Pharm exam 2 guide conti.. 91-95
A nurse should recognize that a patient who is infected with HIV is at the highest risk to develop opportunistic infections during which clinical phase of HIV? a Late b Intermediate c Initial d Prodromal
a
It would be priority to report which symptoms in a patient who is prescribed the -azole anti fungal drug fluconazole?. a. abdominal pain / diarrhea b. fever and blisters in mouth c. headache and photophobia d. nausea and vomiting
B - associated with stevens johnsons
The nurse identifies which medication as posing a significant risk of causing confusion, somnolence, psychosis, and visual disturbances in elderly patients? a Metronidazole [Flagyl] b Rifampin [Rifadin] c Ciprofloxacin [Cipro] d Daptomycin [Cubicin]
C elderly patients, ciprofloxacin [Cipro] poses a significant risk of confusion, somnolence, psychosis, and visual disturbances. Metronidazole, rifampin, and daptomycin are not associated with confusion in elderly patients.
An HIV + patient is prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole as treatment for active PCP infection. A priority nursing action is to monitor which lab tests a. AST and ALT b. BUN and creatine c. Complete blood count and differential d. electrolytes e. lipids f. PT and INR
b c
It would be greatest priority to consult with presider of enfuvirtide if patient is experienced a a. headache b. pain and tenderness of injection site c. positive pregnancy test d. weakness and tingling in extremeties
d
The nurse is preparing to administer IV ciprofloxacin to a patient with septic arthritis after arthroscopic surgery. It would be priority to review which ordered diagnostic test as soon as possible a. culture and sensitivity b. MRI c. Urinalysis d. X-ray
A
The nurse is reviewing laboratory tests before preparing to administer a dose of amphoteriin B Before administering the drug, it's a priority to record which result a. creatine levels b. ECG c. Liver function tests d. WBC count
A
The nurse identifies rifampin as useful in the treatment of which disorders? (Select all that apply.) a Tuberculosis b Active meningococcal infection c Leprosy d Prophylaxis of meningitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae e C difficile infection
A C D Rifampin is useful in the treatment of tuberculosis and can be used for prophylaxis of meningitis caused by H. influenzae. The treatment of leprosy is an unlabeled use. Rifampin is indicated for treatment of carriers of meningococcal infection, but not for active meningococcal infection. Rifampin is not indicated for the treatment of C. difficile infection.
A patient who takes multiple antibiotics starts to experience diarrheal stools. The nurse anticipates administration of which antibiotic if a stool sample tests positive for Clostridium difficile? a Rifaximin [Xifaxan] b Metronidazole [Flagyl] c Daptomycin [Cubicin] d Gemifloxacin [Factive]
B Metronidazole is the treatment of choice for antibiotic-associated colitis caused by C. difficile. Rifaximin, daptomycin, and gemifloxacin are not used in the treatment of C. difficile infection.
Which assessment finding suggests hypokalemia and should be reported to the prescriber for moxifloxacin a. confusion and irritability b. constipation and weakness c. diarrhea and vomiting d. tremor and numbness
B
The nurse assess a six year old child who's receiving ciprofloxacin for a complicated UTi. Whats the priority concern? a. Abdominal pain b. fluid/electrolyte balance c. nutrition d. skin integrity
B - Cipro can cause a variety of GI reactions (vomiting/fever) which would put child at risk
When a patient is prescribed a fluoroquinolone that is known to cause prolongation of the QT interval on ECG, the nurse should monitor of electrolytes for which result that is most likely to increase the risk of this adverse effect (select all) a. Chloride less than 98mEq/L b. Magnesium less than 1.3mEq/L c. Potassium less than 3.5mEq/L d. Sodium less than 135mEq/L
B C electrolyte imbalances can trigger QT prolongations
A patient is taking daptomycin [Cubicin]. The nurse should obtain a creatine phosphokinase (CPK) level when the patient shows what? a Increased urination and urinary urgency b Muscle pain and weakness c Abdominal bloating and diarrhea d Headache and visual disturbances
B Daptomycin is one of the cyclic lipopeptides, a class of antibiotics that can kill gram-positive bacteria, including methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). It may pose a small risk of myopathy (muscle injury). Patients should be warned about muscle injury and told to report any pain or weakness. In addition, CPK levels should be measured weekly. Increased urination and urinary urgency, abdominal bloating and diarrhea, and headache and visual disturbances are not associated with daptomycin.
