Pendergast VTNE
344. The visceral layer of the peritoneum covers which organ? a. Digestive b. Urinary c. Reproductive d. All of the above
d. All of the above
133. The average weight of an adult chinchilla ranges between: a. 400 g-600 g b. 200 g-400 g c. 600 g-900 g d. 800 g-1200 g
a. 400 g-600 g
30. Total blood volume in the reptilian patient is approximately what percentage of the body weight? a. 5%-8% b. 4%-6% c. 8%-10% d. 10%-12%
a. 5%-8%
103. When does the soft tissue phase occur in nuclear medicine? a. 5-10 minutes after injection b. Immediately during injection c. 2-3 hours after injection d. 48 hours after injection
a. 5-10 minutes after injection
54. Which of the following are daily maintenance fluid amounts for the avian patient? a. 50-60 mL/kg/day b. 10-20 mL/kg/day c. 75-100 mL/kg/day d. 100-150 mg/kg/day
a. 50-60 mL/kg/day
268. What is the gestational period for cats? a. 56- 69 days b. 271- 291 days c. 42 days d. 19- 20 days
a. 56- 69 days
583. How many cervical vertebrae do rabbits have? a. 7 b. 8 c. 13 d. 15
a. 7
297. With the exception of cats, most animals have a total blood volume equivalent to ___ of their body weight. a. 7% b. 15% c. 25% d. 40%
a. 7%
34. How many mammary glands are typically found on a bitch? a. 8- 12 b. 12- 14 c. 4- 6 d. 10- 16
a. 8- 12
249. A total of 99% of the domestic shorthair cats in the United States have which blood type? a. A b. B c. AB d. O
a. A
96. What NSAID is administered to cats with a dosing interval of 2 days or more? a. Aspirin b. Ibuprofen c. Carprofen d. Naproxen
a. Aspirin
421. Tums can be administered to supplement: a. Calcium b. Vitamin B c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin E
a. Calcium
254. In which portion of the kidney is the renal corpuscle located? a. Cortex b. Medulla c. Renal sinus d. Hilum
a. Cortex
139. Bilirubinuria is considered a normal finding in what species? a. Dogs b. Cats c. Horses d. Sheep
a. Dogs
331. Which species contains a bone within the penis that is known as the os penis? a. Dogs b. Cats c. Horses d. Ruminants
a. Dogs
361. What are chemicals that dissolve or mix well in water called? a. Hydrophilic b. Hydrophobic c. Solute d. Solvent
a. Hydrophilic
26. Which of the following is not present in the reptilian urinary system? a. Loop of Henle b. Nephrons c. Glomerulus d. Ureters
a. Loop of Henle
46. What size of power outlet is required to run a digital dental unit? a. 70 kV b. 110 V c. 110 kV d. 8 mA
b. 110 V
53. What percentage of body weight can be tube fed at any given time to a bird? a. 2% b. 5% c. 10% d. 12%
b. 5%
432. Glucosamine/Chondroitin is a nutraceutical that is used to treat: a. Anemia b. Arthritis c. Pruritus d. Urinary incontinence
b. Arthritis
367. Otodectes cynotis is a: a. Cestode b. Arthropod c. Nematode d. Trematode
b. Arthropod
306. What is the formation called when one bone connects to another bone by articulation? a. Hinge b. Arthrosis c. Cartilage d. Ossification
b. Arthrosis
241. The term for accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity is: a. Pleural effusion b. Ascites c. Abscess d. Pneumothorax
b. Ascites
631. The sacrum of dogs is cranial to what structure? a. Ligamentum nuchae b. Coccygeal c. Lumbar vertebrae d. Atlas
b. Coccygeal
529. The pygostyle found in birds is located distal to which of the following? a. Sternum b. Coccygeal vertebrae c. Tibiotarsus d. Hallux
b. Coccygeal vertebrae
337. What test is routinely used to diagnose equine infectious anemia? a. Indirect fluorescent antibody test b. Coggins test c. Coombs test d. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
b. Coggins test
652. Amphibians and reptiles are commonly referred to as ectothermic, which is correctly described by which of the following? a. Warm-blooded b. Cold-blooded c. Endothermic d. Behavioral thermoregulation
b. Cold-blooded
227. Before beginning other diagnostics of the urine, a ___ examination of urine is recommended. a. Darkfield b. Gross c. Taste d. Microscopic
b. Gross
45. Thiobarbiturates should be administered with great care, or not at all, to: a. Collies b. Greyhounds c. Rottweilers d. Spaniels
b. Greyhounds
388. Which nucleotide occurs in both DNA and RNA? a. Thiamine b. Guanine c. Uracil d. Thymine
b. Guanine
149. Scatter radiation has a ____________ wavelength than the primary beam used in an x-ray. a. Shorter b. Longer c. Wider d. Thinner
b. Longer
252. What is the basic functional unit of the kidney? a. Cortex b. Nephron c. Bowman's capsule d. Loop of Henle
b. Nephron
280. Which of the following is the basic functional unit of the kidneys? a. Cortex b. Nephron c. Medulla d. Renal pelvis
b. Nephron
173. In what type of blood cell can Döhle bodies be found? a. Erythrocytes b. Neutrophils c. Platelets d. Nucleated RBCs
b. Neutrophils
83. What special stain would be used in assessing anemia? a. Lactophenol cotton blue b. New methylene blue c. Gram d. Acridine orange
b. New methylene blue
129. Oral hypoglycemic drugs, such as glipizide (Glucotrol), are used to treat: a. Diabetic ketoacidosis b. Non-insulin-dependent diabetes c. Hypoglycemia d. Pancreatitis
b. Non-insulin-dependent diabetes
116. The term rostral refers to toward the ___________. a. Head b. Nose c. Tail d. Middle
b. Nose
18. A hospital-acquired disease is known as: a. Endemic b. Nosocomial c. Ergasteric d. Iatrogenic
b. Nosocomial
92. Crystals in urine sediment often indicate: a. Uroliths b. Nothing c. Inflammation d. Urethral blockage
b. Nothing
182. A skin scraping will diagnose which parasite? a. Bovicola b. Notoedres c. Otodectes d. Ctenocephalides
b. Notoedres
386. The molecular building blocks of nucleic acids are known as: a. Chromosomes b. Nucleotides c. Proteins d. Carbohydrates
b. Nucleotides
626. Which bone is the most caudal bone of the skull in small animals? a. Parietal bone b. Occipital bone c. Interparietal bone d. Temporal bone
b. Occipital bone
203. For a lateromedial view of the tarsal joint of a horse, the cassette should be placed in which position? a. On the lateral surface b. On the medial surface c. On the plantar surface d. On the plantaromedial surface
b. On the medial surface
261. Which of the following best defines the term cryptorchidism? a. Torsion of one or both testicles b. One or both testes do not fully descend into the scrotum c. The surgical removal of both testicles d. An inflammatory condition of the testis
b. One or both testes do not fully descend into the scrotum
238. When using a centrifuge, it is important to do all of the following each time it is used, except: a. Balance the tubes b. Open the lid as the centrifuge is in the process of stopping c. Set the timer d. Check tube holders for leaked liquid
b. Open the lid as the centrifuge is in the process of stopping
65. In the avian patient, what is the choana? a. Part of the urinary system where the ureter connects to the kidney b. Opening at the roof of the mouth that connects the trachea to sinuses and the nares c. The common holding area for urine, urates, and feces before being excreted from the body d. Small metacarpal bone in the distal wing
b. Opening at the roof of the mouth that connects the trachea to sinuses and the nares
433. What area is known as the blind spot of the eye? a. Optic nerve b. Optic disc c. Rod d. Cone
b. Optic disc
427. Which of the following contains receptor cells for hearing? a. Tympanic membrane b. Organ of Corti c. Vestibule d. Incus
b. Organ of Corti
379. Which type of diuretic is used to treat increased intracranial pressure? a. Loop b. Osmotic c. Potassium-sparing d. Thiazide
b. Osmotic
394. Which of the following ticks is considered a single host tick? a. Boophilus annulatus b. Otobius megnini c. Ixodid sp. d. Argasidae sp.
b. Otobius megnini
406. What parasite completes its life cycle on or in its host? a. Ctenocephalides species b. Otodectes species c. Hypoderma species d. Dermacentor species
b. Otodectes species
85. The mesovarium ligament supports which organ? a. Testicles b. Ovaries c. Oviduct d. Uterus
b. Ovaries
135. Which of the following could cause a false diagnosis of a pneumothorax on a radiograph? a. Underexposure of film b. Overexposure of film c. Panting d. Motion artifacts
b. Overexposure of film
522. During the estrus phase of the mare, which of the following occurs? a. Follicle development b. Ovulation c. Secretion of estrogen d. Estrus does not occur in the mare
b. Ovulation
138. Which of the following diets is most appropriate for a ferret? a. Oxbow Herbivore Care b. Oxbow Carnivore Care c. Ground alfalfa pellets d. Sweet potato baby food
b. Oxbow Carnivore Care
105. The reproductive organ in the male lizard consists of: a. Single phallus b. Paired hemipenes c. External testicles d. Bilobed phallus
b. Paired hemipenes
319. Which of the following is derived from the testicular veins, surrounds the testicular artery, and are described as multiple tiny veins? a. Spermatic cord b. Pampiniform plexus c. Cremaster plexus d. Vas deferens
b. Pampiniform plexus
112. The small intestine receives digestive enzymes from the: a. Kidney b. Pancreas c. Liver d. Spleen
b. Pancreas
80. The islets of Langerhans are found in the: a. Spleen b. Pancreas c. Liver d. Kidney
b. Pancreas
142. The only dental radiographic view that can be made with a true parallel technique is: a. Rostral maxillary b. Parallel mandibular view c. Rostral mandibular view d. Parallel oblique view
b. Parallel mandibular view
329. Which of these parasites is a tapeworm? a. Strongyloides westeri b. Paranoplocephala mamillana c. Parascaris equorum d. Oxyuris equi
b. Paranoplocephala mamillana
265. Eosinophilia is commonly seen with a: a. Bacterial infection b. Parasitic infection c. Viral infection d. Hormonal disorder
b. Parasitic infection
417. Spinal nerves from the sacral region carry which type of nerve fiber? a. Sympathetic nerve fibers b. Parasympathetic nerve fibers c. Both d. Neither
b. Parasympathetic nerve fibers
159. The hormone primarily responsible for preventing hypocalcemia is: a. T4 b. Parathyroid hormone c. Calcitonin d. Vitamin D
b. Parathyroid hormone
185. Which of the following options is not zoonotic? a. Toxoplasma b. Parvovirus c. Dipylidium d. Giardia
b. Parvovirus
177. Which of the following is the best technique to consider for an abdominal x-ray? a. Peak inspiration b. Peak expiration c. Panting d. Consideration of breathing techniques is not necessary for abdominal x-rays
b. Peak expiration
548. The vitreous humor in the posterior chamber of the eye contains a ribbonlike structure attached to the retina, and it is known as what? a. Nictitating membrane b. Pecten c. Third eyelid d. Optic nerve
b. Pecten
205. A skull suture is an example of what type of joint? a. Diarthrosis b. Synarthrosis c. Amphiarthrosis d. Cartilaginous
b. Synarthrosis
358. Which type of chemical reaction occurs in the body when the simple molecules absorbed during the digestive process are joined into larger molecules needed by cells for life processes? a. Decomposition reaction b. Synthesis reaction c. Exchange reaction d. None of the above
b. Synthesis reaction
553. The combined effect of air passing through the larynx and what other structure produces the characteristic sounds associated with the bird species? a. Glottis b. Syrinx c. Bronchi d. Choana
b. Syrinx
218. Which circulation system is under the highest pressure? a. Coronary circulation b. Systemic circulation c. Pulmonary circulation d. All of the circulatory systems are under the same pressure
b. Systemic circulation
281. A drug's package insert states that the drug is an anticestodal. Against what type of parasite will this drug be effective? a. Ascarids (Toxocara, Toxascaris) b. Tapeworms (Taenia) c. Protozoa (Eimeria, Giardia) d. Flukes (liver fluke, lung fluke)
b. Tapeworms (Taenia)
282. What cell is described as a central rounded area of hemoglobin surrounded by a clear zone, with a dense ring of hemoglobin around the periphery? a. Plasma cell b. Target cell c. Spherocyte d. Reticulocyte
b. Target cell
164. An example of a short bone would be a: a. Vertebra b. Tarsal bone c. Scapula d. Patella
b. Tarsal bone
84. What is the term used to describe a medical magnet's field strength? a. Gauss b. Tesla c. Polarity d. Precession
b. Tesla
22. Nonrenal causes of increased levels of urea might include: a. The amount of carbohydrate ingested b. The amount of protein ingested c. Insufficient insulin d. Insufficient ADH
b. The amount of protein ingested
386. Regarding the concentration of a solution, molality is known as: a. The number of moles per liter of solution b. The amount of solute per kilogram of solvent c. The grams per liter of solution d. The number of solute particles per liter
b. The amount of solute per kilogram of solvent
340. The dorsal body cavity contains which of the following structures? a. Brain b. Chest c. Spinal cord d. Both a and c
d. Both a and c
234. Which of the following is known as the largest gland in the body? a. Pancreas b. Thyroid c. Liver d. Spleen
b. Thyroid
173. Adult cattle have how many upper incisors? a. 6 b. 4 c. 0 d. 5
c. 0
150. What is the typical wavelength of a medical x-ray? a. 0.05-0.01 mm b. 0.05-0.01 m c. 0.05-0.01 nm d. 0.05-0.01 dm
c. 0.05-0.01 nm
428. What is the maximum rate at which you can administer IV potassium? a. 0.9 mEq/kg/hr b. 1.0 mEq/kg/hr c. 0.5 mEq/kg/hr d. 0.7 mEq/kg/hr
c. 0.5 mEq/kg/hr
20. Pulse wave imaging can detect velocities up to a maximum of __________ m/s. a. 0.5 b. 1.0 c. 1.4 d. 2.2
c. 1.4
31. Total blood volume in the avian patient is approximately what percentage of the body weight? a. 5% b. 7% c. 10% d. 12%
c. 10%
191. During an x-ray, a tabletop technique is most commonly used for exotic companion animals, except when the species' girth exceeds which diameter? a. 2-5 cm b. 5-10 cm c. 10-12 cm d. 12-15 cm
c. 10-12 cm
451. Atipamezole, when administered SC to rabbits, can reverse the effects of medetomidine within: a. 2-5 minutes b. 5-10 minutes c. 10-25 minutes d. 25-30 minutes
c. 10-25 minutes
607. At what age do the testes descend in the rabbit? a. Less than 10 days b. 8 weeks c. 12 weeks d. Rabbits' testes do not descend
c. 12 weeks
523. How long does the diestrus phase of the mare last? a. 7- 21 days b. 3- 5 days c. 14- 16 days d. 35 days
c. 14- 16 days
8. What is the speed of sound through fat tissue? a. 330 m/s b. 600 m/s c. 1460 m/s d. 1480 m/s
c. 1460 m/s
521. How long does the typical estrous cycle last in the mare? a. 5- 7 days b. 7- 14 days c. 17- 21 days d. 23- 31 days
c. 17- 21 days
443. How many ribs does the horse have? a. 5 b. 15 c. 18 d. 6
c. 18
348. In assessing titers, how long after the first serum sample is collected should the second sample be collected? a. 7 days b. 3 days c. 2 to 6 weeks d. 14 weeks
c. 2 to 6 weeks
512. At what age do the male testicles of the horse reach their full adult size? a. 6 months b. 1 year c. 2 years d. 5 years
c. 2 years
593. What is the average litter size of rabbits? a. 1- 2 b. 2- 3 c. 2- 7 d. 6- 12
c. 2- 7
435. What is the appropriate amount of time needed for antibiotics to dissolve struvite crystals? a. 3-5 days b. 10-14 days c. 2-3 months d. 6 months
c. 2-3 months
360. The doctor asks you to fill oral metronidazole, 10 mg/kg po BID for 7 days. The dog weighs 37.5 kg and you have 250-mg tablets available in the hospital. How many tablets do you fill? a. 7 b. 14 c. 21 d. 42
c. 21
304. How many milligrams are in each milliliter of a 24% solution? a. 24 b. 2.4 c. 240 d. 0.24
c. 240
255. Approximately what percentage of blood, pumped by the heart, goes to the kidneys? a. 5% b. 10% c. 25% d. 60%
c. 25%
281. What percentage of blood pumped from the heart travels to the kidneys? a. 1% b. 10% c. 25% d. 50%
c. 25%
6. Ten mL of a 2.5% solution of thiopentone contains: a. 2.5 mg of thiopentone b. 25 mg of thiopentone c. 250 mg of thiopentone d. 2500 mg of thiopentone
c. 250 mg of thiopentone
258. The ureters are composed of how many layers? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
c. 3
293. How many different cell shapes are found within the epithelial cells? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
c. 3
528. Most birds have _______ toes pointing forward. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. None
c. 3
568. How many lobes does the pancreas of birds have? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. None, birds do not have a pancreas
c. 3
358. The doctor ordered a patient to receive Unasyn, 1200 mg IV. After reconstitution, the Unasyn has a concentration of 375 mg/mL. How many mL will you administer? a. 0.31 mL b. 1.2 mL c. 3.2 mL d. 6.4 mL
c. 3.2 mL
310. Generally, 1 fluid ounce is equal to approximately how many milliliters of liquid? a. 1 b. 15 c. 30 d. 60
c. 30
34. When performing urinalysis testing, the sample should be analyzed within ___ minutes, or refrigeration is required. a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40
c. 30
138. How long should veterinary facilities maintain dosimetry reports? a. 5 years b. 20 years c. 30 years d. 1 year following separation of an employee
c. 30 years
619. After mating occurs in ferrets, ovulation occurs within: a. 30 minutes b. 1- 2 hours c. 30- 40 hours d. 3 days
c. 30- 40 hours
126. What is the range of the gestational period in a rabbit? a. 30-35 days b. 34-38 days c. 31-32 days d. 28-30 days
c. 31-32 days
52. A computer tomography x-ray tube can rotate how many degrees? a. 270 degrees b. 180 degrees c. 360 degrees d. None, it does not rotate
c. 360 degrees
345. The animal body is made up of ________ different tissues. a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8
c. 4
594. What is the weaning age of rabbits? a. 6- 8 weeks b. 3- 4 weeks c. 4- 6 weeks d. 18 days
c. 4- 6 weeks
206. Which breed of dog has the most problems with uric acid stones? a. Basenji b. German shepherd c. Dalmatian d. Shetland sheepdog
c. Dalmatian
18. The benzodiazepine derivative diazepam is often administered in combination with: a. Droperidol b. Morphine c. Ketamine d. Xylazine
c. Ketamine
384. L-asparaginase, a chemotherapeutic, is used most commonly for: a. Hemangiosarcoma b. Mast cell tumors c. Lymphoma d. Osteosarcoma
c. Lymphoma
648. The digestion of absorbed material is performed by which organelle? a. Peroxisomes b. Ribosomes c. Lysosomes d. Mitochondria
c. Lysosomes
70. Which of the red blood cell indices indicates cell size? a. MCH b. MCHC c. MCV d. MPV
c. MCV
9. The control of color changes in the pigment cells of reptiles, fish, and amphibians is associated with which hormone? a. FSH b. LH c. MSH d. TSH
c. MSH
643. Which of the following is the most proximal bone of the thoracic limb? a. Ulna b. Humerus c. Scapula d. Brachium
c. Scapula
405. Macrolides inhibit bacterial ribosomal action by binding which subunit? a. 30s b. 40s c. 50s d. 60s
50s
501. At what level of "fullness" does the horse's stomach empty? a. full b. full c. full d. Completely full
WTF?
112. The muscular layer that makes up the majority of the heart mass is the: a. Myocardium b. Endocardium c. Myometrium d. Pericardium
a Myocardium
417. Which statement concerning fleas is true? a. "Flea dirt" is flea feces b. Fleas are host specific c. Adults cannot survive for long periods without feeding d. Flea eggs are not sticky and they fall off into the environment
a. "Flea dirt" is flea feces
606. Rabbits have _______ renal medullary pyramid( s). a. 1 b. 2 c. 6 d. 9
a. 1
443. How quickly must slides evaluating bone marrow samples be made if EDTA is used? a. 1 hour b. Immediately c. 15 minutes d. EDTA cannot be used for bone marrow samples
a. 1 hour
495. How much are the occlusal surfaces worn down every year in the horse? a. 1- 2 mm b. 5- 10 mm c. 10- 20 mm d. None, they continuously grow and are never worn down
a. 1- 2 mm
220. In what animal is the use of enrofloxacin safest? a. 1-year-old Dutch rabbit b. 3-month-old Doberman puppy c. 6-month-old quarter horse colt d. 2-year-old Siamese cat
a. 1-year-old Dutch rabbit
142. Sasha, an 11-year-old spayed female domestic shorthair cat, was accidentally overhydrated with IV fluids. What would you expect her urine specific gravity to be? a. 1.002 b. 1.012 c. 1.030 d. 1.060
a. 1.002
140. Sadie, a 17-year-old spayed female domestic shorthair cat, is in the final stages of chronic renal failure. On presentation, you anticipate that her urine specific gravity will probably be a. 1.012 b. 1.030 c. 1.040 d. 1.060
a. 1.012
36. The average urine specific gravity for a healthy adult dog is __________. a. 1.025 b. 1.035 c. 1.040 d. 1.045
a. 1.025
127. What is the normal rectal temperature range in the rabbit? a. 101° F-104° F b. 99.5° F-102.5° F c. 100° F-103° F d. 98.5° F-100.5° F
a. 101° F-104° F
292. What do 15 gr and 10 g mean on a prescription? a. 15 grains and 10 grams b. 15 grains and 10 grains c. 15 grams and 10 grams d. 15 grams and 10 grains
a. 15 grains and 10 grams
208. To obtain a dorsopalmar view of the interphalangeal joint, what should the primary beam angle be proximal to distal? a. 15-20 degrees b. 30-45 degrees c. 45-60 degrees d. 90 degrees
a. 15-20 degrees
27. What is the maximum number of focal points that are recommended for use in ultrasound? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
a. 2
556. During the respiration process of birds, air circulates continuously and passes through the lungs ______ times. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
a. 2
363. Which of the following levels is considered the most acidic of the pH scale? a. 2.5 b. 5 c. 7 d. 12
a. 2.5
484. What is the normal heart rate for a horse at rest? a. 25- 42 bpm b. 40- 140 bpm c. 48- 84 bpm d. 260- 600 bpm
a. 25- 42 bpm
592. What is the gestational period of rabbits? a. 28- 32 days b. 111 days c. 63 days d. 19- 21 days
a. 28- 32 days
620. What is the average gestational period of a ferret? a. 28- 32 days b. 42 days c. 63 days d. 111 days
a. 28- 32 days
140. The proper diet in a ferret contains: a. 30%-40% protein and 15%-30% fat b. 50%-60% protein and 15%-30% fat c. 40%-50% protein and 15%-30% carbohydrates d. 25%-30% protein and 50% carbohydrates
a. 30%-40% protein and 15%-30% fat
42. What is the speed of sound through air? a. 330 m/s b. 600 m/s c. 1540 m/s d. 4080 m/s
a. 330 m/s
588. What is the normal respiratory rate of rabbits? a. 35- 60 breaths/ min b. 40- 80 breaths/ min c. 100- 250 breaths/ min d. 90- 150 breaths/ min
a. 35- 60 breaths/ min
28. Which of the following frequencies will allow for the deepest level of penetration in ultrasound? a. 4 MHz b. 5 MHz c. 9 MHz d. 12 MHz
a. 4 MHz
19. Leukopenia is defined as: a. A decrease in white blood cells b. An increase in white blood cells c. A bone marrow disease d. A type of blood cancer
a. A decrease in white blood cells
30. Horses typically have higher _____ values than other species. a. AST b. ALP c. ALT d. GGT
a. AST
122. What is the actual true stomach called in ruminants? a. Abomasum b. Reticulum c. Rumen d. Omasum
a. Abomasum
207. Keeping the urine ____________ will keep struvite crystals dissolved in solution. a. Acidic b. Basic c. Isosthenuric d. Dilute
a. Acidic
196. A cat is given methionine to alter the pH of his urine in an effort to dissolve his struvite stones. The drug has which of the following intended effects? a. Acidification of the urine b. Alkalinization of the urine c. Dilution of urine d. Concentration of the urine
a. Acidification of the urine
337. In a dog with a bite wound on the forelimb, which of the following will increase blood flow and thus delivery of a drug to the area of interest? a. Acute inflammation b. Shock c. Necrosis d. Hemorrhage
a. Acute inflammation
346. An owner gives you a list of products and asks you which is most likely to prevent her dog from acquiring Rocky Mountain spotted fever. What would you advise her? a. Advantix b. Heartgard c. Revolution d. Interceptor
a. Advantix
324. A drug's tendency to bind to a receptor is called its: a. Affinity b. Efficacy c. Specificity d. Effective dose
a. Affinity
11. Where should the cassette be held when obtaining a dorsomedial-palmarolateral oblique view of the carpus of a horse? a. Against the palmarolateral aspect of the leg b. Against the medial aspect of the leg c. Against the palmaromedial aspect of the leg d. Against the palmar aspect of the carpus
a. Against the palmarolateral aspect of the leg
209. Which of the following clinical tests may be influenced when a toxic dose of acetaminophen has been ingested? a. Alanine aminotransferase b. Ammonia c. Blood pH d. Calcium
a. Alanine aminotransferase
254. In dogs and cats, the blood chemistry tests most commonly used to evaluate liver function are: a. Alanine transaminase and aspartate aminotransferase b. Electrolytes and blood urea nitrogen c. Gamma-glutamyl transferase and sorbitol dehydrogenase d. Amylase and lipase
a. Alanine transaminase and aspartate aminotransferase
413. An intestinal fluke is of the: a. Alaria species b. Fascioloides species c. Stephanurus species d. Metastrongylus species
a. Alaria species
314. Which of the following medications was approved for use in the United States in 2014 and is being compared to propofol? a. Alfaxalone b. Etomidate c. Thiopental d. Telazol
a. Alfaxalone
50. Intradermal injections are used primarily for: a. Allergy testing b. Antibiotics c. Insulin d. Vaccinations
a. Allergy testing
48. Which endocrine cells of the pancreatic islets produce the hormone glucagon? a. Alpha cells b. Beta cells c. Delta cells d. Somatostatin
a. Alpha cells
530. Which of the following structures is the first digit in birds? a. Alula b. Major metacarpal c. Tarsometatarsus d. Hallux.
a. Alula
93. Which of the following species lacks an epiglottis? a. Amazon parrot b. German shepherd c. Persian cat d. New Zealand white rabbit
a. Amazon parrot
62. In what class of antibiotic drugs are nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity potential side effects? a. Aminoglycosides b. Barbiturates c. Dissociative anesthetics d. Phenothiazine tranquilizers
a. Aminoglycosides
162. Which of the following drugs is used to treat feline hypertension? a. Amlodipine b. Erythromycin c. Amitriptyline d. Atropine
a. Amlodipine
60. Serum chemistry tests for acute pancreatitis include: a. Amylase and lipase b. Lipase and trypsin c. Amylase and trypsin d. Amylase, lipase, and trypsin
a. Amylase and lipase
266. When an animal is said to be in a period of temporary ovarian inactivity, this is known as: a. Anestrus b. Diestrus c. Pseudocyesis d. Heat
a. Anestrus
205. Antimicrobial drugs that work against bacterial deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) have the potential for causing birth defects or other problems in the host animal if they also alter mammalian DNA. One group of antimicrobial agents known for this tendency is: a. Antifungals b. Antibacterials c. Antivirals d. Antiprotozoals
a. Antifungals
6. An iodine scrub on skin would result in: a. Antisepsis b. Disinfection c. Fumigation d. Sterilization
a. Antisepsis
74. Butorphanol tartrate is an example of a drug that functions on more than one body system. It is both an analgesic and a(n) ________. a. Antitussive b. Expectorant c. Tranquilizer d. Emetic
a. Antitussive
265. What type of medication is sucralfate (Carafate)? a. Antiulcer b. Antidiarrheal c. Antibloat d. Anticonstipation
a. Antiulcer
100. Which of the following is not a controlled substance? a. Apomorphine b. Diazepam c. Ketamine d. Hydromorphone
a. Apomorphine
64. What does the acronym ALARA stand for? a. As low as reasonably achievable b. Animal limited anatomical radiation assessment c. As large as radiation accepts d. None of the above
a. As low as reasonably achievable
271. Which of the following is most likely to cause gastrointestinal ulcerations? a. Aspirin b. Deracoxib c. Carprofen d. Meloxicam
a. Aspirin
150. A client is advised to discontinue aspirin therapy in his dysplastic dog before the dog undergoes surgery to remove a mammary tumor. The client asks you why this request was made. You tell him: a. Aspirin decreases platelet aggregation and may increase the likelihood of hemorrhage b. Aspirin may result in gastrointestinal ulceration c. Aspirin may adversely affect hepatic biotransformation d. Aspirin has an anti-inflammatory effect
a. Aspirin decreases platelet aggregation and may increase the likelihood of hemorrhage
255. To obtain a lateral projection of the pelvis, which area should be used for measurement? a. At the highest level of the trochanter b. The thickest part of the pelvis c. The thinnest part of the pelvis d. The level of the 7th vertebrae
a. At the highest level of the trochanter
79. The P wave component of a QRS complex usually corresponds to: a. Atrial contraction b. Ventricular contraction c. Atrial relaxation d. Electrical conduction in Purkinje fibers
a. Atrial contraction
490. On an electrocardiogram, the P wave is most closely associated with: a. Atrial depolarization b. Atrial repolarization c. Ventricular depolarization d. Ventricular repolarization
a. Atrial depolarization
2. All of the following are important functions of bacterial fimbriae, except: a. Attachment b. Locomotion c. Ion transport d. Antibiotic resistance
a. Attachment
158. Kidney disease results in accumulation of metabolic waste in the blood, a condition known as: a. Azotemia b. Bilirubinemia c. Hypernatremia d. Hyperkalemia
a. Azotemia
319. What cells are chiefly concerned with the production and secretion of antibodies? a. B lymphocytes b. T lymphocytes c. Neutrophils d. Monocytes
a. B lymphocytes
48. What biochemical tests are not considered part of a primary hepatic profile? a. BUN and creatinine b. Cholestatic enzymes c. Hepatocellular leakage enzymes d. Total protein and albumin
a. BUN and creatinine
1. What is the morphology of Vibrio spp. bacteria? a. Bacillus b. Coccus c. Spirochete d. Coccobacillus
a. Bacillus
381. A large ciliate protozoa that may be found in swine feces is: a. Balantidium species b. Trichomonas species c. Giardia species d. Histomonas species
a. Balantidium species
183. Which contrast is commonly used for GI studies when perforation is not suspected? a. Barium sulfate b. Meglumine diatrizoate c. Sodium diatrizoate d. Betadine
a. Barium sulfate
474. Which of the following structures of the horse's hoof allows for expansion and provides strength? a. Bars b. Frog c. Sole d. Coronet
a. Bars
312. The trade name for diphenhydramine is: a. Benadryl b. Prozac c. Dulcolax d. Panacur
a. Benadryl
608. The female rabbit has which type of uterus? a. Bicornuate b. Didelphic c. Unicornuate d. Septate
a. Bicornuate
287. Which of the following is a breakdown product of hemoglobin? a. Bilirubin b. Erythropoietin c. Urea d. Carotene
a. Bilirubin
322. Cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) is associated with: a. Blood flow to the kidney b. Healing c. Inflammation d. Pain
a. Blood flow to the kidney
212. Which fluid sample is the major vehicle for the transporting of toxicants within the body? a. Blood/plasma b. Feces c. Hair d. Urine
a. Blood/plasma
68. Which of the following types of tissue absorb the most radiation? a. Bone b. Soft tissue c. Fat d. Bone, fat, and soft tissue absorb the same amount of radiation
a. Bone
178. What caudal landmark is used when obtaining a lateral x-ray of the pelvis? a. Border of the ischium b. Wings of the ilium c. The xiphoid process d. The greater trochanter of the femur
a. Border of the ischium
55. The etiologic agent of Lyme disease is: a. Borrelia burgdorferi b. Coronavirus c. Lentivirus d. Pasteurella multocida
a. Borrelia burgdorferi
542. For a bird to land, the tail is used as a __________, and the wings are extended into a stall position. a. Brake b. Guide c. Thrust d. Perch
a. Brake
15. What is the correct definition of the abbreviation B-mode in ultrasound? a. Brightness b. Bits c. Binary d. Power mode
a. Brightness
419. Aminophylline is known as a: a. Bronchodilator b. Decongestant c. Expectorant d. Mucolytic
a. Bronchodilator
240. Drugs used to increase airflow, through respiratory passageways narrowed by the relaxation of smooth muscle around them, are called: a. Bronchodilators b. Expectorants c. Antitussives d. Antihistamines
a. Bronchodilators
125. Male rabbits are referred to as: a. Bucks b. Hobbs c. Toms d. Colts
a. Bucks
380. Which of the following medications is an opioid? a. Buprenorphine b. Carprofen c. Lidocaine d. Naloxone
a. Buprenorphine
58. A drug that has extreme potential for abuse and no approved medicinal purpose in the United States is classified as: a. C-I b. C-II c. C-IV d. C-V
a. C-I
187. Which of the following clinical signs may indicate that an animal is experiencing lidocaine toxicity? a. CNS signs: drowsiness, ataxia, muscle tremors b. Renal signs: oliguria c. Hepatic signs: jaundice, clotting problems d. Respiratory signs: labored respirations, bronchoconstriction
a. CNS signs: drowsiness, ataxia, muscle tremors
215. Which of the following is not considered an electrolyte? a. Calcium b. Sodium c. Potassium d. Chloride
a. Calcium
146. In an animal with a history of bone resorption or convulsions, blood chemistry analysis is commonly performed to measure blood levels of: a. Calcium and phosphorus b. Urea nitrogen and creatinine c. Aspartate aminotransferase and alanine transaminase d. Sodium and potassium
a. Calcium and phosphorus
313. Which of the following will not be used to decrease the potassium in a cat with a urethral obstruction? a. Calcium gluconate b. Dextrose c. Insulin d. Sodium bicarbonate
a. Calcium gluconate
4. Which of the listed diseases best fits the statement that follows?It is most commonly transmitted by aerosol exposure, but it can also be spread by direct contact with conjunctival and nasal exudates, urine, feces, skin, and sometimes fomites. The incubation period is generally 7 to 10 days in the ferret. The disease spreads by viremia after it is in the body, and it is almost always fatal. a. Canine distemper virus b. Influenza B c. Pneumocystis carinii d. Cryptococcosis
a. Canine distemper virus
444. Which of the following can affect drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination? a. Cardiac disease b. Kidney disease c. Liver disease d. Pancreatic disease
a. Cardiac disease
136. The best urine collection method to assess the patency of the urethra is: a. Catheterization b. Manual expression c. Free catch d. Cystocentesis
a. Catheterization
305. Haemobartonella felis is seen most commonly in the erythrocytes of: a. Cats b. Cattle c. Dogs d. Horses
a. Cats
424. What species should receive prednisolone instead of prednisone? a. Cats b. Cows c. Dogs d. Swine
a. Cats
120. Erythropoietin is primarily used in the following feline patients: a. Cats with anemia because of chronic renal failure b. Cats with anemia resulting from rodenticide toxicity c. Cats with aortic thromboembolism secondary to cardiomyopathy d. Cats suffering from Tylenol toxicity
a. Cats with anemia because of chronic renal failure
393. Bloat-Pac is indicated for frothy bloat in: a. Cattle b. Dogs c. Pigs d. Horses
a. Cattle
682. Which vein returns deoxygenated blood from the pelvic region, hind limbs, and abdominal viscera? a. Caudal vena cava b. Aorta c. Iliac veins d. Pulmonary vein
a. Caudal vena cava
33. Which of the following is the correct abbreviation to perform a caudalocranial radiograph? a. CdCr b. Dpa c. CrCd d. Cr
a. CdCr
120. Night feces in the rabbit are also referred to as: a. Cecotrophs b. Cecumliths c. Fusustrophs d. Colonoliths
a. Cecotrophs
504. All of the following are part of the small intestine, except: a. Cecum b. Duodenum c. Jejunum d. Ileum
a. Cecum
402. The mechanism of action of beta-lactams is interference with: a. Cell wall synthesis b. Protein synthesis c. The uptake of nutrients d. DNA synthesis
a. Cell wall synthesis
141. When obtaining a caudocranial view of the scapula of a small animal, where should the central ray be located? a. Center of the scapula b. Center of the humerus c. At the level of the eighth rib d. At the first thoracic vertebral body
a. Center of the scapula
213. To obtain a dorsoventral view of the thorax of a rabbit, where should the center of the beam be focused? a. Centered over the heart b. Centered over the liver c. Center of the body cranial to caudal d. Centered over the thoracolumbar area
a. Centered over the heart
15. What system is anatomically composed of the brain and spinal cord? a. Central nervous system b. Peripheral nervous system c. parasympathetic nervous system d. Sympathetic nervous system
a. Central nervous system
203. An example of an irregular bone is: a. Cervical vertebra 1 b. Metacarpal 3 c. Ulna d. Scapula
a. Cervical vertebra
79. The captive diet of sugar gliders includes all of the following except: a. Chicken b. Insects c. Fruits d. Nectar
a. Chicken
46. What drug is not used in the treatment of glaucoma? a. Chloramphenicol b. Carbachol c. Latanoprost d. Pilocarpine
a. Chloramphenicol
350. Which of the following should be avoided or at least diluted out 1 : 100 when cleaning an ear? a. Chlorhexidine b. Saline solution c. Vinegar and water d. Cleaning solution
a. Chlorhexidine
414. Plavix is the brand name for: a. Clopidogrel b. Nitroprusside c. Sildenafil d. Tadalafil
a. Clopidogrel
86. Which of the following is the causative agent of Tyzzer's disease? a. Clostridium piliforme b. Escherichia coli c. Lawsonia intracellularis d. Francisella tularensis
a. Clostridium piliforme
419. The urine of an animal with hematuria is likely to be: a. Cloudy and red b. Clear and brown c. Red and clear d. Brown and cloudy
a. Cloudy and red
336. Hemagglutination is: a. Clumping of erythrocytes b. Lysing of erythrocytes c. Crenation of erythrocytes d. Swelling of erythrocytes
a. Clumping of erythrocytes
426. Which of the following is part of the inner ear? a. Cochlea b. Malleus c. Incus d. Tympanic membrane
a. Cochlea
131. In a dorsoventral view on a small animal x-ray, which organ appears in the shape of a question mark? a. Colon b. Spleen c. Right kidney d. Diaphragm
a. Colon
5. A bacterial genus can best be described as: a. Composed of one or more species b. Composed of classes c. Composed of families d. Belonging to a species
a. Composed of one or more species
215. Systole is: a. Contraction of the atria and ventricles b. Relaxation of the atria and ventricles c. Contraction of the atria and relaxation of the ventricles d. Relaxation of the atria and contraction of the ventricles
a. Contraction of the atria and ventricles
324. What serologic test is used for the diagnosis of autoimmune hemolytic anemia? a. Coombs test b. Coggins test c. Intradermal testing d. Latex agglutination test
a. Coombs test
642. The junction between the bone and the cartilage of the ribs is referred to as the: a. Costochondral junction b. Xiphoid process c. Asternal ribs d. Manubrium
a. Costochondral junction
143. Ruminants have what type of placentation? a. Cotyledonary b. Zonary c. Diffuse d. Discoid.
a. Cotyledonary
126. Which of the following are ways to determine if the animal is properly positioned in the lateral view? a. Coxofemoral joints are superimposed b. Intervertebral foramina are different sizes c. Rib heads are perpendicular d. Transverse processes are perpendicular at the origin from the vertebral bodies
a. Coxofemoral joints are superimposed
557. The air in the ______ air sac passes straight through the lungs and out. a. Cranial b. Thoracic c. Abdominal d. Humerus
a. Cranial
210. To obtain a caudocranial view of the femorotibial joint of the horse, the cassette should be placed against which surface? a. Cranial aspect b. Caudal aspect c. Lateral aspect d. Medial aspect
a. Cranial aspect
113. The abbreviation CrCd refers to which of the following? a. Craniocaudal b. Mediolateral c. Dorsopalmar d. Dorsoplantar
a. Craniocaudal
289. Which structure of the male reproductive system is responsible for adjusting the location of the testis based on temperature? a. Cremaster muscle b. Spermatic cord c. Scrotum d. Inguinal rings
a. Cremaster muscle
330. Which of these parasites is classified as coccidia? a. Cryptosporidium parvum b. Bunostomum phlebotomum c. Moniezia expansa d. Haemonchus contortus
a. Cryptosporidium parvum
62. Which of the following best describes the word tomography? a. Cut or section b. Whole c. Point of interest d. A series of boxes or individual shades of information
a. Cut or section
376. The drug that treats autoimmune diseases and pruritus associated with atopic dermatitis is known as: a. Cyclosporine b. Interferon omega c. Ketoconazole d. Phytosphingosine
a. Cyclosporine
87. What are the two diagnostic forms of Giardia? a. Cysts and trophozoites b. Merozoites and schizonts c. Oocysts and sporocysts d. Ova and L3 larvae
a. Cysts and trophozoites
436. Prerenal azotemia is: a. Dehydration without true impaired kidney function b. Stage 1 renal disease c. Urinary tract infection that is affecting kidney function d. Dehydration with true impaired kidney function
a. Dehydration without true impaired kidney function
178. Griseofulvin is used in cats, dogs, and horses to treat which of the following disorders? a. Dermatophytosis b. Staphylococcal pyoderma c. Rickettsial disease d. Nematode infection
a. Dermatophytosis
292. Which layer of skin contains the hair follicles, sebaceous glands, and sweat glands? a. Dermis b. Epidermis c. Hypodermis d. Both a and b
a. Dermis
107. For which gas does anesthesia demand the greatest degree of patient monitoring, because the anesthetic depth changes occur most rapidly? a. Desflurane b. Sevoflurane c. Halothane d. Isoflurane
a. Desflurane
105. A recent graduate veterinary technician is concerned that a sedated patient has a heart rate of 50 beats/min when the heart rate in a dog is normally 60 to 120 beats/min. She also mentions that the blood pressure is normal. You ask her which sedative the veterinarian used and you were not surprised when she told you that the drug used was________________. a. Dexmedetomidine b. Diazepam c. Ketamine d. Acepromazine
a. Dexmedetomidine
131. A deficiency in antidiuretic hormone causes: a. Diabetes insipidus b. Diabetes mellitus c. Cushing's disease d. Pancreatic insufficiency
a. Diabetes insipidus
195. Which of the following drugs is used for its sedative, antiseizure, and appetite-stimulant effects? a. Diazepam b. Cyproheptadine c. Ketamine d. Potassium bromide
a. Diazepam
31. All of the following are types of chorion attachments, except: a. Diffuse b. Cotyledonary c. Zonary d. Polycyton
a. Diffuse
416. Which of the following drugs can be used for atrial fibrillation? a. Digoxin b. Hydralazine c. Lidocaine d. Pimobendan
a. Digoxin
173. The term drug compounding refers to which of the following activities? a. Diluting or combining drugs for ease of administration b. Delivering a drug via a different route than is directed on the label c. Delivering a drug at a different dose than is directed on the label d. Delivering the drug to a different species than is directed on the label
a. Diluting or combining drugs for ease of administration
194. A dog diagnosed with a mast cell tumor is scheduled for surgery. The veterinarian chooses to pretreat the dog with an H1 blocker to prevent the negative effects of histamine release when the tumor is manipulated. Which of the following drugs may be chosen? a. Diphenhydramine b. Methimazole c. Vincristine d. Sulfasalazine
a. Diphenhydramine
137. Which of the following is not a sign of dental disease in chinchillas, rabbits, and guinea pigs? a. Discharge from the ears b. Drooling c. Anorexia d. Overgrooming
a. Discharge from the ears
255. Spironolactone, chlorothiazide, and furosemide are classified as: a. Diuretics b. Positive inotropes c. Antiarrhythmics d. Vasodilators
a. Diuretics
137. A stool softener that often helps patients recovering from anal surgery is: a. Docusate sodium succinate (DSS) b. Magnesium hydroxide c. Mineral oil d. Bran
a. Docusate sodium succinate (DSS)
327. Which of the following animals does NOT have bulbourethral glands? a. Dog b. Cat c. Horse d. Ram
a. Dog
395. Cheyletiella mites use ___ as their hosts. a. Dogs, cats, and rabbits b. Dogs, rabbits, and birds c. Cats, birds, and rodents d. Cats, dogs, and rodents
a. Dogs, cats, and rabbits
539. Which side of the wing does air pass over more quickly? a. Dorsal b. Ventral c. Proximal d. Distal
a. Dorsal
662. Where do the epaxial muscles lie? a. Dorsal to the transverse process of the vertebrae b. Ventral to the transverse process of the vertebrae c. Between the thoracic and abdominal cavity d. Along each side of the linea alba
a. Dorsal to the transverse process of the vertebrae
37. Which of the following radiographic terms describes the view when the primary x-ray beam enters the dorsal surface and exits the ventral surface of the patient? a. Dorsoventral b. Ventrodorsal c. Craniocaudal d. Caudocranial
a. Dorsoventral
75. Meters to measure the rate of exposure is also known as: a. Dosimeter b. Fluoroscopy c. Collimation d. Shielding
a. Dosimeter
685. A venous shunt within the liver that connects the umbilical vein to the caudal vena cava is known as what? a. Ductus venosus b. Ligamentum arteriosus c. Foramen ovale d. Ductus arteriosus
a. Ductus venosus
432. Painful urination is recorded as: a. Dysuria b. Hematuria c. Pyuria d. Proteinuria
a. Dysuria
625. The incus, malleus, and stapes are all bones that create the ________ in small animals. a. Ear b. Face c. Foot d. Cranium
a. Ear
397. People may serve as the intermediate hosts of: a. Echinococcus granulosus b. Anoplocephala magna c. Taenia pisiformis d. Moniezia benedeni
a. Echinococcus granulosus
8. Which of the following is a microsporidium obligate intracellular protozoan parasite that causes neurologic disease in rabbits? a. Encephalitozoon cuniculi b. Baylisascaris procyonis c. Toxoplasma gondii d. Pasteurella multocida
a. Encephalitozoon cuniculi
28. To achieve a normal pregnancy, the blastocyst attaches to what structure? a. Endometrium b. Placenta c. Oviduct d. Cervix
a. Endometrium
320. What is the storage site for sperm after they detach from the Sertoli cells? a. Epididymis b. Vas deferens c. Visceral vaginal tunic d. Pampiniform plexus
a. Epididymis
36. The neurotransmitter that is most responsible for the "flight or fight" reaction is: a. Epinephrine b. Acetylcholine c. Dopamine d. Serotonin
a. Epinephrine
82. Scooter, a 13-year-old miniature schnauzer, has arrested under anesthesia for routine dentistry. You run to the crash cart and grab what you know to be the drug of choice for cardiac arrest, which is: a. Epinephrine b. Lidocaine c. Sodium bicarbonate d. Dobutamine
a. Epinephrine
98. In growing bone, where does lengthening take place? a. Epiphyseal plate b. Metaphysis c. Diaphysis d. Periosteal plane
a. Epiphyseal plate
280. What part of the CBC cannot be done manually with adequate accuracy? a. Erythrocyte count b. Leukocyte count c. Packed cell volume d. WBC differential
a. Erythrocyte count
440. What does an iohexol clearance test determine? a. Estimated GFR in dogs and cats b. Liver function c. Blood glucose values d. Food sensitivity
a. Estimated GFR in dogs and cats
27. The hormone produced by a developing ovarian follicle is: a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Prolactin d. Oxytocin
a. Estrogen
148. The time period from the beginning of one heat cycle to the beginning of the next is called: a. Estrous b. Estrus c. Ovulation d. The mating cycle
a. Estrous
390. Which of the following anesthetics has the fewest cardiorespiratory effects? a. Etomidate b. Propofol c. Ketamine d. Thiopental
a. Etomidate
591. What is the length of the estrous cycle in rabbits? a. Every 4 days b. Every 30- 35 days c. Every 15- 16 days d. Every 4- 6 days
a. Every 4 days
71. Guaifenesin is an example of a(n): a. Expectorant b. Antitussive c. Bronchodilator d. Decongestant
a. Expectorant
332. Diffusion of a drug molecule that involves a carrier protein but does not require energy is known as: a. Facilitated b. Passive c. Active d. Pinocytosis
a. Facilitated
121. Which of the following drugs is used to decrease gastric acid production by blocking histamine receptors in the stomach? a. Famotidine b. Sucralfate c. Omeprazole d. Misoprostol
a. Famotidine
88. A pulse taken from the inguinal area of a dog would be from the: a. Femoral artery b. Axillary artery c. Popliteal artery d. Saphenous artery
a. Femoral artery
103. An opioid analgesic often used in transdermal patches to control postsurgical pain is: a. Fentanyl b. Pentazocine c. Meperidine d. Butorphanol
a. Fentanyl
307. Which of the following joints are immovable and are connected by dense fibrous connective tissue? a. Fibrous joints b. Cartilaginous joints c. Synovial joints d. None, all joints are moveable
a. Fibrous joints
185. The leg bone responsible for minimal support is the: a. Fibula b. Femur c. Tibia d. Humerus
a. Fibula
43. Which of the following is the best time to collect a urine sample to evaluate the specific gravity of a canine patient? a. First morning sample b. Midday sample c. Late afternoon sample d. Last sample of the day
a. First morning sample
649. ____________ move cells through fluid. a. Flagella b. Cilia c. Basal bodies d. Centrioles
a. Flagella
69. Antimicrobial drugs such as enrofloxacin, marbofloxacin, and orbifloxacin all belong to which group of antibiotics? a. Fluoroquinolones b. Cephalosporins c. Penicillins d. Aminoglycosides
a. Fluoroquinolones
151. What primary ovarian structure is responsible for the release of estrogen? a. Follicle b. Placenta c. Corpus hemorrhagicum d. Corpus luteum
a. Follicle
67. Which of the following dissections could be made without cutting through a bone-to-bone joint? a. Forelimb from the body b. Hind limb from the body c. Head from the neck d. Tail from the body
a. Forelimb from the body
61. Pollakiuria is defined as: a. Frequent urination with small volume voided b. Complete lack of urine production c. Excessive drinking and urinating d. Excessive urination at night
a. Frequent urination with small volume voided
486. Which sinus lies in the dorsal part of the skull medial to the orbit? a. Frontal sinus b. Two maxillary sinuses c. Oropharynx d. Nasopharynx
a. Frontal sinus
18. What is the most common cause of alopecia and dermatitis in the pet mouse? a. Fur mites b. Dermatophytes c. Contact dermatitis caused by pine shavings d. Endoparasites
a. Fur mites
92. What does MRI require to highlight injections, tumors, or vascular disease? a. Gadolinium b. Iodine contrast c. Barium d. None of the above
a. Gadolinium
403. The parasite whose eggs are cemented to the hair of horses is: a. Gasterophilus species b. Hypoderma species c. Oestrus species d. Cuterebra species
a. Gasterophilus species
44. The H2 receptors are found in the: a. Gastric mucosa b. Saliva c. Carotid arteries d. Aortic arch
a. Gastric mucosa
131. Resuspension of NPH insulin is achieved by: a. Gently rolling the bottle b. Vigorously shaking the bottle c. Gently heating the bottle in warm water d. Refrigerating the bottle
a. Gently rolling the bottle
287. Which portion of the digestive system in birds is responsible for grinding food products? a. Gizzard b. Proventriculus c. Glandular stomach d. All of the above
a. Gizzard
179. The renal corpuscle is composed of the: a. Glomerulus and Bowman's capsule b. Collecting ducts and proximal convoluted tubule c. Descending and ascending loops of Henle d. Collecting ducts and afferent arteriole
a. Glomerulus and Bowman's capsule
69. The glucose absorbed from the GI tract may be stored in the liver as glycogen through a process known as what? a. Glycogenesis b. Gluconeogenesis c. Glycogenolysis d. Fatty acid synthesis
a. Glycogenesis
114. Diets high in purines cause which of the following diseases? a. Gout b. Heart failure c. Salmonellosis d. Liver failure
a. Gout
239. An unossified carpal or tarsal bone describes which grade level on the ossification index for newborn foals? a. Grade 1 b. Grade 2 c. Grade 3 d. Grade 4
a. Grade 1
215. Which should be avoided when manually restraining a bird? a. Grasping the patient around the neck b. Grasped by the mandibular articulation c. Grasping the feet and gently stretching the bird d. All of the above should be avoided
a. Grasping the patient around the neck
414. Systems of folds located within the cerebrum are known as which of the following? a. Gyri b. Sulci c. Meninges d. Arachnoid villi.
