IV

427. Because administration of medications via this route has more potential for adverse effects, what type of injection should be given slowly? a. IP b. IV c. IM d. SQ

b. IV

86. Milk fever in dairy cows is typically treated with: a. IV glucose b. IV calcium c. Atropine d. Antibiotics

b. IV calcium

168. In dogs that have been receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy (months to years), a sudden discontinuation of the drug may result in which of the following medical problems? a. Immunosuppression b. Iatrogenic addisonian crisis c. Polyuria and polydipsia d. Iatrogenic thyroid disease

b. Iatrogenic addisonian crisis

247. What sample condition cannot be minimized by proper animal preparation or proper sample collection and handling? a. Hemolysis b. Icterus c. Lipemia d. Evaporation

b. Icterus

119. Which of these is not a division of the small intestine? a. Duodenum b. Ilium c. Ileum d. Jejunum

b. Ilium

452. Which of the following is the largest bone of the pelvis of the horse? a. Ischium b. Ilium c. Pubis d. Acetabulum

b. Ilium

85. Which of the following side effects is commonly seen with many cancer chemotherapeutic drugs? a. Hyperglycemia b. Immunosuppression c. Constipation d. Hyperphagia

b. Immunosuppression

378. Escherichia coli is normally found: a. On the skin b. In the intestinal tract c. In the respiratory tract d. In the stomach

b. In the intestinal tract

173. When imaging the lumbosacral vertebrae in the lateral position, which of the following should be done to ensure proper exposure? a. Decrease the kVp b. Increase the kVp c. Increase the mAs d. Decrease the mAs

b. Increase the kVp

231. How does the adjacent bone density appear in fresh carpal chips in horses? a. Decreased b. Increased c. Normal

b. Increased

19. Which of the following factors does not contribute to cannibalism of the young by female hamsters? a. Lean diet b. Increased ambient temperature c. Low body weight d. Handling the mother and/or the young

b. Increased ambient temperature

412. A urine specimen collected by free catch at 8 AM and left at room temperature until the afternoon could be expected to have: a. Decreased numbers of bacteria b. Increased numbers of bacteria c. Decreased numbers of epithelial cells d. Increased numbers of epithelial cells

b. Increased numbers of bacteria

225. Prolonged exposure of serum to the blood cells before the serum is removed from the clot can result in: a. Increased serum glucose b. Increased serum phosphorus c. Increased serum enzyme activity d. Increased serum sodium

b. Increased serum phosphorus

668. Which muscle is responsible for stabilizing and flexing the shoulder joint? a. Supraspinatus b. Infraspinatus c. Triceps brachii d. Biceps brachii

b. Infraspinatus

331. The mode of action in which Enrofloxacin works by is: a. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis b. Inhibiting DNA c. Inhibiting protein synthesis d. Inhibiting the metabolic pathway

b. Inhibiting DNA

273. Which hormone is responsible for the movement of glucose into cells and its use for energy? a. Progestin b. Insulin c. Glucagon d. Calcitonin

b. Insulin

315. Which muscle type is responsible for moving the lips, cheeks, nostrils, eyelids, and external ears? a. Sphincter muscle b. Intrinsic muscle c. Extrinsic muscle d. Digastricus.

b. Intrinsic muscle

357. A bond that is formed when electrons are transferred from one atom to another is known as what type of bond? a. Covalent bond b. Ionic bond c. Hydrogen bond d. Triple covalent bond

b. Ionic bond

654. When tension is generated in the muscle, muscle tone increases but the muscle does not shorten. Which of the following correctly names this action? a. Isotonic contraction b. Isometric contraction c. Muscle tone d. None of the above

b. Isometric contraction

402. Which of the following is true about the thoracic cavity? a. It contains positive pressure b. It contains negative pressure c. It does not contain any fluid d. It is located below the diaphragm

b. It contains negative pressure

28. Which of the following statements is true when considering the use of butorphanol? a. It is an antibiotic b. It is an antitussive c. It can be reversed using yohimbine d. It is contraindicated in the cat

b. It is an antitussive

206. Unlike many other penicillins, penicillin G is not recommended for use by mouth. Why? a. It upsets the stomach. b. It is destroyed by gastric acid. c. It causes severe diarrhea and intestinal cramping. d. It is ineffectively absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract.

b. It is destroyed by gastric acid.

144. If the mA or exposure time is doubled, what happens to the film density? a. It is halved b. It is doubled c. It stays the same d. It is unrelated to the mA or exposure time

b. It is doubled

302. Sometimes drugs are first administered in a large dose and then given as a series of smaller doses. What is the first dose called? a. Initial dose b. Loading dose c. Distribution dose d. Bolus dose

b. Loading dose

9. Which of the following is an important function of bacterial flagella? a. Attachment b. Locomotion c. DNA replication d. Ion transport

b. Locomotion

223. Why should tetracycline use be avoided in pregnant bitches? a. It may cause changes in the joint cartilage that may result in arthritis at an older age in the pup. b. It may be deposited in dental enamel and give the pup's teeth a mottled yellow appearance. c. It may impair normal central nervous system development in the pups that may show up as behavioral changes later in life. d. It may damage the developing pups and may result in liver impairment later in life.

b. It may be deposited in dental enamel and give the pup's teeth a mottled yellow appearance.

348. Which of the following is most likely to be used against Malassezia? a. Griseofulvin b. Itraconazole c. Metronidazole d. Tetracycline

b. Itraconazole

389. The parasite also known as a deer tick is: a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus b. Ixodes dammini c. Dermacentor variabilis d. Dermacentor albipictus

b. Ixodes dammini

107. Which of the following species is arboreal? a. Leopard gecko b. Jackson's chameleon c. Bearded dragon d. Savannah monitor

b. Jackson's chameleon

524. The sternum of birds is extended into a laterally flattened __________, which provides a large surface area for the attachment of the major flight muscles. a. Coracoid b. Keel c. Beak d. Quadrate

b. Keel

434. Erythropoietin is produced in the: a. Bone marrow b. Kidney c. Liver d. Pituitary gland

b. Kidney

250. Which organ( s) is/ are responsible for acid-base balance regulation? a. Lungs b. Kidneys c. Liver d. Spleen

b. Kidneys

316. Before birth, the testes begin to develop in the abdominal cavity near which organ? a. Stomach b. Kidneys c. Bladder d. Gallbladder

b. Kidneys

93. How is gadolinium that is used in MRI excreted from the body? a. Liver b. Kidneys c. Lungs d. GI tract

b. Kidneys

138. The lymphatic structure found in the small intestines responsible for the transport of fats and fat-soluble vitamins is: a. Afferent lymphatic vessels b. Lacteals c. Trabeculae d. Spleen

b. Lacteals

503. Where does the microbial digestion of cellulose take place within the horse? a. Ileocecal junction b. Large intestine c. Small intestine d. Stomach

b. Large intestine

409. In which stage of the tick life cycle does it have six legs? a. Nymphal b. Larval c. Adult female d. Adult male

b. Larval

70. The process of voice production usually begins in which location? a. Pharynx b. Larynx c. Thorax d. Trachea

b. Larynx

3. When obtaining a lateral projection of the skull of small animals, where should the centering of the image occur? a. Midway between the tip of the nose to just caudal to the occipital protuberance at the base b. Lateral canthus of the eye socket c. Between the eyes d. Above the base of the tongue and just below the palate, approximately at the commissure of the mouth

b. Lateral canthus of the eye socket

29. The ability to distinguish between two objects that are adjacent to each other, yet perpendicular to the sound wave in ultrasound, is described as: a. Axial resolution b. Lateral resolution c. Longitudinal resolution d. Azimuthal resolution

b. Lateral resolution

687. Blood leaving the lungs travels to enter which section of the heart? a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle

b. Left atrium

125. When obtaining an x-ray of a vomiting patient, which position is ideal? a. Right lateral recumbency b. Left lateral recumbency c. Dorsal/ventral d. Ventral/dorsal

b. Left lateral recumbency

390. The aorta originates from which structure? a. Right ventricle b. Left ventricle c. Left atrium d. Right atrium

b. Left ventricle

229. Which of these is not a function of the lymphatic system? a. Transport of waste materials b. Leukocyte production c. Removal of excess tissue fluid d. Protein transport

b. Leukocyte production

246. What drug reduces tachyarrhythmias by blocking sodium and decreasing automaticity of the cardiac cells? a. Propranolol b. Lidocaine c. Procainamide d. Digoxin

b. Lidocaine

431. What can be used to decrease the damage caused by reperfusion injury? a. Bupivacaine b. Lidocaine c. Marcaine d. Procaine

b. Lidocaine

285. What is the term used to describe plasma that appears white or milky? a. Leukemia b. Lipemia c. Chylemia d. Lactemia

b. Lipemia

241. Drawing a blood sample from an animal that has recently eaten may result in a sample that is: a. Hemolyzed b. Lipemic c. Icteric d. Anemic

b. Lipemic

153. An expectorant is a drug that acts to: a. Suppress a productive cough b. Liquefy and dilute viscous secretions in the respiratory tract c. Suppress inflammatory cells in the respiratory tract d. Reduce the allergic component of respiratory disease

b. Liquefy and dilute viscous secretions in the respiratory tract

213. How can a drug such as neomycin, which has severe risk of nephrotoxicity when administered by injection, have little risk when administered topically or orally? a. Some species are resistant to kidney damage that may result from the drug. b. Little of the drug is absorbed through the skin. c. Absorbed drug is excreted so quickly that it does not have time to damage the kidneys. d. Subcutaneous enzymes inactivate the drug.

b. Little of the drug is absorbed through the skin.

16. Blood levels of total bilirubin are used primarily to evaluate the function of the: a. Kidneys b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Bile ducts

b. Liver

2. Decreased function of what organ would have the greatest effect on the biotransformation of most drugs? a. Kidney b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Spleen

b. Liver

104. What does the color blue indicate on a nuclear medicine study? a. High activity b. Low activity c. No activity d. Normal anatomy

b. Low activity

117. The pulmonary circulation is under: a. High pressure b. Low pressure c. Partial pressure d. Equilibrium

b. Low pressure

311. Which of the following interferes with the development of an insect's chitin? a. Griseofulvin b. Lufenuron c. Methoprene d. Spinosad

b. Lufenuron

224. What is the effect of prostaglandin F2 alpha on the reproductive system? a. Ovulation b. Luteolysis c. Follicle stimulation d. Corpus luteum formation

b. Luteolysis

118. All of the following cells are produced in the bone marrow, except: a. Erythrocytes b. Lymphocytes c. Neutrophils d. Eosinophils

b. Lymphocytes

226. Phagocytes include all of the following, except: a. Neutrophils b. Lymphocytes c. Monocytes d. Macrophages

b. Lymphocytes

118. Which of the following white blood cells are predominant in the rabbit? a. Monocytes and neutrophils b. Lymphocytes and heterophils c. Metamyelocytes and azurophils d. Eosinophils and bands

b. Lymphocytes and heterophils

193. What erythrocyte index provides an indication of the average size of a red blood cell? a. MCHC b. MCV c. M/E ratio d. Reticulocyte count

b. MCV

82. Which imaging modality is superior for demonstrating the brain and spinal cord? a. Ultrasound b. MRI c. X-ray d. Fluoroscopy

b. MRI

148. Struvite crystals are composed of: a. Calcium potassium carbonates b. Magnesium ammonium phosphates c. Oxalates d. Urates

b. Magnesium ammonium phosphates

572. Which of the following structures is the largest and most glandular structure of the oviduct in birds? a. Infundibulum b. Magnum c. Isthmus d. Cloaca

b. Magnum

632. The mental foramen of the cat is located on which bone? a. Occipital bone b. Mandible c. Tympanic bulla d. Nasal bone

b. Mandible

258. What drug is most likely to be prescribed to prevent motion sickness? a. Apomorphine b. Maropitant c. Xylazine d. Diphenhydramine

b. Maropitant

658. Which of the following muscles originate at the zygomatic arch and inserts on the masseteric fossa on the lateral surface of the mandible? a. Temporalis b. Masseter c. Digastricus d. Medial and lateral pterygoids

b. Masseter

74. Which radiographic view provides the best option for detecting slab fractures in horses? a. Lateral view b. Medial oblique view c. Flexed lateral view d. Dorsopalmar view

b. Medial oblique view

270. What drug is used as a contraceptive in dogs and sometimes for the correction of behavioral problems in cats (e.g., inappropriate urination)? a. Altrenogest b. Megestrol acetate c. Estradiol cypionate d. Dinoprost tromethamine

b. Megestrol acetate

418. The parasite that causes generalized pruritus is of the: a. Ancylostoma species b. Melophagus species c. Notoedres species d. Echinococcus species

b. Melophagus species

48. An iguana presents to the clinic with the following clinical signs: seizures, tremors, anorexia, kyphosis, pliable long bones, and a chronic femoral fracture. The patient has been housed without the proper UV lighting and has been given a diet of dog food, iceberg lettuce, and tofu. From which of the following diseases is this patient likely suffering? a. Gout b. Metabolic bone disease c. Hypercalcemia d. Hypervitaminosis A

b. Metabolic bone disease

395. Robaxin-V is the brand name for: a. Gabapentin b. Methocarbamol c. Methimazole d. Methionine (S-Adenosyl)

b. Methocarbamol

352. Of the following antibiotics, which one is best suited to treat tetanus caused by Clostridium tetani? a. Enrofloxacin b. Metronidazole c. Neomycin d. Penicillin G

b. Metronidazole

73. The name for the bile acid- lipid units that carry fat within the gut is: a. LPL b. Micelles c. VLDL d. Chylomicrons

b. Micelles

39. To perform an ultrasound in the intercostal region, which transducer would be ideal? a. Linear probe b. Microconvex probe c. Phase array probe d. All of the above produce the same images

b. Microconvex probe

313. An attenuated vaccine is one in which: a. Microorganisms are killed b. Microorganisms are weakened but are still alive c. Microorganisms are 100% virulent d. No microorganisms are found

b. Microorganisms are weakened but are still alive

254. To obtain a radiograph of the VD extended hip projection, where is the center of the beam focused? a. Greater trochanter of femur b. Midline between the left and right ischial tuberosity c. At the level of the 7th vertebrae d. At the midfemur

b. Midline between the left and right ischial tuberosity

481. A horse's vision is primarily which type? a. Binocular b. Monocular c. 3D d. All of the above

b. Monocular

360. Pinkeye or contagious conjunctivitis in cattle is caused by: a. Haemophilus aegypti b. Moraxella bovis c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Staphylococcus aureus

b. Moraxella bovis

223. What is an essential factor when using a nonscreen film to x-ray a snake? a. The snake needs to move continuously across the film b. Movement needs to be minimal c. The snake needs to be short and thin d. Nonscreen films should never be used to x-ray a snake

b. Movement needs to be minimal

469. Tendons attach __________ to bone. a. Ligaments b. Muscles c. Blood vessels d. Bone

b. Muscles

109. Beuthanasia solution is back-ordered at the distributor so your employer asks you to order a different euthanasia solution. In researching the available drugs, you are reminded that the active ingredient in most euthanasia solutions is: a. Phenobarbital b. Pentobarbital c. Methohexital d. Thiopental

b. Pentobarbital

369. A sugar with 5 carbons is known as ______________ sugar. a. Hexose b. Pentose c. Montose d. Tritose

b. Pentose

17. The cranial nerves and the spinal nerves are anatomically part of what system? a. Central nervous system b. Peripheral nervous system c. Parasympathetic nervous system d. Sympathetic nervous system

b. Peripheral nervous system

205. For a standard radiograph of the metacarpus of a horse, the limb of interest should be in which position compared to the ground? a. Parallel b. Perpendicular c. At 45 degrees d. At 60 degrees

b. Perpendicular

389. Which of the following antiseizure medications should be avoided in a patient with existing liver disease? a. Levetiracetam b. Phenobarbital c. Potassium bromide d. Gabapentin

b. Phenobarbital

5. What element is found within the transducer of an ultrasound machine? a. Bucky b. Piezoelectric ceramics c. Magnets d. All of the above

b. Piezoelectric ceramics

437. Vetmedin is the brand name for: a. Atenolol b. Pimobendan c. Procainamide d. Quinidine

b. Pimobendan

352. What color do gram-negative organisms appear when they are stained with Gram stain? a. Purple b. Pink c. Green d. Clear

b. Pink

252. The calibrated device used to deliver a specified volume of patient sample when performing a blood chemistry analysis is known as a: a. Cuvette b. Pipette c. Graduated flask d. Graduated cylinder

b. Pipette

271. What cell produces antibodies? a. Hepatocyte b. Plasma cell c. Thymocyte d. T cell

b. Plasma cell

343. All of the organs in the thoracic cavity are covered by a thin membrane known as: a. Thorax b. Pleura c. Peritoneum d. None of the above

b. Pleura

304. Which types of bones contain air-filled spaces known as sinuses that reduce the weight of the bone? a. Sesamoid bones b. Pneumatic bones c. Splanchnic bone d. Irregular bones

b. Pneumatic bones

628. The calcaneus of dogs is also referred to as the: a. Manubrium b. Point of hock c. Point of elbow d. Olecranon

b. Point of hock

410. Which vein carries nutrient-rich blood from the intestines to the liver? a. Inferior vena cava b. Portal vein c. Hepatic vein d. Splenic vein

b. Portal vein

236. What traditional anticonvulsant is now being used simultaneously with phenobarbital in dogs that are nonresponsive to phenobarbital alone? a. Diazepam b. Potassium bromide c. Phenytoin d. Strychnine

b. Potassium bromide

19. What is the difference between color Doppler and power Doppler ultrasound? a. Color Doppler indicates velocity and power Doppler indicates direction of flow b. Power Doppler is sensitive to slow flow and color Doppler indicates direction of flow c. Power Doppler indicates direction of flow and color Doppler indicates slow flow d. Color Doppler indicates arteries and power Doppler indicates veins

b. Power Doppler is sensitive to slow flow and color Doppler indicates direction of flow

112. The term proximal refers to which of the following abbreviations? a. Pa b. Pr c. Pl d. Di

b. Pr

272. The glucocorticoid drug commonly used orally to treat immune-mediated diseases in dogs and cats is: a. Hydrocortisone b. Prednisone c. Triamcinolone d. Dexamethasone

b. Prednisone

534. Secretions from which gland keeps feathers waterproof? a. Alula b. Preen c. Gizzard d. Coracoid

b. Preen

235. What anticonvulsant drug is converted by the liver primarily to phenobarbital, which accounts for most of its anticonvulsant activity? a. Diazepam b. Primidone c. Phenytoin d. Clonazepam

b. Primidone

222. The thymus: a. Is another name for the thyroid gland b. Produces cells that destroy foreign substances c. Is more prominent in adults than in young animals d. Is located in the cranial abdomen

b. Produces cells that destroy foreign substances

426. Polyuria is: a. Lack of urine production b. Production of excessive amounts of urine c. Lack of water intake d. Excessive protein in the urine

b. Production of excessive amounts of urine

372. Cisapride is a(n): a. Antiemetic b. Prokinetic c. GI protectant d. Antidiarrheal

b. Prokinetic

59. Which hormone helps to trigger and maintain lactation? a. FSH b. Prolactin c. LH d. TSH

b. Prolactin

182. An example of an alpha-2 agonist is: a. Xylazine b. Propranolol c. Hydralazine d. Epinephrine

b. Propranolol

247. Hyperthyroid cats have heart rates of more than 200 beats per minute because of the large numbers of alpha-1 sympathetic receptors in their hearts, which make the heart more sensitive to epinephrine and norepinephrine. This high heart rate is an anesthetic risk. What drug is used to slow the heart rate and decrease arrhythmias associated with alpha-1 receptor stimulation? a. Lidocaine b. Propranolol c. Quinidine d. Digoxin

b. Propranolol

383. You are placing an intravenous catheter to administer chemotherapy. When placing the catheter you go through the vein, but you are able to reposition it and place it successfully. What should you do next? a. Use the catheter, but monitor it closely during the injection b. Pull the catheter and place it in a different vein c. Pull the catheter and place it higher up in the same vein d. Use it without concern

b. Pull the catheter and place it in a different vein

228. What artery carries deoxygenated blood? a. Aorta b. Pulmonary c. Coronary d. Carotid

b. Pulmonary

102. What two valves comprise the semilunar valves? a. Mitral valve, pulmonic valve b. Pulmonic valve, aortic valve c. Mitral valve, tricuspid valve d. Pulmonic valve, tricuspid valve

b. Pulmonic valve, aortic valve

214. What structures disseminate electrical impulses across the ventricles? a. Perkinje fibers b. Purkinje fibers c. Purkinge fibers d. Perkingi fibers

b. Purkinje fibers

567. Food leaves the gizzard and enters the duodenum by which of the following structures in birds? a. Cloaca b. Pylorus c. Proventriculus d. Ileum

b. Pylorus

115. Ferrets are vaccinated annually for which of the following diseases? a. Rabies and feline panleukopenia b. Rabies and canine distemper c. Rabies and canine parvovirus d. Rabies and canine corona virus

b. Rabies and canine distemper

102. In dental radiographs, periapical disease appears as a: a. Radiopaque area around the apex of the tooth b. Radiolucent area around the apex of the tooth c. Radiopaque area inside the tooth pulp d. Radiolucent area inside the tooth pulp

b. Radiolucent area around the apex of the tooth

65. Atoms that emit particles and energy to become stable are known as: a. Photons b. Radionuclides c. Radioactive decay d. Isotopes

b. Radionuclides

181. Which of the following terms is used to describe the white appearance on an x-ray? a. Radiolucent b. Radiopaque c. Hyperechoic d. Hypoechoic

b. Radiopaque

453. The interosseous space is located between which two bones on the limb of a horse? a. Fibula/ tibia b. Radius/ ulna c. Cannon bone/ split bone d. Humerus/ scapula

b. Radius/ ulna

147. All of the following are induced ovulators except: a. Rabbit b. Rat c. Cat d. Ferret

b. Rat

47. A chronotropic agent affects the: a. Force of a contraction b. Rate of a contraction c. Rhythm of a contraction d. Rate of relaxation

b. Rate of a contraction

344. T killer cells function to: a. Release histamine b. Recognize cancer cells as abnormal cells and eliminate them c. Coat cancer cells with antibody d. Release endorphin

b. Recognize cancer cells as abnormal cells and eliminate them

110. During a glucose tolerance test, glucose levels in a diabetic animal will: a. Show an initial peak and then diminish to normal b. Remain high throughout the test c. Show a delayed peak at the end of the test period d. Show below normal levels throughout the test

b. Remain high throughout the test

286. Flight feathers within the wings of birds are known as: a. Retrices b. Remiges c. Auriculars d. Down feathers

b. Remiges

277. NSAIDs are most likely to cause side effects in what two organ systems? a. Renal and pulmonary b. Renal and gastrointestinal c. Pulmonary and cardiac d. Cardiac and hepatic

b. Renal and gastrointestinal

432. In which layer of the eye are the rods and cons located? a. Cornea b. Retina c. Iris d. Vitreous humor

b. Retina

278. The kidneys are located in which cavity? a. Abdominal cavity b. Retroperitoneal cavity c. Pelvic cavity d. Thoracic cavity

b. Retroperitoneal cavity

118. When a patient is receiving an x-ray and is in the right lateral recumbent position, what marker should be used to denote the correct side? a. Left b. Right c. Front d. Hind

b. Right

335. The duodenum exits the stomach on which side of the animal's abdomen? a. Left b. Right c. Cranial d. Caudal

b. Right

116. The coronary veins empty blood via the coronary sinus into the: a. Left atrium b. Right atrium c. Left ventricle d. Right ventricle

b. Right atrium

291. The abbreviations od and os on a prescription refer to: a. Administer by mouth and by rectum b. Right eye and left eye c. Administer every other day and every 3 days d. Administer with food and without food

b. Right eye and left eye

289. What is the most immature erythrocyte that can be identified in bone marrow? a. Prorubricyte b. Rubriblast c. Erythrocytoblast d. Multipotent stem cell

b. Rubriblast

7. In what order does the impulse for depolarization travel through the heart? a. AV node, SA node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers b. SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers c. SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibers, bundle of His d. AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers, bundle of His

b. SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers

333. The anatomical plane that runs the length of the body and divides its right and left parts is known as the: a. Median plane b. Sagittal plane c. Dorsal plane d. Transverse plane

b. Sagittal plane

188. What parasite causes a very pruritic disease in dogs? a. Cheyletiella b. Sarcoptes c. Demodex d. Dermacentor

b. Sarcoptes

54. The number of detectors that are covered by the x-ray beam in CT scanning is known as which type of field of view? a. Display field of view b. Scan field of view c. Raw data d. Image data

b. Scan field of view

204. Which of the following is not a part of the axial skeleton? a. Cervical vertebra 3 b. Scapula c. Skull d. Thoracic vertebra 1

b. Scapula

546. Which of the following structures reinforces the large circumference of the eye in birds? a. Cornea b. Sclerotic ring c. Optic lobe d. Optic nerve

b. Sclerotic ring

613. What is the main source of a ferret's body odor? a. Fur b. Sebaceous glands c. Anal glands d. Mouth

b. Sebaceous glands

43. A common side effect of antihistamine drugs such as diphenhydramine is: a. Polyuria b. Sedation c. Pruritus d. Panting

b. Sedation

83. A hospitalized hedgehog is offered part of a hardboiled egg as a treat. He suddenly becomes stiff and contorted, starts making licking motions with his tongue, and starts heavily salivating. What is occurring? a. A seizure b. Self-anointing behavior c. Anxiety toward caretaker d. Wobbling hedgehog syndrome

b. Self-anointing behavior

464. All of the following muscles of the horse extend the hock, except: a. Gastrocnemius b. Semimembranosus c. Semitendinosus d. Biceps femoris

b. Semimembranosus

513. Which of the following glands is a pair of smooth-surfaced, pear-shaped glands located on either side of the male bladder, and also are considered an accessory gland for the production of seminal fluid? a. Bulbourethral gland b. Seminal vesicles c. Adrenal glands d. Thyroid glands

b. Seminal vesicles

636. The ____________ of the mandible is the horizontal portion that houses all the teeth. a. Ramus b. Shaft c. Palate d. Malar

b. Shaft

653. The term ecdysis refers to: a. Cold-blooded b. Shedding of skin c. Hibernation d. Active at night

b. Shedding of skin

90. In MRI what are the various shades of gray referred to as? a. Densities b. Signal intensities c. Hypoechoic d. Hyperechoic

b. Signal intensities

391. Methocarbamol is labeled as an adjunctive therapy for: a. Seizures b. Skeletal muscle trauma c. Increased intracranial pressure d. Joint pain

b. Skeletal muscle trauma

331. Pemphigus is a group of autoimmune disorders that affect the: a. Blood and lymph systems b. Skin and oral mucosa c. Eyes d. Hooves and claws

b. Skin and oral mucosa

11. Which of the following methods definitively diagnoses Treponema paraluiscuniculi? a. Complete blood count b. Skin biopsy with silver staining c. ELISA testing d. PCR testing

b. Skin biopsy with silver staining

233. Which of the following is the most serious of all carpal fractures seen in horses? a. Corner fracture b. Slab fracture c. Chip fracture d. All chip fractures are equal in severity