When providing teaching for a patient starting flucytosine [Ancobon] therapy, the nurse identifies what as the priority concern? a "You will have weekly blood draws to monitor your liver function." b "Another very strong medication may be needed in addition to this one." c "You'll need to report any symptoms of bruising, fever, and fatigue." d "The dose is 10 pills, so take a few at a time over a 15-minute interval."
C Flucytosine [Ancobon] is used for serious infections caused by Candida and Cryptococcus neoformans. Bone marrow suppression may cause fatal agranulocytosis, so symptoms of bruising, fever, and fatigue could indicate life-threatening conditions. The other statements are true; however, they are not the priority concern. Flucytosine [Ancobon] is usually combined with amphotericin B. Treatment may require ingestion of 10 capsules 4 times per day. Taking these pills for a short time helps to reduce nausea. Hepatotoxicity is mild and reversible; liver function is monitored while the patient is receiving treatment.
The nurse notices tan lines around the arms of a female patient who is taking levofloxacin [Levaquin]. Which action should the nurse take? a No action is needed, because this is a temporary but expected side effect. b Continue the antibiotic with an anti-inflammatory medication. c Advise the patient to avoid sun exposure and wear sun screen when outside. d Discontinue the medication.
C Fluoroquinolones pose a risk of phototoxicity. Accordingly, patients should avoid sunlight and sunlamps, and should use protective clothing and a sunscreen if they must go outdoors.
A patient who has HIV and is taking the nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) zidovudine [Retrovir] reports vomiting, abdominal pain, fatigue, and hyperventilation. Which laboratory result is the priority for the nurse to evaluate? a Megakaryocytes b Red blood cell (RBC) counts c CD4 T-lymphocyte counts d Arterial blood lactate
D Potentially fatal lactic acidosis and hepatic steatosis (fatty liver) can occur with all NRTIs. Measuring arterial blood lactate is a priority for the diagnosis of lactic acidosis. Associated symptoms of nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, and hyperventilation may occur. Megakaryocytes, RBC counts, and CD4 T-lymphocyte counts also may be measured with NRTI therapy, but alterations in these values are not associated with the complication of lactic acidosis.
Which approach should a nurse take when administering an oral dose of levofloxacin [Levaquin]? a Give the medication with or without food. b Administer the drug with an oral dose of a magnesium-based antacid. c Premedicate the patient with diphenhydramine [Benadryl]. d Administer the drug with milk products
Levofloxacin should not be administered with milk products or antacids containing magnesium or aluminum, because this reduces absorption from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. However, this does not happen with most foods. Premedicating with diphenhydramine is unnecessary.
c
The antiretroviral medication raltegravir [Isentress] achieves therapeutic effectiveness through which action when administered to a patient infected with HIV? a It blocks the entry of HIV into CD4 T cells. b It increases protease enzyme activity. c It inhibits the enzyme integrase. d It destroys reverse transcriptase
It would be priority to report which lab result to presider if patient is presided valacyclovir a. CD4 less than 100/mm3 b. Hgb 11g/dL c. Platlets 220,000/mm3 d. WBC count 12,800
a
The nurse notes that a patient's medication list includes ceftriaxone. The patient reports a history of sexually transmitted infection but cannot recall the name of the infection. The nurse is aware that ceftriaxone is the preferred medication for treating which sexually transmitted infection? a Gonorrhea b Trichomonas c Chlamydia trachomatis d Bacterial vaginosis
a
Which action by the nurse would be a priority for preventing the most common complications of IV acyclovir therapy a. assess IV site before infusing the drug b. ensuring fluid intake of 2500-3000mL/24 hr c. reporting vomiting to prescriber d. teaching perineal hygiene
a
Which approach should a nurse take to administer intravenous (IV) acyclovir [Zovirax] to an immunocompromised patient? Infuse IV fluids during administration of the dose and for 2 hours afterward. Administer IV acyclovir diluted in 20 mL normal saline (NS) over 10 minutes. Only infuse the drug if the white blood cell (WBC) count is above 2500/mm3. Ask the provider to change the route to subcutaneous (subQ) injection.