a. Gyri
110. Heating a reptile cage safely can be accomplished by all of the following except: a. Heat rock b. Heater under tank c. Ceramic radiant heating element outside the cage d. Incandescent light bulb placed outside the cage
a. Heat rock
269. Denatured hemoglobin found in erythrocytes is referred to as a/an: a. Heinz body b. Howell-Jolly body c. Anaplasma body d. Spherocyte
a. Heinz body
253. Laser-flow technology is used in: a. Hematology analyzers b. Chemistry analyzers c. Coagulation analyzers d. Electrolyte analyzers
a. Hematology analyzers
297. Which tissue is responsible for forming bone marrow within the long bones and for the formation of the blood cells? a. Hemopoietic tissue b. Areolar tissue c. Cartilage d. Bone
a. Hemopoietic tissue
76. The anticoagulant diluted in saline or sterile water for injection to form a flush solution for preventing blood clots in intravenous catheters is: a. Heparin b. EDTA c. Coumarin d. Acid citrate dextrose (ACD)
a. Heparin
121. Why is hay an important part of the rabbit diet? a. High in calories and vitamin C b. High in digestible fiber and helps wear the teeth c. Contains indigestible fiber that helps with weight management, dental disease, and gut health d. Helps maintain gut motility and is high in vitamins A, D, and E
a. High in calories and vitamin C
2. Systemic circulation is under: a. High pressure b. Low pressure c. Partial pressure d. Equilibrium
a. High pressure
639. Which animal contains the highest number of sacral vertebrae? a. Horse b. Dog c. Cat d. Pig
a. Horse
290. Rouleaux formation is most commonly seen on blood smears from: a. Horses b. Goats c. Dogs d. Cats
a. Horses
276. In what species might dexamethasone administration lead to abortion during the last few weeks of gestation? a. Horses and cattle b. Pigs and dogs c. Dogs and cats d. Horses and cats
a. Horses and cattle
125. What characteristic is not found in toxic neutrophils? a. Howell-Jolly bodies b. Vacuolated cytoplasm c. Döhle bodies d. Basophilic cytoplasm
a. Howell-Jolly bodies
440. Which of the following bones is located immediately distal to the scapula of the horse? a. Humerus b. Metacarpus c. Femur d. Ulna
a. Humerus
445. Which of the following bones is considered one of the strongest bones in the horse? a. Humerus b. Carpus c. Scapula d. Patella
a. Humerus
91. Glucocorticoids have different durations of activity, a fact that plays an important role in their risk of side effects with long-term use. Which of the following glucocorticoids has the shortest duration of activity? a. Hydrocortisone b. Prednisone c. Dexamethasone d. Triamcinolone
a. Hydrocortisone
161. What is a potential electrolyte imbalance that can occur as a result of administering a loop diuretic to a small animal? a. Hypokalemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hypercalcemia d. Hypocalcemia
a. Hypokalemia
410. Which of the following can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity? a. Hypokalemia b. Hypochloremia c. Hyponatremia d. Hypocalcemia
a. Hypokalemia
62. The neurohypophysis is an anatomic section of which of the following? a. Hypothalamus b. Adrenal gland c. Pancreas
a. Hypothalamus
237. Red blood cell production is stimulated by: a. Hypoxia and erythropoietin b. Erythropoietin and thrombocytes c. Fibrinogen and acetylcholine d. Leukocytes
a. Hypoxia and erythropoietin
198. Which of the following are not observed when a patient is in DIC? a. Icterus b. Hemorrhage c. Thrombocytopenia d. Prolonged activated clotting time
a. Icterus
309. Which immunoglobulin is most abundant in the serum and plays the major role in humoral immunity? a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgD
a. IgG
311. Which immunoglobulin is the only one that can cross the placenta? a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgD
a. IgG
82. A left shift refers to increased numbers of: a. Immature neutrophils b. Immature RBCs c. Immature platelets d. Immature lymphocytes
a. Immature neutrophils
103. The normal dentition pattern for an adult cat is a. Incisor 3/ 3, Canine 1/ 1, Premolar 3/ 2, Molar 1/ 1 b. Incisor 3/ 3, Canine 1/ 1, Premolar 4/ 3, Molar 2/ 2 c. Incisor 2/ 2, Canine 1/ 1, Premolar 3/ 2, Molar 2/ 1 d. Incisor 2/ 2, Canine 1/ 1, Premolar 4/ 4, Molar 1/ 1
a. Incisor 3/ 3, Canine 1/ 1, Premolar 3/ 2, Molar 1/ 1
689. When an animal becomes severely dehydrated, it loses both tissue fluid and plasma fluid. What effect would this have on the hematocrit and the PCV? a. Increase both values b. Decrease both values c. Increase the hematocrit but no effect on the PCV d. No change in either value
a. Increase both values
69. To make a smear with anemic blood, a. Increase the angle of the pusher slide b. Decrease the angle of the pusher slide c. Use a larger drop of blood d. Wait for the drop of blood to dry partially
a. Increase the angle of the pusher slide
79. The function of epinephrine is to: a. Increase the heart rate b. Decrease the heart rate c. Decrease the blood pressure d. Reverse the effects of acepromazine
a. Increase the heart rate
89. In a healthy animal, diminished water intake or loss of water would result in ___ urine specific gravity. a. Increased b. Decreased c. Isosthenuric d. Isotonic
a. Increased
40. In the healthy awake cat, the primary stimulus within blood for respiration is: a. Increased CO2 b. Decreased O2 c. Increased lactic acid d. Increased K +
a. Increased CO2
237. Which of the following is not considered a key radiographic feature of carpal or tarsal bone immaturity? a. Increased calcification b. Increased number of visible vascular canals causing increased porosity c. Abnormally tapered profile d. One or more fringed margins
a. Increased calcification
27. With significant dehydration in an otherwise healthy patient, which of the following would likely appear on a urinalysis and CBC? a. Increased urine SG and increased PCV b. Increased urine SG and decreased PCV c. Decreased urine SG and decreased PCV d. Decreased urine SG and increased PCV
a. Increased urine SG and increased PCV
81. Cosmo, an 11-year-old M/C pug, has been diagnosed with mitral insufficiency and was referred to a veterinary cardiologist. The specialist decided to initiate treatment with digoxin, which is a positive inotrope and negative chronotrope. This means that it: a. Increases the force of contraction and decreases the heart rate b. Increases the peripheral vascular resistance and decreases the cardiac output c. Increases the blood pressure and decreases the cardiac output d. Increases the heart rate and decreases the blood pressure
a. Increases the force of contraction and decreases the heart rate
82. Hedgehogs are which of the following, requiring a high-protein diet? a. Insectivores b. Strict carnivores c. Herbivores d. Nectarivores
a. Insectivores
133. What hormone is produced by the beta cells in the pancreas? a. Insulin b. Glucagon c. Glycogen d. Somatostatin
a. Insulin
76. Which of the following lowers blood glucose? a. Insulin b. Glucagon c. Epinephrine d. Glucocorticoids
a. Insulin
77. Which system is considered to be the largest and most extensive organ system in the body? a. Integument b. Cardiovascular c. Digestive d. Central nervous system
a. Integument
147. Which of the following drugs is considered a biologic response modifier? a. Interferon b. Streptokinase c. Cephalosporin d. EDTA
a. Interferon
32. Electrolytes are commonly measured by what method? a. Ion-specific electrodes b. Refractometry c. Adsorption d. Enzymatic digestion
a. Ion-specific electrodes
400. An aerotolerant organism is one that: a. Is not affected by the presence or absence of oxygen b. Can tolerate elevated temperatures c. Prefers an environment that is dehydrated d. Is tolerant of environments lacking moisture
a. Is not affected by the presence or absence of oxygen
313. What type of muscle contraction occurs when a muscle actually moves or shortens? a. Isotonic contraction b. Muscle tone c. Isometric contraction d. None of the above
a. Isotonic contraction
440. Alpha-tocopherol is also known as: a. Vitamin E b. Vitamin D2 c. Vitamin D3 d. Vitamin B2
a. Vitamin E
29. Which of the following statements is true regarding an iodophor? a. It has a longer action than basic iodine compounds b. Organic materials do not inactivate it c. It is not an irritant at concentrations generally used d. It provides adequate disinfection with a single application
a. It has a longer action than basic iodine compounds
284. Birds contain an uropygial or preen gland located on the dorsal surface at the upper base of the tail. For what is this structure responsible? a. It secretes an oily, fatty substance that spreads throughout the feathers to clean and waterproof them b. It is responsible for the mating process c. It is responsible for the growth of feathers d. It is a scent gland
a. It secretes an oily, fatty substance that spreads throughout the feathers to clean and waterproof them
64. Which of the following options is another term for icterus? a. Jaundice b. Xanthochromia c. Ketonemia d. Hemoglobinuria
a. Jaundice
194. The middle portion of the small intestine is the: a. Jejunum b. Jejunem c. Jajunem d. Jujunem
a. Jejunum
165. The mucin clot test is performed on: a. Joint fluid b. Plasma c. Serum d. Urine
a. Joint fluid
75. Which of the following vessels are most commonly used for collection of a complete blood count (CBC) and chemistry panel in the sugar glider? a. Jugular vein, cranial vena cava, medial tibial artery b. Lateral saphenous vein, femoral vein, medial tibial artery c. Cranial vena cava, cephalic vein, and lateral saphenous vein d. Jugular vein, femoral vein, lateral tail veins
a. Jugular vein, cranial vena cava, medial tibial artery
90. The pectoral muscles in a bird attach to which of the following anatomical structures? a. Keel b. Pygostyle c. Notarium d. Synsacrum
a. Keel
330. Levetiracetam is the active ingredient in: a. Keppra b. Valium c. Luminal d. Zonegran
a. Keppra
171. Claws, hooves, and horns are made up of which type of cell? a. Keratinized b. Agglutinated c. Calcified d. Crystallized
a. Keratinized
111. What organ conserves nutrients, removes waste products, maintains blood pH, and controls blood pressure? a. Kidney b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Spleen
a. Kidney
634. A space within the lacrimal bones houses which of the following structures? a. Lacrimal sac b. Maxillary sinuses c. Hard palate d. Nasal cavity
a. Lacrimal sac
690. Which of the following is a short irregular tube of cartilage and muscle that connects the pharynx with the trachea? a. Larynx b. Epiglottis c. Bronchi d. Esophagus
a. Larynx
328. Furosemide is the active ingredient in: a. Lasix b. Osmitrol c. Aldactone d. HydroDIURIL
a. Lasix
458. Metatarsal IV in the horse is also known as: a. Lateral splint bone b. Cannon bone c. Talus d. Hock
a. Lateral splint bone
18. Which radiographic view provides the best accuracy for evaluating major fracture dislocation and conformational abnormalities in horses? a. Lateral view b. Medial oblique view c. The flexed lateral view d. Dorsopalmar view
a. Lateral view
26. Which of the following is the best view for judging a major fracture dislocation and conformational abnormalities? a. Lateral view b. Flexed lateral view c. Medial oblique d. Dorsopalmar view
a. Lateral view
267. Basophilic stippling is often associated with: a. Lead poisoning b. Autoimmune disease c. Anemia d. Neoplasia
a. Lead poisoning
40. When scanning in the sagittal plane, where is the cranial aspect of the patient's body displayed on the ultrasound monitor? a. Left side of the monitor b. Right side of the monitor c. Top of the monitor d. Bottom of the monitor
a. Left side of the monitor
216. The aorta leaves the heart from the: a. Left ventricle b. Right ventricle c. Left atrium d. Right atrium
a. Left ventricle
117. The median plane divides the body into which of the following? a. Left/right portions b. Anterior/posterior portions c. Cranial/caudal portions d. None of the above
a. Left/right portions
87. For an animal that had lost RBCs to a moderate hookworm infection, one would expect the capillary refill time to be: a. Less than 2 seconds b. Greater than 4 seconds c. Greater than 2 minutes d. Greater than 4 minutes
a. Less than 2 seconds
261. Nits are considered: a. Lice eggs b. Fly larvae c. Flea feces d. Seed ticks
a. Lice eggs
144. The principal site of drug biotransformation is the: a. Liver b. Kidney c. Stomach d. Small intestine
a. Liver
230. Albumin is produced in the: a. Liver b. Red bone marrow c. Lymph nodes d. Pancreas
a. Liver
51. Most biotransformation of drugs occurs in the: a. Liver b. Kidney c. Lungs d. Skin
a. Liver
191. Why is it an accepted practice for cats receiving aspirin therapy to be dosed on a 2-day interval schedule only (i.e., a minimal dose every 2 days)? a. Liver metabolism of salicylates occurs at a very slow rate in comparison to other species, thereby making cats extremely susceptible to overdose in comparison to dogs. b. Salicylates cause severe respiratory depression in cats. c. Salicylates often result in severe hypertension. d. Salicylates may result in hypercoagulable states in cats.
a. Liver metabolism of salicylates occurs at a very slow rate in comparison to other species, thereby making cats extremely susceptible to overdose in comparison to dogs.
130. All of the following organs are seen on ultrasound, except: a. Lungs b. Adrenal glands c. Pancreas d. Gallbladder
a. Lungs
178. What term indicates an abnormally high lymphocyte count? a. Lymphocytosis b. Leukosis c. Lymphocytopenia d. Lymphosarcoma
a. Lymphocytosis
104. Large femoral pores in the iguana are indicative of: a. Male lizard b. Systemic infection c. Juvenile lizard d. Breeding female
a. Male lizard
461. Where is the insertion of the sternocephalicus muscles of the horse? a. Mandible b. Humerus c. Spine of the scapula d. Proximal tibia
a. Mandible
426. Which of the following can be used to decrease intraocular volume (via dehydration of the vitreous humor) as treatment for glaucoma? a. Mannitol b. Methazolamide c. Pilocarpine d. Timolol
a. Mannitol
343. What cells are sensitized by IgE to produce large quantities of histamines? a. Mast cells and basophils b. Eosinophils and basophils c. Monocytes and lymphocytes d. Neutrophils and eosinophils
a. Mast cells and basophils
172. What measure determines the average size of an erythrocyte? a. Mean corpuscular volume b. Packed cell volume (PCV) c. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) d. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin
a. Mean corpuscular volume
257. To obtain a CdCr projection of the humerus of small animals, where should the measurement be taken? a. Measure from the table to the midshaft humerus b. Measure the thickest part of the humerus c. Measure on the dorsal side from the table to the height of the scapula d. Measure the midshaft humerus
a. Measure from the table to the midshaft humerus
302. The thorax is divided into right and left sides by a connective tissue septum known as the: a. Mediastinum b. Pericardium c. Pulmonary pleura d. Sternum
a. Mediastinum
117. A progestin was often used in the past for the treatment of inappropriate elimination in cats, and it has now fallen out of favor because of serious potential side effects, including mammary hyperplasia and adenocarcinoma. This drug is known as: a. Megestrol acetate b. Oxazepam c. Amitriptyline d. Fluoxetine
a. Megestrol acetate
180. Which of the following drugs is used as an adulticide to treat a heartworm-positive dog? a. Melarsomine b. Ivermectin c. Milbemycin d. Moxidectin
a. Melarsomine
104. What microorganism is an etiologic agent of ringworm? a. Microsporum sp. b. Mycobacterium sp. c. Micrococcus sp. d. Moraxella sp.
a. Microsporum sp.
252. When obtaining a VD projection of the skull of small animals, where should the centering of the image occur? a. Midway between the tip of the nose and just caudal to the occipital protuberance at the base b. Lateral canthus of the eye socket c. Between the eyes d. Above the base of the tongue and just below the palate, approximately at the commissure of the mouth
a. Midway between the tip of the nose and just caudal to the occipital protuberance at the base
445. A canine patient experiencing high triglycerides may have serum that is colored: a. Milky b. Yellow c. Red d. Clear
a. Milky
123. Pain in the rabbit is often exhibited by all of the following except: a. Moaning b. Bruxism c. Anorexia d. Reduced grooming and activity
a. Moaning
579. Which type of vision do rabbits have? a. Monocular b. Binocular c. 3D d. Both a and b
a. Monocular
295. What is normally the largest mature blood cell in the peripheral blood of domestic species? a. Monocyte b. Neutrophil c. Eosinophil d. Lymphocyte
a. Monocyte
225. Efferent neurons are part of what system? a. Motor b. Interneuron c. Sensory d. Extraneuron
a. Motor
69. Moldy peanuts are a common cause of which of the following in the avian patient? a. Myotoxicity b. Salmonella c. Escherichia coli d. Clostridium difficile
a. Myotoxicity
158. The reversal agent used for opioid toxicity is: a. Naloxone (Narcan) b. Yohimbine c. Acetylcysteine d. Diazepam
a. Naloxone (Narcan)
39. On inspiration, the pressure in the thoracic cavity, as compared with ambient air pressure, is a. Negative b. Positive c. Same as the ambient air pressure d. Fluctuating
a. Negative
81. Which of the following is the basic functional unit of the kidney? a. Nephron b. Calyces c. Hilus d. Medulla
a. Nephron
264. Which stain is referred to as a supravital stain? a. New methylene blue b. Camco Quik c. Eosin d. Sudan III or IV
a. New methylene blue
354. Which of the following are considered major elements found in the body? a. Nitrogen b. Calcium c. Magnesium d. Potassium
a. Nitrogen
34. Pain receptors are known as: a. Nociceptors b. C fibers c. Proprioceptors d. Prostaglandins
a. Nociceptors
301. What structure is normally found in the nuclei of immature blood cells? a. Nucleolus b. Golgi apparatus c. Heinz body d. Döhle body
a. Nucleolus
647. Which part of the cell contains and processes genetic information and controls cell metabolism? a. Nucleus b. Cell membrane c. Cilia d. Chromatin
a. Nucleus
373. What condition does dirlotapide treat? a. Obesity in dogs b. Obesity in cats c. Anorexia in dogs d. Anorexia in cats
a. Obesity in dogs
68. If you were to grasp your hands behind your head at the base of your skull, your hands would be over which bone of the skull? a. Occipital b. Frontal c. Temporal d. Parietal
a. Occipital
73. Which of the following is a common cause of upper respiratory disease in the prairie dog? a. Odontoma b. Mast cell tumor c. Adenocarcinoma d. Spindle cell sarcoma
a. Odontoma
69. For a mediolateral view of the tarsal joint of a horse, the cassette should be placed in which position? a. On the lateral surface b. On the medial surface c. On the plantar surface d. On the plantaromedial surface
a. On the lateral surface
305. Cells that are responsible for laying down new bone are known as: a. Osteoblasts b. Osteoclasts c. Ossification d. Hemopoiesis
a. Osteoblasts
195. What large cell with multiple separate nuclei is found in bone marrow? a. Osteoclast b. Megakaryocyte c. Osteoblast d. Monoblast
a. Osteoclast
160. The bone cells responsible for the removal of bone are: a. Osteoclasts b. Osteoblasts c. Chondroblasts d. Chondroclasts
a. Osteoclasts
168. When obtaining a lateral view of the cervical vertebrae of a small animal, which of the following techniques should not be performed? a. Overextend the limbs caudally b. Place a pad beneath the mandible to superimpose the wings of the atlas c. Place a pad under the neck to prevent sagging of the spine d. Place the wings of the atlas and center of the spine of the scapula in the longitudinal center of the primary beam
a. Overextend the limbs caudally
101. The term gravid is used for reptiles that are: a. Oviparous b. Viviparous c. Ovoviviparous d. Sterile
a. Oviparous
203. Which urolith is becoming quite common in cats? a. Oxalate b. Silica c. Urate d. Cystine
a. Oxalate
244. The islets of Langerhans are associated with which organ? a. Pancreas b. Liver c. Kidneys d. Adrenal glands
a. Pancreas
88. Which of these tissues is not a normal site for drugs to accumulate to be released later, thereby prolonging the effect of the drug? a. Pancreas b. Fat c. Bone d. Liver
a. Pancreas
358. Which virus causes warts? a. Papilloma b. Variola c. Herpes d. Pox
a. Papilloma
29. Giving birth is known as: a. Parturition b. Gestation c. Lactation d. Estrous
a. Parturition
63. Which of the following diseases causes upper respiratory tract signs including sinusitis, rhinitis, excessive tearing, snorting, sniffling, and nasal exudate? a. Pasteurella multocida b. Bacterial enteritis c. Allergic dermatitis d. Pneumonia
a. Pasteurella multocida
248. To decrease magnification of an x-ray, which of the following would help? a. Patients are positioned as close to the x-ray cassette as possible b. Patients are positioned are far away from the x-ray cassette as possible c. There should be as much collimation as possible d. There should be as little collimation as possible
a. Patients are positioned as close to the x-ray cassette as possible
115. Acepromazine should be avoided in: a. Patients with a history of seizures b. Aggressive patients c. Geriatric patients d. Doberman pinschers
a. Patients with a history of seizures
335. With regard to the plasma concentration of a drug, what is the highest point in the concentration called? a. Peak b. Max c. Trough d. Min
a. Peak
44. In the avian patient, into which of the following muscles are intramuscular injections generally administered? a. Pectoral b. Epaxial c. Biceps d. Quadriceps
a. Pectoral
99. What layer of bone tissue is necessary for the attachment of ligaments and tendons? a. Periosteum b. Endosteum c. Cartilage d. Meniscus
a. Periosteum
85. Which type of magnet consists of two slabs of magnetic material facing each other? a. Permanent magnets b. Electromagnets c. Resistive magnets d. Superconducting magnets
a. Permanent magnets
169. The main function of the neutrophil is: a. Phagocytosis b. Hypersensitivity reaction c. Allergic reaction d. Immune response
a. Phagocytosis
638. The two small pterygoid bones support the lateral walls of what structure? a. Pharynx b. Mandibular symphysis c. Nasal septum d. Nasal conchae
a. Pharynx
226. Which drug will have a prolonged half-life when used with chloramphenicol? a. Phenobarbital b. Penicillin c. Sulfadimethoxine d. Tetracycline
a. Phenobarbital
138. The most widely used type of antiemetic drug to prevent motion sickness in dogs and cats is the: a. Phenothiazine b. Antihistamine c. Anticholinergic d. Antispasmodic
a. Phenothiazine
125. Which of the following drugs can cause severe tissue necrosis if administered perivascularly? a. Phenylbutazone b. Oxymorphone c. Dexmedetomidine d. Ketamine
a. Phenylbutazone
278. Which NSAID, when administered perivascularly in horses, can cause skin necrosis and sloughing? a. Phenylbutazone b. Etodolac c. Carprofen d. Meclofenamic acid
a. Phenylbutazone
174. Which of the following drugs is most commonly used to treat urinary incontinence in dogs? a. Phenylpropanolamine b. Diethylcarbamazine c. Acepromazine d. Bethanechol
a. Phenylpropanolamine
601. All of the following are true about rabbits, except: a. Rabbits are omnivores b. Rabbits are hindgut fermenters c. Rabbits are monogastric d. All of the above are true about rabbits
a. Rabbits are omnivores
87. Which of the following correctly defines the term shims in reference to MRI? a. Pieces or plates of metal used to correct the magnetic field within the magnet b. Coils or assemblies within the magnetic bore that enable the machine to create images in any plane c. Devices that receive radio-wave signals from a body part that is covered or contained by them d. None of the above
a. Pieces or plates of metal used to correct the magnetic field within the magnet
425. Which of the following is a cartilaginous funnel that collects sound waves and directs them medially into the external auditory canal? a. Pinna b. Eustachian tube c. Cochlea d. Tympanic membrane
a. Pinna
13. Which of the following radiographic terms describes the caudal surface of the hind limb distal to the carpus? a. Plantar b. Dorsopalmar c. Palmar d. Caudocranial
a. Plantar
338. The back of the hind leg distal to the tarsus is known as: a. Plantar b. Palmar c. Lateral d. Medial
a. Plantar
284. What is the major difference between serum and plasma? a. Plasma has higher protein levels. b. Serum has higher electrolyte levels. c. Plasma has a darker color. d. Serum will clot.
a. Plasma has higher protein levels.
33. Oral examinations are most commonly performed in snakes using which of the following? a. Plastic spatula b. Gauze strips c. Tape strips d. Metal specula
a. Plastic spatula
147. The upper and lower shells of a turtle are referred to as: a. Plastron and carapace b. Anterior shell and posterior shell c. Epiplastral and endoplastral d. Hypoplastral and xiphiplastral
a. Plastron and carapace
444. What does the buccal mucosa bleeding time test assess? a. Platelet function b. Prothrombin time (PT) c. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) d. Fibrinogen
a. Platelet function
192. Which of the following is not associated with a responsive anemia? a. Poikilocytosis b. Reticulocytosis c. Anisocytosis d. Polychromasia
a. Poikilocytosis
73. Reticulocytes on a modified Wright stain (e.g., Diff-Quik) appear a. Polychromatic b. Hypochromic c. Hyperchromic d. Crenated
a. Polychromatic
23. Cattle and swine display what type of estrous cycle? a. Polyestrous b. Seasonally polyestrous c. Diestrous d. Monoestrous
a. Polyestrous
273. Predictable, short-term side effects of glucocorticoid therapy of which every client should be aware include: a. Polyuria and polydipsia b. Cough and nasal discharge c. Anorexia and diarrhea d. Dry skin and skin irritations
a. Polyuria and polydipsia
235. What error is not detectable through the use of a quality-control program? a. Poor technique b. Sample quality c. Equipment malfunctions d. Reagent contamination or degeneration
a. Poor technique
491. Lymph nodes found on the caudal aspect of the leg at the level of the patella are the: a. Popliteal nodes b. Inguinal nodes c. Mandibular nodes d. Prescapular nodes
a. Popliteal nodes
368. The doctor expresses concern that a patient's cardiac output is poor and he is considering something to increase the contractility of the heart. You know he will want to use a: a. Positive inotrope b. Negative inotrope c. Positive chronotrope d. Negative chronotrope
a. Positive inotrope
55. Aqueous humor is formed in which chamber of the eye? a. Posterior chamber b. Anterior chamber c. Canal of Schlemm d. Cornea
a. Posterior chamber
93. What drug is not an NSAID? a. Prednisone b. Flunixin c. Phenylbutazone d. Aspirin
a. Prednisone
121. What is unique about the ruminant oral cavity? a. Presence of a dental pad b. Absence of salivary glands c. Absence of molars d. Presence of needle teeth
a. Presence of a dental pad
41. The normal feces of a parrot contain which of the following? a. Primarily Gram-positive organisms b. Primarily Gram-negative organisms c. An equal mixture of Gram-positive and Gram-negative organisms d. The feces are mostly sterile and do not contain bacteria
a. Primarily Gram-positive organisms
141. Which of the following feathers are trimmed as part of the avian wing trim? a. Primary feathers b. Secondary feathers c. Tertiary feathers d. Tail feathers
a. Primary feathers
240. False decreases in serum glucose levels can be caused by: a. Prolonged contact with red blood cells before separating the serum b. Refrigerating the serum sample before analysis c. Freezing the serum sample before analysis d. A lipemic sample
a. Prolonged contact with red blood cells before separating the serum
203. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is a significant problem in veterinary medicine. What factor is not considered to be a significant contributor to the development of bacterial resistance? a. Prolonged levels of higher-than-recommended dosages of antibiotics b. Normal dosages of antibiotics for half the recommended duration c. Low dosages of antibiotics in the feed for prolonged periods d. Antibiotics that do not reach the infection site in concentrations that exceed MIC
a. Prolonged levels of higher-than-recommended dosages of antibiotics
219. What organ blocks the entrance of many drugs because of a barrier similar to the blood-brain barrier? a. Prostate gland b. Thyroid gland c. Pancreas d. Spleen
a. Prostate gland
451. Which bone forms the floor of the pelvis of the horse? a. Pubis b. Ischium c. Ilium d. Tuber coxae
a. Pubis
677. The _____________ artery carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs. a. Pulmonary b. Carotid c. Subclavian d. Renal
a. Pulmonary
341. Gram-positive microorganisms stain ____________ using a Gram stain. a. Purple b. Red c. Orange d. Lavender
a. Purple
12. The muscular sphincter located between the stomach and the duodenum is the: a. Pylorus b. cardia c. Chyme d. Rugae
a. Pylorus
195. What is the amount used to express the dose equivalent that results from exposure to ionizing radiation known as? a. REM b. ALARA c. MPD d. Sv
a. REM
146. The degree of blackness on a radiograph is described as: a. Radiographic density b. Radiographic contrast c. Focal-film distance d. Radiographic fogging
a. Radiographic density
129. Which of the following animals does not have molars that grow continuously throughout life? a. Rats b. Rabbits c. Chinchillas d. Guinea pigs
a. Rats
347. Which types of cells carry oxygen throughout the body? a. Red blood cells b. White blood cells c. Nerve cells d. All cells carry oxygen
a. Red blood cells
176. The area of the kidney where urine collection occurs before entering the ureter is known as the: a. Renal pelvis b. Hilus c. Cortex d. Medulla
a. Renal pelvis
3. Bacterial endospores are: a. Resistant to heat and desiccation b. A form of asexual reproduction c. A consequence of mating d. Highly susceptible to antiseptics
a. Resistant to heat and desiccation
277. What is the name for a nonnucleated, immature erythrocyte found in small numbers in the peripheral blood of dogs? a. Reticulocyte b. Metarubricyte c. Rubriblast d. Rubricyte
a. Reticulocyte
186. A reported side effect of fluoroquinolone administration (Baytril) in cats given SID dosing at a higher dosing schedule is: a. Retinal damage b. Hypertension c. Renal failure d. Hepatic failure
a. Retinal damage
386. The parasite also known as a brown dog tick is: a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus b. Ixodes dammini c. Dermacentor variabilis d. Dermacentor albipictus
a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus
370. Of the following molecules, which is not a lipid? a. Ribose b. Triglycerides c. Prostaglandins d. Steroids
a. Ribose
163. Dioctophyma renale is often found in the ___ of dogs. a. Right kidney b. Left kidney c. Urinary bladder d. Ureters
a. Right kidney
251. Coagulation tests would be useful for diagnosing: a. Rodenticide poisoning b. Thyroid function c. Adrenal function d. Ethylene glycol poisoning
a. Rodenticide poisoning
64. To proceed from a point between the eyes to the tip of a dog's nose, you would move a. Rostrally b. Cranially c. Caudally d. Laterally
a. Rostrally
37. In the healthy heart, the heartbeat is initiated by the: a. SA node b. Purkinje fibers c. Vagus nerve d. AV node
a. SA node
392. The parasite that burrows into the skin is: a. Sarcoptes species b. Demodex species c. Chorioptes species d. Otodectes species
a. Sarcoptes species
45. Within the eye, the choroid is located between which two structures? a. Sclera and retina b. Iris and pupil c. Lens and cornea d. Optic nerve and fovea centralis
a. Sclera and retina
145. Sperm cells are produced by the: a. Seminiferous tubule b. Epididymis c. Vas deferens d. Seminal vesicles
a. Seminiferous tubule
323. Where does spermatogenesis take place? a. Seminiferous tubules b. Epididymis c. Spermatic cord d. Pampiniform plexus
a. Seminiferous tubules
10. A lactating doe presents to the clinic for anorexia, depression, lethargy, and fever. What is the most likely the cause of her symptoms? a. Septic mastitis b. Nonseptic cystic mastitis c. GI stasis d. Cellulitis
a. Septic mastitis
232. Which of the following does not describe an old carpal chip seen on x-ray in horses? a. Sharp fragment margination b. Decreased adjacent bone density c. Presence of osteoarthritis d. Normal or cool surrounding tissue
a. Sharp fragment margination
190. The deltoid muscles allow fine movements of the: a. Shoulder b. Hip c. Elbow d. Jaw
a. Shoulder
88. Compared to roundworm ova, coccidia appear: a. Smaller b. The same size c. Twice as large d. Three times as large
a. Smaller
166. The bones known collectively as the ossicles include all of the following except the: a. Sphenoid b. Malleus c. Stapesus d. Incus
a. Sphenoid
224. What organ is most commonly associated with the capacity for extramedullary hematopoiesis if necessary? a. Spleen b. Pancreas c. Lung d. Prostate
a. Spleen
230. What organ has both lymphatic and hematologic functions? a. Spleen b. Pancreas c. Tonsil d. Liver
a. Spleen
231. What organ has storage sinuses that hold blood and release it into circulation when the need for oxygen is increased? a. Spleen b. Pancreas c. Parathyroid d. Liver
a. Spleen
334. What is one possible site of extramedullary hematopoiesis in times of increased blood cell production? a. Spleen b. Kidney c. Umbilicus d. Bone cortex
a. Spleen
520. The mare is considered a/ an ___________ ovulator, which means she will ovulate without the stimulus of mating. a. Spontaneous b. Polyestrous c. Anestrous d. Multiparous
a. Spontaneous
134. Which epithelial cell is the largest of the cells found in urine? a. Squamous epithelial cells b. Caudate epithelial cells c. Transitional epithelial cells d. Renal epithelial cells
a. Squamous epithelial cells
361. Cardiac drugs that belong in class IB act by: a. Stabilizing myocardial cells b. Blocking beta receptors c. Decreasing myocardial automaticity d. Blocking calcium channels
a. Stabilizing myocardial cells
165. Nitroglycerin is administered primarily to achieve which of the following effects? a. Vasodilation b. Vasoconstriction c. Antiarrhythmic effect d. ACE inhibitor effect
a. Vasodilation
212. To obtain a caudocranial view of the tibia of a small animal, the patient should be in which of the following positions? a. Sternal recumbency b. Dorsal recumbency c. Right lateral recumbency d. Left lateral recumbency
a. Sternal recumbency
378. Which types of lipids take the form of four interlocking hydrocarbon rings? a. Steroids b. Triglycerides c. Prostaglandins d. Phospholipids
a. Steroids
262. Which parasite could cause anemia in horses through blood sucking? a. Strongylus vulgaris b. Parascaris equorum c. Anoplocephala perfoliata d. Dictyocaulus arnfieldi
a. Strongylus vulgaris
135. The most common uroliths found in feline and canine urine are: a. Struvite b. Calcium oxalate c. Urate d. Cystine
a. Struvite
65. A useful group of broad-spectrum drugs, whose popularity has recently declined because of numerous potential side effects, including keratoconjunctivitis sicca, polyarthritis (especially in Doberman pinschers), hematuria, allergic reactions, thrombocytopenia, and leukopenia, is the: a. Sulfonamides b. Macrolides c. Tetracyclines d. Fluoroquinolones
a. Sulfonamides
217. For a ventrodorsal avian radiographic view, the keel should be in which position related to the spine? a. Superimposed b. Lateral c. Caudal d. Cranial
a. Superimposed
374. When two monosaccharides are jointed together, what type of reaction occurs? a. Synthesis reaction b. Hydrolysis reaction c. Decomposition reaction d. Exchange reaction
a. Synthesis reaction
188. Exposing a reptile to cool conditions, such as a cool metal surface, will cause what? a. Temporary lethargy and immobility b. Temporary excitement c. Rapid breathing d. Aggressiveness
a. Temporary lethargy and immobility
438. Which of the following hormones are the main hormones produced by the testicles? a. Testosterone b. Luteinizing hormone c. Estrogen d. Progesterone
a. Testosterone
189. The class of antibiotics most commonly prescribed to treat rickettsial infections, such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever, is: a. Tetracyclines b. Penicillins c. Aminoglycosides d. Sulfonamides
a. Tetracyclines
127. Secondary hemostasis refers to: a. The coagulation cascade b. Vascular spasm c. Clot lysis d. Platelet plug formation
a. The coagulation cascade
109. Radiographic projections are named according to which of the following? a. The direction in which the central beam anatomically enters the body parts, followed by the area of exit of the x-ray beam b. The direction in which the central beam anatomically leaves the body parts, followed by the area of entrance of the x-ray beam c. The side of the patient to which the film is closest, followed by the exposed side d. Radiation that bounces off objects
a. The direction in which the central beam anatomically enters the body parts, followed by the area of exit of the x-ray beam
56. When a drug is said to have a narrow therapeutic range, it means that: a. The dose range that is effective is small b. It may be used for treatment of a few disorders only c. It must be dosed frequently d. It must be given in greater concentrations to be effective
a. The dose range that is effective is small
285. The vane is which part of the feather? a. The flattened weblike part of each side of the rachis b. The main feather shaft c. The opening of the feather shaft d. The opening at the base of the feather
a. The flattened weblike part of each side of the rachis
190. Which statement is true about Dirofilaria infection in the cat? a. The life span of heartworms in cats is shorter than in dogs b. Microfilariae are commonly seen in cat infections c. Adult worm burden in cats is similar in numbers to that in dogs d. Dirofilaria causes a severe anemia in cats
a. The life span of heartworms in cats is shorter than in dogs
121. For a lateromedial view of the metacarpus of a horse, which surface should the cassette be on? a. The medial aspect b. The palmar aspect c. The palmaromedial aspect d. The palmarolateral aspect
a. The medial aspect
435. What happens to the iris of the eye in dim light? a. The muscles relax, allowing the pupil to dilate b. The muscles contract, allowing the pupil to constrict c. The muscles constrict, closing the pupil d. Nothing, light does not affect the iris of the eye
a. The muscles relax, allowing the pupil to dilate
154. The therapeutic range of a drug refers to which of the following? a. The plasma concentration at which therapeutic benefits should be observed b. The relationship of a drug's ability to achieve a desired effect versus causing a toxic effect c. The range of curative properties that a drug may exhibit d. The frequency of idiosyncratic reactions
a. The plasma concentration at which therapeutic benefits should be observed
21. Which of the following best describes the Nyquist point in ultrasound? a. The point at which the maximum blood velocity is reached b. The point of deepest penetration c. The point at which a drop-out signal is reached and an image is no longer produced d. The Nyquist point is not an ultrasound concern
a. The point at which the maximum blood velocity is reached
61. Which of the following best describes the term fulcrum? a. The point of interest b. The distortion of the resolution of anatomy above and below the region of interest c. A series of boxes or individual shades of information d. None of the above
a. The point of interest
236. What causes the gallbladder to contract? a. The release of CCK b. The release of glucagon c. The production of bile d. The gallbladder contracts involuntarily after it is filled
a. The release of CCK
244. Methylxanthines are often used to improve breathing in cardiac patients and patients with respiratory disease. Which of the following drugs are methylxanthines used for this purpose? a. Theophylline and aminophylline b. Codeine and dextromethorphan c. Hydrocodone and butorphanol d. Guaifenesin and propranolol
a. Theophylline and aminophylline
90. The linea alba on a standing cat is ____________ to the spinal cord. a. Ventral b. Dorsal c. Medial d. Contralateral
a. Ventral
421. Which of the following cranial nerves is a sensory nerve? a. Vestibulocochlear b. Accessory c. Trochlear d. Hypoglossal
a. Vestibulocochlear
212. Aminoglycoside antibiotics (e.g., amikacin and gentamicin) are powerful agents against bacteria. Unfortunately, they do not seem to work well in deep puncture wounds or in the lumen of the colon. Why? a. These are anaerobic sites, and bacteria require oxygen to take up aminoglycosides. b. These sites often have enzymes that inactivate aminoglycosides. c. Gram-positive bacteria commonly infect these sites, and aminoglycosides are ineffective against gram-positive bacteria. d. The DNA of bacteria at these sites is resistant to aminoglycosides.
a. These are anaerobic sites, and bacteria require oxygen to take up aminoglycosides.