b. Slab fracture

45. A biarticular fracture is also known as a: a. Corner fracture b. Slab fracture c. Chip fracture d. Biarticular fractures do not exist

b. Slab fracture

55. What liquid form of drug is administered intravenously? a. Emulsion b. Solution c. Suspension d. Elixir

b. Solution

134. The female guinea pig is referred to as a: a. Hen b. Sow c. Queen d. Doe

b. Sow

314. Muscles that form a circular ring and serve to control the entrance or exit to a structure are known as: a. Muscle tone b. Sphincter muscles c. Bursa d. Extrinsic muscle

b. Sphincter muscles

467. Which of the following muscles originates behind the poll (at the base of the skull) of the horse? a. Trapezius b. Splenius c. Sternocephalicus d. Brachiocephalicus

b. Splenius

167. When preparing cytology samples for microscopic evaluation, what is the best technique to use? a. Wet prep b. Squash prep c. Modified Knott prep d. Willis prep

b. Squash prep

472. Which of the following allows the horse to rest and sleep in a standing position? a. The cheek ligaments b. Stay apparatus c. Deep digital flexor tendon d. Superficial digital flexor tendon

b. Stay apparatus

95. The femur articulates distally with the tibia, forming the: a. Hip joint b. Stifle joint c. Tarsal joint d. Shoulder joint

b. Stifle joint

21. Smooth muscles can be found in the: a. Heart b. Stomach c. Pelvic limb d. Diaphragm

b. Stomach

374. What organism causes strangles in horses? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus equi c. Corynebacterium equi d. Strongylus vulgaris

b. Streptococcus equi

547. The iris of a bird's eye is formed by which muscle, which enables the bird to control the size of the pupil voluntarily? a. Smooth b. Striated c. Cardiac d. None of these

b. Striated

6. Cardiac muscle is considered a: a. Nonstriated involuntary muscle b. Striated involuntary muscle c. Nonstriated voluntary muscle d. striated voluntary muscle

b. Striated involuntary muscle

411. What urinary stone is most associated with a urinary tract infection? a. Calcium oxalate crystal b. Struvite crystal c. Calcium carbonite crystal d. Cystine crystal

b. Struvite crystal

127. In cases of uncomplicated diabetes, by what route is insulin usually administered? a. Intramuscular b. Subcutaneous c. Intravenous d. Oral

b. Subcutaneous

142. A coating agent that forms an ulcer-adherent complex at the ulcer site is: a. Kaopectate b. Sucralfate c. Cimetidine d. Misoprostol

b. Sucralfate

263. Which product stains fat? a. New methylene blue b. Sudan III or IV c. Diff-Quik d. Giemsa

b. Sudan III or IV

519. What is the typical breeding season of a mare? a. Spring- summer b. Summer- fall c. Fall- winter d. Winter- spring

b. Summer- fall

86. Which of the following is the most common medical magnet? a. Resistive magnets b. Superconducting magnets c. Permanent magnets d. Electromagnets

b. Superconducting magnets

108. Norepinephrine, epinephrine, and dopamine are the primary neurotransmitters for the: a. Parasympathetic nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Central nervous system d. Peripheral nervous system

b. Sympathetic nervous system

24. What does the gain control knob adjust on the ultrasound machine? a. The power output b. The brightness of the image c. The PRF scale used in PW Doppler d. The depth of the image

b. The brightness of the image

247. When obtaining a radiograph, the thickest part of the area of interest is placed toward what? a. The anode end of the x-ray tube b. The cathode end of the x-ray tube c. The center of the x-ray beam d. Closest to the radiographer

b. The cathode end of the x-ray tube

622. Where are the lungs located in a tortoise? a. The ventral surface above the carapace b. The dorsal side below the carapace c. Caudal to the stomach d. Caudal to the hear

b. The dorsal side below the carapace

496. What does the term hypsodontic in the horse represent? a. Thick layer of enamel b. The lack of enamel over the occlusal surface c. The crown reserve d. Continuous growth of the teeth

b. The lack of enamel over the occlusal surface

227. Why is chloramphenicol used with extreme caution in cats and neonates? a. It can bind with dietary calcium and become deactivated. b. The liver is unable to metabolize chloramphenicol effectively in these animals. c. It can alter developing bone, enamel, and cartilage. d. It may drastically alter gut bacterial flora, resulting in fatal diarrhea.

b. The liver is unable to metabolize chloramphenicol effectively in these animals.

175. When obtaining a ventrodorsal x-ray of the thorax, what is the cranial landmark? a. The base of the skull b. The manubrium c. Halfway between the xiphoid and the last rib d. The ilium wings

b. The manubrium

424. Urine samples collected in the morning from housebroken dogs tend to be: a. Unacceptable for sediment analysis b. The most concentrated samples c. Bright orange d. The least concentrated samples

b. The most concentrated samples

310. Which of the following correctly describes the joint movement of circumduction? a. The moving body part twists on its own axis b. The movement of an extremity of one end of a bone in a circular pattern c. The animal moves the limb back toward the body d. The animal moves the limb cranially

b. The movement of an extremity of one end of a bone in a circular pattern

97. For a dorsopalmar view of the metacarpus of a horse, which surface should the cassette be on? a. The medial aspect b. The palmar aspect c. The palmaromedial aspect d. The palmarolateral aspect

b. The palmar aspect

148. When an x-ray photon strikes an object, which of the following can occur? a. The object rejects the photon b. The photon penetrates the object c. The photon reduces scatter radiation d. X-ray photons do not leave the housing unit

b. The photon penetrates the object

410. What is the definition of hematopoiesis? a. The destruction of platelets b. The production of blood cells and platelets c. The creation of fibrinogen d. The decrease of red blood cells

b. The production of blood cells and platelets

35. For cytological evaluation of urine, which of the following conditions should be observed? a. The specimen should be refrigerated as soon as possible. b. The specimen should be centrifuged as soon as possible. c. The specimen may sit at room temperature for ≤6 hours. d. The specimen may be frozen for later analysis.

b. The specimen should be centrifuged as soon as possible.

258. To obtain a flexed lateral projection of the carpus of small animals, where should the measurement be taken? a. Caudal to the carpal joint b. The thickest part of the flexed joint c. Thickest part of the nonflexed joint d. Cranial to the carpal joint

b. The thickest part of the flexed joint

180. When obtaining a caudocranial x-ray of the stifle joint, what should be palpated to determine the amount of rotation necessary for an exact caudocranial projection? a. The greater trochanter of the femur b. The tibial tuberosity c. The patella d. The manubrium

b. The tibial tuberosity

516. What occurs to unfertilized ova? a. They are expelled b. They are reabsorbed c. They remain in the fallopian tube until fertilization occurs d. None of the above

b. They are reabsorbed

210. Some penicillin G injectable products contain procaine or benzathine, and some penicillin G products contain neither. What effects do procaine and benzathine have on penicillin G? a. They act as a local anesthetic to decrease the pain of injection. b. They prolong absorption of penicillin G from the injection site. c. They increase the rate at which penicillin G enters the bloodstream. d. They enhance the bacterial killing activity of the penicillin.

b. They prolong absorption of penicillin G from the injection site.

84. Which statement is true about the drugs used for cancer chemotherapy? a. They are usually given by mouth b. They usually have relatively low margins of safety c. They are available over the counter d. They are all nephrotoxic

b. They usually have relatively low margins of safety

211. Ceftiofur is classified on the package insert as a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic; cefadroxil is classified as a first-generation cephalosporin. How do third-generation cephalosporins differ from first-generation cephalosporins? a. Third-generation drugs are better absorbed when given orally. b. Third-generation drugs have better gram-negative activity. c. Third-generation drugs last longer in the body; they are given once daily only. d. Third-generation drugs have fewer side effects and adverse reactions

b. Third-generation drugs have better gram-negative activity.

678. The azygous vein drains venous blood from what structure? a. Head b. Thoracic body wall c. Hind limbs d. Liver

b. Thoracic body wal

231. The production of platelets is known as: a. Hemostasis b. Thrombopoiesis c. Homeostasis d. Coagulation

b. Thrombopoiesis

153. For what are grids used on an x-ray machine? a. To decrease scatter radiation and to increase the contrast on the radiograph b. To absorb the less penetrating x-rays as they leave the tube head c. To restrict the primary beam to the size of the cone used d. The limit the size of the primary beam to the size of the diaphragm used

b. To absorb the less penetrating x-rays as they leave the tube head

436. For what is the ciliary body within the eye responsible? a. To change the diameter of the iris b. To change the shape of the lens c. To produce tears d. To drain tears

b. To change the shape of the lens

122. What does it mean to collimate the x-ray beam? a. To use the highest kV possible b. To limit the beam exposure just to the area of interest within the film c. To allow for full exposure of the entire film d. None of the above

b. To limit the beam exposure just to the area of interest within the film

341. Why are prophylactic antibiotics given during surgery? a. To prevent contamination when the skin is entered b. To prevent contamination when a hollow viscous is entered c. To prevent contamination from the surgeon d. To prevent contamination from the instruments

b. To prevent contamination when a hollow viscous is entered

377. What are lipoproteins used for within the body? a. Energy b. To transport fats within the body c. To regulate chemical reactions d. To regulate hormone synthesis

b. To transport fats within the body

182. You are looking at your dental radiograph and notice that the tooth is elongated. This happened because the beam was perpendicular to the: a. Film b. Tooth c. Bisecting angle d. Wrong tooth

b. Tooth

244. A serum sample that is extremely icteric generally derives its color from an increased level of: a. Lipids b. Total bilirubin c. Electrolytes d. Glucose

b. Total bilirubin

400. Which structure is composed of several C-shaped incomplete rings of hyaline cartilage? a. Esophagus b. Trachea c. Larynx d. Pharynx

b. Trachea

666. Which canine muscle originates from the dorsal midline from C2 to C7 and inserts on the spine of the scapula? a. Pectoralis b. Trapezius c. Latissimus dorsi d. Brachiocephalicus

b. Trapezius

370. The parasite whose adult resembles a whip and whose eggs have bipolar plugs is: a. Strongyloides stercoralis b. Trichuris vulpis c. Toxocara canis d. Toxascaris leonina

b. Trichuris vulpis

91. Arteries have relatively thick walls, which are composed of three layers. Which layer is the outermost layer? a. Tunica intima b. Tunica adventitia c. Tunica media d. Arteries only have one layer

b. Tunica adventitia

322. Below the tunics, a heavy, fibrous connective tissue capsule surrounds each testis. What is this known as? a. Common vaginal tunic b. Tunica albuginea c. Pampiniform plexus d. Septa

b. Tunica albuginea

340. How long should a patient with pneumonia be on antibiotics? a. Two weeks past resolution of clinical signs b. Two weeks past resolution of radiographic signs c. Four weeks, no matter the clinical or radiographic signs d. Six weeks, no matter the clinical or radiographic signs

b. Two weeks past resolution of radiographic signs

223. The eardrum is also called the: a. Pinna b. Tympanic membrane c. Eustachian tubes d. Cochlea

b. Tympanic membrane

563. Which of the following arteries runs parallel with the radial artery in birds? a. Brachial b. Ulnar c. Femoral d. Ischiatic

b. Ulnar

1. Which one of the following imaging modalities produces images without the use of radiation? a. X-ray b. Ultrasound c. Fluoroscopy d. CT

b. Ultrasound

208. Certain bacteria, especially Staphylococcus, produce an enzyme (β-lactamase) that destroys many penicillin drugs. Which is one of the penicillins not destroyed by β-lactamase? a. Penicillin G b. Unasyn c. Amoxicillin d. Hetacillin

b. Unasyn

518. Which of the following terms correctly describes the mare's parity? a. Nulliparity b. Uniparous c. Multiparous d. None of these

b. Uniparous

227. What is a concern of exposure creep with the use of digital x-rays? a. Underexposed x-ray b. Unnecessary patient and personnel exposure because of ionizing radiation c. Excessive film blackening d. Exposure creep is only an issue in analog x-rays

b. Unnecessary patient and personnel exposure because of ionizing radiation

445. Idiosyncratic drug reactions are those that are: a. Predictable b. Unpredictable c. Synchronized with other reactions d. Unsynchronized with other reactions

b. Unpredictable

154. Chemistry evaluation of the kidney includes measurement of metabolic wastes in the blood in the form of: a. Aspartate aminotransferase and alanine transaminase b. Urea nitrogen and creatinine c. Ammonia and pyruvic acid d. Bilirubin and urobilinogen

b. Urea nitrogen and creatinine

248. Which body system is the most important route of waste-product removal? a. Respiratory system b. Urinary system c. Digestive system d. All of the systems are equal in importance for waste-product removal

b. Urinary system

13. Because of the manner in which they are excreted, sulfonamides are often effective against infections of: a. Nervous tissue b. Urinary tract c. Skin d. Joint capsules

b. Urinary tract

180. The urinary bladder is not responsible for: a. Urine storage b. Urine filtration c. Urine collecting d. Urine release

b. Urine filtration

204. What test on the urine dipstick is the least useful in animals? a. Glucose b. Urobilinogen c. Protein d. Ketones

b. Urobilinogen

404. One method of resistance to sulfonamides is through the bacteria's ability to: a. Survive without folic acid b. Use the host's folic acid c. Produce a substitute for folic acid d. Turn the antibiotic into folic acid

b. Use the host's folic acid

249. When capturing analog radiographs, which of the following descriptions refers to "splitting the plate"? a. Creating a smaller x-ray cassette to use for small patients b. Using a lead shield on half of the film to prevent exposure and to allow for 2 views to be obtained on the same film. c. Collimating the beam to accommodate for small patients on a large cassette d. Combining two small cassettes to accommodate a larger patient

b. Using a lead shield on half of the film to prevent exposure and to allow for 2 views to be obtained on the same film.

392. Which types of blood vessels contain one-way valves? a. Arteries b. Veins c. Capillaries d. Aorta

b. Veins

51. The hydration status in the avian patient is best evaluated by assessing which of the following? a. Capillary refill time b. Venous refill time c. Mucous membranes for tacky saliva d. Quality of the feathers

b. Venous refill time

167. Lidocaine is primarily used to control which of the following abnormalities? a. Supraventricular bradycardia b. Ventricular tachycardia c. Hypertension d. Supraventricular tachycardia

b. Ventricular tachycardia

107. In the avian species, the gizzard is also referred to as the: a. Proventriculus b. Ventriculus c. Crop d. Colon

b. Ventriculus

242. Which of the following radiographic terms describes the view when the primary x-ray beam enters the ventral surface and exits the dorsal surface of the patient? a. Dorsoventral b. Ventrodorsal c. Craniocaudal d. Caudocranial

b. Ventrodorsal

683. The smallest veins are called ______________. a. Capillaries b. Venules c. Iliacs d. Vessels

b. Venules

419. Which cranial nerve is responsible for balance and hearing? a. Trochlear b. Vestibulocochlear c. Accessory d. Optic

b. Vestibulocochlear

199. Which clotting disorder is stimulated by hypothyroidism? a. Hemophilia A b. Von Willebrand disease c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation d. Coumarin toxicity

b. Von Willebrand disease

76. The buffy coat in a spun hematocrit tube consists of: a. WBCs b. WBCs and platelets c. WBCs and NRBCs d. Platelets and NRBCs

b. WBCs and platelets

323. Which statement concerning ELISA testing is true? a. The test specificity is very low b. Washing is a critical step in the methodology c. It may be used to detect only antibodies in the serum d. It is not available in kit form

b. Washing is a critical step in the methodology

229. When are drugs such as sulfadimethoxine, sulfadiazine, and other sulfa drugs most likely to cause kidney problems? a. When an animal is receiving intravenous fluids and it has a diuretic effect on the kidneys b. When an animal is dehydrated c. When an animal has only one functional kidney d. When an animal has a bladder infection

b. When an animal is dehydrated

140. Before taking a radiograph of a patient, what is the proper way to obtain a measurement of the area of interest? a. With the patient standing b. When the patient is in the position in which it is to be x-rayed c. When the thinnest part is targeted d. With the patient lying in the dorsal recumbent position

b. When the patient is in the position in which it is to be x-rayed

17. Phagocytes are a type of: a. Red blood cell b. White blood cell c. Platelet d. Antibody

b. White blood cell

89. What is called the "knee" in the forelimb of a horse would be called the ______ in the human. a. Hip joint b. Wrist joint c. Finger joint d. Knee joint

b. Wrist joint

33. The canine uterus is shaped like the letter a. U b. Y c. J d. V

b. Y

56. A bird presents to the clinic after chewing on a galvanized wire cage for the previous several days. Clinical signs include weight loss, polyuria, polydipsia, anemia, weakness, and seizures. What are these signs and history indicative of? a. Lead toxicity b. Zinc toxicity c. Iron toxicity d. Copper toxicity

b. Zinc toxicity

297. Which equivalent is correct? a. q12h = QD b. q6h = QID c. q4h = TID d. q8h = BID

b. q6h = QID

492. At what age do permanent teeth begin to erupt in the horse? a. 1 year b. years c. 5 years d. 6 years

b. years

236. At what age does the first radiographic appearance of the crena seen in foals occur? a. 18-38 weeks b. 22-38 weeks c. 4-22 weeks d. 0-4 weeks

c. 4-22 weeks

493. How many permanent teeth does the adult male horse contain? a. 24 b. 36 c. 40 d. 46

c. 40

288. The restrained heart rate of a small bird, approximately 25 g in body weight, is: a. 100- 150 bpm b. 110- 175 bpm c. 400- 600 bpm d. 300- 500 bpm

c. 400- 600 bpm

118. How many teeth does an adult dog have? a. 28 b. 32 c. 42 d. 50

c. 42

295. How many milliliters are in a teaspoon? a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 10

c. 5

394. Which of the following should never be used in cats? a. Carboplatin b. Hydroxyurea c. 5-Fluorouracil d. Procarbazine

c. 5-Fluorouracil

88. Which repetition time shows the T1 decay response of the tissues using MRI? a. 899 ms b. 1500 ms c. 546 ms d. 1680 ms

c. 546 ms

71. Essential nutrients can be divided into how many categories? a. 3 b. 4 c. 6 d. 10

c. 6

586. What is the average life span of the rabbit? a. 3- 4 years b. 2- 3 years c. 6- 8 years d. 10 years

c. 6- 8 years

435. The doctor asks you to perform a local block on a patient in preparation for a laceration repair. You know you should not exceed a dose of: a. 2-4 mg/kg b. 4-6 mg/kg c. 6-8 mg/kg d. 8-10 mg/kg

c. 6-8 mg/kg

201. To obtain a flexed lateromedial view of the carpus of a horse, the limb should be flexed approximately how many degrees? a. 15 degrees b. 30 degrees c. 60 degrees d. 90 degrees

c. 60 degrees

204. To obtain a flexed dorsoplantar radiographic view of the tarsal joint of a horse, at what angle should the primary beam direction be? a. 15 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 60 degrees d. 90 degrees

c. 60 degrees

459. Approximately how much of the weight do the forelimbs of the horse carry? a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 80%

c. 60%

95. MRI machines produce noise in which of the following ranges? a. 20-30 dB b. 40-50 dB c. 60-90 dB d. 100-110 dB

c. 60-90 dB

446. Regarding the storage of drugs, room temperature (in Fahrenheit) falls in the range of: a. Less than 46° b. 46°-59° c. 60°-68° d. 87°-104°

c. 60°-68°

152. What is the normal gestational period for dogs? a. 36 days b. 54 days c. 63 days d. 120 days

c. 63 days

355. Oxygen is an element that makes up approximately __________ of the body mass. a. 18.5% b. 9.5% c. 65% d. 3.3%

c. 65%

366. What is the pH of distilled water? a. 1 b. 5 c. 7 d. 11

c. 7

499. What is the volume that the adult horse's stomach can hold? a. 1- 2 L b. 2- 3 L c. 7- 14 L d. 20- 25 L

c. 7- 14

119. What percentage of body weight is composed of bone in the rabbit? a. 13% b. 20% c. 8% d. 5%

c. 8%

65. Typically, what percentage of an animal's body weight consists of blood? a. 0.1% b. 1% c. 8% d. 30%

c. 8%

618. What is the average litter size of ferrets? a. 3- 4 b. 5- 6 c. 8- 10 d. More than 20

c. 8- 10

53. When using computed tomography, what Hounsfield unit does blood have? a. −50 HU b. 160 HU c. 80 HU d. None of these

c. 80 HU

475. How long does it take for a horn to grown down from the coronet to the tip of the toe (on the ground surface) of a horse? a. 1- 2 months b. 4- 5 months c. 9- 12 months d. 12- 24 months

c. 9- 12 months

397. Antibiotics should be administered when abdominal surgery is longer than: a. 30 minutes b. 60 minutes c. 90 minutes d. 120 minutes

c. 90 minutes

93. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds would suggest which of the following? a. Shock b. Anemia c. A healthy animal d. Dehydration

c. A healthy animal

354. Propranolol is a: a. Beta-1 blocker b. Beta-2 blocker c. A nonselective beta blocker d. Not a beta blocker

c. A nonselective beta blocker

316. Anaphylactic shock is: a. A mild reaction that causes destruction of erythrocytes b. A moderate reaction that causes hives c. A severe, life-threatening reaction that occurs seconds after an antigen enters the circulation d. A severe reaction caused by rapid loss of large volumes of blood or other bodily fluid

c. A severe, life-threatening reaction that occurs seconds after an antigen enters the circulation

72. RBCs with multiple, irregularly spaced projections are known as: a. Crenated cells b. Schistocytes c. Acanthocytes d. Anisocytes

c. Acanthocytes

155. Which of the following drugs are contraindicated in a patient that has a history of seizures? a. Diazepam b. Thiopental c. Acepromazine d. Fentanyl

c. Acepromazine

41. In the equation Z = pV used in ultrasound, what does the letter Z represent? a. Density b. Acoustic velocity c. Acoustic impedance d. None of the above

c. Acoustic impedance

364. The transport mechanism requiring a carrier protein that also requires energy is called: a. Facilitated b. Passive c. Active d. Pinocytosis

c. Active

290. The following information was provided for a prescription written by a veterinarian: "Canine patient, Amoxicillin 100 mg tablets, Sig: 1 tab q8h po prn 2 refills. Date: 1/5/16." What does prn mean? a. Administer every other day b. Administer by mouth c. Administer as needed d. Administer on an empty stomach

c. Administer as needed

14. Which of the following is not a method of culturing animal viruses? a. Laboratory animal inoculation b. Cell culture c. Agar plate inoculation d. Embryonated egg inoculation

c. Agar plate inoculation

485. Which of the following forms the ventral margin of each nostril of a horse? a. External nares b. False nostril c. Alar fold d. Ethmoturbinates

c. Alar fold

159. Prerenal azotemia refers to: a. An increase in BUN resulting from severe liver disease b. A decrease in BUN resulting from severe renal disease c. An increase in BUN resulting from dehydration, shock, and/or decreased blood flow to the kidneys d. An increase in BUN resulting from the inability to urinate

c. An increase in BUN resulting from dehydration, shock, and/or decreased blood flow to the kidneys

224. Which of these is not a random laboratory error? a. Variation in glassware b. Electronic or optical inconsistency c. Anisocytosis d. Contamination

c. Anisocytosis

430. What structure is located immediately caudal to the cornea? a. Lens b. Iris c. Anterior chamber d. Vitreous humor

c. Anterior chamber

271. Which endocrine gland produces the hormone prolactin? a. Posterior pituitary b. Thyroid c. Anterior pituitary d. Ovaries

c. Anterior pituitary

40. A complete radiographic series in the turtle and tortoise include which of the following views? a. Dorsoventral and lateral b. Ventrodorsal and lateral c. Anterior-posterior, dorsoventral, and lateral d. Anterior-posterior, ventrodorsal, and lateral

c. Anterior-posterior, dorsoventral, and lateral

221. What is the drug group of choice for treating Lyme disease (borreliosis)? a. Antifungal b. Antiviral c. Antibiotic d. Antiprotozoal

c. Antibiotic

321. Serology is the branch of science involved with detection of: a. Bacteria or fungi b. Viruses or prions c. Antibodies or antigens d. Endoparasites and ectoparasites

c. Antibodies or antigens

262. Bismuth subsalicylate is the active ingredient in a common over-the-counter (OTC) preparation used for some types of gastrointestinal disease, to what effect? a. Mild laxative b. Antiemetic c. Antidiarrheic d. Emetic

c. Antidiarrheic

199. Which type of antimicrobial drug would be effective against organisms such as Giardia or Eimeria? a. Bactericidal b. Virucidal c. Antiprotozoal d. Fungistatic

c. Antiprotozoal

238. Drugs that effectively block the cough reflex are called: a. Mucolytics b. Expectorants c. Antitussives d. Decongestants

c. Antitussives

241. Butorphanol and hydrocodone are examples of: a. Mucolytics b. Expectorants c. Antitussives d. Antihistamines

c. Antitussives

163. A cat is given ketamine as an anesthetic induction agent. The veterinary technician monitoring this animal may observe which of the following side effects? a. Bradycardia b. Hypotension c. Apneustic breathing d. Flaccid muscle tone

c. Apneustic breathing

140. The emetic of choice in dogs is: a. Xylazine b. Syrup of ipecac c. Apomorphine d. Hydrogen peroxide

c. Apomorphine

141. Spike the dog ingested his owner's cardiac medication about a half-hour ago. The veterinarian instructs you to give him an emetic that may be administered into the conjunctival sac, and then flush as necessary. The name of the drug is: a. Xylazine b. Syrup of ipecac c. Apomorphine d. Hydrogen peroxide

c. Apomorphine

24. Potentiated penicillins: a. Have a narrow spectrum of action relative to regular penicillins b. Include cephalosporins c. Are active against beta-lactamase-producing bacteria d. Are not used in treating mastitis

c. Are active against beta-lactamase-producing bacteria

74. What is the most useful way to report WBC differential results? a. As percentages b. As relative numbers c. As absolute numbers d. As decimal numbers

c. As absolute numbers

172. An example of an anticholinergic drug is: a. Acetylcholine b. Pilocarpine c. Atropine d. Nicotine

c. Atropine

123. Kidney disease leads to the accumulation of metabolic waste in the blood, a condition known as: a. Hypernaturia b. Hypernatremia c. Azotemia d. Azoturia

c. Azotemia

105. Which species includes common contaminants and is the causative agent of anthrax? a. Escherichia b. Corynebacterium c. Bacillus d. Enterobacter

c. Bacillus

132. Chinchillas are prone to all of the following diseases except: a. Dental disease b. Heat stroke c. Back fractures d. Choke

c. Back fractures

111. The newly hired veterinary assistant is cleaning up after a procedure and returns an opened bottle of propofol to the refrigerator, stating that it can be used the next day on another patient. You explain to her that: a. Propofol should be stored at room temperature rather than in the refrigerator. b. The bottles are designed to contain only enough drug for one patient, and there likely will not be enough drug left to anesthetize another patient the next day. c. Bacteria will readily grow in propofol and will produce endotoxins, so it is unwise to use the remains of an opened bottle. d. The bottle has been contaminated from the first patient, and there is a possibility that contagious diseases can be transmitted in this way.

c. Bacteria will readily grow in propofol and will produce endotoxins, so it is unwise to use the remains of an opened bottle.