a Acyclovir can cause renal damage, and hydration of the patient during the infusion and for 2 hours afterward minimizes this risk. Acyclovir is not given by IV bolus or by intramuscular (IM) or subQ injection. It is used to treat infections in immunocompromised patients, but the dose is not changed or affected by the WBC count.
A nurse is preparing to administer ganciclovir [Cytovene] to a patient for treatment of Cytomegalovirus (CMV) pneumonitis. Which laboratory result should the nurse recognize as a contraindication to use of this drug? a Neutrophil count below 500/mm3 b Platelet count of 350,000/mm3 c Serum calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL d Reduced forced vital capacity (FVC)
a Ganciclovir is used to treat and prevent CMV infection in immunocompromised patients. Bone marrow suppression is a dose-limiting toxicity of ganciclovir; therefore, the drug is contraindicated in patients with neutrophil counts below 500/mm3 or platelet counts below 25,000/mm3. It does not affect the serum calcium level or FVC, a measure of lung function in patients who have airflow-restrictive disorders.
Which outcome would a nurse establish for a patient with trichomoniasis who is receiving metronidazole [Flagyl]? a Decrease in yellow-green, odorous vaginal discharge b Absence of painful urination and watery discharge c Improvement in pain in the back of the testicles d Resolution of genital and perianal warts
a In women, trichomoniasis may be asymptomatic or may cause a diffuse, malodorous, yellow-green vaginal discharge, along with burning and itching sensations.
A nurse is administering an oral dose of itraconazole [Sporanox] to a patient at 10:00 AM. The nurse should administer a prescribed dose of famotidine [Pepcid] at which time? 9:00 AM . 10:00 AM 10:30 AM 11:00 AM
a Medications that lower gastric acidity, such as famotidine [Pepcid], can reduce absorption of oral itraconazole [Sporanox]. Those agents should be given at least 1 hour before itraconazole or 2 hours after. The other time, administrations would interfere with absorption of itraconazole
A nurse should teach a patient who has Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) about the dosing and therapeutic effects of which medication? a Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim] b Azithromycin [Zithromax] c Acyclovir [Zovirax] d Ganciclovir [Cytovene]
a PCP is a potentially fatal infection caused by Pneumocystis jiroveci. Among people with advanced HIV infection, it is the most common opportunistic infection. The preferred regimen for treatment and prophylaxis of PCP is trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole.
Which administration instruction should the nurse give a patient scheduled to start receiving the HIV fusion inhibitor enfuvirtide [Fuzeon]? a "Rotate injection sites in the arm, thigh, and abdomen." b "Take only when you consume low-fat meals." c "Dosing is optimal 30 minutes before meals." d "Injection-site reactions are usually uncommon."
a The primary action of enfuvirtide is to block the entry of HIV into CD4 T cells. It is administered through subcutaneous injection, and the injections should be rotated in the upper arm, thigh, and abdominal areas of the body. Injection-site reactions of pain, tenderness, erythema, and induration occur in almost every patient. Enfuvirtide is not an oral medication; dosing before meals or with low-fat meals is not a relevant instruction.
The nurse is aware that which treatments are used in nonpregnant women to treat bacterial vaginosis? (Select all that apply.) a Oral metronidazole b Vaginal metronidazole c Penicillin G d Tetracycline e Azithromycin [Zithromax]
a b In nonpregnant women, bacterial vaginosis can be treated orally with metronidazole, or intravaginally with metronidazole or clindamycin.