617. The lumbar vertebra of the ferret is located distal to the: a. Thoracic vertebrae b. Sacrum c. Coccygeal vertebrae d. Pelvis
a. Thoracic vertebrae
19. When a stimulus is strong enough to cause complete depolarization, it has reached: a. Threshold b. Repolarization c. Refractory period d. Action potential
a. Threshold
149. The gland that is evaluated by measuring blood levels of T3 and T4 is the: a. Thyroid gland b. Pancreas c. Pituitary gland d. Thymus
a. Thyroid gland
151. Blood chemistry analysis is commonly performed to evaluate function of the ______ in an animal showing lethargy, obesity, mild anemia, infertility, and alopecia. a. Thyroid gland b. Pancreas c. Thymus d. Adrenal glands
a. Thyroid gland
47. What is the purpose of the foil backing found on dental x-ray film? a. To absorb exiting remnant radiation b. To be able to mold to the shape of the tooth c. To create a waterproof barrier around the film d. None of the above
a. To absorb exiting remnant radiation
363. The doctor orders a dose of calcium gluconate be administered to a patient. In addition to drawing up the medication, what other procedure should you prepare for? a. To monitor an EKG b. To monitor the BP c. To monitor the SpO2 d. To monitor the temperature
a. To monitor an EKG
91. What is the function of the operculum found in some psittacines? a. To prevent the inhalation of foreign bodies b. To humidify the air c. To absorb saline from the nostrils d. To connect the sinuses to the choanal slit
a. To prevent the inhalation of foreign bodies
119. When viewing a lateral radiograph, the cranial part of the animal is in which direction in relation to the illuminator? a. To the left b. To the right c. To the top d. To the bottom
a. To the left
10. Which parasite only uses the cat as its definitive host? a. Toxoplasma gondii b. Giardia lamblia c. Isospora rivolta d. Balantidium coli
a. Toxoplasma gondii
7. Which of the following would be a parenteral route of pathogen transmission? a. Transfusion b. Contaminated food c. Droplet infection d. Direct contact
a. Transfusion
220. How do transfusion reactions in the cat differ from transfusion reactions in the dog? a. Transfusions are more severe in the cat b. Transfusions are more acute in the dog c. Cats suffer from severe pruritus d. Transfusions are more severe in the dog
a. Transfusions are more severe in the cat
243. Terbutaline, albuterol, and metaproterenol are used in veterinary medicine to: a. Treat feline asthma or other bronchoconstrictive diseases b. Treat low blood pressure caused by shock c. Suppress a productive cough, such as in bronchopneumonia d. Stimulate secretions within the respiratory tree to aid the mucociliary apparatus
a. Treat feline asthma or other bronchoconstrictive diseases
326. Which of these pig parasites can be diagnosed by muscle biopsy? a. Trichinella spiralis b. Oesophagostomum dentatum c. Eimeria suis d. Fasciola hepatica
a. Trichinella spiralis
399. What parasite ova have bipolar plugs? a. Trichuris species b. Taenia species c. Alaria species d. Moniezia species
a. Trichuris species
382. The parasite diagnosed by vaginal washing is: a. Tritrichomonas species b. Dictyocaulus species c. Dioctophyma species d. Anaplasma species
a. Tritrichomonas species
207. Muscles and ligaments attach to structures on bony surfaces. Which of the following is not one of these found in the forelimb? a. Trochanter b. Tuberosity c. Spine d. Epicondyle
a. Trochanter
156. Skeletal muscles are: a. Under voluntary control b. Nonstriated c. Under involuntary control d. Found in the walls of hollow organs
a. Under voluntary control
166. Which of the following conditions results from uneven development of film? a. Uneven chemical levels b. Low-grade light leak in the darkroom c. Film developed in chemicals that are too cold d. Underexposed film
a. Uneven chemical levels
22. Dental film should be placed in the mouth with the dimple facing: a. Up and pointing rostrally b. Up and pointing caudally c. Down and pointing rostrally d. Down and pointing caudally
a. Up and pointing rostrally
193. The dorsal plane divides the: a. Upper and lower halves of the body b. Front and back halves of the body c. Head from the rest of the body d. Right and left sides of the body
a. Upper and lower halves of the body
26. Which of the following substances is used to evaluate kidney filtration and function, is excreted, and then is reabsorbed? a. Urea b. Creatinine c. Glucose d. Sodium
a. Urea
24. Which of the following values is used to evaluate renal function in the avian patient? a. Uric acid b. BUN c. Creatinine d. BUN, creatinine, and uric acid
a. Uric acid
429. An alkaline urine pH can be the result of: a. Urinary tract obstruction b. Uncontrolled diabetes c. Prolonged diarrhea d. Starvation
a. Urinary tract obstruction
62. The most common neoplasia in the unspayed female rabbit is: a. Uterine adenocarcinoma b. Mast cell tumors c. Squamous cell carcinoma d. Osteosarcoma
a. Uterine adenocarcinoma
377. Acquired active immunity results from: a. Vaccination b. Antitoxin administration c. Ingestion of colostrum d. Administration of gamma globulin
a. Vaccination
575. Which structure connects the testes of birds to the cloaca? a. Vas deferens b. Magnum c. Infundibulum d. Ureters
a. Vas deferens
29. Glycosuria exists: a. When blood glucose levels exceed the renal threshold for absorption of glucose b. When blood glucose levels are lower than the renal threshold for absorption of glucose c. When urine glucose levels are lower than the renal threshold for absorption of glucose d. When urine glucose levels are higher than the serum threshold for absorption of glucose
a. When blood glucose levels exceed the renal threshold for absorption of glucose
85. Which of the following diseases in the hedgehog is characterized by progressive ataxia, weight loss, paralysis, and eventual death? a. Wobbling hedgehog syndrome b. Tubulointerstitial nephritis c. Hepatic adenocarcinoma d. Plasmacytoma
a. Wobbling hedgehog syndrome
13. Which of the following can be used specifically to diagnose porphyrins in the rabbit's urine? a. Wood's lamp b. Urine dipstick c. Microscopic examination d. Urine sedimentation examination
a. Wood's lamp
52. The vagus nerve is cranial nerve ________. a. X b. XII c. V d. VI
a. X
170. The most caudal portion of the sternum is called the: a. Xiphoid b. Coccyx c. Manubrium d. Costal
a. Xiphoid
337. The caudal end of the sternum is referred to as the: a. Xiphoid process b. Trochanter c. Calcaneus d. Cannon bone
a. Xiphoid process
139. The emetic of choice in cats is: a. Xylazine b. Syrup of ipecac c. Apomorphine d. Hydrogen peroxide
a. Xylazine
24. To what color does "icteric serum" refer? a. Yellow b. Red c. Brown d. Green
a. Yellow
32. A pregnant bitch has what kind of placentation? a. Zonary b. Cotyledonary c. Diffuse d. Discoid
a. Zonary
8. A pregnant queen has what kind of placentation? a. Zonary b. Cotyledonary c. Diffuse d. Discoid
a. Zonary
55. Anything below what Hounsfield unit is displayed as black on CT imaging? a. −750 HU b. 0 HU c. 250 HU d. None; black is not displayed on CT
a. −750 HU
517. The ovaries of the mare are largely inactive until sexual maturity, which occurs at what age? a. 6 months b. 1- 2 years c. 3- 5 years d. 7 years
b. 1- 2 years
442. What is the half-life of fructosamine? a. 3-5 days b. 1-2 weeks c. 3-5 months d. more than 6 months
b. 1-2 weeks
37. The average urine specific gravity for a healthy adult cat is ___________. a. 1.025 b. 1.030 c. 1.035 d. 1.040
b. 1.030
43. A healthy bird can only lose ≤10% of its blood volume safely. You have been asked to draw a blood sample from a 1-kg macaw. What is the maximum amount of blood that can be taken from this patient safely? a. 1 mL b. 10 mL c. 15 mL d. 5 mL
b. 10 mL
294. Which of the following is a concentration of a drug solution? a. 15 mg/kg b. 1000 U/mL c. 20 gr/mg d. 250 g/lb
b. 1000 U/mL
270. Fresh frozen plasma can be stored up to _________ and still contain clotting factors. a. 1 month b. 12 months c. 36 months d. 60 months
b. 12 months
584. How many thoracic vertebrae does the rabbit have? a. 7 b. 12- 13 c. 4 d. 8
b. 12- 13
11. _________ is the temperature that must be reached and maintained for 13 minutes in a steam autoclave to destroy microorganisms. a. 110° C b. 121° C c. 170° C d. 240° C
b. 121° C
296. How many cubic centimeters are in a tablespoon? a. 5 b. 15 c. 25 d. 30
b. 15
614. Ferrets have _______ thoracic vertebrae. a. 7 b. 15 c. 5- 6 d. 3
b. 15
541. If the angle of tilt of a bird's wing is greater than _______, then lift is reduced. a. 5 degrees b. 15 degrees c. 25 degrees d. 45 degrees
b. 15 degrees
60. When using the shaded-surface display process with CT, which Hounsfield units should be selected to view bone? a. −750 HU b. 160 HU c. −200 HU d. −800 HU
b. 160 HU
494. At what age do wolf teeth develop in the horse? a. Less than 12 months b. 18 months to 5 years c. 5- 10 years d. Greater than 10 years
b. 18 months to 5 years
9. At what age in foals does the closure of the proximal growth plate of P2 occur? a. 4-22 weeks b. 18-30 weeks c. 22-38 weeks d. 18-38 weeks
b. 18-30 weeks
339. An animal's body consists of how many main body cavities? a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 8
b. 2
99. How many chambers does the fish heart contain? a. 4 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5
b. 2
207. To obtain a dorsopalmar view of the fetlock joint of a horse, the primary beam needs to be angled _______ degrees proximal to distal. a. 10 b. 20 c. 45 d. 60
b. 20
398. The doctor asks you to administer 5 g of 25% mannitol to a patient. How many mL do you give? a. 5 mL b. 20 mL c. 40 mL d. 25 mL
b. 20 mL
142. How much urine do horses produce a day? a. 10 mL/ kg/ day b. 20 mL/ kg/ day c. 40 mL/ kg/ day d. 60 mL/ kg/ day
b. 20 mL/ kg/ day
510. How many mL of urine does an equine patient produce per day of body weight? a. 10 mL/ kg/ day b. 20 mL/ kg/ day c. 45 mL/ kg/ day d. 60 mL/ kg/ day
b. 20 mL/ kg/ day
67. A 50-lb dog is to be given 1 mg/kg dose of diazepam. How many milligrams should he receive? a. 50 mg b. 22.7 mg c. 500 mg d. 2.27 mg
b. 22.7 mg
589. What is the average heart rate of rabbits? a. 250- 500 bpm b. 220 bpm c. 130- 190 bpm d. 260- 450 bpm
b. 220 bpm
196. The protective lead equipment required for wear during x-ray exposure can decrease the primary beam exposure by how much? a. 15% b. 25% c. 50% d. 100%
b. 25%
188. How many muscle heads are in the canine triceps brachii group? a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1
b. 3
212. What is the value of X in this cow's dentition chart? I 0/ 3; C 0/ 1; P 3/ 3; M X/ 3 a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1
b. 3
387. The doctor asks you to start a fentanyl CRI at 3 mcg/kg/hr in a 50-kg dog. The fentanyl you have available in the hospital is 50 mcg/mL. What will the rate per hour be? a. 1 mL/hr b. 3 mL/hr c. 5 mL/hr d. 50 mL/hr
b. 3 mL/hr
368. Monosaccharides contain how many carbon atoms in a chain? a. 2- 5 b. 3- 7 c. 5- 10 d. 10- 15
b. 3- 7
162. The red-top Vacutainer tube should sit at room temperature for ___ before centrifugation, allowing a clot to form. a. 5 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 1 hour d. 0 minutes (No clot will form)
b. 30 minutes
128. What percentage is the normal range for packed cell volume (PCV) in the rabbit? a. 25%-35% b. 33%-45% c. 44%-50% d. 50%-57%
b. 33%-45%
587. What is the normal body temperature of rabbits? a. 36.2 ° C- 37.5 ° C b. 38.3 ° C c. 38.3 ° C- 39.2 ° C d. None of the above
b. 38.3 ° C
43. When using a dental x-ray unit, the end of the cone should be positioned at ______ inches from the patient's anatomy. a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 10
b. 4
602. Hard fibrous pellets from the digestive system of rabbits are produced within ______ hours of eating. a. 3 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
b. 4
292. If you count 40 reticulocytes per 1000 erythrocytes, what is the observed reticulocyte count? a. 2% b. 4% c. 20% d. 40%
b. 4%
509. How many grams does the average equine kidney weigh? a. 100- 200 g b. 400- 600 g c. 800- 1000 g d. 1000- 1500 g
b. 400- 600
153. The average gestational length in the ferret is: a. 69 days b. 42 days c. 151 days d. 20 days
b. 42 days
133. When do fetal skeletons of small animals become visible on x-ray? a. 20-25 days b. 42-45 days c. 55-60 days d. 65-70 days
b. 42-45 days
171. How long must the typical microhematocrit tube be centrifuged for packed cell volume determination? a. 1 minute b. 5 minutes c. 10 minutes d. 15 minutes
b. 5 minutes
333. The veterinarian asks you to fill metronidazole 250 mgs po BID for 6 days. You have 500 mg tablets in stock. How many tablets will you fill? a. 3 b. 6 c. 12 d. 24
b. 6
106. What is the half-life of the radioisotope Technetium Tc 99m used in nuclear medicine studies? a. 1 hour b. 6 hours c. 24 hours d. 48 hours
b. 6 hours
364. A puppy infected with Dirofilaria immitis the day it is born will not test positive for heartworm microfilariae until it is _______ old. a. 12 months b. 6 to 7 months c. 3 to 4 months d. 1 month
b. 6 to 7 months
611. How long is the gestational period of guinea pigs? a. 28- 32 days b. 63 days c. 111 days d. 19- 21 days
b. 63 days
293. Most pharmaceutical agents that are measured in grains have how many milligrams per grain? a. 32.4 b. 64.8 c. 100 d. 120
b. 64.8
5. In ferrets, the heart is best auscultated between which of the following ribs? a. 5th and 7th b. 6th and 8th c. 2nd and 4th d. 1st and 3rd
b. 6th and 8th
167. How many cervical vertebrae does the cat have? a. 13 b. 7 c. 3 d. 10
b. 7
640. How many cervical vertebrae does the cat have? a. 3 b. 7 c. 13 d. 18
b. 7
211. Horses have how many cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae? a. 7, 13, 7 b. 7, 18, 7 c. 6, 7, 18 d. 7, 18, 4
b. 7, 18, 7
273. Frozen fresh plasma (FFP) must be separated and frozen within ____ hours to maintain all coagulation factors in normal concentrations. a. 2 b. 8 c. 12 d. 6
b. 8
425. The doctor would like to place a patient on a metoclopramide CRI at 2 mg/kg/day. He would like this added to a 1-L bag of fluids that will last 24 hr. The patient weighs 20 kg. How many mL of 5-mg/mL metoclopramide should be added to the bag? a. 2 mL b. 8 mL c. 20 mL d. 40 mL
b. 8 mL
66. A dog that weighs 10 kg would have approximately how much blood? a. 50 mL b. 800 mL c. 1.5 L d. 2 L
b. 800 mL
395. Plasma is composed of what percentage of water? a. 7% b. 92% c. 1% d. Plasma does not contain water
b. 92%
367. Esmolol is: a. A nonselective beta blocker b. A beta-1 blocker c. A beta-2 blocker d. Not a beta blocker
b. A beta-1 blocker
321. Which fibers in the central nervous system are responsible for sharp, localized pain? a. A b. A delta c. C d. C delta
b. A delta
220. Which of these is not a characteristic of lymph? a. Tissue fluids b. A large number of neutrophils c. B cells d. Part of the circulatory system
b. A large number of neutrophils
58. What does the term pitch refer to in CT imaging? a. The calculation of an unknown value based on two known values on either side b. A ratio between the table movement in mm and the CT slice thickness c. A type of helical scanning d. None of the above
b. A ratio between the table movement in mm and the CT slice thickness
189. Fascia is described as: a. The facial muscular surface b. A tough sheet of fibrous connective tissue c. A broad band of muscle fiber d. A lacy network of connective tissue
b. A tough sheet of fibrous connective tissue
110. The term ventral recumbency refers to the patient lying on the __________________. a. Back b. Abdomen c. Right side d. Left side
b. Abdomen
303. Which cavity lies immediately caudal to the thoracic cavity? a. Pelvic cavity b. Abdominal cavity c. Pleural cavity d. None of these
b. Abdominal cavity
211. To obtain a craniocaudal view of the brachioantebrachial joint of a horse, how should the leg be positioned? a. Adducted b. Abducted c. Extended cranially d. Extended caudally
b. Abducted
148. Where is the heart located in the snake? a. In the middle of the body, similar to a monitor lizard b. About 25% down the length of the body from the nares c. Just below the base of the skull d. About 2 inches below the skull
b. About 25% down the length of the body from the nares
152. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) is an antidote for what type of drug toxicity? a. Opioid b. Acetaminophen c. Lidocaine d. Digoxin
b. Acetaminophen
9. The nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is extremely toxic to cats is: a. Aspirin b. Acetaminophen c. Carprofen d. Flunixin
b. Acetaminophen
355. A nosocomial infection is always: a. Present but not apparent at the time of hospitalization b. Acquired during the course of hospitalization c. Caused by medical personnel d. Acquired during surgery
b. Acquired during the course of hospitalization
219. When restraining a sedated bird for a lateral x-ray, where should the wings be properly taped? a. On the most distal end b. Across the humerus c. Across the radius-ulna d. The wings should not be taped
b. Across the humerus
310. Immunity that is generated by an animal's immune system following exposure to a foreign antigen is referred to as: a. Passive immunity b. Active immunity c. Responsive immunity d. Colostral immunity
b. Active immunity
288. The following information was provided for a prescription written by a veterinarian: "Canine patient, Amoxicillin 100 mg tablets, Sig: 1 tab q8h po prn 2 refills. Date: 1/5/16." In the prescription what does po mean? a. Administer every other day b. Administer by mouth c. Administer as needed d. Administer on an empty stomach
b. Administer by mouth
328. Which of the following is least likely to cause vaccine failure? a. Improper storage b. Administration during anesthesia c. Interference by maternal antibodies d. Improper route of administration
b. Administration during anesthesia
134. Which hormone stimulates the growth and development of the cortex of the adrenal gland and release of some of its hormones? a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone c. Prolactin d. Follicle-stimulating hormone
b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
200. When obtaining a lateromedial view of the carpus of a horse, where should the cassette be held? a. Against the palmarolateral aspect of the leg b. Against the medial aspect of the leg c. Against the palmaromedial aspect of the leg d. Against the palmar aspect of the carpus
b. Against the medial aspect of the leg
230. What are trimethoprim and ormetoprim? a. Agents that are growth regulators b. Agents that enhance bactericidal activity of sulfonamides c. Agents that enhance the spectrum of the activity of penicillins d. Agents that reduce the risk of liver damage from hepatotoxic drugs
b. Agents that enhance bactericidal activity of sulfonamides
401. Where does gas exchange occur in the lungs? a. Bronchi b. Alveolus c. Alveolar duct d. Larynx
b. Alveolus
43. Which of the following nutrients can be used for gluconeogenesis? a. Long-chain fatty acids b. Amino acids c. Vitamin C d. Iron
b. Amino acids
285. What insecticide is effective in treating demodectic mange? a. Fenoxycarb b. Amitraz c. Pyrethrin d. Allethrin
b. Amitraz
300. When a drug is used by an alternative route in a species, or for an indication other than what is specified by the manufacturer, this use is termed: a. A felony offense b. An extra-label use c. Prohibited by the AVMA d. An implied consent from the manufacturer
b. An extra-label use
77. Postrenal azotemia refers to: a. An increase in BUN resulting from severe liver disease b. An increase in BUN resulting from the inability to urinate c. A decrease in BUN resulting from severe renal disease d. An increase in BUN resulting from dehydration
b. An increase in BUN resulting from the inability to urinate
270. Which of the following conditions does the term mastitis refer to? a. The production of colostrum from the mammary gland b. An infection of a mammary gland c. The mammary glands in male species only d. A hormone produced to allow for the production of milk
b. An infection of a mammary gland
272. The testes are responsible for producing which of the following hormones? a. Estrogen b. Androgen c. Progestin d. Sex hormones
b. Androgen
217. A false positive test result is one in which the: a. Animal is affected and the test is negative b. Animal is not affected and the test is positive c. Animal is not affected and the test is negative d. Animal is affected and the test is positive
b. Animal is not affected and the test is positive
276. A variation in erythrocyte size is known as: a. Polycytosis b. Anisocytosis c. Poikilocytosis d. Erythrocytosis
b. Anisocytosis
671. Which muscle flexes the hock and rotates the paw medially? a. Gastrocnemius b. Anterior tibialis c. Pectineus d. Gracilis
b. Anterior tibialis
274. Which of the following stimulates antibody production? a. Immunoglobulin b. Antigen c. T cell d. Plasma cell
b. Antigen
305. What class of drugs generally poses the greatest potential health threat to those handling the medication? a. Antibiotic b. Antineoplastic c. Antinematodal d. Antiprotozoal
b. Antineoplastic
228. What fatal reaction to chloramphenicol has been reported in cats and people? a. Kidney failure b. Aplastic anemia c. Pulmonary edema d. Liver failure
b. Aplastic anemia
110. The front surface of the lens is in contact with which of the following? a. Vitreous humor b. Aqueous humor c. Retina d. Sclera
b. Aqueous humor
53. Repository forms of parenteral drugs: a. Contain a special coating that protects the drug from the harsh, acidic environment of the stomach b. Are formulated to prolong absorption of the drug from the site of administration c. Are composed of specially prepared plant or animal parts rather than being manufactured from chemicals d. Are extremely irritating to the tissues
b. Are formulated to prolong absorption of the drug from the site of administration
391. Which type of blood vessel carries blood away from the heart? a. Veins b. Arteries c. Capillaries d. Vena cava
b. Arteries
139. What is the best exposure time for a thoracic radiograph? a. At any point during the respiratory cycle b. At maximum inspiration c. At maximum expiration d. While the patient is panting
b. At maximum inspiration
168. The first cervical vertebra, C1, is referred to as the: a. Axis b. Atlas c. Arch d. Auricle
b. Atlas
438. What are two examples of anticholinergic drugs? a. Propofol and ketamine b. Atropine and glycopyrrolate c. Cyclosporine and mycophenolate d. Dexdomitor and antisedan
b. Atropine and glycopyrrolate
27. Many species of lizards can "drop" or detach their tails if they are grabbed or restrained too tightly. This natural predatory response is referred to as: a. Autolysis b. Autotomy c. Amputation d. Dysecdysis
b. Autotomy
12. With which of the following is the humoral immune system involved? a. Monocytes b. B cells c. T cells d. Erythrocytes
b. B cells
428. The vestibular sense is responsible for: a. Taste b. Balance and head position c. Vision d. Hearing
b. Balance and head position
360. Which of the following is NOT an example of an organic compound? a. Proteins b. Bases c. Lipids d. Carbohydrates
b. Bases
533. As feathers mature in birds, what happens to the rachis? a. Fills with blood b. Becomes hollow c. Molts d. Nothing, it stays the same throughout life
b. Becomes hollow
482. Which area is the blind spot for a horse? a. In front of the muzzle b. Behind the ears c. Right side of face d. Left side of face
b. Behind the ears
361. On a blood agar plate, an area of complete hemolysis is classified as: a. Alpha b. Beta c. Gamma d. Delta11
b. Beta
245. Which cells within the pancreas produce insulin? a. Alpha cells b. Beta cells c. Delta cells d. All of the cells within the pancreas produce insulin
b. Beta cells
156. Where is the grid located in reference to an x-ray machine? a. Below the cassette b. Between the patient and the cassette c. On top of the patient d. Within the housing unit
b. Between the patient and the cassette
51. The current test of choice for evaluating liver function is: a. Ammonia assay b. Bile acids c. Bilirubin d. Alanine aminotransferase
b. Bile acids
545. Predator birds have which type of vision? a. Monocular b. Binocular c. 3D d. None of the above
b. Binocular
612. Ferrets have which type of vision? a. Monocular b. Binocular c. 3D d. Both a and b
b. Binocular
7. The percentage of the total dose that ultimately reaches the bloodstream is called: a. Absorption b. Bioavailability c. Clearance d. Distribution
b. Bioavailability
401. Some bacteria have an outer layer defined as a biopolymer matrix. This layer is called the: a. Cell wall b. Biofilm c. Matrix layer d. Bio layer
b. Biofilm
347. What is the predominant method for the transmission of feline immunodeficiency virus in cats? a. Grooming b. Bite wounds c. Urine d. Feces
b. Bite wounds
91. How does cerebrospinal fluid appear on a true T1-weighted image of MRI? a. White b. Black c. Different shades of gray d. None of the above
b. Black
257. Impedance is: a. Used in analytic instruments to stop a test b. Blockage of light or electric current in analytic instruments c. Lack of synchronicity between the jugular pulse and the heartbeat d. Inability to feel pedal pulses
b. Blockage of light or electric current in analytic instruments
370. Cardiac drugs that belong in class II act by: a. Stabilizing myocardial cells b. Blocking beta receptors c. Decreasing myocardial automaticity d. Blocking calcium channels
b. Blocking beta receptors
117. Arterial blood is most commonly used to analyze: a. Hematology b. Blood gases c. Blood chemistry d. Organ function tests
b. Blood gases
394. Which of the following is the first main branch of the aorta? a. Left subclavian artery b. Brachiocephalic trunk c. The left common carotid artery d. Superior mesenteric artery
b. Brachiocephalic trunk
460. Which muscle is responsible for movement of the head and neck of the horse? a. Rhomboideus b. Brachiocephalicus c. Splenius d. Deltoid
b. Brachiocephalicus
128. A good presurgical screening test for von Willebrand disease is a(n): a. Total platelet count b. Buccal mucosal bleeding time c. Activated clotting time d. Activated partial thromboplastin time
b. Buccal mucosal bleeding time
332. What structure can cause the male dog to become stuck or "tied" to the female during breeding? a. Testicles b. Bulb of the glans c. Os penis d. None of the above
b. Bulb of the glans
135. Psyllium and Metamucil are examples of: a. Saline cathartics b. Bulk laxatives c. Lubricants d. Irritant cathartics
b. Bulk laxatives
256. What controlled substance rating indicates a drug with the greatest potential for abuse? a. C-III b. C-II c. C-V d. C-IV
b. C-II
684. Which of the following are present in all organs/ tissues and are the sites of exchange between blood and tissue fluid? a. Venules b. Capillaries c. Valves d. Lymph
b. Capillaries
365. Which of the following is an example of a buffer? a. Lemons b. Carbonic acid c. Ammonia d. Vinegar
b. Carbonic acid
192. The two gastric sphincters of the canine are: a. Rectal and cecal b. Cardiac and pyloric c. Cardiac and rectal d. Pyloric and rectal
b. Cardiac and pyloric
94. Which of the following in birds is the final holding area for urine, urates, feces, and eggs before excretion from the body? a. Choana b. Cloaca c. Cecum d. Vent
b. Cloaca
120. Under the microscope you observe a leukocyte that you identify as an eosinophil. The eosinophil cytoplasm contains numerous rod-shaped granules. From which species was this sample most likely collected? a. Dog b. Cat c. Horse d. Cow
b. Cat
95. The species that generally clears NSAIDs most slowly is: a. Dog b. Cat c. Horse d. Ruminant
b. Cat
194. Which of the following contains a filament consisting of a tightly coiled tungsten wire and is the site of electron generation in the x-ray tube? a. Anode b. Cathode c. B-mode d. Transducer
b. Cathode
100. Fat droplets in urine samples are most commonly seen in: a. Dogs b. Cats c. Horses d. Cows
b. Cats
405. Which of the following animals do not have upper incisor teeth? a. Dogs b. Cattle c. Cats d. Horses
b. Cattle
111. The abbreviation Cd in x-ray positioning refers to which of the following? a. Cranial b. Caudal c. Ventral d. Palmar
b. Caudal
190. When positioning a lizard in right lateral recumbency before taking an x-ray, the left limbs are always ____________ to the right limbs. a. Cranial b. Caudal c. Lateral d. Medial
b. Caudal
508. The left kidney of the horse lies __________ to the right kidney, is located ventral to the last rib, and is near the first two or three lumbar transverse processes. a. Cranial b. Caudal c. Lateral d. Medial
b. Caudal
216. For a lateral avian view, where would the left wings and limbs be positioned? a. Cranially to the right wings and limbs b. Caudally to the right wings and limbs c. Lateral to the right wings and limbs d. Superimposed to the right wings and limbs
b. Caudally to the right wings and limbs
252. Drugs classified as ACE inhibitors have what effect on the body? a. Increase the strength of heart contractions b. Cause vasodilatation c. Cause bronchodilatation d. Increase the heart rate
b. Cause vasodilatation
254. Nitroglycerin is sometimes used as a paste applied to the pinna or to the abdominal skin in dogs with cardiovascular disease. Nitroglycerin has what therapeutic effect? a. Increases strength of heart contractions b. Causes vasodilation c. Causes bronchodilation d. Decreases the heart rate
b. Causes vasodilation
665. Which opening lies within the central tendon and transmits the caudal vena cava? a. Aortic hiatus b. Caval foramen c. Esophageal hiatus d. Foramen magnum
b. Caval foramen
599. The ileum in rabbits terminates at which of the following structures? a. Ileocecal tonsil b. Cecum c. Rectum d. Duodenum
b. Cecum
222. A monolayer of cells on a blood smear is best described as: a. A feathered edge b. Cells with no overlapping or touching c. Cells touching each other very closely with some overlapping d. The body of the blood smear
b. Cells with no overlapping or touching
169. What is the topographic radiographic landmark for the caudal cervical vertebrae? a. Base of the skull b. Center of the spine of the scapula c. At the C4 level d. At the T4 level
b. Center of the spine of the scapula
6. To obtain a dorsoventral view of the abdomen of a rabbit, where should the center of the beam be focused? a. Center over the heart b. Center over the liver c. Center of the body cranial to caudal d. Center over the thoracolumbar area
b. Center over the liver
177. Which of the following antibiotics should not be given to an animal that demonstrates an allergic response to penicillin administration? a. Clindamycin b. Cephalosporins c. Sulfonamides d. Fluoroquinolones
b. Cephalosporins
413. What is the largest most rostral part of the brain? a. Cerebellum b. Cerebrum c. Thalamus d. Brainstem
b. Cerebrum
318. Maropitant is the active ingredient in: a. Carafate b. Cerenia c. Flagyl d. Reglan
b. Cerenia
416. Which portion of the spinal cord is located at the .cranial end? a. Sacral b. Cervical c. Thoracic d. Lumbar
b. Cervical
109. What serum component can be used as a screening test for hypothyroidism? a. ALT b. Cholesterol c. Total protein d. Creatine kinase
b. Cholesterol
84. Fat in the lymph would most likely be associated with: a. Micelles b. Chylomicrons c. VLDL cholesterol d. LDL cholesterol
b. Chylomicrons
407. After food leaves the stomach, it is referred to as which of the following terms? a. Rugae b. Chyme c. Rumen d. Bile
b. Chyme
295. Epithelial cells that contain tiny hairlike projections that move foreign particles along the epithelial surface are known as: a. Simple columnar epithelium b. Ciliated epithelium c. Stratified epithelium d. Transitional epithelium
b. Ciliated epithelium
300. What anticoagulant is used to determine activated partial thromboplastin time and one-stage prothrombin time? a. Heparin b. Citrate c. Fluoride d. EDTA
b. Citrate
61. An example of an antibiotic that is considered to be a βeta-lactamase inhibitor is: a. Amoxicillin b. Clavamox c. Tetracycline d. Penicillin
b. Clavamox
209. What is added to amoxicillin to make it resistant to the penicillin-destroying β-lactamase enzymes produced by some bacteria? a. Trimethoprim b. Clavulanic acid c. Piperonyl butoxide d. Ormetoprim
b. Clavulanic acid
245. Films that are properly collimated will have which of the following appearances? a. Black, fully exposed edges of the film of a finished radiograph b. Clear, unexposed areas on all four edges of the film of a finished radiograph c. Clear, unexposed areas of the 2 long edges of a finished radiograph d. Clear, unexposed areas of the 2 short edges of a finished radiograph
b. Clear, unexposed areas on all four edges of the film of a finished radiograph
566. Which structure is located distal to the cecum of birds? a. Gizzard b. Cloaca c. Proventriculus d. Crop
b. Cloaca
232. What organ releases T cells? a. Thyroid b. Thymus c. Splenic trabeculae d. Tonsils
b. Thymus
63. The best means of assuring that a particular antibiotic treatment will be successful is to: a. Treat for no less than a full 2-week course b. Collect a sample from the infected area for culture and sensitivity c. Use the highest dose that is considered nontoxic d. Use a broad-spectrum antibiotic
b. Collect a sample from the infected area for culture and sensitivity
366. Potassium-sparing diuretics, such as Spirolactone, act on what part of the kidneys? a. Loop of Henle b. Collecting duct c. Proximal tubule d. Bowman capsule
b. Collecting duct
282. What breed of dog has a blood-brain barrier that allows ivermectin to reach toxic concentrations within the brain more readily than in other breeds? a. German shepherd b. Collie c. Schnauzer d. Cocker spaniel
b. Collie
409. Which is the longest segment of the large intestines? a. Ileum b. Colon c. Cecum d. Rectum
b. Colon
32. Which of the following ultrasound artifacts will likely be produced when the sound wave strikes a metal object or a pocket of air? a. Edge shadowing b. Comet tail c. Mirror image d. Acoustic enhancement
b. Comet tail
37. Sexing a tortoise is generally easy. The plastron in the male tortoise is usually: a. Convex b. Concave c. Wider and thicker compared to the female d. Narrower compared to the female
b. Concave
226. A feature of digital radiography that is related to the bit depth of each pixel and the software that accompanies the digital-imaging system is referred to as which of the following? a. Spatial resolution b. Contrast optimization c. Dynamic range d. Exposure latitude
b. Contrast optimization
375. Lactulose can be given to a patient with a portosystemic shunt to help: a. Decrease gastrointestinal transit time b. Convert ammonia to ammonium c. Prevent diarrhea d. Prevent water loss though the colon
b. Convert ammonia to ammonium
429. The clear window on the rostral portion of the eye is known as: a. Eyelids b. Cornea c. Iris d. Sclera
b. Cornea
130. The structure produced immediately after an ovarian follicle has ruptured and released its ovum is the: a. Corpus callosum b. Corpus luteum c. Corpus albicans d. Graafian follicle
b. Corpus luteum
346. What is the main purpose of the epithelial tissue? a. Provides support for the body b. Covers body surfaces c. Provides movement of structures d. Controls the body function
b. Covers body surfaces
329. Bulbourethral glands are also known as? a. The prostate b. Cowper's glands c. Roots d. Seminal glands
b. Cowper's glands
334. The thoracic cavity is considered to be in what anatomical direction from the abdomen? a. Caudal b. Cranial c. Dorsal d. Ventral
b. Cranial
336. A horse's shoulder is located in which anatomical direction to its hip? a. Caudal b. Cranial c. Proximal d. Ventral
b. Cranial
681. Which artery supplies the small intestines with blood? a. Celiac artery b. Cranial mesenteric artery c. Caudal mesenteric artery d. Femoral artery
b. Cranial mesenteric artery
149. What muscle is responsible for pulling the testicles closer to the body? a. Retractor penis muscle b. Cremaster muscle c. Kegel muscle d. Retractor testicle muscle
b. Cremaster muscle
318. Which muscle is responsible for adjusting the testes to regulate temperature? a. Inguinal ring b. Cremaster muscle c. Levator ani d. Psoas muscle
b. Cremaster muscle
104. In the avian species, the ventral wall of the esophagus is greatly expanded to form the: a. Proventriculus b. Crop c. Gizzard d. Duodenum
b. Crop
565. Food passes down the esophagus on the right side of the neck of birds and enters what structure? a. Gizzard b. Crop c. Duodenum d. Proventriculus
b. Crop
193. Triple sulfas were developed to the avert _________ that was/were seen with single sulfonamide toxicity. a. Diarrhea b. Crystalluria c. Bronchospasms d. Seizures
b. Crystalluria
377. Atopica is the brand name for: a. Anzemet b. Cyclosporine c. Dolasetron d. Furosemide
b. Cyclosporine
650. What is the fluid of a cell called? a. Cytoplasm b. Cytosol c. Cytoskeleton d. Tubulins
b. Cytosol
362. Of the fluids listed, which has the lowest sodium content? a. 0.9% NaCl b. D5W c. 0.45% NaCl d. Lactated ringers
b. D5W
199. Digital radiography, CT, MRI, and ultrasound are stored using a universally accepted format known as? a. CCD b. DICOM c. MOD d. PACS
b. DICOM
218. What drugs are considered fluoroquinolones? a. Oxytetracycline, doxycycline b. Danofloxacin, enrofloxacin c. Sulfadimethoxine, sulfamethazine d. Chloramphenicol, lincomycin
b. Danofloxacin, enrofloxacin
316. The specific treatment for malignant hyperthermia is: a. Dexmedetomidine b. Dantrolene c. Diazepam d. Acepromazine
b. Dantrolene
34. Which of the following is the correct definition for the ultrasound term hypoechoic? a. Bright gray b. Dark gray c. White d. Black
b. Dark gray
409. In geriatric patients, drug doses are generally: a. The same as in puppies b. Decreased c. Increased d. The same as in adults
b. Decreased
303. What is the most common cause of hypochromia in erythrocytes? a. Hypertonic drugs b. Decreased hemoglobin c. Iron toxicity d. Increased erythrocyte production
b. Decreased hemoglobin
433. Pancytopenia is characterized by: a. Decreased numbers of white blood cells b. Decreased numbers of all blood cells c. Decreased numbers of red blood cells d. Decreased numbers of granulocytes and monocytes
b. Decreased numbers of all blood cells
416. The parasite also known as the large American liver fluke is of the: a. Alaria species b. Fascioloides species c. Stephanurus species d. Metastrongylus species
b. Fascioloides species
164. The category of drugs classified as ACE inhibitors has which of the following effects on the body? a. Increases preload and afterload on the heart b. Decreases preload and afterload on the heart c. Enhances fluid retention in the body d. Enhances the production of angiotensin II
b. Decreases preload and afterload on the heart
470. Which of the following tendons flexes the toe in horses? a. Suspensory ligament b. Deep digital flexor tendon c. Superficial digital flexor tendon d. Lateral digital extensor tendon
b. Deep digital flexor tendon
187. In which of the following circumstances should water-soluble organic iodides be avoided? a. Suspected bowel perforation b. Dehydrated patients c. Overhydrated patients d. Kidney failure
b. Dehydrated patients
375. When water is extracted from saccharides, it is known as: a. Hydrolysis b. Dehydration synthesis c. Decomposition reaction d. Synthesis reaction
b. Dehydration synthesis
63. The portal vein: a. Carries blood from the spleen to the heart b. Delivers blood to the liver c. Delivers blood to the kidney d. Carries blood from the lungs to the heart
b. Delivers blood to the liver
393. The parasite that lives in hair follicles is: a. Sarcoptes species b. Demodex species c. Chorioptes species d. Otodectes species
b. Demodex species
61. An owner calls the clinic regarding her sick guinea pig. She tells you that her pet has not eaten in 16 hours and has been "picky" with her food during the previous few weeks. She has noticed drooling, overgrooming, and small-sized feces. It sounds as if the veterinarian should examine the guinea pig. Although a diagnosis can't be made on the phone, what is the most likely cause of the animal's signs? a. Cystic ovaries b. Dental disease c. Pasteurella multocida d. Trichobezoar
b. Dental disease
106. All of the following drugs are antagonists and are used to reverse the effects of another drug, except: a. Yohimbine b. Detomidine c. Flumazenil d. Naloxone
b. Detomidine
580. Mature female rabbits develop a large fold of skin under the chin that is known as the: a. Philtrum b. Dewlap c. Crepuscular d. None of the above
b. Dewlap
430. Which of the following is primarily used as a sedative that can also be used to increase the duration of an epidural? a. Bupivacaine b. Dexmedetomidine c. Hydromorphone d. Morphine
b. Dexmedetomidine
72. Which of the following drugs is available over the counter as an antitussive? a. Codeine b. Dextromethorphan c. Hydrocodone d. Butorphanol
b. Dextromethorphan
108. Which muscle is the main muscle for inspiration? a. Epaxial muscle b. Diaphragm c. Internal abdominal oblique d. Hypaxial muscles
b. Diaphragm
526. What division are birds missing that is normally seen between the thorax and abdomen of other animals? a. Lungs b. Diaphragm c. Liver d. Keel
b. Diaphragm
136. What is not a potential side effect of the phenothiazine antiemetics? a. CNS depression b. Diarrhea c. Lowering of the seizure threshold d. Hypotension
b. Diarrhea
383. The parasite diagnosed by tracheal wash is: a. Tritrichomonas species b. Dictyocaulus species c. Dioctophyma species d. Anaplasma species
b. Dictyocaulus species
317. Diffusion of drug molecules across the cell membrane that does not require energy, and is a result of a difference in the concentration of that drug on the inside side of the cell versus the outside, is called: a. Active transport b. Diffusive transport c. Passive transport d. Facilitated transport
b. Diffusive transport
527. Which of the following is responsible for the perching reflex in birds? a. Tibiotarsus b. Digital flexor tendon c. Craniofacial hinge d. Supracoracoid muscle
b. Digital flexor tendon
26. Which reaction is the result of sympathetic nervous system stimulation? a. Decreased heart rate b. Dilated pupils c. Increased GI activity d. Increased salivation
b. Dilated pupils
166. For cats diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, a calcium channel blocker is often prescribed to relax the heart in an attempt to improve cardiac output. Which of the following drugs falls in this category? a. Procainamide b. Diltiazem c. Lidocaine d. Digoxin
b. Diltiazem
279. One of the following anti-inflammatory drugs is sometimes applied topically. Care must be taken to clean the area where it is applied because it readily penetrates the skin and can carry bacterial toxins or other chemicals with it into the body. What drug is this? a. Dexamethasone b. Dimethyl sulfoxide c. Flunixin meglumine d. Hydrocortisone
b. Dimethyl sulfoxide
132. When using Diff-Quik to stain bone marrow smears, it is especially important to: a. Use freshly filtered stain b. Dip the smear twice as long as blood smears c. Rinse thoroughly with distilled water d. Let the smear dry for 30 minutes before staining
b. Dip the smear twice as long as blood smears
454. The femoral condyle is located ______________ to the head of the femur in a horse. a. Proximal b. Distal c. Lateral d. Medial
b. Distal
236. For proper calibration, what solution should be used to calibrate a refractometer? a. Tap water b. Distilled water c. Plasma d. Urine
b. Distilled water
413. Low molecular weight heparin is different from unfractionated heparin in that it: a. Is less pure than unfractionated heparin b. Does not block the activity of thrombin whereas unfractionated heparin does c. Is less expensive than unfractionated heparin d. Is more likely to cause hemorrhage than unfractionated heparin
b. Does not block the activity of thrombin whereas unfractionated heparin does
263. All of the following common domestic animals have a bulbourethral gland (Cowper's gland) except: a. Cat b. Dog c. Horse d. Cow
b. Dog
235. Bile is produce by which of the following organs? a. Gallbladder b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Spleen
b. Liver
411. While drawing up injectable Amikacin for a patient, you note that it has developed a pale yellow color. What should you do? a. Discard the rest of the bottle b. Don't be concerned because you know this can be normal c. Dilute it with saline d. Dilute it with sterile water
b. Don't be concerned because you know this can be normal
28. Which of the following is most commonly used to obtain a heart rate in a reptilian patient? a. Ultrasound b. Doppler c. Stethoscope d. Palpation of pulse
b. Doppler
16. Which of the following best describes the use for Doppler ultrasound? a. Doppler uses a motion mode that simultaneously creates a B-mode image while displaying the motion of the tissues over a two-dimensional scale b. Doppler is used to image the flow of blood and other liquids as well as to measure their velocity c. Doppler units display the different shades of gray d. None of the above
b. Doppler is used to image the flow of blood and other liquids as well as to measure their velocity
38. To obtain a craniocaudal view of the tibia of a small animal, that patient should be in which of the following positions? a. Sternal recumbency b. Dorsal recumbency c. Right lateral recumbency d. Left lateral recumbency
b. Dorsal recumbency
538. Which surface of the wing is longer and convex? And which surface is shorter and more concave? a. Ventral/ dorsal b. Dorsal/ ventral c. Proximal/ distal d. Distal/ proximal
b. Dorsal/ ventral
229. Which radiographic view of the carpal joint of a horse provides the best view to judge the width of the cartilage spaces? a. Lateral b. Dorsopalmar c. Medial oblique d. Flexed lateral
b. Dorsopalmar
49. Which of the following radiographic terms describes the radiographic views distal to the carpus obtained by passing the primary x-ray beam from the dorsal direction to the palmar surface of the forelimb? a. Plantar b. Dorsopalmar c. Palmar d. Caudocranial
b. Dorsopalmar
105. Which of the following is the correct abbreviation to perform a dorsopalmar radiograph? a. CdCr b. Dpa c. CrCd d. Cr
b. Dpa
14. In the rabbit, pregnancy toxemia is most likely to occur during which week(s) of gestation? a. During the first 2 weeks b. During the last week c. During the 6th week d. During the 5th week
b. During the last week
130. To keep the skin and coat healthy, a chinchilla should be offered a daily: a. Multivitamin b. Dust bath c. Vitamin C tablet d. Handful of dried papaya
b. Dust bath
57. The regulatory agency that oversees the development and approval of animal topical pesticides is the: a. FDA b. EPA c. USDA d. DEA
b. EPA
71. A correction for nucleated red blood cells (nRBC) is done to avoid a falsely: a. Elevated PCV b. Elevated WBC count c. Decreased PCV d. Decreased WBC count
b. Elevated WBC count
128. Which of the following is a ductless system? a. Exocrine system b. Endocrine system c. Lymphatic system d. All of the above systems contain ducts
b. Endocrine system
322. ELISA is an acronym for: a. Electro-linked immunosorbent assay b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay c. Enzyme-linked immunoassay d. Electrolytic isoantibody assay
b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
673. The _______________ is a projection of bone on the lateral edge above its condyle. a. Foramen b. Epicondyle c. Head d. Periosteum
b. Epicondyle
290. Which layer of the skin is the most superficial? a. Dermis b. Epidermis c. Hypodermis d. None of these
b. Epidermis
291. Which layer of skin is composed of multiple layers of cells that are continually renewed? a. Dermis b. Epidermis c. Hypodermis d. All of the above
b. Epidermis
97. Mucus is normally seen in _________ urine. a. Canine b. Equine c. Feline d. Bovine
b. Equine