676. Which of the following dogs has a mesaticephalic head? a. Boxer b. Greyhound c. Beagle d. Bulldog

c. Beagle

73. Which time frame is the most critical for limiting radiation exposure to an unborn fetus of an employee? a. 2nd trimester b. 3rd trimester c. Between 2 and 10 weeks gestation d. After 35 weeks

c. Between 2 and 10 weeks gestation

128. When obtaining a foramen magnum projection of the skulls of small animals, where should the centering of the image occur? a. Midway between the tip of the nose to just caudal to the occipital protuberance at the base b. Lateral canthus of the eye socket c. Between the eyes d. Above the base of the tongue and just below the palate, approximately at the commissure of the mouth

c. Between the eyes

149. A drug classified as an antagonist may exert its influence by: a. Mimicking the activity of the neurotransmitter used in the impulse b. Preventing the breakdown of the neurotransmitter used in the impulse c. Blocking the neurotransmitter receptor on the effector organ d. Enhancing the release of the neurotransmitter used in the impulse

c. Blocking the neurotransmitter receptor on the effector organ

610. A male guinea pig is known as a: a. Doe b. Buck c. Boar d. Sow

c. Boar

59. IV contrast used with CT imaging will help to view all of the following, except: a. Veins b. Arteries c. Bone marrow d. Infection of the extremities

c. Bone marrow

133. When diethylstilbestrol (DES), a synthetic estrogen, is used at higher doses, it can have the potentially dangerous side effect of: a. Gastric ulceration b. Cardiac arrhythmias c. Bone marrow suppression d. Hepatopathy

c. Bone marrow suppression

134. If pneumonia is suspected in small animals, which of the following radiographic views should be performed? a. Both lateral views b. Dorsoventral view c. Both lateral views and ventrodorsal view d. Right lateral and dorsoventral views

c. Both lateral views and ventrodorsal view

243. Radiographs of long bones must include which of the following? a. The joint proximal to the long bone b. The joint distal to the long bone c. Both the joint proximal and the joint distal to the long bone d. The long bone only, excluding joints proximal and distal

c. Both the joint proximal and the joint distal to the long bone

36. Which of the following species does not have a diaphragm? a. African hedgehog b. Sugar glider c. Box turtle d. Golden hamster

c. Box turtle

452. Anticholinergic drugs are used for: a. Tachycardia b. Tachypenia c. Bradycardia d. Bradypnea

c. Bradycardia

335. Baylisascaris procyonis larvae have been shown to cause _________ in humans. a. Pneumonia b. Hemolytic anemia c. Brain damage d. Bloody diarrhea

c. Brain damage

415. What is considered the most primitive part of the brain? a. Cerebellum b. Cerebrum c. Brainstem d. Gray matter

c. Brainstem

53. The cranial nerves originate from the a. Cerebellum b. Spinal cord c. Brainstem d. Cerebrum

c. Brainstem

354. A positive catalase test will be indicated by the presence of: a. A color change b. Gel formation c. Bubbles d. Fibrin

c. Bubbles

126. What laboratory test evaluates primary hemostasis? a. Activated clotting time b. Activated partial thromboplastin time c. Buccal mucosal bleeding time d. One-step prothrombin time

c. Buccal mucosal bleeding time

36. Which of these opioids is an agonist/antagonist? a. Oxymorphone b. Meperidine c. Butorphanol d. Fentanyl

c. Butorphanol

60. Which of the following drugs would likely be contraindicated for use in a rabbit that presented for GI stasis and moderate-to-severe dental pain? a. Buprenorphine b. Fentanyl c. Butorphanol d. Oxymorphone

c. Butorphanol

23. Which of the following allows for measurements of very high blood flow velocities in ultrasound? a. Color Doppler b. PW Doppler c. CW Doppler d. Harmonics

c. CW Doppler

298. The hormone primarily responsible for preventing hypercalcemia is: a. T4 b. Parathyroid hormone c. Calcitonin d. Vitamin D

c. Calcitonin

423. Which of the following is used to increase calcium uptake from the gastrointestinal tract, mobilize calcium from the bone, and conserve calcium from the kidneys? a. Alendronate b. Calcitonin c. Calcitriol d. Calcimimetics

c. Calcitriol

157. The two main minerals that make up bone are: a. Calcium and magnesium b. Sodium and potassium c. Calcium and phosphorus d. Calcium and potassium

c. Calcium and phosphorus

25. For proper metabolization, ultraviolet lighting is necessary for which of the following? a. Vitamin D3 b. Magnesium c. Calcium and vitamin D3 d. Magnesium and calcium

c. Calcium and vitamin D3

355. Which drug class does diltiazem belong in? a. Beta-1 blocker b. Beta-2 blocker c. Calcium channel blocker d. Sodium channel blocker

c. Calcium channel blocker

146. What domestic species lacks the bulbourethral gland, also called Cowper's gland? a. Equine b. Feline c. Canine d. Bovine

c. Canine

136. The lymphatic system is not involved in: a. Waste material transport b. Protein transport c. Carbohydrate transport d. Fluid transport

c. Carbohydrate transport

406. What regulates the size of the opening of the esophagus into the stomach? a. Duodenum b. Pyloric sphincter c. Cardiac sphincter d. Epiglottis

c. Cardiac sphincter

500. Food passes from the esophagus into the stomach via what structure in the horse? a. Pyloric sphincter b. Epiglottis c. Cardiac sphincter d. Duodenum

c. Cardiac sphincter

81. A captive obese pet skunk presents with the following clinical signs: exercise intolerance, weight loss, lethargy, dyspnea, anorexia, coughing, ascites, pale mucous membranes, and cold extremities. What disease process is likely occurring? a. Hepatic lipidosis b. Dental disease c. Cardiomyopathy d. Canine distemper virus

c. Cardiomyopathy

227. The function of the red blood cell is to: a. Provide defense from foreign invaders b. Act as a phagocyte c. Carry oxygen to the tissues d. Respond to the need for clotting

c. Carry oxygen to the tissues

137. Which of the following statements regarding casts is incorrect? a. A few hyaline or granular casts may be seen in normal urine b. All casts are cylindric with parallel sides c. Casts dissolve in acidic urine d. Casts may be disrupted with high-speed centrifugation and rough sample handling

c. Casts dissolve in acidic urine

54. What species has multiple forms of reticulocytes? a. Horse b. Cow c. Cat d. Dog

c. Cat

143. In what species are Fleet (sodium phosphate) enemas contraindicated? a. Horses b. Ruminants c. Cats d. Pigs

c. Cats

265. Which of the following species is NOT considered to be multiparous? a. Dogs b. Sows c. Cattle d. Cats

c. Cattle

279. Which species does NOT have a smooth outer surface of the kidneys? a. Cats b. Dogs c. Cattle d. Horses

c. Cattle

47. Which of the following vessels is most commonly used for intravenous catheterization in a larger lizard such as an iguana? a. Femoral b. Cephalic c. Caudal tail vein d. Jugular

c. Caudal tail vein

70. In the bird, air sac cannulas are placed into which of the following? a. Cervicocephalic air sac b. Clavicular air sac c. Caudal thoracic and abdominal air sacs d. Cranial thoracic air sac

c. Caudal thoracic and abdominal air sacs

600. What is the largest organ in the abdominal cavity of rabbits? a. Liver b. Spleen c. Cecum d. Colon

c. Cecum

597. The premolars of rabbits are also known as: a. Incisors b. Canines c. Cheek teeth d. Diastema

c. Cheek teeth

214. Which of the following is the best restraint to use in avian radiography? a. Manual restraint b. Physical restraint c. Chemical restraint d. None; birds should not be restrained for x-rays

c. Chemical restraint

312. Which of the following correctly lists the progressive stages of phagocytosis? a. Adherence, chemotaxis, ingestion, digestion b. Ingestion, adherence, chemotaxis, digestion c. Chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion d. Ingestion, digestion, chemotaxis, adherence

c. Chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion

391. The parasite that lives on the skin's surface is: a. Sarcoptes species b. Demodex species c. Chorioptes species d. Otodectes species

c. Chorioptes species

569. Via what structure do ureters carry urine to the outside of the body in birds? a. Isthmus b. Vagina c. Cloaca d. Proventriculus

c. Cloaca

15. Which of the following bacteria are most often associated with antibiotic-associated enterotoxemia in the guinea pig? a. Escherichia coli b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Clostridium difficile d. Salmonella typhimurium

c. Clostridium difficile

437. What is an example of enteral nutrition? a. ITP given through an IV catheter b. Fasting or NPO c. Coaxing: warming the food, feeding by hand, etc. d. Water only

c. Coaxing: warming the food, feeding by hand, etc.

428. Anuria is: a. Decreased urine output b. Decreased drinking c. Complete lack of urine production d. Excessive drinking

c. Complete lack of urine production

215. What route of administration of amikacin or gentamicin causes the highest risk for nephrotoxicity? a. Per os b. Intramuscular c. Continuous intravenous infusion d. Intravenous bolus

c. Continuous intravenous infusion

536. Which types of feathers cover the outermost layer of the body? a. Primary feathers b. Secondary feathers c. Contour feathers d. Filoplume feathers

c. Contour feathers

177. What test is used to diagnose autoimmune hemolytic anemia? a. Red cell fragility test b. Modified Knott c. Coombs d. Coggins

c. Coombs

209. The joint between the bony rib and cartilaginous portion of the rib is called the: a. Cartilaginous junction b. Chondralcartilaginous junction c. Costochondral junction d. Costicartilaginous junction

c. Costochondral junction

240. Which of the following is the correct abbreviation indicating performance of a craniocaudal radiograph? a. CdCr b. Dpa c. CrCd d. Cr

c. CrCd

686. Blood leaves the right ventricle to enter what structure? a. Caudal vena cava b. Aorta c. Cranial vena cava d. Left atrium

c. Cranial vena cava

114. Which of the following radiographic terms describes the view when the primary x-ray beam enters the cranial surface and exits the caudal surface of the patient? a. Dorsoventral b. Ventrodorsal c. Craniocaudal d. Caudocranial

c. Craniocaudal

364. What does "buffering the solution" refer to? a. Creating an acidic solution b. Creating an alkaline solution c. Creating a neutral solution with the pH close to 7 d. None of the above

c. Creating a neutral solution with the pH close to 7

11. Which statement regarding tetracyclines is true? a. They are bactericidal b. They alter the permeability of the cell wall and cause lysis c. Currently many bacteria are resistant to tetracyclines d. They are unable to penetrate the bacterial cell wall

c. Currently many bacteria are resistant to tetracyclines

275. Chronic administration of high doses of glucocorticoids can cause iatrogenic: a. Renal failure b. Addison disease c. Cushing disease d. Johne disease

c. Cushing disease

40. Hoover, a canine patient, was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection 2 weeks earlier and was placed on a course of amoxicillin. The veterinarian asked that he return for a recheck to ensure the infection has resolved. The collection method of choice in this patient would be: a. Catheterization b. Free catch c. Cystocentesis d. Manual expression

c. Cystocentesis

425. What are the two preferred methods of collecting a urine sample for culture? a. Catheterization and voiding b. Expressing the bladder and cystocentesis c. Cystocentesis and catheterization d. Cystocentesis and voiding

c. Cystocentesis and catheterization

351. Which of the following is the first indication that the heart is starting to fail? a. Decrease in blood pressure b. Rise in blood pressure c. Decrease in cardiac output d. Drop in oxygen saturation

c. Decrease in cardiac output

249. Because digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index, veterinary technicians and owners of animals that receive digoxin must be able to detect early signs of digoxin toxicity, such as: a. Increased urination and increased water consumption b. Increased coughing and difficulty breathing c. Decreased appetite, anorexia, diarrhea, and vomiting d. Wobbly gait, fainting (syncope), and disorientation

c. Decreased appetite, anorexia, diarrhea, and vomiting

231. Within the past few years there have been reports of dogs having adverse reactions to sulfadiazine, which is a commonly used sulfonamide. What reaction should clients and veterinary professionals watch for? a. Cardiac arrest b. Sudden liver failure c. Decreased tear production d. Increased urination

c. Decreased tear production

353. Cardiac drugs that belong in class IA act by: a. Stabilizing myocardial cells b. Blocking beta receptors c. Decreasing myocardial automaticity d. Blocking calcium channels

c. Decreasing myocardial automaticity

28. Water deprivation tests should never be performed on patients with: a. High MCV b. Suspected sufficient ADH c. Dehydration d. Suspected tubular malfunction

c. Dehydration

62. Which of the following may an elevated hematocrit indicate? a. Hyperglycemia b. Anemia c. Dehydration d. Leukocytosis

c. Dehydration

403. What makes up the bulk of the tooth? a. Enamel b. Crown c. Dentin d. Root

c. Dentin

388. The parasite also known as the American dog tick is: a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus b. Ixodes dammini c. Dermacentor variabilis d. Dermacentor albipictus

c. Dermacentor variabilis

21. The function of hemolysins is to: a. Coagulate blood b. Break down fibrin c. Destroy red blood cells d. Indicate a viral infection

c. Destroy red blood cells

497. The section between the canine teeth and the first premolar of the horse is termed: a. Hypsodontic b. Wolf teeth c. Diastema d. Infundibulum

c. Diastema

104. Mrs. Stillman's poodle Roxy has been diagnosed with idiopathic epilepsy. In the event of a seizure at home, which drug has the doctor decided to dispense, which Mrs. Stillman can administer per rectum? a. Pentobarbital b. Phenobarbital c. Diazepam d. Acepromazine

c. Diazepam

19. If using a regular disposable-type syringe, which of the following drugs should not be preloaded and left for a time before use? a. Acepromazine b. Atropine c. Diazepam d. Ketamine

c. Diazepam

234. What drug is used intravenously to treat status epilepticus? a. Potassium bromide b. Levetiracetam c. Diazepam d. Phenobarbital

c. Diazepam

14. Dogs demonstrate what type of estrous cycle? a. Polyestrous b. Seasonally polyestrous c. Diestrous d. Monoestrous

c. Diestrous

154. The condition known as pseudopregnancy can result from an exaggerated: a. Anestrus b. Metestrus c. Diestrus d. Proestrus

c. Diestrus

3. A pregnant mare has what kind of placentation? a. Zonary b. Cotyledonary c. Diffuse d. Discoid

c. Diffuse

655. Which of the following muscles opens the jaw and is located on the caudoventral surface of the mandible? a. Temporalis b. Dorsal rectus c. Digastricus d. Masseter

c. Digastricus

531. Which digit of the bird carries the primary feathers? a. Digit 1 b. Alula c. Digit 3 d. Metacarpal

c. Digit 3

384. The parasite diagnosed by examining urine is a. Tritrichomonas species b. Dictyocaulus species c. Dioctophyma species d. Anaplasma species

c. Dioctophyma species

400. The double-pore tapeworm is: a. Paragonimus kellicotti b. Moniezia expansa c. Dipylidium caninum d. Echinococcus granulosus

c. Dipylidium caninum

52. The main reason that generic forms of drugs are less expensive than trademark name drugs is because generic brands: a. Use less expensive ingredients b. Are not advertised heavily c. Do not incur the expense of developing a new drug d. Do not work as well as trademark name drugs

c. Do not incur the expense of developing a new drug

124. The female rabbit is referred to as: a. Jill b. Bitch c. Doe d. Hobb

c. Doe

143. When obtaining a caudocranial view of the humerus of a small animal, in which position should the animal be? a. Ventral recumbency b. Left lateral recumbency c. Dorsal recumbency d. Right lateral recumbency

c. Dorsal recumbency

256. To obtain a radiograph of the CdCr projection of the scapula of a small animal, which of the following is the correct position for the patient? a. Sternal recumbency b. Lateral recumbency c. Dorsal recumbency d. Standing

c. Dorsal recumbency

73. Dr. Charles is performing a C-section on Sadie, a 3-year-old Dalmatian. The smallest pup was not breathing spontaneously, so the doctor asks you administer which of the following drugs as a respiratory stimulant? a. Theophylline b. Albuterol c. Doxapram HCl d. Terbutaline

c. Doxapram HCl

577. In what location are spermatozoa stored in birds? a. Vas deferens b. Seminiferous tubules c. Ductus deferens d. Cloaca

c. Ductus deferens

180. Which of the following is considered a tick-borne organism found in dogs? a. Toxoplasma b. Isospora c. Ehrlichia d. Cryptosporidium

c. Ehrlichia

269. Which of the following animals has the longest gestational period? a. Horses b. Sheep c. Elephants d. Cattle

c. Elephants

140. What structure is not found in the brainstem? a. Midbrain b. Pons c. Hypothalamus d. Medulla oblongata

c. Hypothalamus

225. Which of the following is not an advantage of digital x-ray versus analog x-ray? a. Elimination of the darkroom b. Image postprocessing c. Elimination of damaging radiation d. Exposure latitude and contrast optimization

c. Elimination of damaging radiation

334. Baytril is the trade name for: a. Acepromazine b. Cephalexin c. Enrofloxacin d. Gabapentin

c. Enrofloxacin

131. An animal that tested positive for heartworm infection might also have an elevation of which of the following blood cells? a. Leukocytes b. Lymphocytes c. Eosinophils d. Monocytes

c. Eosinophils

262. A flat ribbonlike structure that lies along the surface of the testis is known as: a. Cremaster muscle b. Vas deferens c. Epididymis d. Seminiferous tubule.

c. Epididymis

132. The kidney produces what hormone? a. Antidiuretic hormone b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone c. Erythropoietin d. Adrenal cortex hormone

c. Erythropoietin

30. From the estrous cycle to parturition, in what order are the following hormones released? a. Estrogen, oxytocin, progesterone b. Oxytocin, estrogen, progesterone c. Estrogen, progesterone, oxytocin d. Progesterone, estrogen, oxytocin

c. Estrogen, progesterone, oxytocin

78. How often should x-ray equipment in a veterinarian's office be tested? a. Every 6 months b. Every year c. Every 2 years d. Only once when the equipment is installed

c. Every 2 years

75. The type of drug that would be most helpful for a patient with a productive cough is: a. Antitussive b. Antihistamine c. Expectorant d. Analgesic

c. Expectorant

158. Which of the following will cause a fogged film? a. Chemical spills on the screen b. Exposure resulting from static electricity c. Exposure to excessive scatter radiation d. Foreign materials between the film and the screen

c. Exposure to excessive scatter radiation

163. To obtain a mediolateral view of the brachioantebrachial joint of a horse, how should the leg be positioned? a. Adducted b. Abducted c. Extended cranially d. Extended caudally

c. Extended cranially

112. Dysecdysis is the abnormal shedding of skin in a reptile. Which of the following is a common complication resulting from dysecdysis? a. Fungal infection of the dermis b. Subsequent systemic bacterial infection c. Extremity necrosis, especially of the toes or tail tip d. Constipation caused by eating the shed skin

c. Extremity necrosis, especially of the toes or tail tip

130. The primary function of insulin is to: a. Regulate the metabolic processes of the body b. Regulate digestion through secretion of gastrointestinal hormones c. Facilitate the entry of glucose into cells d. Control reproductive function

c. Facilitate the entry of glucose into cells

515. Where does fertilization normally occur in the horse? a. Testicles b. Ovaries c. Fallopian tubes d. Infundibulum

c. Fallopian tubes

57. Which of the following options is least likely to interfere with blood chemistry test results? a. Postprandial serum b. Icteric serum c. Fasting serum d. Hemolyzed serum

c. Fasting serum

113. Bile acids aid in the absorption of: a. Proteins b. Carbohydrates c. Fats d. Globulins

c. Fats

65. Bile acids aid in the digestion of a. Proteins b. Carbohydrates c. Fats d. Globulins

c. Fats

75. Bile acids are important in the digestion of: a. Carbohydrates b. Electrolytes c. Fats d. Proteins

c. Fats

338. Metronidazole is the active ingredient in: a. Carafate b. Cerenia c. Flagyl d. Reglan

c. Flagyl

202. The scapula is an example of a: a. Long bone b. Short bone c. Flat bone d. Irregular bone

c. Flat bone

294. Squamous cells describe cells that contain what shape? a. Column shaped b. Square or cube shaped c. Flattened in shape d. Circular shaped

c. Flattened in shape

234. Which radiographic view provides the best accuracy for detecting carpal fractures in horses? a. Lateral view b. Medial oblique view c. Flexed lateral view d. Dorsopalmar view

c. Flexed lateral view

63. Which of the following imaging modalities can cause radiation burns if the unit is too close to the skin and remains in exposure mode for too long? a. CT b. MRI c. Fluoroscopy d. Ultrasound

c. Fluoroscopy

146. A veterinarian prescribes erythropoietin for use in a dog in terminal renal failure. Why was this drug prescribed? a. For its fibrinolytic activity b. For its immunosuppressive activity c. For its ability to stimulate red blood cell production and release d. For its ability to reduce hypertension

c. For its ability to stimulate red blood cell production and release

627. The spinal cord exits the skull through which structure? a. Temporal bone b. Atlas c. Foramen magnum d. Occipital condyles

c. Foramen magnum

147. What occurs when the object is not parallel to the recording surface of an x-ray? a. Distortion b. Penumbra c. Foreshortening d. Fogging

c. Foreshortening

179. It is important to keep cytology samples and unstained slides away from _____ so that the samples can be stained properly later. a. Acetone b. Ether c. Formalin d. Saline

c. Formalin

94. Casts that are seen in urine sediment are: a. Mucous threads filled with amorphous sediment b. Always significant c. Formed in the renal tubules d. Artifacts

c. Formed in the renal tubules

141. What method of urine sample collection would not be associated with traumatic hematuria? a. Catheterization b. Manual expression c. Free catch d. Cystocentesis

c. Free catch

72. Efferent nerves carry nerve impulses: a. To the body from the central nervous system b. To the body from the spinal cord c. From the body to the central nervous system d. From one part of a limb to another part of the same limb

c. From the body to the central nervous system

126. All of the following are cells found in the fundus and body of the stomach except: a. Parietal cells b. Chief cells c. G cells d. Mucous cells

c. G cells

233. What tissue processes B cells before they are sent to peripheral lymphoid tissue? a. GLNB b. GALB c. GALT d. GLAN

c. GALT

12. A rabbit presents with a 2-day history of anorexia. You take radiographs and notice an ingesta-filled stomach with large amounts of gas in the intestines and cecum. This is suggestive of what condition in the rabbit? a. Acute GI dilation b. GI foreign-body obstruction c. GI stasis d. GI neoplasia

c. GI stasis

479. In which type of gait does the floating phase occur? a. Walk b. Trot c. Gallop d. Canter

c. Gallop

255. In horses, the blood chemistry tests most commonly used to evaluate liver function are: a. Alanine transaminase and aspartate aminotransferase b. Electrolytes and blood urea nitrogen c. Gamma-glutamyl transferase and sorbitol dehydrogenase d. Amylase and lipase

c. Gamma-glutamyl transferase and sorbitol dehydrogenase

23. A decrease in albumin may occur in cases experiencing: a. Cardiac disease b. A carnivorous diet c. Gastroenteritis d. A vegetarian diet

c. Gastroenteritis

197. Which of the following types of insulin provides the longest duration of action? a. NPH insulin b. Regular insulin c. Glargine insulin d. PZI insulin

c. Glargine insulin

193. Which of the following is not considered a physical restraint? a. Tape b. Radiolucent Plexiglas c. Gloved hands d. Foam pads

c. Gloved hands

143. In a diabetic animal, blood chemistry analysis is commonly performed to monitor insulin therapy by measuring blood levels of: a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Glucose d. Insulin

c. Glucose

38. Which of the following is a condition in which uric acid is deposited into the joints and visceral organs and is caused by dehydration, kidney disease, and a high-protein diet? a. Hypovitaminosis A b. Metabolic bone disease c. Gout d. Hypocalcemia

c. Gout

150. Which of the following is not considered an appropriate bedding substrate for a snake? a. Indoor/outdoor carpet b. Newspaper c. Gravel/corncob bedding d. Cypress mulch

c. Gravel/corncob bedding

260. All of the following are components of the x-ray tube, except: a. Cathode b. Anode c. Grid d. Tungsten filament

c. Grid

101. Malignant hyperthermia is a phenomenon associated primarily with the use of what inhalant anesthetic? a. Nitrous oxide b. Sevoflurane c. Halothane d. Isoflurane

c. Halothane

544. What structure do birds move to view an image? a. Eye muscles b. Eyes c. Head d. Optic lobes

c. Head

559. The pericardial sac covers which of the following structures within the bird? a. Bronchi b. Keel c. Heart d. Syrinx

c. Heart

242. Centrifuging a blood sample at high speed for a prolonged period may result in: a. Lipemia b. Icterus c. Hemolysis d. Bacterial contamination

c. Hemolysis

243. Improper handling of a blood sample after it has been collected may result in: a. Lipemia b. Icterus c. Hemolysis d. Leukocytosis

c. Hemolysis

47. The two most common problems encountered in samples to be evaluated for clinical chemistry are: a. Coagulation and separation b. Dilution and concentration c. Hemolysis and lipemia d. EDTA and heparin

c. Hemolysis and lipemia

288. What type of anemia is associated with icterus? a. Responsive b. Nonresponsive c. Hemolytic d. Megaloblastic

c. Hemolytic

304. What is the primary function of fibrinogen? a. Antibody production b. Phagocytosis c. Hemostasis d. Complement fixation

c. Hemostasis

222. With what type of diet should oral tetracyclines not be administered? a. High fat b. Low sodium c. High calcium d. Low potassium

c. High calcium

455. The coxal tuber is located on which of the following bones of the horse? a. Talus b. Metatarsal c. Hip bone d. Femur

c. Hip bone

242. Which of the following mammals does not have a gallbladder? a. Dogs b. Cats c. Horses d. Animals cannot function without a gallbladder

c. Horses

59. In which of the following species is rouleaux formation common? a. Rats b. Dogs c. Horses d. Pigs

c. Horses

450. The deltoid tuberosity is located on which of the following bones of the horse? a. Radius b. Ulna c. Humerus d. Scapula

c. Humerus

296. When preparing a direct smear from feces, all of the following liquids can be mixed with the feces, except: a. Tap water b. Distilled water c. Hydrogen peroxide d. Saline

c. Hydrogen peroxide

191. Which of the following structures suspends the larynx from the skull? a. Pharynx b. Epiglottis c. Hyoid apparatus d. Mediastinum

c. Hyoid apparatutus

218. Polyuria and polydipsia are not commonly seen in what endocrine disorder? a. Hyperadrenocorticism b. Diabetes insipidus c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Diabetes mellitus

c. Hyperparathyroidism

267. For what disease is methimazole used? a. Hypothyroidism in dogs b. Hyperadrenocorticism in dogs c. Hyperthyroidism in cats d. Hypoadrenocorticism in dogs

c. Hyperthyroidism in cats

211. Xylitol ingestion may result in which of the following conditions? a. Hypophosphatemia b. Hypobilirubinemia c. Hypoglycemia d. Hyper and hypophosphatemia

c. Hypoglycemia

323. Which of the following will decrease the efficacy of lidocaine when used to address cardiac arrhythmias? a. Hypocalcemia b. Hypochloremia c. Hypokalemia d. Hyponatremia

c. Hypokalemia

37. Acepromazine maleate causes: a. Respiratory depression b. Tachycardia c. Hypotension d. Reduced salivation

c. Hypotension

169. In dogs that have been receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy (months to years), which of the following endocrinopathies can occur? a. Hypothyroidism b. Hyperthyroidism c. Iatrogenic Cushing disease/hyperadrenocorticism d. Estrogen-responsive incontinence

c. Iatrogenic Cushing disease/hyperadrenocorticism

259. The bisecting angle principle states that the plane of an x-ray beam should be 90 degrees to the: a. Long axis of the tooth b. Plane of the film c. Imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the tooth's long axis and the film plane d. Imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the animal's head and the film plane

c. Imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the tooth's long axis and the film plane