A nurse instills 1% silver nitrate topically into the eyes of a neonate on delivery to prevent conjunctivitis caused by what? (Select all that apply.) a Chlamydia spp. b Gonorrhea c Syphilis d Bacterial vaginosis e Herpes simplex type 2
a b Neonatal gonococcal infection is acquired through contact with infected cervical exudates during delivery and can cause blindness. A topical antibiotic should be instilled into both eyes after delivery. Infants born to women with a cervical chlamydial infection can acquire the infection during the birth process. These infants are at risk for conjunctivitis and pneumonia
The nurse is aware that mother-to-child transmission of HIV occurs primarily during labor and delivery. Which of the following can reduce the risk of transmission? (Select all that apply.) a ART during gestation to minimize maternal viral load b IV zidovudine to the mother during labor and delivery c Two forms of birth control, including barrier and hormonal d Oral or IV zidovudine to the infant for 6 weeks following delivery Correct e Planned induction of labor
a b d
A patient is receiving the protease inhibitor (PI) amprenavir [Agenerase]. Which laboratory results would the nurse evaluate as indicators of adverse effects of this medication? (Select all that apply.) a Plasma cholesterol level b Serum transaminases c Cardiac enzymes d Blood glucose level e Creatinine level
a b d All PIs cause hyperglycemia and diabetes, and patients should be instructed to report symptoms of polydipsia, polyphagia, and polyuria. In addition, PIs can increase serum levels of transaminases and should be used with caution in patients with chronic liver disease. Cholesterol should be measured for elevation caused by the use of PIs that results in a risk of cardiovascular events.
A nurse administering flu vaccines at an annual clinic should recognize that which individuals should be vaccinated, as recommended by the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP)? (Select all that apply.) a Women who will be pregnant during flu season b All children 6 months and older and older adults c Those who report severe allergy to chicken eggs d Those who have a history of Guillain-Barré syndrome e Those 6 months to 18 years old receiving aspirin therapy
a b e
The nurse identifies terbinafine [Lamisil] as useful for treating which conditions? (Select all that apply.) a Onychomycosis b Tinea corporis c Oropharyngeal candidiasis d Vulvovaginal candidiasis e Tinea pedis
a b e Terbinafine [Lamisil] is highly active against dermatophytes and is used to eradicate fungal infection of the nails (onychomycosis) and as topical therapy for ringworm infections (tinea corporis, tinea pedis). It is not effective against oropharyngeal and vulvovaginal candidiasis.
When teaching a patient about therapy with famciclovir, which statements does the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a Famciclovir is generally well tolerated. b Famciclovir is safe to use during pregnancy. c Famciclovir is administered intravenously. d Famiciclovir is used in the treatment of acute herpes zoster. e Famiciclovir is contraindicated in the treatment of herpes simplex genitalis.
a d
A nurse knows that which condition is a potential long-term complication in a patient with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? a Bacterial endocarditis b Infertility c Cervical cancer d Renal tubular necrosis
b
The nurse is reviewing test results for a patient who is presided itrzconazole. Which would warrant immediate consultation with the presciber? a. AST levels 35IU/L b. Brain natriuretic peptide 745 pg/mL c. Endocardiogram ejection fraction 60% d. Potassium 3.8mEq/L
b
A nurse develops a plan of care for a patient who has an outbreak of recurrent genital herpes and is taking oral acyclovir [Zovirax]. Which outcome should be included? a Minimal scarring from lesions b Less frequent eruption of lesions c Prevention of transmission to contacts d Complete eradication of the virus
b Acyclovir is used to treat herpes simplex infections caused by type 2 herpes simplex virus (HSV-2). For patients with recurrent herpes genitalis, oral therapy reduces the frequency with which lesions appear. It does not eradicate the virus or produce cure. Acyclovir does not prevent transmission of the virus to sexual contacts. It does not affect scarring from lesions.