196. What marrow finding is consistent with a responsive anemia? a. Myeloid hypoplasia b. Erythroid hyperplasia c. Erythroid hypoplasia d. Myeloid metaplasia
b. Erythroid hyperplasia
175. The term for red blood cell formation is: a. Erythropoietin b. Erythropoiesis c. Hematopoietin d. Leukopoiesis
b. Erythropoiesis
239. Drugs that reduce the viscosity of secretions in the respiratory tract are called: a. Anti-inflammatories b. Expectorants c. Antitussives d. Antihistamines
b. Expectorants
222. When obtaining a dorsoventral view of the whole body of a rodent, how should the front legs be positioned? a. Extended caudally b. Extended cranially c. Superimposed d. Abducted from the body
b. Extended cranially
663. Which muscle originates from the caudal border of one rib and inserts on the cranial border of the rib behind it? a. Internal intercostals b. External intercostals c. External abdominal oblique d. Internal abdominal oblique
b. External intercostals
111. Rostral abrasions in the captive lizard are most commonly caused by: a. Fungal infections b. Facial impact with terrarium walls c. Trauma from cage mates d. Trauma from feeding live prey
b. Facial impact with terrarium walls
434. Because sucralfate is more effective in an acidic environment, it should be administered before: a. Cisapride b. Famotidine c. Lactulose d. Metoclopramide
b. Famotidine
13. Which of the following is a lentivirus? a. Coronavirus b. Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV) c. Herpes virus d. Parvovirus
b. Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)
365. The ELISA heartworm test kit detects the antigens of: a. Heartworm microfilariae b. Female adult heartworms c. Adult heartworms and microfilariae d. Toxins produced by adult heartworms
b. Female adult heartworms
315. Malignant hyperthermia is a possible side effect of which of the following? a. Etomidate b. Fentanyl c. Halothane d. Propofol
b. Fentanyl
447. Which of the following joints lies between the cannon bone and the long pastern? a. Stifle joint b. Fetlock joint c. Pastern joint d. Carpal joint
b. Fetlock joint
77. Sox, a 10-year-old M/C Siamese X, was brought to the emergency hospital, crying in pain and unable to walk. He was diagnosed with an aortic thromboembolism secondary to cardiomyopathy. The drug class used to treat this condition is: a. Anticoagulant b. Fibrinolytic c. Hematinic d. Hemostatic
b. Fibrinolytic
201. Which statement best describes short bones? a. Greater size in one dimension than another b. Filled with spongy bone and marrow spaces c. Thick outer layer of compact bone d. Irregularly shaped bones that make up the spinal column
b. Filled with spongy bone and marrow spaces
198. Which type of monitoring badge is the most common method of monitoring ionizing radiation? a. Thermoluminescent dosimeters b. Film badges c. Optically stimulated luminescence badges d. Ion chambers
b. Film badges
99. Which of the following is the best view for detecting distal corner fractures? a. Lateral view b. Flexed lateral view c. Medial oblique d. Dorsopalmar view
b. Flexed lateral view
23. Which class of antibiotics, when administered to juvenile animals, can impair cartilage development? a. Cephalosporins b. Fluoroquinolones c. Macrolides d. Penicillins
b. Fluoroquinolones
260. Bots are: a. Lice eggs b. Fly larvae c. Flea feces d. Seed ticks
b. Fly larvae
150. Not all follicles that were activated in a particular ovarian cycle fully develop and ovulate. This is known as: a. Ovulation b. Follicular atresia c. Graafian follicle d. Corpus albicans
b. Follicular atresia
477. What provides nourishment to the digital cushion and functions with the frog in the horse's foot? a. Sole corium b. Frog corium c. Laminar corium d. Perioplic corium
b. Frog corium
58. The most common cause for penile prolapse in the chinchilla is: a. Malnutrition b. Fur ring formation c. Improper breeding with female d. Bacterial infection
b. Fur ring formation
136. Scruffing is not recommended in chinchillas because of which of the following potential issues: a. It is painful for them b. Fur slip c. Scruffing is actually fine in chinchillas d. Chinchillas do not have enough skin around the neck region to scruff them properly
b. Fur slip
235. Which of the following is not a radiographic characteristic of the bones of a newborn foal? a. Smooth b. Fused c. Round d. Wider joint spaces
b. Fused
7. Which of the following areas contains more than half of all lymphoid tissue in the rabbit? a. Nervous system b. GI tract c. Urinary tract d. Heart and lungs
b. GI tract
478. The sequence in which a horse lifts its feet from the ground is described as what? a. Trot b. Gait c. Gallop d. Canter
b. Gait
120. What abdominal organ is absent in the horse and rat? a. Right kidney b. Gallbladder c. Pancreas d. Cecum
b. Gallbladder
555. The 9 different air sacs within birds are responsible for all of the following, except: a. Lightening the weight of the skeleton b. Gaseous exchange c. As a reservoir for air d. The bellows Effect
b. Gaseous exchange
97. The most common side effect of NSAIDs is: a. Polyuria b. Gastrointestinal ulceration c. Diarrhea d. Constipation
b. Gastrointestinal ulceration
3. Which of the following are common presenting signs in a ferret with ibuprofen toxicity? a. Arrhythmias and vomiting b. Generalized neurologic signs c. Heart failure d. Excessive drooling and tachycardia
b. Generalized neurologic signs
214. What antibiotic is most likely to cause damage to the ear? a. Amoxicillin b. Gentamicin c. Tetracycline d. Enrofloxacin
b. Gentamicin
383. Functional proteins are also known as: a. Structural proteins b. Globular proteins c. Fibrous proteins d. None of the above
b. Globular proteins
669. Which muscle group extends the hip joint and abducts the thigh? a. Sartorius b. Gluteals c. Quadriceps femoris d. Gastrocnemius
b. Gluteals
645. All of the following are lipids, except: a. Steroids b. Glycogen c. Triglycerides d. Prostaglandins
b. Glycogen
448. Which drug is preferred over Atropine for use in rabbits, because Atropine is less predictable in this species? a. Acepromazine b. Glycopyrrolate c. Diazepam d. a and b
b. Glycopyrrolate
356. Generally, endotoxins are products of: a. Viruses b. Gram-negative bacteria c. Gram-positive bacteria d. Fungi
b. Gram-negative bacteria
94. What is the name for the large, flat projection located lateral to the head of the femur? a. Lesser trochanter b. Greater trochanter c. Trochanteric fossa d. Tubercle
b. Greater trochanter
176. What is the caudal landmark for obtaining an abdominal x-ray in the lateral position? a. Three rib spaces cranial to the xiphoid b. Greater trochanter of the femur c. The ilium wings d. The manubrium
b. Greater trochanter of the femur
25. What color are blood collection tubes that contain heparin? a. Purple b. Green c. Blue d. Gray
b. Green
307. Controlled substances are drugs that: a. Cannot be used in any animal intended for use as human food b. Have a high potential for abuse c. Are very hazardous to anyone handling them d. Are environmentally hazardous
b. Have a high potential for abuse
34. Which of the following sites are commonly used for venipuncture in the snake? a. Heart and ventral abdominal vein b. Heart and caudal tail vein c. Heart only d. Caudal tail vein and ventral abdominal vein
b. Heart and caudal tail vein
430. Blood in the urine is reported as: a. Dysuria b. Hematuria c. Pyuria d. Proteinuria
b. Hematuria
44. Mr. Downing has brought in a urine sample from Cleo, his 6-year-old female spayed cocker spaniel. The color of the urine appears red. On centrifugation of the sample, you find that the supernatant is now clear. What was the most likely cause of the red color? a. Hemoglobinuria b. Hematuria c. Myoglobinuria d. Uroglobinuria
b. Hematuria
397. Which protein gives erythrocytes their red color? a. Granulocytes b. Hemoglobin c. Fibrinogen d. Eosinophil
b. Hemoglobin
92. Yellow mucous membranes would suggest: a. Renal disease b. Hepatic disease c. Shock d. Dehydration
b. Hepatic disease
97. Clinical signs in a bird that include loose green feces, green urates, lethargy, inappetence, ascites, abnormal beak and nails, and poor feather quality are often indicative of: a. Renal failure b. Hepatic disease c. Fungal overgrowth d. Cardiac disease
b. Hepatic disease
21. An intact male African hedgehog of unknown age presents to the clinic with a 3-day history of lethargy, inappetence, icterus, and diarrhea. Which of the following diseases is most likely to cause these symptoms? a. Acute renal failure b. Hepatic lipidosis c. Bacterial pneumonia d. Glomerulosclerosis
b. Hepatic lipidosis
115. Which structure drains blood from the stomach, intestine, and pancreas and flows directly to the liver? a. Hepatic veins b. Hepatic portal vein c. Hepatic artery d. Portosystemic shunt
b. Hepatic portal vein
144. Which of the following leukocytes are usually the most numerous cells in avian blood? a. Eosinophils b. Heterophils c. Basophils d. Lymphocytes
b. Heterophils
123. Which of the following will help prevent motion artifacts? a. Low milliamperage b. High milliamperage c. Higher kVp d. Lower kVp
b. High milliamperage
251. The indented area on the medial side of the kidney is known as the: a. Porta hepatis b. Hilum c. Convex d. Cortex
b. Hilum
141. The point at which blood vessels, nerves, and ureters enter and leave the kidneys is known as: a. Medulla b. Hilus c. Cortex d. Pelvis
b. Hilus
340. During an allergic response, what do sensitized cells produce in abnormal quantities when an allergen reappears after an initial exposure? a. Antihistamines b. Histamine c. Toxins d. Lysins
b. Histamine
621. A castrated male ferret is referred to as a: a. Jill b. Hobble c. Hob d. Gelding
b. Hobble
473. A protective external capsule, called the __________, surrounds the internal structures of the foot on a horse. a. Frog b. Hoof c. Horseshoe d. Sole
b. Hoof
420. Calcium carbonate crystals are often seen in ___ urine. a. Dog b. Horse c. Cat d. Cattle
b. Horse
94. Flunixin meglumine (Banamine) is an NSAID most commonly used in: a. Dogs for the treatment of chronic osteoarthritis b. Horses for the treatment of colic c. Horses for reducing fever d. Dogs for its anticoagulant activity
b. Horses for the treatment of colic
101. What is the term used to describe an area that indicates higher radiation has been emitted in nuclear medicine? a. Cold spot b. Hot spot c. Gamma photon burst d. None of the above
b. Hot spot
272. What appears as a blue spherical nuclear remnant seen in some Wright-stained erythrocytes? a. Reticulocyte b. Howell-Jolly body c. Heinz body d. Leptocyte
b. Howell-Jolly body
449. The glenoid cavity is located immediately proximal to which of the following bones of the horse? a. Scapula b. Humerus c. Ulna d. Cannon bone
b. Humerus
76. Which of the following is the best method for storing lead x-ray gowns? a. Folded and kept in a drawer to prevent overexposure b. Hung up by the shoulders when not in use c. Draped across the table with the tail end hanging off the side d. None of the above
b. Hung up by the shoulders when not in use
423. Visceral sensations include which of the following? a. Heat and cold b. Hunger and thirst c. Odors d. Touch and pressure
b. Hunger and thirst
183. Which of the following is the largest intermediate form of a tapeworm? a. Cysticercus b. Hydatid cyst c. Coenurus d. Cysticercoid
b. Hydatid cyst
89. Chronic use of moderate-to-high doses of glucocorticoids may result in the development of: a. Hypoadrenocorticism b. Hyperadrenocorticism c. Hypothyroidism d. Hyperthyroidism
b. Hyperadrenocorticism
266. What is the underlying cause of icterus? a. Anemia b. Hyperbilirubinemia c. Ketonuria d. Hyperhemoglobinemia
b. Hyperbilirubinemia
202. For glucosuria to occur, which of the following must also be present? a. Uremia b. Hyperglycemia c. Ketonemia d. Azoturia
b. Hyperglycemia
338. When reviewing a blood smear, you come across an erythrocyte that does not contain its full amount of hemoglobin. What is this known as? a. Polychromasia b. Hypochromasia c. Basophilia d. Hyperchromasia
b. Hypochromasia
404. The parasite whose larvae form warbles in subcutaneous tissue along the backs of cattle is: a. Gasterophilus species b. Hypoderma species c. Oestrus species d. Cuterebra species
b. Hypoderma species
213. All of the following samples should be submitted when acetaminophen is suspected to have been ingested, except: a. Plasma (EDTA or heparin preserved) b. Liver biopsy c. Urine d. Blood Smear
b. Liver biopsy
23. An Amazon parrot presents to the hospital with the following clinical signs: blunted choanal papillae, plantar erosions on the planter surfaces of the feet, poor-quality feathering, and poor skin. Diet consists of seeds only. Which of the following diseases is most likely to cause these signs? a. Hypovitaminosis C b. Hypovitaminosis A c. Hypocalcemia d. Candidiasis
b. Hypovitaminosis A
339. A patient is hospitalized for vomiting and diarrhea. The doctor orders metronidazole to be given BID. What is the most likely route the doctor will use? a. PO b. IV c. IM d. SQ
b. IV
427. Because administration of medications via this route has more potential for adverse effects, what type of injection should be given slowly? a. IP b. IV c. IM d. SQ
b. IV
86. Milk fever in dairy cows is typically treated with: a. IV glucose b. IV calcium c. Atropine d. Antibiotics
b. IV calcium
168. In dogs that have been receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy (months to years), a sudden discontinuation of the drug may result in which of the following medical problems? a. Immunosuppression b. Iatrogenic addisonian crisis c. Polyuria and polydipsia d. Iatrogenic thyroid disease
b. Iatrogenic addisonian crisis
247. What sample condition cannot be minimized by proper animal preparation or proper sample collection and handling? a. Hemolysis b. Icterus c. Lipemia d. Evaporation
b. Icterus
119. Which of these is not a division of the small intestine? a. Duodenum b. Ilium c. Ileum d. Jejunum
b. Ilium
452. Which of the following is the largest bone of the pelvis of the horse? a. Ischium b. Ilium c. Pubis d. Acetabulum
b. Ilium
85. Which of the following side effects is commonly seen with many cancer chemotherapeutic drugs? a. Hyperglycemia b. Immunosuppression c. Constipation d. Hyperphagia
b. Immunosuppression
378. Escherichia coli is normally found: a. On the skin b. In the intestinal tract c. In the respiratory tract d. In the stomach
b. In the intestinal tract
173. When imaging the lumbosacral vertebrae in the lateral position, which of the following should be done to ensure proper exposure? a. Decrease the kVp b. Increase the kVp c. Increase the mAs d. Decrease the mAs
b. Increase the kVp
231. How does the adjacent bone density appear in fresh carpal chips in horses? a. Decreased b. Increased c. Normal
b. Increased
19. Which of the following factors does not contribute to cannibalism of the young by female hamsters? a. Lean diet b. Increased ambient temperature c. Low body weight d. Handling the mother and/or the young
b. Increased ambient temperature
412. A urine specimen collected by free catch at 8 AM and left at room temperature until the afternoon could be expected to have: a. Decreased numbers of bacteria b. Increased numbers of bacteria c. Decreased numbers of epithelial cells d. Increased numbers of epithelial cells
b. Increased numbers of bacteria
225. Prolonged exposure of serum to the blood cells before the serum is removed from the clot can result in: a. Increased serum glucose b. Increased serum phosphorus c. Increased serum enzyme activity d. Increased serum sodium
b. Increased serum phosphorus
668. Which muscle is responsible for stabilizing and flexing the shoulder joint? a. Supraspinatus b. Infraspinatus c. Triceps brachii d. Biceps brachii
b. Infraspinatus
331. The mode of action in which Enrofloxacin works by is: a. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis b. Inhibiting DNA c. Inhibiting protein synthesis d. Inhibiting the metabolic pathway
b. Inhibiting DNA
273. Which hormone is responsible for the movement of glucose into cells and its use for energy? a. Progestin b. Insulin c. Glucagon d. Calcitonin
b. Insulin
315. Which muscle type is responsible for moving the lips, cheeks, nostrils, eyelids, and external ears? a. Sphincter muscle b. Intrinsic muscle c. Extrinsic muscle d. Digastricus.
b. Intrinsic muscle
357. A bond that is formed when electrons are transferred from one atom to another is known as what type of bond? a. Covalent bond b. Ionic bond c. Hydrogen bond d. Triple covalent bond
b. Ionic bond
654. When tension is generated in the muscle, muscle tone increases but the muscle does not shorten. Which of the following correctly names this action? a. Isotonic contraction b. Isometric contraction c. Muscle tone d. None of the above
b. Isometric contraction
402. Which of the following is true about the thoracic cavity? a. It contains positive pressure b. It contains negative pressure c. It does not contain any fluid d. It is located below the diaphragm
b. It contains negative pressure
28. Which of the following statements is true when considering the use of butorphanol? a. It is an antibiotic b. It is an antitussive c. It can be reversed using yohimbine d. It is contraindicated in the cat
b. It is an antitussive
206. Unlike many other penicillins, penicillin G is not recommended for use by mouth. Why? a. It upsets the stomach. b. It is destroyed by gastric acid. c. It causes severe diarrhea and intestinal cramping. d. It is ineffectively absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract.
b. It is destroyed by gastric acid.
144. If the mA or exposure time is doubled, what happens to the film density? a. It is halved b. It is doubled c. It stays the same d. It is unrelated to the mA or exposure time
b. It is doubled
302. Sometimes drugs are first administered in a large dose and then given as a series of smaller doses. What is the first dose called? a. Initial dose b. Loading dose c. Distribution dose d. Bolus dose
b. Loading dose
9. Which of the following is an important function of bacterial flagella? a. Attachment b. Locomotion c. DNA replication d. Ion transport
b. Locomotion
223. Why should tetracycline use be avoided in pregnant bitches? a. It may cause changes in the joint cartilage that may result in arthritis at an older age in the pup. b. It may be deposited in dental enamel and give the pup's teeth a mottled yellow appearance. c. It may impair normal central nervous system development in the pups that may show up as behavioral changes later in life. d. It may damage the developing pups and may result in liver impairment later in life.
b. It may be deposited in dental enamel and give the pup's teeth a mottled yellow appearance.
348. Which of the following is most likely to be used against Malassezia? a. Griseofulvin b. Itraconazole c. Metronidazole d. Tetracycline
b. Itraconazole
389. The parasite also known as a deer tick is: a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus b. Ixodes dammini c. Dermacentor variabilis d. Dermacentor albipictus
b. Ixodes dammini
107. Which of the following species is arboreal? a. Leopard gecko b. Jackson's chameleon c. Bearded dragon d. Savannah monitor
b. Jackson's chameleon
524. The sternum of birds is extended into a laterally flattened __________, which provides a large surface area for the attachment of the major flight muscles. a. Coracoid b. Keel c. Beak d. Quadrate
b. Keel
434. Erythropoietin is produced in the: a. Bone marrow b. Kidney c. Liver d. Pituitary gland
b. Kidney
250. Which organ( s) is/ are responsible for acid-base balance regulation? a. Lungs b. Kidneys c. Liver d. Spleen
b. Kidneys
316. Before birth, the testes begin to develop in the abdominal cavity near which organ? a. Stomach b. Kidneys c. Bladder d. Gallbladder
b. Kidneys
93. How is gadolinium that is used in MRI excreted from the body? a. Liver b. Kidneys c. Lungs d. GI tract
b. Kidneys
138. The lymphatic structure found in the small intestines responsible for the transport of fats and fat-soluble vitamins is: a. Afferent lymphatic vessels b. Lacteals c. Trabeculae d. Spleen
b. Lacteals
503. Where does the microbial digestion of cellulose take place within the horse? a. Ileocecal junction b. Large intestine c. Small intestine d. Stomach
b. Large intestine
409. In which stage of the tick life cycle does it have six legs? a. Nymphal b. Larval c. Adult female d. Adult male
b. Larval
70. The process of voice production usually begins in which location? a. Pharynx b. Larynx c. Thorax d. Trachea
b. Larynx
3. When obtaining a lateral projection of the skull of small animals, where should the centering of the image occur? a. Midway between the tip of the nose to just caudal to the occipital protuberance at the base b. Lateral canthus of the eye socket c. Between the eyes d. Above the base of the tongue and just below the palate, approximately at the commissure of the mouth
b. Lateral canthus of the eye socket
29. The ability to distinguish between two objects that are adjacent to each other, yet perpendicular to the sound wave in ultrasound, is described as: a. Axial resolution b. Lateral resolution c. Longitudinal resolution d. Azimuthal resolution
b. Lateral resolution
687. Blood leaving the lungs travels to enter which section of the heart? a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle
b. Left atrium
125. When obtaining an x-ray of a vomiting patient, which position is ideal? a. Right lateral recumbency b. Left lateral recumbency c. Dorsal/ventral d. Ventral/dorsal
b. Left lateral recumbency
390. The aorta originates from which structure? a. Right ventricle b. Left ventricle c. Left atrium d. Right atrium
b. Left ventricle
229. Which of these is not a function of the lymphatic system? a. Transport of waste materials b. Leukocyte production c. Removal of excess tissue fluid d. Protein transport
b. Leukocyte production
246. What drug reduces tachyarrhythmias by blocking sodium and decreasing automaticity of the cardiac cells? a. Propranolol b. Lidocaine c. Procainamide d. Digoxin
b. Lidocaine
431. What can be used to decrease the damage caused by reperfusion injury? a. Bupivacaine b. Lidocaine c. Marcaine d. Procaine
b. Lidocaine
285. What is the term used to describe plasma that appears white or milky? a. Leukemia b. Lipemia c. Chylemia d. Lactemia
b. Lipemia
241. Drawing a blood sample from an animal that has recently eaten may result in a sample that is: a. Hemolyzed b. Lipemic c. Icteric d. Anemic
b. Lipemic
153. An expectorant is a drug that acts to: a. Suppress a productive cough b. Liquefy and dilute viscous secretions in the respiratory tract c. Suppress inflammatory cells in the respiratory tract d. Reduce the allergic component of respiratory disease
b. Liquefy and dilute viscous secretions in the respiratory tract
213. How can a drug such as neomycin, which has severe risk of nephrotoxicity when administered by injection, have little risk when administered topically or orally? a. Some species are resistant to kidney damage that may result from the drug. b. Little of the drug is absorbed through the skin. c. Absorbed drug is excreted so quickly that it does not have time to damage the kidneys. d. Subcutaneous enzymes inactivate the drug.
b. Little of the drug is absorbed through the skin.
16. Blood levels of total bilirubin are used primarily to evaluate the function of the: a. Kidneys b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Bile ducts
b. Liver
2. Decreased function of what organ would have the greatest effect on the biotransformation of most drugs? a. Kidney b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Spleen
b. Liver
104. What does the color blue indicate on a nuclear medicine study? a. High activity b. Low activity c. No activity d. Normal anatomy
b. Low activity
117. The pulmonary circulation is under: a. High pressure b. Low pressure c. Partial pressure d. Equilibrium
b. Low pressure
311. Which of the following interferes with the development of an insect's chitin? a. Griseofulvin b. Lufenuron c. Methoprene d. Spinosad
b. Lufenuron
224. What is the effect of prostaglandin F2 alpha on the reproductive system? a. Ovulation b. Luteolysis c. Follicle stimulation d. Corpus luteum formation
b. Luteolysis
118. All of the following cells are produced in the bone marrow, except: a. Erythrocytes b. Lymphocytes c. Neutrophils d. Eosinophils
b. Lymphocytes
226. Phagocytes include all of the following, except: a. Neutrophils b. Lymphocytes c. Monocytes d. Macrophages
b. Lymphocytes
118. Which of the following white blood cells are predominant in the rabbit? a. Monocytes and neutrophils b. Lymphocytes and heterophils c. Metamyelocytes and azurophils d. Eosinophils and bands
b. Lymphocytes and heterophils
193. What erythrocyte index provides an indication of the average size of a red blood cell? a. MCHC b. MCV c. M/E ratio d. Reticulocyte count
b. MCV
82. Which imaging modality is superior for demonstrating the brain and spinal cord? a. Ultrasound b. MRI c. X-ray d. Fluoroscopy
b. MRI
148. Struvite crystals are composed of: a. Calcium potassium carbonates b. Magnesium ammonium phosphates c. Oxalates d. Urates
b. Magnesium ammonium phosphates
572. Which of the following structures is the largest and most glandular structure of the oviduct in birds? a. Infundibulum b. Magnum c. Isthmus d. Cloaca
b. Magnum
632. The mental foramen of the cat is located on which bone? a. Occipital bone b. Mandible c. Tympanic bulla d. Nasal bone
b. Mandible
258. What drug is most likely to be prescribed to prevent motion sickness? a. Apomorphine b. Maropitant c. Xylazine d. Diphenhydramine
b. Maropitant
658. Which of the following muscles originate at the zygomatic arch and inserts on the masseteric fossa on the lateral surface of the mandible? a. Temporalis b. Masseter c. Digastricus d. Medial and lateral pterygoids
b. Masseter
74. Which radiographic view provides the best option for detecting slab fractures in horses? a. Lateral view b. Medial oblique view c. Flexed lateral view d. Dorsopalmar view
b. Medial oblique view
270. What drug is used as a contraceptive in dogs and sometimes for the correction of behavioral problems in cats (e.g., inappropriate urination)? a. Altrenogest b. Megestrol acetate c. Estradiol cypionate d. Dinoprost tromethamine
b. Megestrol acetate
418. The parasite that causes generalized pruritus is of the: a. Ancylostoma species b. Melophagus species c. Notoedres species d. Echinococcus species
b. Melophagus species
48. An iguana presents to the clinic with the following clinical signs: seizures, tremors, anorexia, kyphosis, pliable long bones, and a chronic femoral fracture. The patient has been housed without the proper UV lighting and has been given a diet of dog food, iceberg lettuce, and tofu. From which of the following diseases is this patient likely suffering? a. Gout b. Metabolic bone disease c. Hypercalcemia d. Hypervitaminosis A
b. Metabolic bone disease
395. Robaxin-V is the brand name for: a. Gabapentin b. Methocarbamol c. Methimazole d. Methionine (S-Adenosyl)
b. Methocarbamol
352. Of the following antibiotics, which one is best suited to treat tetanus caused by Clostridium tetani? a. Enrofloxacin b. Metronidazole c. Neomycin d. Penicillin G
b. Metronidazole
73. The name for the bile acid- lipid units that carry fat within the gut is: a. LPL b. Micelles c. VLDL d. Chylomicrons
b. Micelles
39. To perform an ultrasound in the intercostal region, which transducer would be ideal? a. Linear probe b. Microconvex probe c. Phase array probe d. All of the above produce the same images
b. Microconvex probe
313. An attenuated vaccine is one in which: a. Microorganisms are killed b. Microorganisms are weakened but are still alive c. Microorganisms are 100% virulent d. No microorganisms are found
b. Microorganisms are weakened but are still alive
254. To obtain a radiograph of the VD extended hip projection, where is the center of the beam focused? a. Greater trochanter of femur b. Midline between the left and right ischial tuberosity c. At the level of the 7th vertebrae d. At the midfemur
b. Midline between the left and right ischial tuberosity
481. A horse's vision is primarily which type? a. Binocular b. Monocular c. 3D d. All of the above
b. Monocular
360. Pinkeye or contagious conjunctivitis in cattle is caused by: a. Haemophilus aegypti b. Moraxella bovis c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Moraxella bovis
223. What is an essential factor when using a nonscreen film to x-ray a snake? a. The snake needs to move continuously across the film b. Movement needs to be minimal c. The snake needs to be short and thin d. Nonscreen films should never be used to x-ray a snake
b. Movement needs to be minimal
469. Tendons attach __________ to bone. a. Ligaments b. Muscles c. Blood vessels d. Bone
b. Muscles
109. Beuthanasia solution is back-ordered at the distributor so your employer asks you to order a different euthanasia solution. In researching the available drugs, you are reminded that the active ingredient in most euthanasia solutions is: a. Phenobarbital b. Pentobarbital c. Methohexital d. Thiopental
b. Pentobarbital
369. A sugar with 5 carbons is known as ______________ sugar. a. Hexose b. Pentose c. Montose d. Tritose
b. Pentose
17. The cranial nerves and the spinal nerves are anatomically part of what system? a. Central nervous system b. Peripheral nervous system c. Parasympathetic nervous system d. Sympathetic nervous system
b. Peripheral nervous system
205. For a standard radiograph of the metacarpus of a horse, the limb of interest should be in which position compared to the ground? a. Parallel b. Perpendicular c. At 45 degrees d. At 60 degrees
b. Perpendicular
389. Which of the following antiseizure medications should be avoided in a patient with existing liver disease? a. Levetiracetam b. Phenobarbital c. Potassium bromide d. Gabapentin
b. Phenobarbital
5. What element is found within the transducer of an ultrasound machine? a. Bucky b. Piezoelectric ceramics c. Magnets d. All of the above
b. Piezoelectric ceramics
437. Vetmedin is the brand name for: a. Atenolol b. Pimobendan c. Procainamide d. Quinidine
b. Pimobendan
352. What color do gram-negative organisms appear when they are stained with Gram stain? a. Purple b. Pink c. Green d. Clear
b. Pink
252. The calibrated device used to deliver a specified volume of patient sample when performing a blood chemistry analysis is known as a: a. Cuvette b. Pipette c. Graduated flask d. Graduated cylinder
b. Pipette
271. What cell produces antibodies? a. Hepatocyte b. Plasma cell c. Thymocyte d. T cell
b. Plasma cell
343. All of the organs in the thoracic cavity are covered by a thin membrane known as: a. Thorax b. Pleura c. Peritoneum d. None of the above
b. Pleura
304. Which types of bones contain air-filled spaces known as sinuses that reduce the weight of the bone? a. Sesamoid bones b. Pneumatic bones c. Splanchnic bone d. Irregular bones
b. Pneumatic bones
628. The calcaneus of dogs is also referred to as the: a. Manubrium b. Point of hock c. Point of elbow d. Olecranon
b. Point of hock
410. Which vein carries nutrient-rich blood from the intestines to the liver? a. Inferior vena cava b. Portal vein c. Hepatic vein d. Splenic vein
b. Portal vein
236. What traditional anticonvulsant is now being used simultaneously with phenobarbital in dogs that are nonresponsive to phenobarbital alone? a. Diazepam b. Potassium bromide c. Phenytoin d. Strychnine
b. Potassium bromide
19. What is the difference between color Doppler and power Doppler ultrasound? a. Color Doppler indicates velocity and power Doppler indicates direction of flow b. Power Doppler is sensitive to slow flow and color Doppler indicates direction of flow c. Power Doppler indicates direction of flow and color Doppler indicates slow flow d. Color Doppler indicates arteries and power Doppler indicates veins
b. Power Doppler is sensitive to slow flow and color Doppler indicates direction of flow
112. The term proximal refers to which of the following abbreviations? a. Pa b. Pr c. Pl d. Di
b. Pr
272. The glucocorticoid drug commonly used orally to treat immune-mediated diseases in dogs and cats is: a. Hydrocortisone b. Prednisone c. Triamcinolone d. Dexamethasone
b. Prednisone
534. Secretions from which gland keeps feathers waterproof? a. Alula b. Preen c. Gizzard d. Coracoid
b. Preen
235. What anticonvulsant drug is converted by the liver primarily to phenobarbital, which accounts for most of its anticonvulsant activity? a. Diazepam b. Primidone c. Phenytoin d. Clonazepam
b. Primidone
222. The thymus: a. Is another name for the thyroid gland b. Produces cells that destroy foreign substances c. Is more prominent in adults than in young animals d. Is located in the cranial abdomen
b. Produces cells that destroy foreign substances
426. Polyuria is: a. Lack of urine production b. Production of excessive amounts of urine c. Lack of water intake d. Excessive protein in the urine
b. Production of excessive amounts of urine
372. Cisapride is a(n): a. Antiemetic b. Prokinetic c. GI protectant d. Antidiarrheal
b. Prokinetic
59. Which hormone helps to trigger and maintain lactation? a. FSH b. Prolactin c. LH d. TSH
b. Prolactin
182. An example of an alpha-2 agonist is: a. Xylazine b. Propranolol c. Hydralazine d. Epinephrine
b. Propranolol
247. Hyperthyroid cats have heart rates of more than 200 beats per minute because of the large numbers of alpha-1 sympathetic receptors in their hearts, which make the heart more sensitive to epinephrine and norepinephrine. This high heart rate is an anesthetic risk. What drug is used to slow the heart rate and decrease arrhythmias associated with alpha-1 receptor stimulation? a. Lidocaine b. Propranolol c. Quinidine d. Digoxin
b. Propranolol
383. You are placing an intravenous catheter to administer chemotherapy. When placing the catheter you go through the vein, but you are able to reposition it and place it successfully. What should you do next? a. Use the catheter, but monitor it closely during the injection b. Pull the catheter and place it in a different vein c. Pull the catheter and place it higher up in the same vein d. Use it without concern
b. Pull the catheter and place it in a different vein
228. What artery carries deoxygenated blood? a. Aorta b. Pulmonary c. Coronary d. Carotid
b. Pulmonary
102. What two valves comprise the semilunar valves? a. Mitral valve, pulmonic valve b. Pulmonic valve, aortic valve c. Mitral valve, tricuspid valve d. Pulmonic valve, tricuspid valve
b. Pulmonic valve, aortic valve
214. What structures disseminate electrical impulses across the ventricles? a. Perkinje fibers b. Purkinje fibers c. Purkinge fibers d. Perkingi fibers
b. Purkinje fibers
567. Food leaves the gizzard and enters the duodenum by which of the following structures in birds? a. Cloaca b. Pylorus c. Proventriculus d. Ileum
b. Pylorus
115. Ferrets are vaccinated annually for which of the following diseases? a. Rabies and feline panleukopenia b. Rabies and canine distemper c. Rabies and canine parvovirus d. Rabies and canine corona virus
b. Rabies and canine distemper
102. In dental radiographs, periapical disease appears as a: a. Radiopaque area around the apex of the tooth b. Radiolucent area around the apex of the tooth c. Radiopaque area inside the tooth pulp d. Radiolucent area inside the tooth pulp
b. Radiolucent area around the apex of the tooth
65. Atoms that emit particles and energy to become stable are known as: a. Photons b. Radionuclides c. Radioactive decay d. Isotopes
b. Radionuclides
181. Which of the following terms is used to describe the white appearance on an x-ray? a. Radiolucent b. Radiopaque c. Hyperechoic d. Hypoechoic
b. Radiopaque
453. The interosseous space is located between which two bones on the limb of a horse? a. Fibula/ tibia b. Radius/ ulna c. Cannon bone/ split bone d. Humerus/ scapula
b. Radius/ ulna
147. All of the following are induced ovulators except: a. Rabbit b. Rat c. Cat d. Ferret
b. Rat
47. A chronotropic agent affects the: a. Force of a contraction b. Rate of a contraction c. Rhythm of a contraction d. Rate of relaxation
b. Rate of a contraction
344. T killer cells function to: a. Release histamine b. Recognize cancer cells as abnormal cells and eliminate them c. Coat cancer cells with antibody d. Release endorphin
b. Recognize cancer cells as abnormal cells and eliminate them
110. During a glucose tolerance test, glucose levels in a diabetic animal will: a. Show an initial peak and then diminish to normal b. Remain high throughout the test c. Show a delayed peak at the end of the test period d. Show below normal levels throughout the test
b. Remain high throughout the test
286. Flight feathers within the wings of birds are known as: a. Retrices b. Remiges c. Auriculars d. Down feathers
b. Remiges
277. NSAIDs are most likely to cause side effects in what two organ systems? a. Renal and pulmonary b. Renal and gastrointestinal c. Pulmonary and cardiac d. Cardiac and hepatic
b. Renal and gastrointestinal
432. In which layer of the eye are the rods and cons located? a. Cornea b. Retina c. Iris d. Vitreous humor
b. Retina
278. The kidneys are located in which cavity? a. Abdominal cavity b. Retroperitoneal cavity c. Pelvic cavity d. Thoracic cavity
b. Retroperitoneal cavity
118. When a patient is receiving an x-ray and is in the right lateral recumbent position, what marker should be used to denote the correct side? a. Left b. Right c. Front d. Hind
b. Right
335. The duodenum exits the stomach on which side of the animal's abdomen? a. Left b. Right c. Cranial d. Caudal
b. Right
116. The coronary veins empty blood via the coronary sinus into the: a. Left atrium b. Right atrium c. Left ventricle d. Right ventricle
b. Right atrium
291. The abbreviations od and os on a prescription refer to: a. Administer by mouth and by rectum b. Right eye and left eye c. Administer every other day and every 3 days d. Administer with food and without food
b. Right eye and left eye
289. What is the most immature erythrocyte that can be identified in bone marrow? a. Prorubricyte b. Rubriblast c. Erythrocytoblast d. Multipotent stem cell
b. Rubriblast
7. In what order does the impulse for depolarization travel through the heart? a. AV node, SA node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers b. SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers c. SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibers, bundle of His d. AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers, bundle of His
b. SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers
333. The anatomical plane that runs the length of the body and divides its right and left parts is known as the: a. Median plane b. Sagittal plane c. Dorsal plane d. Transverse plane
b. Sagittal plane
188. What parasite causes a very pruritic disease in dogs? a. Cheyletiella b. Sarcoptes c. Demodex d. Dermacentor
b. Sarcoptes
54. The number of detectors that are covered by the x-ray beam in CT scanning is known as which type of field of view? a. Display field of view b. Scan field of view c. Raw data d. Image data
b. Scan field of view
204. Which of the following is not a part of the axial skeleton? a. Cervical vertebra 3 b. Scapula c. Skull d. Thoracic vertebra 1
b. Scapula
546. Which of the following structures reinforces the large circumference of the eye in birds? a. Cornea b. Sclerotic ring c. Optic lobe d. Optic nerve
b. Sclerotic ring
613. What is the main source of a ferret's body odor? a. Fur b. Sebaceous glands c. Anal glands d. Mouth
b. Sebaceous glands
43. A common side effect of antihistamine drugs such as diphenhydramine is: a. Polyuria b. Sedation c. Pruritus d. Panting
b. Sedation
83. A hospitalized hedgehog is offered part of a hardboiled egg as a treat. He suddenly becomes stiff and contorted, starts making licking motions with his tongue, and starts heavily salivating. What is occurring? a. A seizure b. Self-anointing behavior c. Anxiety toward caretaker d. Wobbling hedgehog syndrome
b. Self-anointing behavior
464. All of the following muscles of the horse extend the hock, except: a. Gastrocnemius b. Semimembranosus c. Semitendinosus d. Biceps femoris
b. Semimembranosus
513. Which of the following glands is a pair of smooth-surfaced, pear-shaped glands located on either side of the male bladder, and also are considered an accessory gland for the production of seminal fluid? a. Bulbourethral gland b. Seminal vesicles c. Adrenal glands d. Thyroid glands
b. Seminal vesicles
636. The ____________ of the mandible is the horizontal portion that houses all the teeth. a. Ramus b. Shaft c. Palate d. Malar
b. Shaft
653. The term ecdysis refers to: a. Cold-blooded b. Shedding of skin c. Hibernation d. Active at night
b. Shedding of skin
90. In MRI what are the various shades of gray referred to as? a. Densities b. Signal intensities c. Hypoechoic d. Hyperechoic
b. Signal intensities
391. Methocarbamol is labeled as an adjunctive therapy for: a. Seizures b. Skeletal muscle trauma c. Increased intracranial pressure d. Joint pain
b. Skeletal muscle trauma
331. Pemphigus is a group of autoimmune disorders that affect the: a. Blood and lymph systems b. Skin and oral mucosa c. Eyes d. Hooves and claws
b. Skin and oral mucosa
11. Which of the following methods definitively diagnoses Treponema paraluiscuniculi? a. Complete blood count b. Skin biopsy with silver staining c. ELISA testing d. PCR testing
b. Skin biopsy with silver staining
233. Which of the following is the most serious of all carpal fractures seen in horses? a. Corner fracture b. Slab fracture c. Chip fracture d. All chip fractures are equal in severity
b. Slab fracture
45. A biarticular fracture is also known as a: a. Corner fracture b. Slab fracture c. Chip fracture d. Biarticular fractures do not exist
b. Slab fracture
55. What liquid form of drug is administered intravenously? a. Emulsion b. Solution c. Suspension d. Elixir
b. Solution
134. The female guinea pig is referred to as a: a. Hen b. Sow c. Queen d. Doe
b. Sow
314. Muscles that form a circular ring and serve to control the entrance or exit to a structure are known as: a. Muscle tone b. Sphincter muscles c. Bursa d. Extrinsic muscle
b. Sphincter muscles
467. Which of the following muscles originates behind the poll (at the base of the skull) of the horse? a. Trapezius b. Splenius c. Sternocephalicus d. Brachiocephalicus
b. Splenius
167. When preparing cytology samples for microscopic evaluation, what is the best technique to use? a. Wet prep b. Squash prep c. Modified Knott prep d. Willis prep
b. Squash prep
472. Which of the following allows the horse to rest and sleep in a standing position? a. The cheek ligaments b. Stay apparatus c. Deep digital flexor tendon d. Superficial digital flexor tendon
b. Stay apparatus
95. The femur articulates distally with the tibia, forming the: a. Hip joint b. Stifle joint c. Tarsal joint d. Shoulder joint
b. Stifle joint
21. Smooth muscles can be found in the: a. Heart b. Stomach c. Pelvic limb d. Diaphragm
b. Stomach
374. What organism causes strangles in horses? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus equi c. Corynebacterium equi d. Strongylus vulgaris
b. Streptococcus equi
547. The iris of a bird's eye is formed by which muscle, which enables the bird to control the size of the pupil voluntarily? a. Smooth b. Striated c. Cardiac d. None of these
b. Striated
6. Cardiac muscle is considered a: a. Nonstriated involuntary muscle b. Striated involuntary muscle c. Nonstriated voluntary muscle d. striated voluntary muscle
b. Striated involuntary muscle
411. What urinary stone is most associated with a urinary tract infection? a. Calcium oxalate crystal b. Struvite crystal c. Calcium carbonite crystal d. Cystine crystal
b. Struvite crystal
127. In cases of uncomplicated diabetes, by what route is insulin usually administered? a. Intramuscular b. Subcutaneous c. Intravenous d. Oral
b. Subcutaneous
142. A coating agent that forms an ulcer-adherent complex at the ulcer site is: a. Kaopectate b. Sucralfate c. Cimetidine d. Misoprostol
b. Sucralfate
263. Which product stains fat? a. New methylene blue b. Sudan III or IV c. Diff-Quik d. Giemsa
b. Sudan III or IV
519. What is the typical breeding season of a mare? a. Spring- summer b. Summer- fall c. Fall- winter d. Winter- spring
b. Summer- fall
86. Which of the following is the most common medical magnet? a. Resistive magnets b. Superconducting magnets c. Permanent magnets d. Electromagnets
b. Superconducting magnets
108. Norepinephrine, epinephrine, and dopamine are the primary neurotransmitters for the: a. Parasympathetic nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Central nervous system d. Peripheral nervous system
b. Sympathetic nervous system
24. What does the gain control knob adjust on the ultrasound machine? a. The power output b. The brightness of the image c. The PRF scale used in PW Doppler d. The depth of the image
b. The brightness of the image
247. When obtaining a radiograph, the thickest part of the area of interest is placed toward what? a. The anode end of the x-ray tube b. The cathode end of the x-ray tube c. The center of the x-ray beam d. Closest to the radiographer
b. The cathode end of the x-ray tube
622. Where are the lungs located in a tortoise? a. The ventral surface above the carapace b. The dorsal side below the carapace c. Caudal to the stomach d. Caudal to the hear
b. The dorsal side below the carapace
496. What does the term hypsodontic in the horse represent? a. Thick layer of enamel b. The lack of enamel over the occlusal surface c. The crown reserve d. Continuous growth of the teeth
b. The lack of enamel over the occlusal surface
227. Why is chloramphenicol used with extreme caution in cats and neonates? a. It can bind with dietary calcium and become deactivated. b. The liver is unable to metabolize chloramphenicol effectively in these animals. c. It can alter developing bone, enamel, and cartilage. d. It may drastically alter gut bacterial flora, resulting in fatal diarrhea.
b. The liver is unable to metabolize chloramphenicol effectively in these animals.
175. When obtaining a ventrodorsal x-ray of the thorax, what is the cranial landmark? a. The base of the skull b. The manubrium c. Halfway between the xiphoid and the last rib d. The ilium wings
b. The manubrium
424. Urine samples collected in the morning from housebroken dogs tend to be: a. Unacceptable for sediment analysis b. The most concentrated samples c. Bright orange d. The least concentrated samples
b. The most concentrated samples
310. Which of the following correctly describes the joint movement of circumduction? a. The moving body part twists on its own axis b. The movement of an extremity of one end of a bone in a circular pattern c. The animal moves the limb back toward the body d. The animal moves the limb cranially
b. The movement of an extremity of one end of a bone in a circular pattern
97. For a dorsopalmar view of the metacarpus of a horse, which surface should the cassette be on? a. The medial aspect b. The palmar aspect c. The palmaromedial aspect d. The palmarolateral aspect
b. The palmar aspect
148. When an x-ray photon strikes an object, which of the following can occur? a. The object rejects the photon b. The photon penetrates the object c. The photon reduces scatter radiation d. X-ray photons do not leave the housing unit
b. The photon penetrates the object
410. What is the definition of hematopoiesis? a. The destruction of platelets b. The production of blood cells and platelets c. The creation of fibrinogen d. The decrease of red blood cells
b. The production of blood cells and platelets
35. For cytological evaluation of urine, which of the following conditions should be observed? a. The specimen should be refrigerated as soon as possible. b. The specimen should be centrifuged as soon as possible. c. The specimen may sit at room temperature for ≤6 hours. d. The specimen may be frozen for later analysis.
b. The specimen should be centrifuged as soon as possible.