160. In which of the following circumstances should a thiobarbiturate drug be avoided? a. In a patient with respiratory alkalosis b. In obese patients c. In sight hounds and very thin patients d. In hyperproteinemic animals

c. In sight hounds and very thin patients

633. Which skull bone is the most rostral bone? a. Occipital b. Interparietal c. Incisive d. Lacrimal

c. Incisive

8. Cholinergic agents do all of the following except: a. Cause bradycardia b. Control vomiting c. Increase intraocular pressure d. Increase gastrointestinal motility

c. Increase intraocular pressure

52. Total protein levels are _______ in a dehydrated animal. a. Unaffected b. Decreased c. Increased d. Variable

c. Increased

148. Atropine is often given as a preanesthetic agent. It is classified as an anticholinergic drug. That means that it will likely have the following effects on an animal receiving the drug: a. Decreased heart rate, decreased salivation, and decreased GI motility b. Increased heart rate, increased salivation, and increased GI motility c. Increased heart rate, decreased salivation, and decreased GI motility d. Decreased heart rate, increased salivation, and increased GI motility

c. Increased heart rate, decreased salivation, and decreased GI motility

54. Glaucoma is: a. Decreased pressure in the posterior chamber of the eye b. Increased pressure in the posterior chamber of the eye c. Increased pressure in the anterior chamber of the eye d. Decreased pressure in the anterior chamber of the eye

c. Increased pressure in the anterior chamber of the eye

90. Glucocorticoids are often used in veterinary medicine for the treatment of all of the following conditions except: a. Allergies b. Musculoskeletal problems c. Infections d. Immune-mediated disease

c. Infections

327. Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) is associated with: a. Blood flow to the kidney b. Maintenance of the gastric mucosa c. Inflammation d. Normal physiological function

c. Inflammation

68. Which of the following is the most common and largest space used for subcutaneous fluid administration in the avian patient? a. Wing web b. Between the shoulder blades c. Inguinal area d. Over the back, behind the pelvis

c. Inguinal area

286. Methoprene and fenoxycarb are ingredients increasingly found in flea and other insect products. What are they? a. Insecticides b. Repellents c. Insect growth regulators d. Synergists

c. Insect growth regulators

447. Which of the following drugs can become inactivated by shaking? a. Amoxicillin b. Clavamox c. Insulin d. Metronidazole

c. Insulin

641. The bodies of adjacent vertebrae are separated by what structure? a. Spinal canal b. Articular process c. Intervertebral disks d. Ligamentum nuchae

c. Intervertebral disks

221. The tricuspid valve controls the flow of blood: a. Into the left ventricle b. Out of the left ventricle c. Into the right ventricle d. Out of the right ventricle

c. Into the right ventricle

30. Heartgard contains ivermectin, which: a. Prevents dogs from developing congestive heart failure b. Is also effective in treating tapeworms c. Is used to prevent heartworm infection d. Can be administered orally only

c. Is used to prevent heartworm infection

25. What does the TGC or time gain compensation allow on the ultrasound machine? a. It allows the amount of time it takes sound to travel through a medium to be changed b. It provides a faster time frame for clearer images with motion c. It allows adjustment of the gain at various depths d. None of the above

c. It allows adjustment of the gain at various depths

152. Which of the following statements regarding creatinine is false? a. It is an indicator of the glomerular filtration rate. b. It is produced as a result of normal muscle metabolism. c. It is a less reliable indicator of renal function than BUN. d. It is usually evaluated in conjunction with the BUN and urine specific gravity.

c. It is a less reliable indicator of renal function than BUN.

26. Which of the following statements is true when considering the use of xylazine? a. It is safe in all dogs b. It can be reversed with naloxone c. It provides some analgesia d. It can cause priapism in stallions

c. It provides some analgesia

283. What drug is used most commonly as a microfilaricide in the treatment of heartworm disease? a. Thiacetarsamide b. Melarsomine c. Ivermectin d. Piperazine

c. Ivermectin

408. Which is the longest segment of the small intestines? a. Duodenum b. Ileum c. Jejunum d. Colon

c. Jejunum

74. Which of the following vessels is most commonly used for collection of a complete blood count and chemistry panel in the prairie dog? a. Cephalic vein b. Lateral saphenous vein c. Jugular vein d. Caudal tail vein

c. Jugular vein

113. You were assigned to work the front office at the hospital today. When you walk back to the treatment area, you notice a cat under anesthesia. The cat has eyes wide-open, lack of blinking, the limbs are stiffly distended, and is salivating profusely. Your highly educated guess is that this cat was anesthetized using which of the following drugs? a. Xylazine b. Medetomidine c. Ketamine d. Propofol

c. Ketamine

388. Which injectable anesthetic is not recommended in patients with neurological disease? a. Barbiturates b. Etomidate c. Ketamine d. Propofol

c. Ketamine

16. Penicillins are primarily excreted by the: a. Small intestine b. Liver c. Kidney d. Stomach

c. Kidney

95. The presence of protein in the urine may indicate: a. Acid-base imbalance b. Hemolytic anemia c. Kidney disease d. Diabetes mellitus

c. Kidney disease

249. Which of the following is the correct path for urine elimination? a. Ureter, kidneys, urethra, bladder b. Kidneys, urethra, bladder, ureter c. Kidney, ureters, bladder, urethra d. Urethra, bladder, ureter, kidneys

c. Kidney, ureters, bladder, urethra

122. Serum electrolyte levels should be determined when evaluating the function of the: a. Liver b. Pancreas c. Kidneys d. Heart

c. Kidneys

623. In the male tortoise, the testes are located adjacent to what other organ? a. Stomach b. Urinary bladder c. Kidneys d. Liver

c. Kidneys

434. Which of the following is responsible for draining tears from the eye? a. Lacrimal glands b. Conjunctiva c. Lacrimal puncta d. Membrana nictitans

c. Lacrimal puncta

187. Which of the following is not a muscle in the abdominal group? a. External oblique b. Rectus abdominis c. Latissimus dorsi d. Internal oblique

c. Latissimus dorsi

667. Which muscle is responsible for retracting the forelimb of dogs? a. Pectoralis b. Trapezius c. Latissimus dorsi d. Supraspinatus

c. Latissimus dorsi

155. A grid is a series of thin, linear strips made of alternating radiodense and radiolucent material. Of what are the radiodense strips made? a. Aluminum b. Fiber c. Lead d. Plastic

c. Lead

55. Which of the following two metals most commonly cause heavy metal toxicity after ingestion by birds? a. Lead and gold b. Zinc and copper c. Lead and zinc d. Cast iron and copper

c. Lead and zinc

217. Blood enters the heart from the pulmonary veins in the: a. Left ventricle b. Right ventricle c. Left atrium d. Right atrium

c. Left atrium

306. An increased number of bands in the peripheral blood indicate: a. Leukemia b. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia c. Left shift d. Neutropenia

c. Left shift

44. Cataracts result from a problem with transparency of the: a. Cornea b. Vitreous humor c. Lens d. Aqueous humor

c. Lens

233. An increase in WBCs is referred to as which of the following? a. Leukopenia b. Anemia c. Leukocytosis d. Thrombocytopenia

c. Leukocytosis

379. Pediculosis is an infestation of: a. Ticks b. Flies c. Lice d. Mites

c. Lice

157. Which of the following causes a black irregular border on one end of the film? a. Rough handling of the film before exposure b. Expired film c. Light exposure while still in the box in advance of exposure d. Exposure to radiation while still in storage

c. Light exposure while still in the box in advance of exposure

422. An ammonium biurate crystal is sometimes described as: a. Shaped like an envelope b. Shaped like a pyramid c. Like a thorny apple in appearance d. Like a bicycle wheel in appearance

c. Like a thorny apple in appearance

115. The term oblique is generally used in reference to which of the following? a. Abdomen b. Spine c. Limbs d. Head

c. Limbs

114. Fibrinogen is produced in the: a. Pancreas b. Bone marrow c. Liver d. Spleen

c. Liver

132. When viewing a radiograph, which organ lies in the cranial abdomen between the diaphragm and stomach in small animals? a. Adrenal glands b. Pancreas c. Liver d. Spleen

c. Liver

411. Which gland is located caudal to the diaphragm and is the largest gland in the body? a. Spleen b. Pancreas c. Liver d. Gallbladder

c. Liver

95. Because of a lack of diaphragm in the avian patient, which of the following organs surrounds the apex of the heart? a. Pancreas b. Cecum c. Liver d. Kidneys

c. Liver

119. Looking under a microscope at a blood smear, you see erythrocytes that are elliptical, not nucleated, and lacking central pallor. From which species was this sample most likely collected? a. Bird b. Horse c. Llama d. Snake

c. Llama

79. Monocytes typically have: a. Segmented nuclei b. Band-shaped nuclei c. Lobular nuclei d. No nuclei

c. Lobular nuclei

462. Which muscle of the horse supports the rider's weight? a. Pectoral b. Semitendinosus c. Longissimus dorsi d. Rhomboideus

c. Longissimus dorsi

67. Which is least likely to be a clinical sign of a patient experiencing allergies? a. Face rubbing b. Ear problems c. Loss of appetite d. Skin rashes

c. Loss of appetite

578. During mating, the phallus of male birds becomes engorged with: a. Blood b. Air c. Lymph d. Water

c. Lymph

232. What cells are involved in antibody production? a. Monocytes b. Neutrophils c. Lymphocytes d. Basophils

c. Lymphocytes

214. What is the main constituent of a struvite crystal? a. Calcium carbonate b. Calcium oxalate c. Magnesium phosphate d. Silica

c. Magnesium phosphate

573. The majority of the albumen is added to the egg as it travels down which structure in birds? a. Infundibulum b. Cloaca c. Magnum d. Isthmus

c. Magnum

552. Where are the free spaces within the bird located? a. Thorax b. Abdomen c. Major bones d. Wings

c. Major bones

412. When applying nitroglycerin ointment, it is important to wear gloves and: a. Wash it off after it has had contact with the patient for 5 minutes b. Avoid placing it directly on the skin c. Make a note where it was placed d. Make sure it is placed thickly in a small area

c. Make a note where it was placed

635. The zygomatic bones of dogs are also referred to as: a. Premaxillary bones b. Hard palate c. Malar bones d. Cochlea

c. Malar bones

168. Which of the following would be considered an abnormal finding on healthy canine external ear canal cytology? a. Cerumen b. Epithelial cells c. Malassezia d. Debris

c. Malassezia

189. What causes the sensitivity of the occult heartworm test to decrease? a. No microfilariae present b. Female worms only c. Male worms only d. No clinical signs

c. Male worms only

60. Lymph nodes that are found medial to the caudal part of the jaw are the: a. Popliteal nodes b. Inguinal nodes c. Mandibular nodes d. Prescapular nodes

c. Mandibular nodes

175. Which of the following drugs is classified as an osmotic diuretic and is often used to reduce intracranial pressure or treat oliguric renal failure? a. Furosemide b. Propranolol c. Mannitol d. Bethanechol

c. Mannitol

441. DMSO should not be used in patients with: a. Hemangiosarcoma b. Lymphoma c. Mast cell tumors d. Osteosarcoma

c. Mast cell tumors

656. Which of the following muscles are responsible for side-to-side movements of the mouth? a. Masseter b. Temporalis c. Medial and lateral pterygoids d. Digastric

c. Medial and lateral pterygoids

165. Which of the following is the best view of the carpal joint for detecting slab fractures? a. Lateral view b. Flexed lateral view c. Medial oblique d. Dorsopalmar view

c. Medial oblique

320. What cells respond more quickly to a second antigen exposure than to the initial exposure? a. Thymocytes b. Monocytes c. Memory B cells d. Neutrophils

c. Memory B cells

446. Which of the following bones is also referred to as the cannon bone of the horse? a. Phalanges b. Carpus c. Metacarpals d. Femur

c. Metacarpals

442. Which of the following bones is located distal to the tarsal bone in the horse? a. Femur b. Patella c. Metatarsal d. Fibula

c. Metatarsal

25. In what stage of the estrous cycle does the corpus luteum develop? a. Proestrus b. Estrus c. Metestrus d. Diestrous

c. Metestrus

232. What antibacterial drug is also effective against protozoa such as Giardia? a. Clindamycin b. Griseofulvin c. Metronidazole d. Monensin

c. Metronidazole

344. Of the following drugs, which must be in an anaerobic environment to be effective? a. Chloramphenicol b. Clindamycin c. Metronidazole d. Neomycin

c. Metronidazole

433. What antibiotic also has anti-inflammatory actions in the gastrointestinal tract? a. Ciprofloxacin b. Enrofloxacin c. Metronidazole d. Tetracycline

c. Metronidazole

359. What organism exhibits fluorescence under ultraviolet light? a. Microsporum gypseum b. Trichophyton mentagrophytes c. Microsporum canis d. Epidermophyton floccosum

c. Microsporum canis

450. Yohimbine can be used to reverse all of the following alpha-2 adrenoreceptor agonists, except: a. Xylazine b. Medetomidine c. Midazolam d. Dexmedetomidine

c. Midazolam

31. The active drug in ProHeart is moxidectin, and it is a member of which drug class? a. Arsenical b. Organophosphate c. Milbemycin d. Pyrantel

c. Milbemycin

439. What does the term MAC stand for? a. Maximum arterial concentration b. A sandwich at McDonalds c. Minimum alveolar concentration d. Mild acid concentration

c. Minimum alveolar concentration

200. Many antibiotic drug inserts (information included in packages of drugs) make reference to the MIC at which the antibiotic is effective. What is the MIC? a. Minimum inflammatory concentration b. Maximum infusion concentration c. Minimum inhibitory concentration d. Maximum inhalation concentration

c. Minimum inhibitory concentration

101. What two valves comprise the atrioventricular valves? a. Mitral valve, pulmonic valve b. Aortic valve, pulmonic valve c. Mitral valve, tricuspid valve d. Pulmonic valve, tricuspid valve

c. Mitral valve, tricuspid valve

58. Where on the blood smear would you select to start your WBC differential count? a. Thickest area b. Feathered edge c. Monocellular layer d. Thinnest area

c. Monocellular layer

308. Which of these white blood cells migrate through tissue as macrophages and function to remove and destroy bacteria, damaged cells, and neoplastic cells? a. Lymphocytes b. Neutrophils c. Monocytes d. Eosinophils

c. Monocytes

436. Which of the following cannot be phoned in to the pharmacy and will require a written prescription? a. Buprenorphine b. Diazepam c. Morphine d. Phenobarbital

c. Morphine

85. The intermediate host for heartworms is the: a. Flea b. Rodent c. Mosquito d. Snail

c. Mosquito

129. All of the following organs are normally seen on a radiograph, except: a. Liver b. Kidney c. Pancreas d. Bladder

c. Pancreas

149. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the snake respiratory tract? a. Snakes have air sacs similar to those in birds b. Snakes have complete cartilaginous tracheal rings c. Most species have a single right lung and a nonfunctioning left lung d. The lungs run the entire length of the snake's body

c. Most species have a single right lung and a nonfunctioning left lung

194. What is the most immature cell in the granulocyte series? a. Megakaryoblast b. Leukoblast c. Myeloblast d. Progranuloblast

c. Myeloblast

68. On a complete blood count (CBC), all of the following findings could be expected in a patient with an infection, except: a. Neutrophilia b. Leukocytosis c. Narrow buffy coat d. A left shift

c. Narrow buffy coat

366. Dirofilaria immitis is a: a. Cestode b. Arthropod c. Nematode d. Trematode

c. Nematode

185. An example of an aminoglycoside antibiotic is: a. Erythromycin b. Ampicillin c. Neomycin d. Doxycycline

c. Neomycin

13. The type of cell responsible for the transmission of impulses through the nervous system is the: a. Neuroglia b. Schwann c. Neuron d. Oligodendrocyte

c. Neuron

78. What cells are phagocytic? a. Granulocytes b. Lymphocytes c. Neutrophils and macrophages d. Macrophages and lymphocytes

c. Neutrophils and macrophages

274. Commonly used glucocorticoids affect the CBC. What are the effects of glucocorticoid use on the CBC? a. Neutrophils decreased, eosinophils increased, lymphocytes decreased b. Neutrophils increased, eosinophils increased, lymphocytes increased c. Neutrophils increased, eosinophils decreased, lymphocytes decreased d. Neutrophils decreased, eosinophils decreased, lymphocytes increased

c. Neutrophils increased, eosinophils decreased, lymphocytes decreased

339. A neutrophil with a four-segmented nucleus would be classified as a: a. Hypersegmented neutrophil b. Immature neutrophil c. Normal neutrophil d. Aged neutrophil

c. Normal neutrophil

98. In which imaging modality is Technetium 99m used? a. MRI b. Ultrasound c. Nuclear medicine d. Fluoroscopy

c. Nuclear medicine

384. Which of the following are considered the largest molecules in the body? a. Lipids b. Proteins c. Nucleic acids d. Carbohydrates

c. Nucleic acids

217. Why is it important that pus-filled wounds or ear canals with purulent debris be thoroughly cleaned before applying a topical aminoglycoside (e.g., gentamicin)? a. Purulent material shields bacteria from the antibiotic. b. The alkaline nature of the purulent material reduces bacterial uptake of the drug. c. Nucleic acids in the cellular debris bind the aminoglycoside. d. Irritation from the purulent material causes the tissue to produce enzymes against the aminoglycoside.

c. Nucleic acids in the cellular debris bind the aminoglycoside.

76. Which of the following diseases causes an acute onset of hind limb paresis or paralysis in the captive sugar glider? a. Lymphoid neoplasia b. Cardiomyopathy c. Nutritional osteodystrophy d. Obesity

c. Nutritional osteodystrophy

80. Which one of the following options would not affect a manual WBC count? a. Condenser in the farthest "up" position b. Length of time that the hemocytometer has been loaded c. Objective lens used d. Mini clots in the blood

c. Objective lens used

353. Viruses are best described as: a. Free-living organisms b. Obligatory interstitial parasites c. Obligatory intracellular parasites d. Eukaryotic cells

c. Obligatory intracellular parasites

165. The skull bone that articulates with the first cervical vertebra is the: a. Parietal bone b. Temporal bone c. Occipital bone d. Frontal bone.

c. Occipital bone

405. The parasite whose larvae enter the nasal cavity of sheep is: a. Gasterophilus species b. Hypoderma species c. Oestrus species d. Cuterebra species

c. Oestrus species

1. Which of the following may help decrease dental abrasions in the pet ferret? a. Housing the ferret in a wire cage b. Offering a raw diet consisting of bones, chicken, and green vegetables c. Offering a natural-prey diet or moistening dry kibble d. Annual periodontal treatments

c. Offering a natural-prey diet or moistening dry kibble

443. An example of a semisolid dosage form is: a. Implant b. Injectable c. Ointment d. Syrup

c. Ointment

293. What is indicated by a neutrophil that includes a nucleus with six lobes? a. Toxemia b. Female animal c. Old cell d. Normal cell

c. Old cell

124. For a dorsoplantar view of the tarsal joint of a horse, the cassette should be placed in which position? a. On the lateral surface b. On the medial surface c. On the plantar surface d. On the plantaromedial surface

c. On the plantar surface

537. How often do go birds go through a molting process? a. Once a month b. Every 3- 6 months c. Once a year d. One time after 1 year of age

c. Once a year

197. Which test is used to confirm a diagnosis of warfarin (rodenticide) toxicity? a. Thrombocyte count b. Calcium level c. One-step prothrombin time d. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

c. One-step prothrombin time

264. The mesosalpinx ligament within the female reproductive tract supports which of the following structures? a. Uterus b. Ovaries c. Oviduct d. Vagina

c. Oviduct

144. Which of the following is a posterior pituitary hormone? a. Luteinizing hormone b. Growth hormone c. Oxytocin d. Follicle-stimulating hormone

c. Oxytocin

241. Which of the following radiographic terms describes the caudal surface of the forelimb distal to the carpus? a. Plantar b. Dorsopalmar c. Palmar d. Caudocranial

c. Palmar

97. What is the term used below the carpus for the surface directed caudally or ventrally? a. Plantar b. Sagittal c. Palmar d. Longitudinal

c. Palmar

155. Measurement of blood levels of amylase and lipase is used to evaluate the function of the: a. Kidneys b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Adrenal glands

c. Pancreas

243. Which organ is considered both an exocrine and endocrine organ? a. Small intestine b. Thyroid c. Pancreas d. Kidneys

c. Pancreas

321. The thick, outer layer that surrounds the testes in the scrotum and the spermatic cord is known as the: a. Visceral vaginal tunic b. Proper vaginal tunic c. Parietal vaginal tunic d. Both a and b

c. Parietal vaginal tunic

48. Which of the following is the correct order to process dental film? a. Passed through the developer, then the fixer, then the wash b. Passed through the fixer, wash, developer, then the wash again c. Passed through the developer, wash, fixer, then the wash again d. Passed through the wash, developer, fixer, and wash again

c. Passed through the developer, wash, fixer, then the wash again

448. Which of the following bones is encased in the hoof? a. Navicular bone b. Cannon bone c. Pedal bone d. Sesamoid bone

c. Pedal bone

199. The appendicular skeleton includes the: a. Os cordis b. Ribs c. Pelvic girdle d. Clavicles

c. Pelvic girdle

12. Cephalosporins are closely related to what other drug class? a. Tetracyclines b. Sulfas c. Penicillins d. Fluoroquinolones

c. Penicillins

204. Which of the following drug groups is most likely to provoke an allergic reaction in treated animals? a. Aminoglycosides b. Quinolines c. Penicillins d. Tetracyclines

c. Penicillins

17. A 5-year-old intact male chinchilla presents with a 1-week history of excessive grooming, straining to urinate, repeatedly cleaning the penis, and production of several small spots of urine in the litter box. What is the most likely cause of these signs? a. Acute renal failure b. Urinary calculi c. Penile fur ring d. Urinary tract infection

c. Penile fur ring

646. A sugar that contains 5 carbons is referred to as a: a. Monosaccharide b. Hexose sugar c. Pentose sugar d. Disaccharide

c. Pentose sugar

301. What substance covers the outer surface of all types of bone? a. Cartilage b. Bone marrow c. Periosteum d. Lamellae

c. Periosteum

124. Food is moved along the digestive tract by the process known as a. Mastication b. Prehension c. Peristalsis d. Elimination

c. Peristalsis

325. Transport of a drug molecule that occurs when the majority of the cell surrounds the molecule, engulfs it, and brings it into the cell is referred to as: a. Facilitated b. Passive c. Phagocytosis d. Pinocytosis

c. Phagocytosis

102. What drug is in the same class as thiopental? a. Ketamine b. Diazepam c. Phenobarbital d. Atropine

c. Phenobarbital

346. Acid-fast positive organisms stain _________ when using an acid-fast stain. a. Yellow b. Blue c. Pink d. Brown

c. Pink

150. Measurement of blood levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and ACTH is used to evaluate the function of the: a. Thyroid gland b. Pancreas c. Pituitary gland d. Adrenal glands

c. Pituitary gland

248. Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index. What does this mean? a. Plasma drug concentrations that produce toxicity are very low. b. Plasma drug concentrations required to achieve a beneficial effect are very high. c. Plasma drug concentrations that produce toxicity are very close to the minimum concentration at which a beneficial effect occurs. d. Plasma drug concentrations are extremely variable from animal to animal.

c. Plasma drug concentrations that produce toxicity are very close to the minimum concentration at which a beneficial effect occurs.

103. Iguanas have teeth that are replaced many times throughout life. The teeth do not have roots but are attached to the jaw. This type of dentition is called: a. Hypsodont b. Elodont c. Pleurodont d. Monophyodont

c. Pleurodont

135. A guinea pig presents with hind leg lameness. Physical examination findings include obesity, plantar thinning, and mild ulceration. These findings are indicative of which of the following diseases? a. Gout b. Vitamin C deficiency c. Pododermatitis d. Streptobacillus spp. infection

c. Pododermatitis

456. The calcaneus bone in a horse forms which of the following? a. Pastern b. Fetlock c. Point of the hock d. The horse does not contain a calcaneus bone, only small animals

c. Point of the hock

286. What is the term used to describe the situation in which many of the erythrocytes stain varying shades of lavender? a. Anemia b. Anisocytosis c. Polychromasia d. Poikilocytosis

c. Polychromasia

604. What does it mean when rabbits breathe through their mouths? a. Normal breathing b. Good prognosis c. Poor prognosis d. Rabbits never breathe through their mouths

c. Poor prognosis

679. The veins that drain the stomach, intestine, and pancreas drain into which of the following? a. Hepatic veins b. Hepatic arteries c. Portal veins d. Iliac veins

c. Portal veins

299. What anticoagulant is used most commonly in animal-blood collection for CBCs? a. Sodium heparin b. Potassium oxalate c. Potassium ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid d. Sodium citrate

c. Potassium ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid

417. What can be used in the hospital, given IV, to increase a patient's phosphorus? a. Amphojel b. Dexamethasone sodium phosphate c. Potassium phosphate d. Tums

c. Potassium phosphate

14. The Food and Drug Administration does not approve the use of fluoroquinolones in: a. Dogs b. Cats c. Poultry d. Birds

c. Poultry

471. What is the function of cheek ligaments in horses? a. Support and suspend the fetlock and prevent overextension b. Assist in the extension of the pastern joint c. Prevent strain and overextension of the joint d. Flexes the toe

c. Prevent strain and overextension of the joint

191. What is the function of a megakaryocyte? a. Phagocytosis b. Produces granulocytes c. Produces thrombocytes d. Produces plasma cells

c. Produces thrombocytes

437. Which hormones are produced by the corpus luteum and are necessary to maintain pregnancy? a. FSH b. LH c. Progesterone d. Estrogen

c. Progesterone

132. Altrenogest, which is used for estrus synchronization in female animals, is a synthetic: a. Estrogen b. Androgen c. Progestin d. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

c. Progestin

333. Which of these cells is the most immature? a. Rubricyte b. Metarubricyte c. Prorubricyte d. Reticulocyte

c. Prorubricyte

268. What drug is used to return a mare to proestrus from diestrus through lysis of the corpus luteum? a. Progesterone b. Estrogen c. Prostaglandin d. Gonadotropin

c. Prostaglandin

351. In response to hyperkalemia, calcium gluconate will: a. Cause potassium to move into the cell b. Increase urination to excrete potassium c. Protect the heart from the effects of the potassium d. Cause potassium to move out of the cell

c. Protect the heart from the effects of the potassium

380. Which molecule is considered the most abundant organic molecule in the body? a. Amino acids b. Lipids c. Proteins d. Prostaglandins

c. Proteins

102. What gram-negative bacteria may "swarm" a blood agar plate, leaving a film over the entire surface? a. Pseudomonas sp. b. Staphylococcus sp. c. Proteus sp. d. Escherichia coli

c. Proteus sp.