A patient has been prescribed efavirenz [Sustiva]. The nurse should instruct the patient to use which administration approach to minimize central nervous system (CNS) adverse effects? a The drug should be taken in divided doses throughout the day. b Bedtime dosing is most effective. c The drug should be mixed only with an acidic beverage. d A steroid medication should be used concurrently.
b Efavirenz frequently causes CNS symptoms of dizziness, impaired consciousness, drowsiness, vivid dreams, and nightmares. Bedtime dosing can minimize CNS effects, which typically resolve in 2 to 4 weeks. Mixing with an acidic beverage, using a steroid medication concurrently, and taking efavirenz in divided doses throughout the day are not effective means of minimizing CNS effects.
A nurse planning care for a patient who is receiving nystatin [Mycostatin] should establish which outcome on the care plan? a Relief of nasal congestion b Decrease in mouth pain c Productive cough d Absence of urticaria
b Nystatin is an antifungal medication that is used for candidiasis of the skin, mouth, esophagus, intestine, and vagina. It can be administered orally and topically and will heal mouth lesions from oral candidiasis. Nystatin has no effect on nasal congestion and cough production. It does not cause urticaria.
A nurse should recognize that which laboratory result is used as a major factor in deciding when antiretroviral therapy is indicated for a patient infected with HIV? a Plasma HIV RNA assay b CD4 T-lymphocyte count c Western blot assay d OralQuick Rapid HIV-1 Antibody Test
b The CD4 T-cell count is the principal indicator of how much immunocompetence remains when a patient is infected with HIV. It is used as a guide in the initiation, discontinuation, and resumption of medications for opportunistic infections. A plasma HIV RNA assay is a measure of viral load that indicates HIV replication and magnitude and accordingly is used to predict clinical outcomes. The Western blot assay and OralQuick Rapid HIV-1 Antibody Test, respectively, are used for initial screening and follow-up confirmation of HIV infection.
Which finding does the nurse expect when assessing a male patient with secondary syphilis? a Heart valve and aortic damage b Skin lesions and flulike symptoms c Red, protruding, painless sore on the penis Incorrect d Thin, watery urethral discharge
b Two to 6 weeks after emergence of the primary lesion (a chancre, which is a hard, red, protruding, painless sore at the urethra of the penis), secondary syphilis develops. Symptoms of secondary syphilis result from the spread of Treponema pallidum by way of the bloodstream and manifest as skin lesions, along with flulike symptoms and enlarged lymph nodes.Heart valve and aortic damage may develop with tertiary syphilis
A patient who is presided rilpivirine reports loss of interest in usual activities. which nursing action is of greatest priority a. asking about difficulties coping with therapy b. assessing for thoughts of harming self c. identifying reasons for loss of interest d. providing a safe environment
b because it can cause depression
A nurse should recognize that for maximum therapeutic effects against the influenza virus, oseltamivir [Tamiflu] should be taken when? a Two days or more after symptom onset b When lung crackles are present c Within 12 hours of symptom onset d Only when fever is above 102°F
c
The nurse identifies which medication as the drug of choice for most infections caused by herpes simplex viruses and varicella-zoster virus? a Ganiciclovir b Amantadine c Acyclovir d Oseltamivir
c
The nurse is administering CIPRO to a patient who receives theophylline for asthma. Because of potential drug interactions the nurse should monitor theophylline levels and assess for a. constipation b. drowsiness c. tachycardia d. weakness
c
The nurse is preparing to administer IV acyclovir, it would be priority for nurse to provide interventions for which assessment finding a. BP150/85 b. creatine 0.9 mg/dL c. dry sticky oral mucous membranes d. 8 hour urine output 750mL
c
The throat culture of a 6 year old boy is positive for N. Gonorrhoeae. Whats the priority in the situation a. assessing for eye exudate b. calculating the dose of ceftriaxone to be administered c. ensuring safety of the child d. removing child from his home
c
When administering drugs that are potentially nephrotoxic, the nurse should consult the presciber before administering which OTC drugs a. antacids b. acetaminophen c. NSAIDS d. Laxatives
c
What is the priority instruction a nurse gives to a male patient who is scheduled to receive ribavirin [Rebetol] combined with peg-interferon-alfa-2a for treatment of hepatitis C? a "Combining these two medications will greatly increase response rates." b "An antidepressant can be prescribed to alleviate symptoms of depression." c "If you are sexually active, use two reliable forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy." d "It is very important that you have blood counts checked every 2 weeks."