258. To obtain a flexed lateral projection of the carpus of small animals, where should the measurement be taken? a. Caudal to the carpal joint b. The thickest part of the flexed joint c. Thickest part of the nonflexed joint d. Cranial to the carpal joint
b. The thickest part of the flexed joint
180. When obtaining a caudocranial x-ray of the stifle joint, what should be palpated to determine the amount of rotation necessary for an exact caudocranial projection? a. The greater trochanter of the femur b. The tibial tuberosity c. The patella d. The manubrium
b. The tibial tuberosity
516. What occurs to unfertilized ova? a. They are expelled b. They are reabsorbed c. They remain in the fallopian tube until fertilization occurs d. None of the above
b. They are reabsorbed
210. Some penicillin G injectable products contain procaine or benzathine, and some penicillin G products contain neither. What effects do procaine and benzathine have on penicillin G? a. They act as a local anesthetic to decrease the pain of injection. b. They prolong absorption of penicillin G from the injection site. c. They increase the rate at which penicillin G enters the bloodstream. d. They enhance the bacterial killing activity of the penicillin.
b. They prolong absorption of penicillin G from the injection site.
84. Which statement is true about the drugs used for cancer chemotherapy? a. They are usually given by mouth b. They usually have relatively low margins of safety c. They are available over the counter d. They are all nephrotoxic
b. They usually have relatively low margins of safety
211. Ceftiofur is classified on the package insert as a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic; cefadroxil is classified as a first-generation cephalosporin. How do third-generation cephalosporins differ from first-generation cephalosporins? a. Third-generation drugs are better absorbed when given orally. b. Third-generation drugs have better gram-negative activity. c. Third-generation drugs last longer in the body; they are given once daily only. d. Third-generation drugs have fewer side effects and adverse reactions
b. Third-generation drugs have better gram-negative activity.
678. The azygous vein drains venous blood from what structure? a. Head b. Thoracic body wall c. Hind limbs d. Liver
b. Thoracic body wal
231. The production of platelets is known as: a. Hemostasis b. Thrombopoiesis c. Homeostasis d. Coagulation
b. Thrombopoiesis
153. For what are grids used on an x-ray machine? a. To decrease scatter radiation and to increase the contrast on the radiograph b. To absorb the less penetrating x-rays as they leave the tube head c. To restrict the primary beam to the size of the cone used d. The limit the size of the primary beam to the size of the diaphragm used
b. To absorb the less penetrating x-rays as they leave the tube head
436. For what is the ciliary body within the eye responsible? a. To change the diameter of the iris b. To change the shape of the lens c. To produce tears d. To drain tears
b. To change the shape of the lens
122. What does it mean to collimate the x-ray beam? a. To use the highest kV possible b. To limit the beam exposure just to the area of interest within the film c. To allow for full exposure of the entire film d. None of the above
b. To limit the beam exposure just to the area of interest within the film
341. Why are prophylactic antibiotics given during surgery? a. To prevent contamination when the skin is entered b. To prevent contamination when a hollow viscous is entered c. To prevent contamination from the surgeon d. To prevent contamination from the instruments
b. To prevent contamination when a hollow viscous is entered
377. What are lipoproteins used for within the body? a. Energy b. To transport fats within the body c. To regulate chemical reactions d. To regulate hormone synthesis
b. To transport fats within the body
182. You are looking at your dental radiograph and notice that the tooth is elongated. This happened because the beam was perpendicular to the: a. Film b. Tooth c. Bisecting angle d. Wrong tooth
b. Tooth
244. A serum sample that is extremely icteric generally derives its color from an increased level of: a. Lipids b. Total bilirubin c. Electrolytes d. Glucose
b. Total bilirubin
400. Which structure is composed of several C-shaped incomplete rings of hyaline cartilage? a. Esophagus b. Trachea c. Larynx d. Pharynx
b. Trachea
666. Which canine muscle originates from the dorsal midline from C2 to C7 and inserts on the spine of the scapula? a. Pectoralis b. Trapezius c. Latissimus dorsi d. Brachiocephalicus
b. Trapezius
370. The parasite whose adult resembles a whip and whose eggs have bipolar plugs is: a. Strongyloides stercoralis b. Trichuris vulpis c. Toxocara canis d. Toxascaris leonina
b. Trichuris vulpis
91. Arteries have relatively thick walls, which are composed of three layers. Which layer is the outermost layer? a. Tunica intima b. Tunica adventitia c. Tunica media d. Arteries only have one layer
b. Tunica adventitia
322. Below the tunics, a heavy, fibrous connective tissue capsule surrounds each testis. What is this known as? a. Common vaginal tunic b. Tunica albuginea c. Pampiniform plexus d. Septa
b. Tunica albuginea
340. How long should a patient with pneumonia be on antibiotics? a. Two weeks past resolution of clinical signs b. Two weeks past resolution of radiographic signs c. Four weeks, no matter the clinical or radiographic signs d. Six weeks, no matter the clinical or radiographic signs
b. Two weeks past resolution of radiographic signs
223. The eardrum is also called the: a. Pinna b. Tympanic membrane c. Eustachian tubes d. Cochlea
b. Tympanic membrane
563. Which of the following arteries runs parallel with the radial artery in birds? a. Brachial b. Ulnar c. Femoral d. Ischiatic
b. Ulnar
1. Which one of the following imaging modalities produces images without the use of radiation? a. X-ray b. Ultrasound c. Fluoroscopy d. CT
b. Ultrasound
208. Certain bacteria, especially Staphylococcus, produce an enzyme (β-lactamase) that destroys many penicillin drugs. Which is one of the penicillins not destroyed by β-lactamase? a. Penicillin G b. Unasyn c. Amoxicillin d. Hetacillin
b. Unasyn
518. Which of the following terms correctly describes the mare's parity? a. Nulliparity b. Uniparous c. Multiparous d. None of these
b. Uniparous
227. What is a concern of exposure creep with the use of digital x-rays? a. Underexposed x-ray b. Unnecessary patient and personnel exposure because of ionizing radiation c. Excessive film blackening d. Exposure creep is only an issue in analog x-rays
b. Unnecessary patient and personnel exposure because of ionizing radiation
445. Idiosyncratic drug reactions are those that are: a. Predictable b. Unpredictable c. Synchronized with other reactions d. Unsynchronized with other reactions
b. Unpredictable
154. Chemistry evaluation of the kidney includes measurement of metabolic wastes in the blood in the form of: a. Aspartate aminotransferase and alanine transaminase b. Urea nitrogen and creatinine c. Ammonia and pyruvic acid d. Bilirubin and urobilinogen
b. Urea nitrogen and creatinine
248. Which body system is the most important route of waste-product removal? a. Respiratory system b. Urinary system c. Digestive system d. All of the systems are equal in importance for waste-product removal
b. Urinary system
13. Because of the manner in which they are excreted, sulfonamides are often effective against infections of: a. Nervous tissue b. Urinary tract c. Skin d. Joint capsules
b. Urinary tract
180. The urinary bladder is not responsible for: a. Urine storage b. Urine filtration c. Urine collecting d. Urine release
b. Urine filtration
204. What test on the urine dipstick is the least useful in animals? a. Glucose b. Urobilinogen c. Protein d. Ketones
b. Urobilinogen
404. One method of resistance to sulfonamides is through the bacteria's ability to: a. Survive without folic acid b. Use the host's folic acid c. Produce a substitute for folic acid d. Turn the antibiotic into folic acid
b. Use the host's folic acid
249. When capturing analog radiographs, which of the following descriptions refers to "splitting the plate"? a. Creating a smaller x-ray cassette to use for small patients b. Using a lead shield on half of the film to prevent exposure and to allow for 2 views to be obtained on the same film. c. Collimating the beam to accommodate for small patients on a large cassette d. Combining two small cassettes to accommodate a larger patient
b. Using a lead shield on half of the film to prevent exposure and to allow for 2 views to be obtained on the same film.
392. Which types of blood vessels contain one-way valves? a. Arteries b. Veins c. Capillaries d. Aorta
b. Veins
51. The hydration status in the avian patient is best evaluated by assessing which of the following? a. Capillary refill time b. Venous refill time c. Mucous membranes for tacky saliva d. Quality of the feathers
b. Venous refill time
167. Lidocaine is primarily used to control which of the following abnormalities? a. Supraventricular bradycardia b. Ventricular tachycardia c. Hypertension d. Supraventricular tachycardia
b. Ventricular tachycardia
107. In the avian species, the gizzard is also referred to as the: a. Proventriculus b. Ventriculus c. Crop d. Colon
b. Ventriculus
242. Which of the following radiographic terms describes the view when the primary x-ray beam enters the ventral surface and exits the dorsal surface of the patient? a. Dorsoventral b. Ventrodorsal c. Craniocaudal d. Caudocranial
b. Ventrodorsal
683. The smallest veins are called ______________. a. Capillaries b. Venules c. Iliacs d. Vessels
b. Venules
419. Which cranial nerve is responsible for balance and hearing? a. Trochlear b. Vestibulocochlear c. Accessory d. Optic
b. Vestibulocochlear
199. Which clotting disorder is stimulated by hypothyroidism? a. Hemophilia A b. Von Willebrand disease c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation d. Coumarin toxicity
b. Von Willebrand disease
76. The buffy coat in a spun hematocrit tube consists of: a. WBCs b. WBCs and platelets c. WBCs and NRBCs d. Platelets and NRBCs
b. WBCs and platelets
323. Which statement concerning ELISA testing is true? a. The test specificity is very low b. Washing is a critical step in the methodology c. It may be used to detect only antibodies in the serum d. It is not available in kit form
b. Washing is a critical step in the methodology
229. When are drugs such as sulfadimethoxine, sulfadiazine, and other sulfa drugs most likely to cause kidney problems? a. When an animal is receiving intravenous fluids and it has a diuretic effect on the kidneys b. When an animal is dehydrated c. When an animal has only one functional kidney d. When an animal has a bladder infection
b. When an animal is dehydrated
140. Before taking a radiograph of a patient, what is the proper way to obtain a measurement of the area of interest? a. With the patient standing b. When the patient is in the position in which it is to be x-rayed c. When the thinnest part is targeted d. With the patient lying in the dorsal recumbent position
b. When the patient is in the position in which it is to be x-rayed
17. Phagocytes are a type of: a. Red blood cell b. White blood cell c. Platelet d. Antibody
b. White blood cell
89. What is called the "knee" in the forelimb of a horse would be called the ______ in the human. a. Hip joint b. Wrist joint c. Finger joint d. Knee joint
b. Wrist joint
33. The canine uterus is shaped like the letter a. U b. Y c. J d. V
b. Y
56. A bird presents to the clinic after chewing on a galvanized wire cage for the previous several days. Clinical signs include weight loss, polyuria, polydipsia, anemia, weakness, and seizures. What are these signs and history indicative of? a. Lead toxicity b. Zinc toxicity c. Iron toxicity d. Copper toxicity
b. Zinc toxicity
297. Which equivalent is correct? a. q12h = QD b. q6h = QID c. q4h = TID d. q8h = BID
b. q6h = QID
492. At what age do permanent teeth begin to erupt in the horse? a. 1 year b. years c. 5 years d. 6 years
b. years
236. At what age does the first radiographic appearance of the crena seen in foals occur? a. 18-38 weeks b. 22-38 weeks c. 4-22 weeks d. 0-4 weeks
c. 4-22 weeks
493. How many permanent teeth does the adult male horse contain? a. 24 b. 36 c. 40 d. 46
c. 40
288. The restrained heart rate of a small bird, approximately 25 g in body weight, is: a. 100- 150 bpm b. 110- 175 bpm c. 400- 600 bpm d. 300- 500 bpm
c. 400- 600 bpm
118. How many teeth does an adult dog have? a. 28 b. 32 c. 42 d. 50
c. 42
295. How many milliliters are in a teaspoon? a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 10
c. 5
394. Which of the following should never be used in cats? a. Carboplatin b. Hydroxyurea c. 5-Fluorouracil d. Procarbazine
c. 5-Fluorouracil
88. Which repetition time shows the T1 decay response of the tissues using MRI? a. 899 ms b. 1500 ms c. 546 ms d. 1680 ms
c. 546 ms
71. Essential nutrients can be divided into how many categories? a. 3 b. 4 c. 6 d. 10
c. 6
586. What is the average life span of the rabbit? a. 3- 4 years b. 2- 3 years c. 6- 8 years d. 10 years
c. 6- 8 years
435. The doctor asks you to perform a local block on a patient in preparation for a laceration repair. You know you should not exceed a dose of: a. 2-4 mg/kg b. 4-6 mg/kg c. 6-8 mg/kg d. 8-10 mg/kg
c. 6-8 mg/kg
201. To obtain a flexed lateromedial view of the carpus of a horse, the limb should be flexed approximately how many degrees? a. 15 degrees b. 30 degrees c. 60 degrees d. 90 degrees
c. 60 degrees
204. To obtain a flexed dorsoplantar radiographic view of the tarsal joint of a horse, at what angle should the primary beam direction be? a. 15 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 60 degrees d. 90 degrees
c. 60 degrees
459. Approximately how much of the weight do the forelimbs of the horse carry? a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 80%
c. 60%
95. MRI machines produce noise in which of the following ranges? a. 20-30 dB b. 40-50 dB c. 60-90 dB d. 100-110 dB
c. 60-90 dB
446. Regarding the storage of drugs, room temperature (in Fahrenheit) falls in the range of: a. Less than 46° b. 46°-59° c. 60°-68° d. 87°-104°
c. 60°-68°
152. What is the normal gestational period for dogs? a. 36 days b. 54 days c. 63 days d. 120 days
c. 63 days
355. Oxygen is an element that makes up approximately __________ of the body mass. a. 18.5% b. 9.5% c. 65% d. 3.3%
c. 65%
366. What is the pH of distilled water? a. 1 b. 5 c. 7 d. 11
c. 7
499. What is the volume that the adult horse's stomach can hold? a. 1- 2 L b. 2- 3 L c. 7- 14 L d. 20- 25 L
c. 7- 14
119. What percentage of body weight is composed of bone in the rabbit? a. 13% b. 20% c. 8% d. 5%
c. 8%
65. Typically, what percentage of an animal's body weight consists of blood? a. 0.1% b. 1% c. 8% d. 30%
c. 8%
618. What is the average litter size of ferrets? a. 3- 4 b. 5- 6 c. 8- 10 d. More than 20
c. 8- 10
53. When using computed tomography, what Hounsfield unit does blood have? a. −50 HU b. 160 HU c. 80 HU d. None of these
c. 80 HU
475. How long does it take for a horn to grown down from the coronet to the tip of the toe (on the ground surface) of a horse? a. 1- 2 months b. 4- 5 months c. 9- 12 months d. 12- 24 months
c. 9- 12 months
397. Antibiotics should be administered when abdominal surgery is longer than: a. 30 minutes b. 60 minutes c. 90 minutes d. 120 minutes
c. 90 minutes
93. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds would suggest which of the following? a. Shock b. Anemia c. A healthy animal d. Dehydration
c. A healthy animal
354. Propranolol is a: a. Beta-1 blocker b. Beta-2 blocker c. A nonselective beta blocker d. Not a beta blocker
c. A nonselective beta blocker
316. Anaphylactic shock is: a. A mild reaction that causes destruction of erythrocytes b. A moderate reaction that causes hives c. A severe, life-threatening reaction that occurs seconds after an antigen enters the circulation d. A severe reaction caused by rapid loss of large volumes of blood or other bodily fluid
c. A severe, life-threatening reaction that occurs seconds after an antigen enters the circulation
72. RBCs with multiple, irregularly spaced projections are known as: a. Crenated cells b. Schistocytes c. Acanthocytes d. Anisocytes
c. Acanthocytes
155. Which of the following drugs are contraindicated in a patient that has a history of seizures? a. Diazepam b. Thiopental c. Acepromazine d. Fentanyl
c. Acepromazine
41. In the equation Z = pV used in ultrasound, what does the letter Z represent? a. Density b. Acoustic velocity c. Acoustic impedance d. None of the above
c. Acoustic impedance
364. The transport mechanism requiring a carrier protein that also requires energy is called: a. Facilitated b. Passive c. Active d. Pinocytosis
c. Active
290. The following information was provided for a prescription written by a veterinarian: "Canine patient, Amoxicillin 100 mg tablets, Sig: 1 tab q8h po prn 2 refills. Date: 1/5/16." What does prn mean? a. Administer every other day b. Administer by mouth c. Administer as needed d. Administer on an empty stomach
c. Administer as needed
14. Which of the following is not a method of culturing animal viruses? a. Laboratory animal inoculation b. Cell culture c. Agar plate inoculation d. Embryonated egg inoculation
c. Agar plate inoculation
485. Which of the following forms the ventral margin of each nostril of a horse? a. External nares b. False nostril c. Alar fold d. Ethmoturbinates
c. Alar fold
159. Prerenal azotemia refers to: a. An increase in BUN resulting from severe liver disease b. A decrease in BUN resulting from severe renal disease c. An increase in BUN resulting from dehydration, shock, and/or decreased blood flow to the kidneys d. An increase in BUN resulting from the inability to urinate
c. An increase in BUN resulting from dehydration, shock, and/or decreased blood flow to the kidneys
224. Which of these is not a random laboratory error? a. Variation in glassware b. Electronic or optical inconsistency c. Anisocytosis d. Contamination
c. Anisocytosis
430. What structure is located immediately caudal to the cornea? a. Lens b. Iris c. Anterior chamber d. Vitreous humor
c. Anterior chamber
271. Which endocrine gland produces the hormone prolactin? a. Posterior pituitary b. Thyroid c. Anterior pituitary d. Ovaries
c. Anterior pituitary
40. A complete radiographic series in the turtle and tortoise include which of the following views? a. Dorsoventral and lateral b. Ventrodorsal and lateral c. Anterior-posterior, dorsoventral, and lateral d. Anterior-posterior, ventrodorsal, and lateral
c. Anterior-posterior, dorsoventral, and lateral
221. What is the drug group of choice for treating Lyme disease (borreliosis)? a. Antifungal b. Antiviral c. Antibiotic d. Antiprotozoal
c. Antibiotic
321. Serology is the branch of science involved with detection of: a. Bacteria or fungi b. Viruses or prions c. Antibodies or antigens d. Endoparasites and ectoparasites
c. Antibodies or antigens
262. Bismuth subsalicylate is the active ingredient in a common over-the-counter (OTC) preparation used for some types of gastrointestinal disease, to what effect? a. Mild laxative b. Antiemetic c. Antidiarrheic d. Emetic
c. Antidiarrheic
199. Which type of antimicrobial drug would be effective against organisms such as Giardia or Eimeria? a. Bactericidal b. Virucidal c. Antiprotozoal d. Fungistatic
c. Antiprotozoal
238. Drugs that effectively block the cough reflex are called: a. Mucolytics b. Expectorants c. Antitussives d. Decongestants
c. Antitussives
241. Butorphanol and hydrocodone are examples of: a. Mucolytics b. Expectorants c. Antitussives d. Antihistamines
c. Antitussives
163. A cat is given ketamine as an anesthetic induction agent. The veterinary technician monitoring this animal may observe which of the following side effects? a. Bradycardia b. Hypotension c. Apneustic breathing d. Flaccid muscle tone
c. Apneustic breathing
140. The emetic of choice in dogs is: a. Xylazine b. Syrup of ipecac c. Apomorphine d. Hydrogen peroxide
c. Apomorphine
141. Spike the dog ingested his owner's cardiac medication about a half-hour ago. The veterinarian instructs you to give him an emetic that may be administered into the conjunctival sac, and then flush as necessary. The name of the drug is: a. Xylazine b. Syrup of ipecac c. Apomorphine d. Hydrogen peroxide
c. Apomorphine
24. Potentiated penicillins: a. Have a narrow spectrum of action relative to regular penicillins b. Include cephalosporins c. Are active against beta-lactamase-producing bacteria d. Are not used in treating mastitis
c. Are active against beta-lactamase-producing bacteria
74. What is the most useful way to report WBC differential results? a. As percentages b. As relative numbers c. As absolute numbers d. As decimal numbers
c. As absolute numbers
172. An example of an anticholinergic drug is: a. Acetylcholine b. Pilocarpine c. Atropine d. Nicotine
c. Atropine
123. Kidney disease leads to the accumulation of metabolic waste in the blood, a condition known as: a. Hypernaturia b. Hypernatremia c. Azotemia d. Azoturia
c. Azotemia
105. Which species includes common contaminants and is the causative agent of anthrax? a. Escherichia b. Corynebacterium c. Bacillus d. Enterobacter
c. Bacillus
132. Chinchillas are prone to all of the following diseases except: a. Dental disease b. Heat stroke c. Back fractures d. Choke
c. Back fractures
111. The newly hired veterinary assistant is cleaning up after a procedure and returns an opened bottle of propofol to the refrigerator, stating that it can be used the next day on another patient. You explain to her that: a. Propofol should be stored at room temperature rather than in the refrigerator. b. The bottles are designed to contain only enough drug for one patient, and there likely will not be enough drug left to anesthetize another patient the next day. c. Bacteria will readily grow in propofol and will produce endotoxins, so it is unwise to use the remains of an opened bottle. d. The bottle has been contaminated from the first patient, and there is a possibility that contagious diseases can be transmitted in this way.
c. Bacteria will readily grow in propofol and will produce endotoxins, so it is unwise to use the remains of an opened bottle.
676. Which of the following dogs has a mesaticephalic head? a. Boxer b. Greyhound c. Beagle d. Bulldog
c. Beagle
73. Which time frame is the most critical for limiting radiation exposure to an unborn fetus of an employee? a. 2nd trimester b. 3rd trimester c. Between 2 and 10 weeks gestation d. After 35 weeks
c. Between 2 and 10 weeks gestation
128. When obtaining a foramen magnum projection of the skulls of small animals, where should the centering of the image occur? a. Midway between the tip of the nose to just caudal to the occipital protuberance at the base b. Lateral canthus of the eye socket c. Between the eyes d. Above the base of the tongue and just below the palate, approximately at the commissure of the mouth
c. Between the eyes
149. A drug classified as an antagonist may exert its influence by: a. Mimicking the activity of the neurotransmitter used in the impulse b. Preventing the breakdown of the neurotransmitter used in the impulse c. Blocking the neurotransmitter receptor on the effector organ d. Enhancing the release of the neurotransmitter used in the impulse
c. Blocking the neurotransmitter receptor on the effector organ
610. A male guinea pig is known as a: a. Doe b. Buck c. Boar d. Sow
c. Boar
59. IV contrast used with CT imaging will help to view all of the following, except: a. Veins b. Arteries c. Bone marrow d. Infection of the extremities
c. Bone marrow
133. When diethylstilbestrol (DES), a synthetic estrogen, is used at higher doses, it can have the potentially dangerous side effect of: a. Gastric ulceration b. Cardiac arrhythmias c. Bone marrow suppression d. Hepatopathy
c. Bone marrow suppression
134. If pneumonia is suspected in small animals, which of the following radiographic views should be performed? a. Both lateral views b. Dorsoventral view c. Both lateral views and ventrodorsal view d. Right lateral and dorsoventral views
c. Both lateral views and ventrodorsal view
243. Radiographs of long bones must include which of the following? a. The joint proximal to the long bone b. The joint distal to the long bone c. Both the joint proximal and the joint distal to the long bone d. The long bone only, excluding joints proximal and distal
c. Both the joint proximal and the joint distal to the long bone
36. Which of the following species does not have a diaphragm? a. African hedgehog b. Sugar glider c. Box turtle d. Golden hamster
c. Box turtle
452. Anticholinergic drugs are used for: a. Tachycardia b. Tachypenia c. Bradycardia d. Bradypnea
c. Bradycardia
335. Baylisascaris procyonis larvae have been shown to cause _________ in humans. a. Pneumonia b. Hemolytic anemia c. Brain damage d. Bloody diarrhea
c. Brain damage
415. What is considered the most primitive part of the brain? a. Cerebellum b. Cerebrum c. Brainstem d. Gray matter
c. Brainstem
53. The cranial nerves originate from the a. Cerebellum b. Spinal cord c. Brainstem d. Cerebrum
c. Brainstem
354. A positive catalase test will be indicated by the presence of: a. A color change b. Gel formation c. Bubbles d. Fibrin
c. Bubbles
126. What laboratory test evaluates primary hemostasis? a. Activated clotting time b. Activated partial thromboplastin time c. Buccal mucosal bleeding time d. One-step prothrombin time
c. Buccal mucosal bleeding time
36. Which of these opioids is an agonist/antagonist? a. Oxymorphone b. Meperidine c. Butorphanol d. Fentanyl
c. Butorphanol
60. Which of the following drugs would likely be contraindicated for use in a rabbit that presented for GI stasis and moderate-to-severe dental pain? a. Buprenorphine b. Fentanyl c. Butorphanol d. Oxymorphone
c. Butorphanol
23. Which of the following allows for measurements of very high blood flow velocities in ultrasound? a. Color Doppler b. PW Doppler c. CW Doppler d. Harmonics
c. CW Doppler
298. The hormone primarily responsible for preventing hypercalcemia is: a. T4 b. Parathyroid hormone c. Calcitonin d. Vitamin D
c. Calcitonin
423. Which of the following is used to increase calcium uptake from the gastrointestinal tract, mobilize calcium from the bone, and conserve calcium from the kidneys? a. Alendronate b. Calcitonin c. Calcitriol d. Calcimimetics
c. Calcitriol
157. The two main minerals that make up bone are: a. Calcium and magnesium b. Sodium and potassium c. Calcium and phosphorus d. Calcium and potassium
c. Calcium and phosphorus
25. For proper metabolization, ultraviolet lighting is necessary for which of the following? a. Vitamin D3 b. Magnesium c. Calcium and vitamin D3 d. Magnesium and calcium
c. Calcium and vitamin D3
355. Which drug class does diltiazem belong in? a. Beta-1 blocker b. Beta-2 blocker c. Calcium channel blocker d. Sodium channel blocker
c. Calcium channel blocker
146. What domestic species lacks the bulbourethral gland, also called Cowper's gland? a. Equine b. Feline c. Canine d. Bovine
c. Canine
136. The lymphatic system is not involved in: a. Waste material transport b. Protein transport c. Carbohydrate transport d. Fluid transport
c. Carbohydrate transport
406. What regulates the size of the opening of the esophagus into the stomach? a. Duodenum b. Pyloric sphincter c. Cardiac sphincter d. Epiglottis
c. Cardiac sphincter
500. Food passes from the esophagus into the stomach via what structure in the horse? a. Pyloric sphincter b. Epiglottis c. Cardiac sphincter d. Duodenum
c. Cardiac sphincter
81. A captive obese pet skunk presents with the following clinical signs: exercise intolerance, weight loss, lethargy, dyspnea, anorexia, coughing, ascites, pale mucous membranes, and cold extremities. What disease process is likely occurring? a. Hepatic lipidosis b. Dental disease c. Cardiomyopathy d. Canine distemper virus
c. Cardiomyopathy
227. The function of the red blood cell is to: a. Provide defense from foreign invaders b. Act as a phagocyte c. Carry oxygen to the tissues d. Respond to the need for clotting
c. Carry oxygen to the tissues
137. Which of the following statements regarding casts is incorrect? a. A few hyaline or granular casts may be seen in normal urine b. All casts are cylindric with parallel sides c. Casts dissolve in acidic urine d. Casts may be disrupted with high-speed centrifugation and rough sample handling
c. Casts dissolve in acidic urine
54. What species has multiple forms of reticulocytes? a. Horse b. Cow c. Cat d. Dog
c. Cat
143. In what species are Fleet (sodium phosphate) enemas contraindicated? a. Horses b. Ruminants c. Cats d. Pigs
c. Cats
265. Which of the following species is NOT considered to be multiparous? a. Dogs b. Sows c. Cattle d. Cats
c. Cattle
279. Which species does NOT have a smooth outer surface of the kidneys? a. Cats b. Dogs c. Cattle d. Horses
c. Cattle
47. Which of the following vessels is most commonly used for intravenous catheterization in a larger lizard such as an iguana? a. Femoral b. Cephalic c. Caudal tail vein d. Jugular
c. Caudal tail vein
70. In the bird, air sac cannulas are placed into which of the following? a. Cervicocephalic air sac b. Clavicular air sac c. Caudal thoracic and abdominal air sacs d. Cranial thoracic air sac
c. Caudal thoracic and abdominal air sacs
600. What is the largest organ in the abdominal cavity of rabbits? a. Liver b. Spleen c. Cecum d. Colon
c. Cecum
597. The premolars of rabbits are also known as: a. Incisors b. Canines c. Cheek teeth d. Diastema
c. Cheek teeth
214. Which of the following is the best restraint to use in avian radiography? a. Manual restraint b. Physical restraint c. Chemical restraint d. None; birds should not be restrained for x-rays
c. Chemical restraint
312. Which of the following correctly lists the progressive stages of phagocytosis? a. Adherence, chemotaxis, ingestion, digestion b. Ingestion, adherence, chemotaxis, digestion c. Chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion d. Ingestion, digestion, chemotaxis, adherence
c. Chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion
391. The parasite that lives on the skin's surface is: a. Sarcoptes species b. Demodex species c. Chorioptes species d. Otodectes species
c. Chorioptes species
569. Via what structure do ureters carry urine to the outside of the body in birds? a. Isthmus b. Vagina c. Cloaca d. Proventriculus
c. Cloaca
15. Which of the following bacteria are most often associated with antibiotic-associated enterotoxemia in the guinea pig? a. Escherichia coli b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Clostridium difficile d. Salmonella typhimurium
c. Clostridium difficile
437. What is an example of enteral nutrition? a. ITP given through an IV catheter b. Fasting or NPO c. Coaxing: warming the food, feeding by hand, etc. d. Water only
c. Coaxing: warming the food, feeding by hand, etc.
428. Anuria is: a. Decreased urine output b. Decreased drinking c. Complete lack of urine production d. Excessive drinking
c. Complete lack of urine production
215. What route of administration of amikacin or gentamicin causes the highest risk for nephrotoxicity? a. Per os b. Intramuscular c. Continuous intravenous infusion d. Intravenous bolus
c. Continuous intravenous infusion
536. Which types of feathers cover the outermost layer of the body? a. Primary feathers b. Secondary feathers c. Contour feathers d. Filoplume feathers
c. Contour feathers
177. What test is used to diagnose autoimmune hemolytic anemia? a. Red cell fragility test b. Modified Knott c. Coombs d. Coggins
c. Coombs
209. The joint between the bony rib and cartilaginous portion of the rib is called the: a. Cartilaginous junction b. Chondralcartilaginous junction c. Costochondral junction d. Costicartilaginous junction
c. Costochondral junction
240. Which of the following is the correct abbreviation indicating performance of a craniocaudal radiograph? a. CdCr b. Dpa c. CrCd d. Cr
c. CrCd
686. Blood leaves the right ventricle to enter what structure? a. Caudal vena cava b. Aorta c. Cranial vena cava d. Left atrium
c. Cranial vena cava
114. Which of the following radiographic terms describes the view when the primary x-ray beam enters the cranial surface and exits the caudal surface of the patient? a. Dorsoventral b. Ventrodorsal c. Craniocaudal d. Caudocranial
c. Craniocaudal
364. What does "buffering the solution" refer to? a. Creating an acidic solution b. Creating an alkaline solution c. Creating a neutral solution with the pH close to 7 d. None of the above
c. Creating a neutral solution with the pH close to 7
11. Which statement regarding tetracyclines is true? a. They are bactericidal b. They alter the permeability of the cell wall and cause lysis c. Currently many bacteria are resistant to tetracyclines d. They are unable to penetrate the bacterial cell wall
c. Currently many bacteria are resistant to tetracyclines
275. Chronic administration of high doses of glucocorticoids can cause iatrogenic: a. Renal failure b. Addison disease c. Cushing disease d. Johne disease
c. Cushing disease
40. Hoover, a canine patient, was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection 2 weeks earlier and was placed on a course of amoxicillin. The veterinarian asked that he return for a recheck to ensure the infection has resolved. The collection method of choice in this patient would be: a. Catheterization b. Free catch c. Cystocentesis d. Manual expression
c. Cystocentesis
425. What are the two preferred methods of collecting a urine sample for culture? a. Catheterization and voiding b. Expressing the bladder and cystocentesis c. Cystocentesis and catheterization d. Cystocentesis and voiding
c. Cystocentesis and catheterization
351. Which of the following is the first indication that the heart is starting to fail? a. Decrease in blood pressure b. Rise in blood pressure c. Decrease in cardiac output d. Drop in oxygen saturation
c. Decrease in cardiac output
249. Because digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index, veterinary technicians and owners of animals that receive digoxin must be able to detect early signs of digoxin toxicity, such as: a. Increased urination and increased water consumption b. Increased coughing and difficulty breathing c. Decreased appetite, anorexia, diarrhea, and vomiting d. Wobbly gait, fainting (syncope), and disorientation
c. Decreased appetite, anorexia, diarrhea, and vomiting
231. Within the past few years there have been reports of dogs having adverse reactions to sulfadiazine, which is a commonly used sulfonamide. What reaction should clients and veterinary professionals watch for? a. Cardiac arrest b. Sudden liver failure c. Decreased tear production d. Increased urination
c. Decreased tear production
353. Cardiac drugs that belong in class IA act by: a. Stabilizing myocardial cells b. Blocking beta receptors c. Decreasing myocardial automaticity d. Blocking calcium channels
c. Decreasing myocardial automaticity
28. Water deprivation tests should never be performed on patients with: a. High MCV b. Suspected sufficient ADH c. Dehydration d. Suspected tubular malfunction
c. Dehydration
62. Which of the following may an elevated hematocrit indicate? a. Hyperglycemia b. Anemia c. Dehydration d. Leukocytosis
c. Dehydration
403. What makes up the bulk of the tooth? a. Enamel b. Crown c. Dentin d. Root
c. Dentin
388. The parasite also known as the American dog tick is: a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus b. Ixodes dammini c. Dermacentor variabilis d. Dermacentor albipictus
c. Dermacentor variabilis
21. The function of hemolysins is to: a. Coagulate blood b. Break down fibrin c. Destroy red blood cells d. Indicate a viral infection
c. Destroy red blood cells
497. The section between the canine teeth and the first premolar of the horse is termed: a. Hypsodontic b. Wolf teeth c. Diastema d. Infundibulum
c. Diastema
104. Mrs. Stillman's poodle Roxy has been diagnosed with idiopathic epilepsy. In the event of a seizure at home, which drug has the doctor decided to dispense, which Mrs. Stillman can administer per rectum? a. Pentobarbital b. Phenobarbital c. Diazepam d. Acepromazine
c. Diazepam
19. If using a regular disposable-type syringe, which of the following drugs should not be preloaded and left for a time before use? a. Acepromazine b. Atropine c. Diazepam d. Ketamine
c. Diazepam
234. What drug is used intravenously to treat status epilepticus? a. Potassium bromide b. Levetiracetam c. Diazepam d. Phenobarbital
c. Diazepam
14. Dogs demonstrate what type of estrous cycle? a. Polyestrous b. Seasonally polyestrous c. Diestrous d. Monoestrous
c. Diestrous
154. The condition known as pseudopregnancy can result from an exaggerated: a. Anestrus b. Metestrus c. Diestrus d. Proestrus
c. Diestrus
3. A pregnant mare has what kind of placentation? a. Zonary b. Cotyledonary c. Diffuse d. Discoid
c. Diffuse
655. Which of the following muscles opens the jaw and is located on the caudoventral surface of the mandible? a. Temporalis b. Dorsal rectus c. Digastricus d. Masseter
c. Digastricus
531. Which digit of the bird carries the primary feathers? a. Digit 1 b. Alula c. Digit 3 d. Metacarpal
c. Digit 3
384. The parasite diagnosed by examining urine is a. Tritrichomonas species b. Dictyocaulus species c. Dioctophyma species d. Anaplasma species
c. Dioctophyma species
400. The double-pore tapeworm is: a. Paragonimus kellicotti b. Moniezia expansa c. Dipylidium caninum d. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Dipylidium caninum
52. The main reason that generic forms of drugs are less expensive than trademark name drugs is because generic brands: a. Use less expensive ingredients b. Are not advertised heavily c. Do not incur the expense of developing a new drug d. Do not work as well as trademark name drugs
c. Do not incur the expense of developing a new drug
124. The female rabbit is referred to as: a. Jill b. Bitch c. Doe d. Hobb
c. Doe
143. When obtaining a caudocranial view of the humerus of a small animal, in which position should the animal be? a. Ventral recumbency b. Left lateral recumbency c. Dorsal recumbency d. Right lateral recumbency
c. Dorsal recumbency
256. To obtain a radiograph of the CdCr projection of the scapula of a small animal, which of the following is the correct position for the patient? a. Sternal recumbency b. Lateral recumbency c. Dorsal recumbency d. Standing
c. Dorsal recumbency
73. Dr. Charles is performing a C-section on Sadie, a 3-year-old Dalmatian. The smallest pup was not breathing spontaneously, so the doctor asks you administer which of the following drugs as a respiratory stimulant? a. Theophylline b. Albuterol c. Doxapram HCl d. Terbutaline
c. Doxapram HCl
577. In what location are spermatozoa stored in birds? a. Vas deferens b. Seminiferous tubules c. Ductus deferens d. Cloaca
c. Ductus deferens
180. Which of the following is considered a tick-borne organism found in dogs? a. Toxoplasma b. Isospora c. Ehrlichia d. Cryptosporidium
c. Ehrlichia
269. Which of the following animals has the longest gestational period? a. Horses b. Sheep c. Elephants d. Cattle
c. Elephants
140. What structure is not found in the brainstem? a. Midbrain b. Pons c. Hypothalamus d. Medulla oblongata
c. Hypothalamus
225. Which of the following is not an advantage of digital x-ray versus analog x-ray? a. Elimination of the darkroom b. Image postprocessing c. Elimination of damaging radiation d. Exposure latitude and contrast optimization
c. Elimination of damaging radiation
334. Baytril is the trade name for: a. Acepromazine b. Cephalexin c. Enrofloxacin d. Gabapentin
c. Enrofloxacin
131. An animal that tested positive for heartworm infection might also have an elevation of which of the following blood cells? a. Leukocytes b. Lymphocytes c. Eosinophils d. Monocytes
c. Eosinophils
262. A flat ribbonlike structure that lies along the surface of the testis is known as: a. Cremaster muscle b. Vas deferens c. Epididymis d. Seminiferous tubule.
c. Epididymis
132. The kidney produces what hormone? a. Antidiuretic hormone b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone c. Erythropoietin d. Adrenal cortex hormone
c. Erythropoietin
30. From the estrous cycle to parturition, in what order are the following hormones released? a. Estrogen, oxytocin, progesterone b. Oxytocin, estrogen, progesterone c. Estrogen, progesterone, oxytocin d. Progesterone, estrogen, oxytocin
c. Estrogen, progesterone, oxytocin
78. How often should x-ray equipment in a veterinarian's office be tested? a. Every 6 months b. Every year c. Every 2 years d. Only once when the equipment is installed
c. Every 2 years
75. The type of drug that would be most helpful for a patient with a productive cough is: a. Antitussive b. Antihistamine c. Expectorant d. Analgesic
c. Expectorant
158. Which of the following will cause a fogged film? a. Chemical spills on the screen b. Exposure resulting from static electricity c. Exposure to excessive scatter radiation d. Foreign materials between the film and the screen
c. Exposure to excessive scatter radiation
163. To obtain a mediolateral view of the brachioantebrachial joint of a horse, how should the leg be positioned? a. Adducted b. Abducted c. Extended cranially d. Extended caudally
c. Extended cranially
112. Dysecdysis is the abnormal shedding of skin in a reptile. Which of the following is a common complication resulting from dysecdysis? a. Fungal infection of the dermis b. Subsequent systemic bacterial infection c. Extremity necrosis, especially of the toes or tail tip d. Constipation caused by eating the shed skin
c. Extremity necrosis, especially of the toes or tail tip
130. The primary function of insulin is to: a. Regulate the metabolic processes of the body b. Regulate digestion through secretion of gastrointestinal hormones c. Facilitate the entry of glucose into cells d. Control reproductive function
c. Facilitate the entry of glucose into cells
515. Where does fertilization normally occur in the horse? a. Testicles b. Ovaries c. Fallopian tubes d. Infundibulum
c. Fallopian tubes
57. Which of the following options is least likely to interfere with blood chemistry test results? a. Postprandial serum b. Icteric serum c. Fasting serum d. Hemolyzed serum
c. Fasting serum
113. Bile acids aid in the absorption of: a. Proteins b. Carbohydrates c. Fats d. Globulins
c. Fats
65. Bile acids aid in the digestion of a. Proteins b. Carbohydrates c. Fats d. Globulins
c. Fats
75. Bile acids are important in the digestion of: a. Carbohydrates b. Electrolytes c. Fats d. Proteins
c. Fats
338. Metronidazole is the active ingredient in: a. Carafate b. Cerenia c. Flagyl d. Reglan
c. Flagyl
202. The scapula is an example of a: a. Long bone b. Short bone c. Flat bone d. Irregular bone
c. Flat bone
294. Squamous cells describe cells that contain what shape? a. Column shaped b. Square or cube shaped c. Flattened in shape d. Circular shaped
c. Flattened in shape
234. Which radiographic view provides the best accuracy for detecting carpal fractures in horses? a. Lateral view b. Medial oblique view c. Flexed lateral view d. Dorsopalmar view
c. Flexed lateral view
63. Which of the following imaging modalities can cause radiation burns if the unit is too close to the skin and remains in exposure mode for too long? a. CT b. MRI c. Fluoroscopy d. Ultrasound
c. Fluoroscopy
146. A veterinarian prescribes erythropoietin for use in a dog in terminal renal failure. Why was this drug prescribed? a. For its fibrinolytic activity b. For its immunosuppressive activity c. For its ability to stimulate red blood cell production and release d. For its ability to reduce hypertension
c. For its ability to stimulate red blood cell production and release
627. The spinal cord exits the skull through which structure? a. Temporal bone b. Atlas c. Foramen magnum d. Occipital condyles
c. Foramen magnum
147. What occurs when the object is not parallel to the recording surface of an x-ray? a. Distortion b. Penumbra c. Foreshortening d. Fogging
c. Foreshortening
179. It is important to keep cytology samples and unstained slides away from _____ so that the samples can be stained properly later. a. Acetone b. Ether c. Formalin d. Saline
c. Formalin
94. Casts that are seen in urine sediment are: a. Mucous threads filled with amorphous sediment b. Always significant c. Formed in the renal tubules d. Artifacts
c. Formed in the renal tubules
141. What method of urine sample collection would not be associated with traumatic hematuria? a. Catheterization b. Manual expression c. Free catch d. Cystocentesis
c. Free catch
72. Efferent nerves carry nerve impulses: a. To the body from the central nervous system b. To the body from the spinal cord c. From the body to the central nervous system d. From one part of a limb to another part of the same limb
c. From the body to the central nervous system
126. All of the following are cells found in the fundus and body of the stomach except: a. Parietal cells b. Chief cells c. G cells d. Mucous cells
c. G cells
233. What tissue processes B cells before they are sent to peripheral lymphoid tissue? a. GLNB b. GALB c. GALT d. GLAN
c. GALT
12. A rabbit presents with a 2-day history of anorexia. You take radiographs and notice an ingesta-filled stomach with large amounts of gas in the intestines and cecum. This is suggestive of what condition in the rabbit? a. Acute GI dilation b. GI foreign-body obstruction c. GI stasis d. GI neoplasia
c. GI stasis
479. In which type of gait does the floating phase occur? a. Walk b. Trot c. Gallop d. Canter
c. Gallop
255. In horses, the blood chemistry tests most commonly used to evaluate liver function are: a. Alanine transaminase and aspartate aminotransferase b. Electrolytes and blood urea nitrogen c. Gamma-glutamyl transferase and sorbitol dehydrogenase d. Amylase and lipase
c. Gamma-glutamyl transferase and sorbitol dehydrogenase
23. A decrease in albumin may occur in cases experiencing: a. Cardiac disease b. A carnivorous diet c. Gastroenteritis d. A vegetarian diet
c. Gastroenteritis
197. Which of the following types of insulin provides the longest duration of action? a. NPH insulin b. Regular insulin c. Glargine insulin d. PZI insulin
c. Glargine insulin
193. Which of the following is not considered a physical restraint? a. Tape b. Radiolucent Plexiglas c. Gloved hands d. Foam pads
c. Gloved hands
143. In a diabetic animal, blood chemistry analysis is commonly performed to monitor insulin therapy by measuring blood levels of: a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Glucose d. Insulin
c. Glucose
38. Which of the following is a condition in which uric acid is deposited into the joints and visceral organs and is caused by dehydration, kidney disease, and a high-protein diet? a. Hypovitaminosis A b. Metabolic bone disease c. Gout d. Hypocalcemia
c. Gout
150. Which of the following is not considered an appropriate bedding substrate for a snake? a. Indoor/outdoor carpet b. Newspaper c. Gravel/corncob bedding d. Cypress mulch
c. Gravel/corncob bedding
260. All of the following are components of the x-ray tube, except: a. Cathode b. Anode c. Grid d. Tungsten filament
c. Grid
101. Malignant hyperthermia is a phenomenon associated primarily with the use of what inhalant anesthetic? a. Nitrous oxide b. Sevoflurane c. Halothane d. Isoflurane
c. Halothane
544. What structure do birds move to view an image? a. Eye muscles b. Eyes c. Head d. Optic lobes
c. Head
559. The pericardial sac covers which of the following structures within the bird? a. Bronchi b. Keel c. Heart d. Syrinx
c. Heart
242. Centrifuging a blood sample at high speed for a prolonged period may result in: a. Lipemia b. Icterus c. Hemolysis d. Bacterial contamination
c. Hemolysis
243. Improper handling of a blood sample after it has been collected may result in: a. Lipemia b. Icterus c. Hemolysis d. Leukocytosis
c. Hemolysis
47. The two most common problems encountered in samples to be evaluated for clinical chemistry are: a. Coagulation and separation b. Dilution and concentration c. Hemolysis and lipemia d. EDTA and heparin
c. Hemolysis and lipemia
288. What type of anemia is associated with icterus? a. Responsive b. Nonresponsive c. Hemolytic d. Megaloblastic
c. Hemolytic
304. What is the primary function of fibrinogen? a. Antibody production b. Phagocytosis c. Hemostasis d. Complement fixation
c. Hemostasis
222. With what type of diet should oral tetracyclines not be administered? a. High fat b. Low sodium c. High calcium d. Low potassium
c. High calcium
455. The coxal tuber is located on which of the following bones of the horse? a. Talus b. Metatarsal c. Hip bone d. Femur
c. Hip bone
242. Which of the following mammals does not have a gallbladder? a. Dogs b. Cats c. Horses d. Animals cannot function without a gallbladder
c. Horses
59. In which of the following species is rouleaux formation common? a. Rats b. Dogs c. Horses d. Pigs
c. Horses
450. The deltoid tuberosity is located on which of the following bones of the horse? a. Radius b. Ulna c. Humerus d. Scapula
c. Humerus
296. When preparing a direct smear from feces, all of the following liquids can be mixed with the feces, except: a. Tap water b. Distilled water c. Hydrogen peroxide d. Saline
c. Hydrogen peroxide
191. Which of the following structures suspends the larynx from the skull? a. Pharynx b. Epiglottis c. Hyoid apparatus d. Mediastinum
c. Hyoid apparatutus
218. Polyuria and polydipsia are not commonly seen in what endocrine disorder? a. Hyperadrenocorticism b. Diabetes insipidus c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Diabetes mellitus
c. Hyperparathyroidism
267. For what disease is methimazole used? a. Hypothyroidism in dogs b. Hyperadrenocorticism in dogs c. Hyperthyroidism in cats d. Hypoadrenocorticism in dogs
c. Hyperthyroidism in cats
211. Xylitol ingestion may result in which of the following conditions? a. Hypophosphatemia b. Hypobilirubinemia c. Hypoglycemia d. Hyper and hypophosphatemia
c. Hypoglycemia
323. Which of the following will decrease the efficacy of lidocaine when used to address cardiac arrhythmias? a. Hypocalcemia b. Hypochloremia c. Hypokalemia d. Hyponatremia
c. Hypokalemia
37. Acepromazine maleate causes: a. Respiratory depression b. Tachycardia c. Hypotension d. Reduced salivation
c. Hypotension
169. In dogs that have been receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy (months to years), which of the following endocrinopathies can occur? a. Hypothyroidism b. Hyperthyroidism c. Iatrogenic Cushing disease/hyperadrenocorticism d. Estrogen-responsive incontinence
c. Iatrogenic Cushing disease/hyperadrenocorticism
259. The bisecting angle principle states that the plane of an x-ray beam should be 90 degrees to the: a. Long axis of the tooth b. Plane of the film c. Imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the tooth's long axis and the film plane d. Imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the animal's head and the film plane
c. Imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the tooth's long axis and the film plane
160. In which of the following circumstances should a thiobarbiturate drug be avoided? a. In a patient with respiratory alkalosis b. In obese patients c. In sight hounds and very thin patients d. In hyperproteinemic animals
c. In sight hounds and very thin patients
633. Which skull bone is the most rostral bone? a. Occipital b. Interparietal c. Incisive d. Lacrimal
c. Incisive
8. Cholinergic agents do all of the following except: a. Cause bradycardia b. Control vomiting c. Increase intraocular pressure d. Increase gastrointestinal motility
c. Increase intraocular pressure
52. Total protein levels are _______ in a dehydrated animal. a. Unaffected b. Decreased c. Increased d. Variable
c. Increased
148. Atropine is often given as a preanesthetic agent. It is classified as an anticholinergic drug. That means that it will likely have the following effects on an animal receiving the drug: a. Decreased heart rate, decreased salivation, and decreased GI motility b. Increased heart rate, increased salivation, and increased GI motility c. Increased heart rate, decreased salivation, and decreased GI motility d. Decreased heart rate, increased salivation, and increased GI motility
c. Increased heart rate, decreased salivation, and decreased GI motility
54. Glaucoma is: a. Decreased pressure in the posterior chamber of the eye b. Increased pressure in the posterior chamber of the eye c. Increased pressure in the anterior chamber of the eye d. Decreased pressure in the anterior chamber of the eye
c. Increased pressure in the anterior chamber of the eye
90. Glucocorticoids are often used in veterinary medicine for the treatment of all of the following conditions except: a. Allergies b. Musculoskeletal problems c. Infections d. Immune-mediated disease
c. Infections
327. Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) is associated with: a. Blood flow to the kidney b. Maintenance of the gastric mucosa c. Inflammation d. Normal physiological function
c. Inflammation
68. Which of the following is the most common and largest space used for subcutaneous fluid administration in the avian patient? a. Wing web b. Between the shoulder blades c. Inguinal area d. Over the back, behind the pelvis
c. Inguinal area
286. Methoprene and fenoxycarb are ingredients increasingly found in flea and other insect products. What are they? a. Insecticides b. Repellents c. Insect growth regulators d. Synergists
c. Insect growth regulators
447. Which of the following drugs can become inactivated by shaking? a. Amoxicillin b. Clavamox c. Insulin d. Metronidazole
c. Insulin
641. The bodies of adjacent vertebrae are separated by what structure? a. Spinal canal b. Articular process c. Intervertebral disks d. Ligamentum nuchae
c. Intervertebral disks
221. The tricuspid valve controls the flow of blood: a. Into the left ventricle b. Out of the left ventricle c. Into the right ventricle d. Out of the right ventricle
c. Into the right ventricle
30. Heartgard contains ivermectin, which: a. Prevents dogs from developing congestive heart failure b. Is also effective in treating tapeworms c. Is used to prevent heartworm infection d. Can be administered orally only
c. Is used to prevent heartworm infection
25. What does the TGC or time gain compensation allow on the ultrasound machine? a. It allows the amount of time it takes sound to travel through a medium to be changed b. It provides a faster time frame for clearer images with motion c. It allows adjustment of the gain at various depths d. None of the above
c. It allows adjustment of the gain at various depths
152. Which of the following statements regarding creatinine is false? a. It is an indicator of the glomerular filtration rate. b. It is produced as a result of normal muscle metabolism. c. It is a less reliable indicator of renal function than BUN. d. It is usually evaluated in conjunction with the BUN and urine specific gravity.
c. It is a less reliable indicator of renal function than BUN.