124. If a drug package insert states that the drug is a coccidiostat, against what group of parasites will this drug be effective? a. Ascarids (Toxocara, Toxascaris) b. Tapeworms (Taenia) c. Protozoa (Eimeria, Isospora) d. Flukes (liver fluke, lung fluke)

c. Protozoa (Eimeria, Isospora)

96. What is the term for a part closer to a point of attachment or to the trunk? a. Distal b. Lateral c. Proximal d. Superficial

c. Proximal

86. Which of the following would be the least common side effect expected with common cancer chemotherapeutic drugs? a. Myelosuppression b. Vomiting and diarrhea c. Pruritus d. Alopecia

c. Pruritus

89. The feathered tracts in birds from which feathers originate are called: a. Barbules b. Rectrices c. Pterylae d. Remiges

c. Pterylae

431. An excessive number of WBCs in the urine is reported as: a. Dysuria b. Hematuria c. Pyuria d. Proteinuria

c. Pyuria

50. Atropine is not suggested for use in which of the following species? a. Birds b. Snakes c. Rabbits d. Lizards

c. Rabbits

89. What does the MRI unit use to manipulate hydrogen atoms in and out of an excited energy state? a. Helium b. Water c. Radio waves d. Oxygen

c. Radio waves

72. A ferret presents to the emergency clinic for anorexia, vomiting, lethargy, diarrhea, and generalized weakness. The owner stated that these symptoms started 36 hours earlier. A GI foreign body is suspected. Which of the following diagnostics would be used to determine whether a foreign body is present? a. Magnetic resonance imaging b. Chemistry panel c. Radiography d. Complete blood count

c. Radiography

66. What is an isotope termed when it is radioactive? a. Photon b. Radionuclide c. Radioisotope d. None of the above; isotopes do not become radioactive

c. Radioisotope

298. What is tested in a minor crossmatch? a. T-cell production b. Recipient serum against donor erythrocytes c. Recipient erythrocytes against donor serum d. Recipient urine against donor erythrocytes

c. Recipient erythrocytes against donor serum

396. Which blood cell is the most numerous blood cell in the body? a. White blood cells b. Plasma c. Red blood cells d. Leukocytes

c. Red blood cells

162. Bones come in all of the following shapes except: a. Flat b. Short c. Regular d. Long

c. Regular

201. What is the smallest epithelial cell seen on a urine sediment examination? a. Leukocyte b. Transitional cell c. Renal cell d. Squamous cell

c. Renal cell

42. Apnea will cause: a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis

c. Respiratory acidosis

170. What is the primary function of eosinophils? a. Phagocytosis b. Respond to autoimmune reactions c. Respond to allergic reaction d. Initiate an immune reaction

c. Respond to allergic reaction

82. The kidneys are located in which cavity? a. Peritoneal cavity b. Pelvic cavity c. Retroperitoneal cavity d. Abdominal cavity

c. Retroperitoneal cavity

11. The SA node is located in the wall of which chamber? a. Left atrium b. Left ventricle c. Right atrium d. Right ventricle

c. Right atrium

253. To obtain a radiographic image of the right temporomandibular joint of a small animal, which of the following is the best position? a. Dorsal recumbency b. Ventral recumbency c. Right lateral recumbency d. Left lateral recumbency

c. Right lateral recumbency

84. Which of the following is the most immature erythrocyte? a. Rubricyte b. Metarubricyte c. Rubriblast d. Reticulocyte

c. Rubriblast

176. What is the sequence of cells listed from most immature to most mature? a. Rubricyte, reticulocyte, rubriblast, erythrocyte b. Rubriblast, reticulocyte, rubricyte, erythrocyte c. Rubriblast, rubricyte, reticulocyte, erythrocyte d. Reticulocyte, rubriblast, rubricyte, erythrocyte

c. Rubriblast, rubricyte, reticulocyte, erythrocyte

22. Which of the following is not a side effect of sulfonamides? a. Crystalluria b. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca c. Seizures d. Thrombocytopenia

c. Seizures

116. The behavioral drug group that may be sent home to stimulate appetite in cats is: a. Benzodiazepines b. Tricyclic antidepressants c. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors d. Progestins

c. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

670. Which muscle is the most medial muscle of the hamstring? a. Semitendinosus b. Gastrocnemius c. Semimembranosus d. Quadriceps femoris

c. Semimembranosus

226. Afferent neurons are part of what system? a. Motor b. Interneuron c. Sensory d. Extraneuron

c. Sensory

111. The muscular structure that separates the right and left ventricles is called the interventricular: a. Sternum b. Coronary muscle c. Septum d. Myocardium

c. Septum

115. Which of the following samples can be frozen and successfully thawed for performing an analytic test at a later time? a. Feces for a fecal float test b. Whole blood for chemistry testing c. Serum for chemistry testing d. Whole blood for a CBC

c. Serum for chemistry testing

381. What characteristic of a protein molecule directly determines its function? a. Size b. Location c. Shape d. None, proteins all have the same function

c. Shape

68. Amoxicillin (Amoxi-Drop) was prescribed for Tallulah, a 4-year-old female Chihuahua, who was being discharged after hospitalization. Dr. Segal asks you to provide her owner with discharge instructions. You advise the client of all of the following, except: a. She should call if she notices any adverse side effects as a result of the medication. b. She should complete all the medication dispensed, even if Tallulah is feeling well and her symptoms have resolved. c. She must administer the medication on an empty stomach, even if Tallulah vomits. d. The medication should be refrigerated.

c. She must administer the medication on an empty stomach, even if Tallulah vomits.

159. One of the adverse side effects of opioid administration is: a. Increased seizure activity in epileptic animals b. Induction of cardiac arrhythmias c. Significant respiratory depression d. Systemic hypertension

c. Significant respiratory depression

35. If it is accidentally administered as an IV bolus, lidocaine may cause: a. Full body numbness b. Seizures c. Sinus arrest d. Polyuria

c. Sinus arrest

251. What is the correct place of measurement for radiographs of the nasal passages of small animals? a. The most rostral end of the cranium b. The most caudal end of the cranium c. Slightly rostral to the widest area of the cranium d. At the widest portion of the cranium

c. Slightly rostral to the widest area of the cranium

22. Which muscle cells have single nuclei? a. Skeletal and cardiac b. Skeletal and smooth c. Smooth and cardiac d. Skeletal only

c. Smooth and cardiac

133. The ability of the renal tubules to concentrate or dilute a urine sample is assessed by what component of the urinalysis? a. pH b. Volume c. Specific gravity d. Examination of the sediment

c. Specific gravity

183. The number of species of bacteria that are affected by an antibiotic is known as the antibiotic's: a. Effectiveness b. Efficacy c. Spectrum d. Affinity

c. Spectrum

121. Which of the following is a common finding on a blood smear from an animal with autoimmune hemolytic anemia? a. Heinz bodies b. Howell-Jolly bodies c. Spherocytes d. Target cells

c. Spherocytes

81. Which of the following options is not a sign of RBC regeneration? a. Polychromasia b. Nuclear remnants c. Spherocytes d. Anisocytosis with macrocytosis

c. Spherocytes

268. A common finding on a stained blood smear from an animal with autoimmune hemolytic anemia is: a. Lymphocytosis b. Basophilic stippling c. Spherocytosis d. Leukemia

c. Spherocytosis

170. What is the cranial landmark for an x-ray of the thoracic vertebrae in the lateral position? a. The base of the skull b. Halfway between the xiphoid process and the last rib c. Spine of the scapula d. Wings of the ilium

c. Spine of the scapula

184. What canine parasite causes nodules in the esophagus, which may then become neoplastic? a. Physaloptera b. Filaroides c. Spirocerca d. Neosporum

c. Spirocerca

49. A fecal smear can be stained for fat. An increased amount of fat is indicative of: a. Dyschezia b. Dysentery c. Steatorrhea d. Tenesmus

c. Steatorrhea

415. The parasite also known as a kidney worm is of the: a. Alaria species b. Fascioloides species c. Stephanurus species d. Metastrongylus species

c. Stephanurus species

174. To obtain a dorsopalmar x-ray of the metacarpus and digits, in which position should the patient be? a. Right lateral recumbency b. Left lateral recumbency c. Sternal recumbency d. Dorsal recumbency

c. Sternal recumbency

312. Which of the following is an example of a hinge joint? a. Hip b. Shoulder c. Stifle d. Atlantoaxial joint

c. Stifle

349. Which of the following is NOT a type of muscle tissue? a. Cardiac b. Skeletal c. Striated d. Smooth

c. Striated

57. The pupil in birds and reptiles is made up of which type of muscle? a. Smooth muscle b. Cardiac muscle c. Striated skeletal muscle d. A mix of smooth and skeletal muscle

c. Striated skeletal muscle

420. Which of the following is not absorbed systemically? a. Diphenhydramine b. Dolasetron c. Sucralfate d. Tramadol

c. Sucralfate

49. Long-term use of glucocorticoids will: a. Increase lymphocyte production b. Increase plasma protein levels c. Suppress the immune system d. Decrease blood glucose levels

c. Suppress the immune system

175. Which joint is not a synovial joint? a. Hinge joint b. Gliding joint c. Swinging joint d. Pivot joint

c. Swinging joint

266. The drug most commonly used in treating animals with hypothyroidism is: a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) b. Thyroid extract c. Synthetic levothyroxine (T4) d. Synthetic liothyronine (T3)

c. Synthetic levothyroxine (T4)

92. Which of the following is responsible for sound generation in the bird? a. Infraorbital sinus b. Glottis c. Syrinx d. Larynx

c. Syrinx

83. Which circulatory system is under the highest pressure? a. Pulmonary b. Coronary c. Systemic d. Capillaries

c. Systemic

4. The pressure in the systemic arteries during ventricular contraction is: a. Diastolic blood pressure b. Osmotic pressure c. Systolic blood pressure d. Low pressure

c. Systolic blood pressure

407. When discharging a cat, you would explain to the owner that the buprenorphine should be given: a. po b. SQ c. TM d. IM

c. TM

221. For smaller-sized patients, which radiographic technique is preferred? a. Grid technique b. Lower mA c. Tabletop technique d. Higher kVp

c. Tabletop technique

630. The tibia and fibula of the dog are located immediately proximal to what bones? a. Metatarsal bones b. Metacarpal bones c. Tarsal bones d. Olecranon

c. Tarsal bones

392. What medication can be used to confirm a diagnosis of acquired myasthenia gravis? a. Acepromazine b. Metoclopramide c. Tensilon d. Theophylline

c. Tensilon

25. If you are instructed to give a medication IP, you will inject the medication into: a. The jugular vein b. The popliteal artery c. The abdominal cavity d. A major muscle mass

c. The abdominal cavity

223. An example of capillary action is: a. The blood coursing through smaller veins b. The perfusion of mucous membranes c. The action of blood filling a hematocrit tube d. Removing serum from a clot with a pipette

c. The action of blood filling a hematocrit tube

439. Which of the following forms the tail of the horse? a. The cervical vertebrae b. The sacrum c. The coccygeal vertebrae d. The lumbar vertebrae

c. The coccygeal vertebrae

17. When using color-flow Doppler in ultrasound, what do the displayed red and blue colors mean? a. Blue colors are veins, and red colors are arteries b. Blue colors are arteries, and red colors are veins c. The colors show blood flow; blue indicates flow away, and red indicates flow toward d. The colors show different velocities of blood

c. The colors show blood flow; blue indicates flow away, and red indicates flow toward

161. Decreased radiographic density with poor contrast results from which of the following? a. The film was overdeveloped b. The film was overexposed c. The film was underexposed d. The film was developed in chemicals that were too hot

c. The film was underexposed

120. The area of interest when obtaining an x-ray should be closest to what? a. The end of the table b. The back of the table c. The image receptor d. The restrainer

c. The image receptor

192. When using a Plexiglas tube to obtain an x-ray, which of the following should be adjusted? a. The mAs should be increased b. The mAs should be decreased c. The kVp should be increased d. The kVp should be decreased

c. The kVp should be increased

36. For a dorsolateral-palmaromedial oblique of the metacarpus of a horse, on which surface should the cassette be placed? a. The medial aspect b. The palmar aspect c. The palmaromedial aspect d. The palmarolateral aspect

c. The palmaromedial aspect

260. Why should apomorphine and activated charcoal not be given simultaneously? a. The resultant vomiting is too severe and too prolonged b. Each cancels the beneficial effects of the other c. The patient will vomit and may aspirate the charcoal d. Severe diarrhea and intestinal cramping result

c. The patient will vomit and may aspirate the charcoal

336. What does it mean when a drug is at a steady state? a. The owner is giving the drug on a regular basis b. The patient is responding as expected c. The peak and trough are steady d. The patient has been on the drug more then 6 months

c. The peak and trough are steady

83. What is a major safety concern with MRI machines? a. The amount of radiation emitted b. The intensity of the magnet on the patient c. The potential projectile effect with metallic objects within the vicinity of the machine d. MRI machines are extremely safe and contain no safety concerns

c. The potential projectile effect with metallic objects within the vicinity of the machine

108. Which of the following statements is true regarding carnivorous lizards? a. They do not require calcium as part of their diets b. They do not require vitamin A in their diets c. They do not require UV-B lighting d. They require live prey

c. They do not require UV-B lighting

40. Which statement is most accurate pertaining to insect growth regulators? a. They prevent the female from laying eggs b. They effectively kill all adult stages c. They interfere with development d. They are neurotoxic to mammals

c. They interfere with development

7. What happens to crystals within the ultrasound transducer when strong, short electrical pulses strike them? a. They harden b. They melt c. They vibrate d. They break apart

c. They vibrate

387. All of the following are nucleotides, except: a. Adenine b. Guanine c. Thiamine d. Cystosine

c. Thiamine

345. Which of the following is generally used for infections not susceptible to other antibiotics? a. First-tier antibiotics b. Second-tier antibiotics c. Third-tier antibiotics d. Negative-tier antibiotics

c. Third-tier antibiotics

289. The following information was provided for a prescription written by a veterinarian: "Canine patient, Amoxicillin 100 mg tablets, Sig: 1 tab q8h po prn 2 refills. Date: 1/5/16." How many times a day is this medication to be given? a. Once b. Twice c. Three times d. Four times

c. Three times

166. Which of the following is associated with clotting disorders? a. Anemia b. Leukopenia c. Thrombocytopenia d. Reticulocytosis

c. Thrombocytopenia

332. Signs of immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (ITP) include all of these conditions, except: a. Petechiae b. Ecchymoses c. Thrombocytosis d. Anemia

c. Thrombocytosis

257. For what reason is apomorphine used in canine patients in emergency veterinary medicine? a. To keep blood pressure elevated for animals in shock b. To alleviate pain c. To produce emesis after ingestion of a toxin d. To maintain kidney function during periods of reduced blood flow to the kidneys

c. To produce emesis after ingestion of a toxin

324. The vas deferens is responsible for which of the following actions? a. To mature sperm b. To store sperm before ejaculation c. To propel spermatozoa and the fluid from the epididymis to the urethra during ejaculation d. To produce spermatozoa

c. To propel spermatozoa and the fluid from the epididymis to the urethra during ejaculation

246. Which statement is false concerning the collection of a plasma sample for a blood chemistry analysis? a. If a needle and syringe are used, hemolysis can be minimized by removing the needle from the syringe before discharging the blood into a sample tube. b. Volume changes caused by evaporation can be minimized by keeping the cap on the blood collection tube as much as possible. c. To separate, allow the sample to clot for approximately 30 minutes; gently remove the clot from the sides of the tube, centrifuge, and then remove the plasma. d. Avoid lipemia by fasting the animal before collecting the sample.

c. To separate, allow the sample to clot for approximately 30 minutes; gently remove the clot from the sides of the tube, centrifuge, and then remove the plasma.

259. For what is syrup of ipecac used? a. To stimulate defecation to flush out poisons from the distal bowel b. To induce vomiting c. To stimulate duodenal movement to overcome constipation d. To increase blood supply to the gastrointestinal tract

c. To stimulate duodenal movement to overcome constipation

657. The ___________ in the muscles of the jaw is responsible for closure and helps keep the mouth closed when it is not in use. a. Shape b. Length c. Tone d. Atrophy

c. Tone

221. When the spun hematocrit test is completed, which of the following can be evaluated? a. PCV b. Plasma color and PCV c. Total protein, buffy coat, plasma color, and PCV d. Total protein, buffy coat, plasma color, fibrin, and PCV

c. Total protein, buffy coat, plasma color, and PCV

543. All of the following special senses of birds are well developed for survival, except: a. Sight b. Hearing c. Touch d. All of the above are well developed in the bird

c. Touch

239. As a general rule, enough blood should be collected to run any test at least three times. This compensates for all of the following, except: a. Instrument error b. Technician error c. Transcription error d. Improper dilution of a sample

c. Transcription error

363. Fasciola hepatica is a: a. Nematode b. Cestode c. Trematode d. Protozoan

c. Trematode

91. Struvite crystals are also known as: a. Calcium carbonate crystals b. Calcium oxalate crystals c. Triple phosphate crystals d. Amorphous phosphate crystals

c. Triple phosphate crystals

186. Observing a "zippy" motility in fresh feces is used to help diagnose the presence of what parasite? a. Toxoplasma b. Mycoplasma (Haemobartonella) c. Tritrichomonas d. Ehrlichia canis

c. Tritrichomonas

675. Grooves on bones that allow tendons to act as pulleys are known as: a. Fossa b. Ligament c. Trochlea d. Epicondyle

c. Trochlea

99. A common laboratory test for chronic pancreatitis is a fecal test for: a. Amylase b. Lipase c. Trypsin d. Bilirubin

c. Trypsin

674. The protuberances on bones, which are used for the attachment of muscles, are referred to as which of the following? a. Fossa b. Tendon c. Tuberosity d. Shaft

c. Tuberosity

308. The mandibular symphysis joins which of the following bones? a. The two hip bones b. Two vertebrae within the spinal column c. Two halves of the mandible d. The occipital and parietal bones

c. Two halves of the mandible

263. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) often produce side effects in the gastrointestinal tract with long-term use or high-dosage use, especially in dogs. What are the side effects? a. Increased bowel motility, resulting in fluid diarrhea b. Decreased ability to digest fat, resulting in fatty stool (steatorrhea) c. Ulcers or gastritis from decreased mucus production d. Decreased bowel motility, resulting in constipation

c. Ulcers or gastritis from decreased mucus production

535. Secondary feathers are attached to which structure in birds? a. Digit 1 b. Digit 3 c. Ulna d. Hallux

c. Ulna

45. A figure-8 bandage is used for immobilization of which of the following bones? a. Femur, tibiotarsus, and tarsometatarsus b. Femur and tibiotarsus c. Ulna, radius, and metacarpals d. Humerus, radius, and ulna

c. Ulna, radius, and metacarpals

128. Insulin concentration is measured in: a. Milligrams per milliliter b. Milliequivalents per milliliter c. Units per milliliter d. Grams per milliliter

c. Units per milliliter

328. The prostate gland completely surrounds which structure? a. Testis b. Epididymis c. Urethra d. Spermatic cord

c. Urethra

108. A kidney function test that has been found useful in birds and dalmatians is: a. BUN b. Creatinine c. Uric acid d. AST

c. Uric acid

119. A 12-year-old spayed female golden retriever is brought into your clinic with a history of waking up in her bed in a puddle of urine. A complete blood count (CBC), profile, and urinalysis show no sign of urinary tract disease. The doctor tells you to fill a prescription for phenylpropanolamine. The doctor is choosing this drug because it treats: a. Bladder atony by increasing bladder tone b. Urinary incontinence by decreasing urethral sphincter tone c. Urinary incontinence by increasing urethral sphincter tone d. Bladder atony by decreasing bladder tone

c. Urinary incontinence by increasing urethral sphincter tone

429. When a patient has received a spinal epidural, which of the following must be monitored closely? a. Appetite b. Attitude c. Urination d. Walking

c. Urination

136. Which radiographic view is best suggested for imaging the lungs? a. Right lateral b. Left lateral c. VD d. DV

c. VD

422. Which of the following cranial nerves is the longest cranial nerve that innervates many organs in the body? a. Trigeminal b. Vestibulocochlear c. Vagus d. Hypoglossal

c. Vagus

238. A deformity in which the interior angle of the joint, viewed frontally, is greater than 180 degrees is known as what? a. Axial rotation b. Windswept c. Valgus deformity d. Varus deformity

c. Valgus deformity

240. In the normal heart ECG, the QRS complex corresponds to what portion of the cardiac cycle? a. The QRS complex is the entire ECG cycle b. Atrial depolarization c. Ventricular depolarization d. Ventricular repolarization

c. Ventricular depolarization

181. The antidote for warfarin poisoning is: a. Vitamin C b. Naloxone c. Vitamin K d. 4-methylpyrazole

c. Vitamin K

239. What is meant by cardiac output? a. Strokes (beats) per minute b. Volume of blood pumped per stroke (beat) c. Volume of blood pumped per minute d. Strokes (beats) per volume

c. Volume of blood pumped per minute

540. The lift force must equal which of the following parameters for flight to occur in a bird? a. Size of the bird b. Shape of the wings c. Weight of the bird d. Gravity

c. Weight of the bird

59. A hamster presents to the clinic with the following symptoms: diarrhea, matting around the tail, lethargy, and a hunched abdomen. Which of the following diseases is most likely the causative agent? a. GI stasis b. Cystic calculi c. Wet tail d. Dental disease

c. Wet tail

278. What sample is recommended for hemoglobin testing? a. Serum b. Plasma c. Whole blood d. Blood smear

c. Whole blood

31. Which of the following is the proper way to disinfect an ultrasound probe? a. Autoclave b. Gas sterilization c. Wipe with a glutaraldehyde-based disinfectant d. Immerse in an alcohol-based cleaner

c. Wipe with a glutaraldehyde-based disinfectant

303. Many drugs do not have X mg/mL listed on their labels but instead have their concentrations listed as a percent (e.g., X% solution). Which of the following most accurately reflects the conversion of a percentage of a solution to a weight per volume format? a. X% = X g/mL b. X% = X g/10 mL c. X% = X g/100 mL d. X% = X mg/10 mL

c. X% = X g/100 mL

100. The amount of radioisotope used for each examination in a nuclear medicine study is measured in which of the following units? a. kV b. mAS c. mCi d. MHz

c. mCi

438. Lidocaine can be diluted with sodium bicarbonate to decrease pain associated with injection. What should this dilution be (sodium bicarbonate: lidocaine)? a. 1 : 1 b. 1 : 4 c. 1 : 5 d. 1 : 9

d. 1 : 9

57. Modern CT scanners use multislice technology and are able to acquire image slices thinner than which of the following sizes? a. 10 mm b. 1 cm c. 10 cm d. 1 mm

d. 1 mm

446. Which of the following specific gravity concentrations would be expected in a healthy, hydrated, 4-year-old Labrador patient? a. 1.000 b. 1.005 c. 1.010 d. 1.040

d. 1.040

138. Puddin, a 2-year-old castrated male domestic shorthair cat, was missing for 5 days before coming home. His owners were very concerned that he appeared weak and tired, so they brought him to the clinic. You find on initial physical examination that he is significantly dehydrated. You are not at all surprised when you find that his urine specific gravity is a. 1.002 b. 1.012 c. 1.030 d. 1.060

d. 1.060

498. What is the average length of the esophagus in the average sized horse? a. 1.5 inches b. 1.5 cm c. 1.5 mm d. 1.5 m

d. 1.5 m

506. In the average horse, how many liters of ingesta can the colon hold? a. 10 L b. 35 L c. 65 L d. 100 L

d. 100 L

590. What is the average adult weight of rabbits? a. 400- 600 g b. 50- 60 g c. 100 g d. 1000- 8000 g

d. 1000- 8000 g

70. Which of the following kV will produce more scatter and secondary radiation? a. 40 kV b. 60 kV c. 70 kV d. 110 kV

d. 110 kV

418. How many types of cranial nerves exist? a. 5 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12

d. 12

447. To avoid serum lipemia, animals should be fasted for: a. 2 hours b. 4 hours c. 8 hours d. 12 hours

d. 12 hours

79. To what level of kV radiation are most lead aprons effective? a. 50 kV b. 70 kV c. 90 kV d. 125 kV

d. 125 kV

56. Which of the following Hounsfield units on CT imaging appears as white? a. −755 HU b. 120 HU c. 1200 HU d. 1260 HU

d. 1260 HU

574. How long does it take for calcification of the egg to occur in birds? a. 1 hour b. 5 hours c. 10 hours d. 15 hours

d. 15 hours

616. The spine of a ferret is flexible and allows for the ferret to bend at an angle of at least: a. 15 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 90 degrees d. 180 degrees

d. 180 degrees

605. How often does the nose of a rabbit twitch during general anesthesia? a. 10- 20 times b. 25- 50 times c. 50- 100 times d. 20- 120 times

d. 20- 120 times

298. A 10-kg animal weighs how many pounds? a. 2 b. 15 c. 18 d. 22

d. 22

603. Food material of rabbits passes through the digestive system twice within ____ hours. a. 6 b. 8 c. 12 d. 24

d. 24

237. To separate serum, whole blood should be spun down in a centrifuge at: a. 4500 rpm for 30 minutes b. 10,000 rpm for 10 minutes c. 8500 rpm for 30 minutes d. 2500 rpm for 10 minutes

d. 2500 rpm for 10 minutes

14. Approximately how many shades of gray are incorporated into the display of an image obtained through ultrasound? a. 50 shades of gray b. 100 shades of gray c. 226 shades of gray d. 256 shades of gray

d. 256 shades of gray

184. How long does it take for barium sulfate to travel from the stomach to the colon? a. 30 minutes b. 1 hour c. 2 hours d. 3 hours

d. 3 hours

505. In the average horse, how many liters of ingesta can the cecum hold? a. 10 L b. 20 L c. 25 L d. 35 L

d. 35 L

507. How long does food remain in the colon of the horse? a. 1- 2 hours b. 5- 15 hours c. 25- 35 hours d. 36- 65 hours

d. 36- 65 hours

558. How many chambers does the avian heart contain? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

d. 4

659. How many extrinsic muscles of the eye are responsible for moving the eye up, down, and side to side within its socket? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

d. 4

253. About how many nephrons are in each kidney of the cow? a. 700,000 b. 100,000 c. 1,000,000 d. 4,000,000

d. 4,000,000

39. Aspirin may be safely used in cats as an NSAID, but it should be noted that its half-life in this species is approximately: a. 10 hr b. 20 hr c. 30 hr d. 40 hr

d. 40 hr

12. What is the speed of sound through bone? a. 330 m/s b. 600 m/s c. 1600 m/s d. 4080 m/s

d. 4080 m/s

369. The doctor asks you to fill acepromazine, 50 mg po TID for seven days. You have 25-mg tablets available in the hospital. How many tablets do you fill? a. 14 b. 21 c. 28 d. 42

d. 42

359. How many half-lives does a drug go through before reaching a steady state? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

d. 5

582. The forelegs of rabbits have _____ toes. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

d. 5

595. What is the age of sexual maturity for rabbits? a. 3- 4 weeks b. 10- 12 weeks c. 12 months d. 5- 8 months

d. 5- 8 months

116. The normal lifespan of a domestic ferret is: a. 2-4 years b. 7-10 years c. 10-12 years d. 5-7 years

d. 5-7 years

137. What is the maximum permissible dose of radiation a person can receive per year? a. 1000 millirems/yr b. 2000 millirems/yr c. 2500 millirems/yr d. 5000 millirems/yr

d. 5000 millirems/yr

457. The tarsus of the horse is composed of how many bones?. a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6

d. 6

228. Horses have approximately how many carpal bones? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7

d. 7

8. Most bacteria grow best at a pH of: a. 1 b. 3 c. 9 d. 7

d. 7

398. Blood makes up approximately what percentage of body weight? a. 93% b. 55% c. 45% d. 7%

d. 7%

210. Dogs have how many cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae? a. 7, 13, 6 b. 7, 12, 7 c. 6, 13, 7 d. 7, 13, 7

d. 7, 13, 7

50. What is the typical kilovoltage preset on a dental unit? a. 110 kV b. 25 kV c. 50 kV d. 70 kV

d. 70 kV

105. What is the average number of air sacs that birds have? a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 9

d. 9

554. How many air sacs do most birds contain? a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 9

d. 9

106. In birds, the cloaca is: a. An appendage suspended from the head b. A blind sac at the distal end of the jejunum c. A cleft in the hard palate d. A common passage for fecal, urinary, and reproductive systems

d. A common passage for fecal, urinary, and reproductive systems

275. A normal leukocyte count with an increase in immature neutrophils that outnumber mature neutrophils is: a. Leukocytosis b. Leukopenia c. A regenerative left shift d. A degenerative left shift

d. A degenerative left shift

441. What is fructosamine? a. Another term for blood glucose b. A type of insulin c. A carbohydrate molecule to which glucose binds d. A protein to which glucose binds

d. A protein to which glucose binds

152. When obtaining a view of the tympanic bullae of small animals, where should the centering of the image occur? a. Midway between the tip of the nose to just caudal to the occipital protuberance at the base b. Lateral canthus of the eye socket c. Between the eyes d. Above the base of the tongue and just below the palate, approximately at the commissure of the mouth

d. Above the base of the tongue and just below the palate, approximately at the commissure of the mouth