c Because ribavirin is embryolethal when taken by female patients and causes sperm abnormalities when taken by males, it is a priority that pregnancy be avoided during its use. Pregnancy must be avoided by female patients and by female partners of men taking ribavirin. Couples should use two reliable forms of birth control during treatment and for 6 months afterward. It is less important that the patient know that ribavirin is not effective against hepatitis C unless it is combined with interferon alfa. Less important information to provide than avoiding pregnancy includes hemolytic anemia is an adverse effect; frequent blood checks are advised; and depression is an adverse effect of peg-interferon-alfa-2a for which antidepressants can be prescribed.
It is most important for the nurse to assess a patient taking itraconazole [Sporanox] for the development of what? Hair loss Skin rash Pedal edema Joint pain
c Itraconazole [Sporanox] has negative inotropic actions and may cause a transient decrease in the ventricular ejection fraction, thus precipitating heart failure. Pedal edema is a symptom of heart failure, and the nurse should assess for it. Skin rash, hair loss, and joint pain are unrelated to the use of itraconazole.
A nurse is providing teaching to a group of patients regarding flu season in the United States. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching? a In the United States, flu season usually peaks in October or November. b To ensure full protection, the best time to vaccinate is September. c For people who missed the best time, vaccinating as late as April may be of help. d The influenza vaccine may not be administered at the same time as the pneumococcal vaccine.
c Peak flu season in the United States is usually January or February. To ensure full protection, the best time to vaccinate is October or November. For people who missed the best time, vaccinating as late as April may be helpful. Influenza vaccine may be given at the same time as other vaccines, including pneumococcal vaccine.
A consulting urologist orders CIPRO 250mg 2x a day for a 72 year old woman with UTI. The patient is also receiving ferrous sulfate 300mg for anemia and calcium carbonate 400 mg 4x day for osteopenia. What should the nurse do? a. administer CIPRO 1 hr before other meds b. administer CIPRO 2 hours after other meds c. Consult with prescriber for directions d. hold the ferrous sulfate and calcium during CIPRO therapy
c absorption of CIPRO can be decreased when combined with antacids and other minerals
A patient is scheduled to receive intravenous amphotericin B. Which medication should a nurse administer as pretreatment before the infusion? a 10 units of regular insulin intravenously b 20 mg famotidine [Pepcid] in 50 mL of 5% dextrose c 50 mg of diphenhydramine [Benadryl] and 650 mg of acetaminophen d 1 g of calcium gluconate in 100 mL of normal saline
c almost all patients receiving Amph. B develop fever, chills, and nausea. Pretreatment with diphenhydramine and an analgesic, such as acetaminophen, can minimize or prevent these adverse effects. It is not beneficial to administer calcium gluconate, insulin, or famotidine as pretreatment.
When planning nursing interventions and teachings for the most common adverse effects of efavirenz which nursing problem should be the focus for the nurse a. circulation b. nutrition c. safety d. skin integrity
c because it can cause insomnia, dizziness, impaired consciousness
The nurse is aware that which medications are used to treat genital herpes? (Select all that apply.) a Oral metronidazole b Vaginal metronidazole c Acyclovir d Valacyclovir e Famciclovir
c d e Genital herpes can be treated with three drugs: acyclovir, famciclovir, and valacyclovir. These agents do not eliminate the virus, but they can reduce symptoms and shorten the duration of viral shedding and pain.