26. Which of the following statements is true when considering the use of xylazine? a. It is safe in all dogs b. It can be reversed with naloxone c. It provides some analgesia d. It can cause priapism in stallions
c. It provides some analgesia
283. What drug is used most commonly as a microfilaricide in the treatment of heartworm disease? a. Thiacetarsamide b. Melarsomine c. Ivermectin d. Piperazine
c. Ivermectin
408. Which is the longest segment of the small intestines? a. Duodenum b. Ileum c. Jejunum d. Colon
c. Jejunum
74. Which of the following vessels is most commonly used for collection of a complete blood count and chemistry panel in the prairie dog? a. Cephalic vein b. Lateral saphenous vein c. Jugular vein d. Caudal tail vein
c. Jugular vein
113. You were assigned to work the front office at the hospital today. When you walk back to the treatment area, you notice a cat under anesthesia. The cat has eyes wide-open, lack of blinking, the limbs are stiffly distended, and is salivating profusely. Your highly educated guess is that this cat was anesthetized using which of the following drugs? a. Xylazine b. Medetomidine c. Ketamine d. Propofol
c. Ketamine
388. Which injectable anesthetic is not recommended in patients with neurological disease? a. Barbiturates b. Etomidate c. Ketamine d. Propofol
c. Ketamine
16. Penicillins are primarily excreted by the: a. Small intestine b. Liver c. Kidney d. Stomach
c. Kidney
95. The presence of protein in the urine may indicate: a. Acid-base imbalance b. Hemolytic anemia c. Kidney disease d. Diabetes mellitus
c. Kidney disease
249. Which of the following is the correct path for urine elimination? a. Ureter, kidneys, urethra, bladder b. Kidneys, urethra, bladder, ureter c. Kidney, ureters, bladder, urethra d. Urethra, bladder, ureter, kidneys
c. Kidney, ureters, bladder, urethra
122. Serum electrolyte levels should be determined when evaluating the function of the: a. Liver b. Pancreas c. Kidneys d. Heart
c. Kidneys
623. In the male tortoise, the testes are located adjacent to what other organ? a. Stomach b. Urinary bladder c. Kidneys d. Liver
c. Kidneys
434. Which of the following is responsible for draining tears from the eye? a. Lacrimal glands b. Conjunctiva c. Lacrimal puncta d. Membrana nictitans
c. Lacrimal puncta
187. Which of the following is not a muscle in the abdominal group? a. External oblique b. Rectus abdominis c. Latissimus dorsi d. Internal oblique
c. Latissimus dorsi
667. Which muscle is responsible for retracting the forelimb of dogs? a. Pectoralis b. Trapezius c. Latissimus dorsi d. Supraspinatus
c. Latissimus dorsi
155. A grid is a series of thin, linear strips made of alternating radiodense and radiolucent material. Of what are the radiodense strips made? a. Aluminum b. Fiber c. Lead d. Plastic
c. Lead
55. Which of the following two metals most commonly cause heavy metal toxicity after ingestion by birds? a. Lead and gold b. Zinc and copper c. Lead and zinc d. Cast iron and copper
c. Lead and zinc
217. Blood enters the heart from the pulmonary veins in the: a. Left ventricle b. Right ventricle c. Left atrium d. Right atrium
c. Left atrium
306. An increased number of bands in the peripheral blood indicate: a. Leukemia b. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia c. Left shift d. Neutropenia
c. Left shift
44. Cataracts result from a problem with transparency of the: a. Cornea b. Vitreous humor c. Lens d. Aqueous humor
c. Lens
233. An increase in WBCs is referred to as which of the following? a. Leukopenia b. Anemia c. Leukocytosis d. Thrombocytopenia
c. Leukocytosis
379. Pediculosis is an infestation of: a. Ticks b. Flies c. Lice d. Mites
c. Lice
157. Which of the following causes a black irregular border on one end of the film? a. Rough handling of the film before exposure b. Expired film c. Light exposure while still in the box in advance of exposure d. Exposure to radiation while still in storage
c. Light exposure while still in the box in advance of exposure
422. An ammonium biurate crystal is sometimes described as: a. Shaped like an envelope b. Shaped like a pyramid c. Like a thorny apple in appearance d. Like a bicycle wheel in appearance
c. Like a thorny apple in appearance
115. The term oblique is generally used in reference to which of the following? a. Abdomen b. Spine c. Limbs d. Head
c. Limbs
114. Fibrinogen is produced in the: a. Pancreas b. Bone marrow c. Liver d. Spleen
c. Liver
132. When viewing a radiograph, which organ lies in the cranial abdomen between the diaphragm and stomach in small animals? a. Adrenal glands b. Pancreas c. Liver d. Spleen
c. Liver
411. Which gland is located caudal to the diaphragm and is the largest gland in the body? a. Spleen b. Pancreas c. Liver d. Gallbladder
c. Liver
95. Because of a lack of diaphragm in the avian patient, which of the following organs surrounds the apex of the heart? a. Pancreas b. Cecum c. Liver d. Kidneys
c. Liver
119. Looking under a microscope at a blood smear, you see erythrocytes that are elliptical, not nucleated, and lacking central pallor. From which species was this sample most likely collected? a. Bird b. Horse c. Llama d. Snake
c. Llama
79. Monocytes typically have: a. Segmented nuclei b. Band-shaped nuclei c. Lobular nuclei d. No nuclei
c. Lobular nuclei
462. Which muscle of the horse supports the rider's weight? a. Pectoral b. Semitendinosus c. Longissimus dorsi d. Rhomboideus
c. Longissimus dorsi
67. Which is least likely to be a clinical sign of a patient experiencing allergies? a. Face rubbing b. Ear problems c. Loss of appetite d. Skin rashes
c. Loss of appetite
578. During mating, the phallus of male birds becomes engorged with: a. Blood b. Air c. Lymph d. Water
c. Lymph
232. What cells are involved in antibody production? a. Monocytes b. Neutrophils c. Lymphocytes d. Basophils
c. Lymphocytes
214. What is the main constituent of a struvite crystal? a. Calcium carbonate b. Calcium oxalate c. Magnesium phosphate d. Silica
c. Magnesium phosphate
573. The majority of the albumen is added to the egg as it travels down which structure in birds? a. Infundibulum b. Cloaca c. Magnum d. Isthmus
c. Magnum
552. Where are the free spaces within the bird located? a. Thorax b. Abdomen c. Major bones d. Wings
c. Major bones
412. When applying nitroglycerin ointment, it is important to wear gloves and: a. Wash it off after it has had contact with the patient for 5 minutes b. Avoid placing it directly on the skin c. Make a note where it was placed d. Make sure it is placed thickly in a small area
c. Make a note where it was placed
635. The zygomatic bones of dogs are also referred to as: a. Premaxillary bones b. Hard palate c. Malar bones d. Cochlea
c. Malar bones
168. Which of the following would be considered an abnormal finding on healthy canine external ear canal cytology? a. Cerumen b. Epithelial cells c. Malassezia d. Debris
c. Malassezia
189. What causes the sensitivity of the occult heartworm test to decrease? a. No microfilariae present b. Female worms only c. Male worms only d. No clinical signs
c. Male worms only
60. Lymph nodes that are found medial to the caudal part of the jaw are the: a. Popliteal nodes b. Inguinal nodes c. Mandibular nodes d. Prescapular nodes
c. Mandibular nodes
175. Which of the following drugs is classified as an osmotic diuretic and is often used to reduce intracranial pressure or treat oliguric renal failure? a. Furosemide b. Propranolol c. Mannitol d. Bethanechol
c. Mannitol
441. DMSO should not be used in patients with: a. Hemangiosarcoma b. Lymphoma c. Mast cell tumors d. Osteosarcoma
c. Mast cell tumors
656. Which of the following muscles are responsible for side-to-side movements of the mouth? a. Masseter b. Temporalis c. Medial and lateral pterygoids d. Digastric
c. Medial and lateral pterygoids
165. Which of the following is the best view of the carpal joint for detecting slab fractures? a. Lateral view b. Flexed lateral view c. Medial oblique d. Dorsopalmar view
c. Medial oblique
320. What cells respond more quickly to a second antigen exposure than to the initial exposure? a. Thymocytes b. Monocytes c. Memory B cells d. Neutrophils
c. Memory B cells
446. Which of the following bones is also referred to as the cannon bone of the horse? a. Phalanges b. Carpus c. Metacarpals d. Femur
c. Metacarpals
442. Which of the following bones is located distal to the tarsal bone in the horse? a. Femur b. Patella c. Metatarsal d. Fibula
c. Metatarsal
25. In what stage of the estrous cycle does the corpus luteum develop? a. Proestrus b. Estrus c. Metestrus d. Diestrous
c. Metestrus
232. What antibacterial drug is also effective against protozoa such as Giardia? a. Clindamycin b. Griseofulvin c. Metronidazole d. Monensin
c. Metronidazole
344. Of the following drugs, which must be in an anaerobic environment to be effective? a. Chloramphenicol b. Clindamycin c. Metronidazole d. Neomycin
c. Metronidazole
433. What antibiotic also has anti-inflammatory actions in the gastrointestinal tract? a. Ciprofloxacin b. Enrofloxacin c. Metronidazole d. Tetracycline
c. Metronidazole
359. What organism exhibits fluorescence under ultraviolet light? a. Microsporum gypseum b. Trichophyton mentagrophytes c. Microsporum canis d. Epidermophyton floccosum
c. Microsporum canis
450. Yohimbine can be used to reverse all of the following alpha-2 adrenoreceptor agonists, except: a. Xylazine b. Medetomidine c. Midazolam d. Dexmedetomidine
c. Midazolam
31. The active drug in ProHeart is moxidectin, and it is a member of which drug class? a. Arsenical b. Organophosphate c. Milbemycin d. Pyrantel
c. Milbemycin
439. What does the term MAC stand for? a. Maximum arterial concentration b. A sandwich at McDonalds c. Minimum alveolar concentration d. Mild acid concentration
c. Minimum alveolar concentration
200. Many antibiotic drug inserts (information included in packages of drugs) make reference to the MIC at which the antibiotic is effective. What is the MIC? a. Minimum inflammatory concentration b. Maximum infusion concentration c. Minimum inhibitory concentration d. Maximum inhalation concentration
c. Minimum inhibitory concentration
101. What two valves comprise the atrioventricular valves? a. Mitral valve, pulmonic valve b. Aortic valve, pulmonic valve c. Mitral valve, tricuspid valve d. Pulmonic valve, tricuspid valve
c. Mitral valve, tricuspid valve
58. Where on the blood smear would you select to start your WBC differential count? a. Thickest area b. Feathered edge c. Monocellular layer d. Thinnest area
c. Monocellular layer
308. Which of these white blood cells migrate through tissue as macrophages and function to remove and destroy bacteria, damaged cells, and neoplastic cells? a. Lymphocytes b. Neutrophils c. Monocytes d. Eosinophils
c. Monocytes
436. Which of the following cannot be phoned in to the pharmacy and will require a written prescription? a. Buprenorphine b. Diazepam c. Morphine d. Phenobarbital
c. Morphine
85. The intermediate host for heartworms is the: a. Flea b. Rodent c. Mosquito d. Snail
c. Mosquito
129. All of the following organs are normally seen on a radiograph, except: a. Liver b. Kidney c. Pancreas d. Bladder
c. Pancreas
149. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the snake respiratory tract? a. Snakes have air sacs similar to those in birds b. Snakes have complete cartilaginous tracheal rings c. Most species have a single right lung and a nonfunctioning left lung d. The lungs run the entire length of the snake's body
c. Most species have a single right lung and a nonfunctioning left lung
194. What is the most immature cell in the granulocyte series? a. Megakaryoblast b. Leukoblast c. Myeloblast d. Progranuloblast
c. Myeloblast
68. On a complete blood count (CBC), all of the following findings could be expected in a patient with an infection, except: a. Neutrophilia b. Leukocytosis c. Narrow buffy coat d. A left shift
c. Narrow buffy coat
366. Dirofilaria immitis is a: a. Cestode b. Arthropod c. Nematode d. Trematode
c. Nematode
185. An example of an aminoglycoside antibiotic is: a. Erythromycin b. Ampicillin c. Neomycin d. Doxycycline
c. Neomycin
13. The type of cell responsible for the transmission of impulses through the nervous system is the: a. Neuroglia b. Schwann c. Neuron d. Oligodendrocyte
c. Neuron
78. What cells are phagocytic? a. Granulocytes b. Lymphocytes c. Neutrophils and macrophages d. Macrophages and lymphocytes
c. Neutrophils and macrophages
274. Commonly used glucocorticoids affect the CBC. What are the effects of glucocorticoid use on the CBC? a. Neutrophils decreased, eosinophils increased, lymphocytes decreased b. Neutrophils increased, eosinophils increased, lymphocytes increased c. Neutrophils increased, eosinophils decreased, lymphocytes decreased d. Neutrophils decreased, eosinophils decreased, lymphocytes increased
c. Neutrophils increased, eosinophils decreased, lymphocytes decreased
339. A neutrophil with a four-segmented nucleus would be classified as a: a. Hypersegmented neutrophil b. Immature neutrophil c. Normal neutrophil d. Aged neutrophil
c. Normal neutrophil
98. In which imaging modality is Technetium 99m used? a. MRI b. Ultrasound c. Nuclear medicine d. Fluoroscopy
c. Nuclear medicine
384. Which of the following are considered the largest molecules in the body? a. Lipids b. Proteins c. Nucleic acids d. Carbohydrates
c. Nucleic acids
217. Why is it important that pus-filled wounds or ear canals with purulent debris be thoroughly cleaned before applying a topical aminoglycoside (e.g., gentamicin)? a. Purulent material shields bacteria from the antibiotic. b. The alkaline nature of the purulent material reduces bacterial uptake of the drug. c. Nucleic acids in the cellular debris bind the aminoglycoside. d. Irritation from the purulent material causes the tissue to produce enzymes against the aminoglycoside.
c. Nucleic acids in the cellular debris bind the aminoglycoside.
76. Which of the following diseases causes an acute onset of hind limb paresis or paralysis in the captive sugar glider? a. Lymphoid neoplasia b. Cardiomyopathy c. Nutritional osteodystrophy d. Obesity
c. Nutritional osteodystrophy
80. Which one of the following options would not affect a manual WBC count? a. Condenser in the farthest "up" position b. Length of time that the hemocytometer has been loaded c. Objective lens used d. Mini clots in the blood
c. Objective lens used
353. Viruses are best described as: a. Free-living organisms b. Obligatory interstitial parasites c. Obligatory intracellular parasites d. Eukaryotic cells
c. Obligatory intracellular parasites
165. The skull bone that articulates with the first cervical vertebra is the: a. Parietal bone b. Temporal bone c. Occipital bone d. Frontal bone.
c. Occipital bone
405. The parasite whose larvae enter the nasal cavity of sheep is: a. Gasterophilus species b. Hypoderma species c. Oestrus species d. Cuterebra species
c. Oestrus species
1. Which of the following may help decrease dental abrasions in the pet ferret? a. Housing the ferret in a wire cage b. Offering a raw diet consisting of bones, chicken, and green vegetables c. Offering a natural-prey diet or moistening dry kibble d. Annual periodontal treatments
c. Offering a natural-prey diet or moistening dry kibble
443. An example of a semisolid dosage form is: a. Implant b. Injectable c. Ointment d. Syrup
c. Ointment
293. What is indicated by a neutrophil that includes a nucleus with six lobes? a. Toxemia b. Female animal c. Old cell d. Normal cell
c. Old cell
124. For a dorsoplantar view of the tarsal joint of a horse, the cassette should be placed in which position? a. On the lateral surface b. On the medial surface c. On the plantar surface d. On the plantaromedial surface
c. On the plantar surface
537. How often do go birds go through a molting process? a. Once a month b. Every 3- 6 months c. Once a year d. One time after 1 year of age
c. Once a year
197. Which test is used to confirm a diagnosis of warfarin (rodenticide) toxicity? a. Thrombocyte count b. Calcium level c. One-step prothrombin time d. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
c. One-step prothrombin time
264. The mesosalpinx ligament within the female reproductive tract supports which of the following structures? a. Uterus b. Ovaries c. Oviduct d. Vagina
c. Oviduct
144. Which of the following is a posterior pituitary hormone? a. Luteinizing hormone b. Growth hormone c. Oxytocin d. Follicle-stimulating hormone
c. Oxytocin
241. Which of the following radiographic terms describes the caudal surface of the forelimb distal to the carpus? a. Plantar b. Dorsopalmar c. Palmar d. Caudocranial
c. Palmar
97. What is the term used below the carpus for the surface directed caudally or ventrally? a. Plantar b. Sagittal c. Palmar d. Longitudinal
c. Palmar
155. Measurement of blood levels of amylase and lipase is used to evaluate the function of the: a. Kidneys b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Adrenal glands
c. Pancreas
243. Which organ is considered both an exocrine and endocrine organ? a. Small intestine b. Thyroid c. Pancreas d. Kidneys
c. Pancreas
321. The thick, outer layer that surrounds the testes in the scrotum and the spermatic cord is known as the: a. Visceral vaginal tunic b. Proper vaginal tunic c. Parietal vaginal tunic d. Both a and b
c. Parietal vaginal tunic
48. Which of the following is the correct order to process dental film? a. Passed through the developer, then the fixer, then the wash b. Passed through the fixer, wash, developer, then the wash again c. Passed through the developer, wash, fixer, then the wash again d. Passed through the wash, developer, fixer, and wash again
c. Passed through the developer, wash, fixer, then the wash again
448. Which of the following bones is encased in the hoof? a. Navicular bone b. Cannon bone c. Pedal bone d. Sesamoid bone
c. Pedal bone
199. The appendicular skeleton includes the: a. Os cordis b. Ribs c. Pelvic girdle d. Clavicles
c. Pelvic girdle
12. Cephalosporins are closely related to what other drug class? a. Tetracyclines b. Sulfas c. Penicillins d. Fluoroquinolones
c. Penicillins
204. Which of the following drug groups is most likely to provoke an allergic reaction in treated animals? a. Aminoglycosides b. Quinolines c. Penicillins d. Tetracyclines
c. Penicillins
17. A 5-year-old intact male chinchilla presents with a 1-week history of excessive grooming, straining to urinate, repeatedly cleaning the penis, and production of several small spots of urine in the litter box. What is the most likely cause of these signs? a. Acute renal failure b. Urinary calculi c. Penile fur ring d. Urinary tract infection
c. Penile fur ring
646. A sugar that contains 5 carbons is referred to as a: a. Monosaccharide b. Hexose sugar c. Pentose sugar d. Disaccharide
c. Pentose sugar
301. What substance covers the outer surface of all types of bone? a. Cartilage b. Bone marrow c. Periosteum d. Lamellae
c. Periosteum
124. Food is moved along the digestive tract by the process known as a. Mastication b. Prehension c. Peristalsis d. Elimination
c. Peristalsis
325. Transport of a drug molecule that occurs when the majority of the cell surrounds the molecule, engulfs it, and brings it into the cell is referred to as: a. Facilitated b. Passive c. Phagocytosis d. Pinocytosis
c. Phagocytosis
102. What drug is in the same class as thiopental? a. Ketamine b. Diazepam c. Phenobarbital d. Atropine
c. Phenobarbital
346. Acid-fast positive organisms stain _________ when using an acid-fast stain. a. Yellow b. Blue c. Pink d. Brown
c. Pink
150. Measurement of blood levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and ACTH is used to evaluate the function of the: a. Thyroid gland b. Pancreas c. Pituitary gland d. Adrenal glands
c. Pituitary gland
248. Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index. What does this mean? a. Plasma drug concentrations that produce toxicity are very low. b. Plasma drug concentrations required to achieve a beneficial effect are very high. c. Plasma drug concentrations that produce toxicity are very close to the minimum concentration at which a beneficial effect occurs. d. Plasma drug concentrations are extremely variable from animal to animal.
c. Plasma drug concentrations that produce toxicity are very close to the minimum concentration at which a beneficial effect occurs.
103. Iguanas have teeth that are replaced many times throughout life. The teeth do not have roots but are attached to the jaw. This type of dentition is called: a. Hypsodont b. Elodont c. Pleurodont d. Monophyodont
c. Pleurodont
135. A guinea pig presents with hind leg lameness. Physical examination findings include obesity, plantar thinning, and mild ulceration. These findings are indicative of which of the following diseases? a. Gout b. Vitamin C deficiency c. Pododermatitis d. Streptobacillus spp. infection
c. Pododermatitis
456. The calcaneus bone in a horse forms which of the following? a. Pastern b. Fetlock c. Point of the hock d. The horse does not contain a calcaneus bone, only small animals
c. Point of the hock
286. What is the term used to describe the situation in which many of the erythrocytes stain varying shades of lavender? a. Anemia b. Anisocytosis c. Polychromasia d. Poikilocytosis
c. Polychromasia
604. What does it mean when rabbits breathe through their mouths? a. Normal breathing b. Good prognosis c. Poor prognosis d. Rabbits never breathe through their mouths
c. Poor prognosis
679. The veins that drain the stomach, intestine, and pancreas drain into which of the following? a. Hepatic veins b. Hepatic arteries c. Portal veins d. Iliac veins
c. Portal veins
299. What anticoagulant is used most commonly in animal-blood collection for CBCs? a. Sodium heparin b. Potassium oxalate c. Potassium ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid d. Sodium citrate
c. Potassium ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid
417. What can be used in the hospital, given IV, to increase a patient's phosphorus? a. Amphojel b. Dexamethasone sodium phosphate c. Potassium phosphate d. Tums
c. Potassium phosphate
14. The Food and Drug Administration does not approve the use of fluoroquinolones in: a. Dogs b. Cats c. Poultry d. Birds
c. Poultry
471. What is the function of cheek ligaments in horses? a. Support and suspend the fetlock and prevent overextension b. Assist in the extension of the pastern joint c. Prevent strain and overextension of the joint d. Flexes the toe
c. Prevent strain and overextension of the joint
191. What is the function of a megakaryocyte? a. Phagocytosis b. Produces granulocytes c. Produces thrombocytes d. Produces plasma cells
c. Produces thrombocytes
437. Which hormones are produced by the corpus luteum and are necessary to maintain pregnancy? a. FSH b. LH c. Progesterone d. Estrogen
c. Progesterone
132. Altrenogest, which is used for estrus synchronization in female animals, is a synthetic: a. Estrogen b. Androgen c. Progestin d. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
c. Progestin
333. Which of these cells is the most immature? a. Rubricyte b. Metarubricyte c. Prorubricyte d. Reticulocyte
c. Prorubricyte
268. What drug is used to return a mare to proestrus from diestrus through lysis of the corpus luteum? a. Progesterone b. Estrogen c. Prostaglandin d. Gonadotropin
c. Prostaglandin
351. In response to hyperkalemia, calcium gluconate will: a. Cause potassium to move into the cell b. Increase urination to excrete potassium c. Protect the heart from the effects of the potassium d. Cause potassium to move out of the cell
c. Protect the heart from the effects of the potassium
380. Which molecule is considered the most abundant organic molecule in the body? a. Amino acids b. Lipids c. Proteins d. Prostaglandins
c. Proteins
102. What gram-negative bacteria may "swarm" a blood agar plate, leaving a film over the entire surface? a. Pseudomonas sp. b. Staphylococcus sp. c. Proteus sp. d. Escherichia coli
c. Proteus sp.
124. If a drug package insert states that the drug is a coccidiostat, against what group of parasites will this drug be effective? a. Ascarids (Toxocara, Toxascaris) b. Tapeworms (Taenia) c. Protozoa (Eimeria, Isospora) d. Flukes (liver fluke, lung fluke)
c. Protozoa (Eimeria, Isospora)
96. What is the term for a part closer to a point of attachment or to the trunk? a. Distal b. Lateral c. Proximal d. Superficial
c. Proximal
86. Which of the following would be the least common side effect expected with common cancer chemotherapeutic drugs? a. Myelosuppression b. Vomiting and diarrhea c. Pruritus d. Alopecia
c. Pruritus
89. The feathered tracts in birds from which feathers originate are called: a. Barbules b. Rectrices c. Pterylae d. Remiges
c. Pterylae
431. An excessive number of WBCs in the urine is reported as: a. Dysuria b. Hematuria c. Pyuria d. Proteinuria
c. Pyuria
50. Atropine is not suggested for use in which of the following species? a. Birds b. Snakes c. Rabbits d. Lizards
c. Rabbits
89. What does the MRI unit use to manipulate hydrogen atoms in and out of an excited energy state? a. Helium b. Water c. Radio waves d. Oxygen
c. Radio waves
72. A ferret presents to the emergency clinic for anorexia, vomiting, lethargy, diarrhea, and generalized weakness. The owner stated that these symptoms started 36 hours earlier. A GI foreign body is suspected. Which of the following diagnostics would be used to determine whether a foreign body is present? a. Magnetic resonance imaging b. Chemistry panel c. Radiography d. Complete blood count
c. Radiography
66. What is an isotope termed when it is radioactive? a. Photon b. Radionuclide c. Radioisotope d. None of the above; isotopes do not become radioactive
c. Radioisotope
298. What is tested in a minor crossmatch? a. T-cell production b. Recipient serum against donor erythrocytes c. Recipient erythrocytes against donor serum d. Recipient urine against donor erythrocytes
c. Recipient erythrocytes against donor serum
396. Which blood cell is the most numerous blood cell in the body? a. White blood cells b. Plasma c. Red blood cells d. Leukocytes
c. Red blood cells
162. Bones come in all of the following shapes except: a. Flat b. Short c. Regular d. Long
c. Regular
201. What is the smallest epithelial cell seen on a urine sediment examination? a. Leukocyte b. Transitional cell c. Renal cell d. Squamous cell
c. Renal cell
42. Apnea will cause: a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis
170. What is the primary function of eosinophils? a. Phagocytosis b. Respond to autoimmune reactions c. Respond to allergic reaction d. Initiate an immune reaction
c. Respond to allergic reaction
82. The kidneys are located in which cavity? a. Peritoneal cavity b. Pelvic cavity c. Retroperitoneal cavity d. Abdominal cavity
c. Retroperitoneal cavity
11. The SA node is located in the wall of which chamber? a. Left atrium b. Left ventricle c. Right atrium d. Right ventricle
c. Right atrium
253. To obtain a radiographic image of the right temporomandibular joint of a small animal, which of the following is the best position? a. Dorsal recumbency b. Ventral recumbency c. Right lateral recumbency d. Left lateral recumbency
c. Right lateral recumbency
84. Which of the following is the most immature erythrocyte? a. Rubricyte b. Metarubricyte c. Rubriblast d. Reticulocyte
c. Rubriblast
176. What is the sequence of cells listed from most immature to most mature? a. Rubricyte, reticulocyte, rubriblast, erythrocyte b. Rubriblast, reticulocyte, rubricyte, erythrocyte c. Rubriblast, rubricyte, reticulocyte, erythrocyte d. Reticulocyte, rubriblast, rubricyte, erythrocyte
c. Rubriblast, rubricyte, reticulocyte, erythrocyte
22. Which of the following is not a side effect of sulfonamides? a. Crystalluria b. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca c. Seizures d. Thrombocytopenia
c. Seizures
116. The behavioral drug group that may be sent home to stimulate appetite in cats is: a. Benzodiazepines b. Tricyclic antidepressants c. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors d. Progestins
c. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
670. Which muscle is the most medial muscle of the hamstring? a. Semitendinosus b. Gastrocnemius c. Semimembranosus d. Quadriceps femoris
c. Semimembranosus
226. Afferent neurons are part of what system? a. Motor b. Interneuron c. Sensory d. Extraneuron
c. Sensory
111. The muscular structure that separates the right and left ventricles is called the interventricular: a. Sternum b. Coronary muscle c. Septum d. Myocardium
c. Septum
115. Which of the following samples can be frozen and successfully thawed for performing an analytic test at a later time? a. Feces for a fecal float test b. Whole blood for chemistry testing c. Serum for chemistry testing d. Whole blood for a CBC
c. Serum for chemistry testing
381. What characteristic of a protein molecule directly determines its function? a. Size b. Location c. Shape d. None, proteins all have the same function
c. Shape
68. Amoxicillin (Amoxi-Drop) was prescribed for Tallulah, a 4-year-old female Chihuahua, who was being discharged after hospitalization. Dr. Segal asks you to provide her owner with discharge instructions. You advise the client of all of the following, except: a. She should call if she notices any adverse side effects as a result of the medication. b. She should complete all the medication dispensed, even if Tallulah is feeling well and her symptoms have resolved. c. She must administer the medication on an empty stomach, even if Tallulah vomits. d. The medication should be refrigerated.
c. She must administer the medication on an empty stomach, even if Tallulah vomits.
159. One of the adverse side effects of opioid administration is: a. Increased seizure activity in epileptic animals b. Induction of cardiac arrhythmias c. Significant respiratory depression d. Systemic hypertension
c. Significant respiratory depression
35. If it is accidentally administered as an IV bolus, lidocaine may cause: a. Full body numbness b. Seizures c. Sinus arrest d. Polyuria
c. Sinus arrest
251. What is the correct place of measurement for radiographs of the nasal passages of small animals? a. The most rostral end of the cranium b. The most caudal end of the cranium c. Slightly rostral to the widest area of the cranium d. At the widest portion of the cranium
c. Slightly rostral to the widest area of the cranium
22. Which muscle cells have single nuclei? a. Skeletal and cardiac b. Skeletal and smooth c. Smooth and cardiac d. Skeletal only
c. Smooth and cardiac
133. The ability of the renal tubules to concentrate or dilute a urine sample is assessed by what component of the urinalysis? a. pH b. Volume c. Specific gravity d. Examination of the sediment
c. Specific gravity
183. The number of species of bacteria that are affected by an antibiotic is known as the antibiotic's: a. Effectiveness b. Efficacy c. Spectrum d. Affinity
c. Spectrum
121. Which of the following is a common finding on a blood smear from an animal with autoimmune hemolytic anemia? a. Heinz bodies b. Howell-Jolly bodies c. Spherocytes d. Target cells
c. Spherocytes
81. Which of the following options is not a sign of RBC regeneration? a. Polychromasia b. Nuclear remnants c. Spherocytes d. Anisocytosis with macrocytosis
c. Spherocytes
268. A common finding on a stained blood smear from an animal with autoimmune hemolytic anemia is: a. Lymphocytosis b. Basophilic stippling c. Spherocytosis d. Leukemia
c. Spherocytosis
170. What is the cranial landmark for an x-ray of the thoracic vertebrae in the lateral position? a. The base of the skull b. Halfway between the xiphoid process and the last rib c. Spine of the scapula d. Wings of the ilium
c. Spine of the scapula
184. What canine parasite causes nodules in the esophagus, which may then become neoplastic? a. Physaloptera b. Filaroides c. Spirocerca d. Neosporum
c. Spirocerca
49. A fecal smear can be stained for fat. An increased amount of fat is indicative of: a. Dyschezia b. Dysentery c. Steatorrhea d. Tenesmus
c. Steatorrhea
415. The parasite also known as a kidney worm is of the: a. Alaria species b. Fascioloides species c. Stephanurus species d. Metastrongylus species
c. Stephanurus species
174. To obtain a dorsopalmar x-ray of the metacarpus and digits, in which position should the patient be? a. Right lateral recumbency b. Left lateral recumbency c. Sternal recumbency d. Dorsal recumbency
c. Sternal recumbency
312. Which of the following is an example of a hinge joint? a. Hip b. Shoulder c. Stifle d. Atlantoaxial joint
c. Stifle
349. Which of the following is NOT a type of muscle tissue? a. Cardiac b. Skeletal c. Striated d. Smooth
c. Striated
57. The pupil in birds and reptiles is made up of which type of muscle? a. Smooth muscle b. Cardiac muscle c. Striated skeletal muscle d. A mix of smooth and skeletal muscle
c. Striated skeletal muscle
420. Which of the following is not absorbed systemically? a. Diphenhydramine b. Dolasetron c. Sucralfate d. Tramadol
c. Sucralfate
49. Long-term use of glucocorticoids will: a. Increase lymphocyte production b. Increase plasma protein levels c. Suppress the immune system d. Decrease blood glucose levels
c. Suppress the immune system
175. Which joint is not a synovial joint? a. Hinge joint b. Gliding joint c. Swinging joint d. Pivot joint
c. Swinging joint
266. The drug most commonly used in treating animals with hypothyroidism is: a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) b. Thyroid extract c. Synthetic levothyroxine (T4) d. Synthetic liothyronine (T3)
c. Synthetic levothyroxine (T4)
92. Which of the following is responsible for sound generation in the bird? a. Infraorbital sinus b. Glottis c. Syrinx d. Larynx
c. Syrinx
83. Which circulatory system is under the highest pressure? a. Pulmonary b. Coronary c. Systemic d. Capillaries
c. Systemic
4. The pressure in the systemic arteries during ventricular contraction is: a. Diastolic blood pressure b. Osmotic pressure c. Systolic blood pressure d. Low pressure
c. Systolic blood pressure
407. When discharging a cat, you would explain to the owner that the buprenorphine should be given: a. po b. SQ c. TM d. IM
c. TM
221. For smaller-sized patients, which radiographic technique is preferred? a. Grid technique b. Lower mA c. Tabletop technique d. Higher kVp
c. Tabletop technique
630. The tibia and fibula of the dog are located immediately proximal to what bones? a. Metatarsal bones b. Metacarpal bones c. Tarsal bones d. Olecranon
c. Tarsal bones
392. What medication can be used to confirm a diagnosis of acquired myasthenia gravis? a. Acepromazine b. Metoclopramide c. Tensilon d. Theophylline
c. Tensilon
25. If you are instructed to give a medication IP, you will inject the medication into: a. The jugular vein b. The popliteal artery c. The abdominal cavity d. A major muscle mass
c. The abdominal cavity
223. An example of capillary action is: a. The blood coursing through smaller veins b. The perfusion of mucous membranes c. The action of blood filling a hematocrit tube d. Removing serum from a clot with a pipette
c. The action of blood filling a hematocrit tube
439. Which of the following forms the tail of the horse? a. The cervical vertebrae b. The sacrum c. The coccygeal vertebrae d. The lumbar vertebrae
c. The coccygeal vertebrae
17. When using color-flow Doppler in ultrasound, what do the displayed red and blue colors mean? a. Blue colors are veins, and red colors are arteries b. Blue colors are arteries, and red colors are veins c. The colors show blood flow; blue indicates flow away, and red indicates flow toward d. The colors show different velocities of blood
c. The colors show blood flow; blue indicates flow away, and red indicates flow toward
161. Decreased radiographic density with poor contrast results from which of the following? a. The film was overdeveloped b. The film was overexposed c. The film was underexposed d. The film was developed in chemicals that were too hot
c. The film was underexposed
120. The area of interest when obtaining an x-ray should be closest to what? a. The end of the table b. The back of the table c. The image receptor d. The restrainer
c. The image receptor
192. When using a Plexiglas tube to obtain an x-ray, which of the following should be adjusted? a. The mAs should be increased b. The mAs should be decreased c. The kVp should be increased d. The kVp should be decreased
c. The kVp should be increased
36. For a dorsolateral-palmaromedial oblique of the metacarpus of a horse, on which surface should the cassette be placed? a. The medial aspect b. The palmar aspect c. The palmaromedial aspect d. The palmarolateral aspect
c. The palmaromedial aspect
260. Why should apomorphine and activated charcoal not be given simultaneously? a. The resultant vomiting is too severe and too prolonged b. Each cancels the beneficial effects of the other c. The patient will vomit and may aspirate the charcoal d. Severe diarrhea and intestinal cramping result
c. The patient will vomit and may aspirate the charcoal
336. What does it mean when a drug is at a steady state? a. The owner is giving the drug on a regular basis b. The patient is responding as expected c. The peak and trough are steady d. The patient has been on the drug more then 6 months
c. The peak and trough are steady
83. What is a major safety concern with MRI machines? a. The amount of radiation emitted b. The intensity of the magnet on the patient c. The potential projectile effect with metallic objects within the vicinity of the machine d. MRI machines are extremely safe and contain no safety concerns
c. The potential projectile effect with metallic objects within the vicinity of the machine
108. Which of the following statements is true regarding carnivorous lizards? a. They do not require calcium as part of their diets b. They do not require vitamin A in their diets c. They do not require UV-B lighting d. They require live prey
c. They do not require UV-B lighting
40. Which statement is most accurate pertaining to insect growth regulators? a. They prevent the female from laying eggs b. They effectively kill all adult stages c. They interfere with development d. They are neurotoxic to mammals
c. They interfere with development
7. What happens to crystals within the ultrasound transducer when strong, short electrical pulses strike them? a. They harden b. They melt c. They vibrate d. They break apart
c. They vibrate
387. All of the following are nucleotides, except: a. Adenine b. Guanine c. Thiamine d. Cystosine
c. Thiamine
345. Which of the following is generally used for infections not susceptible to other antibiotics? a. First-tier antibiotics b. Second-tier antibiotics c. Third-tier antibiotics d. Negative-tier antibiotics
c. Third-tier antibiotics
289. The following information was provided for a prescription written by a veterinarian: "Canine patient, Amoxicillin 100 mg tablets, Sig: 1 tab q8h po prn 2 refills. Date: 1/5/16." How many times a day is this medication to be given? a. Once b. Twice c. Three times d. Four times
c. Three times
166. Which of the following is associated with clotting disorders? a. Anemia b. Leukopenia c. Thrombocytopenia d. Reticulocytosis
c. Thrombocytopenia
332. Signs of immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (ITP) include all of these conditions, except: a. Petechiae b. Ecchymoses c. Thrombocytosis d. Anemia
c. Thrombocytosis
257. For what reason is apomorphine used in canine patients in emergency veterinary medicine? a. To keep blood pressure elevated for animals in shock b. To alleviate pain c. To produce emesis after ingestion of a toxin d. To maintain kidney function during periods of reduced blood flow to the kidneys
c. To produce emesis after ingestion of a toxin
324. The vas deferens is responsible for which of the following actions? a. To mature sperm b. To store sperm before ejaculation c. To propel spermatozoa and the fluid from the epididymis to the urethra during ejaculation d. To produce spermatozoa
c. To propel spermatozoa and the fluid from the epididymis to the urethra during ejaculation
246. Which statement is false concerning the collection of a plasma sample for a blood chemistry analysis? a. If a needle and syringe are used, hemolysis can be minimized by removing the needle from the syringe before discharging the blood into a sample tube. b. Volume changes caused by evaporation can be minimized by keeping the cap on the blood collection tube as much as possible. c. To separate, allow the sample to clot for approximately 30 minutes; gently remove the clot from the sides of the tube, centrifuge, and then remove the plasma. d. Avoid lipemia by fasting the animal before collecting the sample.
c. To separate, allow the sample to clot for approximately 30 minutes; gently remove the clot from the sides of the tube, centrifuge, and then remove the plasma.