110. You are working with an equine veterinarian on a breeding farm. You will be sedating a young stallion for an oral examination. Which tranquilizer are you well aware that the veterinarian will probably not use for the procedure? a. Xylazine b. Diazepam c. Detomidine d. Acepromazine

d. Acepromazine

145. What drug is most likely to be prescribed to prevent motion sickness in dogs and cats? a. Apomorphine b. Syrup of ipecac c. Atropine d. Acepromazine

d. Acepromazine

4. Blood levels of total bilirubin will not be a significant finding in: a. Hepatocellular damage b. Bile duct injury or obstruction c. Hemolytic disorders d. Acute pancreatitis

d. Acute pancreatitis

71. Alopecia at the tail tip, symmetrical alopecia along the trunk of the body, intense pruritus, and enlarged vulva are symptoms in the ferret that indicate what disease? a. Green slime disease b. Insulinoma c. External parasites d. Adrenal disease

d. Adrenal disease

145. What gland is the most active producer of corticosteroids? a. Thyroid gland b. Pancreas c. Pituitary gland d. Adrenal glands

d. Adrenal glands

147. The gland function that is evaluated by measuring blood cortisol levels before and after administration of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is the: a. Thyroid gland b. Pancreas c. Liver d. Adrenal glands

d. Adrenal glands

18. Sensory nerves are considered: a. Efferent motor nerves b. Motor nerves c. Efferent nerves d. Afferent nerves

d. Afferent nerves

154. When obtaining a dorsolateral-palmaromedial oblique view of the carpus of a horse, where should the cassette be held? a. Against the palmarolateral aspect of the leg b. Against the medial aspect of the leg c. Against the palmaromedial aspect of the leg d. Against the palmar aspect of the carpus

d. Against the palmar aspect of the carpus

72. When obtaining a dorsopalmar view of the carpus of a horse, where should the cassette be held? a. Against the palmarolateral aspect of the leg b. Against the medial aspect of the leg c. Against the palmaromedial aspect of the leg d. Against the palmar aspect of the carpus

d. Against the palmar aspect of the carpus

100. Why is it important to maintain a reptile within its preferred optimal temperature zone (POTZ)? a. The POTZ enables animals to metabolize drugs b. The POTZ enables animals to digest food properly c. The POTZ enables animals to heal after an injury or surgery d. All of the above

d. All of the above

107. Which parts of a patient's body are considered radioactive after they have received the radioisotope? a. Skin b. Hair c. Waste products d. All of the above

d. All of the above

186. Which of the following could be considered as negative-contrast agents used in radiography? a. Oxygen b. Air c. Carbon dioxide d. All of the above e. b and c only

d. All of the above

209. Before imaging the coffin bone in horses, which of the following tasks should be performed in preparation? a. Hoof should be trimmed to the new sole level b. The horseshoes need to be removed c. The sulcus should be packed with radiolucent material d. All of the above

d. All of the above

210. Chemical neutropenia may result from the ingestion of which drugs in dogs? a. Chloramphenicol b. Estrogen c. Phenylbutazone d. All of the above

d. All of the above

224. For digital radiography, what does the postprocessing step of image manipulation allow? a. Magnification b. Rotation c. Contrast adjustment d. All of the above e. a and b only

d. All of the above

247. Which of the following are clinical signs of diabetes mellitus? a. Polyuria b. Polydipsia c. Polyphagia d. All of the above

d. All of the above

256. Which of the following is considered the main mechanism in which the kidneys perform waste elimination? a. Filtration b. Reabsorption c. Secretion d. All of the above

d. All of the above

259. Which of the following conditions can cause prerenal uremia? a. Dehydration b. Congestive heart failure c. Shock d. All of the above

d. All of the above

261. With film-based imaging, which of the following are receptor components? a. Intensifying screen b. Cassette c. Film d. All of the above

d. All of the above

274. Which organ is part of the endocrine system? a. Pancreas b. Kidneys c. Stomach d. All of the above

d. All of the above

282. The kidneys perform the waste-removal function by which of the following actions? a. Filtration b. Reabsorption c. Secretion d. All of the above

d. All of the above

309. Which of the following is considered a range of movement that can occur in a synovial joint? a. Abduction/ adduction b. Retraction c. Protraction d. All of the above

d. All of the above

311. Which of the following is a type of synovial joint? a. Plane/ gliding b. Condylar c. Ball and socket d. All of the above

d. All of the above

315. Myasthenia gravis is commonly associated with: a. Megaesophagus b. Exercise intolerance c. Aspiration pneumonia d. All of the above

d. All of the above

325. The accessory reproductive glands produce alkaline fluid that contains which of the following substances? a. Electrolytes b. Prostaglandins c. Fructose d. All of the above

d. All of the above

342. Which of the following are considered to be a major structure within the thoracic cavity? a. Heart b. Lungs c. Esophagus d. All of the above

d. All of the above

35. Which of the following can the piezoelectric crystal within an ultrasound probe do? a. Convert electrical energy into mechanical energy b. Convert mechanical energy into electrical energy c. Change shape in the presence of an electrical current d. All of the above

d. All of the above

359. Which of the following are examples of inorganic compounds? a. Water b. Acids c. Bases d. All of the above

d. All of the above

362. Which of the following are considered electrolytes? a. Potassium b. Sodium c. Calcium d. All of the above

d. All of the above

367. Which of the following is an example of a carbohydrate? a. Sugar b. Starch c. Cellulose d. All of the above

d. All of the above

372. Which of the following molecules are nucleic acids? a. DNA b. RNA c. Adenosine triphosphate d. All of the above

d. All of the above

379. Cholesterol is used by which of the following organs for the creation of steroid hormones? a. Adrenal glands b. Testes c. Ovaries d. All of the above

d. All of the above

46. Which of the following are considered to be a category of lipids? a. Neutral fats b. Steroids c. Phospholipids d. All of the above

d. All of the above

514. The prostate gland is responsible for which of the following? a. Cleans the urethra before the ejaculation of sperm b. Neutralizes acidity of any remaining urine before ejaculation c. Secretes a clear fluid d. All of the above

d. All of the above

570. Which of the following systems attach to the cloaca in birds? a. Reproductive b. Digestive c. Urinary d. All of the above

d. All of the above

581. Where are scent glands located on the rabbit? a. Under the chin b. On either side of the perineum c. At the anus d. All of the above

d. All of the above

609. The term altricial refers to: a. Born hairless b. Born deaf c. Born blind d. All of the above

d. All of the above

637. Which of the following are the inner bones of the face of small animals? a. Vomer bone b. Palatine bone c. Pterygoid bone d. All of the above

d. All of the above

71. Which of the following is considered to be a cardinal rule for radiation protection? a. Distance b. Time c. Shielding d. All of the above

d. All of the above

81. Which of the following can occur if DNA is affected by radiation? a. Cell death b. Cell damage may be obvious, with portions of the DNA compromised c. Cell may display no immediate effects, but damage may have occurred internally that will affect the individual later, when mitosis occurs d. All of the above

d. All of the above

87. Which statement about tularemia in rabbits is true? a. Wild rabbits are highly susceptible b. Wild rabbits are the cause of most epizootic infections c. Francisella tularensis is the etiologic agent d. All of the above

d. All of the above

356. Which of the following are considered as types of chemical bonds? a. Covalent bonds b. Ionic bonds c. Hydrogen bonds d. All of the choices are considered types of chemical bonds

d. All of the choices are considered types of chemical bonds

80. All of the following people are allowed to view individual dosimetry reports, except: a. OSHA inspector b. Owner of the practice c. Only the employee exposed d. All team members

d. All team members

299. The mammary glands contain which type of connective tissue? a. Tubular single b. Alveolar single c. Tubular multiple d. Alveolar multiple

d. Alveolar multiple

201. Antimicrobial drugs such as neomycin, gentamicin, and amikacin each belong to what group of antibiotics? a. Penicillins b. Cephalosporins c. Quinolines d. Aminoglycosides

d. Aminoglycosides

248. An allergic response that is frequently life threatening is the result of: a. Agglutination b. Hemolysis c. DIC d. Anaphylaxis

d. Anaphylaxis

385. The parasite diagnosed by examining blood is: a. Tritrichomonas species b. Dictyocaulus species c. Dioctophyma species d. Anaplasma species

d. Anaplasma species

41. What drug is approved for the treatment of old dog dementia? a. Clomipramine b. Meloxicam c. Diazepam d. Anipryl

d. Anipryl

264. Cimetidine and ranitidine are used as: a. Antidiarrheals b. Laxatives c. Rumen stimulants d. Antacids

d. Antacids

349. Acylovir is an: a. Antibacterial b. Antifungal c. Antiparasitic d. Antiviral

d. Antiviral

113. The major artery that carries blood out of the left ventricle is the: a. Subclavian artery b. Carotid artery c. Pulmonary artery d. Aorta

d. Aorta

176. Which of the following drugs does not have an antiemetic action? a. Chlorpromazine b. Metoclopramide c. Meclizine d. Apomorphine

d. Apomorphine

381. The doctor orders a patient to receive a CRI of fentanyl. How often will this drug be administered? a. Every 2 hr b. Every 4 hr c. Every 6 hr d. At a constant rate

d. At a constant rate

206. The only true pivot joint in the body is the: a. Spheroidal b. Elbow c. Carpal d. Atlantoaxial

d. Atlantoaxial

284. If an animal receives an overdose of organophosphate insecticide (from dips, powders, sprays), what is the treatment of choice? a. Diphenhydramine b. Corticosteroids c. Intravenous fluids d. Atropine

d. Atropine

16. Functions that an animal does not have to consciously control, such as peristalsis in the intestine, are influenced by the: a. Somatic nervous system b. Central nervous system c. Peripheral nervous system d. Autonomic nervous system

d. Autonomic nervous system

317. The scrotum is responsible for which of the following? a. Regulation of temperature b. Production of sperm c. Housing of the testes d. Both a and c

d. Both a and c

143. A blue-and-gold macaw presents to the clinic with the following signs: depression, lethargy, anorexia, dyspnea, nasal and ocular discharge, conjunctivitis, and biliverdinuria (green urates). What disease should be at the top of the differential diagnosis list? a. Papillomatosis b. Psittacine beak and feather disease c. Proventricular dilation disease d. Avian chlamydophila

d. Avian chlamydophila

317. Combined immunodeficiency is a condition in which the animal fails to produce functioning: a. Plasma cells b. B cells c. T cells d. B and T cells

d. B and T cells

20. What laboratory test evaluates kidney function and is a breakdown product of protein? a. Glucose b. SGTP (ALT) c. Creatinine d. BUN

d. BUN

93. Which of the following test results are not determined by a urine dipstick? a. Glucose b. Blood c. Total protein d. BUN

d. BUN

144. Leukocytes in the urine sediment and a positive nitrite reaction on the urinary colorimetric strip provide presumptive evidence that the patient may have a: a. Neoplasm b. Diabetic condition c. Renal failure d. Bacterial infection

d. Bacterial infection

41. Leukocytes in the urine sediment and a positive nitrite reaction on the urinary colorimetric strip provide presumptive evidence that the patient might have a: a. Neoplasm b. Diabetic condition c. Renal failure d. Bacterial infection

d. Bacterial infection

63. Which of the following results may be found in a patient with a degenerative left shift? a. Leukocytosis b. No bands are present c. Lymphocytes outnumber neutrophils d. Bands outnumber mature neutrophils

d. Bands outnumber mature neutrophils

345. Cats exposed to feline leukemia virus typically respond in any of the following ways, except: a. Not becoming infected at all b. Becoming temporarily infected, developing immunity, and overcoming the infection c. Becoming infected and continuing to shed the virus indefinitely without becoming ill d. Becoming infected, becoming ill within 3 days, and dying within a week

d. Becoming infected, becoming ill within 3 days, and dying within a week

672. All of the following are muscles of the hind limb in dogs, except: a. Biceps femoris b. Quadriceps femoris c. Semitendinosus d. Biceps brachii

d. Biceps brachii

42. Aged urine samples left at room temperature and exposed to UV light may cause a false negative result in which one of the following biochemical tests? a. Ketones b. Protein c. Glucose d. Bilirubin

d. Bilirubin

1. Neonatal animals are less tolerant of some drugs than older animals, because in neonates the drugs are: a. Biotransformed more rapidly b. Absorbed more slowly from the gastrointestinal tract c. Not biotransformed d. Biotransformed more slowly

d. Biotransformed more slowly

373. Prostaglandins provide all of the following functions, except: a. Regulate hormone synthesis b. Enhance immune system c. Provide inflammatory response d. Block the COX-2 pathway

d. Block the COX-2 pathway

396. Cardiac drugs that belong in class IV act by: a. Stabilizing myocardial cells b. Blocking beta receptors c. Decreasing myocardial automaticity d. Blocking calcium channels

d. Blocking calcium channels

90. What urine sediment component would be of the most significant concern? a. Sperm b. Fat droplets c. Squamous epithelial cells d. Blood cells

d. Blood cells

296. Which of the following connective tissues contains the highest density? a. Blood b. Cartilage c. Fibrous connective tissue d. Bone

d. Bone

16. Poor husbandry conditions, along with a humid environment, predispose guinea pigs to which of the following conditions? a. Demodex caviae b. Trixacarus caviae c. Gyropus ovalis d. Bordetella bronchiseptica

d. Bordetella bronchiseptica

372. The kennel cough syndrome in dogs is often caused by a combination of boarding at a kennel, a viral infection, and infection with: a. Pasteurella multocida b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae d. Bordetella bronchiseptica

d. Bordetella bronchiseptica

44. Which of the following image receptors is used in dental imaging? a. Film b. Phosphor plates c. Neither d. Both

d. Both

160. What is the correct temperature for an automatic processor tank that is used to develop x-ray film? a. 35° C b. 95° F c. 68° F d. Both a and b e. Both a and c

d. Both a and b

257. Which of the following hormones are responsible for urine volume regulation? a. ADH b. Aldosterone c. Glucagon d. Both a and b

d. Both a and b

260. Which of the following is/ are considered functions of the male testes? a. Spermatogenesis b. Hormone production c. Urine formation d. Both a and b

d. Both a and b

283. Which hormone is responsible for regulating urine volume? a. Antidiuretic hormone b. Aldosterone c. Mineralocorticoid hormone d. Both a and b

d. Both a and b

385. Nucleic acids consist of which of the following classes? a. RNA b. DNA c. Ribose d. Both a and b

d. Both a and b

67. Which particles have high linear energy transfer (LET) with low penetrability? a. Alpha particles b. Beta particles c. Gamma particles d. Both a and b

d. Both a and b

145. What does the milliamperage control on the x-ray machine affect? a. The amount of radiation that is produced b. The amount of incoming voltage c. The current to the cathode d. Both a and c

d. Both a and c

218. For larger species of birds, which technique can be used to obtain a craniocaudal appendicular skeletal radiograph? a. Tape the limb to a Plexiglas plate b. Tape the limb directly on the cassette c. Use a gloved hand placed behind the hock to restrain the limb for exposure d. Both a and c

d. Both a and c

300. Which of the following bone tissues contain an internal meshwork of trabeculae with interconnected spaces that are filled with red bone marrow? a. Cancellous bone b. Compact bone c. Spongy bone d. Both a and c

d. Both a and c

660. Which muscle of the eye is responsible for rotating the eye about its visual axis? a. Dorsal oblique b. Dorsal rectus c. Ventral oblique d. Both a and c

d. Both a and c

164. To obtain a lateral view of the tibia of a small animal, the patient should be in which of the following positions? a. Sternal recumbency b. Right lateral recumbency c. Left lateral recumbency d. Both b and c

d. Both b and c

167. Which of the following causes the entire film to be clear? a. Final wash was conducted improperly b. There was no exposure c. The film was placed in the fixer before the developer d. Both b and c

d. Both b and c

326. Which of the following species does NOT contain seminal vesicles? a. Bull b. Cat c. Dog d. Both b and c

d. Both b and c

585. What characteristic is true about the fibula of rabbits? a. It is twice the length of the tibia b. It is half the length of the tibia c. It is fused with the tibia d. Both b and c

d. Both b and c

200. In what species is ketonuria most commonly found? a. Canine b. Feline c. Equine d. Bovine

d. Bovine

283. Where is the buffy coat found on the refractometer? a. Beneath the packed red cells b. Above the packed red cells c. Above the plasma d. Buffy coats are not seen on refractometers.

d. Buffy coats are not seen on refractometers.

127. Which of the following is not a hormone produced or released by the pituitary gland? a. Luteinizing hormone b. Oxytocin c. Growth hormone d. Calcitonin

d. Calcitonin

353. Which element of the periodic table is required for muscle contraction, nerve impulse transmission, and blood clotting? a. Nitrogen b. Oxygen c. Phosphorus d. Calcium

d. Calcium

376. Lipids are made of all of the following components except: a. Oxygen b. Carbon c. Hydrogen d. Calcium

d. Calcium

53. Which of the following crystals is most likely found in the urine of an animal with ethylene glycol toxicity? a. Ammonium biurate b. Tyrosine c. Triple phosphate d. Calcium oxalate

d. Calcium oxalate

80. Pet skunks should be vaccinated against all of the following diseases except: a. Rabies b. Feline panleukopenia c. Canine distemper d. Canine parvovirus

d. Canine parvovirus

598. Rabbits are unable to vomit because of the arrangement of the ____________ in relation to the stomach. a. Esophagus b. Pylorus c. Duodenum d. Cardia

d. Cardia

562. Which of the following arteries runs parallel to the trachea in birds? a. Brachial b. Jugular c. Subclavian d. Carotid.

d. Carotid

330. Which species contain short spines that cover the end of the glans of the penis? a. Horses b. Dogs c. Ruminants d. Cats

d. Cats

29. Which of the following vessels is most commonly used for blood collection in the lizard? a. Cephalic vein b. Jugular vein c. Ventral abdominal vein d. Caudal tail vein

d. Caudal tail vein

179. Which of the following radiographic terms describes the view when the primary x-ray beam enters the caudal surface and exits the cranial surface of the patient? a. Dorsoventral b. Ventrodorsal c. Craniocaudal d. Caudocranial

d. Caudocranial

94. Which of the following radiographic terms describes the radiographic projection obtained by passing the primary x-ray beam from the caudal surface to the cranial surface of a structure? a. Plantar b. Dorsopalmar c. Palmar d. Caudocranial

d. Caudocranial

242. What effect do beta-receptor agonists have on the respiratory tree? a. Increase the volume of watery secretions b. Increase the volume of sticky mucoid secretions c. Cause bronchoconstriction d. Cause bronchodilatation

d. Cause bronchodilatation

680. Which artery supplies the stomach, spleen, and liver with blood? a. Renal artery b. Portal vein c. Hepatic vein d. Celiac artery

d. Celiac artery

162. To obtain a whole body view of the abdomen of a rabbit, where should the center of the beam be focused? a. Center over the heart b. Center over the liver c. Center of the body cranial to caudal d. Center over the thoracolumbar area

d. Center over the thoracolumbar area

362. Dipylidium caninum is a: a. Trematode b. Nematode c. Arthropod d. Cestode

d. Cestode

234. What would not cause shifts or trends in quality-control data? a. New lot numbers of reagents b. Change in calibration of the instrument c. Outdated reagents d. Change in laboratory personnel

d. Change in laboratory personnel

407. What species causes a disease known as walking dandruff? a. Trombicula species b. Sarcoptes species c. Demodex species d. Cheyletiella species

d. Cheyletiella species

15. The antibiotic that should be avoided in all food-producing animals is: a. Lincosamides b. Cephalexin c. Enrofloxacin d. Chloramphenicol

d. Chloramphenicol

225. What drug readily penetrates the blood-brain barrier and achieves therapeutic concentrations of antibiotic in the central nervous system? a. Amoxicillin b. Enrofloxacin c. Oxytetracycline d. Chloramphenicol

d. Chloramphenicol

174. The anatomic term for synovial joints is: a. Fibroarthroses b. Amphiarthroses c. Synarthroses d. Diarthroses

d. Diarthroses

238. What structure is the pacemaker of the heart? a. Bundle of His b. Purkinje fibers c. Atrioventricular node d. Sinoatrial node

d. Sinoatrial node

64. Dr. Blackman prescribed a particular antibiotic for a rabbit with a Pasteurella infection and asked you to educate the client regarding special instructions for administration of the drug. You told the client that she should wear gloves when handling this medication, because it has been associated with a rare adverse reaction in humans: aplastic anemia. Based on this information, the drug that you dispensed was most likely: a. Gentamicin b. Tetracycline c. Erythromycin d. Chloramphenicol

d. Chloramphenicol

109. The uvea consists of the iris, ciliary body, and: a. Neural tunic b. Fibrous tunic c. Anterior chamber d. Choroid

d. Choroid

102. In the skin of chameleons, which of the following allows for reflectivity of visible light that results in a color change? a. Melanocytes b. Heterophils c. Azurophils d. Chromatophores

d. Chromatophores

371. Which of the following processes will decrease the efficacy of an antibiotic in a dog with a bite wound on the forelimb? a. Acute inflammation b. Shock c. Necrosis d. Chronic inflammation

d. Chronic inflammation

137. Lymph from the digestive system is known as what? a. GALT b. Haustra c. Chylomicrons d. Chyle

d. Chyle

118. Which tricyclic antidepressant is now approved for use in dogs and cats to control separation anxiety? a. Buspirone b. Selegiline c. Paroxetine d. Clomipramine

d. Clomipramine

177. In the kidney, the primary site of action for ADH is in the: a. Loop of Henle b. Proximal convoluted tubule c. Glomerulus d. Collecting ducts

d. Collecting ducts

151. Lead shutters installed in the tube head of the x-ray machine are referred to as: a. Filters b. Diaphragms c. Cones d. Collimators

d. Collimators

197. Film badges, TLDs, and OSL badges contain 3-4 elements for filtration. Which element monitors the highest level of exposure to radiation? a. Open window b. Plastic c. Aluminum d. Copper

d. Copper

483. What structure in horses provides additional shading for the retina to limit the entry of light? a. Cornea b. Iris c. Ciliary muscle d. Corpora nigra

d. Corpora nigra

178. The renal corpuscle is located in the: a. Renal pelvis b. Hilus c. Medulla d. Cortex

d. Cortex

153. A good initial urinary screening test for suspected Cushing's disease is: a. Endogenous ACTH b. Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test c. ACTH stimulation d. Cortisol/creatinine ratio

d. Cortisol/creatinine ratio

161. The periosteum: a. Covers joint cavities b. Lines the heart c. Lines the marrow cavity of bones d. Covers the outer surface of bones

d. Covers the outer surface of bones

172. Which of the following is the correct abbreviation to perform a cranial radiograph? a. CdCr b. Dpa c. CrCd d. Cr

d. Cr

220. For an avian lateral view, where should the dependent limb be placed compared to the contralateral limb? a. Lateral b. Medial c. Superimposed d. Cranial

d. Cranial

576. Where are the testes located compared to the kidneys in birds? a. Lateral b. Distal c. Caudal d. Cranial

d. Cranial

64. You have been asked to obtain 10 mL of blood from one ferret for blood donation to another ferret. Which of the following vessels is most likely the best choice for venipuncture? a. Cephalic b. Lateral saphenous c. Auricular d. Cranial vena cava

d. Cranial vena cava

88. Which is the correct order in the avian gastrointestinal tract descending from the oral cavity? a. Crop, gizzard, proventriculus b. Proventriculus, gizzard, crop c. Gizzard, proventriculus, crop d. Crop, proventriculus, gizzard

d. Crop, proventriculus, gizzard

325. Which of these parasites sucks blood from its host? a. Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus b. Onchocerca cervicalis c. Metastrongylus apri d. Ctenocephalides felis

d. Ctenocephalides felis

402. The parasite whose larvae encyst in the subcutaneous tissue of rabbits is: a. Gasterophilus species b. Hypoderma species c. Oestrus species d. Cuterebra species

d. Cuterebra species

46. Squamous epithelial cells are not normally seen in urine samples obtained by: a. Catheterization b. Manual expression c. Free catch d. Cystocentesis

d. Cystocentesis

261. What effect are anticholinergic drugs expected to have on the gastrointestinal tract? a. Increased secretions by the bowel b. Increased movement of feces through the bowel c. Decreased ability of compounds to irritate the bowel wall d. Decreased bowel motility

d. Decreased bowel motility

35. Which reaction is the result of parasympathetic nervous system stimulation? a. Bronchodilation b. Pupil dilation c. Decreased GI motility d. Decreased heart rate

d. Decreased heart rate

427. Oliguria is: a. Excessive eating b. Green urine c. Excessive bilirubin in the urine d. Decreased urine output

d. Decreased urine output

41. An increased packed cell volume (PCV) could be indicative of: a. Liver disease b. Anemia c. Leukocytosis d. Dehydration

d. Dehydration

387. The parasite also known as a winter tick is: a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus b. Ixodes dammini c. Dermacentor variabilis d. Dermacentor albipictus

d. Dermacentor albipictus

21. Griseofulvin acts on: a. Gram-positive bacteria b. Gram-negative bacteria c. Gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria d. Dermatophytes

d. Dermatophytes

160. A glucose tolerance test is used to help diagnose: a. Cushing's disease b. Hypothyroidism c. Addison's disease d. Diabetes mellitus

d. Diabetes mellitus

39. Ketonuria is most commonly associated with what condition? a. Liver disease b. Urinary tract infection c. Renal failure d. Diabetes mellitus

d. Diabetes mellitus

163. The shaft of the bone is also called the: a. Trunk b. Epiphysis c. Periosteum d. Diaphysis

d. Diaphysis

20. Hypocalcemia in the sugar glider is primarily caused by an imbalance in which of the following? a. Blood calcium, vitamin A, and phosphorus b. Dietary calcium, vitamin B, and phosphorus c. Blood calcium, vitamin C, and phosphorus d. Dietary calcium, vitamin D, and phosphorus

d. Dietary calcium, vitamin D, and phosphorus

87. Common drugs of plant origin, such as digoxin and atropine, are ineffective in a cow when administered orally because of: a. Eructation b. The large size of the rumen c. Methane gas d. Digestive microorganisms

d. Digestive microorganisms

61. A pregnant rodent has what kind of placentation? a. Zonary b. Cotyledonary c. Diffuse d. Discoid

d. Discoid

250. Canine blood types are preceded by the letters "DEA." What do these letters stand for? a. Detectable Erythrocyte Antibody b. Detectable Erythrocyte Antigen c. Dog Erythrocyte Antibody d. Dog Erythrocyte Antigen

d. Dog Erythrocyte Antigen

230. Which of the following is the best view for assessing the distal radial growth plate for closure in horses? a. Lateral view b. Flexed lateral view c. Medial oblique d. Dorsopalmar view

d. Dorsopalmar view

237. What drug is a respiratory stimulant? a. Oxytocin b. Dobutamine c. Propranolol d. Doxapram

d. Doxapram

48. Puppies born via cesarean section that are not breathing well may benefit from _____ drops administered sublingually. a. Diazepam b. Digitalis c. Dobutamine d. Doxapram

d. Doxapram

50. Which is the correct method to use when performing a serum bile acids assay? a. Draw a blood sample on a fasting animal b. Draw a blood sample on an animal immediately after it eats a meal c. Draw a blood sample on a fasting animal and another sample 2 hours later d. Draw a blood sample on a fasting animal, feed the animal, and draw another sample 2 hours later

d. Draw a blood sample on a fasting animal, feed the animal, and draw another sample 2 hours later