A patient is receiving weekly subcutaneous injections of peg-interferon-alfa-2a [Pegasys] for chronic hepatitis C. A nurse teaches the patient that which adverse effect will diminish with continued therapy? a Black, sticky, tarry stools b Lower leg muscle weakness c Dyspnea and wheezing d Flulike symptoms
d
Which antifungal agent is used as a one-time oral dose to treat vaginal yeast infections? Nystatin [Mycostatin] Caspofungin [Cancidas] Voriconazole [Vfend] Fluconazole [Diflucan]
d
ID: 18689997169 A nurse is teaching a patient who is scheduled to start taking itraconazole [Sporanox]. Which statement by the patient would indicate understanding of the teaching? a "I'll take diphenhydramine [Benadryl] before this medication so I don't have a reaction." b "It's important to remember to wear sunscreen while taking this medicine." c "I'll avoid citrus foods, such as oranges and grapefruits, while taking this medication." d "If I notice my skin turning yellow or feel any nausea, I'll notify my healthcare provider.
d Itraconazole may cause liver injury, and although a causal link has not been identified, patients need to be informed about symptoms to report. These include jaundice, nausea, and right upper abdominal pain. It is not necessary to take diphenhydramine, wear sunscreen, or avoid citrus products while taking itraconazole.
A patient is receiving amphotericin B. The nurse identifies which medication as useful in preventing adverse effects of amphotericin B? a Furosemide [Lasix] b Insulin c Vitamin K d Potassium
d Renal injury from amphotericin B may cause severe hypokalemia. Serum potassium levels should be monitored more frequently and potassium supplements given to correct low plasma levels. Furosemide, insulin, and vitamin K do not prevent any adverse effects of amphotericin B.
Which situation would warrant assessing for candida infection when the nurse is caring for a 6 month old breast fed infant who is presided CIPRO for pyelonephritis a. parents supplement breast milk with rice cereal b. infant has stool after each feeding c. infants stool is mushy and seedy d. infants sucking is interrupted by crying
d Symptoms of candida infection include pain when swallowing
A patient taking gemifloxacin develops a rash. The nurse anticipates the healthcare provider to take which action? a No action is needed, because this is a temporary but expected side effect. b Continue the antibiotic with an anti-inflammatory medication. c Cut the dose of medication in half. d Discontinue the medication
d The incidence of rash with gemifloxacin is much higher than with other fluoroquinolones. Women under 40 years of age are at greatest risk. Symptoms are severe in about 10% of patients who develop a rash; in the rest, symptoms are mild to moderate. As a rule, gemifloxacin-induced rash resolves spontaneously in 1 to 2 weeks, although some patients require treatment with systemic glucocorticoids. If rash develops, gemifloxacin should be discontinued
When teaching a patient who has genital herpes about treatment with valacyclovir [Valtrex], the nurse includes which statement? a "A condom needs to be worn only when symptoms of the virus are present." b "Although it is costly, continuous daily medication administration will eliminate the virus." c "Once the painful blisters heal, the infection has been cured and will not return." d "The intensity of infection episodes is reduced when the medication is taken daily."
d Valacyclovir [Valtrex] can reduce symptoms and shorten the duration of pain and viral shedding. Valacyclovir does not eliminate genital herpes entirely; therefore, patients must continue to use condoms and abstain from sex at times when the infection is active
The nurse would be most concerned that a patient may not adhere to therapy with which class of antiviral drugs if the patient verbalized that body image is an important priority a. fusion inhibitor b. NRTI c. non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor d. protease inhibitor
d an adverse effect is that it can redistribute fat
A neonate was delivered vaginally to a mother with an active C. trachomatis infection. Relating to exposure, what is the priority system when caring for the neonate a. gastrointestinal b. ophthalmic c. renal d. respiratory
d because infants are at risk for pneumonia