259. For what is syrup of ipecac used? a. To stimulate defecation to flush out poisons from the distal bowel b. To induce vomiting c. To stimulate duodenal movement to overcome constipation d. To increase blood supply to the gastrointestinal tract
c. To stimulate duodenal movement to overcome constipation
657. The ___________ in the muscles of the jaw is responsible for closure and helps keep the mouth closed when it is not in use. a. Shape b. Length c. Tone d. Atrophy
c. Tone
221. When the spun hematocrit test is completed, which of the following can be evaluated? a. PCV b. Plasma color and PCV c. Total protein, buffy coat, plasma color, and PCV d. Total protein, buffy coat, plasma color, fibrin, and PCV
c. Total protein, buffy coat, plasma color, and PCV
543. All of the following special senses of birds are well developed for survival, except: a. Sight b. Hearing c. Touch d. All of the above are well developed in the bird
c. Touch
239. As a general rule, enough blood should be collected to run any test at least three times. This compensates for all of the following, except: a. Instrument error b. Technician error c. Transcription error d. Improper dilution of a sample
c. Transcription error
363. Fasciola hepatica is a: a. Nematode b. Cestode c. Trematode d. Protozoan
c. Trematode
91. Struvite crystals are also known as: a. Calcium carbonate crystals b. Calcium oxalate crystals c. Triple phosphate crystals d. Amorphous phosphate crystals
c. Triple phosphate crystals
186. Observing a "zippy" motility in fresh feces is used to help diagnose the presence of what parasite? a. Toxoplasma b. Mycoplasma (Haemobartonella) c. Tritrichomonas d. Ehrlichia canis
c. Tritrichomonas
675. Grooves on bones that allow tendons to act as pulleys are known as: a. Fossa b. Ligament c. Trochlea d. Epicondyle
c. Trochlea
99. A common laboratory test for chronic pancreatitis is a fecal test for: a. Amylase b. Lipase c. Trypsin d. Bilirubin
c. Trypsin
674. The protuberances on bones, which are used for the attachment of muscles, are referred to as which of the following? a. Fossa b. Tendon c. Tuberosity d. Shaft
c. Tuberosity
308. The mandibular symphysis joins which of the following bones? a. The two hip bones b. Two vertebrae within the spinal column c. Two halves of the mandible d. The occipital and parietal bones
c. Two halves of the mandible
263. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) often produce side effects in the gastrointestinal tract with long-term use or high-dosage use, especially in dogs. What are the side effects? a. Increased bowel motility, resulting in fluid diarrhea b. Decreased ability to digest fat, resulting in fatty stool (steatorrhea) c. Ulcers or gastritis from decreased mucus production d. Decreased bowel motility, resulting in constipation
c. Ulcers or gastritis from decreased mucus production
535. Secondary feathers are attached to which structure in birds? a. Digit 1 b. Digit 3 c. Ulna d. Hallux
c. Ulna
45. A figure-8 bandage is used for immobilization of which of the following bones? a. Femur, tibiotarsus, and tarsometatarsus b. Femur and tibiotarsus c. Ulna, radius, and metacarpals d. Humerus, radius, and ulna
c. Ulna, radius, and metacarpals
128. Insulin concentration is measured in: a. Milligrams per milliliter b. Milliequivalents per milliliter c. Units per milliliter d. Grams per milliliter
c. Units per milliliter
328. The prostate gland completely surrounds which structure? a. Testis b. Epididymis c. Urethra d. Spermatic cord
c. Urethra
108. A kidney function test that has been found useful in birds and dalmatians is: a. BUN b. Creatinine c. Uric acid d. AST
c. Uric acid
119. A 12-year-old spayed female golden retriever is brought into your clinic with a history of waking up in her bed in a puddle of urine. A complete blood count (CBC), profile, and urinalysis show no sign of urinary tract disease. The doctor tells you to fill a prescription for phenylpropanolamine. The doctor is choosing this drug because it treats: a. Bladder atony by increasing bladder tone b. Urinary incontinence by decreasing urethral sphincter tone c. Urinary incontinence by increasing urethral sphincter tone d. Bladder atony by decreasing bladder tone
c. Urinary incontinence by increasing urethral sphincter tone
429. When a patient has received a spinal epidural, which of the following must be monitored closely? a. Appetite b. Attitude c. Urination d. Walking
c. Urination
136. Which radiographic view is best suggested for imaging the lungs? a. Right lateral b. Left lateral c. VD d. DV
c. VD
422. Which of the following cranial nerves is the longest cranial nerve that innervates many organs in the body? a. Trigeminal b. Vestibulocochlear c. Vagus d. Hypoglossal
c. Vagus
238. A deformity in which the interior angle of the joint, viewed frontally, is greater than 180 degrees is known as what? a. Axial rotation b. Windswept c. Valgus deformity d. Varus deformity
c. Valgus deformity
240. In the normal heart ECG, the QRS complex corresponds to what portion of the cardiac cycle? a. The QRS complex is the entire ECG cycle b. Atrial depolarization c. Ventricular depolarization d. Ventricular repolarization
c. Ventricular depolarization
181. The antidote for warfarin poisoning is: a. Vitamin C b. Naloxone c. Vitamin K d. 4-methylpyrazole
c. Vitamin K
239. What is meant by cardiac output? a. Strokes (beats) per minute b. Volume of blood pumped per stroke (beat) c. Volume of blood pumped per minute d. Strokes (beats) per volume
c. Volume of blood pumped per minute
540. The lift force must equal which of the following parameters for flight to occur in a bird? a. Size of the bird b. Shape of the wings c. Weight of the bird d. Gravity
c. Weight of the bird
59. A hamster presents to the clinic with the following symptoms: diarrhea, matting around the tail, lethargy, and a hunched abdomen. Which of the following diseases is most likely the causative agent? a. GI stasis b. Cystic calculi c. Wet tail d. Dental disease
c. Wet tail
278. What sample is recommended for hemoglobin testing? a. Serum b. Plasma c. Whole blood d. Blood smear
c. Whole blood
31. Which of the following is the proper way to disinfect an ultrasound probe? a. Autoclave b. Gas sterilization c. Wipe with a glutaraldehyde-based disinfectant d. Immerse in an alcohol-based cleaner
c. Wipe with a glutaraldehyde-based disinfectant
303. Many drugs do not have X mg/mL listed on their labels but instead have their concentrations listed as a percent (e.g., X% solution). Which of the following most accurately reflects the conversion of a percentage of a solution to a weight per volume format? a. X% = X g/mL b. X% = X g/10 mL c. X% = X g/100 mL d. X% = X mg/10 mL
c. X% = X g/100 mL
100. The amount of radioisotope used for each examination in a nuclear medicine study is measured in which of the following units? a. kV b. mAS c. mCi d. MHz
c. mCi
438. Lidocaine can be diluted with sodium bicarbonate to decrease pain associated with injection. What should this dilution be (sodium bicarbonate: lidocaine)? a. 1 : 1 b. 1 : 4 c. 1 : 5 d. 1 : 9
d. 1 : 9
57. Modern CT scanners use multislice technology and are able to acquire image slices thinner than which of the following sizes? a. 10 mm b. 1 cm c. 10 cm d. 1 mm
d. 1 mm
446. Which of the following specific gravity concentrations would be expected in a healthy, hydrated, 4-year-old Labrador patient? a. 1.000 b. 1.005 c. 1.010 d. 1.040
d. 1.040
138. Puddin, a 2-year-old castrated male domestic shorthair cat, was missing for 5 days before coming home. His owners were very concerned that he appeared weak and tired, so they brought him to the clinic. You find on initial physical examination that he is significantly dehydrated. You are not at all surprised when you find that his urine specific gravity is a. 1.002 b. 1.012 c. 1.030 d. 1.060
d. 1.060
498. What is the average length of the esophagus in the average sized horse? a. 1.5 inches b. 1.5 cm c. 1.5 mm d. 1.5 m
d. 1.5 m
506. In the average horse, how many liters of ingesta can the colon hold? a. 10 L b. 35 L c. 65 L d. 100 L
d. 100 L
590. What is the average adult weight of rabbits? a. 400- 600 g b. 50- 60 g c. 100 g d. 1000- 8000 g
d. 1000- 8000 g
70. Which of the following kV will produce more scatter and secondary radiation? a. 40 kV b. 60 kV c. 70 kV d. 110 kV
d. 110 kV
418. How many types of cranial nerves exist? a. 5 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12
d. 12
447. To avoid serum lipemia, animals should be fasted for: a. 2 hours b. 4 hours c. 8 hours d. 12 hours
d. 12 hours
79. To what level of kV radiation are most lead aprons effective? a. 50 kV b. 70 kV c. 90 kV d. 125 kV
d. 125 kV
56. Which of the following Hounsfield units on CT imaging appears as white? a. −755 HU b. 120 HU c. 1200 HU d. 1260 HU
d. 1260 HU
574. How long does it take for calcification of the egg to occur in birds? a. 1 hour b. 5 hours c. 10 hours d. 15 hours
d. 15 hours
616. The spine of a ferret is flexible and allows for the ferret to bend at an angle of at least: a. 15 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 90 degrees d. 180 degrees
d. 180 degrees
605. How often does the nose of a rabbit twitch during general anesthesia? a. 10- 20 times b. 25- 50 times c. 50- 100 times d. 20- 120 times
d. 20- 120 times
298. A 10-kg animal weighs how many pounds? a. 2 b. 15 c. 18 d. 22
d. 22
603. Food material of rabbits passes through the digestive system twice within ____ hours. a. 6 b. 8 c. 12 d. 24
d. 24
237. To separate serum, whole blood should be spun down in a centrifuge at: a. 4500 rpm for 30 minutes b. 10,000 rpm for 10 minutes c. 8500 rpm for 30 minutes d. 2500 rpm for 10 minutes
d. 2500 rpm for 10 minutes
14. Approximately how many shades of gray are incorporated into the display of an image obtained through ultrasound? a. 50 shades of gray b. 100 shades of gray c. 226 shades of gray d. 256 shades of gray
d. 256 shades of gray
184. How long does it take for barium sulfate to travel from the stomach to the colon? a. 30 minutes b. 1 hour c. 2 hours d. 3 hours
d. 3 hours
505. In the average horse, how many liters of ingesta can the cecum hold? a. 10 L b. 20 L c. 25 L d. 35 L
d. 35 L
507. How long does food remain in the colon of the horse? a. 1- 2 hours b. 5- 15 hours c. 25- 35 hours d. 36- 65 hours
d. 36- 65 hours
558. How many chambers does the avian heart contain? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
d. 4
659. How many extrinsic muscles of the eye are responsible for moving the eye up, down, and side to side within its socket? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
d. 4
253. About how many nephrons are in each kidney of the cow? a. 700,000 b. 100,000 c. 1,000,000 d. 4,000,000
d. 4,000,000
39. Aspirin may be safely used in cats as an NSAID, but it should be noted that its half-life in this species is approximately: a. 10 hr b. 20 hr c. 30 hr d. 40 hr
d. 40 hr
12. What is the speed of sound through bone? a. 330 m/s b. 600 m/s c. 1600 m/s d. 4080 m/s
d. 4080 m/s
369. The doctor asks you to fill acepromazine, 50 mg po TID for seven days. You have 25-mg tablets available in the hospital. How many tablets do you fill? a. 14 b. 21 c. 28 d. 42
d. 42
359. How many half-lives does a drug go through before reaching a steady state? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
d. 5
582. The forelegs of rabbits have _____ toes. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
d. 5
595. What is the age of sexual maturity for rabbits? a. 3- 4 weeks b. 10- 12 weeks c. 12 months d. 5- 8 months
d. 5- 8 months
116. The normal lifespan of a domestic ferret is: a. 2-4 years b. 7-10 years c. 10-12 years d. 5-7 years
d. 5-7 years
137. What is the maximum permissible dose of radiation a person can receive per year? a. 1000 millirems/yr b. 2000 millirems/yr c. 2500 millirems/yr d. 5000 millirems/yr
d. 5000 millirems/yr
457. The tarsus of the horse is composed of how many bones?. a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6
d. 6
228. Horses have approximately how many carpal bones? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7
d. 7
8. Most bacteria grow best at a pH of: a. 1 b. 3 c. 9 d. 7
d. 7
398. Blood makes up approximately what percentage of body weight? a. 93% b. 55% c. 45% d. 7%
d. 7%
210. Dogs have how many cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae? a. 7, 13, 6 b. 7, 12, 7 c. 6, 13, 7 d. 7, 13, 7
d. 7, 13, 7
50. What is the typical kilovoltage preset on a dental unit? a. 110 kV b. 25 kV c. 50 kV d. 70 kV
d. 70 kV
105. What is the average number of air sacs that birds have? a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 9
d. 9
554. How many air sacs do most birds contain? a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 9
d. 9
106. In birds, the cloaca is: a. An appendage suspended from the head b. A blind sac at the distal end of the jejunum c. A cleft in the hard palate d. A common passage for fecal, urinary, and reproductive systems
d. A common passage for fecal, urinary, and reproductive systems
275. A normal leukocyte count with an increase in immature neutrophils that outnumber mature neutrophils is: a. Leukocytosis b. Leukopenia c. A regenerative left shift d. A degenerative left shift
d. A degenerative left shift
441. What is fructosamine? a. Another term for blood glucose b. A type of insulin c. A carbohydrate molecule to which glucose binds d. A protein to which glucose binds
d. A protein to which glucose binds
152. When obtaining a view of the tympanic bullae of small animals, where should the centering of the image occur? a. Midway between the tip of the nose to just caudal to the occipital protuberance at the base b. Lateral canthus of the eye socket c. Between the eyes d. Above the base of the tongue and just below the palate, approximately at the commissure of the mouth
d. Above the base of the tongue and just below the palate, approximately at the commissure of the mouth
110. You are working with an equine veterinarian on a breeding farm. You will be sedating a young stallion for an oral examination. Which tranquilizer are you well aware that the veterinarian will probably not use for the procedure? a. Xylazine b. Diazepam c. Detomidine d. Acepromazine
d. Acepromazine
145. What drug is most likely to be prescribed to prevent motion sickness in dogs and cats? a. Apomorphine b. Syrup of ipecac c. Atropine d. Acepromazine
d. Acepromazine
4. Blood levels of total bilirubin will not be a significant finding in: a. Hepatocellular damage b. Bile duct injury or obstruction c. Hemolytic disorders d. Acute pancreatitis
d. Acute pancreatitis
71. Alopecia at the tail tip, symmetrical alopecia along the trunk of the body, intense pruritus, and enlarged vulva are symptoms in the ferret that indicate what disease? a. Green slime disease b. Insulinoma c. External parasites d. Adrenal disease
d. Adrenal disease
145. What gland is the most active producer of corticosteroids? a. Thyroid gland b. Pancreas c. Pituitary gland d. Adrenal glands
d. Adrenal glands
147. The gland function that is evaluated by measuring blood cortisol levels before and after administration of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is the: a. Thyroid gland b. Pancreas c. Liver d. Adrenal glands
d. Adrenal glands
18. Sensory nerves are considered: a. Efferent motor nerves b. Motor nerves c. Efferent nerves d. Afferent nerves
d. Afferent nerves
154. When obtaining a dorsolateral-palmaromedial oblique view of the carpus of a horse, where should the cassette be held? a. Against the palmarolateral aspect of the leg b. Against the medial aspect of the leg c. Against the palmaromedial aspect of the leg d. Against the palmar aspect of the carpus
d. Against the palmar aspect of the carpus
72. When obtaining a dorsopalmar view of the carpus of a horse, where should the cassette be held? a. Against the palmarolateral aspect of the leg b. Against the medial aspect of the leg c. Against the palmaromedial aspect of the leg d. Against the palmar aspect of the carpus
d. Against the palmar aspect of the carpus
100. Why is it important to maintain a reptile within its preferred optimal temperature zone (POTZ)? a. The POTZ enables animals to metabolize drugs b. The POTZ enables animals to digest food properly c. The POTZ enables animals to heal after an injury or surgery d. All of the above
d. All of the above
107. Which parts of a patient's body are considered radioactive after they have received the radioisotope? a. Skin b. Hair c. Waste products d. All of the above
d. All of the above
186. Which of the following could be considered as negative-contrast agents used in radiography? a. Oxygen b. Air c. Carbon dioxide d. All of the above e. b and c only
d. All of the above
209. Before imaging the coffin bone in horses, which of the following tasks should be performed in preparation? a. Hoof should be trimmed to the new sole level b. The horseshoes need to be removed c. The sulcus should be packed with radiolucent material d. All of the above
d. All of the above
210. Chemical neutropenia may result from the ingestion of which drugs in dogs? a. Chloramphenicol b. Estrogen c. Phenylbutazone d. All of the above
d. All of the above
224. For digital radiography, what does the postprocessing step of image manipulation allow? a. Magnification b. Rotation c. Contrast adjustment d. All of the above e. a and b only
d. All of the above
247. Which of the following are clinical signs of diabetes mellitus? a. Polyuria b. Polydipsia c. Polyphagia d. All of the above
d. All of the above
256. Which of the following is considered the main mechanism in which the kidneys perform waste elimination? a. Filtration b. Reabsorption c. Secretion d. All of the above
d. All of the above
259. Which of the following conditions can cause prerenal uremia? a. Dehydration b. Congestive heart failure c. Shock d. All of the above
d. All of the above
261. With film-based imaging, which of the following are receptor components? a. Intensifying screen b. Cassette c. Film d. All of the above
d. All of the above
274. Which organ is part of the endocrine system? a. Pancreas b. Kidneys c. Stomach d. All of the above
d. All of the above
282. The kidneys perform the waste-removal function by which of the following actions? a. Filtration b. Reabsorption c. Secretion d. All of the above
d. All of the above
309. Which of the following is considered a range of movement that can occur in a synovial joint? a. Abduction/ adduction b. Retraction c. Protraction d. All of the above
d. All of the above
311. Which of the following is a type of synovial joint? a. Plane/ gliding b. Condylar c. Ball and socket d. All of the above
d. All of the above
315. Myasthenia gravis is commonly associated with: a. Megaesophagus b. Exercise intolerance c. Aspiration pneumonia d. All of the above
d. All of the above
325. The accessory reproductive glands produce alkaline fluid that contains which of the following substances? a. Electrolytes b. Prostaglandins c. Fructose d. All of the above
d. All of the above
342. Which of the following are considered to be a major structure within the thoracic cavity? a. Heart b. Lungs c. Esophagus d. All of the above
d. All of the above
35. Which of the following can the piezoelectric crystal within an ultrasound probe do? a. Convert electrical energy into mechanical energy b. Convert mechanical energy into electrical energy c. Change shape in the presence of an electrical current d. All of the above
d. All of the above
359. Which of the following are examples of inorganic compounds? a. Water b. Acids c. Bases d. All of the above
d. All of the above
362. Which of the following are considered electrolytes? a. Potassium b. Sodium c. Calcium d. All of the above
d. All of the above
367. Which of the following is an example of a carbohydrate? a. Sugar b. Starch c. Cellulose d. All of the above
d. All of the above
372. Which of the following molecules are nucleic acids? a. DNA b. RNA c. Adenosine triphosphate d. All of the above
d. All of the above
379. Cholesterol is used by which of the following organs for the creation of steroid hormones? a. Adrenal glands b. Testes c. Ovaries d. All of the above
d. All of the above
46. Which of the following are considered to be a category of lipids? a. Neutral fats b. Steroids c. Phospholipids d. All of the above
d. All of the above
514. The prostate gland is responsible for which of the following? a. Cleans the urethra before the ejaculation of sperm b. Neutralizes acidity of any remaining urine before ejaculation c. Secretes a clear fluid d. All of the above
d. All of the above
570. Which of the following systems attach to the cloaca in birds? a. Reproductive b. Digestive c. Urinary d. All of the above
d. All of the above
581. Where are scent glands located on the rabbit? a. Under the chin b. On either side of the perineum c. At the anus d. All of the above
d. All of the above
609. The term altricial refers to: a. Born hairless b. Born deaf c. Born blind d. All of the above
d. All of the above
637. Which of the following are the inner bones of the face of small animals? a. Vomer bone b. Palatine bone c. Pterygoid bone d. All of the above
d. All of the above
71. Which of the following is considered to be a cardinal rule for radiation protection? a. Distance b. Time c. Shielding d. All of the above
d. All of the above
81. Which of the following can occur if DNA is affected by radiation? a. Cell death b. Cell damage may be obvious, with portions of the DNA compromised c. Cell may display no immediate effects, but damage may have occurred internally that will affect the individual later, when mitosis occurs d. All of the above
d. All of the above
87. Which statement about tularemia in rabbits is true? a. Wild rabbits are highly susceptible b. Wild rabbits are the cause of most epizootic infections c. Francisella tularensis is the etiologic agent d. All of the above
d. All of the above
356. Which of the following are considered as types of chemical bonds? a. Covalent bonds b. Ionic bonds c. Hydrogen bonds d. All of the choices are considered types of chemical bonds
d. All of the choices are considered types of chemical bonds
80. All of the following people are allowed to view individual dosimetry reports, except: a. OSHA inspector b. Owner of the practice c. Only the employee exposed d. All team members
d. All team members
299. The mammary glands contain which type of connective tissue? a. Tubular single b. Alveolar single c. Tubular multiple d. Alveolar multiple
d. Alveolar multiple
201. Antimicrobial drugs such as neomycin, gentamicin, and amikacin each belong to what group of antibiotics? a. Penicillins b. Cephalosporins c. Quinolines d. Aminoglycosides
d. Aminoglycosides
248. An allergic response that is frequently life threatening is the result of: a. Agglutination b. Hemolysis c. DIC d. Anaphylaxis
d. Anaphylaxis
385. The parasite diagnosed by examining blood is: a. Tritrichomonas species b. Dictyocaulus species c. Dioctophyma species d. Anaplasma species
d. Anaplasma species
41. What drug is approved for the treatment of old dog dementia? a. Clomipramine b. Meloxicam c. Diazepam d. Anipryl
d. Anipryl
264. Cimetidine and ranitidine are used as: a. Antidiarrheals b. Laxatives c. Rumen stimulants d. Antacids
d. Antacids
349. Acylovir is an: a. Antibacterial b. Antifungal c. Antiparasitic d. Antiviral
d. Antiviral
113. The major artery that carries blood out of the left ventricle is the: a. Subclavian artery b. Carotid artery c. Pulmonary artery d. Aorta
d. Aorta
176. Which of the following drugs does not have an antiemetic action? a. Chlorpromazine b. Metoclopramide c. Meclizine d. Apomorphine
d. Apomorphine
381. The doctor orders a patient to receive a CRI of fentanyl. How often will this drug be administered? a. Every 2 hr b. Every 4 hr c. Every 6 hr d. At a constant rate
d. At a constant rate
206. The only true pivot joint in the body is the: a. Spheroidal b. Elbow c. Carpal d. Atlantoaxial
d. Atlantoaxial
284. If an animal receives an overdose of organophosphate insecticide (from dips, powders, sprays), what is the treatment of choice? a. Diphenhydramine b. Corticosteroids c. Intravenous fluids d. Atropine
d. Atropine
16. Functions that an animal does not have to consciously control, such as peristalsis in the intestine, are influenced by the: a. Somatic nervous system b. Central nervous system c. Peripheral nervous system d. Autonomic nervous system
d. Autonomic nervous system
317. The scrotum is responsible for which of the following? a. Regulation of temperature b. Production of sperm c. Housing of the testes d. Both a and c
d. Both a and c
143. A blue-and-gold macaw presents to the clinic with the following signs: depression, lethargy, anorexia, dyspnea, nasal and ocular discharge, conjunctivitis, and biliverdinuria (green urates). What disease should be at the top of the differential diagnosis list? a. Papillomatosis b. Psittacine beak and feather disease c. Proventricular dilation disease d. Avian chlamydophila
d. Avian chlamydophila
317. Combined immunodeficiency is a condition in which the animal fails to produce functioning: a. Plasma cells b. B cells c. T cells d. B and T cells
d. B and T cells
20. What laboratory test evaluates kidney function and is a breakdown product of protein? a. Glucose b. SGTP (ALT) c. Creatinine d. BUN
d. BUN
93. Which of the following test results are not determined by a urine dipstick? a. Glucose b. Blood c. Total protein d. BUN
d. BUN
144. Leukocytes in the urine sediment and a positive nitrite reaction on the urinary colorimetric strip provide presumptive evidence that the patient may have a: a. Neoplasm b. Diabetic condition c. Renal failure d. Bacterial infection
d. Bacterial infection
41. Leukocytes in the urine sediment and a positive nitrite reaction on the urinary colorimetric strip provide presumptive evidence that the patient might have a: a. Neoplasm b. Diabetic condition c. Renal failure d. Bacterial infection
d. Bacterial infection
63. Which of the following results may be found in a patient with a degenerative left shift? a. Leukocytosis b. No bands are present c. Lymphocytes outnumber neutrophils d. Bands outnumber mature neutrophils
d. Bands outnumber mature neutrophils
345. Cats exposed to feline leukemia virus typically respond in any of the following ways, except: a. Not becoming infected at all b. Becoming temporarily infected, developing immunity, and overcoming the infection c. Becoming infected and continuing to shed the virus indefinitely without becoming ill d. Becoming infected, becoming ill within 3 days, and dying within a week
d. Becoming infected, becoming ill within 3 days, and dying within a week
672. All of the following are muscles of the hind limb in dogs, except: a. Biceps femoris b. Quadriceps femoris c. Semitendinosus d. Biceps brachii
d. Biceps brachii
42. Aged urine samples left at room temperature and exposed to UV light may cause a false negative result in which one of the following biochemical tests? a. Ketones b. Protein c. Glucose d. Bilirubin
d. Bilirubin
1. Neonatal animals are less tolerant of some drugs than older animals, because in neonates the drugs are: a. Biotransformed more rapidly b. Absorbed more slowly from the gastrointestinal tract c. Not biotransformed d. Biotransformed more slowly
d. Biotransformed more slowly
373. Prostaglandins provide all of the following functions, except: a. Regulate hormone synthesis b. Enhance immune system c. Provide inflammatory response d. Block the COX-2 pathway
d. Block the COX-2 pathway
396. Cardiac drugs that belong in class IV act by: a. Stabilizing myocardial cells b. Blocking beta receptors c. Decreasing myocardial automaticity d. Blocking calcium channels
d. Blocking calcium channels
90. What urine sediment component would be of the most significant concern? a. Sperm b. Fat droplets c. Squamous epithelial cells d. Blood cells
d. Blood cells
296. Which of the following connective tissues contains the highest density? a. Blood b. Cartilage c. Fibrous connective tissue d. Bone
d. Bone
16. Poor husbandry conditions, along with a humid environment, predispose guinea pigs to which of the following conditions? a. Demodex caviae b. Trixacarus caviae c. Gyropus ovalis d. Bordetella bronchiseptica
d. Bordetella bronchiseptica
372. The kennel cough syndrome in dogs is often caused by a combination of boarding at a kennel, a viral infection, and infection with: a. Pasteurella multocida b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae d. Bordetella bronchiseptica
d. Bordetella bronchiseptica
44. Which of the following image receptors is used in dental imaging? a. Film b. Phosphor plates c. Neither d. Both
d. Both
160. What is the correct temperature for an automatic processor tank that is used to develop x-ray film? a. 35° C b. 95° F c. 68° F d. Both a and b e. Both a and c
d. Both a and b
257. Which of the following hormones are responsible for urine volume regulation? a. ADH b. Aldosterone c. Glucagon d. Both a and b
d. Both a and b
260. Which of the following is/ are considered functions of the male testes? a. Spermatogenesis b. Hormone production c. Urine formation d. Both a and b
d. Both a and b
283. Which hormone is responsible for regulating urine volume? a. Antidiuretic hormone b. Aldosterone c. Mineralocorticoid hormone d. Both a and b
d. Both a and b
385. Nucleic acids consist of which of the following classes? a. RNA b. DNA c. Ribose d. Both a and b
d. Both a and b
67. Which particles have high linear energy transfer (LET) with low penetrability? a. Alpha particles b. Beta particles c. Gamma particles d. Both a and b
d. Both a and b
145. What does the milliamperage control on the x-ray machine affect? a. The amount of radiation that is produced b. The amount of incoming voltage c. The current to the cathode d. Both a and c
d. Both a and c
218. For larger species of birds, which technique can be used to obtain a craniocaudal appendicular skeletal radiograph? a. Tape the limb to a Plexiglas plate b. Tape the limb directly on the cassette c. Use a gloved hand placed behind the hock to restrain the limb for exposure d. Both a and c
d. Both a and c
300. Which of the following bone tissues contain an internal meshwork of trabeculae with interconnected spaces that are filled with red bone marrow? a. Cancellous bone b. Compact bone c. Spongy bone d. Both a and c
d. Both a and c
660. Which muscle of the eye is responsible for rotating the eye about its visual axis? a. Dorsal oblique b. Dorsal rectus c. Ventral oblique d. Both a and c
d. Both a and c
164. To obtain a lateral view of the tibia of a small animal, the patient should be in which of the following positions? a. Sternal recumbency b. Right lateral recumbency c. Left lateral recumbency d. Both b and c
d. Both b and c
167. Which of the following causes the entire film to be clear? a. Final wash was conducted improperly b. There was no exposure c. The film was placed in the fixer before the developer d. Both b and c
d. Both b and c
326. Which of the following species does NOT contain seminal vesicles? a. Bull b. Cat c. Dog d. Both b and c
d. Both b and c
585. What characteristic is true about the fibula of rabbits? a. It is twice the length of the tibia b. It is half the length of the tibia c. It is fused with the tibia d. Both b and c
d. Both b and c
200. In what species is ketonuria most commonly found? a. Canine b. Feline c. Equine d. Bovine
d. Bovine
283. Where is the buffy coat found on the refractometer? a. Beneath the packed red cells b. Above the packed red cells c. Above the plasma d. Buffy coats are not seen on refractometers.
d. Buffy coats are not seen on refractometers.
127. Which of the following is not a hormone produced or released by the pituitary gland? a. Luteinizing hormone b. Oxytocin c. Growth hormone d. Calcitonin
d. Calcitonin
353. Which element of the periodic table is required for muscle contraction, nerve impulse transmission, and blood clotting? a. Nitrogen b. Oxygen c. Phosphorus d. Calcium
d. Calcium
376. Lipids are made of all of the following components except: a. Oxygen b. Carbon c. Hydrogen d. Calcium
d. Calcium
53. Which of the following crystals is most likely found in the urine of an animal with ethylene glycol toxicity? a. Ammonium biurate b. Tyrosine c. Triple phosphate d. Calcium oxalate
d. Calcium oxalate
80. Pet skunks should be vaccinated against all of the following diseases except: a. Rabies b. Feline panleukopenia c. Canine distemper d. Canine parvovirus
d. Canine parvovirus
598. Rabbits are unable to vomit because of the arrangement of the ____________ in relation to the stomach. a. Esophagus b. Pylorus c. Duodenum d. Cardia
d. Cardia
562. Which of the following arteries runs parallel to the trachea in birds? a. Brachial b. Jugular c. Subclavian d. Carotid.
d. Carotid
330. Which species contain short spines that cover the end of the glans of the penis? a. Horses b. Dogs c. Ruminants d. Cats
d. Cats
29. Which of the following vessels is most commonly used for blood collection in the lizard? a. Cephalic vein b. Jugular vein c. Ventral abdominal vein d. Caudal tail vein
d. Caudal tail vein
179. Which of the following radiographic terms describes the view when the primary x-ray beam enters the caudal surface and exits the cranial surface of the patient? a. Dorsoventral b. Ventrodorsal c. Craniocaudal d. Caudocranial
d. Caudocranial
94. Which of the following radiographic terms describes the radiographic projection obtained by passing the primary x-ray beam from the caudal surface to the cranial surface of a structure? a. Plantar b. Dorsopalmar c. Palmar d. Caudocranial
d. Caudocranial
242. What effect do beta-receptor agonists have on the respiratory tree? a. Increase the volume of watery secretions b. Increase the volume of sticky mucoid secretions c. Cause bronchoconstriction d. Cause bronchodilatation
d. Cause bronchodilatation
680. Which artery supplies the stomach, spleen, and liver with blood? a. Renal artery b. Portal vein c. Hepatic vein d. Celiac artery
d. Celiac artery
162. To obtain a whole body view of the abdomen of a rabbit, where should the center of the beam be focused? a. Center over the heart b. Center over the liver c. Center of the body cranial to caudal d. Center over the thoracolumbar area
d. Center over the thoracolumbar area
362. Dipylidium caninum is a: a. Trematode b. Nematode c. Arthropod d. Cestode
d. Cestode
234. What would not cause shifts or trends in quality-control data? a. New lot numbers of reagents b. Change in calibration of the instrument c. Outdated reagents d. Change in laboratory personnel
d. Change in laboratory personnel
407. What species causes a disease known as walking dandruff? a. Trombicula species b. Sarcoptes species c. Demodex species d. Cheyletiella species
d. Cheyletiella species
15. The antibiotic that should be avoided in all food-producing animals is: a. Lincosamides b. Cephalexin c. Enrofloxacin d. Chloramphenicol
d. Chloramphenicol
225. What drug readily penetrates the blood-brain barrier and achieves therapeutic concentrations of antibiotic in the central nervous system? a. Amoxicillin b. Enrofloxacin c. Oxytetracycline d. Chloramphenicol
d. Chloramphenicol
174. The anatomic term for synovial joints is: a. Fibroarthroses b. Amphiarthroses c. Synarthroses d. Diarthroses
d. Diarthroses
238. What structure is the pacemaker of the heart? a. Bundle of His b. Purkinje fibers c. Atrioventricular node d. Sinoatrial node
d. Sinoatrial node
64. Dr. Blackman prescribed a particular antibiotic for a rabbit with a Pasteurella infection and asked you to educate the client regarding special instructions for administration of the drug. You told the client that she should wear gloves when handling this medication, because it has been associated with a rare adverse reaction in humans: aplastic anemia. Based on this information, the drug that you dispensed was most likely: a. Gentamicin b. Tetracycline c. Erythromycin d. Chloramphenicol
d. Chloramphenicol
109. The uvea consists of the iris, ciliary body, and: a. Neural tunic b. Fibrous tunic c. Anterior chamber d. Choroid
d. Choroid
102. In the skin of chameleons, which of the following allows for reflectivity of visible light that results in a color change? a. Melanocytes b. Heterophils c. Azurophils d. Chromatophores
d. Chromatophores
371. Which of the following processes will decrease the efficacy of an antibiotic in a dog with a bite wound on the forelimb? a. Acute inflammation b. Shock c. Necrosis d. Chronic inflammation
d. Chronic inflammation
137. Lymph from the digestive system is known as what? a. GALT b. Haustra c. Chylomicrons d. Chyle
d. Chyle
118. Which tricyclic antidepressant is now approved for use in dogs and cats to control separation anxiety? a. Buspirone b. Selegiline c. Paroxetine d. Clomipramine
d. Clomipramine
177. In the kidney, the primary site of action for ADH is in the: a. Loop of Henle b. Proximal convoluted tubule c. Glomerulus d. Collecting ducts
d. Collecting ducts
151. Lead shutters installed in the tube head of the x-ray machine are referred to as: a. Filters b. Diaphragms c. Cones d. Collimators
d. Collimators
197. Film badges, TLDs, and OSL badges contain 3-4 elements for filtration. Which element monitors the highest level of exposure to radiation? a. Open window b. Plastic c. Aluminum d. Copper
d. Copper
483. What structure in horses provides additional shading for the retina to limit the entry of light? a. Cornea b. Iris c. Ciliary muscle d. Corpora nigra
d. Corpora nigra
178. The renal corpuscle is located in the: a. Renal pelvis b. Hilus c. Medulla d. Cortex
d. Cortex
153. A good initial urinary screening test for suspected Cushing's disease is: a. Endogenous ACTH b. Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test c. ACTH stimulation d. Cortisol/creatinine ratio
d. Cortisol/creatinine ratio
161. The periosteum: a. Covers joint cavities b. Lines the heart c. Lines the marrow cavity of bones d. Covers the outer surface of bones
d. Covers the outer surface of bones
172. Which of the following is the correct abbreviation to perform a cranial radiograph? a. CdCr b. Dpa c. CrCd d. Cr
d. Cr
220. For an avian lateral view, where should the dependent limb be placed compared to the contralateral limb? a. Lateral b. Medial c. Superimposed d. Cranial
d. Cranial
576. Where are the testes located compared to the kidneys in birds? a. Lateral b. Distal c. Caudal d. Cranial
d. Cranial
64. You have been asked to obtain 10 mL of blood from one ferret for blood donation to another ferret. Which of the following vessels is most likely the best choice for venipuncture? a. Cephalic b. Lateral saphenous c. Auricular d. Cranial vena cava
d. Cranial vena cava
88. Which is the correct order in the avian gastrointestinal tract descending from the oral cavity? a. Crop, gizzard, proventriculus b. Proventriculus, gizzard, crop c. Gizzard, proventriculus, crop d. Crop, proventriculus, gizzard
d. Crop, proventriculus, gizzard
325. Which of these parasites sucks blood from its host? a. Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus b. Onchocerca cervicalis c. Metastrongylus apri d. Ctenocephalides felis
d. Ctenocephalides felis
402. The parasite whose larvae encyst in the subcutaneous tissue of rabbits is: a. Gasterophilus species b. Hypoderma species c. Oestrus species d. Cuterebra species
d. Cuterebra species
46. Squamous epithelial cells are not normally seen in urine samples obtained by: a. Catheterization b. Manual expression c. Free catch d. Cystocentesis
d. Cystocentesis
261. What effect are anticholinergic drugs expected to have on the gastrointestinal tract? a. Increased secretions by the bowel b. Increased movement of feces through the bowel c. Decreased ability of compounds to irritate the bowel wall d. Decreased bowel motility
d. Decreased bowel motility
35. Which reaction is the result of parasympathetic nervous system stimulation? a. Bronchodilation b. Pupil dilation c. Decreased GI motility d. Decreased heart rate
d. Decreased heart rate
427. Oliguria is: a. Excessive eating b. Green urine c. Excessive bilirubin in the urine d. Decreased urine output
d. Decreased urine output
41. An increased packed cell volume (PCV) could be indicative of: a. Liver disease b. Anemia c. Leukocytosis d. Dehydration
d. Dehydration
387. The parasite also known as a winter tick is: a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus b. Ixodes dammini c. Dermacentor variabilis d. Dermacentor albipictus
d. Dermacentor albipictus
21. Griseofulvin acts on: a. Gram-positive bacteria b. Gram-negative bacteria c. Gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria d. Dermatophytes
d. Dermatophytes
160. A glucose tolerance test is used to help diagnose: a. Cushing's disease b. Hypothyroidism c. Addison's disease d. Diabetes mellitus
d. Diabetes mellitus
39. Ketonuria is most commonly associated with what condition? a. Liver disease b. Urinary tract infection c. Renal failure d. Diabetes mellitus
d. Diabetes mellitus
163. The shaft of the bone is also called the: a. Trunk b. Epiphysis c. Periosteum d. Diaphysis
d. Diaphysis
20. Hypocalcemia in the sugar glider is primarily caused by an imbalance in which of the following? a. Blood calcium, vitamin A, and phosphorus b. Dietary calcium, vitamin B, and phosphorus c. Blood calcium, vitamin C, and phosphorus d. Dietary calcium, vitamin D, and phosphorus
d. Dietary calcium, vitamin D, and phosphorus
87. Common drugs of plant origin, such as digoxin and atropine, are ineffective in a cow when administered orally because of: a. Eructation b. The large size of the rumen c. Methane gas d. Digestive microorganisms
d. Digestive microorganisms
61. A pregnant rodent has what kind of placentation? a. Zonary b. Cotyledonary c. Diffuse d. Discoid
d. Discoid
250. Canine blood types are preceded by the letters "DEA." What do these letters stand for? a. Detectable Erythrocyte Antibody b. Detectable Erythrocyte Antigen c. Dog Erythrocyte Antibody d. Dog Erythrocyte Antigen
d. Dog Erythrocyte Antigen
230. Which of the following is the best view for assessing the distal radial growth plate for closure in horses? a. Lateral view b. Flexed lateral view c. Medial oblique d. Dorsopalmar view
d. Dorsopalmar view
237. What drug is a respiratory stimulant? a. Oxytocin b. Dobutamine c. Propranolol d. Doxapram
d. Doxapram
48. Puppies born via cesarean section that are not breathing well may benefit from _____ drops administered sublingually. a. Diazepam b. Digitalis c. Dobutamine d. Doxapram
d. Doxapram
50. Which is the correct method to use when performing a serum bile acids assay? a. Draw a blood sample on a fasting animal b. Draw a blood sample on an animal immediately after it eats a meal c. Draw a blood sample on a fasting animal and another sample 2 hours later d. Draw a blood sample on a fasting animal, feed the animal, and draw another sample 2 hours later
d. Draw a blood sample on a fasting animal, feed the animal, and draw another sample 2 hours later
39. A female tortoise presents to the clinic with the following clinical signs: straining, lethargy, anorexia, and bloody discharge from the cloaca. What is the most common cause of this presentation? a. GI foreign body b. Internal parasites c. Hypervitaminosis A d. Dystocia
d. Dystocia
423. The best urine sample from a housebroken dog is collected in: a. Late evening b. Afternoon c. Midmorning d. Early morning
d. Early morning
9. Which of the following tools is the most useful option to help diagnose syncope in a rabbit? a. Thoracic radiographs b. Echocardiogram c. Computed tomography of the thorax d. Electrocardiogram
d. Electrocardiogram
70. Which of the following drugs is least likely to kill the normal flora in the gut of a rabbit, thus avoiding severe diarrhea? a. Clavamox b. Clindamycin c. Cefotaxime d. Enrofloxacin
d. Enrofloxacin
399. All of the following are a type of white blood cell, except: a. Neutrophil b. Reticulocyte c. Lymphocyte d. Eosinophil
d. Eosinophil
348. The secreting units of sweat glands, salivary glands, and mammary glands are all composed of what type of cellular tissue? a. Connective tissue b. Muscle tissue c. Nervous tissue d. Epithelial tissue
d. Epithelial tissue
571. In female birds during the breeding season, how often is one ovum released until the clutch is complete? a. Every 2 hours b. Every 6 hours c. Every 12 hours d. Every 24 hours
d. Every 24 hours
343. After surgery has begun, how often should antibiotics be administered? a. Every 15-30 minutes b. Every 30-60 minutes c. Every 60-90 minutes d. Every 90-120 minutes
d. Every 90-120 minutes
564. Which artery is distal to the femoral artery in birds? a. Coeliac b. Renal c. Pectoral d. External iliac
d. External iliac
208. Which structure will not allow blood vessels and nerves to pass through? a. Meatus b. Sinus c. Foramen d. Facet
d. Facet
401. The parasite that infects the liver of its host is: a. Diphyllobothrium species b. Hymenolepis species c. Paragonimus species d. Fasciola species
d. Fasciola species
174. In what species are the platelets normally larger than the red blood cells? a. Bovine b. Canine c. Equine d. Feline
d. Feline
24. What species is an induced ovulator? a. Bovine b. Equine c. Canine d. Feline
d. Feline
114. All of the following major vessels contribute to blood flowing into the cranial vena cava except for the: a. Brachiocephalic vein b. Thoracic duct c. Azygos vein d. Femoral vein
d. Femoral vein
117. You have been asked to place an intraosseous catheter in a very critical ferret. Which bone is most commonly used? a. Radius b. Ulna c. Fibula d. Femur
d. Femur
52. Which of the following bones is pneumatic in the avian patient? a. Ulna b. Radius c. Tibiotarsus d. Femur
d. Femur
179. Which of the following drugs provides analgesic relief to a patient who undergoes a painful procedure? a. Acepromazine b. Diazepam c. Thiopental d. Fentanyl
d. Fentanyl
75. Determination of which of the following is useful in the detection of inflammatory processes? a. Total protein b. Hematocrit c. RBC morphology d. Fibrinogen
d. Fibrinogen
228. Paragonimus kellicotti is a: a. Tapeworm b. Tick c. Mite d. Fluke
d. Fluke
2. Which of the following diagnostic tools is best used to evaluate real-time GI motility in the ferret? a. Magnetic resonance imaging b. Computed tomography c. Radiography d. Fluoroscopy
d. Fluoroscopy
159. What causes grid lines on the entire film? a. Patient motion b. Poor film-screen contact c. Grid not being centered with the primary beam d. Focal-film distance not being in the range of the grid's focus
d. Focal-film distance not being in the range of the grid's focus
275. Which hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland? a. Melanocyte-stimulating hormone b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone c. Prolactin d. Follicle-stimulating hormone
d. Follicle-stimulating hormone
319. What can be done to decrease the risk of esophageal lesions in cats secondary to oral medications? a. Do not give oral medications b. Crush the medications c. Advise the owner to bring in the cat for medicating d. Follow the medication with water
d. Follow the medication with water
219. The name of the hole between the cardiac atria that closes at birth in the mammal is: a. Aortic hiatus b. Foramen c. Fossa d. Foramen ovale
d. Foramen ovale
172. Which of the following is considered a part of the external structure of the equine hoof? a. Digital cushion b. Corium c. Lateral cartilage d. Frog
d. Frog
233. Ketoconazole, miconazole, and griseofulvin are effective against: a. Viruses b. Flukes c. Intestinal nematodes d. Fungi
d. Fungi
78. The diuretic drug used most commonly in patients with congestive heart failure is: a. Mannitol b. Spironolactone c. Chlorothiazide d. Furosemide
d. Furosemide
31. What blood chemistry test should be used to measure cholangiocyte damage? a. ALKP b. AST c. ALT d. GGT
d. GGT
480. During which gait are there never more than two legs on the ground at the same time? a. Canter b. Trot c. Walk d. Gallop
d. Gallop
259. The adult form of the parasite ________ is a fly, and the larval stage is an endoparasite. a. Otobius b. Capillaria c. Thelazia d. Gasterophilus
d. Gasterophilus
186. The large muscle of the caudal aspect of the canine lower hind leg is the: a. Tibialis anterior b. Gracilis c. Semimembranosus d. Gastrocnemius
d. Gastrocnemius
98. Most gas exchange in fish takes place in which of the following? a. Operculum b. Lungs c. Bronchi d. Gills
d. Gills
107. Stress and epinephrine release in cats might cause an increase in: a. BUN b. Total protein c. ALT d. Glucose
d. Glucose
408. Which of the following drugs minimally crosses the placental barrier and is safe to use in pregnant dogs? a. Acepromazine b. Atropine c. Fentanyl d. Glycopyrrolate
d. Glycopyrrolate
4. Which grade level on the ossification index for newborn foals does a closed metacarpal and metatarsal physes describe? a. Grade 1 b. Grade 2 c. Grade 3 d. Grade 4
d. Grade 4
376. Which of the following is not a simple stain? a. Methylene blue b. Crystal violet c. Safranin d. Gram stain
d. Gram stain
511. What is the normal pH of equine urine? a. Less than 3 pH b. 3- 6 pH c. 7- 8 pH d. Greater than 9 pH
d. Greater than 9 pH
6. Ferrets with vestibular signs demonstrate all of the following except: a. Ataxia b. Circling c. Left- or right-sided head tilt d. Head pressing
d. Head pressing
1. Where are striated muscles located? a. Stomach wall and uterus b. Urinary bladder and intestine c. Ciliary body of the eye d. Heart and skeletal muscles
d. Heart and skeletal muscles
302. Certain oxidant drugs can denature hemoglobin and cause the production of round structures in erythrocytes that are called: a. Howell-Jolly bodies b. Russell bodies c. Döhle bodies d. Heinz bodies
d. Heinz bodies
279. What part of the CBC is the most accurate procedure? a. Erythrocyte count b. Hemoglobin determination c. Leukocyte count d. Hematocrit
d. Hematocrit
67. Which of the following in not considered a potential complication of intraosseous catheterization? a. Difficulty maintaining patency b. Bone infection c. Pain d. Hematoma formation
d. Hematoma formation
96. Which of these would not be associated with ketones in the urine? a. Diabetes mellitus b. Lactating cows c. Starvation d. Hemolysis
d. Hemolysis
187. Which parasite causes blood loss, especially in young animals? a. Roundworm b. Tapeworm c. Heartworm d. Hookworm
d. Hookworm
66. Which of the following bones are considered pneumatic in most avian species? a. Humerus and ulna b. Femur and tibiotarsus c. Tibiotarsus and tarsometatarsus d. Humerus and femur
d. Humerus and femur
487. Which of the following structures suspends the larynx from the skull? a. Epiglottis b. Arytenoid cartilages c. Laryngopharynx d. Hyoid apparatus
d. Hyoid apparatus
171. Glucocorticoids are often used to treat all of the following conditions, except: a. Autoimmune skin disease b. Asthma c. Lymphocytic neoplasia d. Hyperadrenocorticism
d. Hyperadrenocorticism
216. Hyperkalemia is commonly associated with which endocrine disorder? a. Diabetes insipidus b. Hyperthyroidism c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Hypoadrenocorticism
d. Hypoadrenocorticism
50. Nociceptors are important for detecting: a. Color b. Warmth c. Lactic acid d. Pain
d. Pain
246. In what organ are the islets of Langerhans found? a. Spleen b. Kidneys c. Liver d. Pancreas
d. Pancreas
250. Some drugs commonly used to treat veterinary patients with cardiovascular disease alter the electrolyte levels (Na+, K+, Cl−) within the body. Which electrolyte change greatly enhances the risk of digoxin toxicity? a. Hypernatremia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hypochloremia d. Hypokalemia
d. Hypokalemia
80. The most common side effect of drugs that cause vasodilation is: a. Anorexia, vomiting, and diarrhea b. Cardiac arrhythmias c. Bradycardia d. Hypotension
d. Hypotension
320. Lidocaine is in which cardiac drug class? a. IA b. II c. IV d. IB
d. IB
15. What immunoglobulin is usually present in the greatest quantity? a. IgA b. IgD c. IgE d. IgG
d. IgG
502. Where does digestion and absorption of food take place within the horse? a. Duodenum b. Jejunum c. Ileum d. Ileocecal junction
d. Ileocecal junction
318. Which of the following is not a malfunction of the immune system? a. Allergy b. Immunodeficiency c. Autoimmune disease d. Immunity by vaccination
d. Immunity by vaccination
77. Which of the following locations is best for storing a dosimeter badge? a. In the x-ray room b. At home with the employee c. In a box on a window sill to receive natural light d. In a dry, cool place away from the x-ray room
d. In a dry, cool place away from the x-ray room
551. Where is the columella bone located? a. Caudal to the clavicle b. Proximal to the ulna c. Cranial to the sternum d. In the ear
d. In the ear
404. Which of the following are the most rostral teeth in the mouth of small animals? a. Canines b. Premolars c. Molars d. Incisors
d. Incisors
47. Which of the following processes is not a function of insulin? a. Increased glucose transport into muscle b. Lipogenesis c. Fatty acid synthesis d. Increased blood pressure
d. Increased blood pressure
306. What effect does renal failure or compromised liver function have on the pharmacokinetics of many drugs? a. Decreased absorption of drugs given orally b. Increased elimination rate of drugs from the body c. Decreased volume of distribution of drugs d. Increased half-life of drugs
d. Increased half-life of drugs
32. A risk to veterinary technicians who administer prostaglandins is: a. Acne b. Liver failure c. Kidney damage d. Inducing an asthma attack
d. Inducing an asthma attack
368. A dog becomes infected with Dipylidium caninum by ingestion of: a. Saliva from an infected dog b. Feces from an infected dog c. Tissues of an infected rabbit d. Infected fleas
d. Infected fleas
185. Which of the following is not a form of barium sulfate that can be administered to patients? a. Powder b. Colloid suspension c. Pastes d. Injectable
d. Injectable
202. Aminoglycosides, if given at high dosages or by continuous IV infusion, cause damage to the: a. Lungs and liver b. Liver and inner ear c. Kidney and liver d. Inner ear and kidney
d. Inner ear and kidney
198. It is essential for veterinary technicians to educate clients expecting to treat their pets with insulin. Which of the following statements is true? a. Insulin can be stored at room temperature between uses b. The bottle of insulin should be shaken before use c. The injection is given in the same site each time d. Insulin should be given with a meal
d. Insulin should be given with a meal
327. Vaccines may be administered by any of the following routes, except: a. Subcutaneously b. Intramuscularly c. Intranasally d. Intraperitoneally
d. Intraperitoneally
49. Parenteral administration of phenylbutazone should be only via: a. Subcutaneous injection b. Intramuscular injection c. Intradermal injection d. Intravenous injection
d. Intravenous injection
59. A drug given by which of the following routes reaches its peak plasma concentration the fastest? a. Orally b. Intramuscularly c. Subcutaneously d. Intravenously
d. Intravenously
27. Which of the following statements is true when considering the use of propofol? a. It is a potent analgesic b. It can be given via the IM and IV routes c. It is best administered as a single bolus d. It can be given in incremental doses
d. It can be given in incremental doses
314. Which statement concerning passive immunity is least accurate? a. It involves antibodies that have been produced in a donor animal b. It provides immediate but short-lived immunity c. It may be natural or artificial d. It develops after exposure to a pathogen
d. It develops after exposure to a pathogen
32. A snake presents to the clinic for anorexia, striking at the owner, hissing, and a blue-opaque coloring to the eyes and skin. What is likely occurring in this snake? a. Contact dermatitis b. Fungal dermatoses c. Paramyxovirus d. It is about to shed its skin
d. It is about to shed its skin
375. What characteristic is unique to Mycobacterium? a. It is a spore former b. It is anaerobic c. It is easily killed by antibiotics d. It survives phagocytosis
d. It survives phagocytosis
251. What drug would be most effective against dermatophytes? a. Tylosin b. Enrofloxacin c. Sulfadimethoxine d. Itraconazole
d. Itraconazole
184. Which of the following drugs does not have an immunosuppressive effect? a. Cyclosporine b. Azathioprine c. Prednisone d. Ivermectin
d. Ivermectin
308. Drugs that are administered intra-articularly are injected into the: a. Bone marrow b. Subdural space c. Heart d. Joint
d. Joint
22. Which of the following vessels is primarily used for blood collection in the African hedgehog? a. Lateral saphenous b. Cephalic c. Femoral d. Jugular
d. Jugular
46. Which of the following vessels is most commonly used for blood collection in the chinchilla? a. Cephalic b. Lateral saphenous c. Auricular d. Jugular
d. Jugular
307. The first line of defense that the body has against foreign invaders is the: a. Hair b. Neutrophils c. Primary lymphoid tissue d. Skin
d. Skin
84. You have been asked to obtain a complete blood count and chemistry panel for a pet hedgehog. What vessels are most commonly used? a. Lateral saphenous and jugular b. Cephalic and cranial vena cava c. Femoral and medial saphenous d. Jugular and cranial vena cava
d. Jugular and cranial vena cava
42. You have been asked to obtain a blood sample for a CBC and chemistry panel from a 100-g cockatiel. Which of the following vessels is most commonly used in this species? a. Medial metatarsal vein b. Cutaneous ulnar vein c. Cephalic vein d. Jugular vein
d. Jugular vein
35. The bones of the tortoise shell are covered with structures called scutes. What are scutes made of? a. Bone b. Epidermis c. Dermis d. Keratin
d. Keratin
347. Which drug listed belongs in the drug class imidazole? a. Amoxicillin b. Cephalexin c. Enrofloxacin d. Ketoconazole
d. Ketoconazole
108. Which of the following PPE must the handler wear when a patient is considered radioactive? a. Lab coat only b. Lab coat and gloves c. Lab coat, gloves, and disposable boots d. Lab coat, gloves, disposable boots, and a dosimeter badge
d. Lab coat, gloves, disposable boots, and a dosimeter badge
373. What organism is a spirochete? a. Corynebacterium pyogenes b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Leptospira grippotyphosa
d. Leptospira grippotyphosa
192. A cat diagnosed with hyperthyroidism may be offered a number of treatment options, including all of the following, except: a. Radioactive iodine-131 treatment b. Methimazole medical management c. Thyroidectomy surgery d. Levothyroxine
d. Levothyroxine
184. Which organ is the largest abdominal organ in the body? a. Stomach b. Pancreas c. Kidney d. Liver
d. Liver
256. Blood chemistry assays, including dye excretion, ammonia tolerance, and bile acid concentrations, are used to evaluate the function of the: a. Pancreas b. Kidneys c. Heart d. Liver
d. Liver
651. Glucose that is not immediately used by cells is converted to glycogen and is stored in which organ? a. Gallbladder b. Pancreas c. Spleen d. Liver
d. Liver
198. The cardiovascular system has four components. Which of the following is not part of the system? a. Heart b. Blood circulation c. Blood vessels d. Lungs
d. Lungs
157. The main function of bicarbonate is to: a. Maintain the proper osmotic pressure of fluids in the body b. Maintain normal muscular function c. Maintain normal cardiac rhythm and contractility d. Maintain balanced body pH levels
d. Maintain balanced body pH levels
103. What microorganism is frequently recovered from the ears of dogs with chronic otitis externa? a. Candida sp. b. Cryptococcus sp. c. Microsporum sp. d. Malassezia sp.