39. A female tortoise presents to the clinic with the following clinical signs: straining, lethargy, anorexia, and bloody discharge from the cloaca. What is the most common cause of this presentation? a. GI foreign body b. Internal parasites c. Hypervitaminosis A d. Dystocia

d. Dystocia

423. The best urine sample from a housebroken dog is collected in: a. Late evening b. Afternoon c. Midmorning d. Early morning

d. Early morning

9. Which of the following tools is the most useful option to help diagnose syncope in a rabbit? a. Thoracic radiographs b. Echocardiogram c. Computed tomography of the thorax d. Electrocardiogram

d. Electrocardiogram

70. Which of the following drugs is least likely to kill the normal flora in the gut of a rabbit, thus avoiding severe diarrhea? a. Clavamox b. Clindamycin c. Cefotaxime d. Enrofloxacin

d. Enrofloxacin

399. All of the following are a type of white blood cell, except: a. Neutrophil b. Reticulocyte c. Lymphocyte d. Eosinophil

d. Eosinophil

348. The secreting units of sweat glands, salivary glands, and mammary glands are all composed of what type of cellular tissue? a. Connective tissue b. Muscle tissue c. Nervous tissue d. Epithelial tissue

d. Epithelial tissue

571. In female birds during the breeding season, how often is one ovum released until the clutch is complete? a. Every 2 hours b. Every 6 hours c. Every 12 hours d. Every 24 hours

d. Every 24 hours

343. After surgery has begun, how often should antibiotics be administered? a. Every 15-30 minutes b. Every 30-60 minutes c. Every 60-90 minutes d. Every 90-120 minutes

d. Every 90-120 minutes

564. Which artery is distal to the femoral artery in birds? a. Coeliac b. Renal c. Pectoral d. External iliac

d. External iliac

208. Which structure will not allow blood vessels and nerves to pass through? a. Meatus b. Sinus c. Foramen d. Facet

d. Facet

401. The parasite that infects the liver of its host is: a. Diphyllobothrium species b. Hymenolepis species c. Paragonimus species d. Fasciola species

d. Fasciola species

174. In what species are the platelets normally larger than the red blood cells? a. Bovine b. Canine c. Equine d. Feline

d. Feline

24. What species is an induced ovulator? a. Bovine b. Equine c. Canine d. Feline

d. Feline

114. All of the following major vessels contribute to blood flowing into the cranial vena cava except for the: a. Brachiocephalic vein b. Thoracic duct c. Azygos vein d. Femoral vein

d. Femoral vein

117. You have been asked to place an intraosseous catheter in a very critical ferret. Which bone is most commonly used? a. Radius b. Ulna c. Fibula d. Femur

d. Femur

52. Which of the following bones is pneumatic in the avian patient? a. Ulna b. Radius c. Tibiotarsus d. Femur

d. Femur

179. Which of the following drugs provides analgesic relief to a patient who undergoes a painful procedure? a. Acepromazine b. Diazepam c. Thiopental d. Fentanyl

d. Fentanyl

75. Determination of which of the following is useful in the detection of inflammatory processes? a. Total protein b. Hematocrit c. RBC morphology d. Fibrinogen

d. Fibrinogen

228. Paragonimus kellicotti is a: a. Tapeworm b. Tick c. Mite d. Fluke

d. Fluke

2. Which of the following diagnostic tools is best used to evaluate real-time GI motility in the ferret? a. Magnetic resonance imaging b. Computed tomography c. Radiography d. Fluoroscopy

d. Fluoroscopy

159. What causes grid lines on the entire film? a. Patient motion b. Poor film-screen contact c. Grid not being centered with the primary beam d. Focal-film distance not being in the range of the grid's focus

d. Focal-film distance not being in the range of the grid's focus

275. Which hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland? a. Melanocyte-stimulating hormone b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone c. Prolactin d. Follicle-stimulating hormone

d. Follicle-stimulating hormone

319. What can be done to decrease the risk of esophageal lesions in cats secondary to oral medications? a. Do not give oral medications b. Crush the medications c. Advise the owner to bring in the cat for medicating d. Follow the medication with water

d. Follow the medication with water

219. The name of the hole between the cardiac atria that closes at birth in the mammal is: a. Aortic hiatus b. Foramen c. Fossa d. Foramen ovale

d. Foramen ovale

172. Which of the following is considered a part of the external structure of the equine hoof? a. Digital cushion b. Corium c. Lateral cartilage d. Frog

d. Frog

233. Ketoconazole, miconazole, and griseofulvin are effective against: a. Viruses b. Flukes c. Intestinal nematodes d. Fungi

d. Fungi

78. The diuretic drug used most commonly in patients with congestive heart failure is: a. Mannitol b. Spironolactone c. Chlorothiazide d. Furosemide

d. Furosemide

31. What blood chemistry test should be used to measure cholangiocyte damage? a. ALKP b. AST c. ALT d. GGT

d. GGT

480. During which gait are there never more than two legs on the ground at the same time? a. Canter b. Trot c. Walk d. Gallop

d. Gallop

259. The adult form of the parasite ________ is a fly, and the larval stage is an endoparasite. a. Otobius b. Capillaria c. Thelazia d. Gasterophilus

d. Gasterophilus

186. The large muscle of the caudal aspect of the canine lower hind leg is the: a. Tibialis anterior b. Gracilis c. Semimembranosus d. Gastrocnemius

d. Gastrocnemius

98. Most gas exchange in fish takes place in which of the following? a. Operculum b. Lungs c. Bronchi d. Gills

d. Gills

107. Stress and epinephrine release in cats might cause an increase in: a. BUN b. Total protein c. ALT d. Glucose

d. Glucose

408. Which of the following drugs minimally crosses the placental barrier and is safe to use in pregnant dogs? a. Acepromazine b. Atropine c. Fentanyl d. Glycopyrrolate

d. Glycopyrrolate

4. Which grade level on the ossification index for newborn foals does a closed metacarpal and metatarsal physes describe? a. Grade 1 b. Grade 2 c. Grade 3 d. Grade 4

d. Grade 4

376. Which of the following is not a simple stain? a. Methylene blue b. Crystal violet c. Safranin d. Gram stain

d. Gram stain

511. What is the normal pH of equine urine? a. Less than 3 pH b. 3- 6 pH c. 7- 8 pH d. Greater than 9 pH

d. Greater than 9 pH

6. Ferrets with vestibular signs demonstrate all of the following except: a. Ataxia b. Circling c. Left- or right-sided head tilt d. Head pressing

d. Head pressing

1. Where are striated muscles located? a. Stomach wall and uterus b. Urinary bladder and intestine c. Ciliary body of the eye d. Heart and skeletal muscles

d. Heart and skeletal muscles

302. Certain oxidant drugs can denature hemoglobin and cause the production of round structures in erythrocytes that are called: a. Howell-Jolly bodies b. Russell bodies c. Döhle bodies d. Heinz bodies

d. Heinz bodies

279. What part of the CBC is the most accurate procedure? a. Erythrocyte count b. Hemoglobin determination c. Leukocyte count d. Hematocrit

d. Hematocrit

67. Which of the following in not considered a potential complication of intraosseous catheterization? a. Difficulty maintaining patency b. Bone infection c. Pain d. Hematoma formation

d. Hematoma formation

96. Which of these would not be associated with ketones in the urine? a. Diabetes mellitus b. Lactating cows c. Starvation d. Hemolysis

d. Hemolysis

187. Which parasite causes blood loss, especially in young animals? a. Roundworm b. Tapeworm c. Heartworm d. Hookworm

d. Hookworm

66. Which of the following bones are considered pneumatic in most avian species? a. Humerus and ulna b. Femur and tibiotarsus c. Tibiotarsus and tarsometatarsus d. Humerus and femur

d. Humerus and femur

487. Which of the following structures suspends the larynx from the skull? a. Epiglottis b. Arytenoid cartilages c. Laryngopharynx d. Hyoid apparatus

d. Hyoid apparatus

171. Glucocorticoids are often used to treat all of the following conditions, except: a. Autoimmune skin disease b. Asthma c. Lymphocytic neoplasia d. Hyperadrenocorticism

d. Hyperadrenocorticism

216. Hyperkalemia is commonly associated with which endocrine disorder? a. Diabetes insipidus b. Hyperthyroidism c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Hypoadrenocorticism

d. Hypoadrenocorticism

50. Nociceptors are important for detecting: a. Color b. Warmth c. Lactic acid d. Pain

d. Pain

246. In what organ are the islets of Langerhans found? a. Spleen b. Kidneys c. Liver d. Pancreas

d. Pancreas

250. Some drugs commonly used to treat veterinary patients with cardiovascular disease alter the electrolyte levels (Na+, K+, Cl−) within the body. Which electrolyte change greatly enhances the risk of digoxin toxicity? a. Hypernatremia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hypochloremia d. Hypokalemia

d. Hypokalemia

80. The most common side effect of drugs that cause vasodilation is: a. Anorexia, vomiting, and diarrhea b. Cardiac arrhythmias c. Bradycardia d. Hypotension

d. Hypotension

320. Lidocaine is in which cardiac drug class? a. IA b. II c. IV d. IB

d. IB

15. What immunoglobulin is usually present in the greatest quantity? a. IgA b. IgD c. IgE d. IgG

d. IgG

502. Where does digestion and absorption of food take place within the horse? a. Duodenum b. Jejunum c. Ileum d. Ileocecal junction

d. Ileocecal junction

318. Which of the following is not a malfunction of the immune system? a. Allergy b. Immunodeficiency c. Autoimmune disease d. Immunity by vaccination

d. Immunity by vaccination

77. Which of the following locations is best for storing a dosimeter badge? a. In the x-ray room b. At home with the employee c. In a box on a window sill to receive natural light d. In a dry, cool place away from the x-ray room

d. In a dry, cool place away from the x-ray room

551. Where is the columella bone located? a. Caudal to the clavicle b. Proximal to the ulna c. Cranial to the sternum d. In the ear

d. In the ear

404. Which of the following are the most rostral teeth in the mouth of small animals? a. Canines b. Premolars c. Molars d. Incisors

d. Incisors

47. Which of the following processes is not a function of insulin? a. Increased glucose transport into muscle b. Lipogenesis c. Fatty acid synthesis d. Increased blood pressure

d. Increased blood pressure

306. What effect does renal failure or compromised liver function have on the pharmacokinetics of many drugs? a. Decreased absorption of drugs given orally b. Increased elimination rate of drugs from the body c. Decreased volume of distribution of drugs d. Increased half-life of drugs

d. Increased half-life of drugs

32. A risk to veterinary technicians who administer prostaglandins is: a. Acne b. Liver failure c. Kidney damage d. Inducing an asthma attack

d. Inducing an asthma attack

368. A dog becomes infected with Dipylidium caninum by ingestion of: a. Saliva from an infected dog b. Feces from an infected dog c. Tissues of an infected rabbit d. Infected fleas

d. Infected fleas

185. Which of the following is not a form of barium sulfate that can be administered to patients? a. Powder b. Colloid suspension c. Pastes d. Injectable

d. Injectable

202. Aminoglycosides, if given at high dosages or by continuous IV infusion, cause damage to the: a. Lungs and liver b. Liver and inner ear c. Kidney and liver d. Inner ear and kidney

d. Inner ear and kidney

198. It is essential for veterinary technicians to educate clients expecting to treat their pets with insulin. Which of the following statements is true? a. Insulin can be stored at room temperature between uses b. The bottle of insulin should be shaken before use c. The injection is given in the same site each time d. Insulin should be given with a meal

d. Insulin should be given with a meal

327. Vaccines may be administered by any of the following routes, except: a. Subcutaneously b. Intramuscularly c. Intranasally d. Intraperitoneally

d. Intraperitoneally

49. Parenteral administration of phenylbutazone should be only via: a. Subcutaneous injection b. Intramuscular injection c. Intradermal injection d. Intravenous injection

d. Intravenous injection

59. A drug given by which of the following routes reaches its peak plasma concentration the fastest? a. Orally b. Intramuscularly c. Subcutaneously d. Intravenously

d. Intravenously

27. Which of the following statements is true when considering the use of propofol? a. It is a potent analgesic b. It can be given via the IM and IV routes c. It is best administered as a single bolus d. It can be given in incremental doses

d. It can be given in incremental doses

314. Which statement concerning passive immunity is least accurate? a. It involves antibodies that have been produced in a donor animal b. It provides immediate but short-lived immunity c. It may be natural or artificial d. It develops after exposure to a pathogen

d. It develops after exposure to a pathogen

32. A snake presents to the clinic for anorexia, striking at the owner, hissing, and a blue-opaque coloring to the eyes and skin. What is likely occurring in this snake? a. Contact dermatitis b. Fungal dermatoses c. Paramyxovirus d. It is about to shed its skin

d. It is about to shed its skin

375. What characteristic is unique to Mycobacterium? a. It is a spore former b. It is anaerobic c. It is easily killed by antibiotics d. It survives phagocytosis

d. It survives phagocytosis

251. What drug would be most effective against dermatophytes? a. Tylosin b. Enrofloxacin c. Sulfadimethoxine d. Itraconazole

d. Itraconazole

184. Which of the following drugs does not have an immunosuppressive effect? a. Cyclosporine b. Azathioprine c. Prednisone d. Ivermectin

d. Ivermectin

308. Drugs that are administered intra-articularly are injected into the: a. Bone marrow b. Subdural space c. Heart d. Joint

d. Joint

22. Which of the following vessels is primarily used for blood collection in the African hedgehog? a. Lateral saphenous b. Cephalic c. Femoral d. Jugular

d. Jugular

46. Which of the following vessels is most commonly used for blood collection in the chinchilla? a. Cephalic b. Lateral saphenous c. Auricular d. Jugular

d. Jugular

307. The first line of defense that the body has against foreign invaders is the: a. Hair b. Neutrophils c. Primary lymphoid tissue d. Skin

d. Skin

84. You have been asked to obtain a complete blood count and chemistry panel for a pet hedgehog. What vessels are most commonly used? a. Lateral saphenous and jugular b. Cephalic and cranial vena cava c. Femoral and medial saphenous d. Jugular and cranial vena cava

d. Jugular and cranial vena cava

42. You have been asked to obtain a blood sample for a CBC and chemistry panel from a 100-g cockatiel. Which of the following vessels is most commonly used in this species? a. Medial metatarsal vein b. Cutaneous ulnar vein c. Cephalic vein d. Jugular vein

d. Jugular vein

35. The bones of the tortoise shell are covered with structures called scutes. What are scutes made of? a. Bone b. Epidermis c. Dermis d. Keratin

d. Keratin

347. Which drug listed belongs in the drug class imidazole? a. Amoxicillin b. Cephalexin c. Enrofloxacin d. Ketoconazole

d. Ketoconazole

108. Which of the following PPE must the handler wear when a patient is considered radioactive? a. Lab coat only b. Lab coat and gloves c. Lab coat, gloves, and disposable boots d. Lab coat, gloves, disposable boots, and a dosimeter badge

d. Lab coat, gloves, disposable boots, and a dosimeter badge

373. What organism is a spirochete? a. Corynebacterium pyogenes b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Leptospira grippotyphosa

d. Leptospira grippotyphosa

192. A cat diagnosed with hyperthyroidism may be offered a number of treatment options, including all of the following, except: a. Radioactive iodine-131 treatment b. Methimazole medical management c. Thyroidectomy surgery d. Levothyroxine

d. Levothyroxine

184. Which organ is the largest abdominal organ in the body? a. Stomach b. Pancreas c. Kidney d. Liver

d. Liver

256. Blood chemistry assays, including dye excretion, ammonia tolerance, and bile acid concentrations, are used to evaluate the function of the: a. Pancreas b. Kidneys c. Heart d. Liver

d. Liver

651. Glucose that is not immediately used by cells is converted to glycogen and is stored in which organ? a. Gallbladder b. Pancreas c. Spleen d. Liver

d. Liver

198. The cardiovascular system has four components. Which of the following is not part of the system? a. Heart b. Blood circulation c. Blood vessels d. Lungs

d. Lungs

157. The main function of bicarbonate is to: a. Maintain the proper osmotic pressure of fluids in the body b. Maintain normal muscular function c. Maintain normal cardiac rhythm and contractility d. Maintain balanced body pH levels

d. Maintain balanced body pH levels

103. What microorganism is frequently recovered from the ears of dogs with chronic otitis externa? a. Candida sp. b. Cryptococcus sp. c. Microsporum sp. d. Malassezia sp.

d. Malassezia sp.

196. Which sinus is not considered to be a "true" sinus of the dog? a. Frontal sinus b. External nares c. Paranasal sinuses d. Maxillary sinus

d. Maxillary sinus

33. Loop diuretics such as furosemide: a. Cause dehydration in normal animals b. Cannot be used simultaneously with ACE inhibitors c. Are unsafe for use in animals with pulmonary edema d. May cause hypokalemia with chronic use

d. May cause hypokalemia with chronic use

30. To obtain a lateromedial view of the femorotibial joint of the horse, the cassette should be placed against which surface? a. Cranial aspect b. Caudal aspect c. Lateral aspect d. Medial aspect

d. Medial aspect

158. Basic functions of bones include all of the following except: a. Protection b. Storage c. Leverage d. Metabolism

d. Metabolism

441. The carpus of the horse is located proximal to which of the following bones? a. Humerus b. Radius c. Ulna d. Metacarpus

d. Metacarpus

414. The parasite also known as a lungworm is of the: a. Alaria species b. Fascioloides species c. Stephanurus species d. Metastrongylus species

d. Metastrongylus species

342. Reglan is the trade name for: a. Metronidazole b. Dolasetron c. Maropitant d. Metoclopramide

d. Metoclopramide

403. The doctor would like to start a patient on a drug that increases gastrointestinal motility. He would like to be able to add it to the intravenous fluids and also to send the dog home with an oral dose on discharge. Which drug fulfills these criteria? a. Diphenhydramine b. Dolasetron c. Maropitant d. Metoclopramide

d. Metoclopramide

329. Which of the following is associated with central nervous signs if it is overdosed? a. Carprofen b. Chloramphenicol c. Furosemide d. Metronidazole

d. Metronidazole

291. An MCV value below the normal reference range suggests: a. Hyperchromasia b. Hypochromasia c. Macrocytosis d. Microcytosis

d. Microcytosis

378. Which of the following is a benzodiazepine tranquilizer? a. Fentanyl b. Ketamine c. Medetomidine d. Midazolam

d. Midazolam

129. When collecting blood for a coagulation profile, it is especially important to: a. Use a gray-top Vacutainer b. Analyze the sample immediately c. Use EDTA as the anticoagulant d. Minimize vascular trauma during venipuncture

d. Minimize vascular trauma during venipuncture

398. What parasite ova have three pairs of hooklets? a. Trichuris species b. Taenia species c. Alaria species d. Moniezia species

d. Moniezia species

216. What can a technician do to recognize early signs of nephrotoxicity in an animal that receives aminoglycosides? a. Monitor blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels b. Monitor the CBC and total protein level c. Monitor feces for change in consistency d. Monitor urine for casts and protein

d. Monitor urine for casts and protein

439. Which of the following will have the longest duration of action when used as an epidural? a. Bupivacaine b. Butorphanol c. Ketamine d. Morphine

d. Morphine

342. Acid-fast stains are used to identify: a. Coccidia b. Yeast c. Fungi d. Mycobacteria

d. Mycobacteria

155. The thorax is normally under: a. Partial pressure b. Positive pressure c. Equilibrium d. Negative pressure

d. Negative pressure

10. The most common adverse side effect(s) of aminoglycoside antimicrobials are: a. Nephrotoxicity b. Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity c. Ototoxicity and neurotoxicity d. Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and neurotoxicity

d. Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and neurotoxicity

161. Which white blood cell is known as "the first line of defense" after a microorganism has entered the body? a. Eosinophil b. Lymphocyte c. Monocyte d. Neutrophil

d. Neutrophil

66. When considering hematology tests, clots in an EDTA sample are: a. Acceptable if they are microscopic b. Acceptable if they are detected on a wooden stick only c. Acceptable if they are run through an automatic analyzer d. Never acceptable

d. Never acceptable

549. Which type of vision do photoreceptor cells, known as rods, provide in birds? a. Color vision b. Monocular vision c. Binocular vision d. Night vision

d. Night vision

352. Which of the following elements is the component of all proteins and nucleic acids? a. Hydrogen b. Oxygen c. Calcium d. Nitrogen

d. Nitrogen

219. What cat blood type is considered the universal donor? a. A b. O c. AB d. None exists in the cat

d. None exists in the cat

550. Which avian species contain ear pinnae? a. Eagle b. Parakeet c. Parrot d. None, there are no external ear pinnae in any avian species

d. None, there are no external ear pinnae in any avian species

596. How many canine teeth does the rabbit have? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. None, they do not contain canine teeth

d. None, they do not contain canine teeth

3. The generic name for a drug is also called the: a. Trade name b. Chemical name c. Proprietary name d. Nonproprietary name

d. Nonproprietary name

156. Nutraceuticals is a category of drugs that includes which of the following characteristics? a. Genetically derived materials that enhance immune function b. Drugs that are derived from humans for use in animals c. Drugs that are undergoing clinical trials before FDA approval d. Nontoxic food components that have proven health benefits

d. Nontoxic food components that have proven health benefits

287. The following information was provided for a prescription written by a veterinarian: "Dr. Pete Bill, Veterinary Associates, Inc., 325 Sentry Highway, West Lafayette, IN 47907. Indiana License Number #4xxx. (317) 555-8636. For: Mr. R. K. Jones, 111, Melrose Place, Loomisville, IN 47905. Canine patient Ruby, Amoxicillin 100 mg tablets, Sig: 1 tab q8h po prn 2 refills. Date: 1/5/16. Signature: Pete Bill." What vital information is missing from this prescription? a. Veterinarian's Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) license number b. Pet's name c. Owner's telephone number d. Number of tablets

d. Number of tablets

189. For a dorsolateral-plantaromedial oblique view of the tarsal joint of a horse, the cassette should be placed in which position? a. On the lateral surface b. On the medial surface c. On the plantar surface d. On the plantaromedial surface

d. On the plantaromedial surface

4. You are asked to administer a drug that is supplied as an enteric-coated tablet at 100 mg, 50 mg, and 25 mg; you require 25 mg but have available 50-mg tablets only. You should: a. Use a pill splitter to divide the 100-mg tablet into quarters to have the smallest piece. b. Use a pill splitter to divide the 50-mg tablet into halves to have the most accurate dose. c. Administer the 50-mg tablet but then skip the next scheduled dosing. d. Order or purchase 25-mg tablets for the dosing schedule.

d. Order or purchase 25-mg tablets for the dosing schedule.

42. What is not a short-term effect of corticosteroid therapy? a. Polyuria b. Polyphagia c. Delayed healing d. Osteoporosis

d. Osteoporosis

390. The parasite that lives in ears is: a. Sarcoptes species b. Demodex species c. Chorioptes species d. Otodectes species

d. Otodectes species

99. The surgeon has completed Buffy's surgical procedure and asks you to discontinue the inhalant anesthesia. What is absolutely necessary to do when terminating anesthesia in a patient that has been receiving nitrous oxide? a. Give an injection of the reversal agent b. Observe carefully for signs of seizures c. Allow the patient to recuperate in a quiet, dark area d. Oxygenate for 5 to 10 minutes

d. Oxygenate for 5 to 10 minutes

357. Which of the following products will provide oxygen-carrying capacity? a. Cryoprecipitate b. Fresh frozen plasma c. Frozen plasma d. Oxyglobin

d. Oxyglobin

190. What drug will not cause nephrotoxicity? a. Aminoglycosides b. Banamine c. Cisplatin d. Oxymorphone

d. Oxymorphone

58. In dairy cattle, the teats and udder are gently washed before milking to stimulate the release of one of the following, to stimulate milk letdown: a. Adrenalin b. Norepinephrine c. Dopamine d. Oxytocin

d. Oxytocin

5. What hormone contracts the female reproductive tract to help move spermatozoa into the oviducts? a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Prolactin d. Oxytocin.

d. Oxytocin.

10. The wave on an electrocardiogram that is associated with the atrial wall depolarization is the: a. PR interval b. T wave c. QRS complex d. P wave

d. P wave

151. Duragesic (Fentanyl) transdermal patches are used most commonly in veterinary medicine to control: a. Diarrhea b. Vomiting c. Seizures d. Pain

d. Pain

106. Which of the following anatomical structures is located on the dorsal portion of the head and acts as a photoreceptor, helping to regulate hormone production and thermoregulatory behavior in the lizard species? a. Thyroid gland b. Jacobson's organ c. Spectacle d. Parietal eye

d. Parietal eye

181. Which of the following terms refers to an infestation with lice? a. Myiasis b. Acariasis c. Paraphimosis d. Pediculosis

d. Pediculosis

123. What is the most common site of feed impactions in the horse? a. Sternal flexure b. Diaphragmatic flexure c. Stomach d. Pelvic flexure

d. Pelvic flexure

476. The _____________ forms the outer layer to protect the hoof and maintain moisture levels. a. Hoof b. Sole c. Frog d. Periople

d. Periople

100. The fibrous covering around the part of the bone NOT covered by articular cartilage is: a. Endosteum b. Ligament c. Tendon d. Periosteum

d. Periosteum

488. Which of the following is NOT part of the lower respiratory tract? a. Trachea b. Bronchi c. Lungs d. Pharynx

d. Pharynx

399. Which of the following drugs is most likely to require therapeutic drug monitoring? a. Enrofloxacin b. Metoclopramide c. Metronidazole d. Phenobarbital

d. Phenobarbital

122. Amphojel and Basaljel are drugs in the general category of: a. Potassium supplements b. Antihypertensives c. Urinary acidifiers d. Phosphate binders

d. Phosphate binders

200. Which animal does not have an os penis? a. Dog b. Cat c. Wolf d. Pig

d. Pig

131. Suitable bedding for the chinchilla includes all of the following except: a. Newspaper b. Recycled newspaper products c. Aspen shavings d. Pine shavings

d. Pine shavings

135. The endocrine structure responsible for secreting melatonin is: a. Pituitary gland b. Spleen c. Thymus d. Pineal gland

d. Pineal gland

267. During pregnancy, what provides the life-support system for the developing fetus? a. Ovum b. Uterus c. Amnion d. Placenta

d. Placenta

525. Many of the larger bones of the bird are filled with air that is contained in membranous sacs that connect with the respiratory system and are referred to as which type of bones? a. Compact b. Irregular c. Long d. Pneumatic

d. Pneumatic

281. What would you expect to see on a Diff-Quik stained blood smear from an animal with regenerative anemia? a. Schistocytosis b. Reticulocytosis c. Eosinophilia d. Polychromasia

d. Polychromasia

371. In most areas of the world, rats are the reservoir host of the plague organism. However, in the Western United States, the most common species harboring this organism is: a. Dogs b. Cats c. Beavers d. Prairie dogs

d. Prairie dogs

45. Urinary pH is not affected by the: a. Patient's diet b. Presence of bacteria in the urine c. Patient's acid-base status d. Presence of crystals in the urine

d. Presence of crystals in the urine

406. A drug that requires biotransformation before it becomes active is called a: a. Pretransformed drug b. Nonactive drug c. Predrug d. Prodrug

d. Prodrug

129. The hormone responsible for maintaining pregnancy is: a. Oxytocin b. Luteinizing hormone c. Estrogen d. Progesterone

d. Progesterone

269. What hormone is given to mares or cows for several days to mimic diestrus and then withdrawn to mimic natural lysis of the corpus luteum and a return to proestrus? a. Estradiol cypionate b. Prostaglandin F2 alpha c. Human chorionic gonadotropin d. Progestin

d. Progestin

276. Which hormone is responsible for triggering and maintaining lactation? a. Follicle-stimulating hormone b. Luteinizing hormone c. Mineralocorticoid hormone d. Prolactin hormone

d. Prolactin hormone

424. Which of the following is NOT considered a part of the special senses? a. Taste b. Hearing c. Equilibrium d. Proprioception

d. Proprioception

134. Kaolin, pectin, and bismuth subsalicylate are examples of: a. Narcotic analgesics b. Antispasmodics c. Anticholinergics d. Protectants

d. Protectants

205. What substance increases in the urine during glomerular disease? a. Glucose b. Ketones c. Bilirubin d. Protein

d. Protein

229. Albumin is found in the blood and is a type of: a. Lipoprotein b. Phospholipid c. Enzyme d. Protein

d. Protein

183. The humeroradioulnar joint is located: a. Lateral to the carpus b. Distal to the left of the carpus c. Medial to the carpus d. Proximal to the carpus

d. Proximal to the carpus

182. The middle phalanx is located: a. Lateral to the distal phalanx b. Distal to the distal phalanx c. Medial to the distal phalanx d. Proximal to the distal phalanx

d. Proximal to the distal phalanx

142. Which of the following does not contribute to pododermatitis in the avian patient? a. Obesity b. Hypovitaminosis A c. Improper perch surfaces d. Psittacine beak and feather virus

d. Psittacine beak and feather virus

393. Which blood vessel carries CO2-rich blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs? a. Aorta b. Inferior vena cava c. Pulmonary vein d. Pulmonary artery

d. Pulmonary artery

125. The most distal portion of the monogastric stomach is the: a. Fundus b. Antrum c. Cardia d. Pylorus

d. Pylorus

245. What color is icteric plasma? a. Brown b. Red c. Green d. Yellow

d. Yellow

139. Which of the following species has a duplex uterus and two cervices? a. Ferret b. Guinea pig c. Rat d. Rabbit

d. Rabbit

369. The most common intermediate host of Taenia pisiformis is a: a. Ruminant b. Flea c. Fly d. Rabbit

d. Rabbit

532. The central shaft of a bird's feather is also referred to as: a. Dentary b. Talon c. Hallux d. Rachis

d. Rachis

561. The pudendal artery in birds is located near what other structure? a. Ulnar artery b. Pectoral artery c. Brachiocephalic artery d. Rectum

d. Rectum

56. Which of these tubes must never be placed on a blood rocker after being filled with blood? a. Blue top b. Green top c. Purple top d. Red top

d. Red top

164. Which of the following is the best method of preservation if you are unable to perform a CBC within 1 hour of blood collection? a. Freeze the sample b. Spin down the sample, refrigerate cells, and freeze serum c. Add formalin to the sample d. Refrigerate the sample

d. Refrigerate the sample

145. Azurophils are leukocytes that are only found in what group of animals? a. Amphibians b. Mammals c. Birds d. Reptiles

d. Reptiles

38. Which of the following tests is not included in a routine CBC? a. Total WBC count b. Differential WBC count c. Total protein d. Reticulocyte count

d. Reticulocyte count

431. Where are visual images formed within the eye? a. Lens b. Cornea c. Vitreous humor d. Retina

d. Retina

116. If there is only a small amount of serum separated after centrifuging a tube of whole blood (and you need more for testing), what should you do? a. Invert the tube several times and respin it b. Assume the patient is dehydrated and draw off all of the serum you can c. Spin the tube again at a faster speed and a longer time d. Rim/ring the clot and spin again at a normal speed and time

d. Rim/ring the clot and spin again at a normal speed and time

326. Carprofen is the active ingredient in: a. Deramaxx b. Previcox c. Metacam d. Rimadyl

d. Rimadyl

101. Gram-negative bacteria retain what component of the Gram stain? a. Crystal violet b. Iodine solution c. Decolorizer d. Safranin

d. Safranin

206. All of the following statements are true, except: a. Only personnel necessary to complete the procedure should be in the x-ray room at the time of exposure b. Persons younger than 18 years and pregnant women must not be in the x-ray room during the examination c. Personnel who assist with radiographic examinations should have a rotating duty roster to minimize exposure to any one person d. Sandbags, sponges, tape, or other restraining devices should not be used for positioning the patient rather than manual restraint

d. Sandbags, sponges, tape, or other restraining devices should not be used for positioning the patient rather than manual restraint

408. Scabies is caused by: a. Trombicula species b. Otodectes species c. Melophagus species d. Sarcoptes species

d. Sarcoptes species

146. Clinical signs of dystocia in the chelonian include all of the following except: a. Anorexia b. Lethargy c. Straining d. Seizures

d. Seizures

123. A heartworm preventative that is also approved for the treatment of ear mites and sarcoptic mange is: a. Diethylcarbamazine b. Milbemycin c. Ivermectin d. Selamectin

d. Selamectin

213. The valves that prevent backflow of blood from the arteries to the ventricles are called the: a. Tricuspid b. Bicuspid c. Mitral d. Semilunar

d. Semilunar

468. Which of the following muscles insert at the distal femur and tibia of the horse? a. Gastrocnemius b. Semitendinosus c. Biceps femoris d. Semimembranosus

d. Semimembranosus

258. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of using the PCR testing in equine medicine? a. False positive reactions b. Lack of viable virus isolates c. Inability to detect new viruses d. Sensitivity of the test

d. Sensitivity of the test

113. Cloacal prolapse in the lizard is caused by all of the following except: a. Egg laying b. Foreign-body impaction c. Straining to defecate d. Septicemia

d. Septicemia

374. Ondansetron is an antiemetic that belongs in which drug class? a. Anticholinergic b. Barbiturate c. Phenothiazine d. Serotonin antagonist

d. Serotonin antagonist

86. Serology tests can detect heartworms in a dog's blood: a. Immediately after becoming infected b. Several days after becoming infected c. Several weeks after becoming infected d. Several months after becoming infected

d. Several months after becoming infected

207. Which type of adverse reaction is most commonly observed when penicillins are administered to rabbits? a. Kidney damage and subsequent change in urine production b. Hives and swelling of the face from allergic reaction c. High fever and severe depression d. Severe diarrhea

d. Severe diarrhea

489. Which animal has a cotyledonary placenta? a. Cat b. Dog c. Horse d. Sheep

d. Sheep

98. The appearance of calcium oxalate crystals are described as: a. Hexagonal b. Dark, needlelike rods c. Brown spheres with long spicules d. Small squares that contain an X

d. Small squares that contain an X

20. What happens within the neuron that allows local anesthetics to be effective? a. Potassium gates open b. The charge within the cell becomes positive c. The charge within the cell becomes negative d. Sodium channels become blocked

d. Sodium channels become blocked

415. An oral antiarrhythmic that includes an action similar to injectable propranolol is: a. Hydralazine b. Pimobendan c. Prazosin d. Sotalol

d. Sotalol

624. All of the following are face bones in small animals, except: a. Zygomatic bones b. Pterygoid bones c. Vomer bone d. Sphenoid bone

d. Sphenoid bone

54. All of the following organs may facilitate the elimination of drugs except the: a. Kidneys b. Liver c. Lungs d. Spleen

d. Spleen

688. Which is the largest lymphoid organ? a. Liver b. Cisterna chyli c. Lymph node d. Spleen

d. Spleen

17. Acepromazine must be used with caution or not at all in: a. Bitches b. Tomcats c. Heifers d. Stallions

d. Stallions

106. What is a common pathogen in mastitis, skin wounds, and abscesses, which is also found in the environment? a. Proteus vulgaris b. Escherichia coli c. Streptococcus spp. d. Staphylococcus aureus

d. Staphylococcus aureus

357. What organism will most likely grow on mannitol salt agar? a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Bacillus subtilis c. Clostridium perfringens d. Staphylococcus aureus

d. Staphylococcus aureus

2. To obtain a radiographic image of both temporomandibular joints of a small animal, which of the following is the best position? a. Dorsal recumbency b. Ventral recumbency c. Right lateral recumbency d. Sternal recumbency

d. Sternal recumbency

169. The breastbone is the: a. Hyoid b. Septum c. Tubercle d. Sternum

d. Sternum

463. Where is the point of origin of the pectoral muscle of horses? a. Scapula b. Pelvis c. Thoracic vertebrae d. Sternum

d. Sternum

382. All of the following are characteristics of structural proteins, except: a. Stability b. Water-insoluble proteins c. Rigidity d. Steroid properties

d. Steroid properties

309. Extravasation of a chemotherapeutic agent should first be treated by: a. Applying a tourniquet to prevent movement of the drug up the leg b. Infiltrating the area with sterile saline or another sterile isotonic fluid c. Withdrawing as much drug as possible from the intravenous catheter d. Stopping the injection

d. Stopping the injection

371. What is the primary function of triglycerides? .a. Act as backbone of DNA and RNA b. Regulate chemical reactions, enzymes c. Synthesize hormones d. Store energy

d. Store energy

350. What is the correct way to write the genus and species of bacteria? a. Streptococcus Pyogenes b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. S. pyogenes d. Streptococcus pyogenes

d. Streptococcus pyogenes

396. Infection of this parasite is via skin penetration. a. Trichuris vulpis b. Taenia pisiformis c. Dipylidium caninum d. Strongyloides stercoralis

d. Strongyloides stercoralis

449. Midazolam can be administered to rabbits in all of the following methods, except: a. Intraperitoneal b. Intramuscular c. Intravenous d. Subcutaneous

d. Subcutaneous

77. Which of the following species is considered arboreal? a. Chinchilla b. Prairie dog c. Guinea pig d. Sugar glider

d. Sugar glider

78. Which of the following mammals has a cloaca where the gastrointestinal, urinary, and reproductive tract empty? a. Chinchilla b. Prairie dog c. Guinea pig d. Sugar glider

d. Sugar glider

60. Which of these drugs is not an antifungal drug? a. Fluconazole b. Clotrimazole c. Ketoconazole d. Sulfadimethoxine

d. Sulfadimethoxine

465. The point of origin of which muscle of the horse is at the tuber coxae of the pelvis? a. Gastrocnemius b. Infraspinatus c. Latissimus dorsi d. Superficial gluteals

d. Superficial gluteals

385. A solution that contains so much solute that it cannot be dissolved is known as: a. Concentrated b. Dilute c. Saturated d. Supersaturated

d. Supersaturated

299. What dosage form must be shaken before administration to an animal? a. Solution b. Ointment c. Gel d. Suspension

d. Suspension

277. Waste excretion is a requirement for maintaining homeostasis and can be achieved through which route of excretion? a. Urinary system b. Respiratory system c. Digestive system d. Sweat glands

d. Sweat glands

365. What type of fluid is Hetastarch considered? a. Blood product b. Crystalloid c. Natural colloid d. Synthetic colloid

d. Synthetic colloid

33. A test that can be performed to help diagnose hyperthyroidism is: a. LH b. Cortisol c. Bile acids d. T4

d. T4

444. At what level of vertebrae are the withers of a horse located? a. C1 b. C2 c. C3- C7 d. T4- T9

d. T4- T9

615. The coccygeal vertebra of the ferret is located in which part of the body? a. Neck b. Thorax c. Pelvis d. Tail

d. Tail

418. Feline asthma can be treated with: a. Amphotericin B b. Digoxin c. Hydralazine d. Terbutaline

d. Terbutaline

66. Which of the following statements about tetracyclines is true? a. Tetracyclines are bacteriocidal. b. Oral absorption of tetracyclines is increased in the presence of food. c. Tetracyclines are potentially nephrotoxic and ototoxic. d. Tetracyclines may lead to bone or teeth problems if given to young animals.

d. Tetracyclines may lead to bone or teeth problems if given to young animals.

246. When using a V-trough to aid in obtaining a radiograph, what needs to be measured before taking the x-ray? a. The thinnest portion of the body to be radiographed b. The thickest portion of the body to be radiographed c. The V-trough only d. The V-trough and the thickest portion of the body to be measured

d. The V-trough and the thickest portion of the body to be measured

171. When obtaining a radiograph of the thoracic vertebrae, what level should be measured for the kVp setting? a. The cranial end of the thoracic vertebrae b. The caudal end of the thoracic vertebrae c. The lowest point of the thorax d. The highest point of the thorax

d. The highest point of the thorax

181. The trunk of an animal is defined as: a. The front half of the animal b. The back half of the animal c. The thorax of the animal d. The thorax and abdomen of the animal

d. The thorax and abdomen of the animal

202. For standard radiographs of the tarsus of a horse, which of the following is the correct weight distribution? a. The affected limb should be suspended with no weight on it for the duration of the x-ray b. There should be 25% weight bearing on the affected limb c. There should be 50% weight bearing on the affected limb d. The weight should be evenly distributed on all four legs

d. The weight should be evenly distributed on all four legs

188. An asthmatic cat may receive which of the following drugs for its bronchodilatory effect? a. Histamine b. Digoxin c. Prednisone d. Theophylline

d. Theophylline

38. What is the ratio between the toxic dose and therapeutic dose of a drug used as a measure of the relative safety of the drug for a particular treatment? a. Toxic index b. LD50 c. ED50 d. Therapeutic index

d. Therapeutic index

245. Most drugs that control arrhythmias of the heart are said to be "negative inotropes." What does this mean? a. They increase the heart rate. b. They decrease the heart rate. c. They increase the force of contractions. d. They decrease the force of contractions.

d. They decrease the force of contractions.

126. Which statement about organophosphates is incorrect? a. They are neurotoxic b. They are used for control of endoparasites and ectoparasites c. They have a narrow margin of safety d. They have relatively few side effects

d. They have relatively few side effects

92. Which of the following statements about glucocorticoids is true? a. If adverse effects are seen after long-term administration, treatment should be discontinued immediately b. They are generally considered safer to use than NSAIDs c. They are a type of NSAID d. They may cause immune-system suppression

d. They may cause immune-system suppression

422. Vitamin B1 is: a. Ascorbic acid b. Cyanocobalamin c. Riboflavin d. Thiamine

d. Thiamine

130. Physical signs of hypocoagulation include all of the following, except: a. Petechiae or ecchymoses b. Epistaxis c. Hematuria d. Thromboembolism

d. Thromboembolism

78. Different nitrogen bases are found in both DNA and RNA nucleotides. Which nucleotide is only found in DNA? a. Adenine (A) b. Cytosine (C) c. Guanine (G) d. Thymine (T)

d. Thymine (T)

208. Which of the following is a disadvantage of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay? a. Sensitivity b. Specificity c. Rapid results d. Titer detection

d. Titer detection

124. For which of the following diagnostics is low-power magnification on the microscope not used? a. To detect the presence of rouleaux b. To detect RBC agglutination c. To detect clumping of platelets d. To estimate platelet numbers

d. To estimate platelet numbers

661. What is the function of the retractor bulbi muscle? a. To move the eye upward b. To move the eye downward c. To move the eye outward d. To pull the eye deeper in the socket

d. To pull the eye deeper in the socket

420. The glossopharyngeal nerve is responsible for which of the following? a. Sensations from the head and teeth, chewing b. Eye movement c. Facial and scalp movement d. Tongue movement, swallowing, salivation, and taste

d. Tongue movement, swallowing, salivation, and taste

139. Which of the following is a lymphatic structure? a. Bile duct b. Islets of Langerhans c. Thyroid d. Tonsil

d. Tonsil

122. Oblique skull radiographs are used to evaluate which of the following in a rabbit? a. Incisors b. Lower dental arcade only c. Upper dental arcade only d. Tooth roots

d. Tooth roots

294. What causes dark granules called Döhle bodies in the cytoplasm of canine neutrophils? a. Leukemia b. Parasitic infection c. Immaturity d. Toxemia

d. Toxemia

442. A vaccine that produces immunity to a toxin is called a: a. Live b. Modified live c. Recombinant d. Toxoid

d. Toxoid

280. Which of these drugs most recently became controlled? a. Butorphanol b. Buprenorphine c. Fentanyl d. Tramadol

d. Tramadol

382. Which of the following drugs is a synthetic analog of codeine? a. Dextromethorphan b. Gabapentin c. Methocarbamol d. Tramadol

d. Tramadol

74. Which type of RNA copies the information in the DNA? a. Messenger RNA b. Ribosomal RNA c. Copy RNA d. Transfer RNA

d. Transfer RNA

197. The triangular-shaped muscle that originates from the dorsal midline and inserts on the spin of the scapula is which of the following? a. Latissimus dorsi b. Brachiocephalicus c. External intercostals d. Trapezius

d. Trapezius

466. Which of the following muscles of the horse is responsible for extending the elbow? a. Infraspinatus b. Gastrocnemius c. Pectoral d. Triceps

d. Triceps

421. What crystal is commonly described as having a coffin-lid appearance? a. Bilirubin crystal b. Calcium oxalate crystal c. Cystine crystal d. Triple phosphate crystal (Struvite)

d. Triple phosphate crystal (Struvite)

351. The acid-fast stain is used to identify the organism that causes: a. Anaplasmosis b. Colibacillosis c. Ringworm d. Tuberculosis

d. Tuberculosis

5. A prescription reads "2 tab q4h po prn until gone." The translation of these instructions is: a. Two tablets are to be taken four times per day for pain until all tablets are gone. b. Two tablets are to be taken four times per day under supervision by the veterinarian until all tablets are gone. c. Two tablets are to be taken every 4 hr with food and water until all tablets are gone. d. Two tablets are to be taken every 4 hr by mouth as needed until all tablets are gone.

d. Two tablets are to be taken every 4 hr by mouth as needed until all tablets are gone.

56. Clients should be cautioned against sticking Q-tips in the ears of their pets because they could rupture the: a. Oval window b. Round window c. Cochlea d. Tympanic membrane

d. Tympanic membrane

109. Why is UV-B lighting so important for herbivorous, insectivorous, and omnivorous lizards? a. UV-B lighting helps to keep these patients warm b. UV-B lighting helps with absorption of phosphorus and conversion of vitamin A c. UV-B lighting is required for absorption of vitamin C and normal behavior d. UV-B lighting is required for absorption of calcium and Vitamin D3 synthesis

d. UV-B lighting is required for absorption of calcium and Vitamin D3 synthesis

389. Which nucleotide occurs only in DNA? a. Adenine b. Guanine c. Cytosine d. Uracil

d. Uracil

156. Ammonia is metabolized by the liver and eliminated by the kidneys. Levels of which metabolic byproduct of ammonia are measured to assess kidney function? a. Phosphorus b. Creatinine c. Aspartate aminotransferase d. Urea nitrogen

d. Urea nitrogen

112. You are on an ambulatory call to Milkman's Dairy with Dr. Burrows. You are asked to bring the xylazine from the truck to sedate the patient. You are aware that when using this drug in the bovine, you must: a. Use adequate doses, because cattle tend to be resistant to its effects b. Always use it concurrently with a barbiturate to achieve adequate analgesia c. Not use xylazine because it is contraindicated in this species d. Use it at about of the equine dose

d. Use it at about of the equine dose

664. All of the following structures pass through the aortic hiatus, except: a. Aorta b. Thoracic duct c. Azygous vein d. Vagal nerve

d. Vagal nerve

10. A deformity, in which the interior angle of the joint, viewed frontally, is <180 degrees, is known as what? a. Axial rotation b. Windswept c. Valgus deformity d. Varus deformity

d. Varus deformity

253. Captopril is an example of a(n): a. Positive inotrope b. Antiarrhythmic c. Bronchodilator d. Vasodilator

d. Vasodilator

341. Which of the following body cavities is the largest? a. Dorsal b. Cranial c. Spinal d. Ventral

d. Ventral

38. On an electrocardiogram, the T wave is most closely associated with: a. Atrial depolarization b. Atrial repolarization c. Ventricular depolarization d. Ventricular repolarization

d. Ventricular repolarization

356. Which of the following drugs can be used to increase platelet numbers? a. Chlorambucil b. Doxorubicin c. Vinblastine d. Vincristine

d. Vincristine

349. What microorganisms are not free living? a. Algae b. Fungi c. Bacteria d. Viruses

d. Viruses

195. The __________ pleura overlays organs in the body. a. Parietal b. Viscous c. Partial d. Visceral

d. Visceral

380. In people, Toxocara canis is the causative agent of: a. Creeping eruption b. Scabies c. Hydatidosis d. Visceral larva migrans

d. Visceral larva migrans

51. The sensation of hunger falls under which general sense? a. Tactile sensation b. Pain sensation c. Proprioception d. Visceral sensation

d. Visceral sensation

96. Bird diets that include only seeds are often deficient in which of the following? a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin B d. Vitamin A

d. Vitamin A

83. A 3-month-old chow chow is presented to the pet emergency clinic because it has eaten a box of warfarin-based rat poison. Which of the following would be most useful to treat this toxicity? a. Protamine sulfate b. Coumarin c. Streptokinase d. Vitamin K

d. Vitamin K

170. Which of the following is/are not a side effect of oral glucocorticoid administration in dogs? a. Polyuria and polydipsia b. Polyphagia c. Hyperglycemia d. Vomiting

d. Vomiting

98. What precautions should you take when applying DMSO to an animal's skin? a. Wear a facial mask to avoid inhaling the fumes b. Apply a bandage to cover the area of application c. DMSO is irritating and should not be applied to skin d. Wear latex gloves to avoid contact with the drug

d. Wear latex gloves to avoid contact with the drug

57. Which condition would be typical of hypothyroidism? a. Decreased water consumption b. Oily hair coat c. Very active d. Weight gain

d. Weight gain

49. A snake presents to the clinic 12 hours after suspected foreign-body ingestion. Which of the following diagnostics should be performed first? a. Computed tomography b. Complete blood count c. Chemistry panel d. Whole-body radiographs

d. Whole-body radiographs

301. Each drug approved for use in food-producing animals has a time period given on the label between the last dose and when the animal can be slaughtered for food or when the milk can be sold. What is this period called? a. Half-life period b. Secretion period c. Refractory period d. Withdrawal period

d. Withdrawal period

629. The caudal end of the sternum of dogs is also referred to as the: a. Carpal b. Coxae c. Nuchae d. Xiphoid

d. Xiphoid

114. A cow is accidentally dosed with an equine dose of xylazine. What drug should be immediately administered? a. None; the equine and bovine doses of xylazine are the same b. Epinephrine c. Naloxone d. Yohimbine

d. Yohimbine

157. What is the reversal agent for xylazine? a. Fentanyl b. Naloxone c. Acepromazine d. Yohimbine

d. Yohimbine

20. A 10-kg dog has inadvertently been administered a dose of xylazine hydrochloride intended for a 30-kg dog. The correct reversal agent for this overdose is: a. Atropine b. Flumazenil c. Naloxone d. Yohimbine

d. Yohimbine

244. Radiographs of joints must include which of the following? a. The bones proximal to the joint b. The bones distal to the joint c. Only the joint needs to be imaged, excluding any surrounding bones d. of the bones proximal and distal to the joint

d. of the bones proximal and distal to the joint

250. What view is required for the evaluation of the nasal passages of small animals? a. Dorsoventral view b. Lateral view c. Rostrocaudal view d. Open-mouth view e. All of the above f. a and b only

e. All of the above

644. Which of the following are considered to be organic molecules? a. Lipids b. Proteins c. Nucleic acids d. Carbohydrates e. All of the above

e. All of the above

96. Which of the following factors should all personnel understand about MRI machines? a. No loose metallic objects can be near the machine b. It consists of a strong magnetic field c. The magnet is always on d. Every patient/employee should be screened for safety purposes e. All of the above

e. All of the above

127. Which of the following are ways to determine whether the animal is properly positioned in the ventrodorsal view? a. Rib and abdominal symmetry b. Wings of the ilium are symmetrical c. Coxofemoral joints are superimposed d. Rib heads are superimposed e. Both a and b f. Both c and d

e. Both a and b

350. Smooth muscle is found in which internal organ? a. Urinary bladder b. Heart c. Digestive tract d. All of the above e. Both a and c