d. Malassezia sp.
196. Which sinus is not considered to be a "true" sinus of the dog? a. Frontal sinus b. External nares c. Paranasal sinuses d. Maxillary sinus
d. Maxillary sinus
33. Loop diuretics such as furosemide: a. Cause dehydration in normal animals b. Cannot be used simultaneously with ACE inhibitors c. Are unsafe for use in animals with pulmonary edema d. May cause hypokalemia with chronic use
d. May cause hypokalemia with chronic use
30. To obtain a lateromedial view of the femorotibial joint of the horse, the cassette should be placed against which surface? a. Cranial aspect b. Caudal aspect c. Lateral aspect d. Medial aspect
d. Medial aspect
158. Basic functions of bones include all of the following except: a. Protection b. Storage c. Leverage d. Metabolism
d. Metabolism
441. The carpus of the horse is located proximal to which of the following bones? a. Humerus b. Radius c. Ulna d. Metacarpus
d. Metacarpus
414. The parasite also known as a lungworm is of the: a. Alaria species b. Fascioloides species c. Stephanurus species d. Metastrongylus species
d. Metastrongylus species
342. Reglan is the trade name for: a. Metronidazole b. Dolasetron c. Maropitant d. Metoclopramide
d. Metoclopramide
403. The doctor would like to start a patient on a drug that increases gastrointestinal motility. He would like to be able to add it to the intravenous fluids and also to send the dog home with an oral dose on discharge. Which drug fulfills these criteria? a. Diphenhydramine b. Dolasetron c. Maropitant d. Metoclopramide
d. Metoclopramide
329. Which of the following is associated with central nervous signs if it is overdosed? a. Carprofen b. Chloramphenicol c. Furosemide d. Metronidazole
d. Metronidazole
291. An MCV value below the normal reference range suggests: a. Hyperchromasia b. Hypochromasia c. Macrocytosis d. Microcytosis
d. Microcytosis
378. Which of the following is a benzodiazepine tranquilizer? a. Fentanyl b. Ketamine c. Medetomidine d. Midazolam
d. Midazolam
129. When collecting blood for a coagulation profile, it is especially important to: a. Use a gray-top Vacutainer b. Analyze the sample immediately c. Use EDTA as the anticoagulant d. Minimize vascular trauma during venipuncture
d. Minimize vascular trauma during venipuncture
398. What parasite ova have three pairs of hooklets? a. Trichuris species b. Taenia species c. Alaria species d. Moniezia species
d. Moniezia species
216. What can a technician do to recognize early signs of nephrotoxicity in an animal that receives aminoglycosides? a. Monitor blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels b. Monitor the CBC and total protein level c. Monitor feces for change in consistency d. Monitor urine for casts and protein
d. Monitor urine for casts and protein
439. Which of the following will have the longest duration of action when used as an epidural? a. Bupivacaine b. Butorphanol c. Ketamine d. Morphine
d. Morphine
342. Acid-fast stains are used to identify: a. Coccidia b. Yeast c. Fungi d. Mycobacteria
d. Mycobacteria
155. The thorax is normally under: a. Partial pressure b. Positive pressure c. Equilibrium d. Negative pressure
d. Negative pressure
10. The most common adverse side effect(s) of aminoglycoside antimicrobials are: a. Nephrotoxicity b. Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity c. Ototoxicity and neurotoxicity d. Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and neurotoxicity
d. Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and neurotoxicity
161. Which white blood cell is known as "the first line of defense" after a microorganism has entered the body? a. Eosinophil b. Lymphocyte c. Monocyte d. Neutrophil
d. Neutrophil
66. When considering hematology tests, clots in an EDTA sample are: a. Acceptable if they are microscopic b. Acceptable if they are detected on a wooden stick only c. Acceptable if they are run through an automatic analyzer d. Never acceptable
d. Never acceptable
549. Which type of vision do photoreceptor cells, known as rods, provide in birds? a. Color vision b. Monocular vision c. Binocular vision d. Night vision
d. Night vision
352. Which of the following elements is the component of all proteins and nucleic acids? a. Hydrogen b. Oxygen c. Calcium d. Nitrogen
d. Nitrogen
219. What cat blood type is considered the universal donor? a. A b. O c. AB d. None exists in the cat
d. None exists in the cat
550. Which avian species contain ear pinnae? a. Eagle b. Parakeet c. Parrot d. None, there are no external ear pinnae in any avian species
d. None, there are no external ear pinnae in any avian species
596. How many canine teeth does the rabbit have? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. None, they do not contain canine teeth
d. None, they do not contain canine teeth
3. The generic name for a drug is also called the: a. Trade name b. Chemical name c. Proprietary name d. Nonproprietary name
d. Nonproprietary name
156. Nutraceuticals is a category of drugs that includes which of the following characteristics? a. Genetically derived materials that enhance immune function b. Drugs that are derived from humans for use in animals c. Drugs that are undergoing clinical trials before FDA approval d. Nontoxic food components that have proven health benefits
d. Nontoxic food components that have proven health benefits
287. The following information was provided for a prescription written by a veterinarian: "Dr. Pete Bill, Veterinary Associates, Inc., 325 Sentry Highway, West Lafayette, IN 47907. Indiana License Number #4xxx. (317) 555-8636. For: Mr. R. K. Jones, 111, Melrose Place, Loomisville, IN 47905. Canine patient Ruby, Amoxicillin 100 mg tablets, Sig: 1 tab q8h po prn 2 refills. Date: 1/5/16. Signature: Pete Bill." What vital information is missing from this prescription? a. Veterinarian's Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) license number b. Pet's name c. Owner's telephone number d. Number of tablets
d. Number of tablets
189. For a dorsolateral-plantaromedial oblique view of the tarsal joint of a horse, the cassette should be placed in which position? a. On the lateral surface b. On the medial surface c. On the plantar surface d. On the plantaromedial surface
d. On the plantaromedial surface
4. You are asked to administer a drug that is supplied as an enteric-coated tablet at 100 mg, 50 mg, and 25 mg; you require 25 mg but have available 50-mg tablets only. You should: a. Use a pill splitter to divide the 100-mg tablet into quarters to have the smallest piece. b. Use a pill splitter to divide the 50-mg tablet into halves to have the most accurate dose. c. Administer the 50-mg tablet but then skip the next scheduled dosing. d. Order or purchase 25-mg tablets for the dosing schedule.
d. Order or purchase 25-mg tablets for the dosing schedule.
42. What is not a short-term effect of corticosteroid therapy? a. Polyuria b. Polyphagia c. Delayed healing d. Osteoporosis
d. Osteoporosis
390. The parasite that lives in ears is: a. Sarcoptes species b. Demodex species c. Chorioptes species d. Otodectes species
d. Otodectes species
99. The surgeon has completed Buffy's surgical procedure and asks you to discontinue the inhalant anesthesia. What is absolutely necessary to do when terminating anesthesia in a patient that has been receiving nitrous oxide? a. Give an injection of the reversal agent b. Observe carefully for signs of seizures c. Allow the patient to recuperate in a quiet, dark area d. Oxygenate for 5 to 10 minutes
d. Oxygenate for 5 to 10 minutes
357. Which of the following products will provide oxygen-carrying capacity? a. Cryoprecipitate b. Fresh frozen plasma c. Frozen plasma d. Oxyglobin
d. Oxyglobin
190. What drug will not cause nephrotoxicity? a. Aminoglycosides b. Banamine c. Cisplatin d. Oxymorphone
d. Oxymorphone
58. In dairy cattle, the teats and udder are gently washed before milking to stimulate the release of one of the following, to stimulate milk letdown: a. Adrenalin b. Norepinephrine c. Dopamine d. Oxytocin
d. Oxytocin
5. What hormone contracts the female reproductive tract to help move spermatozoa into the oviducts? a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Prolactin d. Oxytocin.
d. Oxytocin.
10. The wave on an electrocardiogram that is associated with the atrial wall depolarization is the: a. PR interval b. T wave c. QRS complex d. P wave
d. P wave
151. Duragesic (Fentanyl) transdermal patches are used most commonly in veterinary medicine to control: a. Diarrhea b. Vomiting c. Seizures d. Pain
d. Pain
106. Which of the following anatomical structures is located on the dorsal portion of the head and acts as a photoreceptor, helping to regulate hormone production and thermoregulatory behavior in the lizard species? a. Thyroid gland b. Jacobson's organ c. Spectacle d. Parietal eye
d. Parietal eye
181. Which of the following terms refers to an infestation with lice? a. Myiasis b. Acariasis c. Paraphimosis d. Pediculosis
d. Pediculosis
123. What is the most common site of feed impactions in the horse? a. Sternal flexure b. Diaphragmatic flexure c. Stomach d. Pelvic flexure
d. Pelvic flexure
476. The _____________ forms the outer layer to protect the hoof and maintain moisture levels. a. Hoof b. Sole c. Frog d. Periople
d. Periople
100. The fibrous covering around the part of the bone NOT covered by articular cartilage is: a. Endosteum b. Ligament c. Tendon d. Periosteum
d. Periosteum
488. Which of the following is NOT part of the lower respiratory tract? a. Trachea b. Bronchi c. Lungs d. Pharynx
d. Pharynx
399. Which of the following drugs is most likely to require therapeutic drug monitoring? a. Enrofloxacin b. Metoclopramide c. Metronidazole d. Phenobarbital
d. Phenobarbital
122. Amphojel and Basaljel are drugs in the general category of: a. Potassium supplements b. Antihypertensives c. Urinary acidifiers d. Phosphate binders
d. Phosphate binders
200. Which animal does not have an os penis? a. Dog b. Cat c. Wolf d. Pig
d. Pig
131. Suitable bedding for the chinchilla includes all of the following except: a. Newspaper b. Recycled newspaper products c. Aspen shavings d. Pine shavings
d. Pine shavings
135. The endocrine structure responsible for secreting melatonin is: a. Pituitary gland b. Spleen c. Thymus d. Pineal gland
d. Pineal gland
267. During pregnancy, what provides the life-support system for the developing fetus? a. Ovum b. Uterus c. Amnion d. Placenta
d. Placenta
525. Many of the larger bones of the bird are filled with air that is contained in membranous sacs that connect with the respiratory system and are referred to as which type of bones? a. Compact b. Irregular c. Long d. Pneumatic
d. Pneumatic
281. What would you expect to see on a Diff-Quik stained blood smear from an animal with regenerative anemia? a. Schistocytosis b. Reticulocytosis c. Eosinophilia d. Polychromasia
d. Polychromasia
371. In most areas of the world, rats are the reservoir host of the plague organism. However, in the Western United States, the most common species harboring this organism is: a. Dogs b. Cats c. Beavers d. Prairie dogs
d. Prairie dogs
45. Urinary pH is not affected by the: a. Patient's diet b. Presence of bacteria in the urine c. Patient's acid-base status d. Presence of crystals in the urine
d. Presence of crystals in the urine
406. A drug that requires biotransformation before it becomes active is called a: a. Pretransformed drug b. Nonactive drug c. Predrug d. Prodrug
d. Prodrug
129. The hormone responsible for maintaining pregnancy is: a. Oxytocin b. Luteinizing hormone c. Estrogen d. Progesterone
d. Progesterone
269. What hormone is given to mares or cows for several days to mimic diestrus and then withdrawn to mimic natural lysis of the corpus luteum and a return to proestrus? a. Estradiol cypionate b. Prostaglandin F2 alpha c. Human chorionic gonadotropin d. Progestin
d. Progestin
276. Which hormone is responsible for triggering and maintaining lactation? a. Follicle-stimulating hormone b. Luteinizing hormone c. Mineralocorticoid hormone d. Prolactin hormone
d. Prolactin hormone
424. Which of the following is NOT considered a part of the special senses? a. Taste b. Hearing c. Equilibrium d. Proprioception
d. Proprioception
134. Kaolin, pectin, and bismuth subsalicylate are examples of: a. Narcotic analgesics b. Antispasmodics c. Anticholinergics d. Protectants
d. Protectants
205. What substance increases in the urine during glomerular disease? a. Glucose b. Ketones c. Bilirubin d. Protein
d. Protein
229. Albumin is found in the blood and is a type of: a. Lipoprotein b. Phospholipid c. Enzyme d. Protein
d. Protein
183. The humeroradioulnar joint is located: a. Lateral to the carpus b. Distal to the left of the carpus c. Medial to the carpus d. Proximal to the carpus
d. Proximal to the carpus
182. The middle phalanx is located: a. Lateral to the distal phalanx b. Distal to the distal phalanx c. Medial to the distal phalanx d. Proximal to the distal phalanx
d. Proximal to the distal phalanx
142. Which of the following does not contribute to pododermatitis in the avian patient? a. Obesity b. Hypovitaminosis A c. Improper perch surfaces d. Psittacine beak and feather virus
d. Psittacine beak and feather virus
393. Which blood vessel carries CO2-rich blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs? a. Aorta b. Inferior vena cava c. Pulmonary vein d. Pulmonary artery
d. Pulmonary artery
125. The most distal portion of the monogastric stomach is the: a. Fundus b. Antrum c. Cardia d. Pylorus
d. Pylorus
245. What color is icteric plasma? a. Brown b. Red c. Green d. Yellow
d. Yellow
139. Which of the following species has a duplex uterus and two cervices? a. Ferret b. Guinea pig c. Rat d. Rabbit
d. Rabbit
369. The most common intermediate host of Taenia pisiformis is a: a. Ruminant b. Flea c. Fly d. Rabbit
d. Rabbit
532. The central shaft of a bird's feather is also referred to as: a. Dentary b. Talon c. Hallux d. Rachis
d. Rachis
561. The pudendal artery in birds is located near what other structure? a. Ulnar artery b. Pectoral artery c. Brachiocephalic artery d. Rectum
d. Rectum
56. Which of these tubes must never be placed on a blood rocker after being filled with blood? a. Blue top b. Green top c. Purple top d. Red top
d. Red top
164. Which of the following is the best method of preservation if you are unable to perform a CBC within 1 hour of blood collection? a. Freeze the sample b. Spin down the sample, refrigerate cells, and freeze serum c. Add formalin to the sample d. Refrigerate the sample
d. Refrigerate the sample
145. Azurophils are leukocytes that are only found in what group of animals? a. Amphibians b. Mammals c. Birds d. Reptiles
d. Reptiles
38. Which of the following tests is not included in a routine CBC? a. Total WBC count b. Differential WBC count c. Total protein d. Reticulocyte count
d. Reticulocyte count
431. Where are visual images formed within the eye? a. Lens b. Cornea c. Vitreous humor d. Retina
d. Retina
116. If there is only a small amount of serum separated after centrifuging a tube of whole blood (and you need more for testing), what should you do? a. Invert the tube several times and respin it b. Assume the patient is dehydrated and draw off all of the serum you can c. Spin the tube again at a faster speed and a longer time d. Rim/ring the clot and spin again at a normal speed and time
d. Rim/ring the clot and spin again at a normal speed and time
326. Carprofen is the active ingredient in: a. Deramaxx b. Previcox c. Metacam d. Rimadyl
d. Rimadyl
101. Gram-negative bacteria retain what component of the Gram stain? a. Crystal violet b. Iodine solution c. Decolorizer d. Safranin
d. Safranin
206. All of the following statements are true, except: a. Only personnel necessary to complete the procedure should be in the x-ray room at the time of exposure b. Persons younger than 18 years and pregnant women must not be in the x-ray room during the examination c. Personnel who assist with radiographic examinations should have a rotating duty roster to minimize exposure to any one person d. Sandbags, sponges, tape, or other restraining devices should not be used for positioning the patient rather than manual restraint
d. Sandbags, sponges, tape, or other restraining devices should not be used for positioning the patient rather than manual restraint
408. Scabies is caused by: a. Trombicula species b. Otodectes species c. Melophagus species d. Sarcoptes species
d. Sarcoptes species
146. Clinical signs of dystocia in the chelonian include all of the following except: a. Anorexia b. Lethargy c. Straining d. Seizures
d. Seizures
123. A heartworm preventative that is also approved for the treatment of ear mites and sarcoptic mange is: a. Diethylcarbamazine b. Milbemycin c. Ivermectin d. Selamectin
d. Selamectin
213. The valves that prevent backflow of blood from the arteries to the ventricles are called the: a. Tricuspid b. Bicuspid c. Mitral d. Semilunar
d. Semilunar
468. Which of the following muscles insert at the distal femur and tibia of the horse? a. Gastrocnemius b. Semitendinosus c. Biceps femoris d. Semimembranosus
d. Semimembranosus
258. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of using the PCR testing in equine medicine? a. False positive reactions b. Lack of viable virus isolates c. Inability to detect new viruses d. Sensitivity of the test
d. Sensitivity of the test
113. Cloacal prolapse in the lizard is caused by all of the following except: a. Egg laying b. Foreign-body impaction c. Straining to defecate d. Septicemia
d. Septicemia
374. Ondansetron is an antiemetic that belongs in which drug class? a. Anticholinergic b. Barbiturate c. Phenothiazine d. Serotonin antagonist
d. Serotonin antagonist
86. Serology tests can detect heartworms in a dog's blood: a. Immediately after becoming infected b. Several days after becoming infected c. Several weeks after becoming infected d. Several months after becoming infected
d. Several months after becoming infected
207. Which type of adverse reaction is most commonly observed when penicillins are administered to rabbits? a. Kidney damage and subsequent change in urine production b. Hives and swelling of the face from allergic reaction c. High fever and severe depression d. Severe diarrhea
d. Severe diarrhea
489. Which animal has a cotyledonary placenta? a. Cat b. Dog c. Horse d. Sheep
d. Sheep
98. The appearance of calcium oxalate crystals are described as: a. Hexagonal b. Dark, needlelike rods c. Brown spheres with long spicules d. Small squares that contain an X
d. Small squares that contain an X
20. What happens within the neuron that allows local anesthetics to be effective? a. Potassium gates open b. The charge within the cell becomes positive c. The charge within the cell becomes negative d. Sodium channels become blocked
d. Sodium channels become blocked
415. An oral antiarrhythmic that includes an action similar to injectable propranolol is: a. Hydralazine b. Pimobendan c. Prazosin d. Sotalol
d. Sotalol
624. All of the following are face bones in small animals, except: a. Zygomatic bones b. Pterygoid bones c. Vomer bone d. Sphenoid bone
d. Sphenoid bone
54. All of the following organs may facilitate the elimination of drugs except the: a. Kidneys b. Liver c. Lungs d. Spleen
d. Spleen
688. Which is the largest lymphoid organ? a. Liver b. Cisterna chyli c. Lymph node d. Spleen
d. Spleen
17. Acepromazine must be used with caution or not at all in: a. Bitches b. Tomcats c. Heifers d. Stallions
d. Stallions
106. What is a common pathogen in mastitis, skin wounds, and abscesses, which is also found in the environment? a. Proteus vulgaris b. Escherichia coli c. Streptococcus spp. d. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Staphylococcus aureus
357. What organism will most likely grow on mannitol salt agar? a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Bacillus subtilis c. Clostridium perfringens d. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Staphylococcus aureus
2. To obtain a radiographic image of both temporomandibular joints of a small animal, which of the following is the best position? a. Dorsal recumbency b. Ventral recumbency c. Right lateral recumbency d. Sternal recumbency
d. Sternal recumbency
169. The breastbone is the: a. Hyoid b. Septum c. Tubercle d. Sternum
d. Sternum
463. Where is the point of origin of the pectoral muscle of horses? a. Scapula b. Pelvis c. Thoracic vertebrae d. Sternum
d. Sternum
382. All of the following are characteristics of structural proteins, except: a. Stability b. Water-insoluble proteins c. Rigidity d. Steroid properties
d. Steroid properties
309. Extravasation of a chemotherapeutic agent should first be treated by: a. Applying a tourniquet to prevent movement of the drug up the leg b. Infiltrating the area with sterile saline or another sterile isotonic fluid c. Withdrawing as much drug as possible from the intravenous catheter d. Stopping the injection
d. Stopping the injection
371. What is the primary function of triglycerides? .a. Act as backbone of DNA and RNA b. Regulate chemical reactions, enzymes c. Synthesize hormones d. Store energy
d. Store energy
350. What is the correct way to write the genus and species of bacteria? a. Streptococcus Pyogenes b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. S. pyogenes d. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Streptococcus pyogenes
396. Infection of this parasite is via skin penetration. a. Trichuris vulpis b. Taenia pisiformis c. Dipylidium caninum d. Strongyloides stercoralis
d. Strongyloides stercoralis
449. Midazolam can be administered to rabbits in all of the following methods, except: a. Intraperitoneal b. Intramuscular c. Intravenous d. Subcutaneous
d. Subcutaneous
77. Which of the following species is considered arboreal? a. Chinchilla b. Prairie dog c. Guinea pig d. Sugar glider
d. Sugar glider
78. Which of the following mammals has a cloaca where the gastrointestinal, urinary, and reproductive tract empty? a. Chinchilla b. Prairie dog c. Guinea pig d. Sugar glider
d. Sugar glider
60. Which of these drugs is not an antifungal drug? a. Fluconazole b. Clotrimazole c. Ketoconazole d. Sulfadimethoxine
d. Sulfadimethoxine
465. The point of origin of which muscle of the horse is at the tuber coxae of the pelvis? a. Gastrocnemius b. Infraspinatus c. Latissimus dorsi d. Superficial gluteals
d. Superficial gluteals
385. A solution that contains so much solute that it cannot be dissolved is known as: a. Concentrated b. Dilute c. Saturated d. Supersaturated
d. Supersaturated
299. What dosage form must be shaken before administration to an animal? a. Solution b. Ointment c. Gel d. Suspension
d. Suspension
277. Waste excretion is a requirement for maintaining homeostasis and can be achieved through which route of excretion? a. Urinary system b. Respiratory system c. Digestive system d. Sweat glands
d. Sweat glands
365. What type of fluid is Hetastarch considered? a. Blood product b. Crystalloid c. Natural colloid d. Synthetic colloid
d. Synthetic colloid
33. A test that can be performed to help diagnose hyperthyroidism is: a. LH b. Cortisol c. Bile acids d. T4
d. T4
444. At what level of vertebrae are the withers of a horse located? a. C1 b. C2 c. C3- C7 d. T4- T9
d. T4- T9
615. The coccygeal vertebra of the ferret is located in which part of the body? a. Neck b. Thorax c. Pelvis d. Tail
d. Tail
418. Feline asthma can be treated with: a. Amphotericin B b. Digoxin c. Hydralazine d. Terbutaline
d. Terbutaline
66. Which of the following statements about tetracyclines is true? a. Tetracyclines are bacteriocidal. b. Oral absorption of tetracyclines is increased in the presence of food. c. Tetracyclines are potentially nephrotoxic and ototoxic. d. Tetracyclines may lead to bone or teeth problems if given to young animals.
d. Tetracyclines may lead to bone or teeth problems if given to young animals.
246. When using a V-trough to aid in obtaining a radiograph, what needs to be measured before taking the x-ray? a. The thinnest portion of the body to be radiographed b. The thickest portion of the body to be radiographed c. The V-trough only d. The V-trough and the thickest portion of the body to be measured
d. The V-trough and the thickest portion of the body to be measured
171. When obtaining a radiograph of the thoracic vertebrae, what level should be measured for the kVp setting? a. The cranial end of the thoracic vertebrae b. The caudal end of the thoracic vertebrae c. The lowest point of the thorax d. The highest point of the thorax
d. The highest point of the thorax
181. The trunk of an animal is defined as: a. The front half of the animal b. The back half of the animal c. The thorax of the animal d. The thorax and abdomen of the animal
d. The thorax and abdomen of the animal
202. For standard radiographs of the tarsus of a horse, which of the following is the correct weight distribution? a. The affected limb should be suspended with no weight on it for the duration of the x-ray b. There should be 25% weight bearing on the affected limb c. There should be 50% weight bearing on the affected limb d. The weight should be evenly distributed on all four legs
d. The weight should be evenly distributed on all four legs
188. An asthmatic cat may receive which of the following drugs for its bronchodilatory effect? a. Histamine b. Digoxin c. Prednisone d. Theophylline
d. Theophylline
38. What is the ratio between the toxic dose and therapeutic dose of a drug used as a measure of the relative safety of the drug for a particular treatment? a. Toxic index b. LD50 c. ED50 d. Therapeutic index
d. Therapeutic index
245. Most drugs that control arrhythmias of the heart are said to be "negative inotropes." What does this mean? a. They increase the heart rate. b. They decrease the heart rate. c. They increase the force of contractions. d. They decrease the force of contractions.
d. They decrease the force of contractions.
126. Which statement about organophosphates is incorrect? a. They are neurotoxic b. They are used for control of endoparasites and ectoparasites c. They have a narrow margin of safety d. They have relatively few side effects
d. They have relatively few side effects
92. Which of the following statements about glucocorticoids is true? a. If adverse effects are seen after long-term administration, treatment should be discontinued immediately b. They are generally considered safer to use than NSAIDs c. They are a type of NSAID d. They may cause immune-system suppression
d. They may cause immune-system suppression
422. Vitamin B1 is: a. Ascorbic acid b. Cyanocobalamin c. Riboflavin d. Thiamine
d. Thiamine
130. Physical signs of hypocoagulation include all of the following, except: a. Petechiae or ecchymoses b. Epistaxis c. Hematuria d. Thromboembolism
d. Thromboembolism
78. Different nitrogen bases are found in both DNA and RNA nucleotides. Which nucleotide is only found in DNA? a. Adenine (A) b. Cytosine (C) c. Guanine (G) d. Thymine (T)
d. Thymine (T)
208. Which of the following is a disadvantage of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay? a. Sensitivity b. Specificity c. Rapid results d. Titer detection
d. Titer detection
124. For which of the following diagnostics is low-power magnification on the microscope not used? a. To detect the presence of rouleaux b. To detect RBC agglutination c. To detect clumping of platelets d. To estimate platelet numbers
d. To estimate platelet numbers
661. What is the function of the retractor bulbi muscle? a. To move the eye upward b. To move the eye downward c. To move the eye outward d. To pull the eye deeper in the socket
d. To pull the eye deeper in the socket
420. The glossopharyngeal nerve is responsible for which of the following? a. Sensations from the head and teeth, chewing b. Eye movement c. Facial and scalp movement d. Tongue movement, swallowing, salivation, and taste
d. Tongue movement, swallowing, salivation, and taste
139. Which of the following is a lymphatic structure? a. Bile duct b. Islets of Langerhans c. Thyroid d. Tonsil
d. Tonsil
122. Oblique skull radiographs are used to evaluate which of the following in a rabbit? a. Incisors b. Lower dental arcade only c. Upper dental arcade only d. Tooth roots
d. Tooth roots
294. What causes dark granules called Döhle bodies in the cytoplasm of canine neutrophils? a. Leukemia b. Parasitic infection c. Immaturity d. Toxemia
d. Toxemia
442. A vaccine that produces immunity to a toxin is called a: a. Live b. Modified live c. Recombinant d. Toxoid
d. Toxoid
280. Which of these drugs most recently became controlled? a. Butorphanol b. Buprenorphine c. Fentanyl d. Tramadol
d. Tramadol
382. Which of the following drugs is a synthetic analog of codeine? a. Dextromethorphan b. Gabapentin c. Methocarbamol d. Tramadol
d. Tramadol
74. Which type of RNA copies the information in the DNA? a. Messenger RNA b. Ribosomal RNA c. Copy RNA d. Transfer RNA
d. Transfer RNA
197. The triangular-shaped muscle that originates from the dorsal midline and inserts on the spin of the scapula is which of the following? a. Latissimus dorsi b. Brachiocephalicus c. External intercostals d. Trapezius
d. Trapezius
466. Which of the following muscles of the horse is responsible for extending the elbow? a. Infraspinatus b. Gastrocnemius c. Pectoral d. Triceps
d. Triceps
421. What crystal is commonly described as having a coffin-lid appearance? a. Bilirubin crystal b. Calcium oxalate crystal c. Cystine crystal d. Triple phosphate crystal (Struvite)
d. Triple phosphate crystal (Struvite)
351. The acid-fast stain is used to identify the organism that causes: a. Anaplasmosis b. Colibacillosis c. Ringworm d. Tuberculosis
d. Tuberculosis
5. A prescription reads "2 tab q4h po prn until gone." The translation of these instructions is: a. Two tablets are to be taken four times per day for pain until all tablets are gone. b. Two tablets are to be taken four times per day under supervision by the veterinarian until all tablets are gone. c. Two tablets are to be taken every 4 hr with food and water until all tablets are gone. d. Two tablets are to be taken every 4 hr by mouth as needed until all tablets are gone.
d. Two tablets are to be taken every 4 hr by mouth as needed until all tablets are gone.
56. Clients should be cautioned against sticking Q-tips in the ears of their pets because they could rupture the: a. Oval window b. Round window c. Cochlea d. Tympanic membrane
d. Tympanic membrane
109. Why is UV-B lighting so important for herbivorous, insectivorous, and omnivorous lizards? a. UV-B lighting helps to keep these patients warm b. UV-B lighting helps with absorption of phosphorus and conversion of vitamin A c. UV-B lighting is required for absorption of vitamin C and normal behavior d. UV-B lighting is required for absorption of calcium and Vitamin D3 synthesis
d. UV-B lighting is required for absorption of calcium and Vitamin D3 synthesis
389. Which nucleotide occurs only in DNA? a. Adenine b. Guanine c. Cytosine d. Uracil
d. Uracil
156. Ammonia is metabolized by the liver and eliminated by the kidneys. Levels of which metabolic byproduct of ammonia are measured to assess kidney function? a. Phosphorus b. Creatinine c. Aspartate aminotransferase d. Urea nitrogen
d. Urea nitrogen
112. You are on an ambulatory call to Milkman's Dairy with Dr. Burrows. You are asked to bring the xylazine from the truck to sedate the patient. You are aware that when using this drug in the bovine, you must: a. Use adequate doses, because cattle tend to be resistant to its effects b. Always use it concurrently with a barbiturate to achieve adequate analgesia c. Not use xylazine because it is contraindicated in this species d. Use it at about of the equine dose
d. Use it at about of the equine dose
664. All of the following structures pass through the aortic hiatus, except: a. Aorta b. Thoracic duct c. Azygous vein d. Vagal nerve
d. Vagal nerve
10. A deformity, in which the interior angle of the joint, viewed frontally, is <180 degrees, is known as what? a. Axial rotation b. Windswept c. Valgus deformity d. Varus deformity
d. Varus deformity
253. Captopril is an example of a(n): a. Positive inotrope b. Antiarrhythmic c. Bronchodilator d. Vasodilator
d. Vasodilator
341. Which of the following body cavities is the largest? a. Dorsal b. Cranial c. Spinal d. Ventral
d. Ventral
38. On an electrocardiogram, the T wave is most closely associated with: a. Atrial depolarization b. Atrial repolarization c. Ventricular depolarization d. Ventricular repolarization
d. Ventricular repolarization
356. Which of the following drugs can be used to increase platelet numbers? a. Chlorambucil b. Doxorubicin c. Vinblastine d. Vincristine
d. Vincristine
349. What microorganisms are not free living? a. Algae b. Fungi c. Bacteria d. Viruses
d. Viruses
195. The __________ pleura overlays organs in the body. a. Parietal b. Viscous c. Partial d. Visceral
d. Visceral
380. In people, Toxocara canis is the causative agent of: a. Creeping eruption b. Scabies c. Hydatidosis d. Visceral larva migrans
d. Visceral larva migrans
51. The sensation of hunger falls under which general sense? a. Tactile sensation b. Pain sensation c. Proprioception d. Visceral sensation
d. Visceral sensation
96. Bird diets that include only seeds are often deficient in which of the following? a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin B d. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin A
83. A 3-month-old chow chow is presented to the pet emergency clinic because it has eaten a box of warfarin-based rat poison. Which of the following would be most useful to treat this toxicity? a. Protamine sulfate b. Coumarin c. Streptokinase d. Vitamin K
d. Vitamin K
170. Which of the following is/are not a side effect of oral glucocorticoid administration in dogs? a. Polyuria and polydipsia b. Polyphagia c. Hyperglycemia d. Vomiting
d. Vomiting
98. What precautions should you take when applying DMSO to an animal's skin? a. Wear a facial mask to avoid inhaling the fumes b. Apply a bandage to cover the area of application c. DMSO is irritating and should not be applied to skin d. Wear latex gloves to avoid contact with the drug
d. Wear latex gloves to avoid contact with the drug
57. Which condition would be typical of hypothyroidism? a. Decreased water consumption b. Oily hair coat c. Very active d. Weight gain
d. Weight gain
49. A snake presents to the clinic 12 hours after suspected foreign-body ingestion. Which of the following diagnostics should be performed first? a. Computed tomography b. Complete blood count c. Chemistry panel d. Whole-body radiographs
d. Whole-body radiographs
301. Each drug approved for use in food-producing animals has a time period given on the label between the last dose and when the animal can be slaughtered for food or when the milk can be sold. What is this period called? a. Half-life period b. Secretion period c. Refractory period d. Withdrawal period
d. Withdrawal period
629. The caudal end of the sternum of dogs is also referred to as the: a. Carpal b. Coxae c. Nuchae d. Xiphoid
d. Xiphoid
114. A cow is accidentally dosed with an equine dose of xylazine. What drug should be immediately administered? a. None; the equine and bovine doses of xylazine are the same b. Epinephrine c. Naloxone d. Yohimbine
d. Yohimbine
157. What is the reversal agent for xylazine? a. Fentanyl b. Naloxone c. Acepromazine d. Yohimbine
d. Yohimbine
20. A 10-kg dog has inadvertently been administered a dose of xylazine hydrochloride intended for a 30-kg dog. The correct reversal agent for this overdose is: a. Atropine b. Flumazenil c. Naloxone d. Yohimbine
d. Yohimbine
244. Radiographs of joints must include which of the following? a. The bones proximal to the joint b. The bones distal to the joint c. Only the joint needs to be imaged, excluding any surrounding bones d. of the bones proximal and distal to the joint
d. of the bones proximal and distal to the joint
250. What view is required for the evaluation of the nasal passages of small animals? a. Dorsoventral view b. Lateral view c. Rostrocaudal view d. Open-mouth view e. All of the above f. a and b only
e. All of the above
644. Which of the following are considered to be organic molecules? a. Lipids b. Proteins c. Nucleic acids d. Carbohydrates e. All of the above
e. All of the above
96. Which of the following factors should all personnel understand about MRI machines? a. No loose metallic objects can be near the machine b. It consists of a strong magnetic field c. The magnet is always on d. Every patient/employee should be screened for safety purposes e. All of the above
e. All of the above
127. Which of the following are ways to determine whether the animal is properly positioned in the ventrodorsal view? a. Rib and abdominal symmetry b. Wings of the ilium are symmetrical c. Coxofemoral joints are superimposed d. Rib heads are superimposed e. Both a and b f. Both c and d
e. Both a and b
350. Smooth muscle is found in which internal organ? a. Urinary bladder b. Heart c. Digestive tract d. All of the above e. Both a and c
e. Both a and c
412. The diencephalon of the brain consists of which of the following structures? a. Thalamus b. Pons c. Hypothalamus d. Both a and b e. Both a and c
e. Both a and c
560. There is a large blood supply to the flight muscles and wings of birds, via which artery? a. Pectoral artery b. Carotid artery c. Brachial artery d. All of the above e. Both a and c
e. Both a and c
51. Which of the following correctly describes a CT image? a. A two-dimensional image b. A matrix of pixel or picture elements c. A three-dimensional image d. A matrix of voxels e. Both c and d f. Both a and b
e. Both c and d
